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505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-1

1. . Somewhat based on a problem in Schwabl.

(a) Suppose n is a . We are interested in n σ. Show that (n σ)2 = I, where I is the identity . · · Solution 2 We will use the properties of the that σi = I and σi,σj = 0, provided i = j. { } 6 2 (n σ) =(nxσx + nyσy + nzσz)(nxσx + nyσy + nzσz) · 2 2 2 2 2 2 = nxσx + nyσy + nzσz

+ nxny(σxσy + σyσx) + nynz(σyσz + σzσy) + nznx(σzσx + σxσz) 2 2 2 =(nx + ny + nz)I = I

End Solution

The unitary which generates a by ϕ about the axis n in spinor is iϕ n S/¯h U = e · .

(b) Show that U = cos ϕ/2 + in σ sin ϕ/2. · Solution First, we note that n S/¯h = n σ/2. Second, we expand the exponential in a and note that since· (n σ)2 =· I, even terms in the series will involve the and odd terms will involve· n σ to the first power. · iϕ n S/¯h i(ϕ/2)(n σ) U = e · = e · in in−1 = I (ϕ/2)n + i(n σ) (ϕ/2)n n! n! n=0,2,4,... · n=1,3,5,... X X = I cos ϕ/2 + i(n σ) sin ϕ/2 , · End Solution

(c) Show that UσU † = n(n σ) n (n σ) cos ϕ +(n σ) sin ϕ. · − × × × You might find it helpful to remember that a product of two Pauli matrices gives the identity matrix or plus or minus i times the third Pauli matrix according to the formula σiσj = δij + iǫijkσk ,

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-2

where the summation convention is assumed and where we have just used 1 in place of I. Solution

UσU † = (cos ϕ/2 + in σ sin ϕ/2)σ(cos ϕ/2 in σ sin ϕ/2) · − · = cos2 ϕ/2 σ + i cos ϕ/2 sin ϕ/2(n σ σ σ n σ) + sin2 ϕ/2 n σ σ n σ · − · · · At this , we just grind out the ith component of each term. The first term is just 2 cos ϕ/2 σi. For the second term, we need

n σ σi σi n σ = njσjσi σinjσj · − · − = nj[σj,σi]

=2injǫjikσk

= 2iǫijknjσk − = 2i (n σ) , − × i and the middle term is sin ϕ (n σ) . × i For the third term we need

n σ σi n σ = njσjσinkσk · · = njnkσjσiσk

= njnk(δji + iǫjilσl)σk

= ni n σ + injnkǫjil(δlk + iǫlkmσm) · = ni n σ njǫjilǫlkmnkσm · − = ni n σ njǫjil(n σ)l · − × = ni n σ + ǫijlnj(n σ)l · × = ni n σ +(n (n σ)) · × × i

The second term looks like what we want, but we still have more work to do on the first and third terms. We combine the two terms and use the identities cos2 ϕ/2 = (1+cos ϕ)/2 and sin2 ϕ/2=(1 cos ϕ)/2 to get − (σ + n(n σ) + n (n σ))/2 + cos ϕ(σ n(n σ) n (n σ))/2) . · × × − · − × × We now use the vector identity A (B C) = B(A C) C(A B). In the first term above, × × · − ·

(σ + n(n σ) + n (n σ))/2=(σ + n(n σ) + n(n σ) σ(n n))/2 = n(n σ) . · × × · · − · ·

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-3

In the second term, we have

cos ϕ(σ n(n σ) n (n σ))/2) = cos ϕ(σ n(n σ) n(n σ) + σ(n n))/2 − · − × × − · − · · = cos ϕ(σ n(n σ)) − · = cos ϕ(n (n σ)) . − × × Putting everything together, we get the desired result:

UσU † = n(n σ) n (n σ) cos ϕ +(n σ) sin ϕ. · − × × ×

End Solution

(d) Consider the special case n = ez and discuss infinitesimal rotations. Solution In this case,

1 + iδϕ/2 0 U 1 + iσzδϕ/2 = , → 0 1 iδϕ/2  −  and ′ † σ = UσU σ exσyδϕ + eyσxδϕ. → − The rotation about the z-axis carries a little bit of the x-component of the Pauli operator into the y-direction and a little bit of the y-component into the negative x-direction, just as what happens with an ordinary vector under rotation. End Solution

(e) For a spinor α χ = + , α  −  ′ calculate the transformed spinor χ for n = ez. Solution

′ α+ χ = Uχ = (cos ϕ/2 + iσz sin ϕ/2) α−   1 0 1 0 α = cos ϕ/2 + i sin ϕ/2 + 0 1 0 1 α−     −    α cos ϕ/2 + iα sin ϕ/2 α e+iϕ/2 = + + = + . α− cos ϕ/2 iα− sin ϕ/2 iϕ/2  −  α−e− ! End Solution

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-4

(f) What happens to the spinor when ϕ =2π? Solution The spinor changes sign! A rotation of 4π is required to bring the spinor back to its original state! This is a weird property of fermions. However, expectation values involve χ 2 so the sign cancels out! | | End Solution

2. precession.

(a) The 1 0 = = , |↑i 0 |↓i 1     are the eigenfunctions of σz. They are an orthonormal, complete in which σz is diagonal. In this same basis, what are the eigenfunctions (spinors) of σx and σy? Solution The eigenvalues are 1, so the expression for the of σx is ± 0 1 a a = , 1 0 b ± b       which gives b = a. In order that the spinors be normalized, we take a = b = 1/√2. ± | | | | Then the eigenspinors of σx are

1 1 1 1 x = x = . |↑ i √2 1 |↓ i √2 1    − 

For σy, 0 i a a − = , i 0 b ± b       which gives b = ia. Again, we must take a = b =1/√2 and the eigenspinors of σy are ± | | | | 1 1 1 1 y = y = . |↑ i √2 i |↓ i √2 i    −  End Solution

Now we consider a spin 1/2 particle in a uniform magnetic field. For definiteness, we suppose it’s an , so the Hamiltonian for the spin degree of freedom is ge e H = S B S B . 2mc · ≈ mc ·

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-5

χ (b) The state of the system is represented by the spinor χ = + . What is the equation χ− of for χ? After writing down the equation for the general case, specialize to the case B = Bez. Your results should depend on the frequency ω = eB/mc which will out to be the precession frequency. Solution It’s just the Schroedinger equation (also known as the in this case).

∂ χ+ e χ+ χ+ Bz Bx iBy χ+ i¯h = S B = µBσ B = µB − . ∂t χ− mc · χ− · χ− Bx + iBy Bz χ−        −   

When B = Bez, the equation of motion becomes

∂ χ µBB 1 0 χ ω 1 0 χ i + = + = + , ∂t χ− ¯h 0 1 χ− 2 0 1 χ−    −     −   

where ω = 2µBB/¯h = eB/(mc) is the frequency (which will turn out to the precession frequency). End Solution

(c) In the case with B = Bez, and in the Heisenberg representation, what is the time dependence of the spin operator, S(t)? Solution In the Heisenberg representation,

dS i z = [H, S ]=0 , dt ¯h z so Sz(t) = Sz(0). For the other two components, it’s more convenient to work with Sx iSy. ± d i (Sx iSy) = [H, Sx iSy] dt ± ¯h ± ieB = [Sz, Sx iSy] mc¯h ± ieB = i¯h(Sy iSx) mc¯h ∓ ieB = (Sx iSy) . ± mc ± This means iωt Sx(t) iSy(t) = e (Sx(0) iSy(0)) , ± ± ± or Sx(t) = cos ωt Sx(0) sin ωt Sy(0) − Sy(t) = sin ωt Sx(0) + cos ωt Sy(0) .

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-6

End Solution

(d) In the case with B = Bez, and in the Schroedinger representation, what is the time dependence of the spinor, χ(t)? Solution

iHt/¯h χ(t) = e− χ(0) . The argument of the exponential is

iHt ieBt iωt − = − Sz = − Sz = iϕn S/¯h, ¯h mc¯h ¯h ·

provided we identify ϕ = ωt and n = ez. This form is exactly the form for the unitary operator discussed in problem− 1, so the time dependence of χ is

χ (t) 1 0 1 0 χ (0) χ(t) = + = cos( ωt/2) + i sin( ωt/2) + χ−(t) − 0 1 − 0 1 χ−(0)       −    iωt/2 χ (0) = e− 0 + 0 e+iωt/2 χ−(0)     iωt/2 e− χ+(0) = +iωt/2 . e χ−(0) !

This makes sense. The up and down states are the stationary states of the Hamiltonian with energyhω/ ¯ 2 for the up state. The spin in the up state is aligned with B, but the magnetic moment is anti-aligned, so the energy is higher than in the down state which has energy ¯hω/2. − End Solution

(e) At t = 0, the spin is aligned along the x axis. What is the probability of gettingh/ ¯ 2 in a measurement of Sz at time t. Solution The initial state must be (to within a phase!)

1 1 χ(0) = x = . |↑ i √2 1  

From part (e), we find the state at time t and project that onto z to find the amplitude for going to spin up along z, and then square it to get the probability.h↑ |

2 e iωt/2/√2 1 P ( ) = (1 0) − = , z +iωt/2 ↑ e √2 ! 2

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-7

which shouldn’t be a surprise. If the spin is pointed along the x axis, it’s equally likely to be up or down if a measurement is made along the z axis. When the spin is in a magnetic field in the z-direction it precesses about the z-axis which does not change its z-component (or the of its z-component). End Solution

(f) At t = 0, the spin is aligned along the x axis. What is the probability of gettingh/ ¯ 2 in a measurement of Sx at time t. Solution We solve this part the same way, except we project onto x . h↑ | 2 e iωt/2/√2 P ( ) = (1/√2 1/√2) − = cos2 ωt/2 = (1+cos(ωt))/2 , x +iωt/2 ↑ e √2 !

so the spin is, in fact, precessing with a frequency ω!

The solutions to parts (e) and (f) have been based on the Schroedinger representation. In the Heisenberg representation, we could ask about the expectation value of Sx(t). Recall that the state does not change. We use Sx(t) from part (c).

0he ¯ iωt/2 1/√2 ¯h Sx(t) =(1/√2 1/√2) = cos ωt, h i ¯he iωt/2 0 1/√2 2  −    which is consistent with the idea that the spin is precessing around the z-axis, which means its projection on the x-axis oscillates between ¯h/2. ± End Solution

3. Magnetic Resonance. This problem continues from where problem 2 ended. We have an electron in a uniform magnetic field along the z-axis. In addition, we have a small, time variable field along the x-axis: Bx = Bp cos ωt, where ω is determined by the field in the z-direction, ω = eB/mc. We suppose that at t = 0, the electron has spin down along the z-axis. The experimental picture is that the magnetic moment of the electron is aligned with the field (so the spin is anti-aligned) and the “probe” field is turned on at t = 0. What happens? In particular what is Sz(t) ? Use the interaction representation to solve this problem. h i

Hint: The probe field is oscillating along the x-axis. However you can think of it as the sum of two fields, each rotating in the xy- with angular velocity ω. One rotates in the positive direction and one rotates in the negative direction. When you transform the Hamiltonian due to the probe field to the interaction representation, one of these will wind up stationary, and the other will wind up rotating at 2ω. Make an argument for why the 2ω term can be ignored and then proceed with the stationary term.

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-8

Solution The additional term in the Hamiltonian is eB V (t) = p S cos ωt =2ω S cos ωt. mc x p x In the , the operators evolve just as they did in the , so we can use problem 2, part (c) for the S(t). In particular Sz(t) = Sz(0), so that was easy!

Transforming the extra term in the Hamiltonian requires a bit more work. First, as mentioned in the hint, we can write the extra magnetic field as the sum of B+ + B− with

Bp B± = (cos ωt ex sin ωt ey) , 2 ±

Then the extra term is V+ + V− with

eBp V± = (Sx cos ωt Sy sin ωt) . 2mc ± Now we must transform this extra term to the Heisenberg representation based on the Hamiltonian without V . Again, we use problem 2(c) and replace Sx(t) by its expression in terms of Sx(0) and Sy(0) and similarly for Sy(t).

2 2 VI±(t) = ωp cos ωtSx(0) cos ωt sin ωtSy(0) sin ωtSx(0) cos ωt sin ωtSy(0) . − ± ± So,  VI+(t) = ωpSx(0) ,

VI−(t) = ωp (cos2ωtSx(0) sin2ωtSy(0)) . − The integral of the Hamiltonian with time gives the phase of the . VI− is oscillating (about 0) twice as fast as anything else, so it essentially never has time to build up an appreciable phase. Thus we ignore it and continue with VI+(t) which is just a constant.

The state evolves as states in the Schroedinger representation, but with the interaction Hamiltonian rather than the full Hamiltonian. ∂ i¯h χ = V (t)χ ∂t I+

iVI+(t)/¯h iωpex S(0)t/¯h χ(t) = e− χ(0) = e− · χ(0) . Again, we make use of problem 1 to write this as

χ(t) = (cos( ωpt/2) + iσx(0) sin( ωpt/2)) χ(0) . − −

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-9

The state at t = 0 is spin down along the z-axis, so

χ+ cos ωpt/2 i sin ωpt/2 0 i sin ωpt/2 = − = − . χ− i sin ωpt/2 cos ωpt/2 1 cos ωpt/2    −      So we have found how the state evolves due to the probe field and we know how Sz evolves due to the main field, and we can calculate Sz h i

¯h/2 0 i sin ωpt/2 ¯h Sz(t) = ( +i sin ωpt/2 cos ωpt/2) − = cos ωpt. h i 0 ¯h/2 cos ωpt/2 − 2  −    After all that, we have a very simple answer! The spin flips up and down with frequency ωp. Physically, the Heisenberg representation, in this case, corresponds to a frame rotating with the precessing spin. Since we made the probe field oscillate with the same frequency as the rotation, it split into two pieces, one that’s stationary in the rotating frame and one that’s rotating like mad and has no net effect. Since the field is stationary in the rotating frame, it causes the spin to precess about this field in the rotating frame and it oscillates between aligned and anti-aligned. You have just discovered the principle of magnetic resonance imaging (which generally uses nuclear spins, but the idea is the same). A sample is placed in a strong field, this causes the spins to precess. Because the environment of the spins depends not only on the applied field, but the field due to neighbors, the actual precession frequency will vary with chemical environment. The probe field is scanned in frequency (slowly compared to ω and ωp) and there will be an absorption and emission of energy by the sample as the resonant frequency is passed. The strength of the signal depends on the density of aligned spins. A lot can be learned about the sample by studying how the spins precess and flip! End Solution

4. Combining angular . Two electron spins, S1 and S2 can be summed to produce a total J = S1 + S2. The states jms1 s2 can be expanded | i in the states s1 m1 s2 m2 . Determine the expansion. | i| i Solution Addition of two spin 1/2 angular momenta produces a spin 1 system with j = 1 and m = 1, 0, +1, (the triplet) and a spin system with j = 0 and m = 0. So, − 1, +1, 1/2, 1/2 = 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 . | i | i| i Recall that L± l m =¯h l(l + 1) m(m 1) l, m 1 . | i − ± | ± i We operate with J− = S1− + S2− pto get

1(1+ 1) 1(1 1) 1, 0, 1/2, 1/2 = − − | i p (1/2)(1/2+1) (1/2)(1/2 1) 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 − − | − i| i +p(1/2)(1/2+1) (1/2)(1/2 1) 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 , − − | i| − i p Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth Physics 505 Homework No. 8 Solutions S8-10

or 1 1, 0, 1/2, 1/2 = ( 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 + 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 ) . | i √2 | − i| i | i| − i

If we operate with J− again, we find

1, 1, 1/2, 1/2 = 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 . | − i | − i| − i Finally,

1 0, 0, 1/2, 1/2 = ( 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 1/2, 1/2 ) . | i √2 | − i| i−| i| − i

We find this by noting that it must be orthogonal to 1, 0, 1/2, 1/2 and it must contain | i the same m1 and m2 states that add 0.

Comment: we will learn later that the wave functions for Fermions must be anti- symmetric (that is, change sign), when any two Fermions are exchanged. The above is anti-symmetric, so this must be combined with a symmetric state for the spatial wave function to have a suitable overall state. Similarly, the triplet state must be combined with an anti-symmetric spatial wave function. End Solution

Copyright c 2012, Edward J. Groth