Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1: What is defined as an art and science of beautifying, and improving the skin and nails: Q8: Archaeological studies reveal that haircutting and hairstyling were practiced in some form as early as the: A Barbering B X Cosmetology A Roman Empire C Esthiology B Medieval period D Nail Technology C Renaissance D X Ice Age Q2: In the late 1960's Vidal Sassoon turned the hairstyling world on its ear with his revolutionary: Q9: What year did Creative Nail Design introduced the first spa pedicure system to the professional industry: A symmetric cuts B asymmetric cuts A 1994 C X geometric cuts B X 1998 D biometric cuts C 1992 D 1990 Q3: Many ______had fantastic careers in the salon before they decided to dedicate themselves to teaching new professionals the Q10: Within the industry there are numerous areas you may wish tricks of the trade: to specialize in such as the following, Hair color specialist, Texture specialist, Cutting specialist, Salon trainer, Distributor and: A Teachers B Plat form artist A Receptionist C X Instructors B X Cosmetology Instructor D Teachers aid C Speaker D Operator Q4: In history, bloodletting was a medical procedure thought to: Q11: Women used hair color to indicate their class in society: A X strengthen the immune system B reduce the chance of blood clotting A X True C diminish the risk of infection B False D strengthen the heart rate Q12: Where did Max Factor emigrate to? Q5: One of the most austere and restrictive periods in history with respect appearance enhancement was the: A Europe B France A Renaissance C Egypt B X Victorian age D X Untied States C Golden Age D Middle Ages Q13: What year did the industry of cosmetics grow rapidly?

Q6: The barber pole is believed to represent the ______that A X 1920 patients held tightly to make the veins in their arms stand out B 1930 during the procedure: C 1940 D 1900 A basin B bandage Q14: Ancient records show that matter made from berries, C X staff minerals, insects to create makeup on their ____ lips, skin, & D knife henna to stain their hair and nails a rich warm red:

Q7: Women wore colored makeup on their cheeks and lips, but not A clothes on their eyes during the: B X eyes C eyelashes A X Middle Ages D body B Renaissance C Golden Age D Ice Age

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q15: The barber pole is the symbol of the barber surgeon and D Queen Nebettawy results from the bloodletting procedure, Pole= the staff, Bottom= basin, White bandages= ______: Q22: Noble women tinted their hair red, middle class women colored their hair blond, and poor women colored their hair: A Candy cane B Heal wounds A Blue black C Clogging B Dark brown D X Stop the bleeding C X Black D Copper Q16: The first to cultivate beauty in an extravagant fashion and use cosmetics as part of their personal beautification habits, in Q23: In ancient Greece, what mineral was ground to make brilliant religious ceremonies, and when preparing the deceased for burial: red pigment?

A the Romans A Copper B the Greeks B Nickel C X the Egyptians C X Cinnabar D the Indians D Kohl

Q17: The ______1837-1901 women used facial masks, and Q24: In ancient Rome, middle-class women colored their hair: packs, fragrances & cosmetics: A X blond A Greeks B red B Middle Ages C black C X Victorian Ages D brown D Romans Q25: What were the royal colors, throughout the Chou Dynasty, Q18: Romans made lavish use of fragrances and cosmetics: (1100 B.C.)

A X True A Royal blue & gold B False B X Gold & Silver C Gold & Blue Q19: Archeological studies, reveal that haircutting and hairstyling D Silver & Blue were practiced as early as the Ice Age, over 10,000 years ago, the implements that were used were, Sharpened flints, Oyster shells, Q26: Long term goals are measured in larger sections of time: Bone, Animal sinew or: A 1-3yrs A X Strips of hide B 3-5yrs B Strips of metal C X 5-10yrs C Strips of wood D 10yrs D Strips of rubber Q27: By making a list of task that need to be done in the order of Q20: As early as what age did the Egyptians use minerals, insects, most to least important is to: and berries to create makeup for their eyes, lips, and skin, and henna to stain their hair and nails a rich, warm red: A X prioritize B make notes A 3500 B.C. C time management B 4000 B.C. D goal setting C X 3000 B.C. D 5000 B.C. Q28: Learn problem-solving techniques that will save you time and needless: Q21: In ancient Egypt, who erected a personal cosmetics factory next to the Dead Sea: A energy B X frustration A X Queen Cleopatra C time B Queen Nefertiti D money C Queen Hatshepsut

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q29: Make time management a: Q37: A unhealthy compulsion to do things perfectly is

A activity A Procrastination B quiet B productive C X habit C X perfectionism D task D personal

Q30: Imagining yourself working in your dream salon is to: Q38: By its nature, The salon is a creative workplace where you are expected to exercise your: A X visualize B see yourself A thoughts C understand B time D success C situations D X artistic talent Q31: Part of developing consistently good study habits is knowing when, where and how to study. Q39: Life skills include always striving for excellence.

A X True A X True B False B False

Q32: Being______is a good thing, because it lets people Q40: Putting off until tomorrow, What you can do today? know where you are coming from. A being lazy A nice B goal setting B happy C X procrastination C mad D practice D X assertive Q41: Do not interrupt others and practice being a good: Q33: Every successful business has a: A X listener A owner B a friend B X business plan C angry C capital D worker D ethics Q42: Continually seek further education and never stop: Q34: There are two types of goals: A changing A monthly B waiting B X short term and long term C X Learning C weekly D being afraid D daily Q43: The ultimate responsibility for learning is your teacher’s Q35: Goal setting helps you decide what you want out of: responsibility.

A work A True B X life B X False C school D services Q44: A set of tools and guidelines for successful living is also known as: Q36: Having a game plan is the conscious act of: A project management A being happy B prioritizing B X planning your life C X life skills C motivation D long hours D success Q45: An effective way to stay calm when under stress is to:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q53: Many salons have no ______for staff members during A X take deep breaths work hours B self-medicate C avoid the situation A dress code D hold in your feelings B X Fragrance policy C rules Q46: Writing a mission statement helps to establish: D classes

A better communication Q54: While you are at your place of employment you will need to B X values and goals consider whether your wardrobe selection express a C understanding others D creativity A new look B ethic Q47: To stay focused on studying, it helps to keep your goals in C X Professional image mind. D natural look

A X True Q55: Wear shoes that are comfortable have, B False A platform Q48: Short term goals are accomplished in: B high heels C X low heel & good support A X a year or less D flat B 3yrs C 5-10years Q56: Good posture is a very important part of your D none of the above A body Q49: The moral principles we live and work by are: B life C feet A X ethics D X Physical presentation B character C feelings Q57: Make sure that your clothing is D creativity A X clean Q50: Rules for success: B iron C in style A listen attentively to your teacher D colorful B take notes for later review C attend all classes Q58: when you work within the field of cosmetology sitting D X all of the above improperly can put a great deal of stress on your

Q51: Daily maintenance of cleanliness by practicing good sanitary A shoulder, feet, hands habits B arms, feet, back C X neck, shoulders and back A Physical presentation D fingers, knees shoulders B X Personal hygiene C perfectionism Q59: ______is the study of how workplace can best be D motivators designed for comfort, safety, efficiency & productivity

Q52: One of the most vital aspects of good personal grooming is A cosmetology the careful maintenance of your B X Ergonomics C manicurist A style D cosmetician B posture C body Q60: Being well groomed begins with looking and D X Wardrobe A smiling

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B personal image A strength C sanitize B figure D X smelling fresh C joints D X balance Q61: Your hygiene pack should include Q69: Always put your ______first and then the task at hand A toothbrush & toothpaste B Deodorant or antiperspirant A style C mouthwash & floss B work D X all of the above C X health D self Q62: It helps promote your professional image Q70: Each year hundreds of cosmetology professionals report A clothing B well groomed A diabetes C up do's B X musculoskeletal disorders D X make up C stress D in danger Q63: If you smoke cigarettes don't smoke during working hours. Q71: Inability to cope with a threat, real or imagined to our well- A X True being, which results in a series of responses and adaptations by our B False minds and bodies, tension caused by a situation

Q64: Your ______should reflect the fashion of the season A X stress by embodying current styles, colors, textures, and so forth B ergonomics C ethics A shoes D image B X clothing C hair Q72: Change your style frequently or as often as you feel D purse comfortable to keep up with

Q65: keep the neck elongated and ______directly above the A fashion shoulders B X trends C work A X balanced D friends B tightly C angle Q73: ______repetitive motions have a cumulative effect on D stressful the muscles and joints

Q66: When shopping for work clothes, you should always A hands ______how you would look in them. B X stressful C back A try on D joints B ask for opinions C X visualize Q74: Accessorize your outfits, but make sure that your jewelry D try on makes a clank and jingle while working

Q67: Expertly applied make up is part of having a A True B X False A physical presentation B X professional image Q75: Working as a ______behind the chair or doing make C great day up, nail care, or skin care means that you must be extremely D pretty face meticulous about your hygiene

Q68: Working in high heels can throw off the body's A manicurist B barber

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X stylist D 45-60 minutes D doctor Q83: What is the very first thing you should do when meeting a Q76: The act of transmitting information, in the form of symbols, new client? gestures, or behaviors, in order to express an idea or concept so that it is satisfactorily understood is known as: A hurry B X smile A sign language C prepare B X communication D saunter C listening D speaking Q84: When is it appropriate to argue with a client?

Q77: Keep your private life: A when they are late B when they arrive on the wrong day A in public view C when they are dissatisfied B X in private D X absolutely, unquestionably never C in the newspaper D around gossip Q85: If a client is dissatisfied with the service and you are trying to find out why, what is one of the first steps you should take? Q78: An important strategy to use when conducting a client consultation is known as ______: A gloss over the problem B X ask for specifics A interrupting regularly C try to cover up the issue B avoiding eye contact D promise to do better C talking loudly D X reflective listening Q86: As you interact and communicate with fellow coworker, remember to treat everyone with ______: Q79: The most important communication you will have with your clients is the ______: A X respect B indifference A X client consultation C aloofness B initial greeting D criticism C sales pitch D friendly chit-chat Q87: In dealing with conflicts that may occur between you & coworkers, it is important to ______: Q80: What tool can be used to put your clients at ease about your technical skills abilities: A get involved B take sides A style book C X remain neutral B fashion magazines D offer opinions C X personal portfolio D letter of recommendation Q88: When bringing issues or problems to your supervisor or salon manager, it is important to be ______: Q81: The solution is not to try to control the circumstances, but to? A an antagonist A X communicate past the issue B a complainer B Do not communicate with your client C X a problem-solver C have the manager resolve the problem D a tattle-tale D ignore the circumstances Q89: One of the ways you can participate in your career success is Q82: When conducting a client consultation with a first-time by approaching your employee evaluation sessions ______: client, how much time should you schedule for the consultation? A fearfully A X 5-15 minutes B skeptically B 15-20 minutes C apprehensively C 20-30 minutes D X positively

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A ignore Q90: The best way to understand others is to begin with a firm B use personal preference understanding of ______: C not repeat D X repeat A your parents B X yourself Q98: A fundamental factor in human relations has to do with how C cosmetology insecure we are feeling? D anthropology A True Q91: People who are rude, insensitive, and generally unfeeling are B X False usually ______: Q99: The golden rules of human relations: A mature B immature A Show rudeness C responsible B Show you insecurities D X insecure C X Show patience with other people's flaws D Show your anger Q92: Effective human relations and communication skills build lasting client relationships: Q100: How do you accommodate an unhappy client:

A X True A ignoring them B False B smiling at them C yelling at them Q93: How can you help a client make choices that reflect a D X promptly and calmly personal sense of style? Q101: Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are obtained from: A Look for books or articles that describe different characters B Look for books or articles that describe different artifacts A the EPA C Look for books or articles that describe different human B the salon manger or owner behavior C X the product manufacturer D X Look for books or articles that describe different fashion D OSHA styles Q102: Regulatory agencies and governmental health departments Q94: An intake form----also called a client questionnaire or: require businesses that serve the public to:

A application A complete a self-evaluation procedures B resume B X follow prescribed sanitary precautions C X consultation card C create individual sanitary precautions D client information card D have an employee orientation procedure

Q95: How should you prepare for a client consultation: Q103: Bacteria are very small and can only be seen with the aid of

A video A X a microscope B X styling books, and hair swatches B a telescope C family pictures C bifocals D drawings D a projector

Q96: Your employee evaluation is a good time to discuss you Q104: One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal progress with you manager: characteristics are:

A X True A boils B False B X bacteria C decayed matter Q97: 10- step consultation method is review, Asses Preference, D parasites Analyze, Lifestyle, Show and tell, Suggest, Color Upkeep & ?

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q105: In the human body, nonpathogenic bacteria help metabolize B diphtheria food, protect against infectious microorganisms, and: C discarded D toxin A prevent gastrointestinal disorders B X stimulate the immune response Q113: Lyme diseases, syphilis, or sexually transmitted diseases C stimulate the useful functions (STD) are caused by spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria called: D stimulate useful secretions A flagella Q106: Bacteria can exist: B strep C X spirilla A only on the skin or in the hair D cocci B only on porous surfaces C only on water Q114: In humans, pathogenic bacteria are known to produce: D X almost anywhere A X diseases Q107: a small minority of bacteria that cause disease when B disorders invading plant or animal tissue are: C spores D mitosis A nonpathogenic B phenol Q115: Bacteria that are transmitted through the air and rarely show C X pathogenic active motility are: D antiseptic A X cocci Q108: a type of pathogenic bacteria that require living matter for B bacilli growth are: C epidemic D disease A phenols B peroxide Q116: Bacilli and spirilla bacteria are both motile and use slender, C X parasites hairline extensions known as: D viruses A flat Q109: pus-forming bacteria arranged in curved lines that resemble B X flagella a string of beads are: C spores D spherical A sterilization B staphylococci Q117: harmless bacteria are what type of bacteria? C superiority D X streptococci A X nonpathogenic bacteria B pathogenic bacteria Q110: cocci are pathogenic bacteria that are C general bacteria D flagellum bacteria A X round-shaped B rod-shaped Q118: In 2000, a bacteria called Mycobacterium fortuitum C flat-shaped furunculosis cause outbreak due to the failure of the practitioner to D spore-shaped follow proper disinfection guidelines for:

Q111: bacteria that may causes strep throat or blood poisoning are: A sharp implements B X whirlpool foot spas A fungi C shampoo station B spirilla D styling chairs C bacilli D X streptococci Q119: bacteria generally consist of an outer wall containing a liquid called: Q112: bacteria that grow in pairs and can cause pneumonia are; A photographic A X diplococcic B photosynthesis

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X protoplasm D toxic D protons Q127: An infection, indicated by a lesion containing pus, confined Q120: The life cycle of bacteria has two distinct phases, the active to a particular of the body is a; stage and: A frequent infection A X inactive or spore-forming stage B X local infection B inactive and infectious stage C primary infection C inverted and growth stage D poisonous infection D inactive and revoked stage Q128: When a disease spreads from one person to another by Q121: the process whereby bacteria grow, reproduce, and divide contact it is: into two new cells is; A central A X mitosis B disinfect B membranes C X contagious C memory D coughing D marriage Q129: A submicroscopic structure capable of infecting plants and Q122: bacteria that pose little or no risk to a client in the salon animal including bacteria is a : setting are: A motility A daughter cells B mitosis B X anthrax and tetanus bacilli C virucide C tuberculosis and thorax D X virus D acquired immunity Q130: A virus can live reproduce only by: Q123: The presence of pus is a sign of an: A improper use of sharp implements A immunity B penetrating other cell and becoming part of them B nonpathogenic organism C X attaching to a blood borne virus and becoming part of it C X bacterial infection D poor personal hygiene D epidemic Q131: Hepatitis A, a blood borne virus, is marked by and Q124: When body tissues are invaded by pathogenic bacteria, it is inflammation of the a sign of a(n): A X liver A incision B heart B X infection C kidneys C immunity D skin D spore Q132: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is the virus that Q125: Common human bacteria transferred through skin-to-skin causes: contact or by using unclean implements A Intravenous Deficiency Syndrome A saprophyte B X Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome B spores C Acquired Immunity Syndrome C tetanus D Acquired Pathogenic Syndrome D X staphylococci Q133: An organism that lives on another living organism and Q126: When a disease spreads from one person to another, it is draws its nourishment from that organism is a: communicable A X parasite A X contagious B pathogen B common C favas C corkscrew D contaminant

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q141: the process of removing pathogen and other substances Q134: If nail implement have not been disinfected properly, the from tools and surface: client may contract: A X decontamination A nail condition B scrubbing B nail enhancements C washing C nail designs D cleaning D X nail fungus Q142: The three main types of decontamination are: Q135: Diseases-causing bacteria or viruses that are carried through the body in the blood or body fluids are: A disinfection, washing and autoclave B X sanitation, disinfection and sterilization A X blood borne pathogen C sterilization, contaminant, and sanitation B blood borne capitis D antiseptic, disinfection and sterilization C blood borne elements D blood borne scabies Q143: decontamination is a process that involves the use of:

Q136: transmission of blood borne pathogen can become possible A physical and sensitive means to remove or destroy pathogen thought shaving, nipping, facial treatment, waxing, tweezing, or B sanitation and the use of closed containers C X physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogen A X sometimes of the skin barrier is broken D antiseptic practice and autoclave B anytime the skin barrier is broken C when the skin is disinfected Q144: Estheticians who use needles and probes that lance the skin D when the technician uses great care must use a level of decontamination called

Q137: A skin disease caused by an infestation of head lice is A X sterilization B presterilization A perpendicular C phenol and bleach B scabies D dry heat sterilization C X pediculosis D peroxide Q145: In the salon setting, disinfection is extremely effective in controlling: Q138: The ability of the body to destroy pathogenic bacteria or viruses that have entered the body is: A X microorganisms on non-living surface B wet sanitizers on living surfaces A X immunity C soap and warm water B epidermic D disinfection procedures C skin lesion D immigration Q146: A higher level of decontamination than sanitation is:

Q139: The type of immunity the body develops after overcoming a A X disinfection disease or through vaccinations is B pathogenic C discarded A casual contact D scrubbing B X acquired immunity C acquired contact Q147: An exception to the level of protection that disinfection D an epidemic provides and the possibility of an infection could be present if:

Q140: the surface of tools or objects not completely free from dirt, A X the client skin id broken oils, and microbe are covered with: B the client is washed and ready C the item is given to the client A cholesterol D the client has several service B containers C immunization Q148: a chemical agent that is used to destroy bacteria and viruses D X contaminant on surfaces is;

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A 10% alcohol Q155: Precautions include hand washing, wearing gloves and B X disinfectant proper handling of C antiseptic D 20% peroxide A tools B X disposal of sharp instruments Q149: Disinfectant must have a registration number and be C scissors approved by the: D chemicals

A X Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Q156: if a client skin is cut during a salon service, blood or body B Occupation Protection Agency (OPA) fluid can be present this is called. C U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) D Food and Drug Administration (FDA) A accident B precaution Q150: A manufacturer must supply pertinent safety and storage in C X exposure incident formation by providing: D infection

A Material Storage Sheet Q157: Antiseptics can contain either alcohol or B Occupational Safety and Health C X Material Safety Data Sheet A bleach D Material Forma and Invoice B peroxide C chemicals Q151: Remember it is ______responsibility to follow state laws D X benzalkonium and rules. Q158: They are agents formulated for use on the skin. A X your B the students A X Antiseptics C the teachers B alcohol D principles C bacteria D astringent Q152: Both types of antiseptics are affective for cleaning hands if soap and water are not available, but should not replace washing Q159: Hand washing is one of the most important actions to with. prevent spreading germs from one person to another.

A soap A false B soft bristle brush B X true C X all of the above D water Q160: Use liquid soaps in pump containers bar soaps can grow.

Q153: A set of guidelines published by OSHA that require the A fungus employer and the employee to assume that all human blood and B disease body fluids are infectious for blood borne pathogens, C X bacteria D virus A OSHA B X Universal Precautions Q161: Never place clients feet in water that contains a C MSDS D EPA A dirty tub B X disinfectant Q154: OSHA sets safety standards and precautions that protect C alcohol employees when they are potentially exposed to. D quats

A infection Q162: Some states require that all procedures for cleaning and B virus disinfecting pedicure equipment be recorded in a salon C bacteria D X blood borne pathogens A hair book B swatch book C X Pedicure logbook

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D record card A day B feet Q163: ______towels and linens must be used for each client. C X client D hair A white B black Q171: House hold bleach or ______is an effective C dirty disinfectant for all uses in the salon D X clean A alcohol Q164: The contact points of equipment that cannot be immersed in B X Sodium hypochlorite liquid such as, C quats D disinfecting spray A combs B scissors Q172: Fumigant tablets should never be open in drawers or C X clippers, electrotherapy tools, nail drills cabinets in the salon D clips A X True Q165: Before beginning service for each client, all work surfaces B False must be cleaned by wiping with a clean disposable towel. Q173: ______should never be used to clean up blood, or A X True disinfect any item B False A peroxide Q166: Remember that products and equipment that have the word B astringents ______on the label are merely cleaners. C X Alcohol D bleach A X sanitizer B disinfection Q174: Another name for Quaternary ammonium compounds C clean D dirty A alcohol B H20 Q167: Saving client tools to avoid cleaning and disinfecting is safe C EPA and violates states rules D X quats

A True Q175: Are powerful tuberculocidal disinfectants B X False A alcohol Q168: Electric or bead " sterilizer do not ______or sterilize B quats implements C bleach D X Phenolics A rinse B clean Q176: Two types of alcohol C dilute D X disinfect A quats, isopropyl B ethyl, quats Q169: Store disinfected implements in a clean ______and in C X ethyl alcohol, isopropyl alcohol a sanitary manner between uses. D phenolics

A box Q177: to be effective the concentration of ethyl and isopropyl B bag alcohol must be ___ percent or higher. C plastic bag D X container A X 70 B 75 Q170: Tools and equipment must be cleaned and disinfected after C 50 each use and before they may be used on another. D 90

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q178: To use a disinfectant properly, read and follow manufacturer’s directions and______for proper A inflammation disinfection. B X Parasitic disease C toxin A wash hands D systemic disease B X complete submerge C partially immerse Q186: Is a fluid created by tissue inflammation and contains white D rinse thoroughly blood cells

Q179: Is the complete elimination of all microbial life A X Pus B virus A immunity C cut B disinfection D blood C cleaning D X Sterilization Q187: During the active stage bacteria

Q180: Removing all visible dirt and debris A splits in two B become favorable A disinfect C X grows and reproduce B sterilize D reproduce C X sanitation, cleaning D phenolics Q188: Any organism of microscopic to submicroscopic size

Q181: ______which includes molds, mildews and yeast can A X Microorganism produce contagious diseases. B bacteria C cells A X Fungi D virus B HIV C bacteria Q189: Short rod-shaped bacteria, they are the most common D virus bacteria and produces disease such as tetanus, typhoid fever, tuberculosis Q182: is spread from person to person through blood and through body fluids. A diplococcic B X Bacilli A infections C spirilla B virus D cocci C bacteria D X HIV Q190: Nonpathogenic bacteria are

Q183: A blood borne virus causes ______a disease that A harmful damages the liver. B X harmless C germs A cancer D disease producing B X hepatitis C flu Q191: There are thousands of different kinds of bacteria, but they D HIV are classified into the fallowing two

Q184: Reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain food, or A saprophytes and parasites chemicals B decomposing and fertilizing C X pathogenic and nonpathogenic A infection D active and inactive B cough C X Allergy Q192: Dirty salon tools and equipment may spread infections from D pain client to client

Q185: Disease is caused by parasites such as lice, and ringworm A X True

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B False Q200: The occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was created as part of the U.S. Department of Labor Q193: Disinfectant used in salons must be A false A bactericidal B X true B fungicidal C virucidal Q201: Cells are made up of a colorless, jellylike substance called D X all of the above ______in which food elements such as protein, fats, carbohydrates, mineral salts, and water are present. Q194: There are three types of potentially infectious microorganisms that are important in the practice of cosmetology A plasma B X protoplasm A bacteria, germs, virus C cytoplasm B Virus, disease, germs D membrane C X Bacteria, fungus, and virus D fungus, infection, bacteria Q202: The three parts of a muscle are the:

Q195: According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) A origin, insertion, middle it is against federal law to use any disinfecting product contrary to B origin, insertion, upper its labeling. This means you must follow the instructions for C X origin, insertion, belly D lower, middle, upper A X all of the above B mixing Q203: The broad muscle that covers the top of the skull is called: C the type of surface the disinfecting product can be used on D contact time A X epicranius B occipitalis Q196: Disinfectant are proven to kill the bacteria that causes C frontalis Tuberculosis D aponeurosis

A virus Q204: The muscle that enables you to close your eyes is the: B Bacteria C Antitoxins A corrugator D X Tuberculocidal B procerus C quadratus labii superioris Q197: Disinfectant must not have efficacy claims, on the label D X orbicularis oculi

A X false Q205: Another name for voluntary muscles that can be controlled B true by the will is:

Q198: What two types of disinfectant are used in salons A nonstriated B X striated A X Hospital and Tuberculocidal C cardiac B Lysol and Phenolic disinfectant D self-directed C sterilization and Hospital D Bactericidal and phenolic Q206: The principal parts of the cell are the:

Q199: You can get ______from the products manufacturers< A X nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane download them from the product manufacturer or distributors B nucleus, cytoplasm, and artery website C cytoplasm, cell membrane, and orbit D cytoplasm, protoplasm, and membrane A EPA B OSHA Q207: The center of the cell contains the ______, which plays an C X MSDSs important role in cell reproduction. D MDSS A X cytoplasm B centrosome

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C membrane A muscular D nucleus B nerve C epithelial Q208: The protoplasm of a cell that surrounds the nucleus is the: D X liquid

A X cytoplasm Q215: Groups of cells of the same kind are called: B centrosome C membrane A organs D nucleus B systems C X tissues Q209: The process by which cells reproduce by dividing into two D protoplasm identical cells called daughter cells is known as: Q216: During ______energy can be stored by special A division molecules and used for muscle contraction, secretion, or heat B multiplication production. C X mitosis D reproduction A anabolism B X catabolism Q210: Cells will continue to grow and thrive as long as they are C digestion favored with the proper temperature, they eliminate waste D connection products, and are favored with an adequate supply of: Q217: The protective covering on body surfaces, such as the skin, A X food, oxygen, and water mucous membranes, linings of the heart, digestive and respiratory B food, oxygen, and minerals organs, and glands is ______tissue. C oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide D food, oxygen, and protoplasm A connective B muscular Q211: The complex chemical process whereby body cells are C X epithelial nourished and supplied with energy needed to carry on their many D liquid activities is called: Q218: Tissue that carries messages to and from the brain and A reproduction controls and coordinates all body functions is known as: B digestion C X metabolism A X nerve D nucleolus B connective C epithelial Q212: The process of building up larger molecules from smaller D liquid ones, during which the body stores water, food, and oxygen for the time when they are needed for cell growth and repair is called: Q219: That which supports, protects, and binds together other tissues of the body is known as: A catabolism B X anabolism A nerve tissue C metabolism B X connective tissue D nucleolus C epithelial tissue D liquid tissue Q213: The process of breaking down of larger substances or molecules into smaller ones is called: Q220: Structures of the body that are designed to accomplish a specific function are: A X catabolism B anabolism A X organs C metabolism B systems D digestion C tissues D protoplasm Q214: Tissue that carries food, waste products, and hormones through the body is known as: Q221: Groups of organs that cooperate for a common purpose, namely the welfare of the entire body are known as:

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A X skin Q230: The bones of the upper jaw are called: B bones C muscles A X maxillae D nerves B nasal C mandible Q223: Another name for skeletal system is: D frontal

A skin Q231: The largest and strongest bone of the face is the: B X osteology C muscles A maxillae D nerves B nasal C X mandible Q224: Another name for the circulatory system is: D frontal

A respiratory system Q232: The hindmost bone of the skull is the: B organs of elimination C X cardiovascular system A maxillae D organs for reproducing B X occipital C parietal Q225: The stomach and intestines are called the ______system. D frontal

A excretory Q233: The uppermost and largest bone of the arm is the: B endocrine C respiratory A X humerus D X digestive B ulna C radius Q226: The cranium is made up of how many bones? D vertebrae

A 4 Q234: The study of the structure, functions, and diseases of the B 6 muscles is called: C 8 D X 14 A myopia B X myology Q227: What bone forms the forehead? C histology D osteology A X frontal B temporal Q235: The lower jaw bone which is the largest and strongest bone C parietal of the face and forms the lower jaw is called the: D forward A zygomatic Q228: The bones that form the sides and top of the cranium are B maxillae called: C X mandible D hyoid A sphenoid B temporal Q236: The tendon that connects the occipitalis and the frontalis is C ethmoid the: D X parietal A procerus

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Q237: The muscles that coordinate in opening and closing the Q244: The large, thick triangular-shaped muscle that covers the mouth are: shoulder and lifts and turns the arm outward is called the:

A X masseter and temporalis A X deltoid B masseter and frontalis B biceps C temporalis and frontalis C triceps D temporalis and pectoralis D pronators

Q238: The front portion of the epicranius is the: Q245: The muscle that produce the contour of the front and inner side of the upper arm, lifts the forearm, and flexes the elbow are: A temporalis B masseter A deltoid C aponeurosis B X biceps D X frontalis C triceps D pronators Q239: The muscle that draws the eyebrow down and wrinkles the forehead vertically is the: Q246: The muscle that turns the hand outward and the palm upward is the: A X corrugator B orbicularis oculi A pronators C temporalis B X supinators D frontalis C extensors D triceps Q240: The muscle of the cheek between the upper and lower jaw that compresses the cheeks and expels air between the lips is Q247: The muscles that straighten the wrist, hand, and the fingers called: to form a straight line are called the:

A masseter A pronators B depressor B supinators C X buccinator C X extensors D procerus D flexors

Q241: Muscular tissue can be stimulated by: Q248: The muscles located at the base of each digit that separate the finger are called: A massage B heat A X abductor C chemicals B opponent D X all of the above C adductor D flexors Q242: The broad muscle that extends from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin; responsible for lowering the lower Q249: The muscles that involve the bending of the wrist are: jaw and lip is called: A abductor A sternocleidomastoideus B opponent B masseter C adductor C X platysma D X flexors D trapezius Q250: The muscles that assist in the swinging of the arms are Q243: The muscle that rotates and bends the head, as in nodding, called: is called: A X trapezius A X sternocleidomastoideus B pectoralis

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A True A subcutis B X False B X melanocytes C melanin Q254: The dermis is the inner layer of the skin: D vitamin E

A X True Q263: Fibrous protein that gives the shin form and strength: B False A elastin Q255: Elastin is the ability of the skin to stretch: B motor nerve fibers C X collagen A X True D blood B False Q264: One of the most important hallmarks of today's beauty: Q256: Melanin gives the skin it's color: A treatment A X True B X clear glowing skin B False C thinning skin D none of the above Q257: The largest living organ of the body is the: Q265: The amount and type of pigment produced by an individual A heart is determined by: B lungs C X skin A X genes D veins B race C sun Q258: Tissue that gives smoothness and contour to the body and D vitamins provides a protective cushion is: Q266: Continued pressure on any part of the skin can cause it to A X subcutaneous tissue thicken and develop a: B sweat pores C basal cell layer A infection D sebum B rash C mole Q259: Melanin protects sensitive cells against strong: D X callus

A sebum Q267: The sebaceous (oil) glands of the skin are connected to the

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A X dermis layer A X 3 percent B cuticle layer B 6 percent C papillary layer C 9 percent D top layer D 75 percent

Q272: Nerves that regulate the secretion of perspiration and sebum Q280: As a licensed service provider, you also must recognize is known as: adverse conditions, including:

A motor nerve fibers A inflamed skin conditions B heat regulation B disease C heat receptor C infectious skin disorders D X secretory nerve fibers D X all of the above

Q273: Sebum flows through the oil ducts, but when sebum Q281: A 2% drop in body water can trigger fuzzy short term hardens and the ducts become clogged a comedone is formed. memory and trouble with basic math, and may cause difficulty focusing on a computer screen or a printed page: A X True B False A X True B False Q274: The medical branch of science that deals with the study of skin, it's nature, structure, function, disease, and treatment is Q282: It is our only barrier against the environment: called: A muscles A X dermatology B X skin B esthetician C hair C cosmetology D bones D histology

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A blood A thinness skin B nerves B softest skin C X lymph C X thickest skin D none of the above D none of the above

Q284: Vitamin E helps fight against, and protect the skin from the Q292: Sweat glands are the most numerous on the: harmful effects of the: A palm A weather B soles B dirt C forehead and arm pits C X sun’s rays D X all of the above D dehydration Q293: Skin gets its strength form and flexibility from flexible Q285: The top of the papillary layer where it joins the epidermis fibers found within the papillary layer is: A X True A X epidermal - dermal junction B False B keratin C junction Q294: The excretion of sweat is controlled by the nervous system. D none of the above A X True Q286: The wrinkles and sagging of the shin are often the result of B False make-up: Q295: A healthy body maintains a constant internal temperature: A True B X False A 98.8 B 98.7 Q287: The skin protects the body from injury and invasion of C X 98.6 D 98.5 A disease B X bacteria Q296: sebum keeps the hair: C virus D all of the above A X soft B dry Q288: The skin is typically ______of an adult male C wet D none of the above A 8lbs B 150lbs Q297: Vitamins play an important role in the: C X 9lbs D 10.5lbs A healing the skin B fighting disease Q289: Our eyelids have the thinnest skin and so does our soles of C softening the feet: D X all of the above

A True Q298: Sebaceous glands are connected to hair follicle. B X False A X True Q290: The scalp has larger and deeper: B False

A skin Q299: Sweat ______the skin surface. B X hair follicle C inflamed skin A smooth D thin skin B X cools

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Q303: Another name for the natural nail is. A lunula B X ligament A hyponychium C cuticle B bed epithelium D groove C X onyx D matrix Q311: It creates a seal under the nail plate to prevent microorganisms from invading and infecting the nail bed. Q304: It consist of several anatomical parts necessary to produce the natural nail plate. A nail bed B nail groove A X nail unit C eponychium B nail bed D X hyponychium C matrix D nail folds Q312: Visible part of the matrix that extends from underneath the living skin. Q305: The nail bed is supplied with many nerves, and is attached to the nail plate by a thin layer of tissue called the. A matrix B cuticle A cuticle C X lunula B X bed epithelium D keratin C matrix D lunula Q313: A healthy nail should be whitish and translucent.

Q306: The ______is the most visible and functional part A X True of the nail module, B False

A nail grooves Q314: The ______will continue to create new nail cells B nail bed as long as it is nourished and kept in a healthy conditions. C mantles D X nail plate A X matrix B cuticle

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Q315: Growth of the nails can be affected if an individuals is in Q323: The average rate of nail growth in the normal adult is about good health. 1/10" per month.

A True A X True B X False B False

Q316: A healthy nail may look dry and hard, but it actually has a Q324: Nails growths rate will accelerate whether or not a woman water content of between. take.

A 10 and 20 percent A X vitamins B 15 percent B keratin C X 15 and 25 percent C water D 25 percent D milk

Q317: The nail plate may appear to be one piece, but is actually Q325: The growth of the nail plate is affected by constructed of about ______of nails cells. A nutrition A 50 layers B exercise B X 100 layers C a person’s general health C 25 layers D X all of the above D 125 layers Q326: Using an oil- based nail conditioner, or nail polish to coat Q318: The nail of the middle finger grows fastest and the the plate, can reduce water loss and improve, thumbnail grows the slowest. A strength A X True B X flexibility B False C color D growth Q319: The ______are folds of normal skin that surrounds the nail plate. Q327: The ______comes from the underside of the skin that lies above the natural nail plate. A nail groove B matrix A onyx C X nail folds B X cuticle D nail bed C free edge D matrix Q320: Normal, healthy nails can grow in a variety of shapes, depending on the shape of the matrix Q328: They are located at the base of the matrix and around the edges of the nail bed. A X True B False A X ligament B cuticle Q321: Ordinarily, replacement of the natural nail takes about. C matrix D free edge A 1 to 4 months B 2 months Q329: The natural nail will continue to grow as long as the matrix C 4 months is healthy and. D X 4 to 6 months A strong Q322: Toe nails take ___ months to a year to replace. B damaged C weak A 1 D X undamaged B 6

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A nail groove Q340: Its job is to seal the space between the natural nail plate and B nail bed living skin. C X nail plate D nail folds A lunula B X cuticle Q333: The darker color of the lunula, shows the true color of the C free edges matrix D matrix

A True Q341: The growth of the nail can be affected in poor health, nail B X False disorder and.

Q334: Part of the nail plate that extends over the tip of the finger A the edge or toe. B on the cuticle C eponychium A nail fold D X injury of the matrix B X free edge C matrix Q342: Nails grow faster in the summer than they do in the D cuticle A autumn Q335: Slit or furrow on the sides of the nail B X winter C rain A X nail groove D spring B eponychium C nail fold Q343: What material is the nail made from D nail bed A X keratin Q336: The area under a healthy nail plate should appear B cells C ligaments A blue D matrix B brownish C X pinkish Q344: The eponychium is sometimes confused with the cuticle, D reddish the cuticle is the dead tissue on the nail plate, whereas the eponychium is. Q337: nail cells are formed in what part of the nail structure. A X living tissue A muscles B translucent tissue B X matrix C nail tissue C cuticle D nail edge D mantle Q345: The nail plate is guided and helped along during its growth by a thin layer of tissue called

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A matrix cells Q353: The portion of hair that projects above the skin is the: B nail groove C X bed epithelium A dermal papilla D nail fold B X hair shaft C hair root Q346: The most visible and functional part of the nail module is D follicle the. Q354: The follicle, bulb, arrector pili muscle, and sebaceous A lunula glands are main structures of the: B X nail plate C cuticle A hair shaft D free edge B sudoriferous glands C cortex layers Q347: What finger nail grows the fastest. D X hair root

A X middle finger Q355: The tube-like depression or pocket in the skin or scalp that B thumb contains the hair root is the: C damaged nails D toenails A X follicle B shaft Q348: Dead tissue that tightly adheres to the nail plate C bulb D scalp A onyx B matrix Q356: Hair follicles are not found on the palms of the hand or the: C lunula D X cuticle A forehead area B elbow area Q349: Fold of normal skin that surrounds the nail plate. C X soles of the feet D back of the neck A matrix B nail groove Q357: The follicle extends downward from the epidermis, where it C X nail fold surrounds the: D nail bed A epidermis layer Q350: A technical term for nail of the fingers or toes B X dermal papilla C hair root A lunula D hair shaft B cuticle C matrix Q358: The lowest area or part of the hair strand is the: D X onyx A X hair bulb Q351: The scientific study of the hair, its diseases, and care is B hairs shaft called: C arrector pili D dermal papilla A dermatology B X trichology Q359: A small, cone-shaped area at the base of the hair follicle C biology that fits into the hair bulb is the: D cosmetology A sweat pore Q352: The two parts of a mature hair strand are the hair shaft and: B hair follicle C X dermal papilla A dermis D lymph gland B hair follicle C X hair root Q360: A tiny, involuntary muscle fiber inserted in the base of the D hair ends hair follicle is the:

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Q361: The oil glands of the skin connected to the hair follicles are: A oval cells B X round cells A sweat glands C coarse hair B dermal papilla D hair follicles C X sebaceous glands D hair streams Q369: Hair composed of a protein that grows from cells originating within the: Q362: An oily substance secreted from the sebaceous glands is: A hair shaft A sweet B X hair follicle B medulla C amino acids C X sebum D main elements D salt Q370: The process whereby living cells mature and begin their Q363: The overlapping layer of the hair with transparent, scale journey up the hair shaft is: like cells is the: A simplicity A bulb B scalp B follicle C X keratinization C X cuticle D medulla D medulla Q371: The five main elements that make up the chemical Q364: The three main layer of the hair shaft are the cuticle, composition of human hair are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and: medulla, and the: A protein and amino acids A X cortex B cells of keratin B shaft C elements and protein C root D X nitrogen and sulfur D bulb Q372: The chemical bonds that hold together the amino acid Q365: Swelling the hair raises the cuticle layer and allows for: molecules are:

A primary defense A convex bonds B X penetration B X peptide bonds C cross sections C hydrogen drops D growth phase D protein cells

Q366: For chemicals to penetrate a healthy cuticle hair layer, they Q373: An end bond is also known as a(a): must: A elastic bond A expose to mantle layer B molecule bond B stiffen the hair shaft C chai bond C X have an alkaline pH D X peptide bond D remove the cuticle layer Q374: When peptide bonds hold together a very long chain of Q367: The fibrous protein core of the hair, formed by elongated amino acids, it is called a: cells containing melanin pigment, is the: A X polypeptide chain A lower follicle B hydrogen chain B X cortex layer C COHNS bond

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D elasticity chain Q382: Oil glands of the skin, connected to the hair follicles, are Q375: The three types of cross-links that form the bonds between known as: the polypeptide chain are hydrogen bonds, salt bonds, and: A sudoriferous glands A X disulfide bonds B endocrine glands B water bonds C lymph glands C nitrogen bonds D X sebaceous glands D elastic bonds Q383: Hair is composed of cells arranged in three layers which Q376: One way to help cultivate a healthy scalp is by utilizing: are:

A strong chemicals A outer, inner, central B a hair washing schedule B X cuticle, cortex, medulla C X healthy diet C cuticle, inner root, medulla D regular scalp massaging D cortex, medulla, dermis

Q377: A mature stand of human hair is divided into two principal Q384: The cortex contains coloring matter in the form of minute parts known as: grains of _____, or pigment.

A follicle and cuticle A vellus hair B hair root and follicle B albino C hair shaft and follicle C X melanin D X hair root and hair shaft D marrow

Q378: A tube-like depression, or pocket, in the skin or scalp that Q385: We are born with a certain number of follicles that are contains the hair root is called the: predetermined to produce long, thick, pigmented hair like normal scalp and eyebrow hair. These are called: A X follicle B bulb A vellus hair C dermal papilla B lanugo hair D arrector pili C X terminal hair D stationary hair Q379: A thickened, club-shaped structure that forms the lower part of the hair root is called the: Q386: All hair follicles have the same structure and cycle through those same three phases which are: A follicle B X bulb A anagen, catagen, rologen C dermal papilla B anagen, bacagen, telogen D arrector pili C allergen, catagen, telogen D X anagen, catagen, telogen Q380: A small, cone-shaped elevation located at the base of the hair follicle is called the: Q387: Hair that forms a circular pattern is called a:

A lower follicle A hair stream B bulb B cowlick C X dermal papilla C X whorl D arrector pili D rotary

Q381: A small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a Q388: Hair texture refers to the degree of ______of hair follicle is the: the hair.

A X arrector pili A X coarse, medium, fine B bulb B thickness or softness C dermal papilla C length and thickness D papilla D density and fineness

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A elasticity A texture B X porosity B density C texture C porosity D resistant D X wave pattern

Q390: The ability of the hair to stretch and return to its original Q397: The thickness or diameter of the individual hair strand is form without breaking is called; called:

A texture A X texture B porosity B density` C wiriness C porosity D X elasticity D elasticity

Q391: Normal hair contains ____% of the element carbon. Q398: The number of individual hair strands on 1-square-inch of the scalp indicates _____: A 6 B 17 A hair texture C 21 B X hair density D X 51 C hair porosity D hair elasticity Q392: Newly formed cells mature, they fill up with fibrous ______then move upward, lose their nucleus, and die. This Q399: Shirt, fine, downy, unpigmented hair is known as _____ process is called keratinization. hair:

A X protein A terminal B melanin B dense C sebum C X vellus D tissue D dry

Q393: A side bond that is easily broken by strong alkaline or Q400: Pheomelanin provides colors ranging from red and ginger acidic solution is called a _____ bond. to yellow/blond tones.

A hydrogen A X True B disulfide B False C X salt bond D keratin Q401: The term used to identify abnormal hair loss is:

Q394: ______is the tiny grains of pigment in the cortex that five A androgenic natural color to the hair: B X alopecia C areata A Protein D genetic B X Melanin C Sebum Q402: The sudden falling out of hair in round patches or baldness D Tissue in spots is called:

Q395: Pheomelanin provides natural hair color for ______tones: A terminal hair B hypertrichosis A platinum C X alopecia areata B brown D alopecia androgenic C black D X red Q403: Two products approved by the FDA to stimulate hair growth and allowed for sale in the United States are:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A X minoxidil and finasteride D alopecia B tinea and medication C conditioning and Rogaine Q411: The type of fungal infection characterized by red papules at D finasteride and antiseptics the opening of the hair follicles is:

Q404: The technical term used to describe gray hair is: A X Tinea capitis B pediculosis A albinos C steatoides B acquired D pityriasis C alopecia D X canities Q412: A highly contagious skin disease caused by a mite parasite is: Q405: A variety of canities, characterized by alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair, is: A X scabies B capitis A X ringed hair C infestation B alopecia areata D pityriasis C hypertrichosis D trichoptilosis Q413: An acute localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain is: Q406: A condition of abnormal hair growth on areas of the body is: A X a furuncle B scabies A trichorrhexis C pediculosis B hyperactive D carbuncle C X hypertrichosis D electrolysis Q414: An inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue caused by staphylococci is: Q407: Trichorrhexis nodosa is characterized by brittleness of the hair and the formation of: A X a carbuncle B pediculosis A X swellings along the hair shaft C anagen B split ends along the hair shaft D alopecia C lubricated dry ends D alternating bands of color Q415: The spread of diseases can be prevented by practicing approved: Q408: The technical term used to describe beaded hair is: A healthy diet and exercise A X monilethrix B X sanitation and disinfection procedures B momoglycerine C various options C finasteride D hair analysis procedures D fragile Q416: Abnormal hair loss: Q409: The medical term for dandruff is: A X alopecia A canities B cortex B X pityriasis C anagen C alopecia D canities D simplex Q417: Technical term for gray hair, results from the loss of the Q410: The medical term used to describe a fungal organism hairs natural melanin pigment: characterized by itching, sales, and painful circular lesions is: A hair elasticity A scapular B catagen B seborrheic C X canities C X tinea D cowlick

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q425: Medical term for ringworm, a contagious condition caused Q418: Dry, sulfur yellow, cup like crusts on the scalp in tinea by fungal infection: favosa or favas: A X tinea A fringed hair B vellus B X scutula C tinea capitis C salt bond D tinea favas D sebaceous glands Q426: Technical term for split ends: Q419: Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue caused by staphylococci, similar to a furuncle but larger: A X trichoptilosis B hair elasticity A cuticle C ringed hair B furuncle D cortex C follicle D X carbuncle Q427: ______affects coarse hair & mustache & beard area:

Q420: Boil, acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle: A Tinea B Tinea capitis A follicle C X Tinea barbae B X furuncle D Tinea favosa C sebum D monilethrix Q428: Current research confirms dandruff is the result of fungus called: Q421: Condition of abnormal growth of hair, characterized by the growth of terminal hair in areas of the body that normally grow A pityriasis only vellus hair: B X malassezia C pityriasis capitis simplex A keratinization D pityriasis steatoides B X hypertrichosis C pityriasis Q429: Pityriasis capitis simplex is characterized by scalp irritation, D integument large flakes & itchy scalp and:

Q422: Technical term for beaded hair: A a more severe case of dandruff B X is the technical term for classic dandruff A pityriasis C is the medical term for dandruff B vellus D is natural occurring fungus C X monilethrix D anagen Q430: Pityriasis steatoides:

Q423: Dandruff, an inflammation of the skin characterized by the A is characterized by excessive production & accumulation of formation and flaking of fine, thin scales: the skin cells B is the technical term for ringed hair A X pityriasis C is the medical term for dandruff B polypeptide chain D X is characterized by accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp C pityriasis capitis simplex scales, mixed with sebum that stick to the scalp D pediculosis capitis Q431: modern antidandruff shampoos contain the antifungal Q424: Highly contagious disease caused by mites that burrow agents: under the skin: A pyrithione zinc, monilethrix, or ketoconazole A X scabies B minoxidil, sulfide, or ketoconazole B scutula C X pyrithione zinc, selenium sulfide, or ketoconazole C canities D ketoconazole, selenium, sulfide D carbuncle Q432: Finasteride is a topical medication

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C Fragilitas crinium A True D X Pityriasis steatoides B X False Q440: What is the reason for normal hair loss? Q433: Although estimates of the rate of hair loss have been quoted, Recent measurements indicate ___ to ___ hair per day: A natural result of the two phases of the hair's growths cycle B X natural result of the three phases of the hair's growth cycle A X 35 to 40 C natural result of a phase of the hair's growth cycle B 100 to 125 D natural result of the four phases of the hair's growth cycle C 35 to 80 D 100 to 175 Q441: Anyone of any race, or mixed race, can have hair from straight to extremely curly. It is also true within races, individuals Q434: studies indicate that women have a greater emotional have hair with different degrees of curliness: investment in their appearance: A Myth A X True B X Fact B False Q442: Medical term for pityriasis steatoides accompanied by Q435: Postpartum alopecia is temporary hair loss experience at redness and inflammation: conclusion of pregnancy, sudden & excessive shedding from: A tinea A 3 to 6 months B tinea capitis B 3 to 12 months C X seborrheic dermatitis C X 3 to 9 months D scutula D 3 to 18 months Q443: Dry hair and scalp can be caused by: Q436: Only licensed surgeons can transplant hair. May perform this procedure & several surgeries are usually necessary to achieve A X inactive sebaceous glands the desired results the cost of each surgery ranges form B dry shampoos C alkaline water A X $8,000 to over $20,000 D flaky scalp B $8,000 to over $125,000 C $8,000 to over $30,000 Q444: A condition of abnormal hair growth on areas of the body D $8,000 to over $135,000 is:

Q437: ______is a topical medication that is applied to the scalp A trichorrhexis twice daily and has been proven to stimulate hair growth: B hyperactive C X hypertrichosis A X Minoxidil D electrolysis B finasteride C Rogaine Q445: ______, characterized by red papules or spots at the D Antiseptic opening of hair follicles is:

Q438: ______is an oral prescription medication for hair loss that A X tinea capitis is available to men only: B tinea favosa C pediculosis capitis A Minoxidil D scabies B X Finasteride C Rogaine Q446: A contagious condition caused by head lice infesting the D antiseptic hair and scalp is:

Q439: Which of the following scalp and hair disorder cannot be A tinea capitis treated in the salon? B tinea favosa C X pediculosis capitis A Trichorrhexis nodosa D scabies B Monilethrix

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A carbuncle A X atoms B tinea B solution C scabies C protons D X furuncle D none of the above

Q448: An animal parasitic infection, which is highly contagious Q455: The rapid oxidation of any substance accompanied by heat and caused by the itch mite is: or light is:

A carbuncle A oxygen B tinea B protons C X scabies C X combustion D furuncle D electricity

Q449: Naturally occurring fungus that is present on all human Q456: The chemical reaction that combines an element of skin, and is responsible for dandruff: compound with oxygen to produce an oxide is:

A medulla A X oxidation B monilethrix B suspension C X malassezia C reduction D pediculosis capitis D neutralization

Q450: Long hair found on the scalp, as well as on legs, arms, and Q457: A sweet, colorless, oily substance used as a moisturizing body of both males and females: ingredient in cosmetic products is:

A X terminal hair A X glycerin B terminal vellus hair B ointment C terminal lanugo C compound D terminal keratinization D moisturizing

Q451: The science that deals with the composition, structure, and Q458: A substance that has a PH above 7.0 is considered to be a how matter changes under different conditions is known as: (an):

A compounds A neutral solution B electricity B acid solution C X chemistry C X alkali solution D structural changes D reducing solution

Q452: Liquids that mix easily are known as: Q459: When oxygen is subtracted from a substance, the chemical reaction is called: A X miscible B comparable A reaction C immiscible B release D incompatible C oxidized D X reduction Q453: In creating a solution, the liquid used to dissolve a substance is called the: Q460: A combination of substances that are held together by physical (binder) rather than chemical ties is called: A solute B suspension A X mixture C X solvent B synthesis D emulsion C compound D solvent

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A chemical Q469: In creating a solution, the liquid used to dissolve a B soluble substance is called the: C X physical D reactive A solute B suspension Q462: If a product has a pH of 9.0, it is considered: C X solvent D emulsion A neutral B X alkaline Q470: A molecule is formed by joining two or more ______C acid chemically. D balanced A X atoms Q463: ______is a sweet, colorless, oily substance B protons formed by the decomposition of oils, fats, or fatty acid: C neurons D anion A X silicone B glycerine Q471: Inorganic chemistry is the study or substance that C ammonia D alcohol A X do not contain carbon B contain carbon Q464: There are about______naturally occurring elements, each C occupies space with its own distinctive physical and chemical properties: D all of the above

A 60 Q472: Matter is any substance that occupies space? B 70 C 80 A X True D X 90 B False

Q465: Pure water with a pH of 7 is considered to be: Q473: Lighting a match is an example of rapid oxidation

A X neutral A X True B acid B False C alkaline D mineral Q474: A preparation made by dissolving a solid, liquid, or gaseous substance in another substance is a solution. Q466: The separation of a substance into ions is known as: A X True A deionization B False B cation C X ionization Q475: ph. of normal hair is 5.0 D decomposition A X True Q467: Sodium chloride is commonly known as: B False

A soft water Q476: The pH of pure water is 6.0 B X table salt C distilled water A True D bath soap B X False

Q468: Liquids that mix easily are known as: Q477: The study of substances that contain carbon is referred to as organic chemistry A X miscible B compatible A X True

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Q478: Metals, minerals, water and air are examples of: Q487: pH scale measures the acidity and alkalinity of a substance.

A natural substances A X True B X inorganic substances B False C compounds D none of the above Q488: Reduction means:

Q479: Any object that occupies space is: A subtracting oxygen B adding hydrogen A simple C X subtracting oxygen and adding hydrogen B electric D none of the above C X matter D all of the above Q489: Miscible liquids are liquids that can be:

Q480: The smallest particle of an element is acidic. A X mixed into a stable solution B immiscible A True C organic B X False D easily evaporating

Q481: Chemically joining two of more atoms forms a molecule. Q490: Solute is a substance that is dissolved in:

A X True A water B False B has a high pH C pure substance Q482: Water exists in three different physical states, Which are a D X solution solid, liquid and a gas. Q491: A pure substance is: A X True B False A two different substances mixed together B A molecule and an atom of equal proportions Q483: Immiscible: C X chemical combination of matter in definite proportions D all of the above A becomes a solution B is a suspension Q492: An example of a suspension is: C X not capable of being mixed D all of the above A cake mix B X salad dressing Q484: Hydrophilic: C fruit salad D all of the above A oil loving B X water loving Q493: Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium thioglycolate are C color loving examples of products used to: D heat loving A raise the cortex Q485: Exothermic: B X raise the pH of hair C neutralize the pH of hair A X chemical reaction that produces heat D highly acidic B means no heating action C oil loving Q494: An ion with a negative electrical charge is an: D small particles A atom Q486: Ion is an atom or molecule that carries an electric charge B X anion C cation A X True D redox

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A X True A fine B False B dry C X coarse Q497: Logarithm means multiples of: D limp

A 5 Q505: The design process begins by analyzing the entire person B X 10 and using the design elements and principles to: C 20 D 1000 A X enhance positive features B maximize negative features Q498: The three different states of matter are: C develop contrasting lines D create transitional lines A solid B liquids Q506: In the principles of art and design, the comparative C gases relationship of one thing to another is called: D X all of the above A space Q499: Hydrogen peroxide ( H202 ) is an example of: B volume C X proportion A X oxidizing agent D harmony B emulsion C closes the cuticle Q507: In the hair design process, when deciding to take calculated D matter risks, it is important to have a strong foundation in:

Q500: Lemon juice is: A confidence and balance B fashion design A alkaline C X techniques and skills B pure alkaline D form of space C X acidic D all of the above Q508: In the principles of design, line defines:

Q501: The foundation for all artistic application is: A X form and space B less volume A space C texture and form B X design D form and elements C design wave patterns D design of parallel lines Q509: Lines that extend in the same direction and maintain a constant distance apart are: Q502: You can draw a line in a hairstyle in the direction you want the eye to travel by using: A design lines B extended lines A X a lighter color C X horizontal lines B a darker color D vertical lines C no part D monotone Q510: Lines positioned between horizontal and vertical, used to emphasize or minimize: Q503: What can create a bold and dramatic accent to a design? A curved lines

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A X space A X volume B line B length C volume C classic D texture D shape

Q515: Natural wave patterns are described as straight, wavy, curly, Q522: Balance is described as creating equal or proportions to and: create:

A three-dimensional A width B very straight B X symmetry C combination C structure D X extremely curly D space

Q516: In hair design, with every movement, the relationship of Q523: Curly and overly curly hair does not reflect much light and form and what other design: could be _____ to the touch:

A X space A fine B volume B dry C texture C X coarse D mass D limp

Q517: Hair texture changes can be created or changed temporally Q524: In designing, when the two sides are the same distance from with styling tools and permanently: the center, have the same length and volume, the balance is considered to be: A thermal styling B X chemicals A X symmetrical C zigzag partings B even

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Q525: In designing, when opposite sides have a different lengths Q532: The mass or silhouette of the hairstyle is known as which or different volume and appear to have equal visual weight, it is element of design? referred as: A X form A rhythm balance B space B positioned evenly C line C symmetrical balance D color D X asymmetrical balance Q533: Which element of hair design defines the form and space of Q526: A recurrent pattern of movement in design is referred to as: a hairstyle?

A X rhythm A form B diagonal B space C shapings C X line D balance D wave pattern

Q527: The area of a design where the eye is drawn first before Q534: Lines that are parallel to the floor are called: traveling to the rest of the design is called the; A diagonal A balance B X horizontal B axis C vertical C X emphasis D perpendicular D diagonal Q535: Which type of lines will soften a design? Q528: The most important art principle that holds a design together is: A straight B angular A X harmony C X curved B balance D boxy C volume D emphasis Q536: Hairstyling using ______are best on clients who require the minimum of care when styling their hair: Q529: The facial type that is about one and a half times longer than its width across the brow is the: A X a single line B repeating lines A X oval face C diagonal lines B oblong face D parallel lines C facial contour D diamond face Q537: Finger waves are an example of a style using what type of lines? Q530: Offset or round out the features of a square facial shape, the aim would be to: A a single line B X parallel lines A create the illusion of width in the forehead C diagonal lines B add volume to top and closeness at the sides D contrasting lines C elongate the shape of the face D X create volume between temples and jaw Q538: Horizontal and vertical lines that meet at a 90-degree angle are called: Q531: The area surrounding the mass or general outline of a style is: A repeating lines B diagonal lines A form C transitional lines B X space D X contrasting lines

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A proportion, balance, rhythm, space, harmony Q551: The shampoo provides a good opportunity for the stylist to B X proportion, balance, rhythm, emphasis, harmony analyze the client's: C harmony, balance, proportion, form, wave pattern D rhythm, proportion, balance, space, wave pattern A X hair and scalp conditions B hair and facial features Q545: The comparative relationship between objects relative to C hair and makeup their size is known as: D scalp and makeup

A balance Q552: A client with an infectious disease should be referred to a: B symmetry C harmony A stylist D X proportions B treatment C X physician D client

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A recommend additional services A X descending order B X cleanse the hair and scalp B regular order C recommend products C order of weight D analyze scalp condition D ascending order

Q554: In the shampoo selection process, understanding the pH Q561: The second ingredient that most shampoos have in common scale helps the stylist: is the primary surfactant or:

A affect the look of a bad haircut for the client A color additive B retail products to the client B preservative C X select the proper shampoo for the client C conditioning agent D determine an appropriate style for the client D X base detergent

Q555: An abundant and important element classified as a universal Q562: The water-attracting end of a surfactant molecule is the: solvent is: A element A salt B X hydrophilic B soap C agent C detergent D hydroxide D X water Q563: An acid-balanced shampoo has a pH in the range of: Q556: An alkaline shampoo with a high pH can leave the hair dry, brittle, and more porous and cause fading in: A 4.0 to 6.0 B X 4.5 to 5.5 A conditioning rinses C 4.0 to 6.0 B X color-treated hair D 5.0 to 5.5 C relaxed hair D virgin hair Q564: Shampoos that are recommended for use on color-treated or lightened hair are: Q557: Freshwater form lakes and streams is purified by the processes of sedimentation and: A alkaline-balanced B detergent based A porous substance C surfactant free B mineral D X acid-balanced C X filtration D organic Q565: Shampoos with an acidic ingredient used to remove product buildup on hair are: Q558: Small amounts of chlorine can be added to water to: A X clarifying shampoo A X kill bacteria B treatment shampoos B add minerals C rinsing shampoos C soften water D dandruff shampoos D add dimension Q566: Shampoos used for oily hair and scalp that remove excess Q559: Water that contains certain minerals that lessen the ability oiliness and keep the hair from drying out are: of shampoo to lather readily is: A dry shampoos A rain water B conditioning shampoos B soft water C X balancing shampoos C X hard water D color-enhancing shampoos D distilled water Q567: Shampoos used to brighten or eliminate unwanted gold or brassiness are:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A at the front hairline and working down to the nape area A X color-enhancing shampoos B X at the nape and working up to the frontal area B conditioning shampoos C at the nape area and working sideways C neutralizing shampoos D at the frontal area and work toward the ears D conditioning shampoos Q575: As a safety feature for the client, during a shampoo, the Q568: Substances that absorb moisture or promote the retention of water temperature should be monitored by the stylist by: moisture are: A adjusting the volume and temperature of the water from hot A texturizers or cold B melanins B X keeping one finger over the edge of the spray nozzle in C shampoos contact with the water D X humectants C not adjusting the volume and the temperature of the water D keeping the water pressure as high as possible for contact Q569: A product that slightly increases the diameter of the hair with one finger with a coating action, adding body to the hair, is: Q576: Firm pressure and/or heavy scalp massage should not be A X protein conditioner administered during the shampoo procedure if the client is to B balancing treatment receive a: C color enhancer D instant conditioner A client consultation B leave-in conditioner Q570: A product that is used after a scalp treatment and before C conditioner pack styling to remove oil accumulation is a: D X chemical service

A scalp neutralizer Q577: After shampoo, it is not recommended to apply a B X scalp astringent lotion conditioner: C balancing treatment D conditioning treatment A X to the base of the hair, near the scalp B midsection and ends of the hair shaft Q571: Brushing of the hair should never be done prior to: C to the ends of the shaft D with massage movements A X chemical services B shampoo services Q578: A shampoo that is performed when the client's health does C styling services not allow for a wet shampoo is a: D conditioning services A X dry shampoo procedure Q572: The most highly recommended hairbrushes are those made B conditioning shampoo procedure from: C weekly shampoo procedure D medicated shampoo procedure A nylon bristles B thermal bristles Q579: A stylist should recommend hair or scalp treatments only C X natural bristles after performing a: D smooth bristles A scalp consultation Q573: To avoid physical problems during the shampoo, the correct B professional service posture is to: C X hair and scalp analysis D shampoo procedure A keep shoulders down and feet together B stand as close as possible to the client Q580: A scalp treatment used when there is a deficiency of natural C X keep shoulders back, abdomen in oil on the hair or scalp should contain: D stand behind the client A X moisturizers and emollient ingredients Q574: After shampooing chemically treated hair, gently remove B sulfonated oil base products tangle beginning: C strong soap preparations D mineral and greasy preparations

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A X malassezia Q590: Rain water or chemically softened water that lathers easily B scabies with soap or shampoo. C pathogenic D tinea A water B hard water Q584: Alcohol-based antidandruff lotions and tonics should not be C soft used in conjunction with: D X soft water

A thermal styling Q591: water containing certain minerals that reduce the ability of B scalp massage soap or shampoo to lather C filtration D X infrared lamps A soft water B X hard water Q585: When working a shampoo into a lather, the stylist should C protein use: D water

A portion of nails Q592: Shampoos that are balanced to the Ph of skin and (4.5 to B X cushions of fingertips 5.5). C long fingernails D the wrists A X acid-balanced shampoo B balancing shampoo Q586: C clarifying shampoos Special chemical agents applied to the hair to deposit protein or D shampoos moisturizer, to help restore its strength and give it body, or to protect it against possible breakage. Q593: Shampoos that cleanse the hair without the use of soap and water. A X conditioners B humectants A shampoos C balancing B color shampoos D treatments C X dry or powder shampoo D conditioners Q587: Products designed to slightly increase hair diameter with a coating action, thereby adding body to the hair. Q594: shampoo that wash away excess oiliness from hair and scalp, while preventing the hair from drying out: A humectants B X protein conditioners A X balancing shampoo C conditioners B clarifying shampoo

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C color-enhancing shampoo Q602: The areas of the head where the surface of the head changes D dry or power shampoo are:

Q595: shampoo containing special chemical or drugs for reducing A subsections excessive dandruff or relieving other scalp conditions: B starting points C X reference points A acid- balance shampoo D apex points B balancing shampoo C dry or powder shampoo Q603: In the haircutting procedure, reference points are used to D X medicate shampoo establish:

Q596: products formulated to add moisture to dry hair, with a A head shape heavier formulation that instant conditioners and a longer B X design lines application time: C blunt cutting D foundation lines A soft water B surfancent Q604: The widest part of the head, also known as the crest area, is C X moisturizer the: D hummectants A apex area Q597: Capable of combining with or attracting water: B irregular area C occipital area A nonstripping D X parietal ridge B X hydrophilic C surfactant Q605: The bone that protrudes at the base of the skull is the: D hard water A X occipital bone Q598: Substance that absorb moisture of promote the retention of B parietal bone moisture: C frontal bone D crest bone A moisturizers B lipophilic Q606: The highest point at the top of the head is the: C soft water D X humectant A crown B X apex Q599: Capable of attracting oil: C parietal D occipital A X lipophilic B hydrophilic Q607: The reference point that signals a change in head shape C soft water from flat to round or vice versa is the: D hard water A crown area Q600: Cleansing of surface active agent; B occipital corner C X four corners A lipophilic D parietal ridge B X surfactant C nonstripping Q608: The area at the back part of the neck below the occipital D soft water bone is the:

Q601: A good haircut begins with an understanding of the: A guide area B flat area A body form C ends area B X head form D X nape area C body posture D facial expression Q609: The triangular section that begins at the apex and ends at the front corners is the:

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A X fringe area A subsection B front area B X elevation C corner area C parting D nape area D separating

Q610: A thin continuous mark that is used throughout a haircut is Q617: Elevating the hair at 90 degrees or higher during a haircut called a(n): results in the removal of:

A section A length and curl B corner B less graduation C angle C X weight, or layering the hair D X line D bald and length

Q611: The space between two lines or surfaces that intersect at a Q618: The angle at which the fingers are held when performing a given pint is a(n): haircut is the:

A corner A end shape B X angle B blunt cut C bang C X cutting line D line D perimeter line

Q612: The straight lines used to build weight or create a one- Q619: The first section cut when creating a shape is the: length or low-elevation haircut are: A occipital line A parallel B internal part B X horizontal lines C X guideline C weight lines D basic line D diagonal lines Q620: The outer line of a haircut is referred to as the: Q613: The straight lines used to remove weight or create graduated layers are: A traveling guide B stationary guide A cutting lines C interior B diagonal lines D X perimeter C X vertical lines D horizontal lines Q621: The guideline used when creating layers or a graduated cut is a: Q614: The haircutting technique using diagonal lines to create fullness and blend long layers into short layer is: A X traveling guideline B outer guideline A beveling C stationary guideline B weight D shape guideline C X diagonal D fullness Q622: The technique of combing hair away from its natural falling position, rather than straight out from the head toward a guideline, Q615: For control during haircutting, the hair is divided into is: uniform working areas called: A subsectioning A foundations B X overdirection B uneven C traveling guidelines C parts D undercutting D X sections Q623: A conversation where the stylist offers professional advice Q616: The angle or degree at which a subsection of hair is held and suggestions to the client is the: while cutting is;

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A decision process B X barber comb B suggestion process C tail comb C finished consultation D styling comb D X client consultation Q631: The hand that holds the shears, parts the hair, and cuts the Q624: For a client with a long face, the stylist would recommend a hair during the cutting procedure called the: style that: A holding hand A adds volume and height on top B right hand B X adds fullness on the sides to add width C X dominant hand C adds weight to chin and front D extra hand D adds fullness in length Q632: The technique where the comb and shears are held closed in Q625: To compensate for shrinkage associated with curly hair, the the dominant hand at the same time is called: stylist should allow for shrinkage of; A X palming the shears A 1/4 inch to 1 inch B controlling the shears B X 1/2 inch to 2 inches C opening the shears C 1/8 inch to 1 inch D holding the comb D 1 inch to 3 inches Q633: The technique used to free up the dominant cutting hand to Q626: The direction that hair grow from the scalp into a natural cut a subsection is called: falling position is the: A moving the shears A outermost perimeter B X transferring the comb B X growth pattern C removing the shears C parallel section D working the shears D fringe area Q634: A haircutting tool used for detailing and texturizing or an Q627: The number of individual hair strands on one square inch of entire haircut is the: scalp is hair: A shingling A texture B trimmer B crown C X straight razor C X density D carving D length Q635: The term used to describe the pressure applied to hair when Q628: The haircutting tool with large teeth set far apart, designed combing or holding a subsection is: to remove a significant amount of hair, is: A X tension A haircutting shears B sectioning B edger shears C elevation C clipper shears D angle D X notching shears Q636: When cutting straight hair to create a precise design line, Q629: A small haircutting tool used to create crisp outlines is a: use:

A feather blade A no tension B X trimmer B X maximum tension C razor C tension ranges D texture shear D little tension

Q630: The haircutting tool used for close taper in the scissor-over- Q637: When cutting hair, a general rule of thumb is to stand or sit: comb technique is the: A directly behind the area you are cutting A wide-toothed comb B X directly in front of the are you are cutting

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C indirectly behind the area you are cutting D 30 degrees D to the left of the area you are cutting Q645: Parting the haircut in the opposite way it was cut to check Q638: In cutting uniform or increasing layers, the hand position for precision of line and shape is: most often used is cutting: A X cross-checking A at the fingertips B consistent tension B between the fingers C mirror elevation C past the first knuckle D blunt cutting D X over the fingers Q646: The area for the head that has the most irregular growth Q639: The technique of cutting below the fingers or inside the patterns is the: knuckles using a horizontal cutting line creates: A nape A cutting uniform or increasing layers B back B X heavier graduated haircut or a one-length bob C X crown C shorter layer haircut or a shag effect D sides D high level layered effect or a bi-level cut Q647: In using the wide teeth of a comb when cutting, comb the Q640: A haircutting technique that maintains control of a section first with the fine teeth and then: subsection with regard to elevations and overdirection is: A change the position of the comb and comb with fine teeth A cutting over the fingers B switch comb to alternate hand and comb with fine teeth B cutting with a razor C X turn the comb around and comb with the wide teeth C X cutting palm-to-palm D turn the comb on its side and comb the fine teeth D cutting below the fingers Q648: In general a razor should not be used on curly hair as it will: Q641: When cutting below the finger, to prevent cutting the soft and fleshy part of the finger, avoid cutting past the: A strengthen the weight line and cause the hair to frizz B X weaken the cuticle and cause the hair to frizz A X the second knuckle C cause the hair to expand and the medulla to frizz B the fingertip D strengthen the cuticle and cause the hair to flatten C the index finger D the thumb Q649: The term used to describe how hair is moved over the head is: Q642: The visual line in a haircut, where the ends of the hair hang together, is the: A natural head form B X natural distribution A guideline C natural fringe B X weight line D weight line C graduated line D stationary line Q650: When working with a razor, the ends are cut at an angle producing a softer shape with more visible separation or: Q643: A haircut achieved using a stationary guide and zero or no elevation and the hair comes to one hanging level is a: A blunt effect B short effect A graduated cut C X feathered effect B long layers cut D geometric effect C layer cut D X blunt cut Q651: Is a form of energy.

Q644: In a graduated haircut, the most common elevation used is: A watt B conductor A 0 degrees C X electricity B X 45 degrees D amp C 80 degrees

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Q653: Is any substance that does not easily transmits electricity. A X volt B insulator A X insulator C inactive B energy D wave length C kilowatt D current Q661: The unit that measures the amount of an electric current is an. Q654: Is a substance that easily transmit electricity. A volt A amp B watt B emulsion C catalysts C surfactants D X Amp D X conductor Q662: One thousandth of an ampere is a . Q655: Another name for an insulator is A kilowatt A galvanic current B amp B physical change C X milliampere C conductor D volt D X nonconductor Q663: A ______is a measurement of how much electricity or Q656: The path of an electric current from generating source energy is being used in one second. through conductors and back to its original source. A X watt A X complete circuit B volt B conductor C rectifier C wave D circuit breaker D fuse Q664: A ______is 1000 watts. Q657: A constant even flowing current that travels in one direction only. A milliampere B X kilowatt A energy C electrode B X Direct current D cataphoresis C straight current D opposite current Q665: A fuse is a special device that prevents excessive current from passing through a circuit Q658: An apparatus that changes direct current to alternating current is a. A X True B False A circuit breaker B amp Q666: A ______is a switch that automatically interrupts or C X converter shuts off an electric circuit.. D volt A X circuit breaker Q659: A rapid and interrupted current, flowing in one direction B fuse and then the opposite direction. C device D galvanic current A milliampere

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A curling irons Q676: What indicates the negative or positive pole of an electric B hair dryers current. C electric clippers D X all of the above A electrotherapy B modalities Q668: The principle of "grounding" is another important way of C wall plate promoting electrical safety. D X polarity

A X True Q677: The positive electrode is called an B False A cathode Q669: Electronic facial treatments are commonly referred to as B watt C radiation A catalysts D X anode B cataphoresis C X Electrotherapy Q678: The negative electrode is called a D galvanic current A X cathode Q670: Inspect all electrical equipment regularly. B electromagnetic radiation C anaphoresis A X True D wave length B False Q679: The most commonly used modality is Q671: Leave your client unattended while connected to an electrical device. A X galvanic current B electricity A True C electromagnetic radiation B X False D tesla high frequency current

Q672: disconnect appliances by pulling on the plug, not the cord. Q680: The ______is the electrode used on the area to be treated. A X True B False A wave length B X active electrode Q673: An instrument that plugs into an ordinary wall outlet C desincrustation D anaphoresis A wall cord B X wall plate Q681: The ______is the opposite pole from the active C converter electrode. D circuit breaker A galvanic current Q674: ______produces a different effect on the skin B active electrode C alternating current A watt D X inactive electrode B breaker C X Modalities Q682: Process of introducing water-soluble products into the skin D radiation with the use of electric current.

Q675: An electrode is an applicator for directing the electric A inactive electrode current from the machines to the clients _____ B galvanic current C X iontophoresis A X skin D anaphoresis B toes

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A modalities A 80 B X cataphoresis B 50 C radiation C 30 D desincrustation D X 60

Q684: Do not use negative galvanic current on the skin with Q692: A clients eyes should always be protected during any light broken capillaries or pustular acne conditions. therapy treatment.

A X True A X True B False B False

Q685: Is the process of forcing liquids into the tissue from the Q693: ______rays are the primary source of light used in negative towards the positive pole. facial and scalp treatments.

A conductor A X visible light B insulator B blue light C direct current C white light D X Anaphoresis D red light

Q686: Thermal or heat producing current with a high rate of Q694: Blue light should only be used on bare ______skin. oscillation or vibration. A X oily A X Tesla high frequency current B normal B electromagnetic radiation C acne C modalities D dry D direct current Q695: Red light is used on dry skin in combination with. Q687: Tesla high frequency current should be used on clients who are pregnant. A electricity B a scrub A True C a mask B X False D X oils and creams

Q688: visible light that we can see. Q696: Ultra violets rays make up ____ percent of natural sunlight, and also referred to as cold rays. A UV rays B wave length A 25 C X rays B 2 D X electromagnetic radiation C X 5 D 10 Q689: The distance between two successive peaks is called Q697: ______are used to make reactions happen more A X wave length quickly. B amp C watt A visible light D current B X catalysts C UV rays Q690: visible light makes up _____ percent of natural sunlight. D watt

A 40 Q698: Over exposure to UV rays can produce painful burns and B 25 blistering and increases the risk of. C X 35 D 75 A arthritis

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Q699: A steamer or vaporizer produces Q706: In horizontal finger waves, the waves are placed:

A gas A up and down the head B pressure B on the heavy side of the head C X moist C down the parallel D liquid D X sideways and parallel around the head

Q700: Electric curling and flat irons are available in many types Q707: The stationary foundation of a pin curl is the: and. A X base A X sizes B curl B discounts C section C brands D stem D colors Q708: The part of the pin curl that gives the curl its direction and Q701: To ensure that the client has the knowledge necessary to movement is the: care for their hair properly between salon visits, it is the responsibility of the professional to: A arc B X stem A never explain about proper home care maintenance C base B X educate clients on home hair maintenance and professional D no-stem products C suggest they purchase consumer products Q709: The stem of the pin curl is the part that determines: D never suggest the use of professional products A placement Q702: The first step in the hairstyling process should always be a: B curl C width A cool water shampoo D X mobility B draping procedure C X client consultation Q710: Pin curls that produce tight, firm, long-lasting curls and D conditioning treatment allow for minimum mobility are:

Q703: Shaping and directing the hair into an S formation using a A X no-stem pin curl comb, lotion, and the fingers is called: B half-stem pin curl C on-base pin curl A hairstyling D off-base pin curl B X finger waving C ridge curls Q711: Pins curls formed in a shaping should begin at the: D roller setting A X open end Q704: Hair gel that makes the hair pliable, keeps it in place, and is B closed side made from karaya gum is: C odd side D shaping side A conditioning gel B diluted gel Q712: Smooth waves and uniform curls are produced by: C X waving lotion D hair conditioner A closed center curls B no-stem curls Q705: When creating finger waves with a side part, you should C X open center curls begin on the: D molded curls

A drying side

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q713: Pin curls formed in the opposite direction of the hands of a clock are: A base B X tension A alternating curls C volume B X counterclockwise curls D angle C clockwise curls D ridge curls Q721: The panel of hair on which a roller is placed is the:

Q714: Pin curls bases are referred to as rectangular, triangular, A stem square, or: B section C X base A X arc-based D subsection B on-base C no-base Q722: Hair between the scalp and the first turn of a roller is the: D closed-base A curl Q715: Triangular base pin curls are used along the front or facial B base hairline to: C arc D X stem A provide volume and height B add wave patterns Q723: For a roller set where little or no volume is required, the C provide smooth overlapping curls rollers should be placed: D X prevent breaks or splits A on-base Q716: Creating tension by forcing hair between the thumb and B X off-base back of a comb when making pin curls is called: C half-base D down-base A X ribboning B smoothing Q724: The point where curls of opposite directions meet forming a C arcing recessed area is: D placing A X indentation Q717: Pin curls sliced from a shaping and formed without lifting B convex the hair from the head are: C mobility D directional A stem curls B design curls Q725: The metal edge of roller clips placed at an angle against the C X carved curls hair can cause: D ridge curls A no tension Q718: Two rows of ridge curls placed on the side of a head are: B long curls C loose tension A ridge waves D X hair breakage B X skip waves C alternating waves Q726: A tight scalp can be rendered more flexible by the D clockwise waves systematic use of hair brushing or:

Q719: Pin curls that allow the hair to flow upward and downward A cool water rinsing are called stand-up curls or: B X scalp massage C dry shampooing A X cascade curls D oil conditioning B alternating curls C C-shaped curls Q727: Brushes designed to speed up the blow-drying fine hair and D skip waves adding lift at the scalp are:

Q720: Barrel curls are similar to a roller, but do not have the same: A classic brushes

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Q728: The blow-dryer attachment that causes the air to flow more A hot rollers softly and helps to accentuate or keep textural definition is the: B X wrapping hair C velcro rollers A X diffuser D thermal curling B concentrator C nozzle Q736: Another name for back-brushing is: D clamp A X ruffing Q729: Hot rollers are used on dry hair and are heated electrically B teasing or by ______: C matting D French lacing A heaters B hot oil Q737: Another name for back-combing is; C hot air D X steam A teasing B ratting Q730: Half-base rollers sitting halfway on the base and halfway C French lacing behind the base, produce ______volume: D X all of the above

A low Q738: A loose roller will lose its tension and result in a ______B high set: C X medium D extremely A strong B firm Q731: For full volume, place the roller ______: C decorative D X weak A halfway on its base B completely off its base Q739: For full volume, what type of roller base is used? C halfway behind its base D X directly on its base A X on base B one-half base Q732: Combs for thermal curling should be made of: C off base D semi-base A plastic B metal Q740: What type of roller sits behind the base creating the least C X hard rubber volume? D soft rubber A on base Q733: Spiral curls are hanging curls that are suitable for _____ B one-half base ______hairstyles: C X off base D semi-base A short bobs B X medium to long Q741: What type of pin curls have large center opening and are C one-length fastened to the head in a standing position on a rectangular base? D short spiked A ridge curls Q734: When using hot rollers, it may be prudent to use: B semi-stand-up curls C X barrel curls A a cream conditioner D brush waves B a firm hold spray C X a thermal protector Q742: What type of pin curl is used to create height in the hair D a temporary rinse design?

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A base A X stand-up curls B stem B semi-stand-up curls C X circle C ridge curls D clip D brush waves Q750: Waving lotion makes hair _____ and keeps it in place Q743: Another name for carved curls is: during the finger-waving procedure:

A long curls A X pliable B short curls B firm C ribboned curls C rigid D X sculptured curls D elastic

Q744: What type of base curls are recommended along the front or Q751: The temperature of pressing combs should be tested: facial hairline to prevent breaks or splits in the finished hairstyle? A X on a piece of white paper A X triangular base B with running water B square base C on the client C rectangular base D on a damp towels D oblong base Q752: To prevent the smoking or burning of hair during the Q745: A section of hair that you mold into a circular movement in pressing treatment avoid preparation for the formation of curls is called: A X excessive pressing oil A X C-shaping B excessive pressure B a shaping C excessive tension C a base D excessive pressing D a stem Q753: A tight scalp can be rendered more flexible by the Q746: Which type of pin curls produce even, smooth waves and systematic use of hair brushing or: uniform curls? A Cool water rinsing A full-stem B X scalp massage B half-stem C dry shampooing C closed center D oil conditioning D X open center Q754: Handles of pressing combs are usually made of: Q747: The type of pin curl that permits the greatest amount of movement is called: A X wood B carbon A X full-stem C steel B half-stem D brass C closed center D open center Q755: A method of curling hair by winding a strand around a rod is a(n): Q748: The stationary, or nonmoving foundation of the curl, which is the area closest to the scalp is called the: A pin curl B on -base curl A X base C thermal curl B stem D X spiral curl C circle D arc Q756: Fine ,lightened, or badly damage hair withstands less heat than: Q749: The part of the pin curl that form a complete circle is called the: A X normal hair B thick hair

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C fine hair Q764: Use thermal iron only after receiving: D white hair A clean iron Q757: Nonelectric thermal irons are heated in a specially designed B blow dry styling C diffuser A electricity D X instruction in their use B electric iron C X electric or gas stove Q765: Do not overheat the iron, because this can damage of the D curling iron ability of the iron to:

Q758: As a rule, coarse and gray hair can withstand more heat A medium temperature than: B curl C low temperature A process hair D X hold heat uniformly B X fine hair C thick hair Q766: Test the temperature of the iron on a; D normal hair A hair Q759: Is a method of curling the hair by winding a strand around B paper towel the rod: C towel D X tissue paper A end curl B base curl Q767: use only hard rubber or: C barrels curl D X spiral curl A X nonflammable comb B celluloid comb Q760: Can be used to give a finished appearance to hair ends: C half base curl D off base curl A spiral curl B base curl Q768: Place a comb between the scalp and the thermal iron when C open center curl curling hair to: D X end curl A burn the hair Q761: Volume thermal irons curls are used to create: B X prevent burning the scalp C brake the hair A rod D hurt someone B volume or lift C curl Q769: When ironing lightened, tinted or relaxing hair, always used D X volume base curl or lift a:

Q762: The metal portion of the pressing comb should acquire a A tissue paper smooth and shiny appearance when, after cleaning, it is immersed B hold heat uniformly in a solution of: C X a gentle heat setting D hot setting A Hydrogen peroxide B X baking soda Q770: which remove about 50 to 60 percent of the curl C sodium hypochlorite D alcohol A X soft press B medium press Q763: For best result when giving a thermal set place curl with a C hard press D double press A X clip B comb Q771: Which remove about 60 to 75 percent of the curl: C a bobby pin D rubber band A hard press B X medium press

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C soft press Q779: It may be a good idea to temper a new______pressing D double press comb

Q772: Which removes 100 percent of the curl A X brass B steel A soft press C rubber B medium press D celluloid C double press D X hard press Q780: Hair-pressing treatments which are sometimes necessary when the hair becomes curly again due to perspiration or dampness Q773: Coarse hair has the greatest diameter and during the are called: pressing process it requires: A soft presses A heat B medium presses B damages C hard presses C X more heat and pressure D X touch-up presses D hair pressing Q781: A hard press can also be done by first passing a hot thermal Q774: To avoid hair breakage apply less heat and: iron through the hair, this is called a:

A more heat A hard press B less pressure B medium press C brass C soft press D X pressure D X double press

Q775: The condition of the client scalp can be classified as: Q782: Burnt hair strands:

A texture and elasticity A X cannot be conditioned B hair pressing B can be conditioned C X normal, tight or flexible C grow more rapidly D damage D will stop growing

Q776: A release statement should be used for hair pressing as with Q783: Technique of drying and styling damp hair in a single all services to help protect the stylist from responsibility from: operation:

A injuries A back- combing B burns B X blow-dry styling C heat C double press D X accidents or damages D diffuser

Q777: Applying a conditioning treatment usually result in: Q784: Nozzle attachment of a blow-dryer; direct the air stream to any section of the hair more intensely: A X better hair pressing B off base curl A end curl C curling iron B blow dryer D heat and pressure C diffuser D X concentrator Q778: There are two types of pressing combs, regular and electric, both should be constructed of good-quality stainless and Q785: A light, airy whipped styling product that resembles shaving foam and builds moderate body and volume into hair A celluloid B rubber A gel C nonflammable B X foam or mousse D X steel or brass C hair spray D was o pomade

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q786: thickened styling preparation that comes in a tube or bottle Q793: Section of hair that is molded in a circular movement in and has a strong hold: preparation for the formation of the curl is

A X gel A updo B hair spray B rod C mousse C stem D waving lotion D X shaping

Q787: Method of temporarily straightening extremely curly on Q794: The clamp that presses the hair against the barrel of the unruly hair by means of a heated iron to comb thermal Iron is the:

A hair wrapping A stem B indentation B rod C circle C X shell D X hair pressing D updo

Q788: A styling product applied in the hair to hold a style in Q795: Styling product ingredients that adds gloss and sheen to the position hair while creating texture definition

A gel A X silicone B mousse B gel C wax or pomade C pomade or wax D X hair spray D mousse

Q789: Styling product that has considerable weight to the hair by Q796: relaxes the hair for a smooth, straight look causing strand to join together showing separation in the hair A gel A hair spray B X straightening gel B gel C mousse C X pomade or wax D pomade or wax D mousse Q797: An implement comprised of a rod handle, shell handle, Q790: techniques of forcing the hair between the thumb and the of barrel or rod an shell that is made of quality steel used to press the back of the comb create tension: hair using heat:

A ridge curl A updo B skip wave B thermal waving and curling C X ribboning C soft press D stem D X thermal iron

Q791: Pin curls placed immediately behind or below a ridge to Q798: Hairstyle in which that hair is arranged up and off the form a wave shoulders:

A spiral curl A shaping B open center curl B stem C on base curl C volumizer D X ridge curl D X updo

Q792: Round solid barrel of a thermal iron Q799: Styling product that adds volume to the shape, especially at the base when the hair is blow dried A shell B X rod A X volumizer C updo B volume base curl D volumizer C stem D shell

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q800: Hard press is also known as: A waves and curls to create balance A X double-comb press B an updo style to create height B thermal press C a wave pattern to create depth C chemical press D X a full style that frames the face D rod press Q808: Styles with partial bangs or braids that frame the face and Q801: In some African tribes, different styles of braiding signified minimize a wide forehead should be used for facial shapes that are: a person's: A round shaped A personal bonds B X an inverted triangle B X social status within the community C square shaped C fashion statement D oval shaped D esthetic significance Q809: Hair with no previous coloring or lightening treatments, Q802: Styling performed without chemicals or dyes and when the chemicals, or physical abuse is considered: natural curl or coil pattern of hair is not altered is: A chemical free hair A traditional hairstyling B textured hairs B X natural hairstyling C structured hair C textured services D X natural or virgin D unisex styling Q810: The brush recommended for scalp stimulation and removal Q803: To avoid misunderstandings in performing natural styling or dirt and lint from locks is: services, it is necessary to perform a(n): A vent brush A X quality client consultation B X boar-bristle brush B elaborate conditioning treatment C nylon-bristle brush C excellent shampoo procedure D paddle brush D preliminary scalp massage Q811: The bristles of a square paddle brush that are pneumatic Q804: When performing a consultation for natural hairstyling will collapse when they encounter too much: services, the focus should be on: A X resistance A service price B oil and dirt B time and effort C tension C hair length D extension D X hair texture Q812: The most important feature of a wide-toothed comb is the: Q805: In natural hairstyling services, texture refers to the diameter and feel of hair plus the: A X distance between the teeth of the comb B length of the comb handle A structure of hair C colors available for the comb B condition of hair D designs of the comb's teeth C X wave pattern D length configuration Q813: A diffuser dries hair without disturbing the finished look or:

Q806: In textured hair, a coil configuration is defined as having a: A X dehydrating hair B conditioning hair A square pattern C blending hair B X tight curl pattern D shortening hair C circular pattern D loose curl pattern Q814: A manufactured synthetic fiber that does not reflect light and is similar in texture to extremely curly or coiled hair is: Q807: To create length and soften facial lines with a square face, the hair should be styled with: A X kanekalon

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B yam B X as they are crossed over each other C nylon C to make a third strand D rayon D as they are split over each other

Q815: When curly hair is braided wet, it shrinks and recoils and Q822: Partings for braids can be square, triangular, or rectangular may cause excess: and determine:

A matte finish A X where the braid is placed and how it moves B slipping B the length and direction of the finished braid C manufactured shine C the shape of the underhand or overhand technique D X pulling and tension D the hair texture and where the braid is placed

Q816: To make a straight or resistant hair more pliable when Q823: Extensions for single braids are integrated into natural hair braiding, apply a: using the:

A silicone shine spray A two-strand overhand technique B X light coat of wax or pomade B X three-strand underhand technique C heavy conditioner C individual braid technique D synthetic fiber D medium to large techniques

Q817: When blow-drying textured hair, the hair becomes soft and Q824: Narrow, visible braids that lie close to the scalp created the wave pattern becomes: with a three-strand on-the-scalp braid technique are:

A X elongated A French braids B sectioned B X cornrows C combed C fishtail braids D tangled D free-hanging braids

Q818: The three-strand underhand braid technique where strands Q825: Extensions added to cornrows or individual braids with the are woven under the center strand is a: feed-in method build the braid up:

A twist braid A with excessive weight B X visible braid B using tension C inverted braid C three strands as once D invisible braid D X strand by strand

Q819: The three-strand braid produced by overlapping the strands Q826: Natural textured hair intertwined and meshed together on top of each other is the: forming a single or separate network of hair is called:

A X inverted braid A X dreadlocks B box braid B extensions C micro-braid C cornrows D visible braid D braids

Q820: The two-strand braid where the hair strands are twisted Q827: Three basic methods of hair locking are the comb around each other is the: technique, braids or extensions, and:

A inverted braid A networking B fishtail braid B meshing C X rope braid C block rolling D visible braid D X palm rolling

Q821: In the fishtail braid, hair is picked up from the sides and Q828: The gentle palm rolling method of locking hair takes added to the strands: advantage of the hair's natural:

A as often as necessary A length and texture

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B ability to grow D strengthen C texture and diameter D X ability to coil Q836: Synthetic wigs that are particularly durable are made out of:

Q829: The traditional cornrow is flat, natural, and: A silk B polyester A set in diagonal partings C yak B X contoured to the scalp D X modacrylic C spiral and design D overextended or misplaced Q837: The most expensive wigs are constructed using:

Q830: Synthetic hair fiber, human hair fiber, or yarn can be added A synthetic materials to a single braid to form a: B X human hair C monacrylic materials A X lock D human hair mix B cornrow C fishtail braid Q838: The roots ends of hair with the cuticle placed in the same D rope braid direction to prevent tangling is:

Q831: The wig service costs and maintenance should be discussed A human hair during the: B fallen hair C tangle-free hair A follow-up visit D X turned hair B X client consultation C shampoo procedure Q839: A hand-knotted wig constructed for a secure fit with an D fitting procedure elasticized mesh fiber base is a:

Q832: The artificial covering that covers 100 percent of the client's A connected weft natural hair is a: B X cap wig C capless wig A toupee D synthetic wig B X wig C hairpiece Q840: The hand-tied method of wig construction resembles actual D braids hair growth with:

Q833: A small hair addition used to cover the top or crown of the A X flexibility at the root area head is a(n): B availability in many colors C ease of care A braid D special fitting requirements B extension C X hairpiece Q841: A head-shaped form used for securing a wig is a: D wig A client Q834: The fastest way to determine whether a strand of hair is B form synthetic is to: C X block D canvas A X burn it with a match B ask the manufacturer Q842: When mounting a wig to block, the wig should be pinned C shampoo the hair evenly using: D style the hair A bobby pins Q835: With exposure, the color of human hair wigs may: B staples C X T-shaped pins A last D H-shaped pins B reset C X oxidize

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q843: When performing a haircutting procedure on a wig, the general goal is to make the wig: A full wig pieces B weft base hairpiece A fit properly C interlocking hairpiece B achieve weight D X integration hairpieces C shorter D X look realistic Q851: A small wig for men used to cover the top and crown of the head is a: Q844: When cutting a wig using a free-form method, move from longer to shorter lengths, working toward the: A X toupee B wraparound A length C track B X weight D weave C sides D form Q852: Hair additions secured to the base of natural hair that add length, volume, texture, of color are; Q845: Recommended styling products for wigs should be formulated for: A manufactured wigs B X hair extensions A X color-treated hair C hair wraps B natural hair D hair combs C textured hair D synthetic hair Q853: Hair attached to an on-the-scalp braid that serves as the track is secured using a; Q846: Before placing the wig on the head the hair should be: A X track-and-sew method A sectioned and secure B glue-and-blunt method B X flat and even C track-and-angle method C wrapped and in rollers D sew-and-diagonal method D in pin curls and secure Q854: When sewing and extension onto a track, the needle should Q847: When shampooing a wig, avoid shampoos that have a(n): be:

A oil base A dull and pointed B X sulfur base B straight and long C conditioning base C sharp and dull D bolster base D X straight or curved

Q848: Synthetic hair colors used on wigs and hairpieces are Q855: The sewing stitch where the thread is wound around the standardized using: needle twice is the:

A natural color level ring A X double-lock-stitch B black to red color ring B secure lock stitch C 90 colors on the haircolor ring C overcast stitch D X 70 colors on the haircolor ring D loop stitch

Q849: Prior to performing a color application on a wig or Q856: Attaching hair wefts or single strands with an adhesive or hairpiece, perform a: glue is a:

A metallic test A track method B patch test B lockstitch method C X strand test C sewing method D pulling test D X bonding method

Q850: Hairpieces with base openings that allow a clients hair to be Q857: Hair that is bonded can be successfully shampooed pulled and blended are: provided it is done:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q864: Attachment method in which hair extensions are secured at A X gently the base of the clients own hair by sewing B often C weekly A semi-hand-tied wigs D monthly B machine-made wigs C wigs Q858: The fusion method of extensions requires that the bonding D X track-and-sew method material be activated with: Q865: Method of attaching hair extensions in which hair wefts or A bonding materials and no pressure single strands are attached with an adhesive or a glue gun B wefts and pressure C heat and finger pressure A block D X heat from a special tool B X bonding C fusion Q859: The fusion procedure involves wrapping both the client's D toupee hair and a: Q866: Artificial covering for the head consisting of a network of A sectioned-based strip interwoven hair B free-form strip C X keratin-based strip A wefts D adhesive-based strip B cap wig C X wig Q860: A styling maintenance program educates clients in the use D capless wig of: Q867: Wigs made by inserting individuals strands of hair into A X styling products mesh foundations and knotting them with a needle B client's budget C health issues A semi-hand-tied wigs D catalog prices B integration hairpiece C wefts Q861: Head- shaped form, usually made of canvas-covered cork or D X hand-tied wigs or hand-knotted wigs Styrofoam, to which the wig is secured for fitting, cleaning, coloring, and styling Q868: Wigs made by machine by feeding wefts through a sewing machine, and then sewing them together to form the base and A X block shape of the wigs. B cap wigs C bonding A X machine-made wigs D wefts B wefts C semi-hand-tied wigs Q862: Hair additions that are secured to the base of the client's D hairpiece natural hair in order to add length, volume, texture, or color Q869: Wigs constructed with a combination of synthetic hair and A hairpiece hand-tied human hair. B wig C X hair extensions A track-and-sew method D fusion B fallen hair C X semi-hand-tied wigs Q863: Method of attaching extensions in which extension hair is D cap wigs bonded to the client's own hair with a bonding material that is activated by heat from a special tool Q870: Wigs consisting of elasticized mesh- fiber bases to which the hair is attached A turned hair B X fusion A hair extensions C hairpiece B capless wig D hand- tied wigs or hand- knotted wigs C X cap wigs D block

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Q871: Machine-made wigs in which rows of wefts are sewn to Q878: Conduct your consultation with understanding and elastic strips in a circular pattern to fit the head shape sensitivity, make a person-to-person connection that

A cap wig A X conveys a positive attitude B X capless wig B motivates your client for trying a hair enhancement C wig C becomes a social event D wefts D determine your client's personality type

Q872: Small wig used to cover the top or crown of the head; does Q879: The point of the consultation is to cut through the doubts not fully cover the head; toupee and fears with____

A hair extensions A bad communication B toupee B working with the client's hair type C X hairpiece C X genuine communication D fallen hair D selecting the appropriate hair addition

Q873: Hairpiece with an opening in the base through which the Q880: In 18th-century England, men wore wigs, called ___ client's own hair is pulled to blend with the hair(natural or synthetic) of the hairpiece. A capless wigs B black wigs A X integration hairpiece C wefts B bonding D X perukes C hairpiece D turned hair Q881: The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is: Q874: Strips of human or artificial hair woven by hand or machine onto a thread. A curl softening B X curl re-formation A cap wigs C alternate waving B wig D swelling compound C X wefts D hairpiece Q882: All chemical texture procedures involve changing the hair structure using: Q875: Virgin hair is the most costly, color-treated hair is the second in cost. A steady and constant changes B chemical and layer changes A Indian hair C physical and wave changes B X European hair D X chemical and physical changes C Asian hair D Human hair mixed with animal hair Q883: The exterior hair structure layer that protects the hair from damage is the: Q876: Are constructed with and elasticized mesh-fiber base to which the hair is attached. A X cuticle B medulla A capless wig C follicle B wefts D shaft C X Cap wigs D fallen hair Q884: The layer of the hair that provides strength and elasticity is the: Q877: Are machine-made A medulla A X capless wigs B X cortex B wefts C regular C wigs D arrector D turned hair

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q885: Hair bonds that cannot be broken by heat or water are: Q892: Long, coiled polypeptide chains that are part of the hairs structured are: A X disulfide bonds B cuticle bonds A salt bonds C sulfur bonds B X keratin proteins D inner bonds C alkaline proteins D peptide bonds Q886: The natural pH of hair is between: Q893: The client record card should include a complete evaluation A 4.0 and 5.0 of the length, texture, color, and: B X 4.5 and 5.5 C 5.0 and 6.5 A X condition of the hair D 6.0 and 7.0 B previous style of the hair C client's favorite color Q887: One of the most important parts of a successful texture D the client's age service is the: Q894: During the hair and scalp analysis procedure, the stylist A shampoo consultation should look for: B X clients consultation C draping procedure A cream conditioners D technical skill B X abrasions or signs of scalp disease C previous styling products used Q888: Permanent waves cannot be performed if the hair is coated D previous successful hair services with: Q895: Hair texture that requires a longer processing or rewetting A hydrogen shampoo of solution to ensure complete saturation is: B metallic shine C epsom salts A regular-textured hair D X metallic salts B fine-textured hair C wavy-textured hair Q889: Disulfide bonds are chemical-based side bonds that are D X coarse-textured hair formed when: Q896: The measurement of the number of hairs per square inch on A three peptide bonds are broken apart the head is: B X sulfur atoms in two adjacent protein chains are joined together A X density C two salt-type chains are joined together B length D three salt bonds are joined together C porosity D elasticity Q890: The measurement used to determine the hydrogen ions in a solutions is: Q897: An indication of the strength of the side bond is:

A X potential of hydrogen A porosity B chemical composition B X elasticity C potential negativity C flexibility D chemical solution D absorption

Q891: Chemical texturizers temporarily raise the pH of the hair by Q898: The second process of a permanent wave is the: lifting the cuticle layer to: A physical change process A allow penetration to the medulla layer B elasticity change process B allow amino acids to swell C X chemical change process C X allow the solution to reach cortex D influence change process D allow keratin proteins to be removed Q899: In permanent waving, the size of the curl is determined by the:

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A position of the rod A croquignole perm wrap B length of the hair B ends perm wrap C wrapping of the rod C X piggyback wrap D X size of the rod D spiral perm wrap

Q900: The permanent wave rod that produces a uniform curl along Q907: A reduction reaction involves either the addition of the entire width of the strand is a: hydrogen or removal of:

A X straight rod A X oxygen B concave rod B peroxide C convex rod C carbon D loop rod D nitrogen

Q901: A wrapping technique using two endpapers, one placed Q908: A common, colorless reducing agent used in chemical under the strand and one over is the: texture services is:

A bookend wrap A alkalizing agent B X double-flat wrap B X thioglycolic acid C single-flat wrap C reducing agent D end wrap D endothermic acid

Q902: Permanent wave rods are placed onto subsections of a panel Q909: The main reducing agent in alkaline permanent is: called: A sodium hydroxide A X base sections B X ammonium thioglycolate B panel sections C ammonium hydroxide C inverted sections D ammonium bromide D center sections Q910: Most alkaline permanent waves have a pH between: Q903: The position of a permanent wave rod in relation to its base section is the: A X 9.0 and 9.6 B 9.0 and 10.1 A base direction C 8.0 and 10.0 B rod angle D 9.5 and 10.1 C wrapping angle D X base placement Q911: The primary low pH reducing agent in acid waves is:

Q904: The technique of wrapping at a 90-degree angle or straight A ammonium hydroxide out from the center is: B glyceryl monothermic C ammonium thioglycolate A X half-off base placement D X glyceryl monothioglycolate B base direction placement C greater volume placement Q912: An exothermic chemical reaction produces: D lesser volume placement A thio Q905: The two basic types of wrapping hair around a perm rod are B X heat the spiral method and: C hydrogen D reactions A loop method B X croquignole method Q913: The basic components of acid waves are permanent wave C placement method solution and: D horizontal method A conditioner and activator Q906: A technique used to wrap extra-long hair using two rods in B neutralizer and stabilizer opposite direction is a(n): C X activator and neutralizer

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D shampoo and neutralizer Q921: In extremely curly hair, the thinnest and weakest sections of the hair strand are located at the: Q914: An endothermic wave must be activated using a(n): A X twists A ammonia lotion B roots B X outside heat source C diameter C sulfite source D shaft D reducing agent Q922: Thio chemical relaxers usually have a pH value above: Q915: In permanent waving, the processing should be determined by the: A 5 B X 10 A X strength of the solution C 9 B size of the rods D 6 C processing time D length of the hair Q923: The active ingredient in all hydroxide relaxers is the hydroxide: Q916: Hair that is too weak to hold a curl or may be completely straight after a perm is: A viscosity B neutralization A overcurly C thio B X over-processed D X ion C oversaturated D underprocessed Q924: All hydroxide relaxers can swell the hair up to:

Q917: The process of stopping the action of a permanent wave is: A tenfold its normal diameter B X twice its normal diameter A rinsing C once its normal diameter B rebuilding D three times its diameter C normalizing D X neutralization Q925: Hydroxide relaxers remove one atom of sulfur from a disulfide bond converting it into a: Q918: Permanent wave solution should be rinsed from the hair for a minimum of: A X lanthionine bond B hydrogen bond A 2 minutes C sulfur bond B 10 minutes D cross bond C X 5 minutes D 15 minutes Q926: Disulfide bonds broken by hydroxide relaxers can never be:

Q919: A 90-degree perm wrap that minimizes stress and tension A restretched on the hair is: B X re-formed C oxidized A X half off base D compatible B on base C overdirected Q927: Hydroxide ions left in the hair after a relaxer can be D curved base neutralized using a(n):

Q920: The process of rearranging extremely curly hair into a A X acid-balanced shampoo straighter or smoother form is: B conditioning rinse C thio neutralizer A X chemical hair relaxing D acid-free shampoo B chemical smoothing C continuation Q928: Relaxers containing one component used without any D neutralizing additional mixing are:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A thio relaxers A closest to the midshaft B neutral relaxers B X closest to the scalp C X metal hydroxide relaxers C closest to the sides D normalizing relaxers D closest to the front

Q929: Sodium hydroxide relaxers (NaOH) are commonly called: Q936: Conditioners with an acidic pH that condition and normalize hair prior to shampooing are: A potassium relaxers B X lye relaxers A conditioning rinses C thio relaxers B conditioning shampoos D guanidine relaxers C X normalizing lotions D acid-based relaxers Q930: A relaxer with two components mixed immediately prior to use is: Q937: Curl re-formation does not straighten the hair, it simply makes the existing curl: A ammonium hydroxide relaxer B X guanidine hydroxide relaxer A X larger and looser C thioglycolate relaxer B smaller and longer D lithium hydroxide relaxer C tighter and open D open and soft Q931: Lithium hydroxide relaxers and potassium hydroxide relaxers are advertised and sold as: Q938: To avoid scalp irritation, prior to the application of a hydroxide relaxer never: A conditioner relaxers B X no-lye relaxers A X shampoo the hair C no chemical relaxers B cut the hair D lye relaxers C condition the hair D comb the hair Q932: Ammonium sulfite and ammonium bisulfite are marketed as: Q939: To avoid excessive stretching of the hair when combing out tangles, use a: A lanthonization relaxers B X mild alternative relaxers A tail comb C no-hydroxide relaxers B plastic comb D lye relaxers C X wide-toothed comb D barber comb Q933: Cream used to protect the skin and scalp during a hair- relaxing process is: Q940: Performing texture services involves powerful chemicals that must be handled with: A neutral cream B scalp cream A ease C coating cream B X caution D X base cream C gloves D disregard Q934: The strength of relaxers is determined by the concentration of: Q941: The term used to describe removing excess water before the application of a neutralizer is: A ammonia B X hydroxide A processing C salts B conditioning D atoms C X blotting D rinsing Q935: To avoid overprocessing during a retouch relaxer application, wait until the last few minutes of processing to apply Q942: When checking for test curl development, the test curl relaxer to the area: should reflect:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A loose S formation B X firm S formation A straight rods C small wave B X metal hydroxide relaxers D breakage C thio relaxers D disulfide bonds Q943: When performing test curls, the rod should be unwound approximately: Q950: Use the same ammonium thioglycolate (ATG) that is used in permanent waving, but a higher concentration and a higher PH A 1/2 turn (above 10). B 1 turn C X 1 1/2 turns A thio- free waves D 2 full turns B acid- balanced waves C X thio relaxers Q944: Incorrect placement of the rubber band of perm rods will D base relaxers cause band marks or: Q951: Rearranges the structure of curly hair into a straightener or A shrinkage smoother form. B protection C tension A X chemical hair relaxing D X breakage B hydroxide relaxers C hydrogen bonds Q945: When working with hair that has been chemically relaxed, D amino acids you should avoid using: Q952: Base control in which the hair is wrapped at a 45- degree A shampoo angle beyond perpendicular to its base section, and the rod is B shears positioned completely off its base section. C X hot irons D protective equipment A off- base placement B X on- base placement Q946: Colorless liquid with a strong unpleasant odor; provides the C half off- base placement hydrogen that causes the reduction reaction in permanent waving D base control solutions. Q953: Compounds made up of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and A X thioglycolic acid nitrogen. B thio relaxers C thio neutralization A ammonia- free waves D weave technique B base relaxers C X amino acids Q947: Relaxers that require the application of protective base D normalizing lotions cream to the entire scalp prior to the application of the relaxer. Q954: Perm rods that have a smaller diameter in the center that A X base relaxers increases to a larger diameter on the ends. B hydroxide relaxers C amino acids A X concave rods D exothermic waves B soft bender rods C loop or circle rod Q948: Very strong alkalis with a PH over 13, the hydroxide ion is D spiral perm wrap the active ingredient in all ____. Q955: Tool about 12 inches long with a uniform diameter along A no- base relaxers the entire length, these____ have a stiff wire inside that permits B chemical hair relaxing them to be bent into almost any shape. C thio relaxers D X hydroxide relaxers A concave rods B straight rods Q949: Ionic compounds formed by a metal (sodium, potassium, or C hydrogen bonds lithium) combined with oxygen and hydrogen. D X soft bender rods

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Q956: Active ingredient or reducing agent in alkaline permanents. Q963: ______can only be broken by chemicals and cannot be broken by heat or water. A X ammonium thioglycolate B curvature perm wrap A hydrogen bonds C ammonia- free waves B peptide bonds D exothermic waves C X disulfide bonds D salt bonds Q957: Tool that is usually about 12 inches long with a uniform diameter along the entire length of the rod. Q964: Disulfide, salt, and hydrogen bonds that cross-link polypeptide chains together,_____ are responsible for the elasticity A soft bender rod and incredible strength of the hair B concave rods C X loop or circle rod A disulfide bonds D straight rods B salt bonds C cortex Q958: Chemical bonds that join amino acids together to form D X side bonds polypeptide chains. Q965: Easily broken by changes in pH, as in permanent waving, A side bonds and re-form when the pH returns to normal. B X peptide bonds or end bonds C salt bonds A hydrogen bonds D disulfide bonds B thio relaxers C X salt bonds Q959: The position of the rod in relation to its base section, and is D medulla determined by the angle at which the hair is wrapped. Q966: Perm wrap in which all the rods within a panel move in the A base direction same direction and are positioned on equal- size bases. B X base placement C base sections A X basic perm wrap D exothermic waves B bricklay perm wrap C bookend wrap Q960: Position of the rod in relation to its base section, determined D spiral perm wrap by the angle at which the hair is wrapped. Q967: Hair is wrapped at an angle along the length of the rod. A X base control B base placement A single flat wrap C base direction B X spiral perm wrap D lanthionization C basic perm wrap D base direction Q961: Middle layer of the hair, located directly beneath the cuticle layer, the ___ is responsible for the incredible strength and Q968: Perm wrap in which one end paper is placed under, and one elasticity of human hair. is placed over, the strand of hair being wrapped

A medulla A X double flat wrap B base control B double wrap C X cortex C single flat wrap D true acid waves D base control

Q962: Oily cream used to protect the skin and scalp during hair Q969: Perm wrap that is similar to double flat wrap but uses only relaxing. one end paper, placed over the top of the strand of hair being wrapped. A X protective base cream B base sections A spiral perm wrap C base control B side bonds D amino acids C X single flat wrap

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D on- base placement B X true acid waves C side bonds Q970: Perm wrap in which one end paper is folded in half over the D base sections hair ends like an envelope. Q977: Have a pH between 9.0 and 9.6 use ammonium A bricklay perm wrap thioglycolate (ATG) as the reducing agent, and process at room B X bookend wrap temperature. C curvature perm wrap D basic perm wrap A endothermic waves B ammonia free waves Q971: Conditioners that restores the hair's natural pH after a C true acid waves hydroxide relaxer and prior to shampooing. D X alkaline waves

A X normalizing lotions Q978: Perm activated by an outside heat source, usually a B alkaline waves conventional hood-type hair dryer. C hydrogen bonds D base cream A acid balanced waves B X endothermic waves Q972: Innermost layer of the hair and is often called the pith or C exothermic waves core of the hair. D base placement

A cortex Q979: Creates an exothermic chemical reaction that heats up the B concave rods waving solution and speeds up processing. C X medulla D base relaxers A endothermic waves B hydrogen bonds Q973: Main active ingredient in true acid and acid-balanced C X exothermic waves waving lotions. D loop or circle rod

A thio relaxers Q980: Perms use alkanolamines instead of ammonia, and are B lanthionization popular because of their low odor. C thioglycolic acid D X glyceryl monothioglycolate A X ammonia free waves B cold waves Q974: The neutralization of hydroxide relaxers is an acid-alkali C alkaline waves neutralization reaction that neutralizes(deactivates) the alkaline D thio neutralization residues left in the hair by the hydroxide Q981: A key factor in determining appropriate hair coloring A hydrogen bonds services is understanding the client's: B hydroxide relaxers C X hydroxide neutralization A age D lanthionization B X motivation C service Q975: Stops the action of a permanent wave solution and rebuilds D style the hair in its new curly form Q982: Once a stylist demonstrates the ability to skillfully color a A X thio neutralization client's hair, the client will generally: B thio free waves C thio relaxers A X remain loyal D weave technique B switch to a different stylist C ask the stylist to remove the haircolor Q976: Have a pH between 4.5 and 7.0 require heat to process D never return to the salon again (endothermic) process more slowly than alkaline waves, and do not usually produce as firm a curl as alkaline waves. Q983: In choosing hair color for a client, a determining factor is the hair: A soft curl permanent

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A natural style D X eumelanin B profession C length Q991: Pigment that lies under the natural hair color is the; D X structure A X contributing pigment Q984: The layer of the hair that provides strength and elasticity is B combination pigment the: C predominant pigment D exposed pigment A X cortex layer B cuticle layer Q992: The lightness or darkness of a color is called the: C follicle layer D medulla layer A range B X level Q985: The outermost layer of the hair that protects and provides C pigment strength is the: D degree

A X cuticle layer Q993: The system used by colorists to analyze the lightness or B medulla layer darkness of a hair color is the: C papilla layer D structure layer A measurement system B natural system Q986: In individual hair strands, hair texture is determined by the: C color system D X level system A cuticle B cortex Q994: Hair color level are arranged on a scale from: C X diameter D length A 1 to 12 B X 1 to 10 Q987: Hair color applied to fine hair may look: C 1 to 5 D 0 to 10 A X darker B lighter Q995: Hair color tones can be described as: C shorter D dull A warm, neutral, and hot B X warm, neutral, and cool Q988: Haircoloring services on coarse-textured hair may take: C cool, neutral, and even D cool, warm, and primary A faster to process B X longer to process Q996: Colors that absorb light and appear darker than their actual C porosity to process level are: D liquids to process A primary colors Q989: Hair with a tight cuticle resistant to moisture or chemicals is B X cool colors defined as having: C warm colors D neutral colors A average porosity B poor porosity Q997: Warm tones reflect light and may appear: C X low porosity D porous porosity A ash B smokey Q990: The predominant melanin that gives black or brown color to C cool hair is: D X lighter

A pheomelanin Q998: Colors that are described as sandy or tan are considered: B natural melanin C individual melanin A primary tones

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B X natural tones D red, yellow, and green C intensity tones D formulation tones Q1006: The darkest and only cool primary color is:

Q999: The first step in performing a haircolor service is to A green identify: B ash C red A the natural growth pattern D X blue B X natural levels C natural tones Q1007: Red added to blue-based colors will cause them to appear: D intensity tones A X lighter Q1000: Colors that we see are contained in the: B darker C golden A invisible light spectrum D yellow B color wheel C color formulation Q1008: A color achieved by mixing a secondary color and its D X visible light spectrum neighboring primary color is a:

Q1001: Artificial hair colors are developed from the primary and A primary color secondary colors that form: B X tertiary color C secondary color A X base colors D base color B tonality colors C permanent tones Q1009: Equal proportions of primary colors will produce: D drastic colors A neutral Q1002: A color that will help minimize orange tones in the hair is B secondary a: C X black D brighter A violet base color B X blue base color Q1010: A secondary color is obtained by mixing equal parts of C secondary color two: D gold base color A base colors Q1003: A system that is used to understand color relationships is B X primary colors the: C neutral colors D cool colors A color wheel B level system Q1011: A primary and secondary color positioned opposite each C X law of color other on the color wheel are: D primary color system A neutralizing colors Q1004: Colors that are pure or fundamental and cannot be B combination colors achieved from a mixture are: C opposing colors D X complementary colors A level colors B secondary colors Q1012: Complementary colors are used in color formulation to: C cool colors D X primary colors A oppose together B attract each other Q1005: The primary colors are; C X neutralize each other D highlight each other A red, blue, and orange B blue, red, and violet Q1013: The process of diffusing natural color pigment or artificial C X yellow, blue, and red color from the hair is:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A gel hair color formulas A X hair lightening B permanent hair color formulas B hair lifting C X semipermanent hair color formulas C hair tinting D temporary hair color formulas D hair colorization Q1021: Dye precursors that combine with hydrogen peroxide to Q1014: All permanent hair color products and lighteners contain form larger tint molecules are; an oxidizing agent and a(n): A aniline peroxide A neutralizing agent B X aniline derivatives B developer ingredient C base derivatives C X alkalizing ingredient D no-ammonia formulas D booster agent Q1022: although many semipermanent and demipermanent colors Q1015: A hair-lightening process occurs when the alkaline use alkalizing agents other than ammonia, they are not necessarily peroxide: any less;

A breaks up the primary color A X damaging B X breaks up the melanin B effective C dissolves the oxidizing agent C colorful D breaks up the neutral color D durable

Q1016: Temporary color pigment molecules do not penetrate Q1023: Permanent haircoloring products are mixed with: because they are: A no-ammonia A weak B aniline derivates B soft C X hydrogen peroxide C neutral D dye precursors D X large Q1024: Permanent hair color product used for gray hair remove Q1017: Semipermanent hair color on average should last: natural pigment and:

A 4 to 6 days A add natural pigment B X 4 to 6 weeks B X add artificial color C 8 to 10 weeks C remove gray hair D 5 to 10 weeks D add ammonia tint

Q1018: Haircoloring that penetrates the hair shaft and is Q1025: To provide maximum lift in a one-process color service, formulated to deposit but not to lift color is: most high-lift colors require:

A X demipermanent hair color A 20 volume peroxide B permanent hair color B 15 volume peroxide C semipermanent color C 30 volume peroxide D semitemporary color D X 40 volume peroxide

Q1019: Demipermanent hair color is available in a variety of Q1026: Haircoloring products that change hair color by creating a formulas including: progressive buildup contain:

A creams, liquid, and sprays A henna colors B gels, creams, and lotions B chemical colors C X creams, gels, and liquid C X metallic colors D gels, powders, and sprays D vegetable colors

Q1020: Uncolored dye precursors that can be diffused into the hair Q1027: The most common developer used in haircoloring is: shaft are used in: A chemical agent

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B developer strength B a natural color C X hydrogen peroxide C X a darker color D compound agents D a brighter color

Q1028: Lighteners are chemical compounds that lighten natural Q1035: Permanent hair color applications are classified as double- hair pigment by dispersing, dissolving, and: process or:

A decreasing A lifting processes B developer B X single-process C X decolorizing C deposit colors D achieving D strand processes

Q1029: When hydrogen peroxide is mixed with a lightener Q1036: The application process that is used for first-time color formula, it releases: application is:

A volume A retouch process B X oxygen B double-process C color C X virgin application D hydrogen D new application

Q1030: During the decolorization process, natural hair can go Q1037: Overlapping color can cause breakage and create a sign of through as many as: roots or:

A 2 stages A lightening agent B 1stage B X line of demarcation C 5 stages C barrier line D X 10 stages D streaking

Q1031: Toners are used to achieve pale, delicate colors and are Q1038: Double-process lightening is prelightening hair to a vary applied to create the correct degree of: blonde stage and applying a:

A unwanted pigment A X toner B X contributing pigment B foundation C gold pigment C rinse D desired shade D bleach

Q1032: The test required by the U.S. Federal Food, Drug and Q1039: For a single-process color for virgin hair, the color Cosmetic Act to determine client allergies or sensitivities is the: processes fastest at:

A swab test A the shaft B process test B X the scalp C strand test C the ends D X predisposition test D the middle

Q1033: To determine how hair will react to a selected color Q1040: Cream lighteners are formulated to be used: formula, perform a(n): A with glaze A X preliminary strand test B X on the scalp B predisposition test C on the ends C allergy test D off the scalp D patch test Q1041: The three forms of hair lighteners are: Q1034: When selecting a semipermanent color, remember that color applied on top of color creates: A cream, powder, and scalp B oil, cream, and clear A a lighter color C powder, conditioning, and oil

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D X oil, powder, and cream C predisposition D X presoftening Q1042: An oxidizer added to hydrogen peroxide to increase its lifting power action is a(n): Q1049: preparations designed to equal porosity and deposit a base color in one application are: A powder B X activator A neutralizers C ion B X fillers D crystal C stabilizers D conditioners Q1043: A technique of coloring strands of hair darker than the natural color is: Q1050: To increase the longevity of a professional color service and preserve the health of client's hair, the stylist should encourage A highlighting them to use only: B double-process C tinting A inexpensive products D X lowlighting B imported products C X professional products Q1044: A foil technique where a straight and narrow section of D consumer products hair at the scalp is positioned for color or lightener application is: Q1051: One of the most creative, challenging, and popular salon A the cap technique services is B X slicing C weaving A art D lowlights B dance C X haircoloring Q1045: In the foil technique when selected strands are picked up D swimming from a narrow section of hair with a zigzag motion of the comb, and lightener is applied in: Q1052: Haircoloring is both a science and an

A slicing A X art B baliage B haircoloring C free-form technique C privilege D X weaving D tone

Q1046: When coloring for a client with 80 to 100 percent gray, the Q1053: A skilled haircolorist needs to become an expert in the color levels that provide the best coverage are: following services:

A level 8 or lighter A volume B level 9 or lighter B X blending or covering gray hair C level 4 and darker C a natural color D X level 7 and darker D mixing different colors

Q1047: To cover unpigmented hair in a salt-and-pepper client, the Q1054: A few common reasons clients color their hair include the color formulation should be; following:

A one level darker than the natural level A density B X two levels lighter than the natural level B an art C one level lighter than the natural level C patch test D one shade darker than the desired level D X cover up or blend gray

Q1048: Pretreating gray or very resistant hair to allow for better Q1055: As a trained professional, you will learn which shades of penetration is: color are most flattering on your clients, and which products and techniques will achieve the: A formulating B unpigmenting A X desired look

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B perfect look D warm colors C patch test D activator Q1063: Equal parts of red and blue mixed together always make__

Q1056: A healthy cortex contributes about 80 percent to the A red overall strength of: B blue C X violet A the color D yellow B the porosity C the diameter Q1064: Haircoloring products generally fall into two categories: D X the hair A X nonoxidative and oxidative Q1057: ___ is the innermost layer B alkaline ingredients C lightening the hair A the cortex D semipermanent B X the medulla C the cuticle Q1065: Temporary haircolors are available in the following D the melanin variety of colors and products:

Q1058: Another aspect of hair that plays a role in haircoloring A X Color enhancing shampoos used to brighten, impart is___ slightly color, and eliminate unwanted tones B blue A color C permanent color B diameter D violet C X density D bleach Q1066: Permanent haircolor is used to match:

Q1059: If the hair feels smooth and the cuticle is compact, dense, A X lighten, and cover gray hair and hard, it has: B bleach C lighten the haircolor A cuticle D highlights B X low porosity C low eumelanin Q1067: A group of haircolors that are not generally used in the D low pigment salon are:

Q1060: ___ is the hair's ability to absorb moisture. A natural colors B oxidants A X porosity C X also referred to as gradual colors B no porosity D permanent colors C high porosity D medulla Q1068: Natural or vegetable haircolors such as henna are natural colors obtained from the: Q1061: Learning to identify a client's natural hair color is the most important step in becoming a good: A hairspray B fruits A cosmetologist C auburn tones B barber D X leaves or bark of plants C X colorist D doctor Q1069: Store peroxide in a__

Q1062: First step in performing a haircolor service, your most A X cool, dark, dry place valuable tool is the: B dark place C humid place A tools D hot place B fine tones C X color wheel Q1070: Hair cannot be safely lifted past the____ with lightener.

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C if doing any kind of diet A X pale yellow stage D how old are they B red stage C blue stage Q1078: A patch test must be given ___ D black stage A 24 to 48 hours after Q1071: Lightening dark hair to a very pale blond is often difficult B 2 hours before without: C 8 days before the service is being done D X 24 to 48 hours before A no damage to the hair B X extreme damaged hair Q1079: Important to take proper precautions, protect yourself from C a consultation adverse reactions by wearing gloves until___ is completely D bleach removed from the client's hair.

Q1072: A haircolor consultation is the most: A the bleach B the dark tone A dark C the makeup B light D X the haircolor product C X critical part of the color service D not important Q1080: The porosity of the hair will determine how well these products__ Q1073: Begin the consultation in an area with proper lightning so that you can accurately determine the: A X "take" B proceed A X client's current hair color C color B color of the makeup D build up C color of the clothes D color of the skin Q1081: The signs of aging are influenced by factors such as the sun, health habits, lifestyle, and: Q1074: Book 15 minutes extra for the: A water A X consultation B X heredity B color to process C vitamins C break D oxygen D sleeping time Q1082: The percentage of skin aging that is caused by the rays of Q1075: To some degree, the release statement is designed to the sun is approximately: protect the school or salon from responsibility for: A 50 to 55 percent A the work B 60 to 65 percent B the consultation C 70 to 75 percent C X accidents or damages D X 80 to 85 percent D the exercise Q1083: The UV rays of the sun reach the skin in two different Q1076: Medications can affect the____. forms, which are;

A exercise A X UVA and UVB rays B hair treatment B VBC and ABA rays C responsibilities C UVA and ULB rays D X haircolor D UVB and ABB rays

Q1077: There are four basic questions that must always be asked Q1084: The UVA rays that are deep-penetrating and can go when formulating a haircolor. through a glass window are:

A X what is the client's desired level and tone A sun rays B if they are working B X aging rays

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Q1085: Wrinkling and sagging of the skin are caused by Q1092: A crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis is a: weakening collagen fibers and: A split A protein fibers B crust B tissue fibers C pustule C X elastin fibers D X fissure D dermis fibers Q1093: Keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis Q1086: UVB rays contribute to the body's synthesis of vitamin D and have no visible openings are: and other important: A X milia A absorption B ulcers B X minerals C crust C elements D pustules D rejuvenation Q1094: Any thin plate of dry or oily epidermal flakes in the scalp Q1087: Daily moisturizers or protective lotions should have a area is referred to as; sunscreen with an SPF of at least: A X scales A 5 B dandruff B 8 C flakes C 10 D comedo D X 15 Q1095: Sebum form a comedo exposed to the environment turns Q1088: The American Cancer Society checklist used to recognize black and: skin cancer is: A closes A asymmetry, big, colored, diameter B opens B border, color, diameter, evolving C X oxidizes C angle, border, continued, diameter D removes D X asymmetry, border, color, diameter Q1096: Comedones should be removed under aseptic conditions Q1089: A salon should not service a client who is suffering from using proper: a(n): A skin lotions A skin condition B X extraction procedures B X inflamed skin disorder C electric tools C skin discoloration D skin conditioners D pustule Q1097: A chronic skin condition characterized by inflammation of Q1090: A small circumscribed elevation of the skin that contains the sebaceous glands is: no fluid but may develop pus is a: A freckles A macula B X acne B scar C tumors C mole D milia D X papule Q1098: An inflammation of the sebaceous glands characterized by Q1091: An abnormal cell mass resulting from excessive dry or oily crusting or itchiness is: multiplication of cells and varying in size, shape, and color is a: A X seborrheic dermatitis A X tumor B seborrheic acne B mole C sebaceous masses

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D bacterium acne Q1106: Surprisingly, a very common salon irritant is: Q1099: A dry, scaly skin condition due to a deficiency or absence of sebum caused by old age or exposure to the cold is: A soap B air A cystic C X tap water B cortisone D shampoo C rosacea D X asteatosis Q1107: Abnormal brown or wine-colored skin discoloration with a circular and irregular shape is a: Q1100: A disorder of the sweat gland caused by excessive exposure to the heat is: A mole B X stain A steatoma C chloasma B X miliaria rubra D lentigo C anhidrosis D dermatitis Q1108: The absence of melanin pigment from the body and skin sensitivity to light are signs of: Q1101: A painful itching skin disease with dry or moist lesions that a physician needs to treat is: A nevus B lentignes A X eczema C asteatosis B acne D X albinism C psoriasis D cyst Q1109: A spot or blemish spot on the skin that requires medical attention if there is a change is a; Q1102: A contagious recurring viral infection characterized by blisters on the lips or nostrils is: A blemish B X mole A eczema simplex C freckle B macula simplex D keratoma C X herpes simplex D contact dermatitis Q1110: The most common type of skin cancer characterized by light or pearly nodules is: Q1103: The medical term for abnormal skin inflammation is: A X basal cell carcinoma A abrasion B malignant melanoma B X dermatitis C squamous cell melanoma C psoriasis D verruca cell D bulla Q1111: No matter how advanced the latest skin-care technology Q1104: Prolonged or repeated direct skin contact with chemicals may be, knowing how to care for someone's skin begins with has the potential to cause: A being nice A X allergic reactions B X understanding its underlying structure and basic needs B histamine reactions C the changes of color C keloids D taking breaks D absorption Q1112: Having a good working knowledge of skin care is essential Q1105: The chemicals released by the immune system to enlarge to the vessels around an injury are: A X passing your state board exams A correctors B passing your school B irritants C having a rough day C allergens D not being so important D X histamines

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1113: UVA rays, also called the "______" are deep-penetrating D changes in the world does not influence this aging process rays that can even go through a glass window. Q1120: Smoking and tobacco use not only cause cancer, but have A yellow and blue rays also been linked to____. B burning rays C X aging rays A Cancer in the skin D ultraviolet rays B X premature aging and wrinkling of the skin C Cancer in the lungs Q1114: UVB rays, also referred to as the "____" cause sunburns D HIV positive and tanning of the skin. Q1121: Heavy or excessive intake of alcohol overdilates the ___. A UB rays B solar rays A melanin C V rays B stomach D X burning rays C X blood vessels and capillaries D skin Q1115: _____ is designed to help protect the skin from the sun's UV rays. Q1122: Both smoking and drinking contribute to the ___.

A cortex A environmental factors B X melanin B blood vessels and capillaries C cuticle C X aging process on their own D UV rays D alopecia

Q1116: Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun during peak hours Q1123: A ____ is a mark on the skin. between____. A skin A 1 AM and 5 PM B X lesion B 5 AM and 10 PM C blood vessel C X 10 AM and 3 AM D mineral D 3 PM and 10 PM Q1124: There are three types of lesions: Q1117: If you are prone to burning frequently and easily, wear a hat and protective clothing when participating in ____. A primary, secondary, and fourth B primary, secondary A X outdoor activities C X primary, secondary, and tertiary B cooking D none of the above C sleeping D cleaning Q1125: ___ large blister containing a watery fluid; similar to a vesicle but larger Q1118: Regularly see a physician specializing in dermatology for checkups of the skin, especially if___. A pimple B tumor A any change in your eyes C X bulla B X any changes in coloration D scar C any change in your hair growth D you feel good Q1126: Poison ivy and poison oak, for example, produce ___.

Q1119: While the sun may play the major role in how the skin A acne ages, B tumor C X vesicles A influence the appearance and overall health of skin D pustule B X changes in the environment also greatly influence this aging process. Q1127: Light colored, slightly raised mark on the skin. C underlying cells and tissues, thereby speeding up the aging process A scale

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B vesicle C electrolysis C ulcer D X contraindications D X scar or cicatrix Q1135: The removal of hair with electrical current that destroys Q1128: An open lesion on the skin or mucous membrane of the the growth cells of the hair is: body A photoepilation A cyst B X electrolysis B tubercle C electromagnetic C bulla D laser D X ulcer Q1136: Intense light therapy used to destroy the growth cells of Q1129: An acquired, superficial, thickened patch the hair follicles is:

A mole A X photoepilation B X keratoma B epilation C skin tag C electrolysis D verruca D depilation

Q1130: Sensitization is a greatly increased or exaggerated Q1137: A rapid method of removing hair with the use beams sensitivity to__. pulsed on the skin is:

A allergies A X laser hair removal B the skin B electromagnetic C X products C electrolysis D mole D photobeams

Q1131: Hair removal approaches fall into two major categories, Q1138: An absolute requirement for laser hair removal is that the which are; hair being removed must be:

A laser and waxing A lighter than the surrounding skin B X temporary and permanent B X darker than the surrounding skin C waxing and tweezing C administered to the surrounding skin D permanent and semipermanent D removed slowly

Q1132: Terms that refer to the overgrowth of hair on the body are Q1139: In the nape area, the most common form of hair removal is hypertrichosis and: usually performed using electric:

A excessive A tweezers B hypersensitive B X clippers C X hirsuties C shears D downy D lasers

Q1133: During the client consultation, all clients should complete Q1140: A positive impact on the overall attractiveness of the face a questionnaire that discloses skin disorders, allergies, and: can be achieved with:

A X medications A evenly spaced eyes B topicals B client consultation C diet C client's wishes D assessments D X correctly shaped eyebrows

Q1134: One of the main purposes of a client consultation is to Q1141: The natural arch of the eyebrow follows the: determine the presence of any: A X orbital bone A density B frontal bone B follicles C mandible bone

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D frontal muscles Q1149: In a waxing treatment, the wax should be applied: Q1142: A term used to describe unwanted hair is: A against the hair growth A downy hair B in the excessive amounts required B lanugo hair C X in the direction of the hair growth C papilla D in the treated areas D X superfluous hair Q1150: An epilatory treatment that involves using a thick-based Q1143: Electronic tweezers transmit radio frequency energy into product appropriate for sensitive skin is: the follicle area, dehydrating and eventually destroying the: A beeswax A cuticle B X sugaring B cortex C cold wax C lanugo D depilatory D X papilla Q1151: Apply pressure to remove a fabric waxing strip and pull: Q1144: A caustic substance used for the temporary removal of superfluous hair at the skin level is: A straight up B in the direction of the hair growth A a cold wax C downward B a photoepilation D X in the opposite direction of hair growth C X a depilatory D electric tweezers Q1152: To prevent skin irritation or burns, the temperature of wax should be tested: Q1145: The product composition of cold and hot wax is primarily beeswax and; A on the client's skin B X prior to application A aloe gel C after application B X resins D during the application C sugar D caustic Q1153: A temporary hair removal method practiced in many Eastern cultures is the process of: Q1146: Disposable gloves should be worn during a waxing service to prevent contact with possible: A X threading B tattooing A inflamed skin C removal B sensitive skin D laser C previously treated skin D X blood borne pathogens Q1154: If redness or swelling occurs after a waxing treatment, soothe the skin with the application of: Q1147: Wax should never be applied over warts, moles, abrasions, or: A X aloe gel B lotion A X irritated or inflamed skin C disinfectant B dark or red areas D astringent C freckles D scaly skin Q1155: A wax that is thick and does not require fabric strips for removal is: Q1148: To prevent wax contamination, an applicator should be placed in the wax: A aloe wax B X cold wax A twice C honey wax B when needed D chemical wax C X once D often

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1156: Contrary to popular belief, shaving does not cause the hair to grow thicker or stronger; A arm B leg A the papilla C finger B X because the razor blunt the hair ends and makes them feel D X inner wrist stiff C cortex Q1164: Be sure not to use an excessive amount of wax, as it will D medulla spread____.

Q1157: The most common form of temporary hair removal, A when its dry particularly of men's facial hair is __. B X when the fabric is pressed C when it is cold A electric clipper D when it is not being used B tweezing C X shaving Q1165: During the application time, the hair expands and the D electric machine A X disulfide bonds break Q1158: Permanent hair removal methods include: B salt bonds break C hydrogen bonds break A electrolysis D disulfide bonds join together B photoepilation C laser hair removal Q1166: In certain states and provinces, cosmetologists or D X all of the above estheticians are allowed to perform laser hair removal under a:

Q1159: Laws regarding photoepilation and laser hair removal A contract services vary by___. B X doctor's supervision C teachers supervision A X state and province D your own supervision B the license C second in the state Q1167: Clinical studies have shown that photoepilation can D it is not necessary provide ____ percent clearance.

Q1160: When waxing sensitive areas such as underarms or bikini A 60 to 50 lines, be sure the wax is not B X 50 to 60 C 80 A cold D 100 B warm C X too hot Q1168: One of the fastest growing services in the salon and spa D sensitive businesses is

Q1161: Be sure not to put the spatula in the wax; A haircuts B X hair removal A more than 5 times C facials B more than 3 times D pedicures C X more than once D as many times as needed Q1169: Clients with an overabundance of hair are certainly the best candidates for Q1162: Beeswax has a relatively high incidence of ___ reaction. A cutting the hair A the product B scalp treatments B the pressure C X hair removal C X allergic D permanent waving D patch test Q1170: Excavations of early Egyptian tombs indicate that abrasive Q1163: Test the temperature and consistency of the wax by materials, such as applying a small drop on your

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A tweezing A as recommended by the ingredients B X pumice stone B as recommended by the client C pulling the hair C X as recommended by the manufacturer D waxing D as recommended by state board

Q1171: Americans used sharpened stones and seashells to Q1178: Wax may be applied to various parts of the face and body, such as the___. A remove excess hair B X rub off and pluck out hair A X eyebrows, cheeks, chin, upper lip, arms, and legs C remove a perm B head, neck, eyebrows, lips D remove a haircut C lower back D shoulders, neck, under arms Q1172: Facial and body hair removal has become increasingly popular as evolving the__. Q1179: Do not remove vellus hair; doing so may cause the__.

A future A skin to thicken up B X technology B skin to irritate C techniques C X skin to lose its softness D none of the above D skin to peel off

Q1173: Soften brows, saturate two pledgets of cotton or a towel Q1180: Never heat wax in a microwave or on a stovetop, wax can with warm water and place over the brows and allow__. become overheated and

A them to remain 1 to 2 minutes on the eye A burn the client's face B them to remain on the client's hand B burn the client's eyebrows C them to remain on the chin C burn the client's chin D X them to remain on the brows 1 to 2 minutes to soften and D X burn the client's skin relax the eyebrow tissues Q1181: The preliminary parts of a facial treatment that determine Q1174: Washing your hands thoroughly with soap and warm the treatments to be performed are: water is critical before and after every A skin consultation and payment A massage done on the eyebrow B X skin analysis and consultation B it is not important C client consultation and draping C client consultation D skin analysis and product choice D X client procedure you perform Q1182: The health screening performed prior to a facial treatment Q1175: As with any procedure, always perform a client is used by the technician to determine any: consultation prior to A product preference A a patch test B client lifestyle B cutting the hair C financial background C X tweezing or waxing the eyebrows D X contraindications D the service being done Q1183: Clients with obvious skin abnormalities such as open Q1176: If a client requests a chemical depilatory, you should sores, fever blisters, or abnormal-looking signs should be: perform a A advised of services A waxing test B provided treatments B X patch test C X referred to a physician C elasticity test D provided free services D tweezing test Q1184: When removing a cleanser from the eye area, it should be Q1177: Wax is a commonly used epilator, applied in either hot or removed with damp facial sponges or cotton pads: cold form: A X in an upward and outward movement

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B in down and across movements A gland C with friction movements B sebum D in upward and across movements C X ostium D skin Q1185: When performing a skin analysis with a magnifying lamp, the first thing the technician should look for is the presence or Q1192: Red pimples that do not have a pus head are referred to as: absence of: A elastin pimples A skin types B X acne papule B X visible pores C acne pigmentation C evaporated cells D acne oxygen D oily skin areas Q1193: a skin condition caused by sun exposure or hormone Q1186: If the client is not producing enough sebum, the skin type imbalances resulting in dark blotched of color in areas of the skin is characterized as: is

A clean A hypertrichosis B oily B hydrator C X alipidic C dehydration D normal D X hyperpigmentation

Q1187: Skin that has small pores and may be flaky or dry with Q1194: A chronic hereditary disorder indicated by constant or fine lines and wrinkles is characterized as: frequent facial blushing is:

A X dehydrated A X rosacea B oily B tinea C normal C pustules D sensitive D comedones

Q1188: Oily skin or skin that produces too much sebum may Q1195: A nonforming cleansing product that is designed to appear shiny or greasy and have cleanse dry and sensitive skin is

A dead cell A astringent lotion B small pores B closing powder C flakes C foaming cleansing D X large pores D X cleansing milk

Q1189: Pores that are clogged form dead cells building up in the Q1196: Cleansing products that foam and rinse off easily generally follicle may have the appearance of open: contain surfactant also known as

A creams A astringents B X comedones B skin powder C milia C X detergents D sebum D exfoliate

Q1190: When the follicle becomes clogged resulting in an Q1197: skin products designed to lower that pH of skin after infection of the follicle it is cause by a type of acne bacteria called: cleansing and remove excess cleansing product are freshener.

A hydrator A detergents B X anaerobic B surfactant C sebum imbalance C X toners D hyperpigmentation D emollient

Q1191: The different between closed and open comedones is the Q1198: Exfoliant products are used skin surfaces to make she skin size of the follicle opening or the: look smoother by:

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Q1199: Cosmetology professionals are only allowed to used Q1206: Client should be advised to used sunscreens that protect products that remove surface dead cells from the: against both UVA and:

A internal dermis A VBB sun rays B X stratum corneum B X UVB sun ray C stratum dermis C UTB sun ray D derma layer D Ath sun ray

Q1200: A gentle chemical exfoliation acid that helps dissolve the Q1207: Highly concentrated skin products applied under a bonds and intercellular cement between cell is: moisturizer or sunscreen are

A X alpha hydroxy acid A X serums B emulsion acid B tonic C astringent acid C masks D steaming acid D shielding

Q1201: A salon-type of alpha hydroxy acid exfoliant that contains Q1208: Lubricant applied to the face to make the skin slippery 20 to 30 percent acid is referred to as a: during a treatment are:

A skin brushing A exfoliant creams B X peel B X massage creams C beta hydroxy acid C aha D removal D clay mask

Q1202: A chemical exfoliate that works by dissolving keratin Q1209: Soothing mask that have antibacterial ingredients and are protein in that surface skin cell is known as an enzyme peel or: helpful for acne-prone skin are:

A X keratolytic A water based B salt peel B meditated based C cream treatment C moisture based D tonic peel D X clay based mask

Q1203: An enzyme cream-type skin peel that forms a crust and is Q1210: Mask that do not dry the skin and often contain oils and rolled off the skin is a: emollient as well as humectant are:

A papain A oil masks B scrubbing B gel mask C emulsion C X cream masks D X gommage D serums

Q1204: Moisturizers that increase the water content of the skin Q1211: Paraffin used as a mask has no skin benefit unless mixed surface with a product that is water-binding are known as: with a (n):

A toner A exfoliating cream B astringents B X treatment cream C X hydrator C oxygen cream D emollient D massage treatment

Q1205: A fatty or oily ingredient used to block moisture from Q1212: A plaster-like mask that, when mixed with water, causes a leaving the skin is an: chemical reaction is known as a(n)

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A clay mask A texture and appearance of dry skin B alginate mask B activity and texture of skin C quick mask C X circulation and glandular activity of the skin D X modelage mask D underlying structure activity of the skin

Q1213: The thin open-meshed, woven cotton fabric used in the Q1220: the most stimulating type of massage that should be penetration of the mask application is: performance using extreme care and discretion is ?

A plastic A fulling B silk B stroking C X gauze C X tapotement D satin D chucking

Q1214: The term used to describe the manual or mechanical Q1221: The point on the skin over the muscle where pressure and manipulation of the body is: stimulation will cause contraction of the muscle is referred to as the: A friction B X massage A insertion point C movement s B X motor point D circulation C origin point D connection point Q1215: To master massage techniques the cosmetologist should have a basic working knowledge of: Q1222: A significant benefit of a facial steamer that heats and produce steam is that the steam produced will soften and relax: A X anatomy and physiology B costs of products A dry skin conditions C skin toner B oily skin condition D gommage C X follicle accumulation D the client Q1216: The direction of movement in massage techniques should always be from the insertion of the muscle: Q1223: When using the brushing machine to performs an exfoliation, the skin should be treated with a(n) A toward the end B begin the muscle A thin layer of cleanser or moisturizer C X toward its origin B X fairly thick layer of cleanser or moisturizer D at the motor point C face freshener D astringent lotion Q1217: The massage movement that is a light continuous stroking movement with the fingers in a slow rhythmic manner is: Q1224: The skin suction and cold spray machine is used increase circulation and should be used only on nonsensitive or: A tapotement B petrissage A oily skin C kneading B hydrated skin D X effleurage C mature skin D X noninflamed skin Q1218: the kneading massage movement performed by lifting squeezing, and pressing the tissue with light, firm pressure is; Q1225: the used of electric current to treat the skin is a form of:

A X petrissage A X electrotherapy B rolling B magnetic therapy C effleurage C cold spray therapy D stroking D microfarad therapy

Q1219: The deep rubbing of friction massage movement on the Q1226: The process of softening and emulsifying hardened sebum skin has been known to have a significant effect on the: stuck in the follicle is called:

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A retailing A lint-free tissue B consultations B X disposable C antidepressant C cotton clothe D X aromatherapy D professional brush

Q1230: After the first treatment, every new clients should be Q1237: Concealer that are to hide dark circles and imperfection provided with a thorough consultation that consist of salon contain talc or: treatment programs, education and: A tint A positive effect B oil B verbal instruction C X pigment C X proper home care D silicone D prescription medication Q1238: To keep pressed powder in a cake form, it is usually Q1231: A base makeup that is used to cover or even out the blended with: coloring of skin is: A mineral oil A blush B X binding agents B roll-on C scented particles C X foundation D cornstarch agents D cream Q1239: A makeup product primarily used to add a natural glow to Q1232: Foundation based are available in stick, cream, mineral the cheek or face area is a: powder and: A X blush A foam B foundation B roll-on C concealer C tint D highlight D X liquid Q1240: Generally a darker shade of eye color makes the natural Q1233: Natural derived pigments or color agents added to color of the iris appear: foundations to provide color are:

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A neutral color Q1248: Three main factors to consider when choosing color for a B contour color client on a color wheel are the clients hair color : C medium color D X base color A X eye color and skin color B skin color, and texture Q1242: A color in any finish that deepen and darken s the skin C eye placement, and skin texture tone and minimizes a specific area is a: D eye color, and result

A desired color Q1249: Color that are dominated by blue, greens, violets and blue- B X contour color red are classified as C medium color D base color A X cool colors B magenta colors Q1243: To avoid infection in the tear duct or permanent C complementary colors pigmentation of the mucous membrane lining, eye pencil should D pigment colors never be used: Q1250: Skin tones that contains equal amounts of warm and cool A on the outer rim of eyes colors are considered: B near the lash area C X on the inner or eyes A basic skin tones D on the upper lids B X neutral skin tones C cool skin tones Q1244: A cosmetic preparation used to darken, define, and thicken D warm skin tones eyelashes is: Q1251: Complementary colors for green eyes are brown-based A blush reds, which include: B X mascara C foundation A green, blue ,and silver D eye shadow B X copper, plum and mauve C taupe, caramel and peach Q1245: To clean professional makeup brushes a gentle shampoo D yellow, red and neutrals or blush a gentle shampoo or brush is place into running water with the: Q1252: the best type of lighting for color selection in the salon consultation area is; A bristles being flat B ferrule pointing upward A bright light C X ferrule color B X natural light D bristles being covered C fluorescent light D cool light Q1246: Color abstained by mixing equal parts of two primary colors are: Q1253: Foundation application should start at the center of the face and blend with A tertiary colors B complementary colors A upward and outside motion C mixing colors B outward and fast motions D X secondary colors C downwards and slow motion D X outward and downward motion

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1254: A basic rule of makeup application is that highlighting Q1261: A makeup service should always begin with a warm emphasizes as feature and shadowing; introduction to your:

A X minimize a feature A friend B shade a feature B X client C maximizes a feature C neighbor D outline a feature D cousin

Q1255: The second portion of an oval-shape type face is measured Q1262: The first step in the makeup process, as with all other from the: services that take place in the salon, is the:

A hairline to the top of the eyebrows A hair B end of the nose to the chin B nails C X top of eyebrows to end of nose C X client consultation D side of ears to end of nose D application

Q1256: the facial shaper composed of comparatively straight Q1263: Hair needs to be taken into account when determining: lines, a wide forehead square jaw is the: A the price A X square-shape face B X eye makeup color B round-shape face C color of the clothes C oblong- shape face D color of the shoes D face-shape Q1264: Warm colors are the range from: Q1257: The long, narrow facial shape with greater length in proportion to is width is the shape: A red and green B violet A triangle -shape face C X yellow and gold B diamond shaped face D black and red C X oblong shape face D square shape face Q1265: Learning the difference between warm and cool colors is essential to your success as a: Q1258: To minimize a sort, flat nose a lighter foundation is applied: A career B colors A on the cheek and sides of the nose, ending at the tip C X makeup artist B X down the center of the nose, ending at the tip D teacher C into the sides of the nose and nostrils D into the sides of the nose and into the face Q1266: Tertiary colors are formed by mixing equal amounts of a:

Q1259: To set foundation and prevent the transfer to clothing use : A primary color B secondary color A darker foundation C makeup B X translucent powder D X secondary and primary color C natural skin tones D pressed powder Q1267: Makeup brushes come in a variety of:

Q1260: In eyebrows arching, the highest part of an eyebrows arch A colors should be form outer circle to the: B X shapes and sizes C applications A corner of the eyes D brushes B X iris of the eye upward C outer corner of the nose Q1268: It’s a cosmetic used to outline and emphasize the eyes: D inner corner of the eye upward A mascara B eye shadow

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X eyeliner Q1276: Cosmetic preparation used to darken, define, and thicken D pencil the eyelashes:

Q1269: Greasepaint is a heavy makeup used for: A blush B pencil A mascara C X mascara B color the eyes D powder C X theatrical purposes D eyebrow pencil Q1277: Cosmetics applied on the eyelids to accentuate or contour:

Q1270: Lip color comes in a large variety of: A lips B eyes A forms C X eye shadows B sizes D makeup C blush D X colors Q1278: Cosmetics used to hide dark eye circles, dark splotches, and other imperfections: Q1271: Makeup is a part of cosmetology that is very interesting and can produce: A eyelashes B blush A X dramatic and immediate changes C powder B dramatic changes D X concealers C no changes D few changes Q1279: Use an antiseptic on tweezed areas of the eyebrow to avoid infection. Q1272: When a client wants to correct eyebrow shape, begin by removing all : A X True B False A makeup B cutting the hairs Q1280: Discard all disposable items, such as sponges, pads, C X unnecessary hairs spatula, and applicators, after use. D mole A X True Q1273: When in doubt, give the client and allergy test before B False applying: Q1281: A normal healthy nail is firm and flexible and should be: A mascara B lip color A X smooth and unspotted C eyebrows B uneven and unspotted D X lashes C unspotted and long D medium length and unspotted Q1274: Two types of artificial eyelashes are commonly used: Q1282: A nail disorder is classified as a condition that is caused A mascara by: B lip colors C eyebrows A X injury or disease D X band lashes and individuals B free edge C nail surface Q1275: Pencils used to add color and shape to the eyebrows: D improper care or white spots

A mascara Q1283: If a client has skin that is infected, inflamed, or swollen, B blush the client should be referred to: C mask D X eyebrow pencil A a series of nail treatments B X a physician C a licensed manicurist

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D an upscale salon C pincer D mold Q1284: A condition of the nail in which blood clot forms under the nail plate is: Q1291: nail fungi are of concern to the salon because the y can be transmitted through unsanitary implements and are A damaged nail B swollen nails A unhealthy C X bruised nail B fragile D eggshell nail C X contagious D viruses Q1285: When performing nail services on a client with nail ridges running vertically down the nail plate, it is recommended that the Q1292: A term that should not be used when referring to technician: infections of the fingernails or toenail is:

A carefully remove the nil plate A tinea B X carefully buff the nail plate B bacteria C refuse to service the client C X mold D refer the client to a medical doctor D pathogen

Q1286: A common nail condition where living skin around the Q1293: To prevent fungal organisms on the nail, in addition to the nail splits due to dryness of the skin is: sanitation and disinfection of implements, the technician must properly: A beaus lines B leukonychia spots A X clean and prepare the natural nail plate C onychia B clean and prepare the nail cuticle area D X hangnail C remove nail polish remover from nails D file nails with a disposable file Q1287: A localized area of increased pigment cells within the matrix bed responsible for the nail condition: Q1294: A typical bacterial infection on the nail plate can be identified in the early stages as a: A beaus line B agnail A blue-black spot under the nail C X melanonychia B X yellow-green spot on the nail D melanin C white spot on the nail bed D black spots on the nail plate Q1288: A common term used to describe a nail with a highly curved nail plate is: Q1295: To avoid the spread of any nail diseases or bacterial infections, it is imperative that the technician use: A bitten nail B split nail A X strict sanitation and disinfection practices C bruised nail B familiar sanitation practices D X plicature nail C strict disinfection and proficient skill techniques D low-level sanitation and disinfection practices Q1289: An abnormal nail conditions may cause infection to the feet and hands are; Q1296: The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a nail disease called: A X nail pterygium B curved nails A X onycholysis C pincer nail B onychomadesis D nail cuticle C nail psoriasis D ingrown nails Q1290: Parasites that under some conditions may cause infection to the feet and hands are: Q1297: A bacterial inflammation surrounding the nail tissue that may be the result of excessive exposure to water is: A X fungi B pus A X paronychia

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B tinea pedis Q1305: Is an abnormal condition that occurs when skin stretched C salmon patches by the nail plate: D pyogenic A disease Q1298: The medical term for fungal infections associated with the B fungus feet is: C X nail pterygium D onychophagy A tinea pathogenic B X tinea pedis Q1306: Onychophagy is: C tinea alopecia D paronychia A broken nails B onychorrhexis Q1299: The technical term used to describe bitten nails is: C hangnails D X bitten nails A X onychophagy B onychorrhexis Q1307: Forward growth of the cuticle is: C onycholysis D onyx A furrows B onychophagy Q1300: The naturally occurring skin bacteria that can grow out of C plicatured nails control and cause an infection is conditions are correct is: D X pterygium

A melanonychia Q1308: Folded nails are: B X pseudomonas aeruginosa C leukonychia A onychorrhexis D pterygium B bitten nails C pterygium Q1301: Are noticeably thin, white nail plates that are much more D X plicatured nails flexible than normal: Q1309: Nails turn variety of colors; may indicate systemic A hangnail disorder: B agnail C malformation of nails A red nails D X eggshell nails B pink nails C green nails Q1302: Nails are an interesting and surprising part of the: D X blue nails

A X human body Q1310: Infection by bacteria and fungi can be easily avoid by B diseases following state regulatory agency guidelines for proper: C bacteria D fungus A sterilization B personal hygiene Q1303: White spots, are a whitish discoloration of the nails: C cleaning D X sanitation and disinfection A onychophagy B melanonychia Q1311: Onychia inflammation of the matrix with pus is: C onychorrhexis D X leukonychia spots A inflammation of the nail B hangnails Q1304: Refers to split or brittle nails: C X shedding of the nail D blue nails A plicatured B X onychorrhexis Q1312: Severe inflammation of the nail which a lump of red tissue C fungus grown up from the nail bed to the nail plate: D melanonychia A onychia

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B hangnails C lunula Q1320: Clients should be advised to wash their feet every day and: D X pyogenic granuloma A X dry them completely Q1313: Is an inflammation of the nail matrix: B not dry them C clean them A onychosis D let air dry B free edge C X onychia Q1321: To give clients professional and responsible service and D hangnails care you need to know when it is safe to work on:

Q1314: Bacterial infection are more often seen on the: A family B X client A lunula C neighbor B free edge D children C X hands D never seen Q1322: A normal healthy nail is firm and:

Q1315: Infection can be cause by the use of implements that are A pinkish contaminated with large numbers of: B hard C X flexible A nails D soft B X bacteria C infection Q1323: Dryness of the skin or ______can result in hangnails: D diseases A cutting to much cuticle Q1316: Any break in the skin surrounding the nail plate can allow B not cutting enough cuticle pathogens to: C X cutting this living tissue D not cutting A cause bacteria B X infect the matrix Q1324: A hangnail can become infected if: C cause tinea D cause hangnails A not cut B X not properly cared for Q1317: Improperly sanitized and disinfected nail implements can C apply acrylic nails cause this and other diseases: D nails are not cut

A X accidental injury Q1325: Ridge filler is less damaging to the natural nail plate, and B infection can be used with colored polish: C bacteria D disease A manicure B pedicure Q1318: If there is no indication of an infection or open sores, a C acrylic nails basic_____ can be given: D X to give a smooth appearance to the plate

A hair cut Q1326: What is removed from the skin by frequent exposure to B cleaning soaps, solvents, and many other types of substances: C X pedicure or manicure D treatment A dirt B bacteria Q1319: Infected finger: C X natural oils D diseases A blue B reddish Q1327: These products should be used according to______to C X redness, pain, swelling; refer to physician ensure that they are being used correctly and safely: D broken; refer to physician

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A X any deformity disease of the natural nails A sanitized and reused B bitten nails B X discarded after each use C broken nails C placed in a cabinet drawer D pinkish D washed with soap and water

Q1329: Eggshell nails are normally weaker and can curve over Q1336: A metal pusher is used to push back the eponychium and the: gently scrape cuticle tissue from the:

A matrix A natural nail root B lunula B X natural nail plate C cuticle C nail free edge D X free edge D nail matrix

Q1330: You may be able to help clients with nail disorders in one Q1337: Fine grit abrasives are designed for removing very fine of two ways: scratches and:

A not using acrylic nails A X buffing and polishing B X you can tell clients that they may have a disorder and refer B aggressive buffing them to a physician, if required C beveling the nail C cutting the nail D reducing nail length D getting a manicure Q1338: To bevel a nail, use gentle pressure and angel the file with Q1331: A manicuring table lamp should have an incandescent a: bulb with wattage no higher than: A 60-degree angle A 10 to 30 watts B 90-degree angle B X 40 to 60 watts C X 45-degree angle C 70 to 90 watts D straight angle D 100 to 120 watts Q1339: Clean abrasives or implements stored in plastic bags or Q1332: Disinfection containers for manicure implements should sealed airtight containers promote: be large enough for implements to be: A air circulation A partially immersed B X bacterial growth B removed with hands C storage problems C X completely immersed D ineffective storage D completely cleaned Q1340: A nipper should be used to carefully trim away the: Q1333: Lids are required on disinfection containers to prevent: A nail plate A spilling B nail free edge B X contamination C cuticle area C immersion D X tags of dead skin D sharing Q1341: A buffer that shines the nail plate without the use of dry Q1334: Manicuring implements should be placed in the buffing powder is a(n): disinfectant container after being: A abrasive buffer A used several times B wooden pusher

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X three-way buffer D spread ethyl D electric dryer Q1349: When removing nail polish from warp-type nail Q1342: A tool used to shorten the length of the natural nail plate is enhancements, use a solvent that is: a(n): A acetone A electric dryer B X non-acetone B wooden pusher C quick C X nail clipper D conditioning D nail nipper Q1350: Removers that are used to dissolve and remove polish Q1343: The time necessary to properly clean and disinfect contain solvents of ethyl acetate or: implements after each use is: A mineral oil A 10 min. B sodium B X 20 min. C X acetone C 60 min. D potassium D 30 min. Q1351: A product designed to loosen and dissolve dead tissue Q1344: Brushes used in products that do not harbor the growth of from the nail plate is: pathogens are considered: A moisturizing lotion A renewable brushes B nonacetone remover B X self-disinfecting C polish remover C bacteria free D X cuticle remover D self-cleaning Q1352: A product designed to improve adhesion of polish to the Q1345: Small fiber-free squares used to apply or remove product natural nail is a: are: A top coal A cotton B nail hardener B linen C reinforcing coat C fibers D X base coat D X pledges Q1353: Nail hardeners that cause adverse reactions to skin may Q1346: Nail products should be removed from their containers contain: using a: A X formaldehyde A X plastic or metal spatula B resins B finger C acrylic C plastic or metal brush D dimethyl urea D cotton Q1354: Product information including safe handling, first aid, and Q1347: Cosmetic products containing a high water content provide proper storage is required in: the growth opportunity for: A Manufacturers Direction Sheets A X pathogens B Material Supply Order Forms B containers C X Material Safety Data Sheets C fibers D Material Disposal Sheets D vapors Q1355: Generally, it is recommended that the shape of the nail Q1348: The use of bar soap is not recommended as it may: plate enhances the overall:

A be expensive A Shape of the cuticle B be inexpensive B X shape of the fingertip C X harbor bacteria C length of the nail

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D shape of the hands Q1363: Sitting or working in uncomfortable, strained positions can lead to back, neck, or should injuries and result in: Q1356: The five basic nail shapes are: A temporary trauma A square, pointed, oval, flat, and slender B carpal tunnel trauma disorders B X square, squoval, round, pointed, and oval C temporary relaxation C square, oval squoval, round pointed & oval D X cumulative trauma D pointed, square, narrow, round, and strong Q1364: Spa manicures encompass extensive knowledge of nail Q1357: Should a client be accidentally cut and blood drawn, the care and: first precautionary step is to: A X skin care treatments A X put on gloves and inform client B consultations B clean with antiseptic solution C towel applications C stanch bleeding with pressure D lotion applications D discard used materials Q1365: Spa manicures include massage and skin exfoliation for Q1358: The three individual procedures for a basic manicure polishing, smoothing, and enhancing: should include: A massage ambiance A pre-service, post-service, and disinfection procedures B oily cosmetics B X pre-service, actual service, and post-service C X professional product penetration C consultation, pre-service, and service performed D client's preference for cosmetics D pre-service, post-service, and recommendations Q1366: List two types of polish removers; Q1359: Success in nail polish application is achieved by using four coats including: A X acetone & non acetone B artificial or natural A one base coat, one polish color, and two top coats C oily cosmetics B two polish color, one top coat, and one sealer coat D matrix C X one base coat, two polish color, and one top coat D one base coat, one polish color, and two top coats Q1367: Liquid soaps are far more sanitary than bar soaps because they can: Q1360: Massage manipulations should be executed using: A X breed bacteria A fast rubbing movements B cause disease B X rhythmic and smooth movements C less expensive C fast, pulsating movements D give infections D fast, rotating movements Q1368: When pushing back the eponychium, take care not to use Q1361: The massage movement where the technician holds the too much force or pressure since damage to this area could: client's wrist and bends it back and forth slowly is a form of: A harm the cuticle A X joint movement B X harm the nail matrix B circular movements C bruise the matrix C rotating movement D bruise the cuticle D palm effleurage Q1369: State or province regulations do not permit nail Q1362: Vigorous joint massage should not be performed if a client professionals to cut or nip living skin: has a joint injury or: A damages the cuticle A X arthritis B personal hygiene B psoriasis C cause diseases C migraines D X can lead serious skin infections and injury D artificial nails

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1370: Men are becoming increasingly aware of the importance of having: A olive oil B avocado oil A long nails C X essential oils B X well groomed nails and hands D grape oil C polishing the nails D free edge Q1378: Pumice powder is used for smoothing and polishing:

Q1371: Use nippers to trim away any tags and: A X True B False A X dead skin B nails Q1379: The oval nail is the most attractive to women’s hands: C eponychium D hyponychium A X True B False Q1372: Most men will need a little more work done on their cuticle areas and: Q1380: Spa manicure consist of aromatic paraffin dips, aromatherapy, aromatic hand and arm massages: A hyponychium B fingers A X True C X eponychium B False D hands Q1381: Pedicure procedures include trimming, shaping, and Q1373: Nail plates absorb water quickly and become soft, filing polishing toenails: exfoliation skin: and: with an abrasive may make them: A foot masques A split B X foot massages services B grow C nail plate dissolvers C X break or split D recommending hair D last longer Q1382: To ensure healthy, happy feet, professional pedicure Q1374: Place a small patch of wax on the clients skin to see if services should be performed: the______can be tolerated by these individuals: A yearly A hot water B weekly B cold water C X monthly C X temperature D daily D heat Q1383: A pedicure tool used to exfoliate dry skin or smooth Q1375: Paraffin wax treatments work by trapping moisture in the calluses is a: skin while the heat causes skin: A rasp A irritation B X paddle B bacteria C curette C pores to close D clipper D X pores to open Q1384: A pedicuring station should include a comfortable chair Q1376: Check to ensure that clients hands are free from open for the client, a footrest for the client, and a(n): wounds_____: A designer chair for the nail professional A brittle nails B designed stool for the client B broken nails C ergonomic stool for the nail professional C dirt D X ergonomic chair for the nail professional D X diseases, or disorders Q1385: To be effective in a pedicure bath, liquid soaps should Q1377: The practice of aromatherapy involves the use of: contain a(n):

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A scented oil A X hyponychium B antibacterial soap B dermis C X mild detergent C pressure point D strong detergent D elastin

Q1386: Lotions, oils, and creams are used to condition and Q1393: To properly disinfect a foot spa after each pedicure moisturize feet and for: service, the nail technician is required to performed the following steps: A X performing a foot massage B disinfecting the foot spa A Drain and remove water and contaminants, add more soap C applying polish to the toenails and water, and use. D removing polish from the toenails B X Drain and remove water and contaminants, clean surface, disinfect with approved disinfectant, rinse, and dry. Q1387: A metal file that is designed to be used in a specific C Drain and remove water, disinfect with approved fashion is a: disinfectant, rinse and dry. D Change water, add soap, disinfect with approved A board disinfectant, thoroughly rinse, and dry. B brush C curette Q1394: The procedure for cleaning a foot spa at the end of the day D X rasp is: remove and clean screen of trapped debris, wash screen and inlet Q1388: The tool used to exfoliate dry skin or smooth calluses and totally immerse in approved disinfectant, then: during a pedicure service is a: A flush system with warm water for 5 min, rinse, and air dry A foot bath B rinse out system with warm water for 2 min, rinse with cold B X foot file water, and dry with sponge C pedicure clipper C X flush system with low-sudsing soap and water for 10 D toe separator minutes, rinse, drain, and air-dry D rinse system with low-sudsing soap and water for 5 minutes, Q1389: When working on the foot, it should be grasped between rinse, drain, and towel dry the thumb and fingers at the: Q1395: The weekly maintenance procedure for foot spas requires A bottom of the foot the disinfectant solution to remain in the foot spa at least: B heel area C X mid-tarsal area A 4 to 5 hours D ankle area B X 6 to 10 hours C 1 or 2 hours Q1390: The actual pedicure procedure has five basic steps: the D 2 to 3 hours soak, nail care, skin care, Q1396: Foot massage performed correctly is relaxing to the client, A polish, and Redbook is therapeutic, and: B X massage, and polish C massage, and waxing A stimulates nail growth D polish, and exfoliating B increases foot pressure C stimulates muscle growth Q1391: When performing a pedicure, apply a firm grip on the D X stimulates blood flow client's foot to: Q1397: The massage movement used to stretch the muscles and A produce a tickling sensation tendons is: B X calm the client C waste finger motions A X petrissage D lock the ankle area B effleurage C tapping Q1392: When clipping toenails, extra care should be exercised to D kneading avoid breaking the:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1398: A product that should never be placed in the foot bath with B across nail grooves the client's feet is a: C along edges D X in one direction A solution B antiseptic Q1406: Plastic, premolded forms adhered to natural nails to add C magnesium salt length or support nail enhancement products are: D X disinfectant A nail wraps Q1399: Creams or lotions used to help in the removal and B X nail tips smoothing of dry, flaky skin and calluses are: C nail overlays D nail adhesives A massage preparations B natural oils Q1407: Nail tips break easily without the reinforcement called C X abrasive scrubs a(n): D moisturizing agents A X overlay Q1400: Alkaline cuticle removers should never be applied to: B adhesive C full-well A resins and adhesives D activator B X living skin C massage oil products Q1408: A rough surface tool used to shape, smooth, and remove D nail polish the surface shine on a nail is a(n):

Q1401: Professional strength callus softener products usually A emery board contain sodium hydroxide or: B shine remover C gel activator A X lactic acid D X abrasive board B sodium chloride C hydrogen peroxide Q1409: The term used to describe the thickness of nail adhesives D mineral clays is:

Q1402: A hot paraffin bath should not be provided to a client with: A strength B X viscosity A seasonal allergies C durability B X diabetic-related problems D safety C vitamin deficiency D premature aging Q1410: Nail tips should never cover more than:

Q1403: A small "ice-cream scooper"- shaped implement used for A one-half of the nail plate efficient removal of debris from nail folds and cuticle area is a: B all the nail plate C X one-third of the natural nail plate A nipper D tip of natural nail B clipper C X curette Q1411: The shallow depression area of a nail tip is the: D spatula A X well Q1404: Toenail clippers used for a pedicure service should have: B contact C applicator A double edges D gelled B X fairly fine points C fairly straight edges Q1412: When placing nail tips on the natural nail plate, the D two even edges technique used is:

Q1405: Nail rasps are a tool specifically designed to file: A stop, hold and release B X stop, rock, and hold A in several directions C rock, hold, and free

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D rock, slide, and release Q1420: Nail wraps should be rebalanced with resin and new fabric Q1413: When blending a nail tip at the contact area, the fine-grit after: buff block should be held: A 6 weeks A at a 45-degree angle against the nail plate B 8 weeks B at a right angle against the nail plate C X 4 weeks C deep into the nail plate D 2 months D X flat across the surface of the nail plate Q1421: A fabric piece cut to completely cover a crack or break in Q1414: The action used with a wooden pusher to remove softened a nail wrap is a: nail tips is: A stress strip A pull gently with pusher B X repair patch B slide off with clippers C rebalance batch C X slide off with pusher D refill strip D nip off with nippers Q1422: A gel-like material that requires an activator to cure is: Q1415: Nail enhancements using nail-size pieces of cloth or paper bonded to the nail plate are: A gel light applicator B no-cure gel applicator A X nail wraps C resin gel applicator B gel nails D X no-light gel applicator C adhesive wraps D opaque wraps Q1423: The improper use of activators can cause a heat spike to the client and: Q1416: The strongest material used as a nail wrap is: A polymer damage A silk B pulling sensation B paper C surface shine C fiberglass D X nail bed damage D X linen Q1424: To avoid damaging nail wraps when removing existing Q1417: A product that accelerates the curing process of resins and polish, use a(n): adhesives is a(n): A acetone remover A heat spike B oil accelerator B extender tip C resin softener C X activator D X nonacetone remover D plastic strip Q1425: An implement similar to a nail clipper, designed especially Q1418: A product applied to the surface of natural nails to remove for use on nail tips, is a: moisture and improve adhesion is a: A tip nipper A nail blender B X tip cutter B nail activator C stress cutter C nail adhesive D tip buffer D X nail dehydrator Q1426: Closely woven, heavy material used for nail wraps: Q1419: When applying nail wraps, to prevent the transfer of oil and debris from the technician to the client, use: A X linen B silk A gloves C fiber glass B X flexible plastic sheets D paper wrap C wooden spatulas D small pieces of cotton Q1427: Very thin synthetic mesh with a loose weave:

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A dragged across the surface of the dry polymer powder A activator B pushed gently into the dry polymer powder B X fiberglass C immersed into the dry polymer powder C buffer block D X touched to the surface of the dry polymer powder D silk Q1435: As monomer liquid absorbs a polymer powder, the product Q1428: Thickened cyanoacrylate monomers: formed at the tip of the brush is referred to as a:

A stress trip A monomer bead B nail tip wrap B X bead of product C nail tip adhesive C chemical reaction D X no-light gel D molded product

Q1429: Acrylic ( methacrylate) liquid and powers, wrap or UV gel Q1436: Polymer powder is made using a special chemical reaction applied over tip for added strength; called:

A nail tip A polychain B wrap resin B monomer chains C X overlay C X polymerization D nail wrap D methacrylate chains

Q1430: thin, natural material with a tight weave that becomes Q1437: In the process of creating acrylic (methacrylate) nails, transparent when adhesive is applied: trillions of monomer are linked together to create:

A X silk A additives B stress trip B X long chains C linen C dry chemicals D repair patch D long absorptions

Q1431: Acrylic (methacrylate) nail enhancements are created by Q1438: Additives are responsible for the product durability and combining monomer liquid with: color stability of the product, and they ensure:

A monomer powder A X complete cure or set B X polymer powder B complete beads C liquid powder C proper procedure D molecular powder D proper disposal

Q1432: Nail enhancements sculptured with the use of polymer Q1439: Additives used to control the set or curing time in powder are called: monomer liquids are called:

A monomer nails A accelerators and adhesives B protective nails B controllers and resins C synthetic nails C X catalysts and initiators D X acrylic nails D adhesives and catalysts

Q1433: Brushes recommended for the application of acrylic Q1440: Initiators in polymer powder cause monomer molecules to (methacrylate) product are: permanently link together and form:

A X natural hair A short monomer chains B nylon bristles B X long polymer chains C mixed hair C long polymer forms D plastic bristles D short chain reactions

Q1434: When applying product, the brush is immersed into Q1441: The initiator added to polymer powder is: monomer and the tip of the brush is: A hydrogen peroxide

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B catalyst peroxide C 30 to 45 min. C sodium hydroxide D 12 to 15 hours D X benzoyl peroxide Q1449: Nail adhesives used to secure nail tips to natural nails are Q1442: To ensure the proper curing when using nail enhancement all based on: products: A catalyst monomers A use a variety of products B cyanoacrylate polymers B intermix products as necessary C acetone inhibitors C mix manufacturer product lines D X cyanoacrylate monomers D X do not mix manufacturer product lines Q1450: To prevent product contamination, a dampen dish should Q1443: Acrylic (methacrylate) overlays and nail enhancements have: can be created using one color powder if the client wears: A a loosely fitted lid A clear polish all the time B X a tightly fitted lid B X nail polish all the time C a large opening C semiliquid nail polish D an evaporation lid D natural colors all the time Q1451: The shelf life of nail adhesives can be as short as: Q1444: The amount of monomer liquid and polymer powder used to create a bead is called the: A 1 year B 8 months A dry bead C X 6 months B liquid bead D 2 years C powder ratio D X mix ratio Q1452: Unused monomer poured back into the original container will cause product: Q1445: If the consistency of a bead contains too little powder, the enhancement may not: A spilling B sensitivity A file easily C customizing B balance easily D X contamination C X cure correctly D polish easily Q1453: The type of glove recommended for nail salon services is:

Q1446: Surface moisture and oil on the natural nail plate can be A nylon polymer removed with nail antiseptic or: B hard plastic C latex polymer A X nail dehydrator D X nitrile polymer B corrosive agents C heavy primers Q1454: The area that should not be cut when applying multiuse D nail hydrators nail forms is the:

Q1447: The use of acid-based nail primers may result in: A nail fold B X hyponychium A X skin burns or injury C cuticle fold B lifting of skin D nail root C skin rejuvenation D better adhesion Q1455: The bead of product for shaping the free edge should have a: Q1448: Acrylic (methacrylate) nail enhancements reach their ultimate strength in: A wet consistency B balanced consistency A X 24 to 48 hours C X medium consistency B 5 to 10 hours D large consistency

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X methacrylates Q1456: The time required for a product to properly clean brushes D monomer powders is determined by: Q1463: A short chain of monomers not long enough to be A the technician considered a polymer is a(n): B the client C X the manufacturer’s directions A additive D necessity B adhesive C X oligomer Q1457: When placing the second ball of acrylic on the free edge, D resin use a medium consistency and place on the nail plate below the first bead and: Q1464: Newer UV gel systems use chemicals called:

A next to the side wall edge line and on the right side of the A monomers nail B X urethane methacrylates B next to the free edge line within 1/8 inch of the nail C adhesive based C X next to the free edge line in the center of the nail D resin based D on the nail plate within 1/8 inch of the cuticle area Q1465: An advantage of UV gel systems is: Q1458: For natural looking nails, the product application must be smooth and thin at the: A color B durability A eponychium, free edge, and base C liquid polymer B free edge and side walls D X low odor C X side walls, free edge, and eponychium D side walls, base, and free edge Q1466: The UV gel application process differs from other types of nail enhancements: with a UV gel procedure: Q1459: In rebalancing acrylic (methacrylate) nail enhancements, the nail is thinned down and reduced in thickness and: A each layer of product is a different color when exposed to UV light A the nail will be reduced in width B X each layer of product must cure or harden with exposure to B X the apex of the nail will be removed UV light C the nail will be filled C product is applied without the use of any UV light D the nail will be refinished D product must dry between layers with white lights

Q1460: The area between the existing acrylic product and new Q1467: UV gel products are usually packaged in opaque pots or: growth of the nail plate is the: A dark bottles A thinned area B individual applications B X balance area C large tubes C nail unit D X squeeze tubes D ledge Q1468: A measure of how much electricity a bulb consumes is: Q1461: The ingredients used in UV gels are from a subfamily of acrylics called: A voltage B amps A monomers C X wattage B X acrylates D power C enhancements D polymers Q1469: Brushes used in the application of UV gels are:

Q1462: Recently developed UV gel technologies utilize chemistry A human from: B X synthetic C sable A monoacrylics D long B polyacrylates

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1470: To improve the shelf life of nail adhesives, store them at room temperature between: A round cuticles B X vertical strokes A 20degress F and 40degrees F C round strokes B 45degrees F and 55degrees F D firm pressure C X 60degrees F and 85degrees F D 90degrees F and 100degrees F Q1478: UV gel enhancements must be rebalance every:

Q1471: Nail tips applied with a UV gel procedure should be A X 2 to 3 weeks shortened and filed prior to the gel application to prevent: B 4 to 5 weeks C 5 to 6 weeks A the client from spending extra time in the salon D 6 to 8 weeks B X the gel seal from being broken during the filing procedure C the gel application from curing correctly during the filing Q1479: The abrasive used to check and refine the nail contour for procedure UV gel nails is: D skin irritations A nonabrasive Q1472: The time required to cure each layer of a UV gel product B fine abrasive is determined by: C X medium abrasive D harsh abrasive A X manufacturer's instructions B the length of the nail Q1480: Third UV gel is called the finisher or: C the client D the number of coats applied A builder gel B X sealer gel Q1473: UV gels cure with a tacky surface called a(n): C building gel D adhesion gel A second layer B contour layer Q1481: Gel is applied over the entire surface of the nail? C X inhibition layer D primary layer A X one-color method B oligomer Q1474: The final layer of UV gel should be brushed under the free C UV light bulbs edge of the natural nail enhancement to create a(n): D UV gel

A ledge Q1482: Two different color of gel are applied to the surface of the B X seal nail, in different places, as in French manicure? C angle D adhesion A UV gel B oligomer Q1475: First UV gel is called the: C X two color method D one color method A X base coat gel B finishing gel Q1483: Types of nail enhancement products that harden when C sealing gel exposed to UV light? D building gel A inhibition layer Q1476: To reduce client skin irritation sensitivity when applying B X UV gel the base coat gel: C UV gel primer D UV gel lamps A pull the UV gel quickly across the nail plate B X leave a tiny free margin between the UV gel and the skin Q1484: Product designed specifically to improve adhesion of the C remove the inhibition layer UV gel to the natural nil plate? D press hard with the brush A UV gel Q1477: The oily shine on natural nails should be removed using: B oligomer

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C wattage D neighborhood salon D X UV gel primer Q1492: Independent salon chains, are basic or full service salons Q1485: Measure of how much electricity a light bulb consumes? and day spas consisting of five or more salons the are owned by:

A X wattage A five or more partners B oligomer B large corporations C inhibition layer C one individual D oil D X one individual or two or more partners

Q1486: Most professionals have become successful through self- Q1493: A form of chain salons that share a national name, motivation, energy, and consistent image, and business formula throughout are:

A technical skills A X franchise salons B X persistence B large chain C talent C privately owned D opportunity D business salons

Q1487: Of all the factors that affect licensing test performance, the Q1494: A salon business that offers higher prices service with most important is mastery of: luxurious extra is a;

A technical skills A budget salon or day spa B organizing handout B booth rental establishment C X course content C basic value-price operation D school notes D X high-end image salon or day spa

Q1488: When taking a licensure test, even if you have truly Q1495: A written summary provided to employers of your learned the material it is still very beneficial to have: education and work experience is a:

A a well-organized notebook A job application B a detailed vocabulary list B X resume C listening skills C cover letter D X strong test-taking skill D personal inventory

Q1489: The process of reaching logical conclusion by employing Q1496: skill mastered at other jobs that can be put to use in logical reasoning is: another position are called:

A studying the night before ten exam A X transferable skills B cramming the night before the exam B accomplishment skills C marking skipped questions C salary reference D X deductive reasoning D training skills

Q1490: When reaffirming a goal by reviewing a number of Q1497: A bound collection of photos and documents used to important questions it is recommended to perform a(n) showcase your skills and accomplishments is a(n)

A X personal inventory of characteristics and skills A X portfolio B complete inventory of practical skill B assessment C inventory of personal likes and qualities C resume D personal inventory of knowledge and skills D summary

Q1491: A salon owned by an individual of two or more partners Q1498: A technique of making contact with salon and with 3 to 40 styling station is classified as a: professionals is called

A full-service salon A gathering B X small independent salon B establishing C independent salon chain C advertising

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D X networking C false impression D X positive first impression Q1499: After a salon site visit, it is important to send the salon representative a: Q1506: Having a complete and thorough knowledge of the subject matter, and understanding the strategies for taking tests A resume successfully B cover latter C X thank-you note A X test wise D declining note B resume C work ethic Q1500: When selecting and interviewing salons for potential D skills employment opportunities, it is important that the stylist make Q1507: Collection, usually bound of photos and documents that A X informed comparison reflect your skills, accomplishments and abilities in your chosen B hasty choices career field? C no comparisons D inappropriate remarks A test wise B X employment portfolio Q1501: After observing and targeting salon for employment C resume opportunities the next step would be to contact the establishment D ethics by: Q1508: Written summary of a person education and work A visiting the salon when they are busy experience? B X sending a resume and cover letter C contacting the salon manger by phone A test wise D completing a job application B skills C X resume Q1502: When preparing for an interview necessary for D work ethics employment information and material include Q1509: Skills mastered at other jobs that can be put to use in a A X identification and social security number new positions? B driver’s license and high school diploma C social security number and cell phone number A deductive reasoning D contact numbers and school certificate of completion B employment portfolio C resume Q1503: Issue and question that cannot be included in an D X transferable skills employment application or interview include: Q1510: Process of reaching logical conclusion by employing A date of birth if applicant is younger than 18 logical reasoning? B X race, religion, date of birth and national origin C medical conditions and salary A test wise D citizenship, drugs, and smoking B ethics C X deductive reasoning Q1504: When you take pride in your work and commit yourself to D resume doing a good job for your client and employer you have a strong: Q1511: Compared to cosmetology school, you will find that your A X work ethic real-world work schedule will be: B position statement advantage C employment advantage A more flexible D technical skill B X less flexible C equally flexible Q1505: On the day of a salon interview a warm friendly smile and D not at all flexible a confident posture will project a(n): Q1512: When seeking employment, it is important to be honest A good interview with yourself as you evaluate your skill to determine; B achievement

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 A how great your skills are B the many service you are proficient a t performing A weekly C X the type of position that is right for you B commission only D the money that you can charge C with no taxes D X a salary Q1513: the number one thing to remember in a service business is that your work revolves around: Q1520: Compensation paid to an employee as a direct result of the total amount of service dollars generated for the salon is: A X serving your clients B how well you fell A X commission C the item of day B gratuities D how many hours you work C clientele D salary Q1514: To be a good team player requires that you practice and perfect your: Q1521: A compensation structure that is used to motivate and increase practitioner productivity is A telephone skills B personal life A tax-free salaries C X people skills B X salary plus commission D scheduled shifts C commission only D regular compensation Q1515: The document that outline all the duties and responsibilities of a particular position is a: Q1522: Income provided in acknowledgement of satisfactory service that must be reported on one’s income tax return is A duty list B X job description A X tips C daily chores summary B taxes D job document C retail sales D referrals Q1516: When you accept a job offer, what you actually get paid for your work is called; Q1523: Employer and coworker feedback on technical abilities, career direction and growth should be provided during A check B cash A client service C incentives B referral program D X compensation C X Employee evaluation D free spending log Q1517: In most salon the three standard of employee compensation are: Q1524: To manage expenses and debts, financial planning includes a: A salary commission and retail sales B commission, salary plus commission and employee A mathematical genius incentives B X personal budget C X salary commission and salary plus commission C personal diary D check, commission ,salary and bonuses D free spending log

Q1518: An excellent job opportunity for a new cosmetology Q1525: the practice of recommending and selling additional school graduate is as a(n) professional services to clients is

A X assistant A retail sales B platform artist B X upselling services C practitioner C part of the duties and responsibilities D receptionist D part of the job description

Q1519: for the beginning salon professional without a clientele, Q1526: recommending and selling professional products to clients the best compensation method would be: for at-home care is

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401

A economics A commission B commission B retailing C advertising C X job description D X retailing D client base

Q1527: To be successful in sales, the practitioner must be Q1534: Act of recommending and selling products to your client ambitious and determined and have for at-home hair care

A a good client A client base B an assertive personality B X retailing C X a good personality C commission D a personal preference D job description

Q1528: In the psychology of selling, it is the job of the practitioner Q1535: Practice of recommending and selling additional service to to figure out the reason a person may want to buy a product and clients determine the clients A X ticket upgrading o upselling service A intelligence B resume B X motives for buying salon products C commission C financial situation D client base D stress level Q1536: being a successful businessperson requires experience, a Q1529: clients whom you service on a regular basis are referred to genuine love of people, and solid. as your A technical skills A reliable clients B X management skills B good clients C business licenses C complaining clients D insurance policies D X client base Q1537: where allowed by state law, a desirable alternative salon Q1530: The process of scheduling clients for return visits to the ownership is the practice of salon is referred to as A X booth rental A selling B booth sales B suggestions C leased space C X rebooking D unlicensed activity D referrals Q1538: the professional trained in the gathering of accurate Q1531: customers who are loyal to a particular cosmetologist financial information needed in developing a business plan is a (n).

A X clients base A relative B commission B coworker C retiling C vendor D job description D X accountant

Q1532: percentage of revenue that a salon takes from sales Q1539: when opening a salon, two of the most important factors in earmarked for practitioners? predicting the success of the business are.

A client base A location and services B retailing B visibility and products C percentage C X visibility and accessibility D X commission D competition and products

Q1533: \document that outline all duties and responsibilities of a Q1540: when obtaining financing to open a business, it is essential particular position in a salon of spa? to develop a(n).

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 Q1547: business records that are used to record all income are A employee handbook classified as. B X business plan C tax shelter A X receipts D service menu B invoices C expenses Q1541: purchasing the insurance required for operating a salon is D retail the responsibility of the. Q1548: Records that help maintain an overstocking or shortage of A X salon owner supplies and are used to establish the net worth of a business are. B building owner C salon employee A invoice and revenue records D salon supplier B X purchase and inventory records C sales and employee records Q1542: another name for an individual owner with complete D expense and payroll records control of a business is. Q1549: supplies used in the daily business operation are A leader considered. B manager C X sole proprietor A retail supplies D receptionist B consumer supplies C X consumption supplies Q1543: In a partnership, two or more people share ownership, D inventory supplies although the ownership shares may not always be. Q1550: Supplies purchased by a salon with the intention of selling A fair these products to clients are. B friendly C X equal A X retail supplies D operational B consumption supplies C special supplies Q1544: Incorporating is one of the best ways for a business owner D client supplies to protect. Q1551: when planning and constructing the best physical layout A X personal assets for a salon, the primary concern should be. B unmanageable debts C personal secrets A color scheme D supply inventory B salon furniture C salon carpeting Q1545: A business advantage of a corporation when raising capital D X maximum efficiency (money) is that a corporation may issue shares or. Q1552: To employees, a top priority for salon owners should be to A tax shelters always meet. B X stock certificates C liability insurance A employee evaluations D business charters B incentives C X pay roll obligations Q1546: to avoid any misunderstandings between contracting D preferences parties in the purchase a salon, the details of the sale should be written in the. Q1553: one of the most important duties of the receptionist is.

A building lease agreement A X booking appointments B business plan B making reservations C X purchase and sales agreement C personal calls D professional name D filing

Q1554: the best form of advertising for a salon is a (n).

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401

A radio spot B newspaper A a massage is due C unhappy client B X were the cosmetologist practice D X satisfied client C a massage is due D the dance is practice Q1555: An important aspect of a salon's financial success revolves around the sale of. Q1562: Who could work without a license?

A gift certificates B X additional salon services A a barber C key chains B an a stylist of the hair D direct mail C X a stylist of wigs or a doctor in line with his duty D a cosmetologist Q1556: Money needed to start a business Q1563: Every how many years do you renew your license: A personnel B X capital C partnership A every 3 years D salon policies B X every other year C every year Q1557: The maintaining of accurate and complete records of all D every 5 years financial activities in your business? Q1564: What does CCA stand for? A retail supplies B corporation A California college Assistance C X record-keeping B X California Cosmetology Association D demographic C California Cosmetician Association D California Credit Account Q1558: Written plans of a business as it seen in the percent and envisioned in the future? Q1565: A freshman badge shall be worn until they are able to work on paid customers. A booth rental B capital A X true C corporation B false D X business plan Q1566: In which of the following cities does the board hold its Q1559: A means of guaranteeing protection or safety for meetings: malpractice, property liability, fire ,burglary and theft, and business interruption? A 4 times in the southern California B 4 times in Sacramento A X insurance C X 2 times in northern Calif. 2 in southern Calif. B business regulation and laws D 2 times in Sacramento 2 times in LA C personal D partnership Q1567: Who pays the secretary?

Q1560: Documents such as a business plan, which is a written A the president description of your business as you see it today and as you foresee B X the state it in the next 5 years? C the cosmetologist D a lawyer A X written agreements B salon policies Q1568: No member of the board shall be appointed for more than? C corporation D booth rental A one year Q1561: An establishment of cosmetologist is where: B 3 years

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C 2 years D X 8 years Q1576: Every licensed shall display the licensed in a conspicuous place in his or her place of business: Q1569: How should the head rest of the chair be covered?

A X true A A plastic B false B X clean towel or paper C carpet Q1577: When does the license of a cosmetologist expires?

D vinyl A X two years B three years Q1570: After how much time can a freshman student work on paid C four years client. D five years

A X 15% of the course Q1578: Which of the following is a requirement to take the state B 10% of the course exam: C 25% of the course D 20% of the course A X no less 17 yrs. Of age & completed 10th grade

Q1571: An apprentice is any person who is licensed by the board B can be under 17 yrs. to work under the supervision of a licensee approved by the board: C can be 15 yrs. Complete 10th grade D mature mentally. A X true B false Q1579: When necessary, due to a physical or mental illness of a client, you can perform an outside service but it must be from a: Q1572: Practice in cosmetology is define in 3 months, is equivalent to: A state board B X licensed establishment C city permit A 50 hours B 100 hours D city hall C X 150 hours D 200 hours Q1580: Who designates the inspectors of the board:

Q1573: Every person with a license should inform state board if they change of address within ____ days. A executive officer B president A 60 days C X vice president B X 30 days D health dept. C 25 days Q1581: The governor shall appoint public members who shall not D 20 days have dual licensure in cosmetology, barbering or electrolysis:

Q1574: Under a special case a temporary license shall be issued. A X true A true B false B X false Q1582: Vacancies occurring during a members time in office shall Q1575: A duplicate licensed shall be issued upon filing of a be filled for: statement explaining the loss:

A X unexpired term A X true B the ten days B false C 25 days

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X board of members D 2 years D public

Q1583: How many years are the members appointed for: Q1590: When your cosmetology license is revoked, you will get it back:

A X four years B eight years A in one week C two years B 30 days D ten years C in 60 days D X don't get back Q1584: Public members shall not be nor ever have been licensees of the board. Q1591: Your cosmetologist licensed must be displayed:

A X true B false A X at your work station B in the stock room Q1585: How many members does the board consist of: C in the reception area

D on the front door A 5 B 6 Q1592: What does a cosmetologist from New York have to do to C 4 work in California? D X 9

Q1586: Who confirms the appointment of the executive officer of A bring New York license the board: B just star working C X get California license

A X director of consumer affairs D no New York license B governor C vice president Q1593: How many board members serve on the Board of D speaker Cosmetology?

Q1587: How many times a year does the board hold its meetings: A 3 B X 9 A 2 times C 8 B 3 times D 12 C X 4 times D times Q1594: Where does the board get the funds to operate?

Q1588: Who assumes the functions of the president in case he is unable to perform: A state taxes B federal taxes A X secretary C X license fees B speaker C no one D city taxes D vice president Q1595: How many of the board members must be licensed? Q1589: By who are the president and vice president of the board elected: A 3 B X 4 A governor B speaker C 7

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 D 5 D license never expires

Q1596: The state board is under the department of: Q1603: Failure to renew salon license after how many years, will cause re-inspection: A general services B X consumer affairs C social services A 3 years B 5 years D industrial relations C X 1 years D 4 years Q1597: A board member cannot: Q1604: License can be denied on the ground of: A X sell beauty supplies B be an instructor C be licensed A one citation B two citations D own a school C X conviction of a crime D good moral conduct Q1598: If you have a license you cannot: Q1605: A license can be revoked on the grounds of:

A work all year B X lend it to another A bad moral conduct C practice manicuring B good moral conduct C X 3 citations D work in a both D 2 citations

Q1599: A licensed cosmetologist may practice: Q1606: A shampoo girl:

A electrology A needs no license B dentistry B X needs a license C barbering C does permanents all day D X manicuring D is top paid employed

Q1600: You need a license to operate a: Q1607: Who can perform cosmetology without a license?

A cosmetologist A department store B X doctor in line with his duties B school C cosmetician C salon D X b and c D manicurist

Q1601: Before a salon is granted a license, it must be: Q1608: A wig stylist needs a cosmetology license to work in a:

A inaugurated A department store B X inspected B a wig store C clean and new C X a beauty salon D filled with 4 operators D private store Q1602: Failure to renew license after 5 years requires: Q1609: How many members does the boar need: A X 400 hours of school and re-test B just re-test C 400 hours school A 5 members

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 B 6 members Q1617: What kind of health problems can chemicals cause? C 4 members D X 9 members A dizziness B dermatitis Q1610: How many years is a board members appointed: C birth defects D X all of the above A X 4 years B 6 years Q1618: An MSDS contains: C 2 years D 10 years A master data sheets B X chemical content Q1611: Hair spray, sodium hydroxide and nail glue are examples C muscular dystrophy info of: D mental standards data sheet

A make up Q1619: MSDS stands for: B solutions C X chemicals products A X material safety data sheet D creams B master sheets data services C medicine safety data sheet Q1612: Chemicals come in different forms, solids, liquids, gases D material standards data sheet and: Q1620: Who is responsible for safety in the work place? A steroids B X vapors A the employee C compounds B maintenance crew D elements C X the owner D office help Q1613: Chemicals cannot enter your body except by: Q1621: HIV causes: A X breathing B taxability A cancer C toxibility B hepatitis D toxility C cirrhosis of the liver D X AIDS Q1614: What are gases? Q1622: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is the technical A X hairspray, dyes, shampoo, acetone etc. name for: B breathing C exercise A HIV D sleeping B X AIDS C VIH Q1615: You can accidental swallow hazardous chemicals by food, D ADIDS drink and: Q1623: Body fluids that spread AIDS are blood, semen, vaginal A alcohol fluids and: B candy C X cigarettes A tears D make-up B sweat C saliva Q1616: What is PELS? D X breast milk

A X permissible exposure limits Q1624: Body fluids that do not spread AIDS are saliva, nasal B passing exposure limits secretions, vomit and: C permeable exposure limits D pending exposure limits A semen B breast milk

Professional Institute of Beauty Beauty is Our Business Street Address: 10801 Valley Mall El Monte, CA 91731 (626) 443-9401 E-mail: [email protected] “Success in School = Success in Life” (626) 255-5218 http://www.pib.edu Fax: (626) 443-0401 C X tears Q1632: The board of barbering and cosmetology protects the D milk consumer form:

Q1625: You cannot get AIDS by: A high prices B low prices A eating together C X harm B sharing bathrooms D valid licenses C shaking hands D X all of the above Q1633: The employer is responsible for work place:

Q1626: Hepatitis is an inflammation of the: A cleanliness B X safety training A heart C calendar of events B X liver D enthusiasm C brain D stomach Q1634: All products are required by the FDA to list ingredients except: Q1627: A system of hepatitis where eyes and skin have yellow appearance is called: A hair products professional use only B lipsticks A fatigue C X products marked for professional use only B liver spots D perfumes C X jaundice D capitis Q1635: The California Code of Regulations Title 8, General Safety orders (GISO) holds Cal/OSHA rules that apply to: Q1628: hepatitis B is spread by: A stockroom inventory A blood B financial aid office B sex C X shops and salons C breast milk D attendance reports D X all of the above

Q1629: The agency California Occupational Safety and Health Administration is known as:

A X Cal/OSHA B CA/OSHA C OSHA/Cal D Ca/OSha

Q1630: The California Occupational Safety and Health Administration deals with safety in the:

A home B office C X work place D stockroom

Q1631: The food and Drug Administration deals with:

A X cosmetics B drug addicts C health D rehabilitation