Ssc Cgl 200207

SSC CGL TIER-I 2019-20 GRAND TEST SC-200207

NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 100 MM : 200 TIME : 60 min

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This booklet contains FOUR tests as follows :

TEST SUBJECT NO. OF MARKS DURATION QUESTIONS I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & 25 50 REASONING II GENERAL AWARENESS 25 50 60 Minutes III QUANTIT ATIVE APTITUDE 25 50

IV ENGLISH COMPREHENSION 25 50

2. Every question has four options, of which only one is correct. 3. Candidates are advised to read all the options thoroughly. 4. Each question carries two marks. 5. There is negative marking equivalent to one-fourth of the mark allotted to the specific question for wrong answer. 6. Candidates are advised to use HB pencil to fill the OMR sheet.

DILSUKHNAGAR : 4th Floor, V.V.Complex, Chaitanyapuri ‘X’ Roads. AMEERPET : 2nd Floor, Rahamath Complex, Ameerpet Cross Roads HIMAYATHNAGAR : 408, 4th Floor, Kubera Towers, Narayanaguda KUKATPALLY : 2nd floor, MIG-42, Beside ICICI Bank, Opp: JNTU MEHDIPATNAM : 2th Floor , SGM Mall, Beside Railyaway Reservation Centre SECUNDERABAD : 201,West Block, Archana Arcade, Beside Metro Station(East) HASTINAPURAM : Sai Gayatri Women’s Degree College Complex, ‘X’ Roads, Sagar Road

www.race4bankexams.in

Grand Test – SC200207 Grand Test SSC CGL T-1 200207 SSC CGL Tier I

TEST - I: REASONING ABILITY

1. Choose the set of number that is similar to the following set. (8, 15, 17) (1) (4, 5, 6) (2) (9, 12, 15) (3) (9, 40 ,42) (4) (6, 8, 12) 2. In a code language, BEAUTIFUL is written as KTEHSTZDA. How would WATER be written in the same code language? (1) TRMNK (2) QDSVZ (3) TDSZV (4) QDSZV 3. Select the combination of letters that when sequently placed in the gaps of the given letter will complete the series. a_cd_ae_d_a_c_o (1) oacded (2) eocdoe (3) eocoed (4) oecode 4. Three of the following four letter are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out (1) 133 (2) 161 (3) 119 (4) 149 5. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 6. Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion logically follow(s) from the statements. Statement : All basketball are football Some handball are basketball Conclusion : I. Some handball are football II. All basketball are handball III. Some basketball are not football (1) None of the conclusion follow (2) Only conclusion I follow (3) Only conclusion II follow (4) Only conclusion III follow. 7. Select the term that will come next in the following series. 7 , 9 , 14 , 24 , 41 , ? (1) 61 (2) 67 (3) 69 (4) 73 8. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Brother-in-Law 2. Father 3.Marriage 4.Son 5. Grand Father (1) 14325 (2) 42315 (3) 43125 (4) 41253 9. If FLOWER is coded as 821593 and ROSE is coded as 3179, how would you code SORRY? (1) 71349 (2) 71339 (3) 58734 (4) 71334 10. Select the number-pair in which the two number are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following. 99 : 9 (1) 35 : 5 (2) 66 : 7 (3) 135 : 12 (4) 66 : 3 11. Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 15+5-10×6÷ 12 = 6 (1) + and ÷ (2) – and ÷ (3) + and × (4) + and – 12. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 13. ‘Work’ is related to ‘Experience’ in the same way ‘Study’ is related to: (1) Job (2) Salary (3) Training (4) Knowledge 14. The figure given on the left hand side in questions is folded to form a box. Choose from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) the boxes that is similar to the box formed.

(1) 1, 2 and 4 only (2) 3 and 4 only (3) 1 and 2 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 only 15. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

1 Grand Test – SC200207

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 16. A certain number of men planned to finish a work in 15 days. However, 8 of them remained absent from the very first day. The rest could finish the work in 20 days. The numbers of men originally employed were: (1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 32 (4) 30 17. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 25 18. Three of the following four letter are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out? (1) RTVX (2) CFIL (3) NPRU (4) ZDHL 19. Choose the set of number that is similar to the following set. (5, 39, 8) (1) (7, 24, 5) (2) (9, 35, 10) (3) (4, 44, 7) (4) (6, 30, 4) 20. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes Snake, Lizard, Reptiles (1) (2) (3) (4)

21. A’s father B is C’s paternal uncle and D’ husband E is A’s paternal uncle. How is D related to C? (1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Daughter (4) Niece 22. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 23. Select the number-pair in which the two number are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following. Hungary : Budapest (1) Austria : Prague (2) Belgium : Amsterdam (3) Switzerland : Bern (4) Croatia : Vienna 24. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. RAKV : TCMX ∷ NCOJ : ? (1) PERL (2) QEST (3) PEQL (4) QRQL 25. Three of the following four letter are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out? (1) Plum (2) Melon (3) Berry (4) Cucumber.

TEST – II : GENERAL AWARENESS

26. According to the categories of land mentioned in the Chola inscriptions ______was known as the land gifted to Brahmanas? (1) Vellanvagai (2) Brahmadeya (3) Shalabhoga (4) Devadana 27. Who was the founder of Vakatak dynasty? (1) Vindhya Shakti (2) Ishwarsena (3) Pravarsena (4) Rudrasena 28. Who is credited for the construction of the Red Fort of Delhi? (1) Sikandar Lodi (2) Akbar (3) Jahangir (4) Shah Jahan 29. Who among the following British persons admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt? (1) Lord Dalhousie (2) Lord Canning (3) Lord Ellenborough (4) Disraelli 30. Eravikulam National Park, also known as Rajamalai National Park, is situated in the state of (1) Kerala (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Karnataka (4) Assam 31. 'Norwesters' are thunder storms which are prominent in _____. (1) India and Bhutan (2) Bhutan and Nepal (3) India and Bangladesh (4) Bangladesh and Myanmar 32. Which plateau is known as the Mineral heartland of India? (1) Deccan Plateau (2) Chota Nagpur Plateau (3) Bhander Plateau (4) Tibetan Plateau 33. Alps mountain range is located in which continent? (1) Europe (2) North America (3) South America (4) Africa 34. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state— (1) Article 345 (2) Article 350 (3) Article 348 (4) Article 349 35. The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is: (1) National Security Advisor (2) Prime Minister of India (3) Chief of DRDO (4) Home Minister of India 2 Grand Test – SC200207 36. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by - (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Planning Commission (3) Ministry of Finance (4) SEBI 37. How many key infrastructure sectors are known as Core sector in Indian Economy,used for Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 38. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance should be (1) 165 feet (2) 165 meter (3) 16.5 feet (4) 16.5 meter 39. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of- (1) Charge (2) Momentum (3) Energy (4) Mass 40. In a given atom, no two electrons can have the same value for all the four quantum number. This is called– (1) Hund’s rule (2) Pauli’s exclusion principle (3) Uncertainty principle (4) Aufbau’s principle 41. Among the following the metal with maximum density is? (1) Fe (2) Mo (3) Hg (4) Os 42. Anemophily pollination takes place by– (1) Animal (2) Insects (3) Wind (4) Water 43. Protozoa which produce Kala-azar– (1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma (3) Trichomonas (4) Leishmania 44. The vitamin which is water soluble and generally excreted in urine is (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E 45. The first-ever Indo-US tri-services 'Tiger Triumph' has started in which state? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Himachal Pradesh (4) Myanmar 46. Which state government has decided to launch SishuSuraksha app to help report child rights violations? (1) Nagaland (2) Tripura (3) Assam (4) Karnataka 47. Brazil is hosting the 2019 BRICS summit under which theme? (1) BRICS: 4th Industrial Revolution (2) BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future (3) BRICS: Unite for Climate Awareness (4) BRICS: Nature & Future 48. The Indo-Lanka Maritime Fleet Exercise - SLINEX 2019 has started in which city? (1) Chennai (2) Kolkata (3) Visakhapatnam (4) Pune 49. What is the India’s rank at the WEF's World Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2019? (1) 34th (2) 58th (3) 61th (4) 25th 50. Which country’s team has won the 2019 T20 Physical Disability Cricket World Series? (1) India (2) England (3) New Zealand (4) Pakistan

TEST - III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

51. In a classroom there are certain numbers of benches. If 5 students are made to sit on a bench, then to accommodate all of them, one more bench is needed. However, if 7 students are made to sit on a bench, then after accommodating all of them, space of 3 student is left. What is the total number of student in the class? (1) 22 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 28 52. (1) -6 (2) -10 (3) 8 (4) 2 53. (1) 1728 (2) 1773 (3) 1683 (4) 1689 54. A dealer buys an article at a discount of 25% on its marked price and marks it at 20% above the marked price. Then he allows a 25% discount on the list price, then his profit percent is : (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 33 ⅓% (4) 22 ½ % 55.

(1) cot x (2) 2 sec x (3) tan x (4) 2 cos x 56. If a 10 digit number 5329x776y4 is divisible by 88, then the value of (x+y) is? Note Take the maximum value of y. (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 15 57. 13 18 3 21 5 (1) (2) 0 (3) (4) 3 3 4 58. Atul bought 9 tables and 15 chairs for Rs.12000. He sold the table at a profit of 20% and the chair at a loss of 10%. If his total gain was Rs.300, then the total cost of the table was? (1) 6000 (2) 7000 (3) 4500 (4) 5000 59. The ratio of the present ages of X and Y is 5 : 9, 6 year ago, the ratio of their ages was 3 : 7 . What will be the ratio of ages of X and Y after 5 years from now? (1) 5 : 8 (2) 5 : 6 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 7 : 11

3 Grand Test – SC200207 60. A circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD touching side AB, BC, CD and AD at the point P, Q, R and S respectively. If AP=5cm, RC= 8cm and DA = 11cm, then the length of DC=? (1) 10 cm (2) 14 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 16 cm 61. Three numbers are such that if the average of any two of them is added to the third number, the sums obtained are 155, 120 and 103 respectively. What is the average of the original three number? (1) 58 (2) 69 (3) 61 (4) 63 62. ABC is a triangle and side AB and AC are extended to P and Q respectively. If the bisector of ∠ PBC and ∠ QCB intersect at O, ∠A = 78°, then ∠BOC is equal to ? (1) 129° (2) 57° (3) 51° (4) 131° 63. The ratio of efficiencies of A, B and C is 5 : 8 : 3 working together, they can complete a piece of work in 7 days. B and C work together 4 days. The remaining work will be completed by A alone in? 3 2 (1) 15 days (2) 12 days (3) 13 (4) 16 days 5 3 64. If the diagonals of two square are in the ratio of 7 : 5, their area will be in the ratio of? (1) 49:25 (2) 25:4 (3) 25:49 (4) 64:49 65. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle the perpendicular distances of the sides are 2√3 cm, 9√3 cm and 5√3 cm. The perimeter (in cm) of the triangle is ? (1) 85 (2) 108 (3) 72 (4) 96 Directions: (66–70) The following pie-chart shows the marks scored by a student in different subjects - viz. Hindi(H), Chemistry (Ch), Mathematics (M), Social Science (SS) and English (E) in an examination. Assuming that total marks obtained for the examination is 810. Answer the questions given below.

66. The difference of marks between English and Chemistry is same as that between (1) Chemistry and Social Science (2) Mathematics and chemistry (3) Mathematics and English (4) English and Social Science 67. The marks obtained in Mathematics and Chemistry exceed the marks obtained in English and Chemistry by (1) 50.5 (2) 60 (3) 67.5 (4) 75 68. The subject in which the student obtained 157.5 marks is (1) English (2) Hindi (3) Chemistry (4) Mathematics 69. The marks obtained in English, Hindi and Social Science exceed the marks obtained in Mathematics and Chemistry by (1) 11% (2) 10% (3) 19% (4) 0% 70. If a train runs with the speed of 45 km/h, it reaches destination 15 minutes late. However, if its speed is 54 km/h, it is late by only 4minutes. The correct time to cover its journey is in minutes? (1) 51 (2) 61 (3) 52 (4) 56 71. A person sells an article at a profit of 20%. If he had purchased it for 15% less and sold it for Rs.95 less, he would have gained 30%. What is the original cost price of the article? (1) 900 (2) 1000 (3) 1150 (4) 1200 72. (1) ½ (2) 1/√3 (3) 0 (4) √3 73. Find the area of the shaded region in the figure given below if ‘C’ is the center of the circle and its radius is ‘a’.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. The difference between C.I and S.I for 2 years is Rs. 9. Find the sum (in Rs.) if the rate is 15% per annum. (1) 400 (2) 500 (3) 600 (4) 700 75.

(1) √68 (2) 2√13 (3) 10√24 (4) 2 4 Grand Test – SC200207 TEST – IV : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions: (76) Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 76. A. Local determination of approaches will need. B. To the conventional asset-centric solution, new institutional arrangements that allow for. C. To better prioritize and leverage among the viable and sustainable alternatives. D. To be put in place across the water resources to treatment and reuse cycle. (1) CABD (2) CDBA (3) BACD (4) CBAD Directions: (77) In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 77. With nearly 2,000 Billion Cubic Meter (BCM) per year, (A)/ India is among the top 10 nations when it (B)/ comes to endowment of water resources.(C)/ No Error (D) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Directions: (78) Select the wrongly spelt word. 78. (1) Dragoon (2) Dispossess (3) Dessicate (4) Dyspepsia Directions: (79) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 79. Hale and hearty (1) Wealthy (2) Kind-hearted (3) Healthy (4) Greedy Directions: (80) Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 80. A person whose job is to write down what another person says or to copy what another person has written. (1) Rosary (2) Quarry (3) Amateur (4) Amanuensis Directions: (81) In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 81. Compared to the cost of (A)/ living in other countries, it’s relatively (B)/ cheaper to live in Costa Rica.(C)/ No Error (D) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 82. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. This marriage is the best thing (which could happen) to either of us. (1) which can happen (2) that could happened (3) that could happen (4) No improvement Directions: (83) Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 83. In 1944, as Germany was losing the war, many Estonians became alarmed at the ______of Soviet occupation, and fled to Sweden. (1) suspect (2) object (3) sect (4) prospect Directions: (84) Select the antonym of the given word. 84. APPURTENANCE (1) Belongings (2) Subtraction (3) Defense (4) Falsehood Directions: (85) Select the synonym of the given word. 85. BRAWN (1) Muscularity (2) Fragility (3) Fraternity (4) Maternity Directions: (86–90) In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. The Supreme Court verdict bringing the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) under the ______of the Right to Information Act (RTI) has been widely welcomed. It sends a strong signal to all democratic institutions to ______to the twin principles of transparency and accountability underlining the RTI Act. It has ______the earlier decision of the Delhi High Court (HC) that the apex judiciary consisting of the CJI and other justices as per Article 124 of Constitution of India, besides the office of CJI, is a public authority covered under the RTI. The order is expected to infuse the administrative systems ______substantive element of transparency, within the judiciary. The decision also sends across a message to the public offices to take off the ______of secrecy and facilitate more disclosure. 86. The Supreme Court verdict bringing the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) under the ______of the Right to Information Act (RTI) (1) elixir (2) ambit (3) exit (4) utopia 87. It sends a strong signal to all democratic institutions to ______to the twin principles of transparency and accountability underlining the RTI Act. (1) leer (2) smear (3) jeer (4) adhere 5 Grand Test – SC200207 88. It has ______the earlier decision of the Delhi High Court (HC) that the apex judiciary consisting of the CJI (1) hold (2) upheld (3) uphold (4) support 89. The order is expected to infuse the administrative systems ______substantive element of transparency, within the judiciary. (1) of (2) to (3) on (4) with 90. The decision also sends across a message to the public offices to take off the ______of secrecy and facilitate more disclosure. (1) vile (2) vale (3) veil (4) venial Directions: (91) Select the synonym of the given word. 91. CANDOR (1) Evasiveness (2) Sincerity (3) Inequity (4) Deception Directions: (92) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. 92. The Government has to build the roads. (1) The roads have been build by the Government. (2) The roads have to be built by the Government. (3) The roads have been built by the Government. (4) The roads to be built by the Government. Directions: (93) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. 93. Please clean your room. (1) You are requested to clean your room. (2) You are advised to clean your room. (3) You are to clean your room. (4) You are ordered to clean your room. Directions: (94) Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 94. A. And the pollution control board. The municipalities say they also require more funds to meet the operation. B. Round-the-year enforcement requires massive and rapid capacity building in the municipalities, transport department. C. And maintenance cost of running mechanical sweepers and sprinklers D. And to repair roads and footpaths to reduce dust pollution. (1) BDAC (2) CDBA (3) BACD (4) CBAD Directions: (95) Select the word with the correct spelling. 95. (1) Emmisions (2) Emmissions (3) Emissions (4) Emisions Directions: (96) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 96. Do wonders (1) Be extremely lazy (2) Be extremely harmful (3) Be extremely resistive (4) Be extremely effective Directions: (97) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. 97. (Despite of all the ups and downs) of our party system, the foundations of our Constitution and our Parliament remain firm and unchallenged. (1) Despite all the up and downs (2) In spite all the ups and downs (3) Despite all the ups and downs (4) No improvement Directions: (98) Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 98. War ______independent thought and speech; governments often invoke patriotism to enforce conformity. (1) infuses (2) imperils (3) stirs (4) takes Directions: (99) Select the antonym of the given word. 99. DISCRETION (1) Imprudence (2) Fiscal (3) Tact (4) Conclusion Directions: (100) Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 100. A person who demands complete obedience; a strict disciplinarian. (1) Simian (2) Martinet (3) Spartan (4) Truant 6 SSC CGL TIER-I 2019-20 GRAND TEST SC-200207

ANSWER KEY

1.(2) 21.(1) 41.(4) 61.(4) 81.(2) 2. (4) 22.(2) 42.(3) 62.(3) 82.(3) 3. (3) 23.(3) 43.(4) 63.(3) 83.(4)

4.(4) 24.(3) 44.(2) 64.(1) 84.(2) 5.(1) 25.(4) 45.(2) 65.(4) 85.(1)

6.(2) 26.(2) 46.(3) 66.(3) 86.(2) 7.(2) 27.(1) 47.(2) 67.(3) 87.(4) 8.(3) 28.(4) 48.(3) 68.(2) 88.(2)

9.(4) 29.(4) 49.(1) 69.(4) 89.(4) 10.(1) 30.(1) 50.(1) 70.(1) 90.(3) 11.(2) 31.(3) 51.(2) 71.(2) 91.(2)

12.(3) 32.(2) 52.(1) 72.(1) 92.(2) 13.(4) 33.(1) 53.(4) 73.(3) 93.(1)

14.(1) 34.(1) 54.(1) 74.(1) 94.(3) 15.(1) 35.(2) 55.(1) 75.(4) 95.(3) 16.(3) 36.(3) 56.(4) 76.(4) 96.(4)

17.(2) 37.(4) 57.(3) 77.(1) 97.(3) 18.(3) 38.(4) 58.(4) 78.(3) 98.(2) 19.(4) 39.(3) 59.(1) 79.(3) 99.(1) 20.(3) 40.(2) 60.(2) 80.(4) 100.(2)