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IBPSgramin bank rrbs aptitude,reasoning,bank based general awareness,IBPS gramin Bank rrbs largest collection of written test examination and questions with detailed solutions and answers,IBPS GraminBank RRBs computer knowledge questions with answers,IBPSGraminBankRRBs English questions with answers,IBPSGraminBankRRBS probabationary officers and clerks specialists officers written test examination questions with answers

IBPS Gramin Bank RRBs aptitude.reasoning,computerknowledge,generalawareness Probabationay officers and clerks questions with answers 1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

(a) 30 minutes-Answer

(b) 25 minutes

(c) 28 minutes

(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?

(a) 4096

(b) 8192-Answer

(c) 512

(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:

10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149

(a) 100-Answer

(b) 103

(c) 78

(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will

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take to cover the same distance?

(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes -Answer (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?

(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 -Answer (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?

(a) 4 (b) 6 -Answer (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:

(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 -Answer (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?

(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150-Answer

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 …………… (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 -Answer (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?

(a) 16.67 (b) 20 -Answer

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(c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….

(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 -Answer (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?

(a) 204 -Answer (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50-Answer

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?

(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds-Answer

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….

(a) 90 seconds -Answer (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?

(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 -Answer (d) Rs. 40

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17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?

(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6-Answer

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers

(a) 5050 -Answer (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:

(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m -Answer (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?

(a) 4 (b) 8 -Answer (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..

(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3

(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 -Answer (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?

(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 -Answer (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

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23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?

(a) 10% -Answer (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 -Answer (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM

(a) 900 (b) 1200 -Answer (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in

(a) 20 minute -Answer (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats

(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute -Answer (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:

(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300-Answer

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?

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(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days -Answer (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?

(a) 25 (b) 28 -Answer (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?

(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %-Answer

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:

(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2-Answer

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 -Answer (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?

(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450-Answer

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the

(a) Interior of the triangle

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(b) Midpoint of the diameter

(c) Exterior of the triangle-Answer

(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?

(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180-Answer

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?

(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid -Answer (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?

(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r -Answer (d) √3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 -Answer (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 -Answer (d) √3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?

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(a) 25 -Answer (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

(a) 3 km/hr -Answer (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

IBPSGramin BankRRBs computer knowledge questions with answers 1. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a ……………… (A) resonance (B) router (C) gateway (D) switch (E) repeater Ans : (E)

2. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a ……………… (A) version (B) patch (C) tutorial (D) FAQ (E) rectifier Ans : (B)

3. URL stands for ……………… (A) Universal Research List (B) Universal Resource List (C) Uniform Research List (D) Uniform Research Locator (E) Uniform Resource Locator Ans : (E)

4. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes ……………… (A) data redundancy (B) information overload (C) duplicate data (D) data inconsistency (E) data repetition

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Ans : (D)

5. What is a backup ? (A) Restoring the information backup (B) An exact copy of a system's information (C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (B)

6. The Internet is ……………… (A) a large network of networks (B) an internal communication system for a business (C) a communication system for the Indian government (D) a communication system for some states of (E) a communication system for some cities of India Ans : (A)

7. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as ……………… (A) supercomputers (B) planners (C) minicomputers (D) file servers (E) laptops Ans : (E)

8. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called ? (A) A folder (B) A mailbox (C) A directory (D) The hard disk (E) None of these Ans : (B)

9. One advantage of dial-up Internet access is (A) it utilises broadband technology (B) it is Indian (C) it uses a router for security (D) modem speeds are very fast (E) it utilises existing telephone service Ans : (E)

10. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called ? (A) configuration

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(B) download (C) storage (D) upload (E) installation Ans : (E)

11. Which process checks to ensure that the components of the computer are operating and connected properly ? (A) Booting (B) Processing (C) Saving (D) Editing (E) Starting Ans : (A)

12. A means of capturing an image (drawing or photo) so that it can be stored on a computer is……………… (A) Modem (B) Software (C) Scanner (D) Keyboard (E) Mouse Ans : (C)

13. An error in a computer program……………… (A) Crash (B) Power Failure (C) Bug (D) Virus (E) Fatal error Ans : (C)

14. Access-control based on a person's fingerprints is .an example of……………… (A) biometric identification (B) characteristic identification (C) characteristic security (D) fingerprint security (E) logistics Ans : (A)

15. The patterns of printed lines on most products are called……………… (A) prices (B) striping (C) scanners (D) OCR (E) barcodes

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Ans : (E)

16. Most mail programs automatically complete the following two parts in an e-mail ……………… (A) From: and Body : (B) From: and Date : (C) From: and To : (D) From: and Subject : (E) None of these Ans : (B)

17. The computer's capability of distinguishing spoken words is called ……………… (A) voice analysis (B) speech acknowledgement (C) voice recognition (D) speech interpretation (E) vocalisation Ans : (C)

18. Which of the following is an advantage of mounting an application on the Web ? (A) The possibility of 24-houraccess for users (B) Creating a system that can extend globally (C) Standardising the design of the interface (D) All of these (E) None of these Ans : (D)

19. The first page of a Website is called the ……………… (A) Homepage (B) Index (C) Java Script (D) Bookmark (E) Intro Page Ans : (A)

20. ERP is an acronym for ……………… (A) Enterprise Retirement Planning (B) Enterprise Relationship Planning (C) Enterprise Resource' Planning (D) Enterprise Reorder Planning (E) Enterprise Retention Planning Ans : (C)

21. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called a/an ……………… (A) Search Engine (B) Internet Service Provider (ISP)

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(C) Multimedia Application (D) Browser (E) Internet Surfing Provider Ans : (D)

22. The issues that deal with the collection and use of data about individuals is ……………… (A) access (B) publicity (C) accuracy (D) property (E) privacy Ans : (E)

23. A term related to sending data to a satellite is ……………… (A) downlink (B) modulate (C) demodulate (D) uplink (E) interrelate Ans : (D)

24. Online documents containing underlined phrases or icons that a user can click in order to move immediately to related parts of the current document or to other documents with related information is called ……………… (A) hypermedia (B) hypertext (C) HTML (D) URL (E) FTP Ans : (B)

25. Physical security is concerned with protecting computer hardware from human tampering and natural disasters and ………………security is concerned with protecting software from unauthorized tampering or damage. (A) data (B) cyber (C) Internet (D) metaphysical (E) publicity Ans : (A)

26. Hackers ……………… (A) all have the same motive (B) are people who maintain computers (C) may legally break into computers as long as they do not do any damage (D) are people who are allergic to computers

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(E) break into other people's computers Ans : (E)

27. Unauthorised copying of software to be used for personal gain instead of for personal backups is called ……………… (A) program thievery (B) data snatching (C) software piracy (D) program looting (E) data looting Ans : (C)

28. Junk e-mail is also called ……………… (A) spam (B) spoof (C) cookie crumbs (D) sniffer script (E) spill Ans : (A)

29. What is usually used for displaying information at public places ? (A) Monitors (B) Overhead Projections (C) Monitors and Overhead Projections (D) Touch Screen Kiosks (E) Loud Speakers Ans : (B)

30. What is MP3 ? (A) A Mouse (B) A Printer (C) A Sound Format (D) A Scanner (E) A Mobile Phone Ans : (C)

31. What is the most popular hardware for multimedia creations ? (A) PCs (B) Minicompiiters (C) Mainframe Computers (D) WANs (E) Super Computers Ans : (A)

32. For sound recording, what is necessary ? (A) Speaker

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(B) Microphone (C) Talker (D) Mouse (E) Telephone Ans : (B)

33. The life-span of a CD-ROM is……………… (A) approximately one year (B) approximately two years (C) approximately five years (D) approximately twenty-five years (E) almost unlimited Ans : (C)

34. The ……………… settings are automatic and standard. (A) default (B) CPU (C) peripheral (D) user frien9ly (E) defaulter Ans : (A)

35. What are the two parts of an E-mail address ? (A) User name and street address (B) Legal name and phone number (C) User name and domain name (D) Initials and password (E) User name and Recipient name Ans : (C)

36. Participants can see and hear each other in a/an ……………… (A) electronic mail system (B) message system (C) tele-conference (D) bulletin board (E) None of these Ans : (C)

37. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is ……………… (A) a random-access medium (B) expensive (C) a read-only medium (D) fragile and easily damaged (E) a sequential-access medium Ans : (E)

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38. Why should you delete unknown e-mail attachments ? (A) You could go to jail (B) The person could track you down and hurt you (C) It is bad manners (D) It might contain a virus that could hurt your computer (E) None of these Ans : (D)

39. How is it possible that both programs and data can be stored on the same floppy disk ? (A) A floppy disk has two sides, one for data and one for programs (B) A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the other (C) Programs and data are both software, and both can be stored on any memory device (D) Floppy disks can only store data, not programs (E) Floppy disks are better than CDs Ans : (C)

40. What is an embedded system ? (A) A program that comes wrapped in a box (B) A program that is permanently part of a computer (C) A computer that is part of a larger computer (D) A computer and software system that controls a machine or appliance (E) None of these Ans : (D)

41. Which of the following will you require to hear music on your computer ? (A) Video Card (B) Tape Recorder (C) Mouse (D) Joy Stick (E) Sound Card Ans : (E)

42. The signal that a computer is waiting for a command from the user is ……………… (A) prompt (B) event (C) time slice (D) interrupt (E) None of these Ans : (A)

43. This software allows the user to move from page to page on the Web by clicking on or selecting a hyperlink, or by typing in the address of the destination page ……………… (A) Web browser (B) Web search engine (C) Web homepage

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(D) Web service (E) None of these Ans : (A)

44. For viewing video CDs, you would use……………… (A) CD Player (B) Windows Media Player (C) Windows Video Player (D) Windows Movie Player (E) None of these Ans : (B)

45. Executing more than one program concurrently by one user on one computer is known as ……………… (A) multi-programming (B) multi-processing (C) time-sharing (D) multi-tasking (E) multi-action Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system ? (A) language translator (B) platform (C) user interface (D) icon (E) None of these Ans : (C)

47. You can keep your personal flies / folders in ……………… (A) My Folder (B) My Documents (C) My Files (D) My Text (E) My Collection Ans : (B)

48. Three types of compact disks include CD-ROM, CD-R, and ……………… (A) CD-W (B) CD-RAM (C) CD-DVD (D) CD-RW (E) None of these Ans : (D)

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49. All computers must have ……………… (A) Word processing software (B) An operating system (C) A printer attached (D) A virus checking program (E) None of these Ans : (B)

50. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of ……………… (A) spooling (B) spoofing (C) hacking (D) identity theft (E) None of these Ans : (D)

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 -Answer (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.

(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm -Answer (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……

(a) 81 -Answer (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:

(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 -Answer (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =

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(a) 5 (b) 2 -Answer (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30

(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750-Answer

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?

(a) 306 (b) 765 -Answer (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 -Answer

(c) 38 (d) 31

IBPS Gramin Bank General Awareness Questions

1. In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor ? (A) Cornea-Answer (B) The whole eye (C) Lens (D) Retina

2. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Cosmic Background Explorer (COBE) —Satellite Programme (B) Falcon—Under-seacable system (C) Discovery —Space Shuttle-Answer (D) Atlantis —Space Station

3. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Union ? (A) Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh-Nagaland-Haryana (B) Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh-Answer (C) Sikkim-Haryana-Nagaland-Arunachal Pradesh

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(D) Nagaland - Arunachal-Pradesh-Sikkim-Haryana

4. Which one of the following is printed on a commonly used flourescent tubelight ? (A) 220 K (B) 273 K (C) 6500 K-Answer (D) 9000 K

5. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming ? (A) Australia (B) Germany (C) Japan (D) New Zealand-Answer

6. Which one among the following was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India ? (A) University Grants Commission (B) National Human Rights Commission (C) Election Commission-Answer (D) Central Vigilance Commission

7. The number of High Courts in India is— (A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 21-AnswerThere are only 21 High Courts in India, whereas the number of States are 28. (D) 25

8. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a Movement ? (A) Annie Beasant-Answer (B) A. O. Hume (C) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (D) R. Palme Dutt

9. What was Komagata Maru ? (A) A political party based in Taiwan (B) Peasant Communist leader of China (C) A naval ship on voyage to Canada-Answer (D) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long March

10. Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania ? (A) Poland (B) Ukraine-Answer (C) Belarus (D) Latavia

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11. Where are the Balearic islands located ? (A) Mediterranean Sea-Answer (B) Black Sea (C) Baltic Sea (D) North Sea

12. Spanish is not the official language of— (A) Chile (B) Colombia (C) Republic of Congo-Answer (D) Cuba

13. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to— (A) Empowering the centre to levy and appropriate tax (B) The Constitution of National Judicial Commission-Answer (C) Readjustment of electoral Constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001 (D) The demarcation of new boundaries between states

14. Which of the following is the correct statement on the basis of Census 2001 ? (A) Bihar has the highest percentage of Scheduled Castes of its population (B) The decadal growth of population of India (1999–2001) has been below 20% (C) Mizoram is the Indian state with the least population. (D) Puducherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories-Answer

15. Where is the volcanic mountain Mount St. Helen located ? (A) Chile (B) Japan (C) Philippines (D) United States of America-Answer

16. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of— (A) Eight binary digits-Answer (B) Eight decimal digits (C) Two binary digits (D) Two decimal digits

17. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties— (A) With the consent of all the states (B) With the consent of the majority of the states (C) With the consent of the State concerned (D) Without the consent of any State-Answer

18. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct ? (A) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament-Answer

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(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or not (C) The Rajya Sabha must return within 14 days a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha (D) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration

19. Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the Jagadguru by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism ? (A) Hussain Shah (B) Zainul Abidin (C) Ibrahim Adil Shah-Answer (D) Mahmud II

20. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to— (A) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States-Answer (B) Prepare the Annual Budget (C) Advise the President on financial matters (D) Allocate funds to various ministers of the Union and the State Governments

21. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume— (A) Decreases (B) Does not change (C) Increases (D) First decrease and then increase-Answer

22. ‘Athlete’s Foot’ is a disease caused by— (A) Nematode-Answer (B) Fungus (C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa

23. If a new State of the Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended ? (A) First-Answer (B) Fifth (C) Second (D) Third

24. Antigen is a substance which— (A) Lowers body temperature (B) Destroys harmful bacteria (C) Is used to treat poisoning (D) Stimulates formation of antibody-Answer

25. The Mongols under Chenghis Khan invaded India during the reign of— (A) Feroz Tughlaq (B) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (C) Iltutmish-Answer

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(D) Balban

26. Who among the following wrote ‘The Communist Manifesto’ along with Karl Marx ? (A) Emile Durkeim (B) Friedrich Engels-Answer (C) Robert Owen (D) Max Weber

27. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Slovenia—Bratislava-Answer (B) Seychelles—Victoria (C) Sierra Leon—Freetown (D) Mauritania—Nouakchott

28. Where are Shevroy Hills located ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu-Answer

29. In human body, which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium and phosphate ? (A) Glucagon (B) Growth hormone (C) Parathyroid hormone-Answer (D) Thyroxine

30. How do most insects inspire ? (A) Through Skin (B) Through gills (C) By Lungs (D) By trachael system-Answer

31. In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts, does the sperm fertilize the ovum ? (A) Cervix (B) Fallopian tube (C) Lower part of uterus (D) Upper part of uterus

32. Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting ? (A) Cerebellum (B) Cerebrum-Answer (C) Medulla Oblongata (D) Pons

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33. Production of which one of the following is a function of the liver ? (A) Lipase (B) Urea-Answer (C) Mucus (D) Hydrochloric Acid

34. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system ? (A) Trypsin (B) Gastrin-Answer (C) Ptyalin (D) Pepsin

35. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants ? (A) Violet and orange (B) Blue and red-Answer (C) Indigo and yellow (D) Yellow and violet

IBPS-Regional Rural Banks Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection . IBPS Gramins Banks Examination Questions for Practice, IBPS Officer Assistants and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice IBPS Computer knowledge Questions Previously asked in various written Test examination with answers http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

IBPS Computer knowledge Questions with answers-50 Questions 1. You can keep your personal files/folders in— (A) My folder (B) My Documents (C) My Files (D) My Text (E) None of these Ans : (B)

2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into— (A) Web sites (B) Information (C) Programs (D) Objects (E) None of these Ans : (B)

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3. A directory within a directory is called— (A) Mini Directory (B) Junior Directory (C) Part Directory (D) Sub Directory (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 4. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into— (A) Machine language (B) An algorithm (C) A debugged program (D) Java (E) None of these Ans : (A)

5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test— (A) RAM test (B) Disk drive test (C) Memory test (D) Power-on self-test (E) None of these Ans : (B) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 6. A ……is a unique name that you give to a file of information. (A) device letter (B) folder (C) filename (D) filename extension (E) None of these Ans : (D)

7. Hardware includes— (A) all devices used to input data into a computer (B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes (C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data (D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 8. A ……… contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm. (A) programming language (B) syntax (C) programming structure (D) logic chart

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(E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 9. All the deleted files go to— (A) Recycle Bin (B) Task Bar (C) Tool Bar (D) My Computer (E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is— (A) Multiprogramming (B) Multitasking (C) Time-sharing (D) Multiprocessing (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 11. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs— (A) Password (B) Passport (C) Entry-code (D) Access-code (E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 12. Computers use the ……… number system to store data and perform calculations. (A) binary (B) octal (C) decimal (D) hexadecimal (E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 13. The main function of the ALU is to— (A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations (B) Store data and information for future use (C) Control computer output, such as printing (D) Monitor all computer activities (E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 14. ……is the process of carrying out commands. (A) Fetching (B) Storing

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(C) Executing (D) Decoding (E) None of these Ans : (C)

15. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ? (A) The physical parts of the computer (B) The printed parts of the computer (C) The printed output (D) The physical output devices (E) None of these Ans : (C) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 16. A(n) ……… is a program that makes the computer easier to use. (A) utility (B) application (C) operating system (D) network (E) None of these Ans : (A)

17. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)— (A) Workstation (B) CPU (C) Magnetic disk (D) Integrated circuit (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 18. Computer systems are comprised of— (A) Hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people (B) Hardware, programs, information, people and procedures (C) Hardware, programs, information, people and networks (D) Hardware, software, procedures, networks and people (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 19. An error in a computer program— (A) Crash (B) Power Failure (C) Bug (D) Virus (E) None of these Ans : (C) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers

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20. What is output ? (A) What the processor takes from the user (B) What the user gives to the processor (C) What the processor gets from the user (D) What the processor gives to the user (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 21. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a— (A) programmer (B) computer scientist (C) software engineer (D) project developer (E) None of these Ans : (A)

22. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called— (A) mentor (B) instructor (C) compiler (D) program (E) None of these Ans : (D) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 23. What menu is selected to print ? (A) Edit (B) Special (C) File (D) Tools (E) None of these Ans : (C)

24. What is backup ? (A) Adding more components to your network (B) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination (C) Filtering old data from the new data (D) Accessing data on tape (E) None of these Ans : (B) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 25. The term bit is short for— (A) Megabyte (B) Binary language (C) Binary digit (D) Binary number (E) None of these

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Ans : (C) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 26. A saved document is referred to as a— (A) file (B) word (C) folder (D) project (E) None of these Ans : (A) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 27. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called— (A) Information engines (B) Search engines (C) Web browsers (D) Resource locators (E) None of these Ans : (B)

28. An application program has which one of the following functions ? (A) It specifies the informationprocessing procedures required by a particular informationprocessing job (B) It controls the input/output and storage functions of the computer system (C) It provides various support services for the computer system (D) It supervises the operations of the CPU (E) None of these Ans : (A)

29. In page preview mode— (A) You can see all pages of your document (B) You can only see the page you are currently working (C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics (D) You can only see the title page of your document (E) None of these Ans : (A)

30. An operating system that can do multitasking means that— (A) The operating system can divide up work between several CPUs (B) Several programs can be operated concurrently (C) Multiple people can use the computer concurrently (D) All of the above (E) None of these Ans : (B)

31. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ……… command. (A) Replace (B) Find

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(C) Lookup (D) Search (E) None of these Ans : (B)

32. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ? (A) WRD (B) TXT (C) DOC (D) FIL (E) None of these Ans : (C)

33. With a CD you can— (A) Read (B) Write (C) Read and Write (D) Either Read or Write (E) None of these Ans : (C) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 34. A collection of interrelated records is called a— (A) Utility file (B) Management information system (C) Database (D) Spreadsheet (E) None of these Ans : (C)

35. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ……… key. (A) PageUp (B) A (C) Home (D) Enter (E) None of these Ans : (C) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 36. The term ‘user interface’ refers to— (A) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it (B) How the operating system responds to user commands (C) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer (D) The monitor that is available for the computer (E) None of these Ans : (A)

37. The background of any Word document—

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(A) Is always white colour (B) Is the colour you preset under the Options menu (C) Is always the same for the entire document (D) Can have any colour you choose (E) None of these Ans : (D)

38. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym— (A) CD (B) DVD (C) ROM (D) RW (E) None of these Ans : (D)

39. For creating a document, you use ……… command at File Menu. (A) Open (B) Close (C) New (D) Save (E) None of these Ans : (C)

40. The contents of ……… are lost when the computer turns off. (A) storage (B) input (C) output (D) memory (E) None of these Ans : (D)

41. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called— (A) A database management system (B) Batch processing (C) A real-time system (D) An on-line system (E) None of these Ans : (C)

42. A printer is this kind of device— (A) Input (B) Word processing (C) Processing (D) Output (E) None of these Ans : (D)

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43. Text in a column is generally aligned— (A) Justified (B) Right (C) Center (D) Left (E) None of these Ans : (D)

44. What type of device is a computer mouse ? (A) Input (B) Output (C) Software (D) Storage (E) None of these Ans : (A)

45. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ? (A) Chart Wizard (B) Pivot Table (C) Pie Chart (D) Bar Chart (E) None of these Ans : (A)

46. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ? (A) RAM (B) ROM (C) CPU (D) CD-ROM (E) None of these Ans : (B)

47. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ? (A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard (B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard (C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking (D) (B) and (C) above (E) None of these Ans : (A)

48. You can start Microsoft Word by using ……… button. (A) New (B) Start (C) Program (D) Control Panel

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(E) None of these Ans : (C)

49. You click at B to make the text— (A) Italics (B) Underlined (C) Italics and Underlined (D) Bold (E) None of these Ans : (D)

50. The……becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing. (A) Active tab (B) Insertion point (C) Mouse pointer (D) Ribbon (E) None of these Ans : (C)

IBPS Gramin Banks Latest Selection Procedures for various Posts,Aptitude,Reasoning,General Awareness and Computer Knowledge Questions with answers IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Latest Company Profile|IBPS COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION [CWE] for recruitment of Officers (Scale-I, II & III) and Office Assistants (Multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) as a pre-requisite (pre-qualification) for -Officers (Scale-I, II & III) and Group-“B”- Office Assistants posts in the Regional Rural BanksBank Office Assistant (Multipurpose)Officer Scale-IOfficer Scale-II (General Banking Officer)

IBPS-Regional Rural Banks Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection . IBPS Gramins Banks Examination Questions for Practice, IBPS Officer Assistanta and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/ Directions (Q.1.to 5) In each of the following questions a number series is given which has only one wrong number. You have to find out the wrong number.

17.5 47.5 87.5 157.5 247.5 357.5 487.5

(1)357.5 (2)87.5 (3)157.5 (4)7.5 (5)47.5 (Ans)

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2.1500 1581 1664 1749 1833 1925 2016

(1)1581 (2)1664 (3)1833 (Ans) (4)1925 (5)1749

3.1331 2197 3375 4914 6859 9261 12167

(1)4914(Ans) (2)6859 (3)9261 (4)2197 (5)1216 4.13 16 21 27 39 52 69 (1) 21 (2)39 (3)27 (Ans) (4)52 (5)16

5.66 91 120 153 190 233 276 (1)120 (2)233 (Ans) (3)153 (4)276 (5)190

Directions (Q.6-) What will come in place of the question marks (?) in the following questions? IBPS Officer Assistanta and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice 6.22.5 Χ 0.05 = ? (1)11.25 (2)1.125 (Ans) (3)22.55 (4)112.5 (5)None of these

7.999 + 111 Χ 0.5 = ?

(1)555 (2)500 (3)1054.5 (Ans) (4)1110.5 (5)None of these

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8. 40% of 250 = 50% of ? (1)200 (Ans) (2)100 (3)150 (4)400 (5)None of these

9 (4)? = 1024

(1)1 (2)2 (3)3 (4)4 (5)None of these (Ans)

10 ½ +¼ + ¾ + 2/3 = ?

(1)2 1/5 (2)1/16 (3)2 1/16 (4)2 1/6 (Ans) (5)None of these

http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/ IBPS Officer Assistants and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice

Directions (Q.11-) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below.

Installed Capacity and Production of Vehicles over the Years Category Installed Production Capacity

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2000 2001 2002 2000 2001 2002

Tempos 70.0 79.0 89.5 41.2 51.8 58.6 Cars 47.5 54.4 53.0 36.6 33.6 30.3 Jeeps 14.0 14.0 14.0 10.5 12.0 13.3 Motorbikes 77.5 77.5 80.0 68.0 96.9 98.0 Scooters 150.0 150.0 200.0 100.4 150.0 120.515. Autos 29.0 30.0 32.0 18.4 19.4 1

Capacity utilization = Production/ Installed capacity

11The only category of automobiles, which experienced a steady decline in production was? (1)Motor bikes (2)Jeeps (3) Autos (4)Tempos (5)None of these (Ans)

12 Which of the following statements are true?

I.All categories of automobiles experienced a growth in production between 2001 and 2002. II.In 2002 the capacity utilization of jeeps was higher than the of motor bikes. III.Cars, scooters and autos experienced a decline in production from 2001 to2002 (1)I only (2)II only (3) III only (Ans) (4) II and III only (5)I and III only

13 Capacity utilization was the highest for which category of automobiles in the year 2002?

(1)Jeeps (2)Tempos (3) Scooter

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(4) Motor bikes (Ans) (5)None of these IBPS Officer Assistanta and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice 14Which of the following experienced no growth in installed capacity over the period of 2000 to 2002?

(1)Cars (2)Motor bikes (3) Jeeps (Ans) (4) Autos (5)None of these

15 Capacity utilization was the lowest for which category of automobiles in the year 2000? (1)Scooters (2)Tempos (Ans) (3)Cars (4) Autos (5)None of these

16 If 12a +12b =45, what is the average of a and b? (1)3.75 (2)1.875 (Ans) (3) 3.875 (4) 1.75 (5)None of these

17 How much part of a day is 45 minutes? (1)1/42 (2)1/24 (3) 1/32 (Ans) (4) 1/48 (5)None of these

18Samir drove at the speed of 45 km from home to a resort. Returning over the same route, he got stuck in traffic and took an hour longer, also he could drive only at the speed of 40 km. How many kilometers did he drive each way ? (1)250 km (2)300 km (3) 310 km (4) 275 km (5)None of these (Ans)

http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers 19 What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 640, if the sum of the two numbers, exceeds their difference by 32? (1)45

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(2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 40 (Ans) (5)None of these IBPS Officer Assistanta and all posts Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice 20 On a test consisting of 150 questions. Rita answered 40% of the first 75 questions correctly. What per cent of the other 75 questions does she need to answer correctly for her grade on the entire exam to be 60%? (1)80 (Ans) (2)70 (3) 40 (4) 50 (5)None of these IBPS Officer Assistants and all posts Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice Reasoniing Questions

http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-paper 1. The positions of the first and the fourth letters of the word PLANET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is fourth from the left according to the English alphabetical order? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four

2. The positions of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word WORTHY is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REASON, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

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4. 'Writing' is related to 'Pen' in the same way as _____ ? (1) 'Singing' is related to 'Music' (2) 'Stitching' is related to 'Needle' (3) 'Dancing' is related to 'Exercise' (4) 'Carpenter' is related to 'Tools' (5) 'Paper' is related to 'Book'

5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth and ninth letters of the word 'CONFLICTED', which would be the second letter of the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give 'II: as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give 'z' as your answer. (1) A (2) T (3) 0 (4) N (5) Z IBPS Officer Assistants and all postsComputer knowledge , Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice

Computer General Awareness

1. Computer uses the ...... number system to store data and perform calculations.

(1) binary

(2) octal

(3) decimal

(4) hexadecimal

(5) None of these

2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is-

(1) Memory-only

(2) Write-only

(3) Once-only

(4) Run-only

(5) Read-only

3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

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(1) CTRL + A

(2) ALT + F5

(3) SHIFT + A

(4) CTRL + K

(5) CTRL + H

4...... are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

(1) Phishing

(2) Computer viruses

(3) Spyware scams

(4) Viruses

(5) None of the above

5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of-

(1) control

(2) output

(3) processing

(4) feedback

(5) input

IBPS Officer Assistants and all postsBank Based General Awareness ,Computer knowledge , Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude Questions Learn and Practice

1. Eminent Author Amar Kant writes in which of the following languages?

(A) Hindi

(B) Urdu

(C) Oriya

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(D) Tamil

(E) Punjabi

2. is associated with which one of the following games?

(A) Shooting

(B) Boxing

(C) Athletics

(D) Badminton

(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is a private bank in India?

(A) Oriental Bank of Commerce

(B) Corporation Bank

(C) South Indian Bank

(D) Syndicate Bank

(E) Bank of Maharashtra

4. In which one of the following countries does river Thames flow?

(A) Chile

(B) Argentina

(C) Ireland

(D) United Kingdom

(E) Russia

5. Golfer Jeev plays for which one of the following countries?

(A) USA

(B) India

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(C) Germany

(D) Canada

(E) Paksitan

IBPS Gramin Bank Officers scale job written Test Examination Pattern|IBPS PO CWE & IBPS Clerical Grade CWE Examination Question Papers IBPS General Awareness question Bank -2012 IBPS Gramin Bank Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning ,Computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions with answers IBPS PO CWE Clerical Gramin Bank and All Banks Preparation Practice questions| IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness All Banks Latest Written Test pattern and Questions Papers| IBPS Previously asked Question Papers Latest Current Affairs for IBPS PO (CWE),IBPS Clerical and IBPS Gramin Bank – 2012 February,March and April 2012 March -2012 General Awareness 1. Name the freedom fighter with picture of whom Rs.5 coin would be introduced by RBI. Ans. Bhagat Singh 2. Name the news search engine introduced by Rediff.com Ans. Relatime News Search

3. Tiger brand is associated with which company? Ans. Britannia

4. Name the cricketer who was honoured with lifetime membership the Sydney Cricket Ground. Ans.

5. Which country has been ranked as the world’s richest country in the list compiled by US magazine Forbes? Ans. Qatar

6. Which country did India beat to qualify for London Olympics men’s hockey 2012? Ans. France

7. Name the service that is to be launched by Times Group to enable viewers to watch movies and TV shows online. Ans. BoxTV.com

8. Name the football player who led India to the gold in the inaugural Asian Games in New Delhi who passed away recently.

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Ans. Sailendra Nath Manna

9. Who won the Allan Border medal (Australia cricketer of the year) award 2012? Ans. Michael Clarke

10. Which west Asian country approved for new constitution recently? Ans. Syria

11. Which model of Nokia phone has been built with 41-megapixel sensor camera? Ans. Nokia 808 Pureview camera phone

12. Name the digital music store launched by flipkart.com. Ans. FlyteDownload From http://www.jbigdeal.com

13. Name the online property search portal launched by HDFC in Ans. HDFC Red

14. Name the application launched by Vigyan Prasar and IGNOU as a free SMS service for mobile users that delivers content on science and related areas. Ans. Science@Mobile

15. Name the Kerala-based UAE business magnate who was awarded with Interfaith Harmony Award at Kuala Lumpur. Ans. M.A.Yusuf Ali

16. Which country has India agreed ‘in-principle’ to the participation in hydro power-projects in the North- East? Ans. Bangladesh

17. Name the Tech-savvy state which set a record by winning the National Tourism Award for its website for 5th time in last 10 years. Ans. Kerala

18. Who has been appointed as brand ambassador of fruit drink maker rasna? Ans. Genelia D’souza

19. Name the book which is set to be launched by model-turnedactress Diana Hayden. Ans. A Beautiful Truth

20. Who has been awarded the Pritzker Architecture Prize considered as Nobel prize in Architecture? Ans. Wang Shu

21. Which railway station became the first railway network to offer BluFi, a combination of Bluetooth and WiFi to provide information to passengers? Ans. Bangalore City Railway Station

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22. Name the Indian golfer who qualified for The Open Championship to be played in July at the Royal Lytham St Annes. Ans. Anirban Lahiri

23. Which state bagged the second best national award in the Comprehensive Development of Tourism category? Ans. RajasthanDownload

24. Name the men’s mixed doubles winner of the ATP Dubai Open 2012. Ans. and Rohan Bopanna

25. Who won the men’s singles of ATP Dubai Open 2012? Ans. Roger Federer

26. Name the Indian American filmmaker who won the ’2012 Rising Star Award’ for his feature film ’9 Eleven’ at the Canada International Film Festival. Ans. Manan Singh Katohora

27. Who has been elected as Russian President recently? Ans. Vladimir Putin

28. Name of Taslima Nasreen’s autobiography? Ans. Nirbasan

29. Who is World’s shortest man as per recent Guinness World Records ? Ans. 72-year old Chandra Bahadur Dangi of Nepal

30. Name the Romanian Prime Minister who quit recently. Ans. Emil Boc

31. Name the Maldives President who was appointed after Mohamed Nasheed quit. Ans. Mohammad Waheed Hassan

32. Which singer is launching her own social networking website exclusively for her fans? Ans. Lady Gaga [www.littlemonsters.com]

33. Which country released world’s highest resolution lunar images taken by its 2nd moon orbiter, Chang’e- 2? Ans. China IBPS Gramin Bank Officers scale job written Test Examination Pattern|IBPS PO CWE & IBPS Clerical Grade CWE Examination Question Papers IBPS Gramin Bank Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning ,Computer Knowledge and General Awareness Questions with answers

34. Who was honoured with Lata Mangehkar award by the Madhya Pradesh government recently? Ans. Rajesh Roshan

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35. Why zebras have black and white stripes (recently solved mystery)? Ans. To keep blood-sucking files away

36. Who was honoured with a posthumous Grammy award for his contributions to the music industry in area other than performance? Ans. Steve Jobs ------IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS PO CWE and IBPS CWE for clerical Questions April 2012

1. Name the yesteryear actress who featured in the popular song ‘Ae Meri Zohra Jabeen’ from the film ‘Waqt’who passed away recently. Achala Sachdev passed away at a Pune hospital on April 30, 2012. was 91 year old.

2. Where in India, largest solar power plant with an installed capacity of 40 MW started producing electricity? Pokhran in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan

3. Which department in India plans to set up 1000 ATM’s across 6 states? Postal department

4. Who created history by becoming the first Indian female wrestler to have qualified for the London Olympics 2012? Geeta

5. Who has been appointed next Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission? Ratan Kumar Sinha

6. In which part of India, Indo Tibetan Border Police headquarters is to be opened? Bihar

7. Which state’s High Court has insisted that banks cannot freeze accounts nor stop services of issuing cheque book or ATM facility where the account holder has not supplied KYC (Know Your Customers) documents? Gujarat

8. Name the former Haryana chief secretary who took oath as state information commissioner ? Urvashi Gulati

9. Which State becames the 3rd state in India to launch State Portal (SP) and State Service Delivery Gateway (SSDG) project? Nagaland

10. Who won the World Series Hockey 2012 title? Sher-E-Punjab

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11. In which state Urdu medium Government schools would be setup as announced by Chief Minister Akhilesh Yadav? Uttar Pradesh

12. Where is the World’s first Virtual shopping store opened? Korea

13. Who is named as HSBC’s India CEO? Stuart Milne

14. Which Indian state bans guthka from 1st of April 2012 to curb the increasing number of mouth cancer cases? Madhya Pradesh

15. Which Indian state chief minister has urged union Finance Minister to bail it out of its huge burden?

16. Name the Jammu and Kashmir High Court Chief Justice who was sworn in as Supreme court judge ? F.M.Ibrahim Kalifulla

17. Name the Gujarati techie whose name has emerged for India’s President as the nation has to elect 16th President in July 2012 ? Sam Pitroda

18. At what value Air India’s restructuring plan was approved by a group of 19 banks led by SBI? 18,000 crore

19. Which services Airtel is planning to launch in Kolkata in April 2012? 4G services

20. Name the nuclear submarine which joined Indian Navy. INS Chakra

21. Which education company bagged Rs.209 crore order from Assam Government? Educomp

22. Which 2 north Indian states will have pipeline connected oil terminals for supply of diesel, petrol and kerosene? Jammu and Himachal Pradesh

23. Which Asian country has issued tender to buy minimum of 30,000 tonnes of basmati rice from India and Pakistan? Iraq

24. NSE founder who passes away Recently?

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RH PatilDr R H Patil, chairman, Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL) and founder-managing director of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) passed away in Mumbai

25. Who donated 1 million Singapore Dollars to Indian Heritage Centre?

26. Name the world’s highest and longest bridge that was officially opened to motorists in China.Anzhaite Long-span Suspension Bridge in Jishou

27. Which bank has opened 16 Ultra Small branches in 16 locations in villages to cater to financial needs of the rural populace? IDBI Bank

28. Who has been conferred with Sir Jehangir Ghandy Medal? Narayana Murthy

29. In which city in Kerala will Infosys setup its 2nd campus? Thiruvananthapuram

30. Which bank will set up 1-person micro branches to serve remote areas of the northeastern region financially? Indian Overseas Bank

31. Which act does not allow to prosecute (no wife can claim compensation or maintenance) husband’s girlfriend? Protection of Women from Domestic Vilonce Act, 2005

32. Name the 3 Indian hockey players after whom tube stations in London has been renamed., and Leslie Claudius

33. Who has been signed up as brand ambassador of Toyota Kirloskar Motors?

34. When was 63rd Rajasthan Day celebrated? 30th March 2012

35. Where in Rajasthan Spices Board’s first Spices Park is setup? Jodhpur IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness

36. Which Asian country recently became member of Consultative Group to Assist the Poor (CGAP)? India

37. Who won her 6th world sprint title at the world track cycling championships 2012?

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Victoria Pendleton

38. Name the Malawi President who died after heart attack. Bingu wa Mutharika

39. Who was sworn in as Malawi’s President following the death of Bingu wa Mutharika? Joyce Banda

40. Which Asian country made Hindu marriage registration a must by bringing the law in lines with India? Bangladesh

41. Israel has decided to setup its consulate office in which part of India? Bangalore

42. Which Indian city is likely to get water taxis and airconditioned trams? Kolkata

43. Name the young doctor who is set to become the first foreign national of Indian origin to walk across Antarctica carrying the Indian Flag. Dr.Alexander Kumar

44. Name the youngest Indian boxer who qualified for London Olympics 2012. Shiva Thapa

45. What percentage hike was allocated for Karnataka by Planning Commission for current fiscal 2012-13 in the 12th Plan? 10%

46. Who will be the sports ambassador for the state of Haryana?

47. Which category of women will be allowed to participate in the Miss Universe beauty pageant from next year? Transgender women

48. Which rank does Bangalore hold as preferred entrepreneurial locations worldwide? 9th rank

49. Which TV has become the first Indian television channel to enter the Chinese market? Zee TV

50. Which act was amended to include compulsory registration of marriages in India? Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969

51. Where in Himachal Pradesh Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) would be opened? Una district

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52. What denominations of currency note will RBI introduce bearing rupee symbol? Rs.20 and Rs.50 currency notes

53. Name the index on which NSE is set to launch derivative trade. FTSE 100 index

54. What percentage and value of US based Max New York Life Insurance was sold to Mitsui Sumitomo Insurance (MSI)? 26% and Rs.2,731 crore

55. Which country replaced China as Iran’s top oil client? India

56. India has recently decided to allow Foreign Direct Investment from which Asian country? Pakistan

57. What value of equity infusion did Air India get spread over a period of 9 years? Rs. 30,000 crore

58. Where in India Integrated Check Post was inaugurated on the occasion of Baisakhi to enhance trade between India-Pakistan? Attari IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness

59. Which education council in India would have its own job portal for the students of technical and professional institutions? All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

60. Which 2 countries have agreed to resume dialogue on disarmament and non-proliferation after a gap of 9 years? India and China

61. Which repayment transaction is now allowed by RBI electronically i.e. NEFT? Repayment of Loan EMI’s

62. How many co-sponsors are against the Bill of outsourcing call centers in USA? 106 co-sponsors

63. How much basis point did RBI cut key rates after 3 years? 50 basis points

64. Name the Master Card’s President and CEO who has been elected next chairman of the US-India

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Business Council? Ajay Banga

65. Which Indian FMCG company crossed $1 billion mark in 2011-12? Dabur India

66. Which 14 year old ICC cricket tournament would end after 2013? ICC Champions Trophy

67. Which state has included services of the petroleum industry, including that provided by tanker operations as essential services under the state’s Essential Services Maintenance Act 1971, (Act 20 of 1971)? Andhra Pradesh

68. Which Indian state’s 100th anniversary was celebrated recently? Bihar

69. Who replaces Simon Leung chief executive of the greater China region of Microsoft? Ralph Haupter

70. Bill to include children with disabilities under which Act was recently passed by Rajya Sabha recently? Right to Education Act

71. Name the spy satellite launched by ISRO recently.RISAT-1

72. Which cricket player and lady actor were recommended for Rajya Sabha membership in India? Sachin Tendulkar and Rekha

73. Name the Indian origin entrepreneur and educator who is named as the Goodwill Ambassador for Education Partnerships for UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). Sunny-Varkey IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness

74. Who has been appointed as Governor of Goa, Rajasthan and Uttarkhand? B.V.Wanchoo, Margaret Alva and Aziz Qureshi

75. Who were given fresh terms as Governor of Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra? E.S.L.Narasimhan and K.Sankaranarayanan

76. Which Indian state will be showcased at the Cannes Film Festival? Gujarat

77. Which 2 Asian countries will hold 1st ever economic dialogue on 30th April 2012?

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India and Japan

78. Name the first of the four Dreamliner aircraft that Air India got from Nikki Haley’s state.Boeing 78779. Who won the Asian Snooker Championship 2012? Aditya Mehta

80. Who retained the crown as Britain’s richest man? Lakshmi Mittal

81. Where was the India Investrade 2012 organised by Indian Chamber of Commerce, Kolkata held? Colombo, Sri Lanka

82. Name the mango variety named after the youngest Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. ‘Akhilesh aam’, named after Akhilesh Yadav

83. Which Indian state is planning to make 100 the common number to dial in any emergency? Tamil Nadu

84. Who became the 1st player to cross 2000 runs in cricket tournament IPL? Suresh Raina

85. Which country is keen to boost trade ties with Kerala? Singapore

86. Who became the 1st player to win Barcelona title for 7 times? Rafael Nadal

87. Name the former BCCI president who passed away recently after whom the challenger trophy was named. N.K.P.Salve 88.Who won the Champions Trophy women’s hockey tournament for the 5th time? Argentina 89.Who has been appointed as Chief executive operations for China’s Walmart? Greg Foran 90.When is Windows 8 set to be released by Microsoft? February 29th 2012 IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness 1. The World’s Youngest MCP and CCNA, who has exceptionally highest IQ in the world ? Vishalini 11 year old Indian girl Vishalini, Born in Thirunelveli, a small city of Tamil Nadu.

2. Name the Pakistani cricketer who was released from jail because of good behaviour after serving half of his 6 month sentence. Mohammad Aamer

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3. Which author’s autobiography release was cancelled at the Kolkata Book Fair? Taslima Nasreen

4. Name the luxury watch collection launched by Seiko Watch India at a price range of Rs.1-5 lakh per piece. Ananta

5. What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012? Rs.26,000 crore (US$5.08 billion)

6. Which guidelines have SEBI notified allowing companies to reduce promoter shareholding through private placement? Institutional Placement Programme (IPP)

7. Which company will acquire full control of UTV Software and Communications Ltd.? US-based Walt Disney

8. What is the value of IPO filed by Facebook? $5 billion

9. Expand SAR.Specific Absorption Rate

10. Who was awarded ‘Pride of India’ award by the Indian American community in Washington? Mallikarjun Kharge

11. Name the book launched by Sonu Nigam authored by Priya Kumar. The Perfect World

12. Which Italian luxury brand is looking to bring its high-end homeware and furnishings retail stores to India? Giorgio Armani

13. Which country announced 3-day national mourning following violence at a football stadium in Port Said? Egypt

14. Who is World’s shortest man ? 72-year-old Chandra Bahadur Dangi of Nepal

15. Which bollywood actor was honoured with a Green Globe award for outstanding effort to fight climate change? Abhishek Bachchan

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16. Name the singer who has been appointed as anti-tobacco campaign ambassador. Playback Singer Shann

17. Name the car model unveiled by Sahara Force India.VJM05

18. What award was conferred to Amul company in the manufacturing category recently? Green Globe Foundation award

19. Who have been selected for the Bharat Vikas Rathna award by the All India Business Development Association, New Delhi? C Basavegowda, President, Mysore and Chamarajanagar District Cooperative Central Bank Ltd.

20. Who will be the only Indian driver in the Formula One for 2012 season after signing to continue with Hispania Racing (HRT)?

21. Name the British energy minister who resigned recently.Chris Huhne

22. Name the car launched by Ferrari for 2012 F1 season? F2012 IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness

23. Name the CEO of Micron Technology who died in a plane crash and who has been appointed as CEO? Steve Appleton and Mark Durcan

24. In which country have UN declared end of famine? Somalia

25. Which social networking site turned 8 recently? Facebook

26. Who has been appointed as Executive Director of Corporation Bank? Amar Lal

27. Who won the World Squash Federation under-21 world cup? Egypt against India 2-1

28. Which 3-day youth festival is back after a gap of 7 years in Jaipur? Ghoomar

29. Who won the Champions Trophy women’s hockey tournament for the 5th time? Argentina

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30.Name the Romanian Prime Minister who quit recently. Emil Boc

31. Name the Managing Director and CEO of Dhanlaxmi Bank who quit recently. Amitabh Chaturvedi

32. Name the Mumbai-based historian who passed away recently. Sharada Dwivedi

31. Name the science communicator who passed away recently. R.D.Sharma

32. In which currency is India set to pay for 45% of Iran oil imports? Rupee

33. Name the Maldives President who was appointed after Mohamed Nasheed quit. Mohammad Waheed Hassan

34. Who has been appointed as Chief executive operations for China’s Walmart? Greg Foran

35. Name the novelist whose 200th birthday ceremony was observed led by Prince Charles. Chalres Dickens

36. Which company renewed sponsorship deal with Indian hockey team? Sahara

37. Which singer is launching her own social networking website exclusively for her fans? Lady Gaga

38. Name the book featuring the problems of NRI’s living in Gulf countries released by Mohammed Ali Shabbir and written byMohammed Saifuddin. Expat Ride

39. India-born biologist who bags world’s 1st major international award? Kamal Bawa

40. Which country released world’s highest resolution lunar images taken by its 2nd moon orbiter, Chang’e- 2? China

41. What percentage of the world’s mangrove vegetation doesI ndia account for? 3%

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42. Which place in Tamil Nadu is all set to get 4th Science Park? Coimbatore

43. Name the Indian American orthodontist who was honoured with ‘Hind Rattan Award’. Dr.Gagan Balla

44. What sum of amount is National Housing Bank set to receive from World Bank which would help in its refinancing programme? $300 million(Rs.1,500 crore)

45. Name the newly elected President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)? R.V.Kanoria

46. Which cricket batting legend is been inducted into ICC Hall of Fame? Sunil Gavaskar

47. Name the commission setup in accordance with Section 74 of the Meghalaya Police Act. Police Accountability Commission

48. What sum of amount has Bank of England set to pump into economy? 50 billion pounds

49. Name the electronics retailer bought by Flipkart for $25 million. Letsbuy

50. When is Windows 8 set to be released by Microsoft? February 29th 2012

51. Veteran Bollywood writer-filmmaker who died recently ? O.P. Dutta

52. Which company will stop making digital cameras, pocket video cameras and digital picture frames? Eastman Kodak Co. (Kodak)

53. Name the German’s 1997 Tour de France winner who received 2- year ban for a blood doping offence. Jan Ullrich

54. Who was honoured with Lata Mangehkar award by the Madhya Pradesh government recently? Rajesh Roshan

55. Name the site launched by an Italian computer science professor who hopes it will be a challenge to the US technology giant Google. Volunia

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56. Which bank is set to launch India’s first Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF)? IDBI bank

57. Where is the wax sculpture of Novak Djokovic revealed? Central Serbian town of Jagodina

58. Who has been appointed as non-executive chairman for India operations by Vodafone? Analjit Singh

59. Name the bollywood writer-filmmaker who passed away recently. O.P.Dutta

60. Why zebras have black and white stripes (recently solved mystery)? To keep blood-sucking files away

61. Which economist is named for US Humanities medal? Amartya Sen

62. Who is the first Indian defence minister to visit Saudi Arabia? A.K.Antony

63. Name the former secretary-general of Basketball Federation of India who passed away recently. Harish Sharma

64. Name the US-based pop music queen who died recently. Whitney Houston

65. Who won the women’s doubles event at the Pattaya Open 2012? and Anastasia Rodionova

66. Who has been elected as Deputy Chief of Indian Army? Lt.Gen.Ramesh Halgali

67. Who was honoured with a posthumous Grammy award for his contributions to the music industry in area other than performance? Steve Jobs

68. What percentage is the planned road tax for vehicles across India? 6%

69. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director for India and SAARC operations by McAfee? Jagdish Mahapatra

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70. Who will replace Eric Simons as Indian cricket bowling coach? Australian, Joe Dawes

71. Who took over as president of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India for the year 2012-13? Jaydeep Shah

72. Name the renowned Urdu poet who passed away after battling lung cancer recently. Akhlaq Mohammad Khan

73. Name the Karnataka Higher Education Minister who passed awayin Bangalore recently. V.S.Acharya

74. Who was honoured with Serbia’s highest honour, the Karadjordje Star medal? Novak Djokovic

75. At what value has Bank of Japan set to expand its asset purchase programme? 10tn yen($130 billion)

76. Where in India 9-day 20th World Book Fair is held? New Delhi Read More

77. Where does India’s forex reserves stand for the week ended 17th February 2012? $293.44 billion

78. Name the cricketer who was honoured with lifetime membership of the Sydney Cricket Ground. Sachin Tendulkar

79. Which country has been ranked as the world’s richest country in the list compiled by US magazine Forbes? Qatar

80. Which country did India beat to qualify for London Olympics men’s hockey 2012? France

81. Which west Asian country approved for new constitution recently? Syria

82. Which model of Nokia phone has been built with 41-megapixel sensor camera? Nokia 808 Pureview camera phone

83. Name the chief appointed for Pakistan Air Force. Air Marshal Tahir Rafiq Butt 84. Which company signed a long-term agreement to supply 250 MW power to Bangladesh Power Development Board? NTPC

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IBPS Gramin Bank and IBPS CWE Previous Years and Model Question Papers|IBPS Gramin Bank Latest General Awareness Questions for Preparation Bank based General Awareness| IBPS Bank PO CWE Aptitude, Reasoning. Data Interpretation and Bank based General awareness

85. What value of second bailout pacakge did German parliament pass for Greece to help the country avoid a default? 130 billion euros ($174.4 billion)

86. Name the digital music store launched by flipkart.com. Flyte

87. Where in India was the inaugural World Series Hockey tournament held? Chandigarh

88. Which company bagged Airtel’s network deal for Maharashtra? Nokia Siemens

89. Who has been appointed as chairman of MindTree? Subroto Bagchi

90. Name the online property search portal launched by HDFC in Kolkata HDFC Red

91. Who resigned as PepsiCo India Foods CEO? Varun Berry

IBPS Gramin Bank RRbs complete questions with answers,IBPS Gramin Bank RRBs cwe probabationary officers wirtten test examination questions and answers,IBPS bank po Quantitative Aptitude questions with answers,IBPS Bank Gramin Bank CWE PO Clerical recruitment notification, selection Procedures, Examination Dates, and How to crack Bank examination tips and tricks, Previous years largest collection of questions with answers of IBPS bank po clerical questions with answers,IBPS Bank PO CWE and Clerical Bank based general awareness, computer based questions with answers IBPS Bank PO CWE Clerical probationary officers recruitment aptitude reasoning Data Intrepretation DataSufficiency General Awareness Current affairs 2012 with answers 1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to (1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation -Answer (4) Union (5) Customer

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2. Find the odd one out of the following options (1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece (5) Relation -Answer

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law -Answer (3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit? (1) spoon (2) jug -Answer (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’? (1) 33 (2) 40 -Answer (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code? (1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD (3) JOEPSF -Answer (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? (1) Seeta (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient -Answer (5) None of these

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8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry? (1) Mahesh (2) Kamal -Answer (3) Raman (4) Harry (5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter? (1) Three -Answer (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ? J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five -Answer (5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 -Answer (4) 8 (5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? (1) Two (2) Five -Answer (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? (1) # -Answer (2) 7 (3) U

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(4) 9 (5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) G$M (2) K9Q (3) ?D7 (4) 2MU (5) PCI -Answer

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’? (1) in (2) pe (3) se (4) Data not sufficient -Answer (5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X? (1) Sister (2) Cousin -Answer (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO (5) None of these -Answer

19. If 1 is coded as S, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? (1) ? + % « # S -Answer (2) ? + % S # « (3) ? + « % # S (4) S # « % + ? (5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? (1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

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(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO (5) None of these -Answer

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products. (ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers. (iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. (iv) No girl advertises soap. (v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches? (1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman -Answer (4) Priyanka (5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? (1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap -Answer (5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit? (1) Go -Answer 2) Fun (3) Come (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? (1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches -Answer (3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise? (1) Chocolates

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(2) Watches (3) Computers or watches -Answer (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? (1) 3 ½ hours -Answer (2) 2 ½ hours (3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three -Answer (5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out (1) 2 -Answer (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT -Answer (3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT (5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. (1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these -Answer

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some

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conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.

Conditions: (i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as S. (ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY (1) 1%28 (2) ?732? (3) 17328 (4) ?7328 -Answer (5) None of these

32. GENIR (1) ?173? (2) 6%39 -Answer (3) 6%79 (4) 61739 (5) None of these

33. QUERI (1) 5%93 (2) ?413? (3) ?4139 (4) ?419? -Answer (5) None of these

34. EINUM (1) 1%72 (2) 0%42 (3) 1374? (4) 1%43 (5) None of these -Answer

35. UNGRE (1) S769 S -Answer (2) 4769 S (3) 47691 (4) S7691 (5) None of these

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Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions: I. Some ink are pencils. II. All ink are lead. Answer-1

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions: I. Some ACs are ovens. II. No. AC is oven. Answer-3

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions: I. Some planes are clouds. II. Some clouds are birds. Answer-5

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions: I.. Some sweets are spice. II. No spice is salt. Answer-2

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some plastics are clothes. II. Some plastics are papers. Answer-5 Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are

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sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language? I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’. II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’. Answer-4

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P? I. P is older than M and N but not O. II. L is older than O. Answer-5

43. When is Rahul’s birthday? I. Rahul and Shivani are twins. II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year. Answer-2

44. What is the strength of the class? I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last. II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top. Answer-1

45. How far does Shruti live from the school? I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school. II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house. Answer-3

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order? (1) 359 (2) 972 (3) 526 (4) 487 (5) 251

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Answer-1

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these Answer-4

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers? (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five Answer-3

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number? (1) 251 (2) 359 (3) 487 (4) 526 (5) 972 Answer-3

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest? (1) 972 (2) 526 (3) 487 (4) 251 (5) 359 Answer-5

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier. He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brother-inlaw the courtiers once said, “Your Majesty, why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ? Subjectus to a test to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.” At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier. In pursuit of their prey they mistakenly rode into the neighbouring kingdom. As they were strangers and had weapons they

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were arrested as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.

The courtier was petrified and bowed his head in prayer. The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !” each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour. “Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime Minister bowed respectfully and said, “Sir, our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If you kill us the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.” King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned that the lives of his subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of the two and sent them home. When they heard about the incident the Emperor’s courtiers bowed their heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1.Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ?

(A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice (B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of it (C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor (D) He had more power and prestige and earned more than they did (E) None of these -Answer

2.Why did the Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ?

(A) The Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king (B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom (C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory -Answer (D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them (E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it

3. Why was the Emperor’s brotherin-law not afraid when faced with death ?

1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared. -Answer 2. He was confident that he would be rescued. 3. He had prayed fervently asking God to save them. (A) None (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Both 2 and 3 (E) Only 3

4.Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ?

(A) He reserved important posts for his family members

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(B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister -Answer (C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom (D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw (E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them

5.Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ?

(A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape (B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued (C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in (D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy (E) None of these -Answer

6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?

1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death. 2. Each was volunteering to be killed first. 3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free. (A) Only 1 (B) Both 1 and 2 -Answer (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 (E) None of these

7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ?

(A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack -Answer (B) He had great respect for their courage (C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free (D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers (E) None of these

8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’ request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ? 1. He thought about asking his brother-in-law to resign. 2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime Minister. 3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Both 1 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these -Answer

9.Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?

(A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people

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(B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court (C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery -Answer (D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister (E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker

10.What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe return ?

(A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed (B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him (C) They were upset to hear about his bad experience (D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom -Answer (E) None of these

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11.subject

(A) topic (B) undergo -Answer (C) expose (D) citizen (E) accountable

12.pretext

(A) excuse -Answer (B) guess (C) crime (D) example (E) fraud

13.petrified

(A) panic (B) scared -Answer (C) feared (D) alarming (E) terror

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14.right

(A) immoral

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(B) unsuitable -Answer (C) inaccurate (D) inconvenient (E) error

15.reveal

(A) secret (B) darken (C) disclose (D) hide -Answer (E) invisible

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them.

(A) targeted assignment (B) assigned target -Answer (C) assigning of target (D) target assigned (E) No correction required

17.Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector.

(A) are ensured (B) have to ensure -Answer (C) being ensured (D) should be ensured (E) No correction required

18.The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers.

(A) beneficial -Answer (B) for benefiting to (C) which will benefit (D) benefited to (E) No correction required

19.A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided.

(A) will be yet decided (B) is been decided yet

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(C) have not been still decided (D) is not yet been decided (E) No correction required -Answer

20.With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed.

(A) Owing to the heavy rains -Answer (B) Because of raining heavily (C) Since heavily it rained (D) In raining heavily (E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed inbold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar(B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E) Answer-B

22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it at length. (D) All correct (E) Answer-A

23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A)performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E) Answer-E

24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would havegenerated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E) Answer-d

25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E)

Answer-E Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him. 2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb. 3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items.

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4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius. 5. However he did not invent it overnight. 6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre.

26.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 Answer (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

27.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Answer (E) 6

28.Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 Answer (D) 4 (E) 5

29.Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 Answer

30.Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 Answer (D) 5 (E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or

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idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Senior citizens prefer (A) / banks which (B) /Answer branches are located (C) / near their homes. (D) No error (E) Answer-B 32. In the latest statistics (A) / China supplies more than (B) / ninety per cent of the (C) / steel imported by India. (D) No error (E) Answer-A

33. We shall be calling a meeting (A) / next week to assess (B) / the causes of frequently (C) / delays in infrastructure projects. (D) No error (E) Answer-C

34. Although it has received (A) / clearance from RBI the bank (B) / has decided not to open (C) / their office in Hongkong. (D) No error (E) Answer-D

35. Most of the tribals (A) / in the region (B) / are depended on the forest (C) / to earn their livelihoods. (D) No error (E) Answer-C

36. After graduating from college (A) / having an engineering degree (B) / he received a job offer (C) / from a reputed American firm. (D) No error (E) Answer-B

37. In order for (A) / the scheme to be (B) / successful we require as (C) / much as twenty investors. (D) No error (E) Answer-D

38. The insurance company has plans (A) / to hire 30,000 agents (B) / at a time when (C) / most companies are cutting jobs. (D) No error (E) Answer-D

39. One of the important lesson (A) / he taught me was to save (B) / at least thirty per cent (C) / of my gross income. (D) No error (E) Answer-A

40. Due to the financial crisis (A) / the price of foodgrains (B) / has risen sharply (C) / over the past few months. (D) No error (E) Answer-A

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

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One day an expert in time management was …(41)… to a group of business management students and to drive home a point he used and …(42)… they will never forget. As he stood in front of a group of brilliant students he said, “Okay it’s …(43)… for a quiz.” He then pulled out a one gallon jar and set it on the table in front of him. He also …(44)… a dozen fist sized rocks and carefully placed them one at a time into the jar. When the jar was filled to the top and …(45)… more rocks would fit inside, he asked, “Is the jar full ?” Everyone in the class …(46)… said ‘Yes!’

The professor said nothing. He then …(47)… under the table and pulled out a bucket of gravel. He dumped some gravel into the jar and shook it …(48)… pieces of gravel to work themselves down into the spaces between the big rocks. He asked the group once more, “Is the jar full ?” ‘Probably not.’ some answered. ‘Good !’ he said and began…(49)… sand to the contents in the jar. The sand fitted into the spaces between the rocks and gravel. He also poured water into the jar. “What was the point of this exercise ?” he asked. “The point is that no matter how busy your schedule is you can always manage to fit something in.” replied one student. ‘No’ said the professor, “The truth is if you don’t fit in the rocks which symbolize the …(50)… things in your life like your family and your dreams first, you’ll never have time for them.”

41.(A) addressing (B) conveying (C) speaking Answer (D) discussing (E) expressing

42(A) imagination (B) impression (C) expression (D)emblem (E)illustration

43.(A) ready (B) usual (C) opportunity (D) time (E) scheduled

44.A) made (B) produced (C) dug (D) constructed (E) ploughed

45.(A) any (B) no (C) few (D) some (E) much

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46.(A) definite (B) forcibly (C) convince (D) positive (E) emphatically

47(A) reached (B) hid (C) gone (D) searching (E) found

48.(A) making (B) until (C) causing Answer (D) while (E) resulting

49.(A) filling (B) pushing (C) substituting (D) adding Answer (E) stuffing

50.(A) important Answer (B) necessarily (C) vitally (D) ideal (E) expensive

Agriculture : Solved Paper 1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ? (A) Date-palm-answer (B) Cabbage (C) Orange (D) Grapes (E) Peas

2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ? (A) 500 hrs. (B) 600 hrs. (C) 1000 hrs.answer (D) 1500 hrs. (E) 2000 hrs.

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3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for…… (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Berseem (D) Lucerne (E) Grape-answer

4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is…… (A) 46 (B) 26 (C) 18-answer (D) 80 (E) 30

5. Contract farming consists of…… (A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation (B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company (C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation-answer (D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers (E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce

6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension…… (A) 1/3 atmosphere (B) below 1/3 atmosphere (C) 1-3 atmosphere (D) 3-15 atmosphere (E) above 15 atmosphere-answer

7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured…… (A) cultivation expenses (B) medicinal value of plants (C) availability of processing unit (D) location of the farm (E) availability of assured profitable market-answer

8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of…… (A) Paddy (B) Cashew (C) Coconut-answer (D) Arecanut (E) Coco

9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in…… (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Maize-answer

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(D) Sugarcane (E) Tobacco

10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to…… (A) processing not as per demand (B) breeds are not suitable for export (C) no proper transport conditions (D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases-answer (E) domestic market is available easily

11. Arabica is a type of…… (A) flower-Answer (B) horse (C) coffee (D) vegetable (E) fodder

12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following…… (A) Bacteria (B) Earthworms-Answer (C) Ants (D) Virus (E) Fungus

13. The average carbon / nitrogen ratio of soils is generally…… (A) 25 : 1 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 30 : 1 (D) 14 : 1-Answer (E) None of these

14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ? (A) It saves water-Answer (B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil (C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats (D) Life of drip irrigation is very long (E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system

15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall, the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R, is designated as…… (A) Moist (B) Humid-Answer (C) Moderately Dry (D) Severe Drought (E) Dry

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16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover…… (A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only (B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers (C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers-Answer (D) only horticultural crops (E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system

17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ? (A) Nellore (B) Nilgiri (C) Sonadi (D) Dorset (E) Jaisalmeri-Answer

18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ? (A) Apis mellifera-Answer (B) Apis florea (C) Apis dorsata (D) Apis cerana (E) Apis melipona

19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India ? (A) West Bengal-Answer (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (C) Orissa (D) Kerala (E) None of these

20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005 ? (A) Ricinus communis (B) Solgum vulgare (C) Pennisetum typhoides (D) Arachis hypogaea (E) India has not released any such hybrid so far-Answer

21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in…… (A) Green Box (B) Amber Box (C) Pink Box (D) Blue Box (E) None of these-Answer

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22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ? (A) Aphelenchoides besseyi (B) Pratilenchus thornei (C) Meloidogyne incognita (D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi-Answer (E) None of these

23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture ? (A) Grass Clippings (B) Curd-Answer (C) Carrot tops (D) Lettuce leaves (E) All are useful

24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ? (A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200 (B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400 (C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825 (D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100-Answer (E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850

25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well unctioning incubator on First of January ? (A) February 20 (B) February 5 (C) January 29 (D) January 22-Answer (E) January 15

26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ? (A) Grape (B) Sugar beet (C) Carrot-Answer (D) Cotton (E) None of these

27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India ? (A) Gladiolus (B) Orchids-Answer (C) Bougainvillea (D) Marigold

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(E) None of these

28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ? (A) 180 acres (B) 320 acres (C) 240 acres (D) 160 acres-Answer (E) None of these

29. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be : (A) 50 m-Answer (B) 10 m (C) 20 m (D) 5 m (E) None of these

30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India ? (A) 200 (B) 1200-Answer (C) 100 (D) 400 (E) None of these

31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is…… (A) Pasteurella multocida (B) Brucella melitensis (C) Clorstridium chauvoei (D) Sporoltrix schenkii (E) None of these-Answer

32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ? (A) Virginia Gold (B) Santa Rosa-Answer (C) Grand Duke (D) Beauty (E) None of these

33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop ? (A) 36°C (B) 18°C-Answer (C) 30°C (D) 12°C (E) 27°C

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34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of aemorrhage ? (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B1 (C) Vitamin K-Answer (D) Vitamin D (E) Vitamin B6

35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India ? (A) Tomato (B) Arecanut (C) Cashewnut (D) Coconut (E) All above horticultural crops-Answer

36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation ? (A) Pennisetum polystachyon-Answer (B) Cenchurus setigerus (C) Eulalioposis binata (D) Lasiurus sindicus (E) Penicum antidotale

37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past ? (A) Gir (B) Kankrej-Answer (C) Tharparkar (D) Nagauri (E) None of these

38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptomof…… (A) Lactation failure (B) Poor reproduction (C) Birth of dead or weak piglets (D) Birth of hairless piglets-Answer (E) Birth of blind piglets

39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list ? (A) Andhra Pradesh-Answer (B) Assam (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Mizoram

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(E) Rajasthan 40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ? (A) Soybean (B) Corn-Answer (C) Cowpea (D) Canola (E) None of these

41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year) (A) June 12 (B) July 29 (C) August 28-Answer (D) September 15 (E) May 30

42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ? (A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg (B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg (C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg (D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg-Answer (E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg

43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ? (A) Sphacelotheca reiliana (B) Claviceps microcephala (C) Leveillula taurica-Answer (D) Puccinia carthami (E) Fusarium annuum

44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ? (A) Japan (B) Italy (C) Netherlands (D) UAE (E) USA-Answer

45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ? (A) 3•2 kg (B) 1•8 kg-Answer (C) 2•4 kg

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(D) 4•0 kg (E) 0•9 kg

46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of : (A) Ca-Answer (B) Fe (C) Vit. ‘D’ (D) N (E) None of these

47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list ? (A) Coconut (B) Neem-Answer (C) Palm nut (D) Mahua (E) Karanj

48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes) ? (A) 230•67-Answer (B) 207•00 (C) 217•85 (D) 200•00 (E) None of these

49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ? (A) Hay prepared from forest grasses (B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare (C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare (D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus-Answer (E) None of these

50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ? (A) NABARD (Direct credit) (B) Commercial Banks (C) Cooperative Banks (D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks-Answer

Computer Questions for Bank Exams 1. RAM stands for : (A) Read Access Memory (B) Random Access Memory (C) Random Assigned Memory

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(D) All of these (E) None of these

2. Data in RAM are : (A) Volatile in nature (B) Non-volatile in nature (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) All of these (E) None of these

3. BIOS stands for : (A) Basic Input Output System (B) Basic Instruction Output System (C) Basic Interface Output System (D) All of these (E) None of these

4. RAM in its commercial forms are available as : (A) SIMM (B) DIMM (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) CPSB (E) None of these

5. Which of the following requires refreshing during retaining the data? (A) DRAM (B) SRAM (C) Virtual Memory (D) FDD (E) None of these

6. Refresh Rate of monitor is measured in : (A) Hz (B) Meter (C) Volts (D) Amp. (E) None of these

7. Which of the following meaning is used between CPU & RAM to speed up the processing power of a CPU? (A) Virtual Memory (B) DRAM (C) Flash Memory (D) Cache Memory (E) None of these

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8. Which of the following is lowest in memory hierarchy? (A) Cache memory (B) Secondary memory (C) Registers (D) RAM (E) None of these

9. Which of the following is an input device? (A) Keyboard (B) VDU (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Dvu (E) None of these

10. CRT stands for : (A) Character Ray Tube (B) Cathode Ray Tube (C) Colour Ray Tube (D) All of the above (E) None of these

11. Which of the following is a GUI device : (A) Keyboard (B) Mouse (C) OMR (D) All of these (E) None of these

12. LCD stands for : (A) Liquid Crystal Display (B) Laser Crystal Display (C) Light Crystal Display (D) All of these (E) None of these

13. Such types of printers, in which the printing head contacts with the paper in printing process, are called as : (A) Impact Printer (B) Non-Impact Printer (C) Laser Printer (D) All of these (E) None of these

14. Which of the following is a type of optical media? (A) FDD (B) HDD

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(C) CD (D) Magnetic Tape (E) None of these

15. DVD stands for : (A) Digital Video Disk (B) Digital Versatile Disk (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) All of these (E) None of these

16. Which of the following is an input device? (A) VDU (B) Printer (C) Plotter (D) MICR (E) None of these

17. Identify the odd one : (A) Storage tape memory (B) Magnetic disc memory (C) Optical disc memory (D) Read only memory (E) None of these

18. Nibble describes a bits combination of : (A) 5 bits (B) 6 bits (C) 7 bits (D) 4 bits (E) None of these

19. A Byte constitutes of : (A) 9 bits (B) 8 bits (C) 7 bits (D) 4 bits (E) None of these

20. Memory in a PC is addressable through : (A) Bits (B) Byte (C) Nibble (D) All of these (E) None of these

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21. One Kilo Byte represents : (A) 1024 bytes (B) 1000 bytes (C) 100 bytes (D) 1064 bytes (E) None of these

22. Basic building block for a digital circuit is : (A) Word (B) Logic Gate (C) Processor (D) BUS (E) None of these

23. Which of the following is a logic gate? (A) AND (B) OR (C) CPU (D) Both (A) & (B) (E) None of these

24. The base of binary number is : (A) 2 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 10 (E) None of these

25. ASCII stands for : (A) American Standard Code for Institute Interchange (B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (C) American Standard Code for Information Institute (D) All of these (E) None of these

Answers: 1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B)

1. Who is called as ‘‘Father of Computers’’? (A) Charles Babage (B) Blaise Pascal (C) Hollirth (D) All of these

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(E) None of these

2. The first Digital Computer introduced, was named as : (A) Univac (B) Mark-I (C) Eniac (D) All of these (E) None of these

3. How many generations, computer can be classified? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 6 (E) None of these

4. First Generation Computers contain : (A) Transistors (B) Vacume Tubes (C) LSI (D) VLSI (E) None of these

5. II Generation Computers are made of : (A) Vaccume Tubes (B) Transistors (C) LSI (D) VLSI (E) None of these

6. IV Generation Computers contain : (A) LSI (B) Vaccume Tubes (C) All Technology (D) Transistors (E) None of these

7. Vth Generation Computers are based on: (A) Artificial Intelligence (B) Programming Intelligence (C) System Knowledge (D) All of these (E) None of these

8. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called : (A) Analog

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(B) Digital (C) Hybrid (D) All of these (E) None of these

9. In world today, most of the computers are : (A) Digital (B) Hybrid (C) Analog (D) Complex (E) None of these

10. In any computer installation, how many elements consists? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1 (E) None of these

11. Physical structure of computer is called : (A) Software (B) Hardware (C) Humanware (D) All of these (E) None of these

12. A computer can perform, which of the following tasks? (A) Computation (B) Communication (C) Processing (D) All of these (E) None of these

13. CPU stands for : (A) Computer Processing Unit (B) Central Processing Unit (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Communication Processing Unit (E) None of these

14. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals? (A) Analog computer (B) Digital computer (C) both (D) Digilog Computer (E) None of these

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15. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now? (A) Mainframe (B) Microcomputer (C) Minicomputer (D) Both (B) & (C) (E) None of these

16. PARAM is an example of : (A) Super computer (B) PC (C) Laptop (D) PDA (E) None of these

17. Who developed the ‘analytical engine’? (A) Jacquard loom (B) Charles Babbage (C) Shannon (D) IBM (E) None of these

18. ENIAC stands for : (A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator (B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer (C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator (D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator (E) None of these

19. First Generation of computer was based on which technology? (A) Transistor (B) Vacuum Tube (C) LSI (D) VLSI (E) None of these

20. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer? (A) Second Generation (B) Fourth Generation (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Third Generation (E) All of the above

21. GUI stands for : (A) Graphical User Interface (B) Graph Use Interface (C) Graphical Universal Interface

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(D) None of these

22. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to be executed is called as : (A) Instruction cycle (B) Fetch cycle (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) All of these (E) None of these

23. Which of the following is responsible for all types of calculations? (A) ALU (B) Control Unit (C) Registers (D) BUS (E) None of these

24. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but : (A) A set of registers-Answer (B) A set of ALU (C) Microprocessor (D) BUS (E) None of these

25. Which of the following is permanent memory? (A) SRAM (B) DRAM (C) ROM-Answer (D) All of these (E) None of these

IBPS RRBs graming bank current affairs questions with answers,IBPS RRBS Gramin Bank and IBPS PO CWE SBT and SBI and RRB solved aptitude, reasoning, Data interpretation, current national and international questions with answers,All Bank PSU IT and Non IT companies free solved placement papers

1. India was recently elected into United Nations Joint Inspection Unit (JIU) after defeating? China-Ans USA Russia Brazil

2. NATGRID Stands For: National Incumbent Grid National Intelligence Grid-Ans

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Narcotics Incumbent Grid Narcotics Intelligence Grid

3. The Governments of Four Indian States (Jharkhand, MIzoram, Sikkim and Lakshwadeep) recently signed an MOU with Statistical Ministry for ISSP, it stands for - Indian Statistical Strengthening Project-Ans Indian Statistical Stability Project Indian Substantial Stability Project Indian Substantial Strengthening Project

4. Union Cabinet recently cleared Whistleblowers' Bill 2011, which is meant to. Provide protection to persons reporting misconduct by a government servant.-Ans Initiate Action Against a Judge Make Authorities more accountable to public None of These

5. At what price the wheat will be provided to BPL (Below Poverty Line) Category by government under recently passed National food security bill prepared by Harsh Munder - 3 Rs./kg 2 Rs./kg-Ans 1 Rs./kg 4 Rs./kg

6. NCHER Bill for Higher (University) education was recently tabled into Rajya Sabha. This regulatory body will scrap currently existing UGC and AICTE bodies and Stands for - National Committee for Higher Education and Research National Commission for Higher Education and Research-Ans National Commission of Higher Education and Research National Committee of Higher Education and Research

7. Union Government recently approved operation of Social security fund which is meant for the benefit of ? Unorganized Sector Workers-Ans Civil Servants Private Companies Workforce Middle Income Families

8. Which Political Party won the recent MCD Elections after its Trifurcation? Congress BJP-Ans Bahujan Samaj Party Akali Dal

9. HRD Ministry recently launched a web portal for NSIGSE, a scheme meant to aid girls for their studies.

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In this scheme, I Stands for -

Information Incentive-Ans Inhibition Intelligence

10. Who is current Union Urban Development Minister ? Kamal Nath-Ans Jairam Ramesh Ajeet Seth P Chidambaram

11. Urban Development Ministry recently Launched NCMC Card to provide better Travel experience to the people. The card is also known as - Aadhaar Card MORE-Ans PAN Card Voter ID Card

12 Integrated Skill Development scheme is meant for training rural youth for - Textile and Apparel sector-Ans Basic Computer Trainings Telecom Sector Agriculture Sector

13. Mamoni Scheme meant for reducing Maternal Mortality ratio is implemented in the state of - Madhya Pradesh Assam-Ans Uttar Pradesh Himachal Pradesh

14. CAG of India is recently appointed as External auditor of IAEA and WIPO. 'C' in the Name Stands for - Controller Comptroller-Ans Commissioner Cashier

15. Who is currently the CAG of India ? Hari Narayan Vinod Rai-Ans S Y Quraishi Montek Singh Ahluwalia

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16. Kundankulam Nuclear Power Plant is being built in collaboration with which Country? Australia-Ans Russia USA france

17. Australia recently lifted ban on export of which of following Nuclear raw materials to India? Uranium-Ans Plutonium Thorium Aluminium

18. Dam 999 is a Banned film based on a Controversial Dam causing long lasting conflict between states of Kerala and Tamilnadu. That Dam is - Idamalayar Dam Mangalam Dam Aathupalayam Dam Mullaperiyar Dam-Ans

19. India was granted a Clean Waiver by NSG Members for implementation of Indo-US Nuclear Deal. 'S' in the name stands for - Supporters Suppliers-Ans Sanctioning Seizing

20. Which is the first Indian State to implement the Public service guarantee Act- Rajasthan-Ans Uttarakhand Uttar Pradesh Punjab

21 Government recently signed a tripartite peace agreement with UPDS, a prominent insurgent group in Assam. 'S' in the name stands for - Development Democratic-Ans Demolishing Dictators

22. Who is currently the Chairman of Planning Commission of India? S Y Quarishi M S Ahluwalia-Ans Hari Narayan C Rangrajan

23 Which is the first State/UT in the Country to issue E-Stamp Papers in all Denominations?

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Rajasthan Uttar Pradesh Delhi-Ans Uttarakhand

24 What is new time period of Advance booking of reservation tickets as proposed by railway ministry recently ? -

60 Days 90 Days 120 Days-Ans 150 Days

25. Aadhaar is an ambitious project under supervision of Nandan Nilekani and implemented by UIDAI, It stands for - User Identification Agency of India Unique Identification Authority of India-Ans User Identification Authority of India Unique Identification Agency of India

26. NDSAP is a recently approved policy to facilitate access to central government owned shareable information. It Stands For - National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy-Ans National Data Secrecy and Applicability Policy National Data Sharing and Applicability Policy National Data Secrecy and Accessibility Policy

27 World Bank recently approved a Billion dollar loan to clean which of the following Indian Rivers- Ganga-Ans Yamuna Narmada Godavari

28. Which Indian state recently passed set up an 'Agriculture Cabinet' and passed a policy to make itself an organic state- Madhya Pradesh-Ans Assam Uttar Pradesh Himachal Pradesh

29. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is meant to provide health insurance cover to which of the following - Pregnant Women BPL Families in unorganized sector-Ans Civil Servants

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Farmers

30. Recently Formed SIT (Special Investigation Team) on Black Money is headed by - B P Jeevan Reddy-Ans Vinod Rai S Y Quraishi U K Sinha

31. Which Indian State has the lowest CSR (Child Sex Ratio) in both Urban and Rural scenario according to a recently issued report? Himachal Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Bihar Haryana -Ans

32. Which Indian State recently offered Government jobs to Farmers whose lands were occupied for Rajiv gandhi Thermal Power Plant? Uttar Pradesh Haryana-Ans Himachal Pradesh Arunachal Pradesh

33. To what percent India recently increased its quota in IMF (International Monetary Fund) ? 3.00 % 2.75 %-Ans 4.00 % 2.50 %

34. Which Indian State recently became first to provide a guarantee of urban property titles to its residents ? Tamilnadu Kerala Karnataka-Ans Madhya Pradesh

35. How was India ranked for its Innovativeness according to recent Annual Global Innovation Barometer ? Third Fourth Sixth-Ans Second

36. Which two government schemes were recently converged to create for durability and effectiveness for the purpose - NRHM and MPLADS

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MPLADS and MGNREGA-Ans MGNREGA and NRHM RSBY and MGNREGA

37. Which Indian State recently received a Loan of $109 Million for its Agricultural Competitiveness Project ? Haryana Uttar Pradesh Rajasthan-Ans Himachal Pradesh

38. Which Train follows the longest route joining Dibrugarh Town (Assam) with Kanyakumari ? Bhagirathi Express Duranto Express -Ans Sampark Kranti

39. Who is The newly appointed USA Ambassador to India? Nancy Powell-Ans Albert Peter Burleigh condoleezza rice Jerome Bonnafont

40. The world Bank recently approved a $200 Million Loan to which Indian State in order to help it become India's first Carbon Neutral State- Haryana Arunachal Pradesh Assam Himachal Pradesh-Ans

41. Who is the Current Union Rural Development Minister? Kapil Sibal Jairam Ramesh-Ans Kamal Nath Anand Sharma

42 Which State recently Engaged DMRC for a 560 - KM Bullet Train project in its territory? Arunachal Pradesh Karnataka Kerala-Ans Tamilnadu

43. Which Indian state is said to have best literacy rate (About 94 % Literacy) ? Tamilnadu Kerala-Ans

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Karnataka Goa

44. Which Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) leader recently Joined Union Ministers' Cabinet as Civil Aviation Minister - Ajit Singh-Ans Jayant Chaudhary Sanjay Singh Chauhan Sarika Singh

45. Who is the Current Indian Foreign Secretary ? A K Seth Ranjan Mathai-Ans U K Sinha M S Ahluwalia

46. Whois the newly appointed Chief election commissioner of India ? S Y Quereshi V S Sampath-Ans Montek Singh Ahluwalia Hamid Ansari

47 Who is the newly appointed chief of Indian Navy ? D K Joshi-Ans Bikram Singh V K Singh P V Naik

48 Which country has recently appointed Mr. Michael Steiner as its ambassdor to India ? Germany-Ans USA France Spain

49. Who is the newly elected Home Minister of India ? Mukul Roy Shinde-Ans P Chidambaram Sharad Pawar

50. Mohammed Waheed, who recently visited India is the newly elected president of which country ? Maldives-Ans Iran Syria Libya

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51. Which Indian State wil host world economic summit on India in November 2012 ? Haryana-Ans Himachal Pradesh Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh

52. India recently conducted its first naval exercise with Japan callled - Sahyog Kaijin-Ans Jimex 12 Slinex 12 Operation Shoorveer

53. The Indian Born person that is recently appointed as president of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD)? Suma Chakrabarti-Ans Pranab Mukherjee Sudarshan Patnaik P Chidambaram

54. The Indian person appointed as executive director in world bank is - Suma Chakrabarti Arvind Virmani-Ans Ashok Kumar Lahiri Pranab Mukherjee

55. After a recent cabinet reshuffle followed by President Pranab Mukherjee's resignation, Finance minsitry is given to P Chidambaram and Veerappa Molly has been given the ministry of - Railways Corporate Affairs and Power-Ans Home Ministry Defence

56 Which Indian State has the lowest CSR (Child Sex Ratio) in both Urban and Rural scenario according to a recently issued report? Himachal Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Bihar Haryana-Ans

57. Which Indian State recently offered Government jobs to Farmers whose lands were occupied for Rajiv gandhi Thermal Power Plant? Uttar Pradesh Haryana-Ans Himachal Pradesh Arunachal Pradesh

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58. To what percent India recently increased its quota in IMF (International Monetary Fund) ? 3.00 % 2.75 %-Ans 4.00 % 2.50 %

59. Which Indian State recently became first to provide a guarantee of urban property titles to its residents ? Tamilnadu Kerala Karnataka-Ans Madhya Pradesh

60. How was India ranked for its Innovativeness according to recent Annual Global Innovation Barometer ? Third Fourth Sixth-Ans Second

61. Which two government schemes were recently converged to create for durability and effectiveness for the purpose - NRHM and MPLADS MPLADS and MGNREGA-Ans MGNREGA and NRHM RSBY and MGNREGA

62. Which Indian State recently received a Loan of $109 Million for its Agricultural Competitiveness Project ? Haryana Uttar Pradesh Rajasthan-Ans Himachal Pradesh

63. Which Train follows the longest Indian Railways route joining Dibrugarh Town (Assam) with Kanyakumari ? Bhagirathi Express Duranto Express Vivek Express-Ans Sampark Kranti

64. Who is The newly appointed USA Ambassador to India? Nancy Powell-Ans Albert Peter Burleigh condoleezza rice Jerome Bonnafont

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65. The world Bank recently approved a $200 Million Loan to which Indian State in order to help it become India's first Carbon Neutral State- Haryana Arunachal Pradesh Assam Himachal Pradesh-Ans

66. Who is the Current Union Rural Development Minister? Kapil Sibal Jairam Ramesh-Ans Kamal Nath Anand Sharma

67 Which State recently Engaged DMRC for a 560 - KM Bullet Train project in its territory? Arunachal Pradesh Karnataka Kerala-Ans Tamilnadu

68. Which Indian state is said to have best literacy rate (About 94 % Literacy) ? Tamilnadu Kerala-Ans Karnataka Goa

69. Which Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) leader recently Joined Union Ministers' Cabinet as Civil Aviation Minister - Ajit Singh-Ans Jayant Chaudhary Sanjay Singh Chauhan Sarika Singh

70. Who is the Current Indian Foreign Secretary ? A K Seth Ranjan Mathai-Ans U K Sinha M S Ahluwalia

Arithmetical Ability 1. The product of 2 numbers is 1575 and their quotient is 9/7. Then the sum of the numbers is – a. 74 b. 78 c. 80 d. 90

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Ans : Let the numbers be x and y .

∴ xy = 1575

And x/y = 9/7

∴ xy/x/y = 1575/9/7

∴ y2 = 1225

∴ y = 35 and x = 45

∴ The sum of the numbers = 45+35

= 80

2. The value of (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/ (81)4.2 * (3) is __ a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 8.2

Ans : (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/(81)4.2 * (3) = (3)14.4 * (3)5.4/(3)16.8 * (3) = 314.4+5.4-16.8-1 = 32 = 9

3. √6+√6+√6+… is equal to –

a. 2 b. 5 c. 4

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d. 3

Ans : Let √6+√6+√6+…. be x.

∴ x =√6+x

∴ x2 = 6+x

∴ x2 + x – 6 = 0

∴ (x-3) (x+2) = 0

∴ x = 3

4. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is –

a. 24 b. 32 c. 40 d. 28

Ans : Let the consecutive odd numbers be x and (x+2)

∵ x2 + (x + 2)2 = 394

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∴ x2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 394

∴ 2 x2 +4x – 390 = 0

∴ x2 + 2x – 195 = 0

∴ (x +15) (x-13) = 0

∴ x = 13

∴ Required sum = 13 +15 =28

5. When (6767 +67) is divided by 68, the remainder is-

a. 1 b. 63 c. 66 d. 67

Ans: (6767+ 67) = 67(6766 + 166) As 66 is an even number

∴ 6766 is an even number

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∴ (6766 + 1) is perfectly divisible by (67 + 1)

i.e. 68

∴ The remainder = 67

6. In a division sum, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and twice the remainder. If a and b are respectively the divisor and the dividend then-

a. 4b-a2 /a =3 b. 4b-2a /a2 =2 c. (a+1)2 = 4b d. A(a+2)/b = 4

Ans : As divisor is a, and dividend is b.

∴ Quotient = a/4

And Remainder = a/2

∴ b = a * a/4 + a/2

∴ 4b = a2 + 2a

∴ a(a+2)/b = 4

7. If 738 A6A is divisible by 11, then the value of A is-

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a. 6 b. 3 c. 9 d. 1 Ans : As 738A6 A is divisible by 11.

∴ A + A + 3 = 6 + 8 + 7

∴ A = 9

8. The east positive integer that should be subtracted from 3011 * 3012 so that the difference is perfect square is-

a. 3009 b. 3010 c. 3011 d. 3012

Ans : ∵ 3011 * 3012 = 3011 (3011 + 1)

= (3011)2 + 3011

∴ Required least number = 3011

9. P, Q, R are employed to do a work for Rs. 5750. P and Q together finished 19/23 of work and Q and R together finished 8/23 of work. Wage of Q, in rupees, is-

a. 2850 b. 3750 c. 2750 d. 1000 Ans : Work done by Q = 19/23 + 8/23 – 1 4/23

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∴ Wage of Q = 4/23 * 5750

= Rs. 1000

10. A can do a piece of work in 24 day, B in 32 days and C in 64 days. All begin to do it together, but A leaves after 6 days and B leaves 6 days before the completion of the work. How many days did the work last?

a. 15 b. 20 c. 18 d. 30

Ans : Work done by A = 6/24 = ¼

Work done by B = (x-6)/32 (where x is no. of days in which work is competed)

∵ ¼ + x – 6/32 + x/64 = 1

∴ 16 + 24 – 12 + x /64 = 1

∴ 3x + 4 = 64

∴ x = 60/3 = 20 days

11. The square root of (0.75)3 /1-0.75 + [0.75 + 90.75)2 +1] is-

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a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Ans : The square root of [(0.75)3/1 – 0.75 + {0.75 + (0.75)2 + 1}] = √1.6875 + 2.3125 =√4 = 2

12. Given that √4096 = 64, the value of √4096 + √40.96 +√0.004096 is-

a. 70.4 b. 70.464 c. 71.104 d. 71.4

Ans : Given Exp. = √4096 + √40.96 +√0.004096 = 64 + 6.4 + 0.064 = 70.464

13. By selling an article at 3/4th of the marked price, there is a gain of 25%. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price is-

a. 5 : 3 b. 3 : 5 c. 3 : 4 d. 4 : 3

Ans : Let of M.P. be Rs. x.

∴ S.P. = Rs.3x/4

and C.P. = 3x/4 * 100/125 = Rs.3x/5

∴ required ratio = x: 3x/5

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= 5:3

14. A and B earn in the ratio 2:1. They spend in the ratio 5:3 and save in the ratio 4:1. If the total monthly savings of both A and B are Rs.5,000, the monthly income of B is-

a. Rs.7,000 b. Rs.14,000 c. Rs.5,000 d. Rs.10,000

Ans : Let the monthly income of B be Rs. x.

∴ Monthly income of A = Rs. 2x and

Saving of A =5000 * 4/(4 + 1) = Rs. 4000 Saving of B = Rs.1000

∵ 2x – 4000/x-1000 = 5/3

⇒ 6x – 12000 = 5x – 5000

∴ x = Rs.7000

15. The ratio of the sum of two numbers and their difference is 5:1. The ratio of the greater number to the smaller number is-

a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 5 : 1 d. 1 : 5

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Ans : Let the numbers be x and y.

∵ x + y/ x – y = 5/1

⇒ 5x – 5y = x + y

⇒ 4x = 6y

⇒ x/y = 6/4

x : y = 3 : 2

16. A cistern has 3 pipes A, B and C. A and B can fill it in 3 and 4 hours respectively, and C can empty it in 1 hour. If the pipes are opened at 3 p.m., 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. respectively on the same day, the cistern will be empty at- a. 7.12 p.m. b. 7.15 p.m. c. 7.10 p.m. d. 7.18 p.m.

Ans : Let the cistern be emptied at x p.m.

∵ x -3/3 + x – 4/4 = x - 5/1

⇒ 4x – 12 + 3x – 12/12 = x – 5/1

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⇒ 7x – 24 = 12x – 60

⇒ 5x = 36

∴ x = 36/5

= 7 hr. + 12 min. = 7.12 p.m.

17. If A works alone, he would take 4 days more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he would take 16 days more to complete the job than if A and B work together. How many days would they take to complete the work if both of them worked together?

a. 10 days b. 12 days c. 6 days d. 8 days

Let x days are taken when they work together.

∴ Time taken by A to complete the work = (x + 4) days

And Time taken by B to complete the work = (x + 16) days

∵ 1/x = 1/x + 4 + 1/x + 16

∴ 1/x = x + 16 + x + 4/(x + 4) (x +16)

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∴ 2x2 + 20x = x2 + 20x +64

∴ x2 = 64 (8)2

∴ x = 8 days

18. 250 men can finish a work in 20 days working 5 hours a day. To finish the work within 10 days working 8 hours a day, the minimum number of men required is-

a. 310 b. 300 c. 313 d. 312

Ans : Required no. of men = 250 * 5 * 20/8 * 10 =312.5 313

19. 2 men and 5 women can do a work in 12 days. 5 men 2 women can do that work in 9 days. Only 3 women can finish the same work in-

a. 36 days b. 21 days c. 30 days d. 42 days

∵ (2m + 5w) * 12 = (5m + 2w) * 9

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⇒ 24m + 60w = 45m + 18w

⇒ 21m = 42w

⇒ 1m = 2w

∴ 2m + 5w = 9w

∴ required no. of days = 9 * 12/3

= 36

20. While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit per cent will be –

a. 10% b. 20% c. 16 2/3% d. 16 1/3%

Ans : Let the M.P. be Rs.100.

∴ S.P = (100-40) = Rs.60

and C. P. = 60 * 100/(100-30) = Rs.600/7

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∴ Reqd. % profit = 100-600/7 /600/7 * 100%

= (700 – 600)/7 * 600 * 100 * 7% = 16 2/3%

21. Successive discount of 10% , 20% and 50% will be equivalent to a single discount of-

a. 36% b. 64% c. 80% d. 56%

Ans : Equivalent to a single discount = [100 - (100 – 10) (100 – 20) (100 – 50)/100*100]% = [100 - 90*80*50/10000]% = [100-36]% = 64%

22. A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article-

I. Two successive discounts of 10% II. A discount of 12% followed by a discount of 8%. III. Successive discounts of 15% and 5% IV. A discount of 20%

The selling price will be minimum under the scheme-

a. I b. II c. III d. IV

Ans : From (i) single discount = [10 + 10 – 10*10/100] % = 19% From (ii) single discount = [12 + 8 -12*8/100] % = 19.04% From (iii) single discount = [15 + 5 – 15*5/100] % = 19.25% From (iv) single discount = 20%

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∴ The S.P. will be minimum under the scheme IV.

23. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is –

a. 72 b. 216 c. 354 d. 726

Ans : Let the first number be x.

∴ Second number = 3x and Third number = 3x/4

∵ x + 3x + 3x/4 = 3*114

⇒ 19x/4 = 342

∴ x = 342*4/19 = 72

∴ The largest number = 3*72

= 216

24. A car covers 1/5 of the distance from A to B at the speed of 8 km/hour, 1/10 of the distance at 25 km per hour and the remaining at the speed of 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of the whole journey-

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a. 12.625 km/hr b. 13.625 km/hr c. 14.625 km/hr d. 15.625 km/hr

Ans : If the whole journey be x km. The total time taken = (x/5/8 + x/10/25 + 7x/10/20) hrs = (x/40 + x/250 + 7x/200) hrs = 25x + 4x + 35x/1000 = 64x/1000 hrs

∴ Average speed = x/64x/1000

= 15.625 km/hr

25. The average of 3 numbers is 154. The first number is twice the second and the second number is twice the third. The first number is-

a. 264 b. 132 c. 88 d. 66

Ans : Let the first number be x.

∴ Second number = x/2 and Third number = x/4

∵ x + x/2 + x/4 = 3 x 154

⇒ 7x/4 = 462

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∴ x = 462*4/7

=264

26. The average salary of all the staff in an office of a corporate house is Rs. 5,000. The average salary of the officers is Rs. 14,000 and that of the rest is Rs. 4,000. If the total number of staff is 500, the number of officers is –

a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50

Ans : Let the number of officers be x.

∵ 5000*500 = 14000x + 4000(500-x)

∴ 2500000 =14000x + 2000000 – 4000x

∴ x = 500000/10000

= 50

27. The average marks of 40 students in an English exam are 72. Later it is found that three marks 64, 62 and 84 were wrongly entered as 60, 65 and 73. The average after mistakes were rectified is-

a. 70 b. 72 c. 71.9 d. 72.1

Ans : Correct average = 40*72 + (64 + 62 +84) – 68 – 65 – 73/40

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= 2880 + 210 – 206/40 = 2884/40 = 72.1

28. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7:2 and 7:11 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be-

a. 5 : 7 b. 5 : 9 c. 7 : 5 d. 9 : 5

Ans : Quantity of gold in A = 7/9* wt. of A Quantity of gold in B = 7/18* wt. of B If 1 kg of each A and B are mixed to form third alloys C. Then quantity of gold in 2 kg C = 7/9 + 7/18 = 7/6 kg And Quantity of copper in 2 kg C = 2 – 7/6 = 5/6 kg

∴ Required ratio = 7/6 : 5/6 = 7 : 5

29. In a laboratory, two bottles contain mixture of acid and water in the ratio 2 : 5 in the first bottle and 7 : 3 in the second. The ratio in which the contents of these two bottles be mixed such that the new mixture has acid and water in the ratio 2 : 3 is-

a. 4 : 15 b. 9 : 8 c. 21 : 8 d. 1 : 2

Ans : Quantity of acid in first bottle = 2/7 x mix. and Quantity of acid in second bottle = 7/10 x mix. If x and 1 volumes are taken from I and II bottle respectively to form new mixture. Then, (2/7 x + 7/10 * 1)/(5x/7 +3/10 * 1) = 2/3

⇒ 6x/7 21/10 = 10x/7 +6/10

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⇒ 4x/7 = 15/10

∴ x = 15/10*7/4 = 21/8

∴ Required ratio = x : 1

= 21 : 8

30. A mixture contains 80% acid and rest water. Part of the mixture that should be removed and replaced by same amount of water to make the ratio of acid and water 4 : 3 is-

a. 1/3 rd b. 3/7 th c. 2/3 rd d. 2/7 th

Ans : Let the initial wt. of mixture be 1 kg and x kg of mixture is taken out and replaced by same amount of water.

∵ Amt. of acid/Amt. of water = 0.8 – 0.8x/ (0.2 – 0.2x + x) = 4/3

⇒ 2.4 – 2.4x = 0.8 + 3.2x

⇒ 5.6x = 1.6

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∴ x = 1.6/5.6 = 2/7th part

31. An employer reduces the number of his employees in the ratio 9 : 8 and increases their wages in the ratio 14 : 15. If the original wage bill was Rs. 189,900, find the ratio in which the wage bill is decreased-

a. 20 : 21 b. 21 : 20 c. 20 : 19 d. 19 : 21

Ans : Let the initial number of employees be 9x and the employer gives Rs. 14y as wage to each.

∵ 9x * 14y =18900

∴ xy = 150 and The later bill = 8x*15y = 120xy

= 120*150 = 18000

∴ Required ratio = 18000 : 18900

= 20 : 21

32. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricketer is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is-

a. 165 b. 170 c. 172 d. 174

Ans : Let the max. number of runs be x.

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∴ The lowest score = (x-172)

∵ 40*50 = 38*48 + x + (x-172)

⇒ 2000 = 1824 + 2x – 172

∴ x= 174

33. Walking at 3 km per hour, Pintu reaches his school 5 minutes late. If he walks at 4 km per hour he will be 5 minutes early. The distance of Pintu’s school from his house is-

a. 1 ½ Km b. 2 Km c. 2 ½ Km d. 5 Km

Ans : Distance of the school from the house = 4*3/(4 – 3) * 5 +5/60 km = 12*1/6 =2 km

34. Nitin bought some oranges at Rs. 40 a dozen and an equal number at Rs.30 a dozen. He sold them at Rs. 45 a dozen and made a profit of Rs.480. The number of oranges, he bought, was-

a. 48 dozen b. 60 dozen c. 72 dozen d. 84 dozen

Ans : Let the number of oranges bought be x.

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∴ 45x/12 – 70x/24 = 480

⇒ (45-35)/12 = 480

⇒ x = 480*12/10 = 576

= 48*12 = 48 dozen

35. A man buys two chairs for a total cost of Rs.900. By selling one for 4/5 of its cost and the other for 5/4 of its cost, he makes a profit of Rs.90 on the whole transaction. The cost of the lower priced chair is-

a. Rs.360 b. Rs.400 c. Rs.420 d. Rs.300 Ans : Let the cost price of 1 chair be Rs. x.

∴ C.P. of other chair = Rs. (900-x)

∵ 4/5 x + 5/4 (900-x) = 900 + 90

⇒ 4/5 x +1125 -5x/4 = 990

∴ 9x/20 = 135

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∴ x = 135*20/9

= Rs. 300

∴ C.P. of the lower priced chair is Rs. 300.

36. By selling 100 oranges, a vendor gains the selling price of 20 oranges. His gain per cent is-

a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 32

Ans : Let the S.P. of 100 Oranges be Rs. x.

∴ S.P. of 20 oranges = x/100 *20 = Rs. x/5

∴C.P. of 100 oranges = x - x/5

= Rs. 4x/5

∴ Reqd. Profit % = x/5 * 100*5/4x %

= 25%

37. 60% of the cost price of an article is equal to 50% of its selling price. Then the percentage of profit or loss on the cost price is-

a. 20% loss b. 16 2/3% profit c. 20% profit d. 10% loss

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Ans : Let the cost price be Rs. 100.

∵ S.P * 50/100 = 100*16/100

∴ S.P = 60*100/50

= Rs. 120

∴ Reqd. % profit = (120 – 100)% = 20%

38. Maninder bought two horses at Rs.40,000 each. He sold one horse at 15% gain, but had to sell the second horse at a loss. If he hand suffered a loss of Rs.3,600 on the whole transaction, then the selling price of the second horse is-

a. Rs.30,000 b. Rs.30,200 c. Rs.30,300 d. Rs.30,400

Ans: C.P. of two horses = 2*40000 = Rs. 80000 and S.P. of two horse = 80000 – 3600 = Rs. 76400

∴ S.P. of the other horse = 76400 – 46000 = 30400

39. A fruit-seller buys x guavas for Rs.y and sells y guavas for Rs. x. If x>y, then he made-

a. x2 – y2 / xy % loss b. x2 – y2 / xy % gain c. x2 – y2 / y2 % loss d. x2 – y2 / y2 * 100% gain

Ans : C.P. of 1 guava = Rs. y/x [x>y]

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and S.P. of 1 guava = Rs. x/y

∴ Reqd. Gain% = x/y – y/x/ y/x * 100%

= x2 - y2 /y2 *100%

40. A jar contain 10 red marbles and 30 green ones. How many red marbles must be added to the jar so that 60% of the marbles will be red?

a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40

Ans : Let after adding x red marbles, the red marbles with be 60% of the total.

∵ (10+x)/ (10 + x) + 30 = 60/100

⇒ 10 + x/40 + x = 3/5

⇒ 50 + 5x = 120 + 3x

x = 70/2 = 35

41. If a number multiplied by 25% of itself gives a number which is 200% more than the number, then the number is –

a. 12 b. 16 c. 35 d. 24 Ans : Let the number be x.

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∵ x*25x/100 = x + 200x/100

⇒ x2/4 = 3x

⇒ x2 - 12x = 0

⇒ x – 12 = 0

∴ x = 12

42. The value of an article depreciates every year at the rate of 10% of its value. If the present value of the article is Rs.729, then its worth 3 years ago was-

a. Rs.1250 b. Rs.1000 c. Rs.1125 d. Rs.1200

Ans : Let the worth 3 years ago be Rs. x.

∵ 729 = x (1 – 10/100)3

⇒ 729 = x*9*9*9/10*10*10

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∴ x = Rs. 1000

43. The price of onions has been increased by 50%. In order to keep the expenditure on onions the same the percentage of reduction in consumption has to be-

a. 50% b. 33 1/3% c. 33% d. 30%

Ans : Reqd. Percentage of reduction = 50*100/(100 + 50) % = 5000/150 % = 33 1/3%

44. A took two loans altogether of Rs.1200 from B and C. B claimed 14% simple interest per annum, while C claimed 15% per annum. The total interest paid by A in one year was Rs.172. Then, A borrowed-

a. Rs.800 from C b. Rs.625 from C c. Rs.400 from B d. Rs.800 from B Ans : If A borrowed Rs. x from B. and A borrowed Rs. Rs. (1200 – x) from C.

∵ (1200 – x)*15*1/100 + x*14*1/100

⇒ 18000 – 15x + 14x = 172*100

x = Rs. 800

45. If a regular polygon has each of its angles equal to 3/5 times of two right angles, then the number of side is-

a. 3 b. 5

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c. 6 d. 8

Ans : If the number of sides a regular polygon be n. Then (2n-4)/n = 2*3/5

⇒ (2n – 4)*5 = 6n

∴ n = 5

46. A square is of area 200 sq. m. A new square is formed in such a way that the length of its diagonal is √2 times of the diagonal of the given square. The the area of the new square formed is-

a. 200√2 sq.m b. 400√2 sq.m c. 400 sq.m d. 800 sq.m

Ans : Length of the diagonal of Ist square = √2*200 = 20 m

∴ Length of the diagonal of new square = 20√2m

∴ Area of the new square = ½*(20.√2)2 = 400 sq. m

47. The heights of a cone, cylinder and hemisphere are equal. If their radii are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1, then the ratio of their volumes is-

a. 2 : 9 : 2 b. 4 : 9 : 1 c. 4 : 27 : 2

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d. 2 : 3 : 1

Ans : Ratio of their volumes [cone : cylinder : hemisphere] (1)2.h (3)2*h : 2/3 (2)2h : = 1/3 = 4/3 : 9 : 2/3 = 4 : 27 : 2

48. A motor-boat can travel at 10 km/hr in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river and then returned to the same place, taking altogether 2 hours. Find the rate of flow of river-

a. 3 km/hr b. 4 km/hr c. 2 km/hr d. 5 km/hr

Ans : Let the rate of flow of river be x km/hr.

∵ 91/(10 + x) + 91/(10 – x) = 20

⇒ 91(10 – x + 10 + x)(10 + x) (10 – x) = 20

⇒ 91*20 = 20(100 – x2)

⇒ x2 = 9 = (3)2

∴ x = 3 km/hr

49. A man driving at 3/4th of his original speed reaches his destination 20 minutes later than the usual time. Then the usual time is-

a. 45 minutes

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b. 60 minutes c. 75 minutes d. 120 minutes

Ans : Let the original speed be x km/hr and the usual time be y hours.

∵ x * y = ¾ x(y+1/3)

∴ 4y = 3y + 1

∴ y = 1 hr = 60 minutes

50. A motor-boat, travelling at the same speed, can cover 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8 hours. At the same speed, it can travel 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. The speed of the stream is –

a. 2 km/hr b. 3 km/hr c. 4 km/hr d. 5 km/hr

Ans : Let the speeds of motor boat and the stream be x and y km/hr respectively.

∵ 39/x + y + 25/x – y = 8 …(1)

and 52/x + y + 35/x – y = 11 …(2) Solving equations (1) and (2), we get-

∴ 100 - 105/x – y = 32 – 33

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∴ x – y = 5

and x + y = 13

∴ y = 4 km/hr

51. If a sum of money placed at compound interest, compounded annually, doubles itself in 5 years, then the same amount of money will be 8 times of itself in-

a. 25 years b. 20 years c. 15 years d. 10 years

Ans : Required time = 5log 8/log 2 = 5*3log 2/log 2 = 15 years

52. A person has left an amount of Rs.1,20,000 to be divided between his 2 son aged 14 years and 12 years such that they get equal amounts when each attains 18 years of age. If the amount gets a simple interest of 5% per annum, the younger son’s share at present is-

a. Rs.48,800 b. Rs.57,600 c. Rs.62,400 d. Rs.84,400

Ans : Let the present share of the younger son be Rs. x.

∴ The share of the elder son = Rs. (120000 – x)

∵ x + x*6*5/100

= (120000 – x) + (120000 – x)*4*5/100

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⇒ 130x/100 = (120000 –x)*120/100

⇒ 13x = 1440000 – 12x

⇒ 25x = 1440000

∴ x = Rs. 57600

53. If the simple interest on Rs.x at a rate of a% for m years is same as that on Rs. y at a rate of a2% for m2 years, then x : y is equal to-

a. m : a b. am : 1 c. 1/m : 1/a d. 1/am : 1

∵ x*a*m/100 = y*a2*m2/100

⇒ x/y = am/1

∴ x : y = am : 1

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54. Base of a right prism is an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. If the volume of the prism is 108√3 cc, its height is-

a. 9 cm b. 10 cm c. 11 cm d. 12 cm

Ans : Height of the prism = 108√3*4/√3*(6)2 = 12cm

55. If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a37 – 1/a100) is-

a. 0 b. -2 c. 1 d. 2

Ans : ∵ a + 1/a + 2 = 0

⇒ a2 + 1 +2a = 0

⇒ (a + 1)2 = 0

⇒ a +1 = 0

∴ a = -1

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∴ a37 -1/a100 = (-1) – (1) = -2

56. The value of k for which the graphs of (k-1) x+y-2 = 0 and (2-k) x -3y + 1 = 0 are parallel is-

a. ½ b. -1/2 c. 2 d. -2 Ans : (k – 1) x + y – 2 = 0

∴ y = (1 – k) x + 2 ….(1)

and (2 –k) x – 3y – 1 = 0 3y = (2 – k) x +1 Y = 2 – k/3 x + 1/3 ….(2)

∵ m1 = m2

⇒ 1 – k = 2 – k/3

⇒ 3 – 3k = 2 - k

∴ k = 1/2

57. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a-b-c) – 3, then the value of (a – b + c) is-

a. -1

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b. 3 c. 1 d. -2

Ans : a2 + b2 + c2 = 2(a – b – c) – 3

⇒ a2 - 2a + 1 + b2 + 2b + 1 + c2 + 2c + 1 = 0

⇒ (a – 1)2 + (b + 1)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0

⇒ a – 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0

⇒ a = 1, b = -1, c = -1

∴ a + b – c = 1 – 1 + 1 =1

58. If x2 + 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of x3 + 1/x3 is-

a. -18 b. 18 c. 36 d. -36

Ans : ∵ x2 + 3x + 1 = 0

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⇒ x + 3 + 1/x = 0

⇒ x + 1/x = -3

⇒ (x + 1/x)3 = (-3)3

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 + 3 (-3) = -27

∴ x3 + 1/ x3 = -18

59. If xa, xb, xc = 1, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 is –

a. 9 b. abc c. a + b + c d. 3abc

Ans : ∵ xa. xb. xc = 1

⇒ xa + b + c = x0

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⇒ a +b + c =0

∴ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

60. Base of a right pyramid is a square, length of diagonal of the base is 24√2 m. If the volume of the pyramid is 1728 cu.m, its height is-

a. 7 m b. 8 m c. 9 m d. 10 m

Ans : Area of the base of the pyramid = ½ (24√2)2 = 576m2

∴ Height of pyramid + 1728*3/576 = 9m

61. The height of a right circular cone and the radius of its circular base are respectively 9 cm and 3 cm. The cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base so as to divide it into two parts. The volume of the frustum (i.e., the lower part) of the cone is 44 cubic cm. The radius of the upper circular surface of the frustum = 22-7) is- (taking

a. 3√12 cm b. 3√13 cm c. 3√6 cm d. 3√20 cm

Ans : Let the radius of the upper circular part of the frustum be r cm.

(Picture) Then r/3 = x/9 = AC/AD

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∴ x = 3r (where AC = x cm)

/3h(r12 + r1r2+r22 = 44 ⇒

/3(9 – x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44 ⇒

⇒ (9 – x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44*3*7/22 = 42

⇒ 81 + 27r + 9r2 – 9x – 3rx - r2x = 42 On putting x = 3r,

⇒ 81 + 27r + 9r2 - 9r2 - 3r3 – 27r = 42

⇒ 3r3 = 39

∴ r = 3√13 cm

62. The ratio of radii of two right circular cylinder is 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 4. The ratio of their curved surface area is-

a. 5 : 6 b. 3 : 4

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c. 4 : 5 d. 2 : 3

*3r*4h = 5 : 6 *2r*5h/2 Ans : Required ratio = 2

63. A solid cylinder has total surface area of 462 sq.cm. Curved surface area is 1/3rd of its total surface area. The volume of the cylinder is- a. 530 cm3 b. 536 cm3 c. 539 cm3 d. 545 cm3

r(r + h) = 462 Ans : ∵ 2

rh = 1/3*462 = 154 and 2

∴ r + h/h = 462/154 =3

∴ r + h = 3h

∴ r = 2h

*2h2 = 154 ∴ 2

∴ h2 = 154*7/22*4 = 49/4

= (7/2)2

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∴ h = 7/2 cm

and r = 7 cm

∴ Volume of the cylinder

= 22/7*49*7/2 = 539 cm3

64. A cylinder and a cone have equal radii of their bases and equal heights. If their curved surface areas are in the ratio 8 : 5, the ratio of their radius and height is-

a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 2 : 3 d. 3 : 4

Ans : Let the radius and height of each are r and h respectively.

r√h2 + r2 = 8/5 rh/ ∵ 2

∴ 10h = 8√r2 + h2

⇒ 100h2 =64r2 + 64h2

∴ h2 = 64 r2/36 = (4/3 r)2

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⇒ h = 4/3r

∴ r : h = 3 : 4

65. A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical above. If the surface areas of the two parts are equal, then the ratio of radius and height of its conical part is-

a. 1 : 3 b. 1 :1 c. √3 : 1 d. 1 : √3

Ans :

r2 rl = 2 ∵

⇒ l = 2r

⇒ √h2 + r2 = 2r

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⇒ h2 = 3r2

∴ r : h = r/h

= 1 : √3

66. If O is the circumcentre of ∆ ABC and ∠OBC = 350, then the ∠BAC is equal to-

a. 550 b. 1100 c. 700 d. 350

Ans : ∴ ∠BOC = 1800 – (350 + 350) = 1100

∴ ∠BAC = 1/2 * 1100 = 550

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67. If I is the incentre of ∆ ABC and ∠ BIC = 1350, then ∆ ABC is-

a. Acute angled b. Equilateral c. Right angled d. Obtuse angled

Ans :

∠BIC = 1350

⇒ B/2 + C/2 = 1800 – 1350 = 450

⇒ ∠B + ∠C = 900

∴ ∠A = 1800 – (∠B + ∠C) = 900

i.e., ∆ ABC is a right angled.

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68. If sin2 (∝ + β/2) is-

a. 1 b. -1 c. 0 d. 0.5

∵ sin2 ∝ + sin2 β = 2

⇒ 1 – cos2 ∝ 1 - cos2 β = 2

⇒ cos2 ∝ cos2 β = 0

⇒ cos ∝ = 0

and cos β = 0

/2 /2 and β = ⇒ ∝ =

/2 / 2] /2 + ∴ cos (∝ + β/2) = cos [

/2 = 0 = cos

69. The length of a shadow of a vertical tower is 1/√3 times its height. The angle of elevation of the Sun is-

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a. 300 b. 450 c. 600 d. 900

Ans :

∵ tan θ = h/1√3 h = √3 = tan 600

70. The graphs of x +2y =3 and 3x-2y = 1 meet the Y-axis at two points having distance-

a. 8/3 units b. 4/3 units c. 1 unit d. 2 units Ans : When the graphs meet the Y-axis at two points.

Then, [x + 2y = 3] at x = 0 ⇒ [0, y1 =3/2]

[3x - 2y = 1] at x = 0 and i.e., [0, y2 = -1/2] Required distance = (y1 – y2) = 3/2 – (- ½) = 2 units

71. If x+1/16x = 1, then the value of 64x3 + 1/64x3 is-

a. 4 b. 52 c. 64 d. 76

∵ x + 1/16x = 1

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⇒ 16x2 – 16x + 1 =0

⇒ 16x2 – 16x + 4 = 3

⇒ (4x – 2)2 = 3

⇒ 4x = 2 + √3

⇒ 64x3 = (2±√3)3

=8 + 3√3 + 6√3 (2 + √3) = 26 + 15√3

∴ 64x3 + 1/64x3 = (26 + 15√3) + 1/ (26 + 15√3)

= (26 + 15√3) + 26 - 15√3/676 -675 =52

72. If a, b, c, are three non-zero real numbers such that a + b + c = 0, and b2 ≠ ca, then the value of a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 –ca is-

a. 3 b. 2 c. 0 d. 1

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∵ a + b + c = 0

⇒ a + c = -b

⇒ a2 + c2 = b2 -2ac

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 = 2b2 – 2ac

∴ a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 ac = 2

73. If a4 + a2 b2 + b4 = 8 and a2 + ab + b2 = 4, then the value of ab is-

a. -1 b. 0 c. 2 d. 1

∵ a4 + a2 b2 + b4/ a2 + ab + b2 = 8/4

⇒ (a2 + b2)2 – (ab) 2/ (a2 + b2 + ab) = 2

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⇒ a2 – ab + b2 = 2 ….(1)

and a2 + ab + b2 = 4 …..(2)

⇒ 2ab = 2

⇒ ab = 1

74. If a = 25, b = 15, c = -10, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc/ (a-b)2 + (b-c)2 + (c-a)2 is-

a. 30 b. -15 c. -30 d. 15

∵ a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc

= (25)3 + (15)3 + (-10)3 – 3*25*15*(-10) =15625 + 3375 – 1000 + 11250 = 29250 and (a - b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2 = (10)2 + (25)2 + (-35)2 = (10)2 + 625 + 1225 = 1950

∴ Required value = 29250/1950 =15

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75. A, B, C are three points on a circle. The tangent at A meets BC produced at T, ∠BTA = 400, ∠CAT =

440. The angle subtended by BC at the centre of the circle is-

a. 840 b. 920 c. 960 d. 1040

Ans : (Picture)

∠ACB = 400 + 440 = 840

∴ ∠ACO = 900 - 440 = 460 = ∠OAC

⇒ ∠OCB = ∠ACB - ∠ACO

= 840 - 460 = 380 = ∠OBC

∴ ∠BOC = 1800 – (∠OCB + ∠OBC)

= 1800 – (380 + 380) = 1040

76. If the length of a chord of a circle at a distance of 12 cm from the Centre is 10 cm, then the diameter of the circle is-

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a. 13 cm b. 15 cm c. 26 cm d. 30 cm

Ans : (Picture)

∵ OA = √OM2 + AM2

= √122 + 52 = 13

∴ Diameter of the circle = 2*OA

= 2*13 = 26cm

77. In ∆ ABC, P and Q are the middle points of the sides AB and AC respectively. R is a point on the segment PQ such that PR : RQ = 1 : 2. If PR = 2 cm, then BC =

a. 4 cm b. 2 cm c. 12 cm d. 6 cm

∵ PR/RQ = ½

But, PR = 2cm RQ = 2*PR = 4cm

(Picture)

∴ PQ = PR + RQ

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= 2 + 4 = 6 cm

∴ BC = 2*PQ = 12CM

78. If tan θ tan 2θ = 1, then the value of sin2 2θ + tan2 is equal to –

a. ¾ b. 10/3 c. 3 ¾ d. 3

∵ tan θ * tan 2θ = 1

⇒ tan θ * 2 tan θ/1 – tan2 θ = 1

⇒ 2 tan2 θ = 1 - tan2 θ

⇒ 3 tan2 θ = 1

⇒ tan θ = 1/√3 = tan 300

∴ θ = 300

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∴ sin2 2θ + tan2 2θ = sin2 600 + tan2 600

= ¾ + 3 =3 ¾

/20 is- /20 cot 9 /20 cot 7 /20 cot 5 /20 cot 3 79. The value of cot

a. -1 b. ½ c. 0 d. 1

Ans : Given Exp. /20 /20. cot 9 /20. cot 7 /20. cot 5 /20. cot 3 = cot = cot 90. cot 270. cot 450. cot 630. cot 810 = cot 90. cot 270*1*tan 270. tan 90. = cot 90. cot 270*1*1/ cot 270*1/ cot 90 =1

80. If sin θ+ cos θ = 17/13, 0<θ<900, then the value of sin θ- cos θ is-

a. 5/17 b. 3/19 c. 7/10 d. 7/13

∵ sin θ + cos θ = 17/13

⇒ sin2 θ + cos2 θ + 2sin θ.cos θ = 289/169

∴ 2sin θ.cos θ = 289 /169 -1

= 289 -169/169 = 120/169

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∴ sin2 θ + cos2 θ – 2 sin2 θ.cos θ = 1 – 120/169

= 49/169

⇒ (sin θ – cos θ)2 = (7/13)2

∴ sin θ – cos θ = 7/13

IBPS PO CWE,IBPS Gramin bank RRBs current affairs questions with answers on January 2012 1. Youngest ever Microsoft Certified Professional who died recently at the age of 16 ?

Arfa Karim Randhawa Read More

2. What is the total number of districts in Chhattisgarh as on 1st January 2012? 27

3. Where the Coastal Business Development Summit is is held? Mangalore,Karnataka

4. Name the DGP replacing outgoing chief Sankar Baruah for Assam. Jayanta Narayan Choudhury

5. Where National Kannada conference is is set to be held in the month of April? Delhi

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6. Which country recently joined UNSC as non-permanent member? Pakistan

7. Who are now allowed to invest in Indian stock market directly? QFI’s – Qualified foreign investors

8. How much of share can a QFI company and QFI’s put together hold a stake in Indian companies? 5% and 10%

9. Which two countries have strengthened business ties to start trading electricity and petroleum products? India and Pakistan

10. What is SEBI toll free helpline number launched to support 14 languages? 1800 227 575

11. Who has been named male player of the year by Golf writers Association of America? Luke Donald

12. Name the Argentinean bike rider who died after being involved in an accident on the first day of the Dakar Rally. Jorge Martinez Boero

13. Name Afghan’s first team of female boxers set to aim for Olympics 2012. Shabnam and Sadaf Rahimi

14. Which country test launched first 3D television broadcast? China

15. What rank does Vishwanathan Anand holds as he prepares for 2012 World chess championship? 4th

16. Name the former Macedoninan President who passed away recently.

Kiro Gligorov

17. Which Indian ace tennis star withdrew out of Aircel Chennai Open 2012 because of recurring shoulder injury?

18. Where the 5-day 99th Indian Science Congress science event is is set to start on 3rd January 2012? Kalinga Institute of industrial Technology, Bhuvaneshwar, Orrisa

19. What bank account facility is set to be launched in India? Bank Number Portability

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20. Name the new education tablet launched by Classteacher Learning Systems, a Delhi based Educational Solutions Provider. Classpad

21. Who has been appointed as chief coach of Kolkata Knight Riders? Trevor Bayliss

22. Where in India is Literary Festival 2012 is scheduled to be held? Jaipur

23. What is the concept introduced by Indian Postal Department (Bihar Postal Circle) to get a personalized stamp with photograph on it? My Stamp

24. Who takes over as Wipro Technologies Senior Vice President and Corporate Treasurer? Manoj Jaiswal

25. Who has been considered for first Gates Innovation Award? Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar

26. Which auto major is set to invest USD142 million at its Chennai plant in India to manufacture a compact sports utility vehicle named EcoSport? Ford India

27. Name the Government policy introduced by Karnataka to boost animation industry. Karnataka Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comics (KAVGC) Policy 2011

28. Name the ace woman tennis player who withdrew from Australian Open due to left ankle injury. Serena Williams

29. Who has been named as CEO of Yahoo? Scott Thompson

30. Who has been appointed as Senior Vice President in India by CIBER? Vivek.K.Marla

31. Name the interactive presentation tool launched by HP in India. Pocket whiteboard

32. Name the Australian cricket captain who joined the triple-century club recently. Michael Clarke scored 329* against India at SCG

33. Where the national and international theater festival, the Bharat Rang Mahotsav set to be held? National School of Drama, Amritsar

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34. Who won gold for triple jump at the all India inter-university athletics meet held in Mangalore, Karnataka? Arpinder Singh

35. Who has been named Chief Information Officer of WildCard Systems? Shahi Kapur

36. Who has been appointed as VP, Chief Information Officer of Qwest Communications? Girish Varma

37. Name the Indian doctor who became famous for his selfless work in China during the Sino-Japan war whose memorial was dedicated to India. Dr.Dwarkanath Shantaram Kotnis

38. Where has Union Government planned to build 11 tunnels to connect important roads? Pakistan and China borders

39. Which version of Internet Explorer is dead as per Microsoft? Internet Explorer 6

40. Name the website launched by Jammu and Kashmir government for the state’s school education department. www.jkeducation.gov.in

41. Who was given the first S.K.Singh award for negotiating Indo-US nuclear deal? D.Bala Venkatesh Varma

42. Where is the world’s largest solar telescope set to be built? Merak on Pangong Tso lake in the cold desert Ladakh region

43. Who has been appointed as President of Federation of Indian Export Organisations? Rafeeq Ahmed

44. Which state has planned to teach Bhagavad Gita in schools? Karnataka

45. Which automobile maker has re-entered Indian markets after 13 years? Vespa

46. Who won the doubles title at the Chennai Open 2012? Leander Peas and Janko Tipsarevic

47. Which country has called for Indian investments and sought partnership in oil and gas exploration? Trinidad and Tobago

48. Who has been appointed as Managing Director, President and CEO of Samsung’s South- West Asia

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operations? B.D.Park

49. Name the world’s first hydrogen powered 3-wheeler which was launched by Mahindra and Mahindra at the 11th Auto Expo 2012. HyAlfa

50. Who won the FIFA women’s World player of the year? Homare Sawa of Japan

51. Who won the FIFA men’s world player of the year 3rd time in a row? Lionel Messi of Argentina

52. Name the car which won the 2012 North American Car of the year award. Hyundai Elantra

53. Name the Guinea Bissau President who died recently. Malam Bacai Sanha

54. Name the chairman of Swiss National Bank who stepped down recently. Philipp Hildebrand

55. Which company has acquired Bangalore-based event and entertainment guide Buzzintown? Yatra online

56. Which country’s Prime Minister is to be chief guest at Indian Republic Day parade? Thailand Prime Minister, Yingluck Shinawatra

57. How many banks are now allowed to import bullion or precious metals? 35

58. Name the recently added banks to import precious metals. Yes Bank, Bank of Maharashtra, City Union Bank and ING Vysya Bank

59. Which bollywood actor is campaigning for clean voting? Aamir Khan

60. Who took over as Director General Military Operations succeeding Lt Gen Anand Mohan Verma? Lt Gen Ashok Kumar Chaudhary

61. Name the Chinese dancer who took Bharatanatyam and Kathak to Mao’s China died recently. Zhang Jun

62. Where the Quick service cum mobile medical dispensary was inaugurated recently? Bodh Gaya Temple premises

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63. What is the lowest one-day score by Sri Lanka in the recently held match against South Africa? 43 all out

64. What is the worth of total Private equity investment made in India in 2011? $10.11 billion

65. Which country has been ranked first on nuclear safety? Australia

66. What has Kerala hospital introduced to diagnose small bowel bleeding sites, tumours and ulcers? Wireless Capsule Endoscopy

67. Where does the industrial output stand as of November 2011 in India? 5.9%

68. When did India complete one polio-free year? 13th January 2012

69. What is the cost of cheapest electric car unveiled by Tata in Detroit? $20,000

70. Which legendary singer is set to be honoured with lifetime achievement award at the 18th Annual Colors Screen Awards?

Asha Bhosle

71. Who has been appointed to google board recently? Diane Greene, VMware co-founder

72. Which service the Indian Government has planned to launch for farmers? Interactive medium of spoken web service

73. Who won gold in Asian shooting championship?

74.Which airways bagged best airline award? Ethad Airways

75. Which Indian city is set to host psychiatry conclaves? Kochi

76. Which country reported rare decline of foreign reserves? China

77. Name India’s first woman journalist who died recently. Homai Vyarawalla

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78. Who won the Mumbai marathon title recently? Laban Moiben

79. Where does inflation stand as on 16th January 2012? 7.47%

80. Name the scheme launched by Arunachal Pradesh government for the treatment of Multi Drug Resistant TB patients. Directly Observed Treatment Plus Service (DOTS)

81. Who took charge as Kerala governor? H.R.Bharadwaj

82. Who won the trust of vote in Parliament of Pakistan? Yousuf Raza Gilani

83. Which currency is world’s most undervalued currency as per Big Mac Index? Indian rupee

84. Who has been appointed as Director Enterprise Business (India and South Asia) by Adobe? Kulmeet Bawa

85. What is the amount received by India in venture capital funding in the solar energy sector? Rs.500 crore

86. Which Government has bought 1.09% worth stake in Reliance Industries? Singapore Government

87. Which bank is likely to increase their presence in Karnataka from the present 71 to 100 branches? Bank of Baroda

88. Name the boxer who turned 70 recently. Mohammad Ali

89. What is the export growth as of December 2011? 6.7% at $25billion

90. Which website is to be shut for 24hrs to stop anti-piracy act? Wikipedia

91. Name the Indian-origin Sikh who has been unanimously elected as the mayor of Charlottesville, a historic American city in Virginia. Satyendra Singh Huja

92. What fund has India planned to launch by July 2012?

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$1 billion innovation fund

93. Where is the India-Burma talks scheduled on January 19th 2012? Myanmar capital, Naypyitaw

94. Name the Yahoo co-founder who resigned recently. Jerry Yang

95. Which global consulting and IT service provider is set to participate in World Economic Forum? Mahindra Satyam

96. Which card has BSNL launched to facilitate making utility bill payments like electricity and telephone bills? Itz Cash Card (Trust Card)

97. Name the media advisor to Prime Minister who resigned recently. Harish Khare

98. Where India’s first Startup Village is to be setup? KINFRA Park, Kalamassery, Kochi

99. Expand SOPA & PIPA Stop Online Piracy Act & Protect IP Act

100. Which photo pioneer company filed bankruptcy recently? Kodak

101. Which online video streaming site has launched a film festival? YouTube

102. Name the Indian wicketkeeper who is set to debut in place of MS Dhoni in test cricket against Australia. Wriddhiman Saha

103. Where is the Jaipur Literature Festival held in India? Diggi Palace, Jaipur

104. Which file-sharing website has US shut down recently? Megaupload

105. Petroleum ministry recently allowed import of? ATF – Aviation Turbine Fuel

106. Name the new kind of train launched by China. Magnetic train

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107. Which auto-maker regained its title as the world’s top-selling automaker in 2011? General Motors

108. Who is appointed as COO of Intel? Brain Krzanich

109. Who is appointed as Managing Editor of Wall Street Journal? Raju Narisetti

110. Where did India open its 5th Consulate in US? Atlanta

111. Which country is set to join European Union in 2013? Coratia

112. Name the year that is been celebrated across China? Dragon year

113. Who won the Ranji Trophy 2011-12? Rajasthan

114. What rank does India hold to have a nuclear submarine? 6th position

115. Which parliament passed Armenian gernocide bill? French Parliament

116. What is the prevailing CRR as on 25th January 2012? 5.5%

117. Which state’s theme has been set in 26th Surajkund Crafts Mela in Faridabad, Haryana? Assam

118. Who won Grand slam title in men’s Australian Open 2012? Djokovic

119. What rank does India hold as steel maker in 2011 as per World Steel Association? 4th rank

120. What sum of capital has been approved to be infused in SBI and PNB? Rs.7,900 crore and Rs.1,285 crore

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IBPS Bank Interview Questions & Answers,IBPS Bank PO, clerk, IBPS Gramin Bank interview questions and other banks (Andhrabank, SBI, Canarabank, syndicate bank, Gramin bank, Punjab national bank,Federal Bank, Syndicate Bank, Bank Of India, Union Bank, Banking terms which may be asked in bank interview questions, IBPS Common Interview Questions, Common Interview Mistakes, Frequently Asked Interview Questions, Here are 10 tips which can help you impress the interviewer and get that opportunity to prove your talent.

A firm handshake- A handshake says a lot about you than you can imagine. A firm handshake is a sign of confidence and leadership qualities, which organizations are always looking for in employees. But make sure you do not squeeze the hand of your interviewer, as it is a sign of insecurity, or being a control freak.

Maintain eye contact- Whenever we lie, we tend to avoid eye contact. Thus, whenever you fail to make eye contact, the subconscious of the interviewer would tell him that you are lying, even if you are not. Always maintain eye contact with the interviewer whenever answering questions. But don’t hold the eye contact for more than few seconds at a stretch, as it is considered rude.

Maintain your wit- Sometimes, interviewers throw candidates off track by asking weird questions such as “What if dinosaurs were still alive?” They are not looking for a right answer to such questions. Rather, they are looking for ability to handle unexpected situations. Maintain your wit at all times during the interview.

Be open- During the interview, be open in your stance, and in your mannerisms as well. Do not cross your arms or legs. If an interviewer offers you something, do not hesitate to accept it.

Be precise with your answers- Nothing impresses an interviewer more than clarity of thought. Always try and give to the point answers. Blabbering about stuff won’t help matters.

Dress appropriately- Professionalism is an important criteria taken into account when hiring candidates. Your dress is the first thing an interviewer notices when you walk into a room. Make sure you dress appropriately. Steer clear of a denims and tees. Instead, opt for something formal and more business-like for your interview.

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Try conversing- Don’t treat the interview as a question-answer session. Treat it as a conversation instead. If you have some doubts or questions in mind, feel more than ready to ask them during the interview. It is important to form a rapport with your interviewer, as it improves chances of getting selected.

Be yourself- It is easier said than done, but it is important. When you are called for a job interview, the employer wants to meet the real you and not someone who is rehearsed by counselors etc. Try to be yourself during the interview, and if the interviewer likes you, you will get the job.

Arrive on time- Noting pisses off an employer more than a potential job candidate arriving late for the interview. Make sure you arrive at least 5 minutes before the scheduled time. Arriving early shows that you are really interested in the job, which improves your chances of being selected.

Showcase your knowledge as much as you can- At the end of the day, an interviewer is gauging whether you are the right fit for the job. Whenever possible try to showcase your knowledge and skillset during the interview. 5 most common job interview mistakes

1. Trying to fit in to the expectations of the employer

It is by far the most common job interview mistake committed by candidates. As humans, we have an innate tendency to be accepted, and we often lie our way to it. But one simple lie leads to hundreds others, and eventually, you are caught. HR professionals are skilled at catching lies. In fact, that’s the first thing they do in a job interview- separate the genuine candidates from the liars. Don’t try to put on a garb just to seek acceptance from the interviewer. Be yourself and speak of situations as they are. Even if you were fired from your last job, don’t hide it from your potential employer. Interviewers are humans too, and they understand difficulties and situations of working in an organization.

2.Asking no questions, or asking dumb ones An employer expects you be research a little bit about the company and the industry before you come for the interview. When we research something, we often have our doubts and our questions. Surprisingly

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though, most candidates fail to put enough hard work in the research part. The end result- they fail to ask relevant questions, or end up asking dumb questions at the end of the interview. Make sure you avoid that mistake. When you get the chance, always ask questions that make the interviewer think a little.

3. Rambling rather than answering When an interviewer asks a question, he expects a concise, well articulated response. A to the point answer shows you are confident, and organizations are always looking for confident employees. When answering a question, you need to know when to stop. And you need to avoid the rambling pitfall that interviewers lay there purposely. Most times, when you finish answering, the interviewer will pause for a moment, expecting you to go further. Don’t fall in that trap. Just remain confident and ask the interviewer politely whether he would like to know something else.

4. Not taking your CV with you When you read it, it seems like a common thing to do. You need to take your CV and your documents along when you are going for an interview. But 60% of the candidates forget to take it along, or don’t bother taking it along. Even if you have already sent your CV via e-mail, always take it along when going for an interview. Make sure it is neatly printed on an A4 size sheet, and do not fold it. Keep it safe in a folder with the rest of the documents. It shows that you are organized and serious about the job.

5. Speaking ill of the last employer It is one of the most common reasons why employers reject a candidate. When you bad mouth your previous employer, it shows that you lack integrity and loyalty. No organization wants an employee who is not trustworthy. Common Interview Questions Tell me about yourself/ describe yourself?

What does you name means?

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Why gap in education(if there is gap)?

Describe your work experience(if there is..)?

Why have you left your previous job?

What do you know about our bank?

How many bank exams(or)interviews have you attended so far?

What are your strengths?

What are your weakness?

Why are you switching your career?

How will your education help your banking career?

What have you been doing since now after education?

Are you willing to work anywhere in india?

When mnc’s are paying more salaries why you are settling down for low salaries in banks?

Why do you want to join in banking sector?

Why should we select you?

How would you take it if you were not selected for this position?

Do you have any questions for us?

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