izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls vo'; dj ysaA ;fn vks0 ,e0 vkj0 mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA

Level : 2 Exam. – 2020 TGT : For Classes VI to VIII MUSIC

Sub. Code No. : 810 9 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No. vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ %        SET : A Roll No. (In Figures) vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ % ______Roll No. (In Words) ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % ______Name of Examination Centre vH;FkhZ dk uke % ______vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ______Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate

bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 32 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of Invigilator : ______vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funsZ'kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o mÙkj i=d dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA• ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSaA bl volj ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA ;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct. vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k@INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES : 1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsaA (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with black ball point pen only.) 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz’u gSaA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking .) 3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA (Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper and in darkening the responses on the answer sheet.) 4. izFke 10 feuV esa] ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zos{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok, ¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)

5. ysoy&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII) Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f’k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30 ½ Part–I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30 ) Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60 ½ Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60 ) ¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½ (Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.) III 61 90 Hkkx& % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 ls ç0 ½ Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90 ) ¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q) Hkkx&IV % laxhr ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150 ½ Part–IV : Music (Q. 91 to Q. 150 )

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks i<+saA (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.) FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, [ 3 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – I / PART – I cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk FkkWuZMkbd }kjk 1. Which of the following is not the izfrikfnr lh[kus dk izeq[k fu;e ughaughaugha gS \ main law of learning as prescribed by Thorndike ? (1) vH;kl dk fu;e (1) Law of Exercise (2) izHkko dk fu;e (2) Law of Effect (3) rRijrk dk fu;e (3) Law of Readiness (4) lkekU;hdj.k dk fu;e (4) Law of Generalization

2. ^laosxkRed cqf)* 'kCn dks loZizFke fdlus 2. Who first introduced the word izLrqr fd;k \ 'Emotional Intelligence' ? (1) ÝsMfjd ,oa fddZ (1) Fredrick and Kirk (2) gsujh ,oa ihVj (2) Henry and Peter (3) tkWu ,oa ØkWucSd (3) John and Cronback (4) es;j ,oa lykssos (4) Mayer and Salovey

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk mikxe vf/kxe 3. Which of the following approach is based on analysing the behaviour of v;ksX; ckydksa ds O;ogkj dk fo'ys"k.k dj disabled child and find out the root mudh vf/kxe U;wurk ds ewy dkj.kksa ds cause of his/her learning deficiency ? tkuus ds iz;kl ij vk/kkfjr gS \ (1) Psychoanalytic approach (1) euksfo'ys"k.kkRed mikxe (2) Behavioural approach (2) O;ogkjoknh mikxe (3) Individualized instructional approach (3) oS;fDrd vuqns'kukRed mikxe (4) Multisensory approach (4) cgqbUnzh; mikxe

4. ^yqIr vf/kxe* laizR;; dks loZizFke fdlus 4. Who first introduced the concept of ifjfpr djk;k \ "Latent Learning" ? (1) dqVZ ysfou (1) Kurt Lewin (2) bZ0 ,y0 FkkWuZMkbd (2) E. L. Thorndike (3) ,MoMZ psl VkWyeSu (3) Edward Chace Tolman (4) ikoykso (4) Pavlov Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 4 ] 5. ^izdk;Zokn* ds izeq[k izorZd dkSu Fks \ 5. Who was the main propounder of 'functionalism' ? (1) fofy;e tsEl (1) William James (2) ts0 ch0 okV~lu (2) J. B. Watson (3) DykdZ gy (3) Clark Hull (4) ,MoMZ VkWyeSu (4) Edward Tolman 6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tUetkr 6. Which of the following is example vfHkizsjd dk mnkgj.k gS \ of Innate Motive ? (1) iqjLdkj (2) Hkw[k (1) Award (2) Hunger (3) n.M (4) izksRlkgu (3) Punishment (4) Incentives 7. ckyd ds 'kjhj eas gksus okys ySafxd 7. In which stage of development, the ifjorZu] fodkl dh dkSu&lh voLFkk esa sexual changes that occur in the fn[kkbZ nsuk izkjEHk gks tkrs gSa \ child's body starts to appear ? (1) iwoZ ckY;koLFkk (1) Early childhood (2) i'p fd'kksjkoLFkk (2) Later Adolescence (3) o;LdkoLFkk (3) Adulthood (4) o;%laf/k dky (4) Puberty 8. Dykfldy vuqcU/ku dk vU; uke D;k 8. What is the other name of classical gS \ conditioning ? (1) ^,l* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (1) Type S conditioning (2) ^vkj* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (2) Type R conditioning (3) ^,l&vkj* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (3) Type S-R conditioning (4) ^;w* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (4) Type U conditioning 9. ßifjJefiz;rk cuke ghurkÞ voLFkk ds 9. What is age group given by Erikson fy, ,fjDlu us dkSu&lk vk;q lewg crk;k for the stage "industry vs gS \ inferiority" ? (1) 6 ls 11 o"kZ (1) 6 to 11 years (2) 12 ls 20 o"kZ (2) 12 to 20 years (3) 3 ls 6 o"kZ (3) 3 to 6 years (4) 18 ekg ls 3 o"kZ (4) 18 months to 3 years 10. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk ^fodkl* dk 10. Out of the following which is not lgh fl)kUr ughaughaugha gS \ correct principle of 'Development' ? (1) lkarR; dk fl)kUr (1) Principle of continuity (2) oS;fDrd fHkUurk dk fl)kUr (2) Principle of individual difference (3) iSVuZ dh ,d:irk dk fl)kUr (3) Principle of uniformity of pattern (4) fof'k"V ls lkekU; izfrfØ;kvksa dh (4) Principle of proceeding from dk;Zokgh dk fl)kUr specific to general responses Level-2/8109 [ 5 ] [ A ]

11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ^euksfoKku dk 11. Which of the 'thoughts of school' in laiznk;* ¼fopkj½ ^CySd ckWDl F;ksjh* ds Psychology is also called as 'Black uke ls tkuk tkrk gS \ box theory' ? (1) O;ogkjokn (1) Behaviourism (2) lajpukokn (2) Structuralism (3) izdk;Zokn (3) Functionalism (4) xsLVkYVokn (4) Gestaltism

12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vPNs ekufld 12. Which of the following is not the LokLF; dk y{k.k ughaughaugha gS \ characteristic of Good Mental Health ? (1) lek;kstu ;ksX;rk (1) Ability to adjust (2) laosxkRed ifjiDork (2) Emotional Maturity (3) vkRefo'okl (3) Self-confidence (4) vlgu'khyrk (4) Intolerance 13. dSVy laLÑfr eqDr cqf) ijh{k.k dh 13. Scale I in Cattell Culture Free ekiuh I fdlds fy, cuk;h x;h Fkh \ Intelligence Test was prepared for whom ? (1) 8 ls 12 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (1) For 8 to 12 years mental O;fDr;ksa ds fy, deficient person (2) 4 ls 8 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (2) For 4 to 8 years mental deficient O;fDr;ksa ds fy, person (3) 12 ls 15 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (3) For 12 to 15 years mental O;fDr;ksa ds fy, deficient person (4) 2 ls 4 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (4) For 2 to 4 years mental deficient O;fDr;ksa ds fy, person

14. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk ^jpukRedrk dh 14. Which of the following is the correct izfØ;k* ds fy, lghlghlgh rkfdZd Øe gS \ logical order for 'process of creativity' ? (1) varn`Zf"V → rS;kjh → ifjikd → (1) Insight → Preparation → lR;kiu Incubation → Verification (2) rS;kjh → varn`Zf"V → ifjikd → (2) Preparation → Insight → lR;kiu Incubation → Verification (3) rS;kjh → ifjikd → varn`Zf"V → (3) Preparation → Incubation → lR;kiu Insight → Verification (4) rS;kjh → varn`Zf"V → lR;kiu → (4) Preparation → Insight → ifjikd Verification → Incubation

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 6 ]

15. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk in fØ;k&izlwr 15. Which of the following terms is not vuqcU/k ls lacaf/kr ughaughaugha gS \ related with the operant conditioning ? (1) vUrn`Zf"V (1) Insight (2) iqucZyu (2) Reinforcement (3) Lor% iquykZHk (3) Spontaneous Recovery (4) foyksiu (4) Extinction 16. os cPps tks fofHkUu izdkj dh vf/kxe 16. Who introduces 'Learning Disable' leL;kvksa ls xzflr jgrs gSa] muds fy , word very first for the children ^vf/kxe v{ke* 'kCn dk iz;ksx loZizFke suffered from various learning fdlus fd;k \ problems ? (1) gsokMZ (1) Heward (2) lSeqvy fddZ (2) Samuel Kirk (3) oSu fjij (3) Van Riper (4) cdZ (4) Birch 17. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksoSKkfud 17. Which of the following Psychologist ßvkRek ds foKku ds :i eas euksfoKkuÞ is not supporter of views about fopkj/kkjk dk leFkZd ughaughaugha gS \ "Psychology as a Science of Soul" ? (1) IysVks (1) Plato (2) vjLrw (2) Aristotle (3) MsdkVsZ (3) Descartes (4) oq.V (4) Wundt 18. euksfoKku dh dkSu&lh 'kk[kk esa VsyhiSFkh] 18. In which branch of Psychology there iqutZUe tSls {ks=kas dk v/;;u fd;k tkrk is a scope of study of Telepathy, gS \ Rebirth etc. ? (1) nSfgd euksfoKku (1) Physiological Psychology (2) uSnkfud euksfoKku (2) Clinical Psychology (3) vrhfUnz; euksfoKku (3) Parapsychology (4) fodklkRed euksfoKku (4) Developmental Psychology 19. thu fi;kts ds vuqlkj ckyd dkSu&lh 19. According to Jean Piaget in which voLFkk esa ifjdYiukvksa dks le>u s dh stage child is able to understand rFkk rkfdZd okD;ksa ds vk/kkj ij fopkj Hypothesis and getting thinking djus dh ;ksX;rk izkIr dj ysrk gS \ ability on the basis of logical statement ? (1) 0 ls 2 o"kZ (2) 2 ls 6 o"kZ (1) 0 to 2 years (2) 2 to 6 years (3) 6 ls 11 o"kZ (4) 11 ls 15 o"kZ (3) 6 to 11 years (4) 11 to 15 years Level-2/8109 [ 7 ] [ A ]

20. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksfoKku ekuo 20. Which of the following Psychology ds fpUru] Le`fr] Hkk"kk] izR;{khdj.k bR;kfn studies about man's thinking, dk v/;;u djrk gS \ memory, language, perception etc. ? (1) ekuorkoknh euksfoKku (1) Humanist Psychology (2) laKkukRed euksfoKku (2) Cognitive Psychology (3) vlkekU; euksfoKku (3) Abnormal Psychology (4) uSnkfud euksfoKku (4) Clinical Psychology

21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk O;fDrRo dk 21. Which of the following is not the izdkj Øspej }kjk ughaughaugha fn;k x;k gS \ type of personality given by Kretschmer ? (1) lqMkSydk; (1) Athletic (2) dykRed (2) Aesthetic (3) yacdk; (3) Asthenic (4) xksykdk; (4) Pyknic 22. thu fi;kts ds vuqlkj uSfrd fodkl 22. What is the age group for the moral voLFkk ßijk;Ùkrk vU;ksU;rkÞ dk vk;q development stage "Heteronomy lewg D;k gS \ Reciprocity" given by Jean Piaget ? (1) 0 ls 5 o"kZ (1) 0 to 5 years (2) 13 ls 18 o"kZ (2) 13 to 18 years (3) 5 ls 8 o"kZ (3) 5 to 8 years (4) 11 ls 13 o"kZ (4) 11 to 13 years

23. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vf/kxe v{ke 23. Which of the following is not the ckydksa dk y{k.k ughaughaugha gS \ characteristic of Learning Disabled Children ? (1) izR;{khdj.k izHkkfork (1) Perceptual effectiveness (2) lkaosfxd vfLFkjrk (2) Emotional instability (3) vO;ofLFkr vo/kku (3) Disorder of attention (4) vkosfxrk (4) Impulsivity 24. xaHkhj ekufld eanrk okys ckydksa dh cqf) 24. What is the I.Q. Range of severe yfC/k D;k gksrh gS \ mental retarded child ? (1) 50 ls 60 (1) 50 to 60 (2) 36 ls 51 (2) 36 to 51 (3) 20 ls 35 (3) 20 to 35 (4) 20 ls uhps (4) below 20 Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 8 ] 25. fodkl dh dkSu&lh voLFkk esa leku 25. In which stage of development, fyafx;ksa ds lkFk #fp@fe=rk fodflr gksrh interest/friendship develops towards gS \ same sexual groups ? (1) 12 ls 14 o"kZ (2) 15 ls 18 o"kZ (1) 12 to 14 years (2) 15 to 18 years (3) 10 ls 12 o"kZ (4) 19 ls 21 o"kZ (3) 10 to 12 years (4) 19 to 21 years

26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu &lk ;FkkFkZoknh 26. Which of the following is not the fpUru dk izdkj ughaughaugha gS \ type of Realistic thinking ? (1) vfHklkjh fpUru (1) Convergent thinking (2) l`tukRed fpUru (2) Creative thinking (3) vkykspukRed fpUru (3) Evaluative thinking (4) Loyhu fpUru (4) Autistic thinking

27. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksoSKkfud 27. Out of the following which ^ekuorkoknh euksfoKku* dk leFkZd ughaughaugha psychologist was not supporter of gS \ 'Humanist Psychology' ? (1) Ýk;M (2) eSLyks (1) Freud (2) Maslow (3) jkstlZ (4) vkFkZj dkSEc~l (3) Rogers (4) Arthur Combs 28. ^lajpukokn* ds izorZd dkSu Fks \ 28. Who was the propounder of 'structuralism' ? (1) fofy;e tsEl (1) William James (2) fofy;e osLV (2) William West (3) foYgse oq.V (3) Wilhelm Wundt (4) foYgse g.V (4) Wilhelm Hunt 29. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rÙo ^vfHkizsj.kk 29. Which of the following component pØ* ls lacaf/kr ughaughaugha gS \ is not related with the 'Motivation Cycle' ? (1) vko';drk (2) vUruksZn (1) Need (2) Drive (3) laosx (4) izksRlkgu (3) Emotion (4) Incentive 30. ^Hk; dk laosx* fdl ewy izo`fÙk ls tqM+k 30. The 'emotion of fear' associated with gqvk gS \ which basic instinct ? (1) izfrd"kZ.k (1) Repulsion (2) ;q;qRlk (2) Pugnacity (3) 'kj.kkxr (3) Appeal (4) iyk;u (4) Escape

Level-2/8109 [ 9 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – II / PART – II Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH) [ fgUnh / HINDI ] funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A

31. fdl okD; eas laca/klwpd vO;; dk iz;ksx 35. xyrxyrxyr lekl foxzg pqfu, % gqvk gS \ (1) nwj ds fy, n'kZu ¾ nwjn'kZu (1) jk/kk Åij ukprh gSA (2) nwj ls vkxr ¾ nwjkxr (2) vfurk jk/kk ls e/kqj xkrh gSA (3) ikB ds fy, 'kkyk ¾ ikB'kkyk (3) jke cgqr rst+ py jgk FkkA (4) lHkk ds fy, e.Mi ¾ lHkke.Mi (4) eksgu vktdy T+;knk cksyrk gSA 36. uke/kkrq fØ;k ughaughaugha gS % 32. ^vd* izR;; ;qDr in ugha gS % ughaugha (1) yfr;kuk (1) fo/kk;d (2) ltkuk (2) izsjd (3) >qBykuk (3) fuand (4) xfy;kuk (4) yM+kd 37. o.kksZPpkj.k dh n`f"V ls csesycsesycsesy pqfu, % 33. fdl fodYi eas fuR; iqafYyax laKk gS \ (1) vks] vkS & daBks"B (1) [kjxks'k (2) o] Q ð & nUrks"B (2) fxygjh (3) n] /k & rkyq (3) cVsj (4) B] M & ew/kkZ (4) dks;y 38. fdl fodYi eas ^vuq* milxZ dk iz;ksx ughaughaugha 34. lekl foxzg dh n`f"V ls vuqfpr fodYi vuqfpr gqvk gS \ pqfu, % (1) vuqLokj (1) ekr`HkfDr ¾ ekrk ds fy, HkfDr (2) (2) okXohj ¾ okd~ ¼ok.kh½ esa ohj vuq"kax (3) bfUnz;t; ¾ bfUnz;ksa ds fy, t; (3) vuqnkj (4) thon;k ¾ thoksa ij n;k (4) vuq'kkfLr Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 10 ]

39. okrZfud n`f"V ls v'kq) 'kCn pqfu, % 43. laf/k foPNsn dh n`f"V ls vlaxr pqfu, % (1) frjiu (1) Qf.k $ bUnz ¾ Q.khUnz (2) vtekb'k (2) lq/kh $ bUnz ¾ lq/khUnz (3) vUR;k{kjh (3) vfHk $ b"V ¾ vHkh"V (4) fNidyh (4) jtuh $ bZ'k ¾ jtuh'k

40. vfu'p;okpd loZuke okyk okD; pqfu, % 44. ßVgyuk LokLF; ds fy, ykHkdkjh gSAÞ okD; eas iz;qDr fØ;k gS % (1) eSa dqN iqLrdsa yk;k gw¡] bUgsa rqe j[k yksA (1) izsj.kkFkZd fØ;k (2) nky eas dqN dkyk gSA (2) la;qDr fØ;k (3) dsoy ogh rqEgkjh iz'kalk dj ldrk (3) jatd fØ;k gSA (4) fØ;kFkZd laKk (4) og pkgrk gS fd rqe lnSo vkxs c<+ksA 45. izR;; dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, % 41. ^lq* milxZ&jfgr in pqfu, % (1) gFk $ vkSM+h ¾ gFkkSM+h (1) lq"kqfIr (2) v.kq $ bd ¾ vk.kfod (2) LoLFk (3) lk¡i $ vksyk ¾ l¡iksyk (3) LoYi (4) Hkk¡x $ ,M+h ¾ Hk¡xsM+h (4) lkS"Bo

42. fdl 'kCn eas O;atu lfU/k dk iz;ksx gqvk gS \ (1) okxh'oj (2) /kkrw"ek (3) v/ke.kZ (4) iw.kksZiek

Level-2/8109 [ 11 ] [ A ] [ vaxzsth / ENGLISH ] Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Choose the part of the sentence 50. Choose the correct tense form : which is incorrect : Nanny died last week. She ...... His new film is really worth from cancer for some time. (suffer) a b c to be seen. (1) suffering d (1) a (2) b (2) is suffering (3) c (4) d (3) had been suffering

47. Select the appropriate modal for the (4) suffers expression given : When ...... we expect you ? 51. Select the appropriate modal for the (possibility) expression given : (1) may (2) will If you do that again you ...... be (3) have to (4) dare punished. (threat)

48. Select the correct option (phrasal (1) may verb) for the underlined word : (2) shall Most of the patients respect Dr. John (3) can for his kindness. (1) pay back (2) zest for (4) ought (3) make over (4) look up to 52. Choose the correct option for the following : 49. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined words : An instrument for detecting The baby monkeys ran every which earthquakes is : way . (1) A Fathometer (1) up (2) Lithoscope (2) straight (3) in different directions (3) A Seismograph (4) down (4) Cardiograph

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 12 ]

53. Choose the correct meaning of the 57. Choose the correct tense form : underlined words : My car ...... for the third time since It's a pity you don’t like football. But I got it. (break down) each to their own . (1) break down (1) everyone has different opinions (2) has broken down (2) everyone has similar opinions (3) each and all are same (3) was broke down (4) each one likes football (4) has broken

54. Choose the correct option to fill the 58. Choose the part of the sentence blank : which is incorrect : Immediately after the operation he James is busy to prepare could see nothing ...... vague a b c shadows. tonight's dinner. (1) as long as d (2) however (1) a (2) b (3) but (3) c (4) d (4) notwithstanding 59. Choose the correct option to fill the blank : 55. Select the correct option (phrasal verb) for the underlined word : The room was empty ...... for a chair I don't know how we are going to in the corner. cope with the cold during winters. (1) except (1) make up for (2) and (2) put up with (3) put down (3) between (4) set up (4) behind

56. Select appropriate preposition to fill 60. Select appropriate preposition to fill in the blank : in the blank : They walked ...... the footpath The programme was broadcasted ...... until they came to a bridge. the world. (1) into (2) since (1) in (2) off (3) along (4) in (3) onto (4) across

Level-2/8109 [ 13 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – III / PART – III lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES [ ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS ] funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 61. ik¡p O;fDr;ksa P, Q, R, S vkSj T esa] T, R 61. Among five persons P, Q, R, S and vkSj S ls NksVk gSA Q, T ftruk yEck T, T is shorter than R and S. Q is not ugha gS] ysfdu ,d O;fDr ls yEck gSA R as tall as T but taller than one ,d O;fDr ls NksVk gSA buesa ls dkSu lcls person. R is shorter than one person. yEck gS \ Who among them is the tallest ? (1) R (2) Q (1) R (2) Q (3) S (4) P (3) S (4) P 62. rhu la[;k,¡ 2 : 3 : 4 ds vuqikr esa gSaA 62. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. muds ?kuksa dk ;ksx 33957 gks] rks la[;k,¡ The sum of their cubes is 33957, gSa % then the numbers are : (1) 14, 21, 28 (2) 12, 18, 24 (1) 14, 21, 28 (2) 12, 18, 24 (3) 8, 12, 16 (4) 4, 6, 8 (3) 8, 12, 16 (4) 4, 6, 8 63. A, X dk firk gS( B, Y dh ekrk gSA X 63. A is father of X; B is mother of Y. vkSj Z dh cgu Y gSA fuEu esa ls The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of dkSu&lk dFku vko';d :i ls lR; ughaughaugha the following statement is gS \ necessarily not true ? (1) B, Z dh ekrk gSA (1) B is the mother of Z. (2) X, Z dh cgu gSA (2) X is the sister of Z. (3) B, A dh iRuh gSA (3) B is the wife of A. (4) Y, A dk iq= gSA (4) Y is the son of A. 64. ,d O;fDr iwoZ dh vksj 1 fdeh pyrk gS] 64. A person walks 1 km towards East fQj og nf{k.k fn'kk esa eqM+dj 5 fdeh and then he turns to South and walks pyrk gSA fQj og iwoZ fn'kk eas eqM+dj 2 5 km. Again he turns to East and fdeh pyrk gS] mlds ckn og mÙkj fn'kk walks 2 km, after this he turns to esa eqM+dj 9 fdeh pyrk gSA vc og North and walks 9 km. Now, how far izkjfEHkd fcUnq ls fdruh nwj [kM+k gS \ is he from his starting point ? (1) 4 fdeh (2) 5 fdeh (1) 4 km (2) 5 km (3) 7 fdeh (4) 9 fdeh (3) 7 km (4) 9 km Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 14 ] 65. fuEu o.kZ Js.kh esa vxyk in Kkr dhft, % 65. Find the next term of the following letter series : DHL, PTX, BFJ, ..... DHL, PTX, BFJ, ..... (1) CGK (2) KOS (1) CGK (2) KOS (3) NRV (4) OVZ (3) NRV (4) OVZ 66. 12 iq#"k ,d dk;Z dks iw.kZ djus eas 18 66. 12 men take 18 days to complete a fnu ysrs gSa tcfd 12 fL=;k¡ mlh dk;Z ds job whereas 12 women in 18 days 3 3 18 can complete part of the same job. 4 Hkkx dks fnu eas iw.kZ djrh gSaA mlh 4 10 8 How many days will 10 men and 8 dk;Z dks iq#"k rFkk fL=;k¡ lkFk&lkFk women together take to complete the dk;Z djrs gq, fdrus fnuksa eas iw.kZ djsaxs \ same job ? 1 1 (1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 6 (2) 7 2 2 1 1 (3) 13 (4) 14 (3) 13 (4) 14 2 2 67. ,d xksys dh f=T;k ds nqxquh gksus ij mlds 67. The radius of a sphere is doubled. vk;ru esa fdrus izfr'kr o`f) gksxh \ What percent of its volume is increased ? (1) 200% (2) 450% (1) 200% (2) 450% (3) 550% (4) 700% (3) 550% (4) 700%

68. ,d O;kikjh ,d oLrq dks ` 24 esa csprk gS 68. A dealer sells an article for ` 24 and rFkk oLrq ds ewY; ds cjkcj izfr'kr ykHk gains as much percent as the price of dekrk gS] rks oLrq dk ykxr ewY; gS % the article, then the cost price of the article is : (1) ` 15 (2) ` 17 (1) ` 15 (2) ` 17 (3) ` 18 (4) ` 20 (3) ` 18 (4) ` 20 69. 15 O;fDr;ksa ds ,d lewg eas] 7 fgUnh 69. In a group of 15 people, 7 read i<+rs gSa] 8 vaxzsth i<+rs gSa vkSj 3 dksbZ Hkh Hindi, 8 read English and 3 read Hkk"kk ugha i<+rs gSaA fdrus O;fDr fgUnh none of these language. How many vkSj vaxzsth nksukas i<+rs gSa \ people read Hindi and English both ? (1) 0 (2) 3 (1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

Level-2/8109 [ 15 ] [ A ]

70. ;fn p rFkk q ifjes; la[;k,¡ gSa rFkk 70. If p and q are rational numbers and 3 + 5 3 + 5 = p + q ,5 rks p rFkk q ds = p + q ,5 then value of p 3 − 5 3 − 5 eku gSa % and q are : 2 3 7 2 2 3 7 2 (1) p = ;q = (2) p = ;q = (1) p = ;q = (2) p = ;q = 7 2 2 7 7 2 2 7 7 3 7 7 7 3 7 7 (3) p = ;q = (4) p = ;q = (3) p = ;q = (4) p = ;q = 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 71. ;fn ,d fuf'pr jkf'k dk 3% izfro"kZ C;kt 71. If the compound interest on a certain nj ls nks o"kks± dk pØo`f) C;kt sum for two years at 3% p.a. be 101.50 ` 101.50, then what would be the ` gks] rks mlh jkf'k dk leku simple interest on the same sum for le; ds fy, ljy C;kt fdruk gksxk \ same period ? (1) 50 (2) 100 ` ` (1) ` 50 (2) ` 100 (3) ` 125 (4) ` 147 (3) ` 125 (4) ` 147 72. fuEu o.kZ Js.kh eas yqIryqIryqIr in Kkr dhft, % 72. Find the missing term of the following letter series : A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY (1) LMNO (2) MNO (1) LMNO (2) MNO (3) MNOP (4) NOPQ (3) MNOP (4) NOPQ 73. ,d prqHkqZt dk ,d dks.k 108 ° rFkk 'ks"k 73. One angle of a quadrilateral is 108 ° and the remaining three angles are rhuksa dks.k cjkcj gSaA rhu cjkcj dks.kksa eas equal. Find each of the three equal izR;sd dk eku Kkr dhft, % angles : (1) 63° (2) 74 ° (1) 63 ° (2) 74 ° (3) 84 ° (4) 96 ° (3) 84 ° (4) 96 ° 74. vfer] izdk'k ds if'pe esa gS vkSj lqfer 74. Amit is west to Prakash and North to ds mÙkj esa gSA r#.k] lqfer d s iwoZ dh Sumit. Tarun is in East of Sumit. vksj gSA r#.k] vfer ds lanHkZ ls fdl Tarun is in which direction with fn'kk esa gS \ reference to Amit ? (1) mÙkj -if'pe (1) North-West (2) nf{k.k (2) South (3) nf{k.k -iwoZ (3) South-East (4) mÙkj (4) North

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 16 ] 75. ;fn DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 75. If DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 20, ACCIDENT = 16, rks CAR = ? 20, ACCIDENT = 16, then CAR = ? (1) 3 (2) 6 (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16 (3) 8 (4) 16 76. fuEu Js.kh esa xyrxyrxyr la[;k Kkr dhft, % 76. Find the wrong number in the following series : 69, 55, 26, 13, 5 69, 55, 26, 13, 5 (1) 5 (2) 13 (1) 5 (2) 13 (3) 26 (4) 55 (3) 26 (4) 55 x y z 1 1 1 77. ;fn 2 = 4 = 8 rFkk 77. If 2x = 4y = 8z and + + = ,4 1 1 1 2x 4y 4z + + = ,4 rks x dk eku gS % then the value of is : 2x 4y 4z x 7 7 7 7 (1) (2) (1) (2) 16 17 16 17 7 7 7 7 (3) (4) (3) (4) 19 23 19 23 78. 80 fdeh ;k=k eas ,d jsyxkM+h izFke 60 78. In a journey of 80 kms a train covers the fdeh] 40 fdeh izfr ?kaVk rFkk 'ks"k nwjh 20 first 60 kms at 40 km/hr. and the fdeh izfr ?kaVk dh xfr ls pyrh gSA lEiw.kZ remaining distance at 20 km/hr. The ;k=k dh vkSlr pky gS % average speed for the whole journey is : (1) 24 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (2) 30 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (1) 24 km/hr. (2) 30 km/hr. (3) 32 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (4) 36 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (3) 32 km/hr. (4) 36 km/hr. 79. 30 eh yEcs rj.krky ds ,d fljs ij ikuh 79. A swimming pool, 30 m long has a dh xgjkbZ 0.80 eh rFkk nwljs fljs ij depth of water 0.80 m at one end and 2.4 2.4 m at the other end. The area of eh gSA rj.krky dh yEckbZ ds vuqfn'k the vertical cross-section of the pool Å/okZ/kj dkV ifjPNsn dk {ks=Qy gS % 2 2 along the length is : (1) 48 eh (2) 72 eh (1) 48 m 2 (2) 72 m 2 2 2 2 2 (3) 156 eh (4) 192 eh (3) 156 m (4) 192 m 80. ,d iafDr eas vfuy ck;sa Nksj ls 16 osa 80. Anil is standing at 16th position LFkku ij [kM+k gSA fodkl nk;sa Nksj ls from the left end in a row. Vikas is at 18 18th position from the right end. osa LFkku ij gSA xksiky vfuy ls nk;ha Gopal is 11th from Anil towards the vksj 11 osa LFkku ij gS] vkSj fodkl ls right and 3rd from Vikas towards the nk;ha Nksj dh vksj rhljs LFkku ij gSA bl right end. How many persons are iafDr eas fdrus O;fDr [kM+s gq, gSa \ standing in this row ? (1) 41 (2) 42 (1) 41 (2) 42 (3) 48 (4) 49 (3) 48 (4) 49 Level-2/8109 [ 17 ] [ A ] 81. fuEufyf[kr esa ls gkQsM (HAFED) ds 81. Which of the following are true ckjs eas dkSu&lk lghlghlgh gS \ about the functions of HAFED ? (i) ;g Ñf"k mRiknkas dk laxzg djrk gSA (i) It procures agriculture products. (ii) ;g Ñf"k mRiknkas dk foi.ku djrk gSA (ii) It markets agriculture products. (iii) ;g Ñf"k vknkuksa dh iwfrZ djrk gSA (iii) It supplies agriculture inputs. lghlghlgh dwV dk p;u dhft, % Choose the correct code : (1) (i) vkSj (ii) (1) (i) and (ii) (2) dsoy (i) (2) only (i) (3) (i) vkSj (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) 82. gfj;k.kk esa dgk¡ ^uxj&ou* fodflr fd;k 82. Where in 'City-forest' is tk jgk gS \ being developed ? (1) eqjFky (2) lksguk (1) Murthal (2) (3) ;equkuxj (4) gk¡lh (3) Yamunanagar (4) Hansi 83. ^,;j 'kVy lsok* dh 'kq#vkr gfj;k.kk ds 83. 'Air Shuttle Service' has been started fdl 'kgj esa dh xbZ gS \ from which city of Haryana ? (1) fglkj (2) djuky (1) (2) (3) jksgrd (4) vEckyk (3) (4) Ambala 84. ^gfj;k.kk lkfgR; vdkneh* ds v/;{k gSa % 84. The President of 'Haryana Sahitya (1) Academy' is : MkW0 dqeqn caly (1) Dr. Kumud Bansal (2) Jh euksgj yky (2) Sh. Manohar Lal (3) MkW0 v'kksd c=k (3) Dr. Ashok Batra (4) Jh jk.kk vkscjk; (4) Sh. Rana Oberoi 85. feUVh vxzoky ds ckjs esa fuEukafdr dFkuksa 85. Consider the following statements ij fopkj dhft, % about Minty Agarwal : ¼v½ gfj;k.kk dh ewy fuoklh feUVh vxzoky (a) Minty Agarwal, a native of Hkkjrh; ok;q lsuk eas LDokMªu y hMj Haryana, is a Squadron Leader gSaA in . ¼c½ og ;q) lsok esMy izkIr djus okyh (b) She is the first woman, who igyh efgyk gSaA received Yudha Seva Medal. lghlghlgh mÙkj pqus % Choose the correct answer : (1) dFku ¼v½ lgh gS (1) Statement (a) is true (2) dFku ¼c½ lgh gS (2) Statement (b) is true (3) ¼v½ vkSj ¼c½ nksuksa xyr gSa (3) Both (a) and (b) are false (4) ¼v½ vkSj ¼c½ nksuksa lgh gSa (4) Both (a) and (b) are true

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 18 ] 86. izkphu Hkokuh vack ekrk efUnj vofLFkr 86. Ancient Bhawani Amba Mata temple gS % is situated in : (1) than esa (2) vEckyk esa (1) Jind (2) Ambala (3) lksuhir esa (4) dq#{ks= eas (3) Sonipat (4) 87. tuojh 2020 eas] v/kksfy f[kr eas ls 87. In January 2020, which of the dkSu&lh uxjikfydk dks uxj ifj"kn ds following Nagar Palika was raised to Lrj ij ØeksUur fd;k x;k \ the status of Nagar Parishad (Municipal Council) ? (1) jfu;k (2) >Ttj (1) Rania (2) Jhajjar (3) csjh (4) fljlh (3) Beri (4) Sirsi 88. 1857 ds fonzksg ds le; >Ttj dk uokc 88. Who was the Nawab of Jhajjar dkSu Fkk \ during the uprising of 1857 ? (1) vCnqjZgeku [kk¡ (1) Abd-ur Rahman Khan (2) uokc 'kelqíhu (2) Nawab Shamsuddin (3) ln#íhu (3) Sadruddin (4) fclkjr vyh (4) Bisarat Ali 89. v'kksd ds Vksijk vfHkys[k dk ewy izkfIr 89. The original founding place of LFkku vofLFkr gS % Topara Inscription of Ashoka is located in : (1) vEckyk ftys eas (1) (2) ;equkuxj ftys eas (2) (3) dq#{ks= ftys eas (3) (4) dSFky ftys eas (4) 90. egsUnzx<+ ftys ls cgus okyh ufn;ksa dks 90. Identify the rivers, which flows from igpkfu;s % : (i) vacqefr (ii) nksgu (i) Ambumati (ii) Dohan (iii) dlkoVh (iv) bUnkSjh (iii) Kasavati (iv) Indori lghlghlgh dwV dk p;u dhft, % Choose the correct code : (1) (i) vkSj (iii) (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) vkSj (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv) (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) vkSj (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Level-2/8109 [ 19 ] [ A ] HkkxHkkxHkkx – IV / PART – IV laxhr / MUSIC funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. vehj [kqljkss ds ledkyhu Hkkjrh; laxhrK 91. Who was the contemporary Indian dkSu Fks \ musician of Amir Khusrou ? (1) rkulsu (2) cStw ckojk (1) Tansen (2) Baiju Bawra (3) xksiky uk;d (4) uk;d c['kw (3) Gopal Nayak (4) Nayak Bakshu

92. jkx esa ^oknh Loj* ds cnyko Lo:i D;k 92. Change of 'Vadi Swara' in a ifjorZu vkrk gS \ consequently changes which of the following features ? (i) jkx dh tkfr (i) Jati of Raga (ii) jkx dk xk;u le; (ii) Gayan Samay of Raga (iii) jkx dk Lo:i (iii) Nature of Raga (1) (i) vkSj (ii) (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) vkSj (iii) (2) (i) and (iii) (3) (ii) vkSj (iii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

93. fo"ke dk p;u dhft, % 93. Select the odd one : (1) lk & e – 9 Jqfr (1) Sa & ma – 9 shruti (2) js & i – 13 Jqfr (2) Re & Pa – 13 shruti (3) e & lka – 13 Jqfr (3) Ma & Sa a – 13 shruti (4) i & lka – 9 Jqfr (4) Pa & Sa a – 9 shruti

94. dkSu&ls ok| ^ljksn* ds leku vFkok 94. Which instruments are similar to ljksn&ifjokj ds gSa \ '' or belongs to Sarod-family ? (1) flrkj] lqj cgkj (1) , Sur (2) jckc] lqjflaxkj (2) Rabab, Sursingar (3) bljkt] fny#ck (3) Israj, Dilruba (4) lkjaxh] ok;fyu (4) , Violin

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 20 ] 95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ^laxhr jRukdj* ds 95. Who among the following are Vhdkdkj dkSu gSa \ commentators of 'Sangeet Ratnakar' ? (i) nfÙky (ii) dfYyukFk (i) Dattil (ii) Kallinath (iii) vfHkuo xqIr (iv) flag Hkwiky (iii) Abhinav Gupt (iv) Singh Bhupal (1) (ii) rFkk (iv) (1) (ii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) rFkk (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

96. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk lqesfyr ughaughaugha 96. Which of the following is wrongly gS \ matched ? rkyrkyrky [kkyh dk LFkku Place of Khali (1) f=rky & 9 (1) Trital & 9 (2) dgjok & 5 (2) Keherwa & 5 (3) ,drky & 7 (3) Ektal & 7 (4) >irky & 8 (4) Jhaptal & 8

97. eSaMksfyu esa rkjksa dh la[;k gS % 97. The number of wires in Mandolin are : (1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (3) 7 (4) 8

98. ^csyk* ok| fdl ek/;e }kjk ctk;k tkrk 98. 'Bela' instrument is played by which gS \ medium ? (1) dks.k (2) tok (1) Kon (2) Java (3) xt (4) fetjkc (3) Gaj (4) Mijrab

99. Hkjr us ^vyadkjksa* dks fdlds varxZr 99. Under what has Bharat classified the oxhZÑr fd;k gS \ '' ? (1) o.kZ (1) Varna (2) rky (2) Taal (3) jkx (3) Raag (4) ewPNZuk (4) Moorchhna Level-2/8109 [ 21 ] [ A ]

100. jkx ^fcykoy* gS ,d % 100. Rag 'Bilawal' is a : (1) laf/k izdk'k jkx (1) Sandhi Prakash Rag (2) ijesy izos'kd jkx (2) Parmel Praveshak Rag (3) vkJ; jkx (3) Ashray Rag (4) ladh.kZ jkx (4) Sankeern Rag

101. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyrxyrxyr gS \ 101. Which of the following statement is false ? (1) 15 laxhr jRukdj esa xed of.kZr gSaA (1) 15 Gamaks are mentioned in (2) laxhr jRukdj esa 6 dkdq dk mYys[k Sangeet Ratnakar. gSA (2) 6 Kakus are mentioned in Sangeet Ratnakar. (3) laxhr jRukdj esa 12 fod`r Lojksa dk (3) 12 Vikrit Swara are mentioned mYys[k gSA in Sangeet Ratnakar. (4) laxhr jRukdj esa 19 esykas dk mYys[k (4) 19 Mels are mentioned in gSA Sangeet Ratnakar.

102. Hkjr ds ^Jqfr -Loj LFkku* ds vuqlkj 102. Which pair is not matched correctly dkSu -lk ;qXe lqesfyr ughaughaugha gS \ according to 'Shruti-Swar Sthana' of Bharat ? LojLojLoj JqfrJqfrJqfr Swar Shruti (1) js & 7 (1) Re – 7 (2) e & 13 (2) Ma – 13 (3) i & 15 (3) Pa – 15 (4) /k & 20 (4) Dha – 20

103. ia0 Hkkr[k.Ms dh 10 FkkV O;oLFkk esa % 103. In the 10 Thaat system of Pt. Bhatkhande : dFku % (A) fdlh Loj ds 'kq) vkSj foÑr Hksnksa esa ls fdlh ,d dk gh iz;ksx gSA Statement : (A) Shuddh or Vikrit, only one distinction of swar is used. (R) iwokZax ds izR;sd Loj dk e/;e ;k (R) Ma or Pa Samvadi swar of every iape laoknh Loj mÙkjkax esa vo'; gSA Purvang swar is definitely in Uttarang. (1) (A) (R) lR; rFkk vlR; gS (1) (A) is true and (R) is false (2) (A) vlR; rFkk (R) lR; gS (2) (A) is false and (R) is true (3) (A) rFkk (R) nksuksa lR; gSa (3) (A) and (R) both are true (4) (A) rFkk (R) nksuksa vlR; gSa (4) (A) and (R) both are false

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 22 ]

104. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft, % 104. Match the following : (A) ia0 Hkkr[kaMs (i) laxhr ikfjtkr (A) Pt. Bhatkhande (i) Sangeet Parijat (B) Hkjr (ii) laxhr jRukdj (B) Bharat (ii) Sangeet Ratnakar (C) Ahobal (iii) Shrimallakshya (C) (iii) vgkscy Jh eYy{;laxhr Sangeet (D) (iv) 'kkjaxnso ukV~;'kkL= (D) Sharangdev (iv) Natyashashtra (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

105. fn, x, cksyksa }kjk jpuk dh igpku 105. Identify the composition by given dhft, % 'bols' : frV dr xfn xu /kk ·] frV dr Tit Kat Gadi Gan Dha ·, Tit Kat × 2 × 2

xfn xu /kk · frV dr xfn xu /kk Gadi Gan Dha · Tit Kat Gadi Gan Dha 0 3 × 0 3 × (1) dk;nk (2) frgkbZ (1) Kaida (2) Tihai (3) is'kdkj (4) jsyk (3) Peshkar (4) Rela

106. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ok| eas eq[; rkjksa 106. Which of the following instrument has dh la[;k fHkUu gS \ different number of main strings ? (1) ok;fyu (2) rkuiwjk (1) Violin (2) Tanpura (3) bljkt (4) ljksn (3) Israj (4) Sarod

107. iyqLdj Lojfyfi eas ^ * fpg~u D;k 107. Sign ' ' is depicted in Paluskar n'kkZrk gS \ notation for : (1) 1/2 ek=k (2) 1/4 ek=k (1) 1/2 Beat (2) 1/4 Beat (3) 1/8 ek=k (4) 1 ek=k (3) 1/8 Beat (4) 1 Beat

Level-2/8109 [ 23 ] [ A ]

108. jkx nsl rFkk o`ankouh lkjax eas D;k leku 108. What is similar in Rag Des and gS \ Vrindavani Sarang ? (1) FkkV (2) tkfr (1) Thaat (2) Jati (3) oknh&laoknh (4) xk;u le; (3) Vadi-Samvadi (4) Gayan Samay

109. ^vfHku; niZ.k* xzaFk ds ys[kd dkSu gSa \ 109. Who is the author of treatise – 'Abhinay Darpan' ? (1) ukU;nso (2) ik'oZnso (1) Nanyadev (2) Parshwdev (3) ufUnds'oj (4) nkeksnj (3) Nandikeshwar (4) Damodar

110. jkx esa ^frjksHkko* ds iz;ksx dk fuEufyf[kr 110. 'Tirobhav' in a Raga is meant for esa ls D;k vFkZ gS \ which of the following ? (1) vkyki ,oa rku }kjk jkx dk foLrkj (1) Using for development of Raga djukA by Alap and Taan. (2) Using for the 'Patakshar' in (2) ^/kzqin* xhr 'kSyh esa ^ikVk{kjkas* dk '' Composition. iz;ksx djukA (3) Using the swara of other Raga (3) jkx foLrkj eas eq[; jkx ds Lojkas dks during improvisation for hiding vU; jkx ds Lojksa }kjk fNikukA main Raga. (4) Loj] fo#n] rsud] ikV] rky dk (4) For the proper use of Swar, mfpr iz;ksxA Virud, Tenak, Paat and Taal. 111. 'kq) Loj O;oLFkk 1, 5, 8, 10, 14, 18, 21 111. Shruti order, 1, 5, 8, 10, 14, 18, 21 ds Jqfr Øe ij] fdl dky dks n'kkZrh gS \ Shuddh swara arrangement represent which period ? (1) e/;dky (2) izkphu (1) Medieval (2) Ancient (3) iqjk,sfrgkfld (4) vk/kqfud (3) Prehistoric (4) Modern

112. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lqesfyr 112. Identify the pair which is not ughaughaugha gS \ correct : (1) V. Satyanarayan Sharma – (1) oh0 lR;ukjk;.k 'kekZ & dqfpiqM+h Kuchipudi (2) xq# fofiu flag & ef.kiqjh (2) Guru Vipin Singh – Manipuri (3) Kumudini Lakhiya – (3) dqeqfnuh yf[k;k & HkjrukV~;e~ Bharatanatyam (4) flrkjk nsoh & dFkd (4) Sitara Devi – Kathak Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 24 ]

113. fuEufyf[kr esa ls e/;e xzke dh tkfr dk 113. Select the 'Jati' of Madhyam Gram in p;u dhft, % the following : (1) "kM~t e/;ek (1) Shadaj madhyama (2) e/;eksnhP;ok (2) Madhyamodeechhyva (3) /kSorh (3) Dhaivati (4) "kM~tdSf'kdh (4) Shadaj Kaishiki

114. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ia0 fo0 fn0 iyqLdj 114. Which of the following books were }kjk fyf[kr iqLrdkas dk p;u dhft, % written by Pt. V. D. Paluskar ? (i) laxhr cky cks/k (i) Sangeet Bal Bodh (ii) vkJe Hktukoyh (ii) Ashram Bhajanavali (iii) laxhr rRo n'kZd (iii) Sangeet Tatva Darshak (1) (i) ,oa (ii) (2) (ii) ,oa (iii) (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) ,oa (iii) (4) (i), (ii) ,oa (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

115. ß, 'kkWVZ fgLVksfjdy losZ vkWQ n E;qftd 115. "A Short Historical Survey of the vkWQ vij bafM;kÞ] fdl fo}ku ds fopkjksa Music of Upper " is a collection dk laxzg gS \ of thoughts of which scholar ? (1) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj (1) Ravindranath Tagore (2) ia0 jfo'kadj (2) Pt. Ravi Shankar (3) fo0 uk0 Hkkr[k.Ms (3) V. N. Bhatkhande (4) fo0 fn0 iyqLdj (4) V. D. Paluskar

116. fuEufyf[kr eas ls ^la;qDr gLr&eqnzk* dk 116. Identify the 'Samyukt hast-mudra' in p;u dhft, % the following : (1) f=irkdk (2) vatfy (1) Tripataka (2) Anjali (3) f'k[kj (4) panzdyk (3) Shikhara (4) Chandrakala

117. fdlh ^FkkV* ls ^vkSMo&vkSMo tkfr* dh 117. How many 'Audav-Audav Jati' Raga vf/kdre fdruh jkxsa laHko gSa \ are possible from a 'Thaat' ? (1) 36 (2) 15 (1) 36 (2) 15 (3) 90 (4) 225 (3) 90 (4) 225

Level-2/8109 [ 25 ] [ A ] 118. le; fl)kUr ds vuqlkj fnu rFkk jkf= ds 118. According to the Time theory, which 'Thaats Raga are sung in the izFke izgj esa fdu FkkV dh jkxsa xkbZ tkrh gSa \ 'Pratham Prahar' of Day and Night ? (1) fcykoy] dY;k.k (1) Bilawal, (2) dkQh] vklkojh (2) , Asawari (3) HkSjo] HkSjoh (3) , Bhairvi (4) ekjok] iwohZ (4) , 119. jfoUnzukFk VSxksj us fdl u`R; 'kSyh dks 119. Ravindranath Tagore has done important work to popularize which yksdfiz; cukus gsrq egÙoiw.kZ dk;Z fd;k gS \ dance form ? (1) (2) dFkd ef.kiqjh (1) Kathak (2) Manipuri (3) HkjrukV~;e~ (4) dqfpiqM+h (3) Bharatanatyam (4) Kuchipudi 120. Hkkjr eas ^vk/kqfud u`R; 'kSyh* ds vk/kkj 120. Who among of the following is not in the pillars of 'modern dance style' LraHkksa esa dkSu ughaughaugha gSa \ in India ? (1) mn; 'kadj (1) Udai Shankar (2) pØ/kj flag (2) Chakradhar Singh (3) xq# xksihukFk (3) Guru Gopinath (4) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj (4) Ravindranath Tagore 121. ^vksfj,UVy u`R; 'kSyh* ds vkfo"drkZ dkSu gSa \ 121. Who is the creator of 'Oriental Dance (1) Style' ? #fDe.kh nsoh (1) Rukmini Devi (2) dsyqpj.k egkik= (2) Kelucharan Mahapatra (3) mn;'kadj (3) Udai Shankar (4) oYyFkksy (4) Vallathol 122. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft, % 122. Match the following : (A) egkjh & (i) dFkd (A) Mahari & (i) Kathak (B) uVojh & (ii) HkjrukV~;e~ (B) Natwari & (ii) Bharatanatyam (C) ykbZ gjksck & (iii) vksfMlh (C) Lai Haroba & (iii)Odissi (D) nsonklhvêe & (iv) ef.kiqjh (D) Devdasiattam & (iv)Manipuri dwV % Code %%% (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 26 ]

123. HkjrukV~;e~ esa dkSu -lk ^rky ok|* iz;qDr 123. Which percussion instrument is used gksrk gS \ in Bharatanatyam ? (1) i[kkot (2) e`naxe~ (1) Pakhawaj (2) Mridangam (3) iqax pksykse (4) rcyk (3) Pung cholom (4) Tabla

124. fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ dhft, % 124. Fill in the blanks : Angikam Bhuvnam Yasya vkafxda Hkqoua ;L; okfpda loZok³~e;e~A Vachikam Sarvwangmayam A ------panzrkjkfn ra uqe% ------f'koe~AA ……….. Chandrtaradi tam numah ……….. Shivam AA (1) xhra ok|a] u`R;a (1) Geetam Vadyam, Nrityam (2) rkaMoa] ykL;a (2) Tandavam, Lasyam (3) ukV~;a] u`R;a (3) Natyam, Nrityam (4) vgk;Za] lkfRoda (4) Aharyam, Satwikam 125. ßik;ks th eSaus jke jru /ku ik;ks ...... Þ 125. "Payo ji maine Ram ratan dhan payo ...... " is composition of : fdldh jpuk gS \ (1) rqylhnkl (2) lwjnkl (1) Tulsidas (2) Surdas (3) ehjk (4) jl[kku (3) Meera (4) Raskhan 126. 'kkjaxnso }kjk fd, x,] izca/k ds lgh 126. Identify the correct classification of oxhZdj.k dks igpkfu, % 'Prabandhas' according to Sharangdev : (1) lwM] vkfyØe] foizdh.kZ (1) Sood, Aalikram, Viprakirna (2) /kzqok] uSf"Øfedh] izkosf'kdh (2) Dhruva, Neshkrimiki, Praveshiki (3) ns'kh] ekxhZ] ekr`dk (3) Deshi, Margi, Matrika (4) ekx/kh] v)Zekx/kh] i`Fkqyk (4) Magdhi, Ardhmagdhi, Prithula 127. rkuiwjs dk dkSu -lk Hkkx ydM+h ls fufeZr 127. Which part of Tanpura is made of gS \ wood ? (1) vVh (2) tokjh (1) Ati (2) Jawari (3) rkjxgu (4) xqyq (3) Targahan (4) Gulu 128. fdl jkx tksM+h ds ^oknh* Loj leku ughaughaugha 128. Which pair of Raga does not have gSa \ the similar 'Vadi' swar ? (1) fcgkx & ;eu (1) - (2) nsl & o`ankouh (2) Des - Vrindavani (3) gehj & fcykoy (3) Hamir - Bilawal (4) nqxkZ & Hkwikyh (4) - Bhupali

Level-2/8109 [ 27 ] [ A ]

129. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu jkxksa dh jpuk 129. Which of the following were vehj [kqljks }kjk dh xbZ \ created by Amir Khusrou ? (i) ljijnk (ii) lkt+fxjh (i) Sarparda (ii) Saajgiri (iii) vklkojh (iv) fcykoy (iii) Asawari (iv) Bilawal (1) dsoy (i) rFkk (ii) (1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) dsoy (iii) rFkk (iv) (2) Only (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

130. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fodYi gsrq lkr 130. Which of the following options does Loj vko';d ughaughaugha gSa \ not require Seven swara ? (1) xzke (1) Gram (2) ewPNZuk (2) Moorchhna (3) FkkV (3) Thaat (4) jkx (4) Rag

131. ^FkkV* dh jpuk gsrq vko';d gS % 131. What is required for the structure of 'Thaat' ? (1) dsoy vojksg (1) Only Avroh (2) dsoy vkjksg (2) Only Aroh (3) vkyki (3) Alap (4) vkjksg -vojksg nksuksa (4) Aroh-Avroh both

132. ^Jqfr* dh lkFkZdrk fdlesa fufgr gksrh gS \ 132. Meaning of 'Shruti' is embedded in : (1) Loj esa (2) y; eas (1) Swar (2) Laya (3) rky esa (4) FkkV esa (3) Taal (4) Thaat

133. Hkkr[k.Ms Lojfyfi ds vuqlkj ^lk js x e* 133. According to Bhatkhande notation n'kkZrk gS % 'Sa Re Ga Ma' depicts : (1) e dh ,d ek=k (1) One beat of Ma 3 3 (2) (2) beat of Ma e dh 4 ek=k 4 1 1 (3) (3) beat of Ma e dh 2 ek=k 2 1 1 (4) (4) beat of Ma e dh 4 ek=k 4

Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 28 ]

134. ^ukV~;'kkL=* ds fdl v/;k; esa ^dkdq* dh 134. 'Kaku' is illustrated in which chapter O;k[;k gS \ of 'Natyashastra' ? (1) 17 (2) 21 (1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 31 (4) 33 (3) 31 (4) 33

135. laxhr jRukdj dk dkSu&lk v/;k; 135. Which chapter of Sangeet Ratnakar ^u`R;k/;k;* gS \ is 'Nrityadhyay' ? (1) 5ok¡ (2) 7ok¡ (1) 5th (2) 7th (3) 2jk (4) 3jk (3) 2nd (4) 3rd

136. fdl rky ds ,d lai w.kZ vkorZu esa] ,drky 136. In a complete cycle of which Taal, ds ,d vkorZu dh frxqu rFkk f=rky ds the Tigun of Ektal and Chaugun of ,d vkorZu dh pkSxqu dh tk ldrh gS \ Trital's one cycle can be possible ? (1) nknjk (2) dgjok (1) (2) Keherwa (3) >irky (4) f=rky (3) Jhaptal (4) Trital

137. ^[k;ky* esa dkSu -lh rky dk iz;ksx ughaughaugha 137. Which Taal is not used in 'Khayal' ? gksrk gS \ (1) fryokM+k (2) ,drky (1) Tilwada (2) Ektal (3) lwyrky (4) >irky (3) Sooltal (4) Jhaptal

138. fdl FkkV ds iwokZax ¼lk js x e½ rFkk 138. The distance between the swara of mÙkjkax ¼i /k uh lka½ ds Lojksa esa leku Purvang (Sa Re Ga Ma) and varjky gS \ Uttarang (Pa Dha Ni Saa) are equal in which Thaat ? (1) iwohZ (2) dkQh (1) Purvi (2) Kafi (3) vklkojh (4) ekjok (3) (4) Marva

139. nh xbZ Lojfyfi }kjk jk"Vªxku dh iafDr 139. Identify the line of the National igpkfu, % Anthem by given Notation : ßlklk jsjs xx jsx | e---Þ "SaSa ReRe GaGa ReGa | Ma..." (1) ro 'kqHk ukes tk& | xs--- (1) Tava Subh Name Ja- | Ge... (2) Hkk jr Hkk X;fo | /kk&rk& (2) Bha Rat Bha Gyavi | Dha-Ta- (3) xkgs ro t; xk& | Fkk--- (3) Gahe Tava Jaya Ga- | Tha... (4) t; t; t; t; | gs--- (4) Jaya Jaya Jaya Jaye | He...

Level-2/8109 [ 29 ] [ A ]

140. lqesfyr dhft, % 140. Match the following : ?kjkuk izfrfuf/k Exponent (A) t;iqj (i) lq[knso feJ (A) Jaipur (i) Sukhdev Mishra (B) jk;x<+ (ii) Bkdqj izlkn (B) Raigarh (ii) Thakur Prasad (C) y[kuÅ (iii) pØ/kj flag (C) Lucknow (iii) Chakradhar Singh (D) cukjl (iv) lqanj izlkn (D) Banaras (iv) Sunder Prasad (1) (A)-iv, (B)-iii, (C)-ii, (D)-i (1) (A)-iv, (B)-iii, (C)-ii, (D)-i (2) (A)-i, (B)-ii, (C)-iii, (D)-iv (2) (A)-i, (B)-ii, (C)-iii, (D)-iv (3) (A)-ii, (B)-i, (C)-iv, (D)-iii (3) (A)-ii, (B)-i, (C)-iv, (D)-iii (4) (A)-iii, (B)-iv, (C)-ii, (D)-i (4) (A)-iii, (B)-iv, (C)-ii, (D)-i

141. erax eqfu us loZizFke fdl oh.kk ij 141. Matang muni was first established ^ijnksa* dh LFkkiuk dh \ frets on which veena ? (1) fp=k (2) fdUujh (1) Chitra (2) Kinnari (3) foiaph (4) ifjokfnuh (3) Vipanchi (4) Parivadini

142. fgUnqLr kuh laxhr i)fr dk ^'kq)&Loj& 142. Which is the 'Shuddh-Swar-' lIrd* dkSu&lk gS \ of Hindustani Music system ? (1) eq[kkjh (2) dudkaxh (1) Mukhari (2) Kankangi (3) fcykoy (4) dkQh (3) Bilawal (4) Kafi

143. fuEufyf[kr eas ls fHkUu dk p;u dhft, % 143. Select the odd one in the following : (1) iqM+h (2) cíh (1) Pudi (2) Baddi (3) fcjkstk (4) xtjk (3) Biroja (4) Gajra

144. fo"ke dk p;u dhft, % 144. Select the odd one : (1) rcyk & is'kdkj (1) Tabla – Peshkar (2) xk;u & xr (2) Vocal – Gat (3) flrkj & >kyk (3) Sitar – Jhala (4) dFkd & vken (4) Kathak – Aamad

145. ^cVq u`R;* fdl 'kSyh dk izkjafHkd pj.k 145. In which dance form, is the initial gS \ stage 'Batu dance' ? (1) vksfMlh (2) dqfpiqM+h (1) Odissi (2) Kuchipudi (3) ef.kiqjh (4) HkjrukV~;e~ (3) Manipuri (4) Bharatanatyam Level-2/8109 P. T. O. [ A ] [ 30 ]

146. ^iwok±xoknh jkx* dk p;u dhft, % 146. Select the 'Purvangvadi Raga' : (1) gehj (1) Hamir (2) fcykoy (2) Bilawal (3) HkSjo (3) Bhairav (4) [kekt (4)

147. ia0 fo".kq fnxacj iyqLdj ds ^xq#* dkSu 147. Who was the 'Guru' of Pt. V. D. Fks \ Paluskar ? (1) HkkLdj cqvk (1) Bhaskar Buwa (2) txUukFk cqvk (2) Jagannath Buwa (3) ckyd`".k cqvk (3) Balkrishna Buwa (4) fuo`fÙk cqvk (4) Nivritti Buwa

148. 148. What is the correct Shruti difference Hkjr ds vuqlkj] "kM~t xzkfed 'kq) Lojkas of given Shadaj Gramik Shuddh dk lghlghlgh JqR;arj D;k gS \ swara according to Bharat ? lk \ js \ x \ e \ i \ /k \ fu \ lka Sa ? Re ? Ga ? Ma ? Pa ? Dha ? Ni ? Sa (1) 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 (2) 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 a (1) 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 (2) 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 (3) 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 (4) 4 3 2 4 3 3 4 (3) 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 (4) 4 3 2 4 3 3 4

149. dkSu&lk leqnk; gfj;k.kk ds yksd laxhr ls 149. Which community is not related lacaf/kr ughaughaugha gS \ with of 'Haryana' ? (1) tksxh (1) Jogi (2) HkkV (2) Bhat (3) lkaxh (3) Saangi (4) ojyh (4) Warli

150. izkr%dkyhu laf/k -izdk'k oxZ esa e/;e Loj 150. The position of Madhyam swar in dh fLFkfr gS % morning Sandhi-Prakash group is : (1) e rhoz (1) Ma Teevra (2) e 'kq) (2) Ma Shuddh (3) e oftZr (3) Ma Varjit (4) e laoknh (4) Ma Samvadi

Level-2/8109 FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy,

6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % darkening complete circle using Black ball point pen as 1  3 4 shown below : 1  3 4 vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below : [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa %         ;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong ekuk tk,xkA answer. 7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsaA (Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Question Booklet for the same.) 8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener (white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.) 9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.) 10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.) 11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xh A (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of Question Booklet will not be provided .) 12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksaA (The candidates should write the correct Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.) 13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA (Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.) 14. i;Zos{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izos’k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.) 15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zos{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA (No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.) 16. dk;Zjr i;Zos{kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH; FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMa+sxsA ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu’kku yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which should be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature. ) 17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.) 18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn’kk&funsZ’k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksaA vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.) 19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsaA (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.) 20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; lkSai nsaA vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSaA (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)