FALL 2014 PRACTICE EXAM #1
(1) A SmartCode Transect:
I. Typically contains seven zones from Rural to Urban II. Is a way of locating and understanding a variety of different types of human settlement within a comprehensive web of natural and human habitats III. Has a historical linkage to Geddes’ Valley Section IV. Has its origins in Howards’ Garden Cities concept
(A) I, III (B) I, IV (C) II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C)
The concept of the transect was borrowed from ecology.
Patrick Geddes, in his above “Valley Section” of the early 20th century was among the first to proclaim that human settlement should be analyzed in the context of its natural region. To systemize the analysis and coding of traditional patterns, a prototypical American rural-to-urban SmartCode transect has been divided into six Transect Zones, or T-zones (below), for application on zoning maps.
SEE: http://www.transect.org/transect.html & http://www.transect.org/natural_img.html
(2) Among the leading American "advocate planners" of the late 1960's was?
(A) Paul Davidoff. (B) Jane Jacobs. (C) Henry George. (D) T. J. Kent, Jr.
The correct answer is “A”
Paul Davidoff (1930-1984) founded the Suburban Action Institute in 1969. The institute challenged exclusionary zoning in the courts, winning a notable success in the Mt. Laurel case. This led to the requirement by the state supreme court of New Jersey that communities must supply their "regional fair share" of low-income housing. Davidoff developed the concept of "advocacy planner" where a planner serves a given client group's interests and should do so openly; a planner could develop plans for a particular project and speak for interests of the group or individuals affected by these plans.
(3) Compact fluorescent lights (CFL) can last up to how many times as long as a standard incandescent light?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 10
The correct answer is “D”
Compact fluorescents are an efficient form of lighting; CFL bulbs use one-quarter to one- third as much electricity to give the same light output as a standard incandescent bulb while creating much less heat, and last up to 10 times as long as a standard incandescent light (10,000 vs. 1,000 hours). LEDs (Light emitting diodes) last more than 6 times longer than CFLs and use about half the energy.
(4) As part of a comprehensive planning program, which of the following is the best way to solicit citizen input?
I. Publish information in local newspapers. II. Contact neighborhood group leaders. III. Organize a citizens committee. IV. Run announcements on public television.
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I, II and III
The answer is “B”.
The best way to give citizens the opportunity to have meaningful input on the development of plans and programs is to directly involve people in the planning process.
(5) What do you call a situation where you need to build consensus around an issue that is ill defined and has no alternatives?
(A) Feedback (B) Wicked problem (C) Trial balloon (D) Ethical dilemma
The correct answer is (B)
Planning for climate change is an example of a “wicked problem” - a problem that is difficult or impossible to solve because of incomplete, contradictory, and changing requirements that are often difficult to recognize. Moreover, because of complex interdependencies, the effort to solve one aspect of a wicked problem may reveal or create other problems, and the issue becomes difficult to build consensus on.
(See Randall Crane and John Landis (Autumn, 2010) Planning for Climate Change: Assessing Progress and Challenges, JAPA Vol. 76; No. 4; pp. 389-401)
(6) By 2040, the population of the United States is projected to most likely exceed:
A) 350 million B) 400 million C) 450 million D) 500 million
The correct answer is B)
The Census Bureau’s middle population projection for 2040 is for the U.S population to be approximately 405 million (based on 2010 Census).
http://www.census.gov/population/www/projections/2009projections.html http://www.census.gov/prod/2010pubs/p25-1138.pdf
(7) Strategies to help combat climate change by planners involve the following:
I. GHG Reduction II. Increasing VMT III. Adaptive Reuse IV. Water Conservation
(A) II (B) I, III, IV (C) I, II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B)
Increasing the Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMT) would not be a way to counter climate change. The other options all combat either the causes or impacts of climate change. Most climate and atmospheric scientists agree that the earth's climate is warming, and that the most likely cause of this phenomenon is increasing human-induced greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. Adaptive reuse of existing buildings as an alternative to demolition and replacement helps reduce the new GHG emissions that would be associated with the obtainment and movement of new construction materials and the disposal of tear-down materials. Water conservation will both help protect the availability of such resources in areas where climate change may adversely impact water resources, and reduce the GHG emissions that would be involved with the additional development or transport of water resources in such areas.
SEE: 2011 APA Policy Guide on Planning and Climate Change http://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/climatechangeexec.htm
(8) What movement is Washington, D.C. an example of?
(A) Public Health (B) City Beautiful (C) Garden City (D) City Efficient
The correct answer is “B”.
The first explicit attempt to utilize the vaguely classical Beaux-Arts architectural style, which emerged as the “City Beautiful” movement” from the World's Columbian Exposition of 1893, was the Senate Park Commission's redesign of the monumental core of Washington D.C. to commemorate the city's centennial. The McMillan Plan of 1901- 02, named for Senator James McMillan, the commission's liaison and principal backer in Congress, was the United States' first attempt at city planning. http://xroads.virginia.edu/~cap/citybeautiful/plan.html
(9) Tonight you are to present before City Council a report that speaks about the economic impact a proposed land fill would have on the community. Your report supports the land fill based upon the data that your staff has prepared and analyzed. Prior to the meeting, a Council person approaches you. This particular Council person was elected with the platform of not supporting the land fill. He asks that you go against your findings because he sees the numbers differently. You know from all of your work that this is not true and that it is a wrong way of looking at the data. Just before the meeting starts, hundreds of protestors march in against the land fill. Which of the following is the BEST option for you?
A) You realize the effect that this Council person could have on your career at the City, you change your recommendation at the meeting to go against the data and the land fill. B) You realize that the community is showing strong support against the land fill, and even though your responsibility was to provide economic effects, you decide to change your stance against the land fill. C) You and your staff are responsible for providing the Council, with clear and accurate data, they are the decision makers, you should continue to present your report as planned. D) You are not sure now on what you should do, so you ask to pull the report from the agenda and go back to the drawing board with your staff to alter the data to support not building the land fill.
The correct answer is “C”
The BEST option is Answer “C”. Your task was to present a report based on economic facts that showed whether there would be an economic benefit for the land fill to be located in the City or not. Answer A would have you going against the data and therefore not presenting clear or accurate data. Answer B would have you changing your stance based upon the hundreds of protestors that showed up to show their support against the land fill. As stated earlier, your report was based on economics, and it is up to Council to weigh all of the facts. Answer D, would have you changing your analysis away from what the data clearly says, this obviously is the wrong thing to do in this case.
Source: "Professional Practice Manual" by Les Solin, AICP, American Planning Association, Washington, DC, Chicago, IL, 1997, page 10.
(10) Section 404 of the Clean Water Act authorizes the:
A) Army Corps of Engineers to issue permits for the discharge of dredged or fill material into the navigable waters of the United States B) Environmental Protection Agency to fine polluters of groundwater and surface waters C) Department of the Interior to issue permits for the discharge of sewage in federal land holdings D) Coastal Zone Management Agency to issue permits for off-shore drilling
The correct answer is A)
Section 404 establishes three classes of permits: nationwide, general, and individual. Jurisdiction under this law is broad and extends to lakes, rivers, streams, wetlands, mudflats, and sandflats, of which the use, degradation or destruction could affect interstate or foreign commerce.
(11) The Planning Director for Geneva asks you put together a new general plan for the city. Some of the following steps you’d propose to undertake would occur in the following order:
I. Preparing plan II. Collecting data and analysis III. Identifying issues and stakeholders IV. Stating Goals, Objectives and Priorities
(A) II, IV, III, I (B) I, II, III, IV (C) III, IV, II, I (D) III, II, IV, I
The correct answer is (C)
Often, the planning process consists of the following steps and order: 1. Identify Issues and Options 2. State Goals, Objectives and Priorities 3. Collect and Interpret Data 4. Prepare Plans 5. Draft Programs for Plan Implementation 6. Evaluate Impacts of Plans and Implementation Programs 7. Review and Adopt Plans 8. Review and Adopt Implementation Programs 9. Administer Implementation Programs
See “The Planning Process” in APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); page 3. http://books.google.com/books?id=NXpncFYj73QC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22plann ing+process%22+%22guidelines+for+preparing+urban+plans%22&source=bl&ots=L3a P9WFS4R&sig=T8A1JwDT-bxWbN86QKKv-QvNnFo&hl=en&sa=X&ei=NI- DU6zDMc6YyASs2oLABg&ved=0CDcQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=%22planning%20pr ocess%22%20%22guidelines%20for%20preparing%20urban%20plans%22&f=false http://www.townofmarkleville.us/Templates/section_1212067875470.html Also - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comprehensive_planning
(12) Which of the following might quality an individual site, structure, or district for historic registration?
I. A significant event. II. Association with a specific person. III. An architectural style. IV. Site of a pre-historic “mound”.
(A) I only (B) I and II (C) I, II and III (D) All of the above.
The answer is “D”.
Historic Registration occurs when an individual site, structure, or district has met National Register of Historic Places criteria and is deemed worthy of preservation.
(13) This is a technique that involves citizens addressing citizens regarding a proposal through a workshop format.
A) Community Technical Assistance B) Design-In C) Charrette D) Fishbowl Planning
The correct answer is “D”
Fishbowl Planning involves citizens addressing citizens regarding a proposal through a workshop format. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, "Citizen Participation in Planning" by Terry Langlois, page 122.
(14) The Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 established certain procedural requirements for municipalities considering applications to construct a wireless service facility. Which of the items listed below is a procedural requirement of the Act?
A) Local decision-making bodies must solicit input from all other local land use boards and officials prior to issuing a decision B) Local decisions must be based on substantial evidence C) Local decisions must be presented to the applicant for review and comment prior to filing D) Local decisions must be made within six months of the receipt of the application
The correct answer is B)
The Federal Telecommunications Act requires that local decisions be based on substantial evidence and that they be rendered in a timely manner.
(15) Environmental Impact Statements must address how many "big" questions?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 10
The correct answer is “B”
These are the "big" five questions in an EIS: (1) The environmental impact of the proposed action, (2) Any adverse environmental effects which cannot be avoided should the proposal be implemented, (3) Alternatives to the proposed action, (4) The relationship between local short-term uses of man's environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity, and (5) Any irreversible and irretrievable commitments of resources which would be involved in the proposed action should it be implemented. Source: The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969.
(16) Power Towns are likely to include:
(A) Big box retail and a discount store (B) Anchor department stores with a lifestyle center (C) Less square footage than a Power Center, but with more specialty retail (D) Extensive office and hotel square footage
The correct answer is (B)
Power Towns often have 0.6 to 1 million square feet, are typically larger than Power Centers, with three or more big-box anchors and lifestyle center amenities (i.e. multiplex cinema, restaurants or food courts and large format bookstores). http://retailtrafficmag.com/development/trends/retail_welcome_power_town/
(17) At a Smithville Village Board meeting you are prepared to make a presentation that will support the basis for adding into next year's capital budget, the necessary money to construct a bridge over a railroad line. Currently the crossing occurs at- grade, and separates your village from the neighboring town of Dunnville. Prior to the meeting the Senior Planner of Dunnville arrives and pulls you aside. He begins to tell you that you should not propose to put the bridge over the tracks because last month the Dunnville Council approved a budget that allocated money to construct a tunnel under the tracks on their portion of the street. Which of the following is the BEST option for you?
A) You decide to move forward with your plans for proposing the bridge on your side of the tracks because it is the less expensive option. B) During the discussion you suggest that you now feel a tunnel is the best solution to address the rail crossing and ask for more time to restudy the issue. C) You decide to ignore the planner from Dunnville and move ahead with your plans for the bridge because you believe that you can work out your issue with the town of Dunnville at a later date. D) You are embarrassed, but you understand that you must consider the interrelatedness of your decisions. Therefore, you report to the Council your "news" and ask that you have time to work with Dunnville to construct the best option.
The correct answer is “D”
This question is meant to illustrate how all of our planning decisions are interrelated with not only our City, but neighboring towns, the region, state, and so on. Answer A, may be true but we cannot make decisions in a "bubble". Answer B, touches on the fact that you must present the data you believe to be full, and accurate, and clear, however, it is clear that your data is no longer considered "full". Answer C, would also have you presenting unclear and incomplete data to the council. This question is trying to stress to you the following point in the Code, Section 1.C that we shall pay special attention to the interrelatedness of decisions. Source: "Professional Practice Manual" by Les Solin, AICP, American Planning Association, Washington, DC, Chicago, IL, 1997, page 4.
(18) What is the term that refers to financing of improvements to a specific area with bonds that are secured by increases in property taxes?
A) Special assessments B) Impact fees C) Revenue bonds D) Tax increment financing
The correct answer is D)
Tax increment financing uses bonds secured by the increment in property taxes that results from increases in property values due to specific improvements.
(19) You are the planning director of a medium-sized suburban community and you are in the process of developing a neighborhood plan for one of the historic neighborhoods in your community. Several stakeholders identify recycling efforts as a major concern within the neighborhood. They propose a slate of policies addressing their concerns. As the planning director, you would:
A) Continue with development of the neighborhood plan as the primary focus of the ongoing planning effort. B) Direct your staff to identify current land development regulations that could help the neighborhood deal with recycling efforts in the ward. C) Direct your staff to analyze and discuss the merits of the proposed policies with you within the next two weeks prior to the next neighborhood meeting on the plan. D) Talk with the ward representative about the proposed policies.
The correct answer is “C”.
(20) The County Manager asks you, as Planning Director, to implement a new Smart Growth program for the county. Your program would include considerations of the following:
I. Efficient use of land and infrastructure II. Well defined community edges, such as agricultural greenbelts, wildlife corridors or greenways III. Vital small towns and rural areas IV. Creation of a sense of place
(A) I, II (B) I, II, III (C) III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Core principles of Smart Growth include: A. Efficient use of land and infrastructure B. Creation and/or enhancement of economic value C. A greater mix of uses and housing choices D. Neighborhoods and communities focused around human-scale, mixed-use centers E. A balanced, multi-modal transportation system providing increased transportation choice F. Conservation and enhancement of environmental and cultural resources G. Preservation or creation of a sense of place H. Increased citizen participation in all aspects of the planning process and at every level of government I. Vibrant center city life J. Vital small towns and rural areas K. A multi-disciplinary and inclusionary process to accomplish smart growth L. Planning processes and regulations at multiple levels that promote diversity and equity M. Regional view of community, economy and ecological sustainability N. Recognition that institutions, governments, businesses and individuals require a concept of cooperation to support smart growth O. Local, state, and federal policies and programs that support urban investment, compact development and land conservation P. Well defined community edges, such as agricultural greenbelts, wildlife corridors or greenways permanently preserved as farmland or open space.
See the 2012 APA Policy Guide on Smart Growth: http://www.planning.org/policy/guides/pdf/smartgrowth.pdf
(21) Which of the following groups of planning philosophies came before the City Humane Movement?
(A) City Functional, City Efficient, City Beautiful and Garden City (B) Garden City, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, City Functional (C) Public Health, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Garden City (D) Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Public Health, City Functional
The correct answer is “C”
The Public Health Movement developed in the late 1800s from a concern for public health and workers’ safety. This movement focused on the establishment of industrial safety requirements, maximum work hours, minimum housing standards, public recreation amenities, and ensuring the provision of light and air in cities. The Garden City Movement began with Ebenezer Howard’s classic work, Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform, which was published in 1898, later republished in 1902, Garden Cities of Tomorrow. A reaction to industrialization and poor living conditions in cities, this movement was predicated on the inherent immorality of the city, a return to the country village, and the sacredness of nature. The Garden City Movement proposed public greenbelts and agricultural areas surrounding self-supporting, satellite communities ringing a central garden city with maximum populations to prevent sprawl. Emphasizing design and aesthetics, the City Beautiful Movement emerged from the 1893 Columbian Exposition in Chicago. The Exposition provided a prominent American example of a great group of buildings designed in relation to each other and in relation to open spaces. Contributions of the movement included: a revival of city planning and its establishment as a permanent part of local government, an emphasis on physical site planning, the professional consultant role, and the establishment of quasi-independent planning commissions composed of citizens. The City Humane Movement occurred during the 1930’s and is associated with the Great Depression and concentrated on social and economic issues and ways of alleviating the problems of unemployment, poverty, and urban plight. The City Functional Movement (included in the other three answers) developed during the 1940’s with the growth of the military and renewed industrialization. This movement emphasized functionalism and administrative efficiency, and contributed to the federal government’s increased involvement in local planning and the passage of Section 701 of the Housing Act in 1954. The 701 program subsidized thousands of general plans and special projects for cities, counties, regional councils of government, and states until 1981. http://old.azcommerce.com/doclib/smartgrowth/handbook/p&zchapter2.pdf
(22) Which of the following is a detailed, very accurate, method for making short term population projections that can handle multiple variables?
(A) The Migration and Natural Increase Method. (B) The Cohort Survival Method. (C) The Symptomatic Method of calculation current population. (D) The Ratio (Step-Down) Method of calculating current population.
The correct answer is “B”
Cohort-Survival Method, in its basic form, is a form of population projection using multiple variables: Population [future] = Population [current] + Natural Increase + Net Migration broken down into age-sex cohort distributions of the population. Natural increase is the difference between the number of children born and the number of people who die during one time interval. Migration and Natural increase are basically part of the Cohort-Survival method. Symptomatic Method uses data sets such as building permits that are reflective of population change and can be used to estimate current development population estimates. Ratio (Step-Down) Method uses the ratio between the population of a city and a county at a known point in time such as the census to project future populations.
(23) Which degree of angle do parallel parking spaces typically have?
A) 0% B) 30% C) 45% D) 90%
The correct answer is A)
Parallel parking spaces are parallel to the curb and are designed with no angle.
(24) Which of the following are important factors in building consensus in an organized citizen's committee?
I. Appointment of constructive and diverse members. II. Authorizing a senior staff member to chair the committee. III. Clarifying anticipated outcomes. IV. Providing the committee with alternatives.
A) I and III. B) II and III. C) I and II. D) III and IV.
The answer is “A”
Normally a member of the committee will serve as chair- staff serves an advisory role. The committee has probably been formed to determine alternatives. Giving alternatives denies early input into the process.
(25) According to the ITE's "Parking Generation", which of the following has a peak parking space factor of 0.10 - 0.75 parking spaces per employee?
A) Industrial B) Restaurant C) Movie theater D) Office and medical centers
The correct answer is “D”
A medical center has a peak parking space factor of 0.10 - 0.75 parking spaces per employee. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, page 155.
(26) What term is associated with development of a vacant urban or suburban site that was formerly developed but is now obsolete?
(A) Brownfield development (B) Leapfrog development (C) Greenfield development (D) Grayfield development
The correct answer is “D”
Grayfields are urban/suburban properties that have been previously developed, and have infrastructure in place. They may consist of sites such as derelict shopping centers or “dead” malls, typically without complicating environmental concerns for their redevelopment. http://www.greyfields.com/center.php http://www.atlantaregional.com/File%20Library/Local%20Gov%20Services/gs_cct_grey fieldtool_1109.pdf
(27) This is a new approach to New Urbanism and smart growth principals that is based on the creation of a set of human habitats that vary by their intensity of urban makeup. The range of urban makeup, from rural to urban, is the basis for organizing developments (e.g.: buildings, lot lines, land use, roads)
A) Strategic Planning B) Transect Planning C) Master Planning D) Charrettes
The correct answer is “B”
Transect Planning can be a new approach to conventional zoning systems (Form-based Code – Miami 21). Transect planning is trying to create environments that preserve the integrity of each location along the urban to rural continuum. Rural elements must fit into rural locations, urban elements must fit into urban locations, similar to ecological systems where plants and animals live where it best suits their existence. Duany's firm DPZ has embodied the transect philosophic into their SmartCode generic planning code for municipal ordinances. Source, JAPA, Summer 2002, Vol. 68, No.3., page 245; Transect Planning by Andres Duany & Emily Talen. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transect_(urban) & http://www.miami21.org/TheTransect.asp
(28) A City Planner is responsible for supervising a staff of twelve (12) professional planners. It is her desire to improve the working environment for her professional staff. Which of the following represents the best way to achieve this organizational goal?
(A) Authorize a new work schedule that permits the staff to work 4 ten-hour days, with 2 three-day weekends each month. (B) Reprimand poor performance in private not at staff meetings. (C) Make every effort to match staff skills and interests with required tasks that have the potential to promote advancement. (D) Attend union meetings and support the staff’s petition for annual salary increases.
The answer is “C”.
Employees are typically more satisfied when performing work that matches their skills and interests and when there is an opportunity for future advancement through diligent service.
(29) The Planning Manager of a small rural community is conducting a survey of town residents as to their opinions on the proposed construction of a new surface water facility. He has determined to use a questionnaire, mailed to all residents in the area. The degree of interviewer bias in this type of questionnaire is generally?
A) High B) Medium C) Low D) Very Low
The correct answer is “C”
Although the questions to be answered could be designed to elicit certain responses, it is unlikely that an interviewer could prejudice a mail questionnaire. As a result, mail questionnaires are considered effective and impartial methods of collecting data for planning studies.
(30) The Housing Act of 1937 involved which of the following?
A) Tied slum clearance to public housing B) Began providing federal housing subsidies C) Began an interest subsidy program D) None of the above
The correct answer is “A”
The 1937 U.S. Housing Act (Wagner-Steagall) set the stage for future government aid by appropriating $500 million in loans for low-cost housing, and tied slum clearance to public housing. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1937 http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/United_States_National_Housing_Act_of_1937#Sec._9._L oans_for_Low-Rent-Housing_and_Slum-Clearance_Projects
(31) Which of the following best describes "satisficing"?
A) A term meaning that an applicant is satisfied with the approval of his project. B) Accepting policy options short of maximizing goal attainment. C) Accepting policy options short of attaining 100% consensus. D) Both B and C.
The correct answer is “D”
The term relates to a level of "consensus", where policy options are accepted short of 100 percent agreement. This type of consensus can be used in meeting facilitation and in the formulation of "alternatives" in long-range planning programs.
(32) What level of service (LOS) would apply to roadway delays of between 15 and 25 seconds per vehicle?
A) LOS A B) LOS C C) LOS D D) LOS E
The correct answer is B)
LOS C is roughly defined as providing for a stable traffic flow, but marks the beginning of the range of flow in which the operation of individual users become affected by the interaction with others in the traffic stream. 15- to 25-second delays generally define a LOS C.
(33) Which Housing Act allowed for Section 701 funds (funds to be used for comprehensive planning for communities less than 25,000)?
(A) Housing Act of 1954 (B) Housing Act of 1959 (C) Housing Act of 1964 (D) Housing Act of 1965
The correct answer is “A”
Federal grants-in-aid to begin local planning began with Section 701 of the Housing Act of 1954. http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1080/01944368508976208#preview
(34) A special permit to allow a group home in a single-family neighborhood for disabled individuals has been submitted to the development services department. The public notice has generated a number of angry phone calls from residents who intend to come to the public hearing in mass to speak against the pro-posed use. The planning director has met with a number of unhappy residents both individually and as a group and has been unable to squelch the growing resistance. It is hard for her to understand why there is no support for the home when the need is so obvious. Prior to preparing her staff report she receives phone calls from several Council members expressing concern that the issue is becoming a political hot potato. Yet, there is really no reason to recommend denial of the special permit. Faced with this dilemma which of the following represents the BEST course of action?
I. Contact each council member prior to the hearing and personally provide background in-formation, including the potential legal ramifications should the project be denied. II. Prepare a detailed report outlining the need for homes for the disabled, summarizing research on the impacts of community residences showing that they generate no adverse impacts on neighborhoods as long as they are licensed and not clustered on a block, and recommend-ing conditional approval. III. Prepare a comprehensive report recommend-ing a moratorium on group homes to provide time for staff to prepare an amendment to the zoning ordinance that would provide a “definition of a family” that would disallow more than 3 unrelated persons to occupy a dwelling unit. IV. Notice and personally facilitate a town meeting to provide information about the proposed home to the residents and media to better in-form them and to reduce the potential for contentious arguments before the City Council at the public hearing.
(A) III only (B) I and III (C) II, III, and IV (D) I, II, and IV
The correct answer is “D”.
Aside from public outcry and concerns by the council, the director does not have justifiable reasons, legal or otherwise, to recommend denial of the special permit. In fact, there may be legal reasons to support approval of the application if the home is properly permitted and will house a specific number of individuals. The scenario does not speculate on the outcome of the hearing. Community pressure may win out and the decision-makers could determine to deny the permit. This is not the director’s issue. Her job, both professionally and ethically, is to in-form the decision makers, assist the public to better understand the project, work to satisfy legal requirements, and render a report and recommendation that will allow an informed decision.
(35) Land use regulations based upon which of the following concepts have existed in the United States since the seventeenth century?
A) Exclusionary zoning B) Taking without compensation C) Nuisance D) Height restrictions
The correct answer is C)
The Latin maxim that one land owner may not use his land in such a way as to interfere with his neighbor's use is a basic underpinning of the law of nuisance. A land owner is under a duty not to interfere with his neighbor's use and enjoyment of his land. The reverse is also true: his neighbor is similarly obligated. Common law principles of nuisance were used by individuals on a case-by-case basis to restrict injurious land use practices since the late 1600's. An obvious problem with relying on nuisance principles to control land use activities was (and remains) the fact that an activity can rarely be declared a nuisance prospectively. This limitation, coupled with the problems associated with adjudicating every nuisance one by one, led, eventually, to modern forms of land use control in the United States.
Suggested reading: "Land Use Law," Mandelker, D., Lexis Law Publishing, 4th edition, 1997.
(36) The American Community Survey replaces the ______?
(A) Long form (B) Short form (C) Census block (D) Census tract
The correct answer is “A”
The American Community Survey (ACS) was fully implemented in 2010. The survey is an ongoing statistical survey by the Census Bureau that is sent to about 3 million addresses a year. It replaces the long form, collecting information previously contained only in the long form that was collected in the every ten year census. The ACS provides three different sets of data products: one-year estimates (for areas with 65,000 or more persons), three-year estimates (for areas with 20,000 or more persons), and five-year estimates (for all areas).
(37) This question focuses on local planning board actions and is based on the following hypothetical situation.
Diane is the planning director for a small, rapidly growing suburban community. At a public hearing last evening for a large subdivision, three of the seven members of her planning board walked out during the hearing, claiming that the subdivision plan was "an insult to the community." The chairman of the planning board continued the hearing until the next month. The board was unaware that Diane had been trying, through a series of meetings and working sessions with the applicant, to negotiate a more sensitive and acceptable plan for the town.
The morning following the incident, the developer's attorney called Diane and requested a meeting with her in ten days in the planning board office. The attorney specifically requested that no member of the planning board attend this meeting. What should Diane do regarding this request?
A) Agree to the meeting as requested B) Agree to the meeting only if a quorum of the board is present C) Agree to the meeting after contacting the chairman for advice D) Agree to the meeting only after notifying the full board of the attorney's request, either by mail or telephone, and receiving permission from the chairman
The correct answer is D)
In less controversial situations, contacting the chairman alone may be sufficient. In this case, however, Diane would be advised to notify the full board prior to any meeting with the developer or his agents.
(38) An electric company is interested in building a power plant on several thousand acres of waterfront property owned by the county that the firm has in escrow. The general plan designates the area “Open-Space”. The electric company files a plan amendment to re-designate the land “Heavy Industrial”. The planning director, a “Certified Planner”, is not in support of the amendment, feeling that the property should remain a community amenity. The county commissioners disregard the director’s recommendation for denial and approve the amendment noting that there is an energy crisis. A neighborhood group files a lawsuit against the county. The planning director provides copies of public information to the group’s attorneys. Later, he testifies in court about the value of the property as a community amenity. Concerning the director’s actions all of the following statements are true except?
(A) The director acted to protect the natural environment. (B) It was unethical for the director to testify in court. (C) The director provided copies of public information pursuant to disclosure laws. (D) The director was concerned about for the long-range consequences of the land use change.
The correct answer is “B”.
Testifying in court is not unethical. One may make the assumption that the director was summonsed by subpoena.
(39) Which of the following are characteristics of New Urbanism:
I. Higher Density and Mixing of Uses II. Variety of Housing Choices and Grid Street Patterns III. Economies of Scale and Euclidean Zoning IV. Pedestrian Scale and Multi-Modal Transportation Systems
(A) I and IV only (B) I, II, and IV only (C) I, III, and IV only (D) All of the Above
The correct answer is “B”.
(40) Robert Weaver was....
A) Involved with the Interstate Highway System B) The lawyer in the Euclid case C) Associated with Greenbelt Towns D) HUD's first Secretary
The correct answer is “D”
In 1965, the housing and urban policy agency achieved cabinet status when the Housing and Home Finance Agency was succeeded by the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD). Robert Weaver was HUD's first Secretary and first African- American cabinet member. Earlier, as a young man, Weaver had been one of 45 prominent African Americans appointed by President Franklin D. Roosevelt to his “Black Cabinet”, acting as an informal adviser to Roosevelt as well as directing federal programs during the New Deal. Under President Kennedy, he was the administrator for the Housing and Home Finance Administration (HHFA) that became HUD in 1965 under President Johnson. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_C._Weaver
(41) Disjointed incrementalism has been proposed as:
A) An alternative to synoptic rationality B) A way of getting additional information about a proposed project C) A scenario which envisions a series of actions by one actor in an interactive system D) All of the above
The correct answer is D)
(42) The red star indicates what component of the Garden City?
(A) Town Hall (B) Central Business District (C) Central Park (D) Worker Housing
The correct answer is “C”
The garden city movement is a method of urban planning that was initiated in 1898 by Sir Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom. Garden cities were intended to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by "greenbelts" (parks), containing proportionate areas of residences, industry and agriculture. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Garden_city_movement http://www.library.cornell.edu/Reps/DOCS/howard.htm
(43) Which of the following techniques is a means of forecasting future population?
I. Building Permits Issued II. Cohort Survival III. Symptomatic Method IV. New Electric Hookups
A) II B) II & III C) I, III, & IV D) All of the above
The correct answer is “A”
Building permits and electric meters are both examples of symptomatic methods to estimate current population, not forecast future population. The cohort survival method ages population, estimates the number of births and deaths, and projects a future population. This method is made more accurate by including in and out migration. It is important that you are able to distinguish between estimating current population (i.e. “an estimate”) and forecasting future population (i.e. “a projection”). See: Population Estimates and Projections in "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, pages 170 - 177.
(44) Typically, the number of parking spaces needed for a medical center is 1 per ___ sq. ft. GFA (gross floor area)?
(A) 30 (B) 250 (C) 200 (D) 800
The correct answer is “D”
Historical parking generation rates for medical centers are about 1.25 spaces per 1000 GFA, or about 1 space per 800 square feet of GFA.
(45) The city council has directed the planning director to recommend techniques that will help fund new capital facilities necessitated by new growth without draining the city treasury in a manner consistent with managing growth. The council appears interested in exploring ways of shifting the costs of providing public facilities to developers. There is some confusion about the nature of these techniques, their feasibility, and their legal permissibility. You are expected to clarify things. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Both land dedication requirements and fees-in-lieu-of-dedication requirements are types of exactions that lend themselves to both on-site and off-site applications.
(B) An impact fee system is constitutionally sufficient if the city can show that the fees it charges are such that each developer bears no more than its proportionate share of the costs of providing public facilities needed to serve new growth, and the public facilities funded with the fees are provided in such a way as to be available for use by all city residents.
(C) Developers in jurisdictions that use impact fees generally favor dividing the jurisdictions into service areas (within or for which the funds must be spent) that are smaller and more numerous. Public works directors, operating departments, and finance directors favor fewer, larger districts.
(D) Experience has shown that a local government that has established a system of impact fees can expect these funds to be sufficient to fund entirely those public facilities for which they are earmarked; supplemental capital improvement funding from other revenues is typically not needed.
The correct answer is “C”
Land dedication requirements do not lend themselves to off-site applications because there is no guarantee that the developer will own or control suitable sites for dedication at other locations. Public facilities funded with the fees must provide sufficient benefit for the residents or users of the development or, viewed differently, defray the costs that new development would otherwise impose on government. Impact fees must almost inevitably be supplemented by other revenues. The fees that developers pay are then more likely to be used for facilities located closer to their projects, thus providing more direct benefit to those who will purchase property in or use their projects. Finance directors, public works directors, and representatives of operating departments are more likely to be interested in flexible arrangements that allow funds to be spent for a variety of projects in a larger district. It is also true, however, that funds may accrue and be expended more quickly for projects in larger districts. Developers are also interested in faster project funding.
(46) The Land and Water Conservation Fund (LWCF) required states to prepare what program or plan as a prerequisite for federal dollars?
A) growth management plans B) water conservation programs C) energy conservation programs D) outdoor recreation plans
The correct answer is D)
The LWCF program required states to prepare statewide comprehensive outdoor recreation plans, referred to as SCORPs. Although the LWCF program has suffered serious financial cutbacks, SCORPs are still used by many states to guide local government outdoor and open space recreation plans.
(47) Which of the following pieces of federal legislation focused on slum clearance?
A) 1906 Antiquities Act B) 1934 Federal Housing Act C) 1949 Housing Act D) 1968 New Communities Act
The correct answer is “C”.
The American Housing Act of 1949 was a landmark, sweeping expansion of the federal role in mortgage insurance and issuance and the construction of public housing. The main elements of the Act included providing federal financing for slum clearance programs, increasing authorization for the FHA mortgage insurance, extending federal money to build more than 800,000 public housing units, and permitting the FHA to provide financing for rural homeowners. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1949
(48) The 1966 Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act....
I. Was part of President Johnson's "Great Society" program II. Started the "Model Cities" program III. Included a historic preservation portion IV. Placed millions of dollars into public transportation
A) I, III B) I, II C) I, II, III D) All of the above
The correct answer is “C”
In 1966, the Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act launched the "model cities" program, an interdisciplinary attack on urban blight and poverty. It was a centerpiece of President Lyndon Johnson's "Great Society" program. The ambitious federal urban aid program succeeded in fostering a new generation of mostly black urban leaders. The program's initial goals emphasized comprehensive planning, involving not just rebuilding but also rehabilitation, social service delivery, and citizen participation. The Act was designed to rebuild entire urban areas by combining new innovations in the participating communities through the use of the wide array of existing federal and local programs for a coordinated attack on blight. To qualify for aid, areas had to be considered substandard under federal guidelines, with historic preservation, planning and restoration being considered an integral part of the program. The Model Cities program was ended in 1974 under the Nixon administration. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Model_Cities_Program
(49) A neighborhood plan is most similar to a:
(A) Strategic Plan (B) General Plan (C) Capital Improvements Plan (D) Sector or Specific Plan
The correct answer is (D)
A Neighborhood plan focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction involving residential, commercial and institutional uses such as schools and parks. While a Neighborhood Plan may address similar topics as a Comprehensive Plan (General Plan), it will usually address land use issues in a more detailed manner for a more localized area, often with shorter timeframes than a comprehensive plan, much more like Sector Plans (Florida) or Specific Plans (California).
See “Neighborhood Plans” in APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); page 16. CA Specific Plan - http://ceres.ca.gov/planning/specific/part1.html#part1_anchor FL Sector Plan - http://www.floridajobs.org/community-planning-and- development/programs/technical-assistance/planning-initiatives/rural-planning/sector- planning-program ALSO: https://www.lawrenceks.org/assets/agendas/cc/2012/09-18-12/pl_cpa-4-2- 12_chapter_14.pdf
(50) Who is credited with popularizing the term "megalopolis"?
A) Paul Davidoff B) Jane Jacobs C) Jean Gottmann D) Edward Bellamy
The correct answer is “C”
Jean Gottmann used the expression, “megalopolis”, in 1957 when referring to the extended urban region that appears to form a single huge metropolitan area along the eastern seaboard of the U.S. extending from Boston through New York City; Philadelphia, Pennsylvania; Baltimore, Maryland and ending in Washington, D.C. The term had been earlier used by Oswald Spengler in his 1918 book, The Decline of the West, and by Lewis Mumford in his 1938 book, The Culture of Cities, which described it as the first stage in urban overdevelopment and social decline. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Megalopolis_(city_type) http://geography.about.com/cs/urbansprawl/a/megalopolis.htm
(51) Traditional small towns feature each of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A) Incremental growth outward from a core B) Low to very low density of development C) Open space around the edges D) Streets scaled for routine daily use rather than rush hour demand
The correct answer is “B”
Small towns typically have a medium density.
(52) Contributing to global unsustainability are:
I. Pollution Controls II. Resource Inequities III. Renewable Resources IV. Population Growth
(A) II, IV (B) I, II, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) II, III, IV
The answer is (A)
Contributing to global unsustainability are the following: • OVERCONSUMPTION (Current consumption exceeds earth’s carrying capacity by ~30%) • POPULATION GROWTH (U.S. population will double in 60 years) • DEPENDENCE UPON NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES (Oil, coal, many mined resources) • POLLUTION (70,000 chemical compounds accumulating in ecosphere) • ENVIRONMENTALLY & SOCIALLY DESTRUCTIVE DEVELOPMENT PATTERNS (e.g. suburbs) • INEQUITIES IN RESOURCE DISTRIBUTION (78:1 disparity in world’s richest to poorest 20%) • LIMITED PUBLIC PARTICIPATION (disenfranchised from political & economic decision-making)
See 2000 APA Policy Guide on Planning for Sustainability https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/sustainability.htm
(53) A 2-inch by 3-inch area on a standard USGS Quad map is approximately:
(A) 120 acres (B) 550 acres (C) 16 sections (D) 124 sections
The correct answer is (B)
A standard United States Geological Survey (USGS) quadrangle maps are those of the 7.5-minute by 7.5 minute, 1:24,000-scale quadrangle series. At a scale of 1:24,000, one inch on a USGS quad represents 24,000 inches or 2,000 feet. A 2-inch by 3-inch square would be 4,000 feet on one side and 6,000 feet on the other side and include an area of 24 million square feet, equal to 550.96 acres (43,560 sq. feet/acre), or less than one section (i.e. 640 acres).
(54) In 1934 Alfred Bettman became?
(A) First director of planning of Cincinnati. (B) First president of the American Society of Planning Officials. (C) First city planner to become a U.S. Senator. (D) First president of APA.
The correct answer is “B”
ASPO was established in 1934; Alfred Bettman was elected its first president. On October 1, 1978, the American Planning Association emerged from the consolidation of the American Institute of Planners and the American Society of Planning Officials.
(55) The City Beautiful Movement had some of these as deficiencies...
I. It catered to an upper class II. Its beautification and adornment had limited practicality III. Public investment was needed for its parks and boulevards, and this was not always available to cities IV. It was the revival of city planning
A) I, III B) I, II, III C) I, II, IV D) All of the above
The correct answer is “B”
Some of the deficiencies of the City Beautiful Movement are that it catered to an upper class, its beautification and adornment had limited practicality, and public investment was needed for its parks and boulevards, and this was not always available to cities. https://www.msu.edu/course/iss/310/snapshot.afs/machemer/ss04/city_beaut.shtml
(56) Managing staff resources efficiently includes all of the following except?
I. Maintaining two-way communication. II. Holding regular staff meetings. III. Informing non-management staff of information received in senior staff meetings. IV. Treating staff with respect and professionalism.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) II and IV (D) I, II, and IV
The correct answer is “B”.
A manager is not obligated and it would not normally be good practice to relay information to non-management, journeyman, or line staff received in senior staff meetings.
(57) What Law was the legislative basis for the revision of city codes that outlawed tenements such as the "Dumbbell Tenement"?
A) New York State Tenement House Law 1867 B) New York State Tenement House Law 1879 C) New York State Tenement House Law 1887 D) New York State Tenement House Law 1901
The correct answer is “D”
In 1901, the New York State Tenement House Law (“New Law”) was created. The legislative basis for the revision of city codes that outlawed tenements such as the "Dumbbell Tenement” allowed under previous law (“Old Law”). The failures of the “Old Law” – the “Dumbbell” air shafts developed to meet the minimum intent of the Act proved to be unsanitary as they filled with garbage, bilge water and waste – led to the 1901 "New Law" and its required courtyard designed for garbage removal. The “New Law” also required running water and toilets in every apartment and a window in every room. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tenement http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_York_State_Tenement_House_Act
(58) A local government's ability to attract national chain retail companies back to the central city core business district (CBD) depends largely on which of the following?
(A) The availability of infrastructure. (B) Financial contribution of the local redevelopment agency. (C) Free and safe parking, a residential population, entertainment uses, and a variety of shops. (D) The presence of an international airport.
The correct answer is “C”
Although the other answers present elements that contribute to bringing businesses back to the center-city, most companies insist that there be free and safe parking, a residential population, entertainment uses, and a variety of shops
(59) As planning director for a large industrial community, you are concerned about the possibility that a chemical manufacturing plant in your city may be producing new chemicals that could threaten the city's drinking water supply. The owners of the plant have refused to cooperate with your request for information on the toxicity of the new chemicals. Which of the following is a good source of information on the threats posed by the chemicals?
A) The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) B) The Clean Water Act (CWA) C) Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) D) Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)
The correct answer is D)
The TSCA regulates the use of new and existing chemical substances and mixtures. Manufacturers of new chemical substances must notify EPA through the submittal of a pre-manufacture notice at least 90 days prior to commencing manufacture or import of the substance for non-exempt commercial purposes.
(60) Financial projections including an income statement for a real estate project that shows capital costs, operating revenues and expenses, and return on investment over a single year or for five or ten years or longer is a?
(A) Capital facilities budget (B) Operating budget (C) Pro Forma (D) Capital improvement budget
The correct answer is “C“
A real estate "pro forma," or financial statement, is a tool that is used to communicate all the relevant information about a real estate development project. It balances the costs of a project against the flow of income which the project will produce.
(61) A senior planner is preparing a report for a proposed General Plan Amendment to facilitate an “affordable” multiple family project in-side the Central Business District. The hearing notice generated moderate community protest over the proposed change. Some council members are leaning toward approval since the community needs affordable housing, but are concerned about how to justify their affirmative votes. Under these circumstances which of the following represents the best recommendation for staff to make?
(A) A recommendation for “denial” would protect the Council from further public dissent. (B) A recommendation for “approval” supported by a discussion of the current housing shortage and the need for affordable housing. (C) A recommendation for “denial” indicating that approve of residential uses in a commercial area would be poor planning. (D) A recommendation for “approval” supported by describing ways new residential areas in the CBD would have positive effects on the vitality of the downtown.
The correct answer is “B”.
Although answer “D” could also be correct, the urgent need for housing, and especially affordable housing, would provide the Council with the best reason for approving the land use change.
(62) Bart recently added an attached garage to his existing single-family house. Now it turns out that the garage violates the ordinance's side-yard setback requirement. If Bart now applies for a variance, the board of adjustment should deny it
(A) Because use variances are illegal in most states. (B) Because any hardship Bart claims was self-imposed. (C) If the planning staff is in the process of developing proposed ordinance revisions which will alter the side-yard setback standard in this district. (D) Because owners of property abutting Bart's signed a petition opposing the application.
The correct answer is “B”.
(63) This type of architecture uses locally available materials?
(A) Vernacular (B) Art Deco (C) Prairie Style (D) Post Modern
The correct answer is “A”
Vernacular architecture is a category of architecture based on localized needs and construction materials, and reflecting local traditions. Vernacular architecture tends to evolve over time to reflect the environmental, cultural, technological, and historical context in which it exists.
Art deco, or deco, is an eclectic artistic and design style that began in Paris in the 1920s and flourished internationally throughout the 1930s and into the World War II era. The structure of Art Deco is based on mathematical geometric shapes. Art-deco design influences were expressed in the crystalline and faceted forms of decorative Cubism and Futurism. Art Deco is characterized by use of materials such as aluminium, stainless steel, lacquer, Bakelite, Chrome and inlaid wood. Exotic materials such as sharkskin (shagreen), and zebra skin were also evident. The use of stepped forms and geometric curves (unlike the sinuous, natural curves of Art Nouveau), chevron patterns, ziggurat- shapes, fountains, and the sunburst motif are typical of Art Deco.
Prairie School was a late 19th and early 20th century architectural style, most common to the Midwestern United States. The works of the Prairie School architects are usually marked by horizontal lines, flat or hipped roofs with broad overhanging eaves, windows grouped in horizontal bands, integration with the landscape, solid construction, craftsmanship, and discipline in the use of ornament. Horizontal lines were thought to evoke and relate to the native prairie landscape.
Postmodern architecture began as an international style the first examples of which are generally cited as being from the 1950s, but did not become a movement until the late 1970s. Postmodern architecture has also been described as "neo-eclectic", where reference and ornament have returned to the facade, replacing the aggressively unornamented modern styles. This eclecticism is often combined with the use of non- orthogonal angles and unusual surfaces. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vernacular_architecture http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Art_Deco http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prairie_School http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Postmodern_architecture
(64) Which of the following was not a weakness of the 1928 Standard City Planning Enabling Act?
(A) There was no clear definition of master plan. (B) It provided for piecemeal adoption. (C) It confused general government powers and police powers. (D) It included all the technical elements of plans.
The correct answer is (D)
(65) The Housing Act of 1954 focused on which of the following?
A) The Federal Government entering the field of housing B) Provided Federal Housing Subsidies for the first time C) Established an interest subsidy program D) Slum prevention and urban renewal
The correct answer is “D”
The Housing Act of 1954 stressed slum prevention and urban renewal rather than slum clearance and urban redevelopment as in the 1949 Act. It also stimulated general planning for cities under 25,000 population by providing funds under Section 701 of the Act. "701 funding" was later extended by legislative amendments to foster statewide, interstate, and substate regional planning. http://planningpa.org/wp-content/uploads/career_aicp_pdc_study.pdf (pp. 95, 102)
(66) The Connectivity Index is generally calculated as:
(A) Street miles/Square Mile (B) # Streets/Square Mile (C) Collectors/Arterials (D) Links/Nodes
The correct answer is (D)
Street connectivity can be defined as the quantity and quality of connections in the street network. A traditional rectilinear street grid provides relatively direct connections and multiple routes and thus has high connectivity. A “Connectivity Index” is the ratio of the number of links to the number of nodes in the network (i.e. Links/Nodes). Links are street segments, while nodes are intersections. A higher connectivity index reflects a greater number of street segments entering each intersection and thus a higher level of connectivity for the network. Minimum standards for connectivity indexes typically fall into the range of 1.2 to 1.4.
See “Connectivity Index” in APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 231 http://books.google.com/books?id=NXpncFYj73QC&pg=PA156&lpg=PA156&dq=APA +planning+connectivity+index&source=bl&ots=L3aQf_LTbR&sig=UkDgkZBDCXVQ NLB6OpRt9q1nAPo&hl=en&sa=X&ei=j62cU_vEDOjI8wGdsoDwCg&ved=0CB0Q6A EwAA#v=onepage&q=APA%20planning%20connectivity%20index&f=false http://documents.atlantaregional.com/transportation/tp_SRTP_Toolkit_Connectivity.pdf
(67) Of the following, which is the most appropriate way to regulate the citing, development, and operation of a municipal landfill?
(A) Variance (B) Conditional Use Permit (C) Mitigation Monitoring Program (D) Special permit
The answer is “B”.
Conditional Use Permits (also known as “Special Use Permits”) are appropriate instruments for siting uses a community considers essential, but may require special attention due to environmental threats. These special uses may be essential or desirable to a particular community, but are not allowed as a matter of right within a zoning district. See - http://ceres.ca.gov/planning/cup/condition.htm
(68) A zoning regulation that restricts the type of signs that can be placed within the community is likely to be challenged as a violation of which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?
A) First Amendment B) Second Amendment C) Fifth Amendment D) Eighth Amendment
The correct answer is A)
The constitutionally-protected right of free speech has been the subject of interesting U.S. and state-level court decisions.
(69) What is defined as a poor neighborhood that lacks convenient access to affordable and healthy food?
(A) Food Desert (B) Fast Food Node (C) Grocery Shortage Area (D) No Food Zone
The correct answer is “A”
A food desert is any area in the industrialized world where healthy, affordable food is difficult to obtain. Food deserts are prevalent in rural as well as urban areas and are most prevalent in low-socioeconomic minority communities. They are associated with a variety of diet-related health problems. Food deserts are also linked with supermarket shortage. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Food_desert
(70) What color generally illustrates residential land uses on a land use map?
A) Yellow B) Blue C) Red D) Green
The correct answer is “A”
Land use maps generally use different colors to represent different land use functions. Typical colors for land uses (by function) include:
• Yellows for residential uses such as single-family and town houses. • Reds for retail and commercial uses • Purples for industrial uses • Blues for institutional and public facilities • Greens for recreational uses • Grays for industrial utilities See http://www.planning.org/lbcs/standards/pdf/InOneFile.pdf
(71) Which of the following is a geographic unit used in travel demand modeling?
(A) Urbanized Area (B) MPO region (C) Zoning Tract (D) Traffic Analysis Zone
The correct answer is “D”
Traffic Analysis Zones (TAZ) are geographic units that divide a planning region into similar areas of land use.
(72) A key concept of the New York City Zoning Resolution was that:
(A) Uses allowed in zoning districts were "cumulative" (B) The city's water supply would be protected (C) Persons aggrieved by the Resolution were granted rights to appeal (D) Building codes would be strictly enforced
The correct answer is A)
Similar to the zoning ordinance in Euclid, the 1916 New York Resolution divided the City into zoning districts. The uses allowed in each district were considered "cumulative" in that uses allowed in the more restrictive zoning districts were also permitted within the less restrictive districts. For example, a use allowed within a residential district would generally be allowed within a commercial and industrial district. The reverse was rarely, if ever true, however. Uses allowed in un-restrictive districts such as industrial or commercial were typically prohibited within residential districts. So-called "cumulative zoning" has received mixed reviews of late in that in its purest form, the doctrine precludes mixed use developments and so-called "neo-traditional" planned communities.
Suggested reading: "American City Planning Since 1890", M. Scott, APA Planners Press, 1995. See - http://www.nyc.gov/html/dcp/html/zone/zonehis.shtml#history
(73) An "accessory dwelling" can be described as which of the following?
A) When a homeowner converts a portion of their existing structure into a garage B) When a homeowner adds a screened in porch to their homes C) When a homeowner converts a portion of their existing structure into a second dwelling unit D) None of the above
The correct answer is “C”
Accessory dwelling units (ADUs) are small, self-contained living units that typically have their own kitchen, bedroom(s), and bathroom space. Often called granny flats, elder cottage housing opportunities (ECHO), mother-daughter residences, or secondary dwelling units, ADUs are apartments that can be located within the walls of an existing or newly constructed single-family home or can be an addition to an existing home. Sometimes this is by right in a particular zoning code; in others, it is a conditional (discretionary) allowed use. http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=%22accessory%20dwelling%20unit%22%20 apa&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&ved=0CC4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.plan ning.org%2Fpas%2Fquicknotes%2Fpdf%2FQN19.pdf&ei=86twUZmkNYSK9QSN6IH4 Aw&usg=AFQjCNE-9ap7q3xq3HDwKSouIvI9udMrNQ&bvm=bv.45373924,d.eWU
(74) Which one of the following is not a feature of farmland protection or of right- to-farm legislation?
(A) The right of a farmer with land in an agricultural district to be protected from nuisance suits brought by neighboring property owners or by units of government, if the farm is not negligently operated. (B) The obligation of a farmer with land in an agricultural district to pay property taxes on the land based on its full market value. (C) The requirement that a local government provider of water and sewer service hold in abeyance water and sewer assessments for line extensions to property within an agricultural district until improvements on such property are connected to the system. (D) Procedural requirements that state and local governments must observe before initiating the purchase of property within an agricultural district by eminent domain.
The correct answer is “B”
(75) New Urbanism principles include all the following, except:
(A) Neighborhood unit cul-de-sacs (B) Compact, walkable neighborhoods (C) Preservation and renewal of historic buildings (D) A range of parks, from tot-lots to ballfields
The correct answer is (A)
The general principles of new urbanism center on Walkability, Connectivity, Mixed-Use & Diversity, Mixed Housing, Quality Architecture & Urban Design, Traditional Neighborhood Structure, Increased Density, Green Transportation, Sustainability, and Quality of Life. New urbanism supports connectivity, walkability and a preference for grid street layouts over cul-de-sacs. http://www.mouvment.com/2011/04/new-urbanists-attack-the-cul-de-sac/ See also the Charter of the New Urbanism principles - http://www.cnu.org/charter
(76) A developer wishes to construct an office building on a 4.5 acre site. The building will have five floors, each with 10,000 square feet of floor area. The FAR of the project is approximately which of the following?
(A) 2.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.20
The correct answer is “C”
The FAR (Floor Area Ratio) is approximately 0.25. The building project space = 50,000 sf (5 floors of building x 10,000 sf). The site’s area is 196,020 sf (4.5 acres x 43,560 sf/acre). The FAR is closest to 0.25 (50,000 sf building/196,020 sf site = 0.255).
(77) Although "mobile home parks" are allowed in the town's R-A district, all parks that are non-conforming with respect to any of the current mobile home park development standards for that district must conform within seven years. This type of requirement is an illustration of:
(A) A temporary taking. (B) The abatement of a nuisance. (C) Equitable estoppel (D) Amortization.
The correct answer is “D”
Amortization is the practice of allowing a preexisting land use or structure that does not comply with newly adopted regulations to remain in place for a set period.
(78) Which of the following land transfer techniques does not afford the seller any tax reductions?
A) bargain sale B) fair market value sale C) installment sale D) donation
The correct answer is B)
A sale at fair market value is the sale of property at the price a knowledgeable buyer would pay for the land. If the land is sold at full value and has appreciated in value since its purchase, the seller will be liable for income tax on the capital gain. There are no charitable deductions or other tax breaks associated with a sale at full value. Bargain sale is part donation and part sale. It may entitle the seller to an income tax deduction for a charitable contribution and to a reduction in capital gains tax. An installment sale allows an agency or organization to purchase property over a period of years. The seller benefits financially by spreading the income and the taxable gains over several years. A donation or outright gift affords the donor tax benefits in the form of federal income tax deductions, potential estate tax benefits, and relief from property taxes.
(79) The proper description and acreage of the dark green block in the following is:
(A) SE1/4NW1/4SE1/4NW1/4; 2.5 acres (B) SE1/4NW1/4SE1/4NW1/4; 10 acres (C) NW1/4SE1/4NW1/4SE1/4; 2.5 acres (D) NW1/4SE1/4NW1/4SE1/4; 10 acres
The correct answer is “A”
http://www.rootsweb.ancestry.com/~ilmaga/landmaps/range_map.html http://www.geo.hunter.cuny.edu/~jochen/GTECH201/Lectures/Lec6concepts/Map%20co ordinate%20systems/Public%20Land%20Survey.htm
(80) How does Joel Garreau refer to an area that contains five million or more square feet of leasable office space?
A) edge city B) ex-urbia C) suburbia D) technology park
The correct answer is A)
Garreau's 1991 book "Edge City" chronicles the transition in urban growth from the historic development of "down town" to suburban expansion to what he labels as the "new frontier" of urban life.
(81) In which case did Justice Stevens write “Land use regulations are ubiquitous and most of them impact property values in some tangential way – often in completely unanticipated ways. Treating them all as per se takings would transform government regulation into a luxury few governments could afford.”?
A) Nollan v. California Coastal Commission (1987) B) Dollan v. City of Tigard (1994) C) First English Evangelical Lutheran Church v. County of Los Angeles (1987) D) Tahoe-Sierra Preservation Council v. Tahoe Regional Planning Agency (2002)
The correct answer is D)
The regional planning agency’s temporary moratorium on development during the process of devising a comprehensive land-use plan did not constitute a per se taking of property requiring compensation under the Takings clause because there is no categorical rule that provides that when a property owner is deprived of all viable uses of property, regardless of how brief that deprivation, a regulatory taking occurs.
(82) You are about to present to the Planning Commission your findings about whether to construct bus stop shelters along Main Street. During your presentation a Commission member asks if you have involved public input into your recommendation. You say that yes you have contacted all businesses and residents within 250' of Main Street, and worked with the bus company. She then asks if you were able to involve local groups that deal with homeless, shoppers that shop the street on weekends, and persons that were physically challenged. You did not meet or notify these groups because they did not have any formal organization. Which of the following is the BEST option for you?
A) Because you contacted the formally organized groups you have fulfilled your obligations and should move forward with the recommendation. B) You sent out letters to properties within 250' of Main Street, this should satisfy the Commission members question. C) You should attempt to meet with all groups that could be affected by the decision, and you should try and involve the shoppers. This could be achieved by doing an on-street survey. D) You should try and involve only those informal groups that show up to a meeting on a weekday night at the Council Chambers.
The correct answer is “C”
Answer “C” is the BEST option for you to follow. The Planning Commission asked a good question and you should involve as many people and as a diverse group of people when making a planning recommendation. One way I think about these types of public participation questions is that your aspirational role as a planner is to try and be as far up the “Ladder of Citizen Participation” as possible. The more citizen involvement, or empowerment, that is possible in a public decision, the better. See: http://lithgow-schmidt.dk/sherry-arnstein/ladder-of-citizen-participation.html
(83) A New England town believes it may be losing tax revenues due to old and possibly inaccurate lot size information. With a limited budget, what is the best alternative available to the town to recalculate their lot sizes relatively quickly and inexpensively?
A) Deed research combined with a lot-by-lot survey producing a new base tax map B) Regeneration of the base tax map through deed research and GIS C) Recalculation of lot sizes from existing tax maps D) None of the above
The correct answer is B)
Many firms will perform deed research, and, combined with an aerial photography fly- over, redraw tax maps. While this undertaking is not inexpensive, it can be done in a reasonable amount of time and the cost of the project should be recouped in a few years through increased tax revenues, depending on the level of error in the original tax maps. A lot-by-lot survey, arguably the most accurate method to recalculate lot sizes, would be very time consuming and expensive. Recalculation of lot sizes, the least expensive of the three methods, may catch original errors in calculations but will not catch the dimension errors that may be inherent in the existing tax maps.
(84) You are a planner in Naperville, Illinois. You would like to take a part-time job in the evenings working as a bartender. According to the APA Code of Ethics, which of the following is the BEST course of action for you to take?
A) You do not have to tell your planning boss; just start doing the part-time work B) You need to have written permission from your planning boss C) You should ask for verbal permission from your planning boss D) As long as the part-time work is outside of Naperville's planning jurisdiction you do not have to ask for permission
The correct answer is “A”
Bartending is not related to the field of planning. According to the AICP Ethics Code, in Section B.4. - - ”We shall not, as salaried employees, undertake other employment in planning or a related profession, whether or not for pay, without having made full written disclosure to the employer who furnishes our salary and having received subsequent written permission to undertake additional employment, unless our employer has a written policy which expressly dispenses with a need to obtain such consent.”
(85) The planning director of a small community is recommending that the City Council approve a staff initiated zoning ordinance amendment to provide specific criteria for architectural review of projects. Which of the following would most likely be emphasized in her staff report?
I. Specific criteria is necessary for adequate design review. II. Adopting specific criteria for architectural review in the Municipal Code will provide the legal foundation for conditioning and enforcement. III. Specific review criteria will assure a better built environment. IV. Specific criteria would help developers design projects acceptable to the jurisdiction.
(A) I and II (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) III and IV
The correct answer is “B”.
All the answers are true. The central issue though is a legal one -- providing the legal foundation for enforcement. The second most important goal would be to provide developers with guidelines to reduce or eliminate the need for enforcement.
(86) How would you best classify the use of special use or conditional use permits to protect natural resources?
A) Zoning variance B) Health regulation C) Taking D) Performance standard
The correct answer is D)
Performance requirements or standards typically employ special use or conditional use permits to regulate development based upon its performance or impact upon natural resources. Because, in theory, the permit is granted only if the development "performs" according to certain criteria, regulatory agencies can ensure that the development will be in harmony with the regulation's goal of protecting the natural resource system.
(87) The picture below illustrates design elements found in traditional facades. Which of the following indicates a building's cornice?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d)
The correct answer is “A”
The cornice is the uppermost section of moldings along the top of a wall or just below a roof. The practical purpose of a cornice is to seal the joint between wall and roof against weather penetration. In traditional facades however, cornices contain architectural detail that make them important design elements in a building. Decorative cornices contribute significantly to a building’s facade, and are frequently a desired design element found in municipal design guidelines.
Other design elements shown are: (b) Bulkhead - The space between the ground or sidewalk and a storefront window (c) Window Hood - An architectural detail placed above a window, used as an accent. (d) Display Window - A large window in a commercial storefront used to display merchandise and to provide views into the store
SEE: http://www.riponmainst.com/riponmainst/Design%20Guidelines.htm
(88) A new large-scale retirement community that includes an 18-hole golf course is being planned in the sandy inlet area along the coast. The project will require the filling of the marsh areas near some of the estuaries and lakes that will be incorporated into the project. Considerable land will be cleared for the construction of the dwelling units, the clubhouse and related areas and the course. Unfortunately the timbering operations will substantially impact the habitat of a bird that is an endangered species. Which, if any, of the following statements are correct?
(A) If the head of a state coastal zone management program that qualifies under the federal Coastal Zone Management Act objects to the project, the Army Corps may not issue a section 404 permit unless the U.S. Secretary of Commerce overrules the state on the grounds that the proposed activity is consistent with the federal coastal zone management program or is necessary in the interest of national security. (B) Under the EPA guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit, it does not consider whether other practicable alternatives. (C) Due to the Endangered Species Act, the developer will not be able to qualify for a permit. (D) If an environmental impact statement is prepared for the project under the National Environmental Policy Act, and the study finds that adverse environmental impacts will occur, any federal permit that applies to the project must be withheld.
The correct answer is “A”
Section 404 permits are subject to consistency determinations under the Coastal Zone Management Program. Answer “B” is incorrect; the Amy Corps is to presume that other practicable alternatives are available, unless it receives compelling proof to the contrary. Answer “C” is incorrect; although the Endangered Species Act generally prohibits parties from harming or otherwise “taking” a species officially listed as endangered, the developer may be able to qualify an incidental-take permit (ITP), which requires the developer to prepare a habitat conversation plan (HCP) that minimizes and mitigates the “take” of an endangered species to the maximum extent possible. Answer “D” is incorrect because even if adverse environmental impacts may be identified, those factors do not necessarily change the legal authority used by a federal agency in approving or disapproving a project.
(89) The term “Inclusionary” as defined in the land-mark Mt. Laurel Case means an obligation to provide which of the following?
(A) An equal number of housing opportunities for each income class. (B) The community’s regional fair share of residences for all classes possibly wishing to live there, particularly for families of low and moderate income. (C) The communities fair share of jobs in commercial and industrial establishments of low and moderate income nature. (D) A full array commercial, industrial and recreational activities
The answer is B”.
Inclusionary housing is a positive and active policy of a community to attract low and moderate-income residents. Such policies go beyond the avoidance of techniques that discourage certain classes of people from moving into an area; they actively seek to invite such groups. Inclusionary zoning devices usually include offering incentives or bonuses to developers for building low or moderate cost housing or exceptions to traditional controls.
(90) The Town of Seacliff is experiencing unusually rapid subdivision of its remaining coastal properties. The Town Council has requested the planning director to prepare a memorandum outlining the options the Town has to ensure that public access to the coast is retained, even after the remaining parcels are subdivided and built upon. The memorandum is likely to include a discussion of which court case?
(A) Euclid. (B) Lucas. (C) Nollan. (D) First English
The correct answer is “C”
In Nollan v. California Coastal Commission, 483 U.S. 825 (1987), the United States Supreme Court reviewed a regulation under which the California Coastal Commission required that an offer to dedicate a lateral public easement along the Nollans' beachfront lot be recorded on the chain of title to the property as a condition of approval of a permit to demolish an existing bungalow and replace it with a three-bedroom house. The California Coastal Commission (CCC) argued that the new house would increase blockage of the ocean view and contribute to a “wall of residential structures” which would prevent the public “psychologically from realizing a stretch of coastline exists nearby that they have every right to visit". The Nollans could offset this burden to the public, the CCC argued, by providing additional access to the beach in the form of a dedicated access easement along the beachfront side of their property. In writing for the Court's majority overturning the exaction, Justice Antonin Scalia derided the concept of psychological impediments to public access; he wrote that if a public agency wishes to place conditions of approval on a permit, that those conditions must bear some relation (i.e. “essential nexus”) to the public-policy concerns purported to be resolved through the imposition of conditions of approval. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nollan_v._California_Coastal_Commission
(91) Which of the following would be more the function of a regional governmental responsibility than a local government?
(A) River basin management (B) Zoning (C) Aesthetics regulation (D) Redevelopment.
The correct answer is “A”
Local governments are concerned with land use planning and zoning. Regional agencies are involved with planning issues that go beyond individual jurisdictional boundaries
(92) What do many consider Frederick Law Olmsted's greatest example of a suburb?
A) Petaluma, California B) Belle Isle, Michigan C) Riverside, Illinois D) Ramapo, New Jersey
The correct answer is “C”
Riverside, Illinois has been considered the best example of Olmsted's idea of how suburbs should look. Belle Isle was also a Planned Community by Olmsted. Riverside is a 1,600 acre community along the Des Plaines River west of Chicago, Illinois. Olmsted and Vaux took 2 years planning Riverside, beginning in 1868. The idea was to secure enough space for recreation and to make sure that there were scenic areas available to all residents. To accomplish this, he preserved the floodplain and the river banks as well as two open areas of upland. The first act of construction was a shaded parkway to connect Riverside to Chicago. Also, Olmsted paid attention to the inner roads of the community making them as scenic as possible. He designed streets that followed the curve of the land and eased the grade of the slopes to fit his plans. He also avoided all uses of right angle intersections to create more public space, which was pleasing to him. He also decided that the areas between public streets and houses were private land with a public function and formed a transitional area between public and private areas. In the end, only 1000 acres of the land was developed, which meant the loss of one of the large open spaces that was envisioned. http://fredericklawolmsted.com/
(93) The most appropriate method to eliminate an existing adult use is:
(A) A taking (B) A moratorium (C) An amortization (D) A non-conforming use
The correct answer is (C)
A local government may establish a time frame within which a regulated nonconforming use, such as an adult use, must cease. This is known as an “amortization”. The basis for doing so is to allow the property owner an opportunity to recover his economic investment before being required to cease the nonconformity. This approach has been used for many different types of uses, such as gas stations in residentially zoned areas, adult entertainment facilities, junk yards, concrete plants, commercial uses, and billboards. The length of the amortization period is based frequently upon the economic life of the nonconformity. SEE: See APA’s Nonconformities; “Zoning Practice” (2009 November)
(94) With regard to “takings”, the US Supreme Court has said that where a regulation is in-tended merely to prevent a ______, it should NOT be considered a taking.
(A) Fiscal impact. (B) Rational nexus. (C) Nuisance. (D) Rezoning.
The answer is “C”.
The court has held that regulations simply intended to prevent or eliminate a nuisance cannot be considered a taking.
(95) As the planning director for a moderate-size town, you are planning to conduct a town wide survey on opinions relating to growth and open space preservation. You have decided to conduct the survey by interviewing, on a random basis, 1% of the town's population. In general, how effective will your survey be in eliciting responses?
A) Good B) Moderate C) Poor D) Not an acceptable form of data collection
The correct answer is A)
Although personal interviews are extremely time consuming and labor intensive, they generally are very effective in eliciting responses.
(96) An appeal by an aggrieved party to a zoning board of appeals decision would most likely be filed with whom?
A) Local planning board B) Local building inspector C) State superior level court D) State office of planning
The correct answer is C)
Appeals from local zoning decisions are usually filed with the state court of competent jurisdiction.
(97) A one acre parcel is divided into four equal rectangular lots parallel to each other and each 200 feet in depth. What is the approximate width of each lot?
(A) 218 feet (B) 50 feet (C) 55 feet (D) 109 feet
The correct answer is “C”
Each lot’s width is 54.45 feet [(43,560 sf parcel / 200 feet depth per lot) / 4 lots = 54.45 feet width per lot)]. The one acre parcel (43,560 sf) is 200 feet deep by 217.8 feet wide.
(98) An engineering staff member is asking for your approval of a staff report stating that a stormwater management area does not have to be located "on site" by the developer of a residential development. The property is adjacent to an existing stormwater management pond that is currently underutilized due to the fact that the commercial property to the north, which was responsible for the oversized pond, was not developed to its fullest potential due to the current economic climate, and it is likely that the property will never be fully developed. Which is the BEST option for you to follow?
A) You cannot give your support of the report because as a planner you must look at all long range consequences B) You must support the report because it is from an engineer and that person has a more thorough understanding of the complicated mathematics that are required when calculating stormwater. C) You must not support the staff report until the engineer or the developer can provide you with data that illustrates that the existing oversized pond can accommodate the proposed residential development and the future commercial development as well. D) You must support the report because the economic benefit of the tax dollars from the new development will be most beneficial to the City.
The correct answer is “C”
Although answer “A” is considered correct, answer “C” is the BEST answer, because not only does it show that you are looking at the long term consequences of the development and the stormwater issue, but that you are also willing to work with the engineer to come up with alternate solutions, or at the very least, see if the pond can handle both developments because it is not your area of expertise.
(99) As a senior planner with a metropolitan transportation authority, you have been asked by the director to research issues related to the construction of a new runway to accommodate wide-bodied aircraft at the city's international airport. The director wants to make sure you investigate related environmental justice issues. "Environmental justice" refers to:
A) Discrimination in the job market B) Discrimination in the housing market C) Discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance D) Discrimination according to race, religion, or income status in any program receiving state financial assistance
The correct answer is C)
Environmental justice is defined by two key federal actions. First, Title VI of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits intentional discrimination on the grounds of race, color, or national origin under any program receiving federal financial assistance. Second, in 1994, President Clinton signed an Executive Order that directed all federal agencies to ensure that their policies and practices do not have disproportionate adverse environmental or health impacts on low-income or minority communities. As a planner directed to investigate issues of airport expansion, and assuming the airport will rely, at least in part, on federal financial assistance, you should investigate whether the runway construction will violate either the spirit or intent of both federal actions discussed above.
Suggested reading: "Environmental Justice: A Research Guide", K. Lyskowski, NAACP Legal Defense and Education Fund, Spring, 1994.
(100) What would be the size of this property? The S1/2 of the NW1/4 of the SE1/4 of Section 12, Township 8 North, Range 6 West of the Fourth Principal Meridian?
A) 10 acres B) 20 acres C) 40 acres D) 80 acres
The correct answer is “B”
To determine the location and size of a property in this method, start at the end and work backward to the beginning reading from right to left. For the size, the SE1/4 of a typical Section is 640 acres divided by 4 which is 160 acres. The NW1/4 of the quarter section contains 160 acres divided by 4 which is 40 acres, and the S1/2 of the quarter is 40 acres divided by 2, which of course is 20. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_Land_Survey_System
(101) North-South Partners have submitted a site plan for a recreational complex that will include a fitness center, a swimming pool, other sports facilities, a restaurant, and a club venue for live entertainment. The city is interested in requiring the developer to provide a special access road, certain improvements on perimeter roads, certain intersection improvements, and some off-site traffic lights and related facilities, at least to the extent the law permits. Which one of the following cases is most applicable?
(A) Nollan v. California Coastal Commission (B) Citizens to Protect Overton Park, Inc. v. Volpe (C) Construction Industry Ass'n of Sonoma County v. City of Petaluma (D) Dolan v. City of Tigard
The correct answer is “D”
The key questions here concern the principles concerning developer exactions. The Overton Park case concerns the location of highway corridors. Petaluma concerns the use of a growth management program establishing permit quotas. Nollan concerns the relationship between a government permitting requirement and a permissible governmental objective. That’s not an issue here because arranging for road-related improvements as a condition of development permission is undoubtedly within the scope of a local government’s power. Dolan concerns the extent to which the requirements are appropriately related to the scope and impact of the development project.
(102) Why would a local zoning ordinance prohibiting the conversion of apartments to condominiums be likely to be challenged?
A) Such action is exclusionary B) Such action is confiscatory C) Such action is prohibited by the United States Constitution D) Such action is not within the authority of zoning
The correct answer is D)
Zoning ordinances focus on the use of property and not with its manner of ownership. Courts have repeatedly found that zoning cannot regulate the form of property ownership.
(103) Transit Oriented Development (TOD) is a design feature developed by whom?
(A) Clarence Perry (B) Peter Calthorpe (C) Daniel Burnham (D) Richard Babcock
The correct answer is "B".
Many communities embrace specific aspects of Smart Growth, such as urban service boundaries, pedestrian- and transit-oriented development, controls on sprawl, compact mixed uses, and the protection of agricultural and environmental resources. Peter Cathorpe’s The Next American Metropolis: Ecology, Community, and the American Dream, published in 1993, introduced the concept of Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) and provided extensive guidelines and illustrations of their broad application.
A Transit-Oriented Development is a mixed-use residential or commercial area designed to maximize access to public transport, and often incorporates features to encourage transit ridership. A TOD neighborhood typically has a center with a train station, metro station, tram stop, or bus station, surrounded by relatively high-density development with progressively lower-density development spreading outwards from the center. TODs generally are located within a radius of one-quarter to one-half mile (400 to 800 m) from a transit stop, as this is considered to be an appropriate scale for pedestrians.
(104) Which “Great Expediter” said, “If the ends don’t justify the means, then what the hell does?”
(A) Daniel Burnham (B) James Rouse (C) Robert Moses (D) Peter Calthorpe
The correct answer is “C”
Robert Moses (December 18, 1888 – July 29, 1981) was the "master builder" of mid-20th century New York City, Long Island, Rockland County, and Westchester County, New York. As the shaper of a modern city, he is sometimes compared to Baron Haussmann of Second Empire Paris, and is one of the most polarizing figures in the history of urban planning in the United States. Moses's projects were considered by many to be necessary for the region's development after being hit hard by the Great Depression. However, his critics point out that he displaced hundreds of thousands of residents in New York City, destroying traditional neighborhoods by building expressways through them, and claim that he preferred automobiles to people, contributed to the ruin of the South Bronx and the amusement parks of Coney Island, caused the departure of the Brooklyn Dodgers and the New York Giants Major League baseball teams, and precipitated the decline of public transport through disinvestment and neglect. One of his most vocal critics during this time was the urban activist Jane Jacobs, whose book The Death and Life of Great American Cities was instrumental in turning opinion against Moses's plans. Moses's image suffered a further blow in 1974 with the publication of The Power Broker, a Pulitzer Prize-winning biography by Robert A. Caro. http://c250.columbia.edu/c250_celebrates/remarkable_columbians/robert_moses.html http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Moses
(105) Which of the following determines the sizing of an infrastructure network?
(A) The ultimate extent of the service area. (B) The projected population of the service area. (C) The projected per capita service level requirements. (D) All of the above.
The answer is “D”.
Economic development and infrastructure planning practices present opportunities that encourage businesses and community facilities that offer creative, economically beneficial solutions to wasteful resource use and environmental degradation.
(106) What years would you likely be born in to be in the category Generation X?
A) Those born between 1965 and 1980 B) Those born after 1980 C) Those born prior to 1965 D) Those born between 1945 and 1965
The correct answer is “A”
Generation X-er's were born between 1965 and 1980. This APA planning magazine article not only describes the different generations but also the characteristics of the Shadow Boom. Source, APA Planning Magazine July 2002, "The War of the Ages" by C. Williamson, AICP, page 4.
(107) The primary purpose of a fiscal impact analysis is to:
(A) Help jurisdictions determine if adequate sewer capacity exists for a new development. (B) Assist city or county officials determine if a project will generate sufficient revenue to defray necessary public service costs. (C) Assess fiscal effects of new land uses. (D) Ensure that new growth pays for new growth.
The answer is "B".
Fiscal impact analysis modeling (FIAM) is often carried out to evaluate the impacts of increases in density and the addition of territory through annexation.
(108) The 1893 World's Columbian Exposition in Chicago....
I. Commemorated the 400th anniversary of the discovery of the new world II. Started the New Urbanist movement III. Jump started the urban planning profession IV. Ran for six months and attracted 27,539,000 visitors--almost half of the total number of people then living in the United States
A) I, III B) I, II, III C) I, III, IV D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
The 1893 World's Columbian Exposition in Chicago commemorated the 400th anniversary of the discovery of the New World. It was a source of the City Beautiful Movement and of the urban planning profession. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World's_Columbian_Exposition
(109) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for which of the following?
(A) Reviewing and coordinating various programs affecting the region. (B) Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or regional development goals. (C) Regulating land use and the construction of freeways. (D) A and B.
The answer is “D”.
MPOs do not regulate land use. That is the responsibility of local governments.
(110) The Town of Santa Clara is experiencing unusually rapid subdivision of its remaining coastal properties. The Town Council has requested that as planning director, you prepare a memorandum outlining whatever options the town has to ensure that public access to the coast is retained, even after the remaining parcels are subdivided and built upon. Your memorandum is likely to include a discussion regarding which of the following "tests"?
A) Taking without compensation test B) Rational nexus test C) Fair share test D) Affordable housing test
The correct answer is B)
Your memorandum is likely to include a discussion of the rational nexus test. This test requires a rational or logical connection between a regulation and its goal or intent. Highlighted in Nollan v. California Coastal Commission, the rational nexus test (the U.S. Supreme Court called it “essential nexus”) evaluates the connection or nexus between a regulation requiring public access to the water and the Town's goal of ensuring public access to the coast for present and future generations.
(111) What is the population project technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas called?
A) Demographic approach B) Input-output approach C) Shift-share approach D) Marketing approach
The correct answer is C)
The shift-share technique allocates a portion of the projected expansion to subregions or population centers based on the center's present share of the total population. For example, the population of metropolitan New York may be expected to increase by 8 percent. Brooklyn and Queens may have 10 and 12 percent of the total population,
(112) A principal planner of a large metropolitan area is responsible for facilitating the organization of a parks and open space advisory committee for the county. Representatives from which of the following groups should be considered for the committee?
I. Stockbrokers, bankers, real estate brokers II. Landscape architects, private citizens, and law enforcement. III. Chamber of commerce, building industry, farmers. IV. Environmentalist group, small business operator, school district
(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) I, II and IV (D) All of the above.
The correct answer is “D”
(113) A 2.5 acre downtown site is approved with a FAR of 6. Approximately how many stories of building could be built on an acre of the site, if 60% of the site will be required for onsite stormwater treatment, parking and landscaping systems?
(A) 6 stories (B) 10 stories (C) 15 stories (D) 22 stories
The answer is (C)
A 2.5 acre site with an approved FAR of 6 will allow 653,400 square feet of building area (i.e. 2.5 acres x 43,560 sq. ft/acre x 6 = 653,400 square feet). This is equivalent to 15 stories on a one acre site (i.e. 653,400 square feet/43,560 square feet = 15). The amount of other required acreage is not needed for the calculation. http://www.carfree.com/far.html http://qualityforinnovation.com/floor-area-ratio/floor-area-ratio-illustrated-106988/
(114) State law allows the legislative body of your jurisdiction to develop and adopt a General Plan update without soliciting public input outside the normal public hearing process. Notwithstanding this legal oversight, the senior planner of a rapidly growing city of 90,000 is concerned about the implications of excluding the public from all phases of the planning process. She knows that many citizens in the community desire more involvement in this important advance planning project. Which of the following is the best course of action?
I. Write an editorial to the local newspaper expressing her concerns about the planning process. II. Prepare a report to the City Council recommending that there be more citizen input into the planning process III. Convey your thoughts to the City Manager and seek her direction. IV. Contact each council member and discuss her concerns with them.
(A) I and II (B) II only (C) III only (D) IV only
The correct answer is “C”
(115) In the City of Westwood, population 75,000, which of the following would be used for expansion of a pre-existing commercial use in a residential neighborhood?
A) Special exception B) Variance C) Re-zoning D) None of the above
The correct answer is A)
While a re-zoning or variance would be a possible avenue for relief, an expansion of a pre-existing, non-conforming use is most often attempted via a special permit or special exception.
(116) An Urban Service Limit Line is a boundary identifying a service area within which urban development will be allowed during a specified time period. Beyond this line, development is prohibited or strongly discouraged. The establishment of such service boundaries has become an important tool for determining?
(A) Where new growth can take place. (B) The location of commercial power centers. (C) When public services will be available in new growth areas. (D) A and C
The correct answer is "D".
The Urban Service Limit Line indicates the maximum extent where public services can be provided (also look up "carrying capacity" and "threshold population").
(117) More open citizen participation and the preparation of environmental impact statements were two significant requirements established by the?
(A) Air Pollution Control Act (1955) (B) National Environmental Policy Act (1969) (C) Clean Water Act (1972) (D) Social and economic reform movement of the 1960's
The answer is “B”.
Requiring citizen participation with regards to environmental impact assessment was an innovated concept in 1969. NEPA paved the way for more citizen participation generally in local government.
(118) As the planning director for a large urban community, you are interested in the risks posed by the chemical manufacturing plant located in the abutting city. What is the federal law regulating the chemical plants use of hazardous materials?
A) The Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act C) Safe Drinking Water Act D) Clean Air Act
The correct answer is A)
The Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act regulates 366 toxic, reactive, volatile, dispersible and flammable chemicals that can cause serious irreversible health effects from accidental releases.
(119) The symptomatic approach to calculating population utilizes changes in obtainable data that are predictive of population changes as a whole. Which of the following could be used to estimate current population?
I. Building Permits II. New Telephone Hookups III. New Electric Meters IV. Voter Registration
A) I, II & III B) I C) IV D) I, II, III & IV
The correct answer is “D”
All are symptomatic measures for estimating current population. The basic assumption in all symptomatic methods is that changes in related obtainable data are predictive of changes in the population as a whole (e.g. building permits, vital statistics, school enrollment, new telephone hookups, new electric meters, and voter registration). SOURCE: 2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, page 171.
(120) You are a planning manager who doubles as the economic development director for a growing City with a population of 150,000. Working with the members of the Community Development Committee, which includes representatives from the local chamber of commerce and other civic-minded private citizens, you have drafted a basic economic development program aimed at promoting economic health in the community. All of the following are included in your program except:
(A) Preparing a feasibility study for the creation of a Research and Technology Park in the city. (B) Developing strategies for keeping local consumers from traveling outside the city to shop. (C) Promoting a policy to discourage large box retailers from locating in your community. (D) Utilizing financing strategies to recycle local funds.
The correct answer is “C”
(121) Which type of legal survey can use a large tree as a monument?
A) Metes and Bounds B) Rectangular Survey C) Lot and Block D) Recorded Plat
The correct answer is “A”
The correct answer is Metes and Bounds. It relies on a property’s physical features to determine the boundaries and measurements of the parcel. This type of Survey starts at a point of beginning (POB) and from there, the surveyor moves around the boundary. The boundaries are recorded by referring to linear measurements, directions, as well as natural and artificial landmarks (monuments). Monuments are fixed objects that are used to identify POBs or boundary intersections and can be a stone, river, highway, or iron post. This survey always ends back at the POB. The words “more or less” are used in this type of survey because the location of the monuments is more important than the actual distance stated in the wording. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metes_and_bounds
(122) The best practices of comprehensive community planning - the way planners plan the physical layout, or land use, of our communities - is key to which of the following?
I. Successful long range planning. II. Sustainable land use. III. A Visioning program. IV. Unsustainable development sprawl.
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) II and IV (D) III and IV
The correct answer is "C".
How comprehensive community planning is carried-out may result in either sustainable development or haphazard urban sprawl.
(123) The mayor asks the Planning Director to make planning decisions that promote job growth in the local economy. A metric that you plan to use to forecast the resulting economic growth in your community for specific planning decisions is a:
(A) Location Quotient (B) Benefit-Cost analysis (C) Multiplier (D) Cost Effectiveness analysis
The correct answer is (C)
In general, an employment multiplier forecasts the amount of direct, indirect and induced jobs likely to be created (or lost) in an area, associated with a particular project or industry. See also - http://www.planning.org/planning/2009/dec/deeppockets.htm
(124) A planning director has been working on a community plan for nearly a year. This project has involved substantial citizen input both through a steering committee and neighborhood meetings. The community plan is scheduled to be considered by the City Council in five days at an already noticed public hearing. The Planning Director learns that his out-of-town mother has become seriously ill and is hospitalized. The Director must take a couple of weeks off to care for her. What should he do about the community plan?
(A) Delay consideration and adoption of the plan until he returns to the office. (B) Turn the project over to his senior planner who has assisted in the development of the plan. (C) Send flowers to the hospital but decline to leave the office at this critical time. (D) Ask the city administrator to handle the project.
The correct answer is “B”
Good management practice is founded on the ability to "delegate" responsibility. If the director has been delegating responsibility all along, the senior planner should have little trouble taking the community plan to hearing because she will be familiar with the issue of the project, will have been introduced to the committee members and neighborhood representatives, and will understand any issues that may exists. Good management serves the public interest.
(125) In 1928, the US Department of Commerce, under Secretary Herbert Hoover, published?
(A) The Standard City Planning Enabling Act (B) The first model zoning code (C) The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act (D) The first Tenement Housing Law
The answer is “A”.
Since the early 20th century, policy makers have offered legislative solutions to communities to manage changes resulting from population growth. In the 1920s, Secretary of Commerce, and later President, Herbert Hoover appointed an advisory committee that drafted the Standard City Planning and Zoning Enabling Acts. Many states subsequently adopted enabling laws based on these Acts.
(126) The ITE Trip Generation Manual lists the Average Weekday Trips for a single-family residential unit at about 10 trips/day. However, a high-rise apartment building unit would generate about ___ trips/day?
(A) 12.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 4.2 (D) 3.16
The correct answer is “C”
Based on the 7th Edition of the ITE manual the following uses have the following rates: Single Family Housing - 9.6 trips/unit Low-rise apartments - 6.6 trips/unit Townhouses - 5.9 trips/unit Mobile homes - 5.0 trips/unit High-rise apartments & high-rise condos - 4.2 trips/unit
(127) The first U.S. federal recognition of the problems of slums and housing resulted in a large part from public discussion generated by publication of How the Other Half Lives and The Children of the Poor. Who was the author of these books?
(A) Robert Hunter (B) Jacob Riis (C) Patrick Geddes (D) Lewis Mumford
The correct answer is “B”
Jacob Riis (1849-1914) used photography and writing to reveal the terrible conditions of the urban poor in the US. He was the author of two books that looked at life in the slums of New York: How The Other Half Lives (1890) and Children of the Poor (1892). These books led to the first federal investigation of slum conditions and to changes in New York's housing laws that later became national models. Riis arises as one of the leading housing reformers in the history of American City Planning
(128) As a rule, which land use generates the most Average Weekday Trips per 1,000 square feet of GFA (gross floor area)?
(A) Light Industrial operation (B) General Office Building (C) Single Family Home (D) Drive-in restaurant
The correct answer is “D”
Drive-in restaurants have high daily trip generation rates per 1000 sf: Drive-in Restaurant 550 trips/1000 sf General Office Building 12 trips/1000 sf Light Industrial 6 trips/1000 sf Single Family < 5 trips/1000 sf (10/du)
(129) This type of planning's goals include environmental protection, economic vitality, social equity, and a high quality of life including pedestrian- and transit- oriented development, controls on sprawl, diverse housing choices, a compact mix of uses, protection of agricultural and environmental resources, high-quality public services, and adequate infrastructure.
A) Rational Planning B) Brownfield Planning C) New Urbanism D) Smart Growth Planning
The correct answer is “D”
By the mid 1990's there was concern about growth management, and a national movement called "smart growth" had grown. This growth management effort raised questions of regional planning, since because there was an absence of regional coordination, initiatives by local jurisdictions could be undercut by neighboring communities. JAPA, Summer 2002, "The New Regionalism" by Stephen Wheeler, page 269.
According to the Smart Growth Network, there are 10 principles of smart growth: 1. Create Range of Housing Opportunities and Choices 2. Create Walkable Neighborhoods 3. Encourage Community and Stakeholder Collaboration 4. Foster Distinctive, Attractive Places with a Strong Sense of Place 5. Make Development Decisions Predictable, Fair and Cost Effective 6. Mix Land Uses 7. Preserve Open Space, Farmland, Natural Beauty and Critical Environmental Areas 8. Provide a Variety of Transportation Choices 9. Strengthen and Direct Development Towards Existing Communities 10. Take Advantage of Compact Building Design
And 7 issues that concern smart growth: 1. Community Quality of Life 2. Design 3. Economics 4. Environment 5. Health 6. Housing 7. Transportation SEE ALSO: http://www.smartgrowth.org/
(130) The planning commission is considering a change to a local zoning regulation. A commission member has asked you whether he may interview local business representatives about their thoughts and concerns on the proposed change outside of the public hearing process. Your advice concerning the member's legal obligation is:
A) Do not discuss the proposed zoning change with anyone unless it is during the public hearing B) You may discuss the proposed zoning change outside of the public hearing as long as you repeat the substance of those conversations during the public hearing C) You are free to discuss the proposed zoning change with anyone, either during or outside of the public hearing D) You may discuss the proposed zoning change outside of the public hearing as long as you provide a written summary of all conversations
The correct answer is C)
Because adopting a zoning change is a legislative action, the member is free to discuss the matter outside of the public hearing process. While it would be helpful to the public to summarize the substance of those conversations during the public hearing, either orally or in writing, it is not legally required. In an alternative situation, discussions about pending adjudicatory matters must be conducted during the public hearing process.
(131) A planning commission member tells you that she has a conflict of interest with respect to an adjudicatory matter before the commission. She is seeking your advice about the level to which she may participate in the matter. You should advise her to:
A) Remain in her seat and participate in the discussion, including asking questions, but do not vote on the matter B) Remain in her seat but do not participate in the discussion, do not ask questions, and do not vote on the matter C) Leave her seat prior to the hearing and sit in the audience D) Leave the room during the hearing on the particular matter
The correct answer is D)
A commission member with a conflict of interest in a particular matter cannot participate, to any extent, in that matter. This means that the member cannot participate in the discussions, ask questions, or vote on the matter. While it may be sufficient for the member to leave her seat and sit in the audience, it is recommended that the member leave the room entirely in order to remove any possibility of a challenge based on the members "silent" participation through body language, facial expressions, etc.
(132) The owner of a restaurant contacted the director at her office and invited her to lunch. At lunch he asked the director to allow sidewalk table service for his business, which is prohibited by ordinance, arguing that this would help revitalize the downtown. How should the director respond?
(A) Grant him ministerial approval. (B) Advise him that outside service is prohibited. (C) Tell him that sidewalk service is not currently allowed, and then outline the process to seek an ordinance amendment. (D) Leave immediately to avoid any appearance of an ethics violation.
The correct answer is “C”
Presumably, the Director will be paying for her own lunch. It is perfectly acceptable to have lunch with the restaurant owner and describe the current ordinance restrictions and the process to propose an ordinance amendment.
(133) Prior to public hearing a member of the Town Elders believes he may have a conflict with respect to a matter before the Elders. Of the following, which represents the best action for the Elder to take?
(A) Remain in his seat and participate in the discussion including asking questions, but do not vote on the matter. (B) Leave the room during the hearing on the particular matter. (C) Leave the chamber prior to the hearing. (D) Remain in his seat but do not participate in the discussion, do not ask questions, and do not vote on the matter.
The correct answer is “C”.
An elected official must make public disclosure of all ``personal interests'' they may have regarding any decision to be made in the planning process in which they serve. “Personal interest'' must be broadly de-fined to include a spouse, family member or person living in their household. An elected official must abstain completely from direct or indirect participation as an advisor or decision-maker in any matter in which they have a personal interest. The member needs to leave the room entirely in order to remove any possibly of a challenge based on the member’s “silent” participation through body language, facial expressions, etc.
(134) Neighborhood, rather than Regional, planning may be more likely to address:
(A) Wetland and floodplain protection (B) Airport Accessibility (C) Availability of grocery stores (D) Provision of overnight parking for 18-wheelers
The correct answer is “C”
In 1915, Robert E. Park and E. W. Burgess introduced the idea of "neighborhood" as a concept associated with urban planning implications. Generally, neighborhood planning deals with a level of planning greater than household size but smaller than that of a city, yet neighborhood planning is not consistently found at the municipal level.
(135) All of the following would be considered as part of a Transportation Systems Management (TSM) program except?
(A) Carpooling and vanpooling incentives (B) Major new transportation facilities (C) Improved transit service (D) Staggered work schedules
The correct answer is “B”
Transportation Systems Management (TSM) is an approach to congestion mitigation that seeks to identify improvements in order to enhance the capacity of existing system through operational means. Elements of a TSM program might include metering on ramps, one way streets, signalization optimization, turn lane striping improvements, or special event management strategies.
(136) (18) The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 required local governments to address potential hazards in a Hazard Mitigation Plan in order to remain eligible to receive certain federal funds before and following federally-declared disasters. Your community has adopted such a plan in the Safety Element of your General Plan and it addresses:
I. Natural hazards II. Man-made hazards III. Fiscal responsibility for disasters IV. A development retreat from low-lying coastal areas
(A) II, III (B) I, II, IV (C) I, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B)
See “Hazard Mitigation Plans” in APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 43-45, 585 See APA PAS Report 565 Hazard Mitigation (2010) See also - http://www.planning.org/eda/spotlight/2008/fall.htm
(137) This type of zoning involves superimposing over zoning districts to create additional requirements.
A) PUD B) TDRs C) Overlay Zones D) Performance Zoning
The correct answer is “C”
Nationally, overlay zones typically add additional protective requirements for historic structures, environmental protection, etc. However, statues in Florida allow overlay zones to add additional development entitlements (e.g. rural land stewardship). Zoning districts may be set up into many different ways: 1) Cumulative (or pyramid), this is when permitted uses automatically accumulate from one district to each successive one. In this, the single detached residence is the top. 2) Exclusive classification, allows no uses in districts other than the uses for which they were created. An example for this is to stop residential from "taking over" another land use like commercial and then protesting when a commercial use is proposed. 3) Performance Standards, establish objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or characteristics of a land use (e.g.: allowable amount of noise). 4) Performance Zoning, regulates the character of the use instead of simply just regulating the use itself. 5) Mixed-Use districts, permitting mixed uses. 6) Planned Unit Developments (PUD), allows a mix of uses and flexibility in design as well as flexibility in density and dimensional requirements. 7) Overlay Zones, these add requirements "on top" of zoning districts. 8) Incentive Zoning, cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum standards. 9) Transferable Development Rights (TDR), allows property owners with limited development rights to buy additional rights from another property owner. SOURCE: 2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, pages 131-133.
(138) This question is based on the following hypothetical situation.
Mark was asked by the local Chamber of Commerce to present his views on economic development versus environmental protection; a topic causing great debate in the community. As planning director, Mark has developed a reputation of being an environmentalist, often at odds with the Chamber. Moreover, Mark's job is in serious danger as the planning board lost three of Mark's strongest supporters in yesterday's election, a week after he agreed to speak before the Chamber.
Before the election, Mark had intended to focus on the value of environmental protection from an aesthetic viewpoint. Now, with his job in jeopardy, Mark has decided to shift his focus to the economic benefits of environmental protection. His decision is:
A) In violation of the AICP Code of Ethics B) In violation of the AICP Ethics Advisories C) Not in violation of an AICP Code or Advisory D) Both A) and B)
The correct answer is C)
Mark is using good judgment, given his audience and his delicate relationship with the community.
(139) As a planner for a small rural community, you are considering conducting a survey of town residents as to their opinions on the proposed expansion of the town landfill. You are planning on using a questionnaire, mailed to all resident taxpayers. The degree of interviewer bias in this type of questionnaire is generally:
A) High B) Medium C) Low D) Not applicable
The correct answer is C)
Although the questions to be answered could be designed to elicit certain responses, it is unlikely that an interviewer could personally bias a mail questionnaire. As a result, mail questionnaires are considered effective and impartial methods of collecting data for planning studies and analytical reporting.
Suggested reading: "Participation Tools for Better Land Use Planning", N. Moore, Center for Livable Communities, 1995.
(140) Sustainability is often described as?
(A) Neo-traditional Planning (B) A healthy, productive, meaningful, unchanging life for all community residents, present and future. (C) Providing for current needs without jeopardizing the ability of future generations to provide for their needs (D) Smart Growth
The correct answer is “C”
(141) You are the principal planner in charge of a program to develop a new general plan for your city. Recognizing that citizen participation is an important part of the of the planning process, you suggest that a citizen’s advisory committee be formed. Of the following which should be on this committee?
I. Business and professional people. II. Children and elderly folks. III. Bankers and developers IV. Renters, low income, and minority people
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) All of the above
The answer is (D).
All citizens should be invited to participate in a comprehensive planning program. Committees should ideally consist of a cross section of the community and may include senior citizens, children and socially disadvantaged persons.
(142) The City Council appointed a 12 member Citizens Steering Committee to advise the Council on an Adult Use Ordinance. It is the senior planner’s job to represent the city as the sole staff person on the committee. To help facilitate the effectiveness of the committee which of the following should she do FIRST?
I. Assume the role of committee chairperson II. Advise the committee to select a chairperson from their own ranks III. Make a list of discussion topics and tell the group what they should talk about. IV. Come to the initial meeting and then just drop by every-once-in-a-while on meeting dates to make sure things are running okay.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) IV only
The answer is “B”. The first action to take is to give power and leadership to the Committee by advising the members of the group to select a chairperson from their own ranks.
(143) A Pulp and Paper Mill is considering building a new mill on several hundred acres of tree covered waterfront property they own in Timmons. The general plan shows this land as a combination of some recreational and some residential. The Pulp and Paper Mill files a plan amendment to re-designate the area they own to a heavy industrial classification. The planning director strongly opposes the amendment on the basis that the scenic area should remain a valuable natural resource for the public to enjoy. However, the County goes ahead and approves the amendment. After this, a group of nearby residents takes the case to court. The planning director provides the group of residents with information that they use to help prepare their case. The planning director also testifies in court about the value of the property to the community.
According to the AICP Code of Ethics, all the following is true about the behavior of the planning director EXCEPT:
A) The director served the public interest by providing information to the group of residents when they were preparing their case B) The director did exhibit concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed plan use changes. C) The director should not have testified in court. The Code of Ethics requires planners to accept their employer’s decision. D) The director was acting under his/her ethical responsibility to protect the integrity of the natural environment.
The correct answer is “C”
According to the AICP Code of Ethics, the director served the public interest by providing information to the group of residents when they were preparing their case. The director exhibited concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed plan use changes in his opposition, and the director was acting under his/her ethical responsibility to protect the integrity of the natural environment. It is likely that he would have been subpoenaed to testify by the residents. However, the Director could ethically appear in court to speak about his planning recommendations against the proposal, even if not subpoenaed. Of course, this latter action may have employment ramifications.
(144) Each of the following is a Smart Growth goal except:
(A) Saving our most valuable remaining natural resources (B) Supporting existing communities and neighborhoods (C) Controlling population growth (D) Saving taxpayer dollars by not building the infrastructure required to support sprawl
The correct answer is “C”
Smart growth is not about controlling or stopping growth. It is about encouraging development patterns that simultaneously promote environmental protection and economic development opportunities within a framework of neo-traditional design principles. Strategies include land use planning, mixed-use development, measures to increase public mass transit use, and the preservation of natural and agricultural lands.
(145) The period between 1860 and 1870 in the United States saw the beginning of suburbanization with the creation of small settlements beyond larger cities. Which of the following cities exemplifies this early American planning movement?
A) Radburn, New Jersey B) Riverside, Illinois C) Lake Forest, Illinois D) Forest Hills Gardens, New York
The correct answer is B)
Riverside, Illinois is a railroad suburb designed by F.L. Olmstead Sr., and Calvert Vaux. Noted for its curvilinear streets and park-like surroundings, it is a symbol of mid-19th Century suburbanization and early urban sprawl.
(146) The court ruled that communities can restrict the number of building permits granted each year, if reasonable, and does not violate the right to travel in which landmark case?
A) Metromedia v City of San Diego (1981) B) Construction Industry of Sonoma Co. v City of Petaluma (1976) C) Associated Home Builders v City of Livermore (1976) D) Village of Belle Terra v Borass (1974)
The correct answer is B)
Communities can restrict the number of building permits granted each year if reasonable. This does not violate the right ot travel. The law suit filed was in reaction to the “Petaluma Environmental Design Plan (1971-1972)”. The plan’s controversial system for phasing residential growth was upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1976. The plan limited new housing to 500 units a year. It also established a 200-foot wide greenbelt and created a community board to evaluate proposed new development. The plan and court ruling had a major influence on the evolution of managed growth processes throughout the US.
(147) What can be described as the square root of the variance?
A) Normal Distribution B) Confidence Interval C) Standard Deviation D) Range
The correct answer is “C”
Standard Deviation can be described as the square root of the variance. SOURCE: 2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, page 160. SEE ALSO: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_deviation
(148) A Delphi Method can best be described as which of the following?
A) A series of questionnaires sent out, to a pre-selected group of experts B) Citizens addressing themselves to proposals through workshop formats C) Citizens vote their approval or disapproval by official ballots D) An intensive, interactive problem-solving process with meetings convened around a specific plan
The correct answer is ”A”.
The Delphi method is an exercise in group communication among a panel of geographically dispersed experts. The technique allows experts to deal systematically with a complex problem or task. The essence of the technique is fairly straightforward. It comprises a series of questionnaires sent either by mail or via computerized systems, to a pre-selected group of experts. These questionnaires are designed to elicit and develop individual responses to the problems posed and to enable the experts to refine their views as the group’s work progresses in accordance with the assigned task. The main point behind the Delphi method is to overcome the disadvantages of conventional committee action. The name "Delphi" derives from the Oracle of Delphi, and was developed in its basic present form by Project RAND during the 1950-1960s. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delphi_method
(149) With respect to community planning, which of the following best describes the feelings of neighborhoods?
A) Planning is viewed as ineffective B) Government officials tell citizens “what” and “why” rather than asking for input C) Planning is not seen as a cooperative effort D) Residents are tired of endless community meetings where nothing ever seems to happen
All the answers are correct; the “best” answer is C)
Answer “B” or “C” relay the same message, but “C” is the best answer because it better describes the feelings of the neighborhood as a whole, contains the word “cooperative” (indicating a desire to work together as a group), and it indicates citizen interest to be allowed “organized” input into the planning process. SOURCE: “Findings” in APA Policy Guide on Neighborhood Collaborative Planning.
(150) Meridian lines run?
(A) In the same direction as township lines. (B) East and West. (C) North and South. (D) Northwest.
The correct answer is “C”
Meridan Street at the Capitol in Tallahassee runs north and south. Baselines (Apalachee Parkway in Tallahassee) run east and west. Township lines form a square around 36 sections, so they run both east and west, and north and south.
(151) The Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 placed a number of conditions on local governments. Which of the following did it include?
A) Local governments must not unreasonably discriminate among competing providers. B) Local governments must act on all wireless tower permit requests within a reasonable time. C) Any decision by a local council denying a wireless tower must be substantiated by evidence in writing. D) All of the above.
The correct answer is D)
The Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 protects the rights of the telecommunications industry in nearly the same fashion as the First Amendment protects adult uses. Local governments can regulate but can not prohibit these uses.
(152) What is Satisficing?
(A) A term meaning that an applicant is satisfied with the approval of his project. (B) Accepting policy options short of maximizing goal attainment (C) Accepting policy options short of attaining 100% consensus (D) Both B and C
The correct answer is “D”
Satisficing (a portmanteau of "satisfy" and "suffice") is a decision-making strategy which attempts to meet criteria for adequacy, rather than to identify an optimal solution. A satisficing strategy may often be (near) optimal if the costs of the decision-making process itself, such as the cost of obtaining complete information, are considered in the outcome calculus. The word satisfice was coined by Nobel prize winner Herbert Simon.
(153) After the City Council appointed a 12 member Citizens Steering Committee it is the director’s job to represent the city as the sole staff person on the committee. To help facilitate the committee meeting she decides to?
I. Assume the role of committee chairperson. II. Advise the committee to select a chairperson from their own ranks. III. Make a list of discussion topics and tell the group what they should talk about. IV. Come to the initial meeting and then just drop by every-once-in-a-while on meeting dates to make sure things are running okay.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) II, III and IV
The correct answer is “B”
The Director would want to continue to staff the committee, but would not want to chair or direct what they should discuss.
(154) A 6-inch by 6-inch square on a standard quad map represents approximately:
(A) 36 square miles (B) A Township (C) A little less than two sections (D) A little more than five sections
The correct answer is “D”
The best known United States Geological Survey quadrangle maps are those of the 7.5- minute by 7.5 minute, 1:24,000-scale quadrangle series. At a scale of 1:24,000, one inch on a USGS quad represents 24,000 inches or 2,000 feet. A 6-inch by 6-inch square would be 12,000 feet on a side or include an area of 144 million square feet, equal to 3,305.8 acres (43,560 sq. feet/acre) or 5.2 sections (640 acres/section).
(155) Select from the list of authors the one who has directly contributed to urban design and the form of the city:
A. Kevin Lynch B. Saul Alinsky C. Ian McHarg D. Richard Babcock
The correct answer is “A”.
Kevin A. Lynch provided seminal contributions to the field of city planning through empirical research on how individuals perceive and navigate the urban landscape. His books explore the presence of time and history in the urban environment, how urban environments affect children, and how to harness human perception of the physical form of cities and regions as the conceptual basis for good urban design. Lynch's most famous work, The Image of the City published in 1960, is the result of a five-year study on how users perceive and organize spatial information as they navigate through cities.
(156) Shown below are two types of employment percentages for industries X, Y, and Z in a metropolitan area. The local employment for each industry is listed as a percent of total local employment, and the national employment in each industry is listed as a percent of total national employment. Under the location quotient method, an economic planner can assign which of these industries to the export sector of the metropolitan area?
Local National Industry Employment Employment X 3% 6% Y 10% 7% Z 11% 3%
A. X only B. Y only C. Z only D. Y and Z only
The correct answer is D)
(157) You are a planner in Naperville, Illinois. You would like to take a part-time job in the evenings working as a bartender. According to the APA Code of Ethics, which of the following is the BEST course of action for you to take?
A) You do not have to tell your planning supervisor, just start doing the part-time work B) You need to have written permission from your planning boss C) You should ask for verbal permission from your planning boss D) As long as the part-time work is outside of Naperville's planning jurisdiction you do not have to ask for permission
The correct answer is “A”
The correct answer is A, because it is not related to the field of planning. According to the Code, in Section B.4: “We shall not, as salaried employees, undertake other employment in planning or a related profession, whether or not for pay, without having made full written disclosure to the employer who furnishes our salary and having received subsequent written permission to undertake additional employment, unless our employer has a written policy which expressly dispenses with a need to obtain such consent.”
(158) Center-of-the-block parks bounded by two-story single family houses, pedestrian paths to local schools, and nearby shopping centers are all designed elements of?
(A) Grid City Designs (B) Growth Management planning (C) Greenbelt Towns (D) Superblock housing
The correct answer is “D”
A superblock is much larger than a traditional city block, with greater setback for buildings, and is typically bounded by widely spaced, high-speed, arterial or circulating routes rather than by local streets. Superblocks are generally associated with suburbs, planned cities, and the urban renewal of the mid-20th century; that is, in areas in which a street hierarchy has replaced the traditional grid. In a residential area of a suburb, the interior of the superblock is typically served by cul-de-sac roads. Urban planner Clarence Perry argued for use of superblocks and related ideas in his "neighborhood unit" plan, which aimed to organize space in a way that is more pedestrian-friendly and provided open plazas and other space for residents to socialize
(159) The two lines on the graph below best represent which of the following combinations of travel behavior in a metropolitan area of 2 million population?
A. Transit and private automobile trips B. Weekday and weekend trips C. All work and nonwork trips D. Office and retail-generated trips
The correct answer is C)
(160) The desirability and feasibility of a proposed shopping center are to be evaluated. The primary concerns are that conditions of the city zoning ordinance be met and that the project be a profitable venture. The developer owns a 30-acre parcel and proposes to construct a 250,000-square-foot leasable area with 1,300 on- site parking spaces. The shopping center will serve a trade area that contains 20,000 households. The average household disposable income is $12,000. The shopping center will have a 50:50 split of square footage between convenience and shopper’s goods.
If an average of 400 square feet is needed to accommodate each parking space and associated driveways, what would be the approximate acreage of the blacktop area of the site?
(A) Less than 10 acres (B) Between 10 and 15 acres (C) Between 15 and 20 acres (D) More than 20 acres
The correct answer is “B”
The shopping center will require just under 12 acres of blacktop [(1,300 spaces x 400 sf/space) / 43,560 sf/acre = 11.94 acres]
(161) At the time of the last census, population of Centerville was 24,000. Since then, they have issued 312 permits for construction of single family homes, 10 permits for commercial businesses, and 2 permits for construction of multi-family developments which will each have 62 dwelling units, and 40 dwelling units respectively. The average size of a single family household in Centerville is 3.2 people per household. The average size of a multi-family dwelling unit is 2.4. The average commercial business employs 1 person for every 250 square feet. Using the symptomatic approach, estimate the current population of Centerville.
A) 25,243 B) 1,243 C) 25,003 D) 25,147
The correct answer is “A”
The symptomatic approach to calculating population utilizes changes in obtainable data that are predictive of population changes as a whole (like building permits). In this example, single family permits have resulted in 998 new residents, and multi-family permits have resulted in 245 new residents, for a total increase of 1,243 new residents. Commercial permits are not particularly good estimates of current population. Additionally, there is not enough information presented in this question to use this figure as an estimate of new population.
(162) What type of standards deal with regulations to prevent the significant deterioration of very high quality airsheds?
A) PSA Standards B) EPA Standards C) PSD Standards D) Effluent Standards
The correct answer is “C”
PSD (Prevention of Significant Deterioration) Standards are air quality standards aimed at preventing the significant deterioration of existing high quality air by enforcing strict effluent controls on new polluters in a region. For example, National Parks and large Wilderness Areas are specifically protected by the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, which requires the prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) to such areas. Grand Canyon National Park is designated as one of these areas, called Class I regions, that are protected from "the prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility". See: http://www.epa.gov/NSR/psd.html
(163) The law case, Young v. American Minitheatres dealt with which of the following issues?
A) Signage B) Adult Uses C) Takings D) Impact Fees
The correct answer is “B”
Two adult motion picture theaters brought this action against city officials for injunctive relief and a declaratory judgment of unconstitutionality regarding two 1972 Detroit zoning ordinances that amended an "Anti-Skid Row Ordinance" adopted 10 years earlier. The 1972 ordinances provide that an adult theater could not (apart from a special waiver) be located within 1,000 feet of any two other "regulated uses" or within 500 feet of a residential area. The District Court upheld the ordinances, and granted petitioners' motion for summary judgment. A federal district court ruled in favor of the city, a decision that was reversed by the United States Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit. The appeals court concluded that the ordinances posed a prior restraint based on content and that the ordinances ran afoul of the Equal Protection Clause. However, in a 5-4 opinion, the U.S. Supreme Court reversed the Sixth Circuit and held that Detroit's ordinances were reasonable, and although erotic material could not be completely suppressed, Detroit had adequate reasons to restrict the distribution of such material. http://www.oyez.org/cases/1970-1979/1975/1975_75_312
(164) The rational comprehensive method for decision making requires all of the following except?
A. clarification of values B. consideration of extensive data C. anecdotal information D. consideration of all relevant factors
The answer is C)
(165) Protection of the natural environment, extension of housing to under-served populations, solving the energy crisis, and dealing with economic recession were primary considerations of local government?
(A) At the beginning of the 20th century (B) During the 1970’s (C) After World War II (D) In the 1920’s
The correct answer is “B”
(166) The benefits of the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) project including power generation and flood control extend to which type of area:
(A) National (B) Multi-State (C) County (D) Urban
The correct answer is “B”.
(167) Which of the following BEST describes the development regulations that apply to the single family home illustrated BELOW?
A) 10' Rear Yard Setback, 20' Side Yard Setback, 30' Front Yard Setback, 36% Coverage. B) 10' Rear Yard Setback, 10' Side Yard Setback, 20' Front Yard Setback, 40% Coverage. C) 10' Rear Yard Setback, 20' Side Yard Setback, 30' Front Yard Setback, 60% Coverage. D) 10' Rear Yard Setback, 20' Side Yard Setback, 20' Front Yard Setback, 36% Coverage.
The correct answer is “B”
The dashed line represents the buildable area, defined by the setbacks. So the side yard setback is 10', not 20', and the front yard setback is 20', not 30'. Once this building area is defined, a building can be placed anywhere in that area, as long as they comply with allowable coverage or FAR requirements. So Answer B is the BEST answer. Although the building covers 36% of the lot, it is still in compliance with the 40% coverage and represents a building that would be permitted within a residential area with these building regulations.
(168) Sunk costs are:
(A) Prospective costs relevant to investment (B) Retrospective costs already incurred and unrecoverable (C) Costs that affect future rational decision maker's choices (D) Economic loss costs
The correct answer is “B”
In economics and business decision-making, sunk costs are retrospective (past) costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered. Sunk costs are sometimes contrasted with prospective costs, which are future costs that may be incurred or changed if an action is taken. Sunk costs should not affect the rational decision maker's future choice. The sunk cost is distinct from economic loss. For example, when a car is purchased, it can subsequently be resold; however, it will probably not be resold for the original purchase price. The economic loss is the difference (including transaction costs). The sum originally paid should not affect any rational future decision-making about the car, regardless of the resale value: if the owner can derive more value from selling the car than not selling it, it should be sold, regardless of the price paid. In this sense, the sunk cost is not a precise quantity, but an economic term for a sum paid, in the past, which is no longer relevant to decisions about the future
(169) Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of axial growth along lines of least resistance?
A. Multiple nuclei model B. Concentric zone model C. Sector model D. Negative exponential population density model
The correct answer is C)
(170) All of the following are negative costs sometimes associated with citizen participation except which one of these?
A) The inefficiency created in government because of the longer time to make a decision when involving the public. B) The fear of parochialism. C) There could be increased cohesion of the community. D) The representative form of government may be weakened.
The correct answer is “C”
There are some problems and benefits associated with citizen participation. Some costs may be that due to a lengthened process, there may indeed some economic wastes. Another possible cost may be that this creates an inefficiency in government created because of the added groups. There is also the thought that it may weaken the representative form of government. SOURCE: 2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, page 127.