Instructions / સૂચના Candidate Must Ensure Compliance to the Instructions Mentioned Below, Else Objections Shall Not Be Considered:
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APO PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY [CBRT] Name of The Post Assistant Professor, Tuberculosis and Chest Diseases, General State Service, Class-1 Advertisement No 85/2019-20 Preliminary Test Held On 10-01-2021 Que. No. 001-200 Publish Date 13-01-2021 Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 21-01 -2021 Instructions / સૂચના Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections shall not be considered: - (1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet Physically. (2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed formatr (Suggestion rSheet) published on the website.r r (3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Maste Question Pape withr provisional answe key (Maste Question Paper), published herewith on the website. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, rQuestion No. & options ofr the Maste Question Paper. (4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options othe than provisional answe key (Master Question Paper) shall not be considered. r (5) Objections and answers suggestedr by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses givenr by him in his answe sheet. Objections shall not be considered, r in case, if responses given in the answe sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed. (6) Objection fo each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection fo more than one question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as cancelled. ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકેદારી રાખવી, અયથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂઆતો યાને લેવાશે નહીં (1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પકથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે. (2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પકના નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો. (3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરીામાં મળેલ પુિતકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આસર કી (માટર પ)ના માંક મુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા. (4) માટર પ માં િનિદ અને િવકપ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં. (5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવકપ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવકપ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે પોતાની ઉરવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉરવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં. (6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પકમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં. 001. The DLCO is increased in (A) Emphysema (B) Asbestosis (C) Pulmonary embolism (D) Exercise in a normal subject 002. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by: (A) Alveolar macrophages (B) Goblet cells (C) Leukocytes (D) Type II alveolar cells 003. According to Poiseuille’s law, reducing the radius of an airway to one third will increase its resistance by _______ times. (A) 1/3 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 81 004. The most important stimulus for controlling the level of resting ventilation is: (A) Po2 on peripheral chemoreceptors (B) Pco2 on peripheral chemoreceptors (C) pH on peripheral chemoreceptors (D) pH of CSF on central chemoreceptors 005. True about the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is: (A) The impulses travel to the brain via the carotid sinus nerve. (B) It results in further inspiratory efforts if the lung is maintained inflated. (C) It is seen in adults at small tidal volumes. (D) None of the above 006. Transpulmonary pressure (PTP) is measured by? (A) Alveolar pressure - pleural pressure (B) Pleural pressure - alveolar pressure (C) Endexpiratory - endinspiratory pleural pressure (D) Endinspiratory - endexpiratory pleural pressure 007. Maximal inspiratory pressure (MIP) and maximal expiratory pressure (MEP) are used to assess (A) Strength of respiratory muscles (B) Lung recoil (C) Airway obstruction (D) All of the above 008. When fully saturated, each gram of hemoglobin carries _______ (A) 0.34 mL of O2 (B) 1.34 mL of O2 (C) 2.34 mL of O2 (D) 3.34 mL of O2 009. ‘Sulphur granule pus’ is associated with (A) Tuberculosis (B) Mycoplasma (C) Actinomycosis (D) Hodgkin’s disease 010. Which of the following cells predominate in asthmatics ? (A) TH1 (B) TH2 (C) TH3 (D) TH4 011. Cough associated with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is because of (A) Type I interferons (B) Kinins (C) Cysteinyl leukotrienes (D) All of the above APO - MASTER ] 1 [ P.T.O. 012. False about exercise induced asthma (EIA) is (A) Begins after exercise has ended (B) Recovers spontaneously within ~30minutes (C) Best prevented by regular use of inhaled glucocorticoids (D) None of the above 013. Creola bodies are made up of (A) Airway epithelium (B) Airway smooth muscle (C) Thick and stringy mucus (D) All of the above 014. Which of the following is not a bronchodilator drug ? (A) Beta2 - adrenergic agonists (B) Anticholinergics (C) Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICSs) (D) Theophylline 015. Actions of Beta2-agonists include all except (A) Reduction in airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) (B) Inhibition of mast cell mediator release (C) Reduction in plasma exudation (D) Inhibition of sensory nerve activation 016. Theophylline activates (A) Growth factor - related receptor tyrosine kinase (B) Histone deacetylase-2 (C) DNA methyltransferase (D) All-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) 017. Stratosphere sign on USG is seen in (A) Pleural effusion (B) Pneumothorax (C) Normal lung (D) Pulmonary edema 018. Monoclonal antibody to IL-5 is (A) Mepolizumab (B) Omalizumab (C) Tocilizumzb (D) Itolizumab 019. Detection of galactomannan antigen in serum is seen in (A) Invasive aspergillosis of the lung (B) Bronchiectasis (C) Bronchogenic carcinoma (D) Atelectasis 020. “Monday chest tightness” is associated with (A) Bagassosis (B) Byssinosis (C) Berylliosis (D) Asbestosis 021. Fever is due to release of (A) Interleukin (IL) 1 (B) Interleukin (IL) 8 (C) Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (D) All of the above 022. Influenza infection is complicated by (A) Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) Haemophilus influenzae (C) Staphylococcus aureus (D) None of the above APO - MASTER ] 2 [ Contd. 023. A recent hotel stay or ship cruise is associated with pneumonia due to? (A) Legionella (B) Enterobacteriaceae (C) MRSA (D) P. aeruginosa 024. Adequate sputum sample for culture should have (A) >25 PMN (B) >20 PMN (C) >15 PMN (D) >10 PMN 025. Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is determined by (A) ermB gene (B) mecA gene (C) gyrA gene (D) parC gene 026. The following is not a feature of Kartagener’s syndrome (A) Situs inversus (B) Colonic diverticula (C) Bronchiectasis (D) Sinusitis 027. CFTR stands for (A) CF transmembrane resistance regulator (B) CF transmembrane conductance regulator (C) CF transport regulator (D) CF transcription regulator 028. False about ankylosing spondylitis is (A) Upper lobe fibrobullous lesion can be seen (B) Restrictive lung disease (C) Obstructive lung disease (D) anti-TNF therapy is useful 029. Which allele is associated with normal 1 antitrypsin levels ? (A) S (B) M (C) Z (D) Null 030. Which of the following is responsible for increased resistance in most individuals with COPD ? (A) Large airways (B) Medium airways (C) Small airways (D) All of the above 031. Bupropion is contraindicated in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypertension (C) Seizure (D) Hypothryoidism 032. Which of the following is not a parameter in ‘BODE index’ ? (A) Breathing rate (B) Airflow obstruction (C) Dyspnoea (D) Exercise capacity 033. Interstitial lung disease in which of these conditions is more common in men (A) Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) (B) Tuberous sclerosis (C) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (D) Rheumatoid arthritis 034. In pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP), the neutralizing IgG antibody is against (A) Surfactant (B) GM-CSF (C) PAS positive lipoproteinaceous material (D) All of the above APO - MASTER ] 3 [ P.T.O. 035. In Pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM), is associated with proliferation of which of the following (A) Type 1 pneumocytes (B) Type 2 pneumocytes (C) Pulmonary lymphatic vessels (D) Neoplastic smooth muscle cells 036. Löfgren’s syndrome is characterized by (A) Arthritis (B) Erythema nodosum (C) Bilateral hilar adenopathy (D) All of the above 037. By chest radiographs, Stage 3 sarcoidosis refers to which of the following (A) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy without infiltration (B) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with infiltration (C) Infiltration alone (D) Fibrotic bands, bullae, hilar retraction, bronchiectasis, and diaphragmatic tenting 038. Westermark’s sign refers to (A) Focal oligemia (B) Peripheral wedged-shaped density above diaphragm (C) Enlarged right descending pulmonary artery (D) Enlarged left descending pulmonary artery 039. Antidote for bleeding from fondaparinux is ? (A) Protamine sulfate (B) Vitamin K (C) Recombinant factor VIIa (D) None of the above 040. Not related to pleural effusion is (A) Skodaic resonance (B) Calots triangle (C) Grocco triangle (D) Garland triangle 041. Parapneumonic effusions are associated with (A) Bacterial pneumonia (B) Lung abscess (C) Bronchiectasis (D) All of the above 042. Characteristic of pleural fluid biochemical analysis to diagnose chylothorax is (A) pleural fluid to sr cholesterol ratio of less than one (B) Triglyceride > 110 mg/dL (C) Either (A) or (B) (D) Both (A) and (B) 043. Hemothorax is diagnosed when hematocrit of pleural fluid is _______ percent of the peripheral blood hematocrit (A) > 25 % (B) > 33 % (C) > 50 % (D) > 75 % 044. Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax is treated with (A) Tube thoracostomy (B) Bleb resection (C) Pleural abrasion (D) Simple aspiration 045. Azygos and hemiazygos veins are present in which compartment of mediastinum ? (A) Anterior (B) Middle (C) Posterior (D) None of the above APO - MASTER ] 4 [ Contd.