Question Book Number

QUESTION BOOKLET Post applied for : Extension Inspector Q.B. Series A

Name of the candidate: ______

Date of Examination ______

Roll Number: Invigilator Signature

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

Read the instructions carefully before filling the OMR answer sheet:

1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1

1 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023

2 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase

3 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins

4 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene

5 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface

6 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum

7 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids

8 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species

9 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis

10 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium 2

11 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli

12 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation

13 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum

14 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum

15 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None

16 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection 17 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II

18 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon

19 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt

20 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed

3

21 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll

22 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin

23 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 24 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell

25 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct

26 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

27 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence 28 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform progeny d) Produces healthy, disease resistant plants

4

29 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid

30 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi

31 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes

32 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica

33 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres

34 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming

35 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs

36 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes

37 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 38 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa

5

39 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water

40 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella 41 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil

42 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of : a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries

43 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium

44 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea

45 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous

46 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma

47 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses

48 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer

49 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis

6

50 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations

51 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures

52 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply

53 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower

54 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots

55 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals

56 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis

57 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

7

58 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3

59 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both

60 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content

61 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy

62 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma

63 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest

64 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango

65 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum

66 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.

67 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride

8

68 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees

69 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water

70 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion

71 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above

72 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils

73 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells

74 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield

75 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None

76 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands

77 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3

9

78 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation

79 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above

80 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above

81 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above

82 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug

83 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco

84 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering

85 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits

86 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline

87 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity

88 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars

89 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic

10

90 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings

91 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0

92 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above

93 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome

94 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development

95 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955

96 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley

97 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam

98 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera

99 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins

100 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green

11

Directions for questions 101-104 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 101 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 102 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 103 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 104 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years

Directions for questions 105-107: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 105 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 106 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 107 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired

Directions for questions 108-111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 108 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 109 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 110 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 111 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent

12

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 112 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 113 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 114 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 115 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 116 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive

Directions for questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 117 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 118 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 119 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 120 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 121 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine

Directions for questions 122-125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 122 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 123 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 124 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon

13

125 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial

Directions for questions 126-129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 127 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 128 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 129 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts

Directions for questions 130 -133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 131 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 132 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 133 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?

14

Directions for questions 134-137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 134 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now 135 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 136 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 137 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office

Directions for questions 138-139: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 138 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 139 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent Directions for questions 140-141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 140 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 141 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap

Directions for questions 142-145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR

15

143 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 144 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 145 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ

Directions for questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates 16 employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 146 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 147 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 148 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector 149 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 150 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated

151 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras 152 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil

153 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right

17

154 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy

155 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None

156 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi

157 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City 158 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh

159 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat

160 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats

161 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee

162 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement

163 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916

164 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these

18

165 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes

166 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson

167 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen

168 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management

169 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in carried out by and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan

170 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in , is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System

171 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth

172 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community 173 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam

174 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove

175 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None

19

176 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) d) Dhanbad

177 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank

178 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru

179 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor

180 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor

181 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen

182 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate

183 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea

184 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business

185 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income

20

186 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O

187 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-

188 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None

189 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

190 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) d) Andhra Pradesh

191 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015

192 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore

193 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these

194 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596

195 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D

196 In an ½ hour, the minute hand clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚

21

197 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

198 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99

199 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate

200 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined

Question Book Number

QUESTION BOOKLET Post applied for : Extension Inspector Q.B. Series B

Name of the candidate: ______

Date of Examination ______

Roll Number: Invigilator Signature

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

Read the instructions carefully before filling the OMR answer sheet:

1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1

1 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli

2 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation

3 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum

4 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum

5 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None

6 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection 7 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II

8 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon

9 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt

10 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed

11 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023 2

12 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase

13 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins

14 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene

15 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface

16 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum

17 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids

18 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species

19 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis

20 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium

21 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll 3

22 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin

23 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 24 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell

25 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct

26 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

27 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence

28 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform d) Produces healthy, disease progeny resistant plants

29 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid

30 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi

4

31 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes

32 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica

33 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres

34 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming

35 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs

36 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes

37 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 38 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa

39 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water

40 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella

5

41 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth soil regulator

42 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries

43 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium

44 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea

45 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous

46 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma

47 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses

48 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer

49 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis

50 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations

51 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy

6

52 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma

53 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest

54 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango

55 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum

56 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.

57 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium oxide b) Copper Carbonate and Copper sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride 58 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green cells inhibiting respiration

c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in reduction in photosynthesis, soil leading to growth inhibition biomass and occasionally death in trees

59 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water

60 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion

7

61 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and nicotinamide storage at low temperatures

62 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply

63 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower

64 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots

65 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals

66 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis

67 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

68 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 8

c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3

69 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both

70 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content

71 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above

72 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils

73 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells

74 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield

75 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None

76 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands

77 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3

78 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation

79 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm on b) Land under cultivation a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above

80 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability 9

c) Germination d) None of the above

81 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above

82 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug

83 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco

84 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering

85 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits

86 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline

87 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity

88 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars

89 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic

90 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings

91 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0

92 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton 10

c) Soybean d) None of the above

93 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome

94 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development

95 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955

96 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley

97 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam

98 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera

99 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins

100 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green

11

Directions for questions 101-105: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 101 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 102 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 103 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 104 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 105 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive

Directions for questions 106-110: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 106 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 107 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 108 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 109 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 110 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine

Directions for questions 111-114 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 111 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 112 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 113 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 114 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely 12

(d) and with interest for all these years

Directions for questions 115-117: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 115 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 116 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 117 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired

Directions for questions 118-121: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 118 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 119 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 120 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 121 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent

Directions for questions 122-125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 122 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 123 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 124 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 125 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal 13

c) Perpetual d) Perennial

Directions for questions 126-129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 127 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 128 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 129 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts

Directions for questions 130 -133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 131 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 132 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 133 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?

Directions for questions 134-137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 134 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” 14

a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now

135 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 136 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 137 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office

Directions for questions 138-139: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 138 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 139 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent

Directions for questions 140-141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 140 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 141 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap

Directions for questions 142-145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 143 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the 15

connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 144 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 145 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ

Directions for questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would 16 increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand.

Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 146 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 147 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 148 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector 149 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 150 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated

151 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras

152 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil

17

153 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right

154 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy

155 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None

156 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi

157 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City

158 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh

159 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat

160 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats

161 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee

162 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement

163 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916

18

164 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these

165 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes

166 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson

167 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen

168 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management

169 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan

170 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System

171 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth

172 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community

173 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam

174 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee 19

c) Cocoa d) Clove

175 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None

176 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad

177 Which of the following scheduled, commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank

178 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru

179 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor

180 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor

181 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen

182 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate

183 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea

184 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business

20

185 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income

186 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O

187 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-

188 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None

189 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

190 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh

191 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚

192 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

193 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99

194 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate

195 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined

21

196 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015

197 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore

198 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these

199 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596

200 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D

Question Book Number

QUESTION BOOKLET Post applied for : Extension Inspector Q.B. Series C

Name of the candidate: ______

Date of Examination ______

Roll Number: Invigilator Signature

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

Read the instructions carefully before filling the OMR answer sheet:

1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1

1 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil

2 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of : a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries

3 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium

4 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea

5 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous

6 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma

7 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses

8 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer

9 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis

10 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations

11 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures 2

12 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply

13 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower

14 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots

15 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals

16 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis

17 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

18 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3

19 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both

20 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content 3

21 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy

22 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma

23 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest

24 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango

25 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum

26 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.

27 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride 28 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees

29 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water

30 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion 4

31 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above

32 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils

33 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells

34 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield

35 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None

36 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands

37 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3

38 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation

39 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above

40 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above

41 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above

42 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug

5

43 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco

44 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering

45 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits

46 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline

47 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity

48 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars

49 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic 50 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings

51 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0

52 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above

53 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome

54 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development

6

55 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955

56 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley

57 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam

58 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera

59 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins

60 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green

61 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023

62 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase

63 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins

64 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene

65 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface

7

66 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum

67 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids

68 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species

69 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis

70 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium 71 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli

72 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation

73 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum

74 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum

75 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None

76 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection

8

77 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II

78 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon

79 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt

80 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed

81 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll

82 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin

83 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 84 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell

85 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct

9

86 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

87 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence

88 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform progeny d) Produces healthy, disease resistant plants

89 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid

90 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi

91 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes

92 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica

93 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres

94 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming

10

95 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs

96 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes

97 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 98 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa

99 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water

100 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella

11

Directions for questions 101-102:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 101 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 102 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap

Directions for questions 103-106 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 103 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 104 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 105 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 106 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ

Directions for questions 107-111 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & 12 industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 107 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 108 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 109 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector

13

110 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 111 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated

Directions for questions 112-115 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 112 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 113 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 114 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 115 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years

Directions for questions 116-118 : In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 116 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 117 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 118 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired

Directions for questions 119-122: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 119 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 120 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 121 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 14

122 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent

Directions for questions 123-127: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 123 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 124 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 125 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 126 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 127 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive

Directions for questions 128-132: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 128 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 129 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 130 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 131 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 132 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine

Directions for questions 133-136 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 133 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 134 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism

15

135 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 136 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial

Directions for questions 137-140 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 137 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 138 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 139 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 140 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts

Directions for questions 141 -144: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 141 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 142 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 143 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 144 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?

Directions for questions 145-148 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 16

145 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now 146 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 147 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 148 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office

Directions for questions 149-150: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 149 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious

150 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent

151 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth

152 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community

153 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam

154 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove

17

155 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None

156 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad

157 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank

158 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru

159 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor

160 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor

161 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen

162 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate

163 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea

164 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business

165 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income 18

166 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O

167 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-

168 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None

169 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

170 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh

171 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015

172 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore

173 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these

174 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596

175 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D

176 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚

177 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

19

178 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99

179 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate

180 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined

181 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras

182 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil

183 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right

184 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy

185 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None

186 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi

187 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City

188 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh

20

189 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat

190 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats

191 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee

192 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement

193 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916

194 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these

195 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes

196 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson

197 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen

198 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management

21

199 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan

200 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System

Question Book Number

QUESTION BOOKLET Post applied for : Extension Inspector Q.B. Series D

Name of the candidate: ______

Date of Examination ______

Roll Number: Invigilator Signature

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

Read the instructions carefully before filling the OMR answer sheet:

1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1

1 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures

2 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply

3 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower

4 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots

5 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals

6 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis

7 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

8 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3

2

9 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both

10 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content

11 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy

12 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma

13 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest

14 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango

15 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum

16 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.

17 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride

18 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees

3

19 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water

20 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion

21 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above

22 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils

23 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells

24 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield

25 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None

26 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands

27 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3

28 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation

29 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above

4

30 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above

31 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above

32 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug

33 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco

34 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering

35 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits

36 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline

37 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity

38 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars

39 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic

40 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings

41 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0

5

42 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above

43 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome

44 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development

45 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955

46 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley

47 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam

48 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera

49 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins

50 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green

51 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023

52 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase

6

53 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins

54 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene

55 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface

56 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum

57 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids

58 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species

59 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis

60 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium

61 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli

62 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation

63 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: 7

a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum 64 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum

65 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None

66 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection

67 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II

68 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon

69 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt

70 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed

71 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll

72 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin

73 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits 8

c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles

74 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell

75 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct

76 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

77 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence

78 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform d) Produces healthy, disease progeny resistant plants

79 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid

80 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi

81 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes

82 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : 9

a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee Arabica

83 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres

84 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmaco-technology d) Organic farming

85 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs

86 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes

87 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant

88 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa

89 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water

90 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella

91 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil

10

92 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries

93 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium

94 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea

95 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous 96 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma

97 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Pseudoparenchyma d) All theses

98 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer

99 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis

100 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations

11

101 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras

102 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil

103 At present the right to education in India is a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right

104 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy

105 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None

106 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi

107 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City

108 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh

109 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat

110 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats

111 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental 12

Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee

112 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement

113 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916

114 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these

115 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes

116 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson

117 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen

118 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management

119 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan

120 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System

121 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth 13

c) Produce heat and radiate it towards d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere the earth and send it towards earth

122 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community 123 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telugu Desam

124 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove

125 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None

126 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad

127 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank

128 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru

129 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor

130 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor

131 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen

132 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate 14

133 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of Okhotsk d) Tasmania sea

134 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party has b) The Prime Minister has clear majority resigned but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to conduct d) A lame duck Parliament business

135 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income

136 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O

137 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-

138 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None

139 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

140 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh

141 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015

142 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore

143 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these 15

144 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596

145 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D

146 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚

147 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

148 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99

149 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate

150 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 151-154: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 151 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 152 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 153 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 154 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years

Directions for questions 155-157: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt 16 or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 155 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 156 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 157 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired Directions for questions 158-161: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 158 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 159 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 160 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 161 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent

Directions for questions 162-166: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 162 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 163 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 164 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 165 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 166 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive

Directions for questions 167-171: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 167 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 17

168 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 169 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation

170 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 171 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine

Directions for questions 172-175 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 172 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 173 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 174 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 175 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial

Directions for questions 176-179: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 176 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 177 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 178 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 179 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts

Directions for questions 180 -183: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 180 They are building a house next door to our school 18

a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school

181 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 182 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 183 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?

Directions for questions 184-187 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 184 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will help her in her work just now he help her in her work just now 185 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do then or never it now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do now or never it then or never 186 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going go today that day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not today go that day 187 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the was post office 19

Directions for questions 188-189: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 188 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 189 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent

Directions for questions 190-191:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 190 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 191 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap

Directions for questions 192-195 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 192 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 193 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 194 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 195 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ 20

Directions for questions 196-200 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food- grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 196 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 197 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 21

198 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide agriculture can reduce poverty. the impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher forces. in the non-agricultural sector

199 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the products demand- supply of labour

200 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated

*****