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1 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023
2 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase
3 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins
4 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene
5 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface
6 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum
7 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids
8 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species
9 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis
10 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium 2
11 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli
12 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation
13 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum
14 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum
15 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None
16 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection 17 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II
18 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon
19 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt
20 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed
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21 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll
22 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin
23 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 24 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell
25 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct
26 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
27 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence 28 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform progeny d) Produces healthy, disease resistant plants
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29 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid
30 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi
31 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes
32 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica
33 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres
34 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming
35 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs
36 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes
37 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 38 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa
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39 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water
40 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella 41 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil
42 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of : a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries
43 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium
44 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea
45 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous
46 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma
47 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses
48 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer
49 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis
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50 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations
51 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures
52 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply
53 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower
54 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots
55 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals
56 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis
57 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
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58 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
59 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both
60 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content
61 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy
62 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma
63 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest
64 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango
65 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum
66 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.
67 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride
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68 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees
69 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water
70 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion
71 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above
72 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils
73 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells
74 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield
75 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None
76 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands
77 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3
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78 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation
79 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above
80 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above
81 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above
82 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug
83 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco
84 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering
85 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits
86 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline
87 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity
88 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars
89 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic
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90 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings
91 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0
92 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above
93 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome
94 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development
95 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955
96 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley
97 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam
98 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera
99 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins
100 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green
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Directions for questions 101-104 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 101 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 102 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 103 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 104 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years
Directions for questions 105-107: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 105 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 106 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 107 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired
Directions for questions 108-111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 108 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 109 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 110 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 111 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent
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Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 112 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 113 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 114 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 115 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 116 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive
Directions for questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 117 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 118 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 119 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 120 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 121 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine
Directions for questions 122-125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 122 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 123 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 124 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon
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125 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial
Directions for questions 126-129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 127 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 128 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 129 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts
Directions for questions 130 -133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 131 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 132 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 133 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?
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Directions for questions 134-137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 134 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now 135 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 136 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 137 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office
Directions for questions 138-139: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 138 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 139 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent Directions for questions 140-141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 140 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 141 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap
Directions for questions 142-145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR
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143 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 144 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 145 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ
Directions for questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates 16 employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 146 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 147 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 148 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector 149 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 150 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated
151 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras 152 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil
153 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right
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154 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy
155 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None
156 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi
157 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City 158 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh
159 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat
160 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats
161 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee
162 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement
163 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916
164 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these
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165 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes
166 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson
167 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen
168 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management
169 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan
170 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System
171 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth
172 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community 173 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam
174 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove
175 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None
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176 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad
177 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank
178 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru
179 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor
180 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor
181 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen
182 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate
183 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea
184 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business
185 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income
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186 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O
187 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-
188 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None
189 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
190 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh
191 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015
192 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore
193 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these
194 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596
195 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D
196 In an ½ hour, the minute hand clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚
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197 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh
198 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99
199 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate
200 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined
Question Book Number
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1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1
1 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli
2 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation
3 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum
4 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum
5 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None
6 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection 7 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II
8 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon
9 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt
10 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed
11 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023 2
12 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase
13 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins
14 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene
15 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface
16 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum
17 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids
18 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species
19 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis
20 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium
21 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll 3
22 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin
23 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 24 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell
25 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct
26 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
27 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence
28 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform d) Produces healthy, disease progeny resistant plants
29 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid
30 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi
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31 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes
32 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica
33 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres
34 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming
35 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs
36 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes
37 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 38 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa
39 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water
40 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella
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41 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth soil regulator
42 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries
43 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium
44 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea
45 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous
46 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma
47 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses
48 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer
49 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis
50 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations
51 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy
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52 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma
53 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest
54 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango
55 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum
56 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.
57 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium oxide b) Copper Carbonate and Copper sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride 58 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green cells inhibiting respiration
c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in reduction in photosynthesis, soil leading to growth inhibition biomass and occasionally death in trees
59 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water
60 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion
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61 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and nicotinamide storage at low temperatures
62 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply
63 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower
64 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots
65 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals
66 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis
67 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
68 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 8
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
69 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both
70 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content
71 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above
72 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils
73 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells
74 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield
75 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None
76 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands
77 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3
78 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation
79 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm on b) Land under cultivation a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above
80 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability 9
c) Germination d) None of the above
81 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above
82 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug
83 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco
84 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering
85 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits
86 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline
87 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity
88 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars
89 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic
90 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings
91 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0
92 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton 10
c) Soybean d) None of the above
93 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome
94 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development
95 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955
96 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley
97 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam
98 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera
99 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins
100 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green
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Directions for questions 101-105: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 101 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 102 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 103 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 104 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 105 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive
Directions for questions 106-110: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 106 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 107 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 108 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 109 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 110 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine
Directions for questions 111-114 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 111 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 112 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 113 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 114 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely 12
(d) and with interest for all these years
Directions for questions 115-117: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 115 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 116 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 117 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired
Directions for questions 118-121: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 118 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 119 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 120 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 121 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent
Directions for questions 122-125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 122 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 123 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 124 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 125 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal 13
c) Perpetual d) Perennial
Directions for questions 126-129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 127 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 128 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 129 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts
Directions for questions 130 -133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 131 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 132 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 133 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?
Directions for questions 134-137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 134 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” 14
a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now
135 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 136 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 137 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office
Directions for questions 138-139: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 138 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 139 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent
Directions for questions 140-141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 140 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 141 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap
Directions for questions 142-145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 143 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the 15
connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 144 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 145 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ
Directions for questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would 16 increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand.
Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 146 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 147 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 148 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector 149 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 150 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated
151 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras
152 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil
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153 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right
154 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy
155 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None
156 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi
157 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City
158 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh
159 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat
160 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats
161 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee
162 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement
163 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916
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164 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these
165 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes
166 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson
167 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen
168 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management
169 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan
170 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System
171 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth
172 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community
173 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam
174 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee 19
c) Cocoa d) Clove
175 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None
176 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad
177 Which of the following scheduled, commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank
178 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru
179 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor
180 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor
181 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen
182 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate
183 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea
184 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business
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185 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income
186 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O
187 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-
188 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None
189 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
190 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh
191 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚
192 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh
193 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99
194 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate
195 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined
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196 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015
197 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore
198 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these
199 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596
200 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D
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1 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil
2 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of : a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries
3 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium
4 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea
5 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous
6 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma
7 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Psedoparenchyma d) All theses
8 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer
9 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis
10 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations
11 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures 2
12 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply
13 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower
14 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots
15 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals
16 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis
17 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
18 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
19 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both
20 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content 3
21 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy
22 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma
23 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest
24 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango
25 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum
26 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.
27 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride 28 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees
29 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water
30 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion 4
31 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above
32 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils
33 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells
34 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield
35 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None
36 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands
37 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3
38 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation
39 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above
40 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above
41 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above
42 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug
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43 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco
44 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering
45 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits
46 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline
47 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity
48 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars
49 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic 50 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings
51 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0
52 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above
53 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome
54 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development
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55 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955
56 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley
57 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam
58 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera
59 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins
60 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green
61 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023
62 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase
63 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins
64 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene
65 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface
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66 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum
67 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids
68 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species
69 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis
70 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium 71 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli
72 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation
73 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum
74 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum
75 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None
76 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection
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77 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II
78 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon
79 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt
80 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed
81 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll
82 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin
83 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles 84 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell
85 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct
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86 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
87 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence
88 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform progeny d) Produces healthy, disease resistant plants
89 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid
90 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi
91 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes
92 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee arabica
93 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres
94 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmacotechnology d) Organic farming
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95 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs
96 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes
97 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant 98 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa
99 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water
100 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella
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Directions for questions 101-102:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 101 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 102 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap
Directions for questions 103-106 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 103 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 104 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 105 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 106 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ
Directions for questions 107-111 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & 12 industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 107 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 108 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 109 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher in forces. the non-agricultural sector
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110 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour 111 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated
Directions for questions 112-115 : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 112 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 113 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 114 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 115 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years
Directions for questions 116-118 : In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 116 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 117 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 118 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired
Directions for questions 119-122: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 119 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 120 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 121 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 14
122 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent
Directions for questions 123-127: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 123 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 124 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 125 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 126 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 127 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive
Directions for questions 128-132: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 128 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 129 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 130 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation 131 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 132 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine
Directions for questions 133-136 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 133 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 134 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism
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135 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 136 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial
Directions for questions 137-140 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 137 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 138 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 139 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 140 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts
Directions for questions 141 -144: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 141 They are building a house next door to our school a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school 142 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 143 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 144 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?
Directions for questions 145-148 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 16
145 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help her in her work just now help her in her work just now 146 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do it then or never now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do it now or never then or never 147 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going that go today day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not go today that day 148 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the post was office
Directions for questions 149-150: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 149 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious
150 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent
151 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth c) Produce heat and radiate it d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere towards the earth and send it towards earth
152 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community
153 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telagu Desam
154 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove
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155 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None
156 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad
157 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank
158 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru
159 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor
160 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor
161 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen
162 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate
163 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of okhotsk d) Tasmania sea
164 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party b) The Prime Minister has resigned has clear majority but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to d) A lame duck Parliament conduct business
165 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income 18
166 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O
167 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-
168 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None
169 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
170 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh
171 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015
172 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore
173 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these
174 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596
175 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D
176 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚
177 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh
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178 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99
179 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate
180 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined
181 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras
182 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil
183 At present the right to education in India is a a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right
184 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy
185 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None
186 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi
187 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City
188 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh
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189 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat
190 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats
191 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee
192 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement
193 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916
194 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these
195 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes
196 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson
197 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen
198 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management
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199 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan
200 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System
Question Book Number
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1. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for shading the ovals. 2. Mark your Roll Number, Question Booklet number and Question Booklet series on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number and name on the question booklet 3. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions and the total time allotted is 2 hours. 5. Each objective question is followed by four answers. Your task is to choose the correct answer and mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet. 6. Completely darken the circle pertaining to correct answer so that the alphabet inside the circle is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer. If you have darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong 7. Please mark the right answers ONLY with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 8. All questions are compulsory. There will be 1 mark for each correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every WRONG answer. 9. Do not make any stray marks any where on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your blank sheet on the question book let for this. 10. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 11. After finishing the examination, hand over the admit card, complete question booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet along with its carbon copy. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is liable to disqualify your candidature. 12. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he / she has completed his / her paper. After completion of the examination, all candidate should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** 1
1 Sprouting of potatoes while in storage can be prevented by: a) Treatment with low concentration of b) Treatment with low urea concentrations of naphthalene acetic acid c) Treatment with low concentration of d) Exposure to sunlight and storage nicotinamide at low temperatures
2 Which one of the following statements best supports the fact that photorespiration process commonly occurs in C3 plants? a) C3 plants do not possess Kranz b) C3 plants are usually high CO2 anatomy compensation species c) C3 plants are less efficient in d) C3 plants are characterised by photosynthesis RuBP oxygenase activity under high oxygen supply
3 Inverse orientation of vascular bundles occurs in: a) Hypogynous flower b) Perigynous flower c) Epigynous flower d) Androgynous flower
4 The chief additive of coffee is chichory. The part of the plant used is: a) Dried and roasted bark b) Dried and roasted leaves c) Dried flowers d) Dried and roasted roots
5 Mushroom is referred to as a “ vegetable meat” because it: a) Contains proteins b) Contains vitamins and carbohydrates c) Contains folic acid and amino acids d) Is rich in proteins and minerals
6 Penicillin kills bacteria by a) Suppression of cell wall synthesis b) Lysis of protoplasm c) Interfering with RNA synthesis d) Inhibiting with DNA synthesis
7 Consider the following statements 1) Anabaena lives symbiotically with Azolla 2) Azotobacter is a free living organism in the soil Which of the statements given above is/are correct a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
8 Consider the following statements, The concept of growing multipurpose trees in social forestry and agro forestry is for: 1. Food 2. Fuel 3. Fruit 4. Fodder Which of the above statements are correct a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
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9 Vegetative reproduction is common in which of the following a) Spirogyra b) Mucor c) None d) Both
10 Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait for: a) Pest resistance b) High vitamin ‘A’ content c) Drought resistance d) High protein content
11 The maturation of anthers and stigmas at different times in the same flower is known as: a) Herkogamy b) Cleistogamy c) Chasmogamy d) Dichogamy
12 The plant body of algae is known as a) Thallus b) Plastid c) Pyrenoid d) Parenchyma
13 Which of the following habitats form the highest diversity of living species : a) Tropical forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) Tropical rain forest
14 Which one of the following came from Ethiopia: a) Coffee b) Tea c) Cocoa d) Mango
15 Which one of the following plants yields Turpentine oil? a) Cymbopogon citrates b) Pinus roxburghii c) Gnetum ula d) Operculina turpethum
16 Agar –agar is extracted mostly from: a) Agaricus spp. b) Argemone spp. c) Rhodophyceae spp. d) Phaeophyceae spp.
17 Bordeaux mixture consists of a) Copper Sulphate and Calcium b) Copper Carbonate and Copper oxide sulphate c) Copper Sulphate and Calcium d) Copper Sulphate and Calcium hydroxide chloride
18 How acid precipitation (acid rain) does affect plants? a) It releases H+ ions, thereby b) It precipitates organic acids in increasing the rate of palisade cells of leaves, thereby photophosphorylation in green inhibiting respiration cells c) It injures foliage leading to d) It precipitates toxic nutrients in soil reduction in photosynthesis, leading to growth inhibition in biomass and occasionally death trees
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19 One of the main causes of the silting of big dams is : a) Deforestation in the catchment area b) Increase in the population of wild animals in the forest around the dam c) Insufficient rainfall d) Excessive evaporation of water
20 Mutual exchange of chromosome segment between non homologous chromosomes is called a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion
21 Respiration in plants is essentially a process related to the following a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Oxidation d) None of the above
22 The region in which Contour system of orchard planting is generally followed is a) Punjab b) Plateaus c) Hills d) Saline Soils
23 Translocation of nutrient and water through xylem is due to a) Guard cells b) Suction c) Transpiration pull d) Bundle sheath cells
24 Indicate the formula for harvest index a) Land area / leaf area b) Grain yield / straw yield c) Leaf area / land area d) Grain yield / biological yield
25 Correlation Coefficient Range a) - µ to +µ b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) None
26 The highest per capita consumption of flowers in the world is in a) The USA b) India c) Switzerland d) The Netherlands
27 The chromosome number of a trisomic individual would be: a) 2n-1 b) 2n+1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n+3
28 Which of the following is not correctly matched; a) Magnesium – respiration b) Cell division – Cytokinins c) Boron – Fruit drop d) Calcium – Malformation
29 Farm inventory refers to; a) List of items possessed by a farm b) Land under cultivation on a specific date c) Inventory of new farms d) All the above
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30 In seed testing, tetrazolium chloride is used to determine: a) Purity b) Viability c) Germination d) None of the above
31 Cloud seeding is done with the help of: a) Silver iodide b) Magnesium iodide c) Strontium chloride d) All of the above
32 Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by: a) Stem borer b) Leaf roller c) Green leaf hopper d) Gundhi bug
33 Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) Tobacco
34 Nitrogen deficiency in plants leads to: a) Chlorosis b) Dark green colour c) Excessive growth d) Excessive tillering
35 Papin in papaya is extracted from? a) Leaves b) Seeds c) Stems d) Immature fruits
36 Male sterility is employed for the production of? a) Synthetic seed b) Hybrid seed c) Composite seed d) Pureline
37 Of the several agro-climatic elements, the broad distribution of crop in India is mainly governed by a) Rainfall pattern b) Mean daily Temperature c) Solar energy received d) Relative Humidity
38 Crop that contain one or more, foreign genes and expresses them is called a) Somatic Hybrid b) Inbred line c) Transgenic crop d) Improved Cultivars
39 A yellow triangle on an insecticide container indicates the reagents are: a) Extremely toxic b) Moderately toxic c) Highly toxic d) Slightly toxic
40 Which of these is likely to be regarded as the most “useful” biological control agent? a) A beetle that feeds parthenium b) A parasite of lady beetles c) A predator of robber flies d) A viral pathogen of lacewings
41 Ideal pH for coffee cultivation: a) 4.0 b) 5.0 c) 6.0 to 6.5 d) 7.0
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42 In which of the following crops GM varieties are mostly available for cultivation in India is? a) Mustard b) Cotton c) Soybean d) None of the above
43 Alternate form of gene at the same locus are referred to as: a) Plastid b) Episome c) Allele d) Chromosome
44 The growth of tissue of living plants on a suitable culture medium is? a) Genetic engineering b) Anther culture c) Plant tissue culture d) Hybrid development
45 Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in year? a) 1929 b) 1947 c) 1905 d) 1955
46 The most drought resistant crop is? a) Moth bean b) Soybean c) Mung bean d) Barley
47 Most suitable soil for groundnut is a) Sandy and sandy Loam b) Clayey loam c) Loamy clay d) Silty loam and clay Loam
48 Which of the following insect order has maximum number of predatory insects? a) Lepidoptera b) Coleoptera c) Diptera d) Orthoptera
49 What is the principle energy source for most of the insects? a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Cellulose d) Vitamins
50 Off season variety of Mango is a) Alphonso b) Neeranjan c) Dudhahari d) Bomhay Green
51 In a proliferating cell system how many mitotic divisions are required to produce 1024 cells from a single parent cell? a) 10 b) 20 c) 512 d) 1023
52 Which one of the following enzymes is responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA polymerase? a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA ligase
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53 Which one of the following classes of compounds is most useful in comparative studies for determining the ancestral relationship? a) Amino acids b) Nucleotide sequences c) Nucleic acids d) Proteins
54 Senescence of detached leaves can be delayed by the use of: a) Auxin b) Gibberellins c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene
55 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because of : a) Higher leaf area b) The presence of a larger number of chloroplasts c) The presence of thin cuticle on the d) Lower photorespiration leaf surface
56 Other than sugarcane, a major source of sugar is: a) Ipomoea batatas b) Beta vulgaris c) Acer saccharum d) Solanum tuberosum
57 Which of the following have been more often used than any other group of plant substances in chemotaxonmic studies? a) Flavonoids b) Terpenoids c) Alkaloids d) Iridoids
58 The species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by man to meet his needs is called: a) Adventive species b) Introduced species c) Neutralized species d) Domesticated species
59 Which one of the following microorganisms is widely used for the biological control of plant diseases a) Trichoderma viride b) Fusarium cubense c) Streptomyces scabies d) Bacillus subtilis
60 Mycorrhizal fungi mobilise nutrients from soil to roots of plants. The nutrient in question is: a) organic acid b) phosphorus c) manganese d) potassium
61 Common indicator organism of water pollution is: a) Salmonella typhi b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Vibrio cholera d) Escherichia coli
62 Artificial seeds are produced by: a) Immobilization of somatic embryos b) Biotransformation c) Biosynthesis d) Enzymatic isolation
63 Which constituent of the soil is not reflected in the mineral composition of the plants: 7
a) Oxygen b) Iron c) Silicon d) Aluminum 64 Which one of the following plants has dimorphic chloroplasts in its leaves? a) Zea mays b) Triticum aestivum c) Oryza sativa d) Nicotiana tobacum
65 The hyphae of a fungi contains a) Nuclei b) Cytoplasm c) Both d) None
66 Which factor of Darwin’s theory of natural selection is incorrect: a) Excessive multiplication b) Struggle for existence c) Inheritance of useful variations d) Natural selection
67 In chiasmatic meiosis, the distal segments of the daughter chromatids segregate from each other at: a) The anaphase – I b) The anaphase – II c) Partially at anaphase –I and partially d) Diakinesis at anaphase – II
68 The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is the: a) Operon b) Promoter c) Cistron d) Replicon
69 Lodging in grasses is prevented due to accumulation of: a) Selenium b) Sodium c) Silicon d) Cobalt
70 On storage, the sweetness of corn is lost due to conversion of soluble sugars into polysaccharide. If corn is immersed after harvest in boiling water and cooled, the sweetness remains because of: a) Polysaccharide is re-converted into b) Concentration of sugar increases soluble sugars due to heating c) Conversion of sugars to d) Enzymes responsible for the polysaccharide stops conversion are destroyed
71 UV or X-ray radiation is not suitable for photosynthesis in green plants because such a radiation: a) Is not visible b) Is not absorbed by chlorophyl c) Cause ionisation of chlorophyll d) Leads to an increase in rotational and vibrational energy of chlorophyll
72 Which one of the following pairs represents products obtained from the same plant? a) Nutmeg and mace b) Cotton and kapok c) Nimbidin and nicotine d) Rubber and resin
73 Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) is the: a) Thin pod like capsules b) Elongated light brown fruits 8
c) Dried unopened flower buds d) Dried stigmas and top of styles
74 Petrification is a process of : a) Decomposition b) Fossilisation c) Food preservation d) Emission of foul smell
75 Consider the following statements about vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae 1. They are phycomycetous endomycorrhizae 2. Their inoculations increase production in several crops 3. They are absent in rice fields which are flooded with water a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct
76 Consider the following statements, Conservation, preservation and further enhancement of vegetation cover on the earth would: 1. Reduce the green house effect 2. Check thickening of the ozone layer 3. Save valuable gene pool 4. Reduce ecological backlashes Of these statements: a) 2 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
77 Which one of the following statement is true for the evergreen trees? a) They shed their leaves during a b) They do not shed their leaves particular season only c) They shed their leaves all the year d) They do not show leaf round senescence
78 The main advantage of vegetative propagation is that it: a) Is quite easy b) Is reliable c) Produce genetically uniform d) Produces healthy, disease progeny resistant plants
79 Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is: a) Autopolyploid b) Autodiploid c) Allotertraploid d) Allohexaploid
80 Vessels and companion cells are the characteristic features of a) Gymnosperms b) Angiosperms c) Pteridophytes d) Fungi
81 Moulds belong to a) Phycomycetes b) Myxomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Basideomycetes
82 Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of : 9
a) Erythroxylyn coca b) Thea sinensis c) Thubroma cacao d) Coffee Arabica
83 In cell division, kinetochore helps in a) The formation of synaptonemal b) Condensing the chromatin complex c) Attaching chromosome with spindle d) Cytokinesis fibres
84 Transgenic plants can act as living bioreactors for the production of chemicals and pharmaceuticals. This is known as a) Agriculture farming b) Molecular farming c) Pharmaco-technology d) Organic farming
85 Somaclonal variation can be advantageous because: a) There are chromosomal b) Monosomics are produced abnormalities c) Enrichment of genetic diversity d) It gives high genetic uniformity occurs
86 Allelopathic effect of excretions of one plant species on another associated plant species is related to: a) Healing of wounds b) Inhibition of growth c) Promotion of closer association d) Prevention of attack by pathogenic microbes
87 Zea mays is a: a) Day – neutral plant b) Long day plant c) Short day plant d) Long –short day plant
88 The “Bird of Paradise” belongs to which one of the following genera? a) Butea b) Strelitzid c) Nymphea d) Musa
89 Which one of the following is used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry? a) Mild sulphuric acid b) Glucose isomerase c) Chlorofluorocarbon d) Chlorine and water
90 Which one the following algae is reported to produce an antibiotic? a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus c) Chlamydomonas d) Chlorella
91 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by a) Helping the plant in utilizing b) Protecting the plant from atmospheric nitrogen infection c) Absorbing inorganic ions from the d) Serving as plant growth regulator soil
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92 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity is the establishment of a) Biosphere reserves b) Botanical gardens c) National park d) Wild life sanctuaries
93 Which one of the following plants is generally used as green manure? a) Euphorbia b) Sesbania c) Eupatorium d) Parthenium
94 Angiosperms are less adapted to a) Desert condition b) Fresh water c) Swamps d) Sea
95 Pollination in Ficus is: a) Anemophilous b) Entomophilous c) Ornothophilous d) Cheiropterophilous 96 Carpel consist of : a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Ovary, Style, Stigma
97 The fruiting body of plant mushroom constitutes: a) Stalk b) Hyphae c) Pseudoparenchyma d) All theses
98 At present the most significant cost of dwindling biodiversity is probably due to: a) Biological magnification of DDT b) Global warming c) Distraction of habitats d) Deterioration of ozone layer
99 Which one of the following microbes provides a natural system for gene transfer to produce transgenic plants?. a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas syringae c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Bacillus thuringeinsis
100 Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are called as: a) Non-sense mutations b) Mis –sense mutations c) Backward mutations d) Silent mutations
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101 Ajanta painting depict a) Mahabharatha b) Ramayana c) Jatakas d) Panchathanthras
102 Coffee production is maximum in a) India b) China c) Cuba d) Brazil
103 At present the right to education in India is a) Fundamental duty b) Fundamental right c) Political right d) Social right
104 Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog a) Nandan Nelakani b) Sindhushree Khullar c) Amitabh Kart d) Bibek Debroy
105 TRAI has made it mandatory for mobile service provider to compensate consumers by Rs. ……. for call drop a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) None
106 Who among the following was the Chief Calligrapher for the construction of the Taj Mahal a) Amanat Khan b) Ustad Isa c) Qazim Khan d) Ismail Afandi
107 The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in1975 at: a) Beijing b) Nairobi c) Copenhagen d) Mexico City
108 Heart of Asia conference 2016 will be held in which of the following countries? a) Afghanistan b) India c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh
109 Narmada Nidhi, is a newly developed breed of disease-resistant----? a) Buffalo b) Cow c) Chicken d) Goat
110 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an “ecological hot spot”? a) Western Himalayas b) Eastern Himalayas c) Western Ghats d) Eastern Ghats
111 Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental 12
Duties in the Constitution? a) Barua Committee b) Ramaswamy Committee c) Sikri Committee d) Swarn Singh Committee
112 Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a) Sugar b) Cotton Textile c) Jute d) Cement
113 Jallainwallah Bagh massacre occurred in the year a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1916
114 Myopia is a) Long sightedness b) Cataract c) Short sightedness d) None of these
115 Enzymes functional in cells are called a) Endo enzymes b) Exo enzymes c) Co enzymes d) Apo enzymes
116 Who among the following has been elected as the new head of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) a) R.K. Pachuri b) Hoesung Lee c) Justin Yifu Lin d) Robert Watson
117 Who among the following was the author of the book “Advantage India – From challenge to opportunity” a) Vinod Rai b) APJ Abdul Kalam c) T S Papola d) Amartya Sen
118 ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a) Quality Management b) Energy Management c) Social responsibility d) Risk Management
119 Which of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government of India and Indian Armed Forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015? a) Operation All Out b) Operation Surya Hope c) Operation Maitri d) Operation Good Samaritan
120 Maareech, which has recently been inducted in Indian Navy, is a/an? a) Aircraft Carrier b) Attack helicopter c) Offshore Patrol Vassel d) Advanced Torpedo Defence System
121 Cloudy night are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds: a) Prevent cold waves from the sky b) Reflect back the heat given by from descending on earth earth 13
c) Produce heat and radiate it towards d) Absorb heat from the atmosphere the earth and send it towards earth
122 The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to: a) Christian Community b) Anglo-Indian Community c) Business Community d) Sikh Community 123 Which one of the following political parties is older than the other three? a) DMK b) BJP c) AIDMK d) Telugu Desam
124 What is Brown Gold? a) Tea b) Coffee c) Cocoa d) Clove
125 Tanjavure Temple were constructed by a) Raja Raja I b) Narasimha Devan c) Krishnadevaraja d) None
126 Geological Survey of India (GSI) is located at a) Calcutta b) New Delhi c) Dehradun d) Dhanbad
127 Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with the Railways to become a first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway ticket a) State Bank India b) ICICI c) Punjab National Bank d) Axis Bank
128 India’s first visually challenged friendly railway station located in a) Bengaluru b) Visakhapatnam c) Culcutta d) Mysuru
129 Winner of 2014 Dada Saheb Phalke award a) Shashi Kapoor b) Sahshi Taroor c) Anil Kapoor d) Raj Kapoor
130 Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood Award for ‘Outstanding Global Leader in Open innovation’ from US Berkeley-Haas School? a) Pranab Mukherji b) Narendra Modi c) Sonia Gandhi d) Shashi Tharoor
131 Which of the following country has received approval to become 164th member of WTO? a) Kazakhstan b) Liberia c) Afghanistan d) Yemen
132 ‘Project ASMAN’ which has been recently launched, aims--? a) To ensure minimum pension to b) To enhance productivity of food widows grains c) To reduce maternal & infant d) To increase literacy rate mortality rate 14
133 Which one of the following sea is without a coastal line? a) White sea b) Saragossa sea c) Sea of Okhotsk d) Tasmania sea
134 Which of the following statement describes a “Hung Parliament” a) A Parliament in which no party has b) The Prime Minister has clear majority resigned but parliament is not dissolved c) Parliament lacks quorum to conduct d) A lame duck Parliament business
135 Which of the following is a better measurement of economic development? a) GDP b) Disposable Income c) NNP d) Per capita income
136 National Income estimates in India is prepared by: a) Planning Commission b) RBI c) Finance Ministry d) C.S.O
137 Universal donor is a) O Rh+ b) O Rh- c) B Rh+ d) AB Rh-
138 Weather changes are due to a) Longitude b) Altitude c) Both d) None
139 Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
140 Which of the following states has recently win the bid to host national games in 2019 a) Kerala b) Goa c) Meghalaya d) Andhra Pradesh
141 India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a) 26th September 2015 b) 24th September 2015 c) 5th October 2015 d) 9th October 2015
142 Which India poet has written the Bangladesh National Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a) Sri Aurobindo b) Debendranath Tagore c) Sarojini Naidu d) Rabindranath Tagore
143 Rectangle : Pentagon a) Side : Angle b) Diagonal : Perimeter c) Triangle : Rectangle d) None of these 15
144 Select the number which is different from the rest a) 7487 b) 5963 c) 8218 d) 6596
145 A is the brother of B; B is the brother of C; D is the father of A. On the basis of above statement which of the following is definitely true? a) A is the brother of C b) C is the brother of A c) A, B and C are the children of D d) B is the son of D
146 In an ½ hour, the minute hand of the clock will rotate through an angle of: a) 75˚ b) 60˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚
147 Italy : Lira : : Taka : ? a) Jordan b) Pakistan c) Mexico d) Bangladesh
148 Select the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions: a) 16-18 b) 56-63 c) 96-108 d) 86-99
149 One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? a) East b) South c) West d) Data inadequate
150 Radha remembers that her father’s birthday was after 16th but before 21st April, while her brother Mangesh remembers that his father’s birthday was after 19th and before 22nd of April. On what date his father’s birthday falls? a) 19th April b) 21st April c) 20th April d) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 151-154: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 151 (a) My observation is that (b) between Raghav and (c) Deepa, Raghav is (d) the most intelligent 152 (a) If, I would have come (b) a little earlier, I would have (c) got a glimpse (d) of my beloved teacher 153 (a) Whatever he was (b) today is only because (c) of his mother who (d) was a renowned scientist 154 (a) The Director of our company (b) does not believe that (c) we are working sincerely (d) and with interest for all these years
Directions for questions 155-157: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt 16 or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 155 India should (a) adopt these (b) strategies to handle the (c) threat of global warming (d) successively 156 (a) Although it was the first time the King had (b) lead his troops to the battle, he (c) showed (d) remarkable courage 157 The family had to (a) bear a leaky (b) sealing throughout the rainy (c) season as they could not (d) afford to get it repaired Directions for questions 158-161: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 158 Though the hospital is extremely rich, the conditions there are ______a) equally, rich b) appallingly, poor c) admirably, comfortable d) extremely, conducive 159 How people would ______in a particular situation cannot be ______with perfect accuracy. a) think, observed b) act, expected c) behave, predicted d) react, analysed 160 Despite ______of resources, the financially underprivileged students ______in their endeavour. a) plenty, failed b) availability, gave c) want, surrendered d) lack, succeeded 161 Their minds were ______with the thought of the ______conflict. a) Engrossed, approaching b) Prepared, growing c) Absolved, mere d) Swollen, imminent
Directions for questions 162-166: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 162 LIMP a) Kneel b) Bend c) Falter d) Stoop 163 ADMONISH a) Threaten b) Praise c) Appeal d) Support 164 PENCHANT a) Like b) Eagerness c) Disability d) Dislike 165 DANK a) Dangerous b) Ugly c) Plunder d) Damp 166 YOB a) Annoyed b) Intelligent c) Humble d) Aggressive
Directions for questions 167-171: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 167 REDOLENT a) Pesticide b) Sticky c) Yellowish d) Stinking 17
168 DISINGENOUS a) Industrious b) Cumbersome c) Slothful d) Naïve 169 PROVOCATION a) Destruction b) Peace c) Pacification d) Vocation
170 PASSIONATE a) Calm b) Arrogant c) Sure d) Fervent 171 MORTAL a) Eternal b) Spiritual c) Immortal d) Divine
Directions for questions 172-175 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence 172 A person living permanently in a certain place a) Native b) Resident c) Domicile d) Subject 173 Relationship by blood or birth a) Parentage b) Affiliation c) Consanguinity d) Nepotism 174 A person who makes love without serious intentions a) Consort b) Philanderer c) Romeo d) Goon 175 One who cannot die a) Stable b) Immortal c) Perpetual d) Perennial
Directions for questions 176-179: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 176 To throw dust in one’s eyes a) To show false things b) To make blind c) To harm someone d) To deceive 177 To bite one’s lips a) To be angry b) To feel sorry c) To have doubt d) To laugh at others 178 Something up one’s sleeve a) A grand idea b) A secret plan c) A profitable plan d) Something important 179 To give a false colouring a) To misrepresent b) To submit the false report c) To be dishonest d) To conceal the facts
Directions for questions 180 -183: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 180 They are building a house next door to our school 18
a) Next door to our school a house is b) Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c) A house next door to our school is d) A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school
181 Who is creating this mess? a) Who has created this mess? b) By whom has this mess been created? c) By whom this mess is being d) By whom is this mess being created? created? 182 A lion may be helped even by a little mouse a) A little mouse may even help a b) Even a little mouse may help a lion. lion. c) A little mouse can even help a lion d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion 183 Who teaches you English? a) By whom were you taught b) By whom are you taught English? English? c) English is taught by whom? d) By whom will you be taught English?
Directions for questions 184-187 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 184 Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a) Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b) Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then will you help me in my work just now c) Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d) Pinky asked to Gaurav that will help her in her work just now he help her in her work just now 185 Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a) Sarita told me that I would do it b) Sarita told me that she would do then or never it now or never c) Sarita told me that she will do that d) Sarita told me that she would do now or never it then or never 186 She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a) She said to him that why he don’t b) She asked him if he was going go today that day c) She asked him why he did not go d) She asked him why he did not today go that day 187 He said to me, “Where is the post office? a) He wanted to know where the post b) He asked me that where the post office was office was c) He asked me where the post office d) He asked me where was the was post office 19
Directions for questions 188-189: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 188 a) Sacrilegeous b) Sacrilegious c) Sacriligious d) Sacreligious 189 a) Delinquescent b) Deliquecent c) Deliquescent d) Delinquesent
Directions for questions 190-191:Out of the given group of words choose the mis spelt one 190 a) Lonesome b) Lovely c) Ludicruous d) Logical 191 a) Handicraft b) Hand bar c) Handkerchef d) Handicap
Directions for questions 192-195 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 192 After a laborious life ...... his remaining years (P) To the quiet village where he was born (Q) Most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) And where he intended to spend (S) He retired in his old age and moved a) QRPS b) QSPR c) SPQR d) SQPR 193 Though the exact dimensions...... could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels (P) Involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained a) PSRQ b) QPSR c) RQPS d) SPRQ 194 In spite of repeated attempts,...... what it meant (P) In the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word a) PQRS b) SPQR c) QRSP d) RSPQ 195 If the sovereignty ...... it cannot be safe in any other hands (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe a) PQRS b) QSRP c) RPQS d) SRPQ 20
Directions for questions 196-200 : Comprehension: Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to 0.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food- grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 196 Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a) i & ii only b) ii & iii only c) i & iii only d) All i, ii & iii 197 Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a) Reduction b) Index c) Inflation d) Improvement 21
198 Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a) Increase in labour productivity in b) Agriculture sector can provide agriculture can reduce poverty. the impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost. c) Increase in food supply will d) Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher forces. in the non-agricultural sector
199 Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a) Widespread import of food-grains b) Oversupply of agricultural products c) Increase in prices of industrial d) Foresight in gauging the products demand- supply of labour
200 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a) Correlated b) Dependence c) Independence d) Interrelated
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