MCQ’S Color index: FILE . Questions . choices “ALWAYS DO YOUR BEST. WHAT YOU . Answer PLANT NOW, YOU WILL HARVEST LATER .”

1 Question's:

1. In a neuron with a resting membrane potential of 265mV, the distribution 4. Which of the following is best described as an elongated, encapsulated of which ion across the neuronal membrane represents the greatest receptor found in the dermal pegs of glabrous skin and is especially potential electromotive force (EMF)? abundant on lips and fingertips? A) Potassium A) Merkel’s disc B) Chloride B) Free nerve endings C) Sodium C) Meissner’s corpuscle D) Calcium D) Ruffini’s endings

2. Forced rapid breathing results in alkalization of the blood which would 5. receptors in the skin are typically classified as which of the lead to which of the following changes in neuronal activity? following? A) Decrease in neuronal activity A) Encapsulated nerve endings B) Increase in neuronal activity B) Single class of morphologically specialized receptors C) Initial decrease followed by an increase C) Same type of receptor that detects position D) No change in neuronal activity D) Free nerve endings

3. The release of at a chemical synapse in the central 6. Which of the following best describes an expanded tip tactile receptor nervous system is dependent upon which of the following? found in the dermis of hairy skin that is specialized to detect continuously A) Synthesis of acetylcholinesterase applied touch B) Hyperpolarization of the synaptic terminal sensation? C) Opening of ligand-gated ion calcium channels A) Free nerve endings D) Influx of calcium into the presynaptic terminal B) Merkel’s disc C)

D) Ruffini’s endings

=B 6 =D 5 =C 4 =D 3 =B 2 =C

2 1 Cont.

7. Hypoventilation has which of the following effects on neuronal activity? 10. Which of the following substances enhances the sensitivity A) Depresses neuronal activity of pain receptors but does not directly excite them? B) Increases neuronal activity A) Bradykinin C) Increases synaptic delay B) Serotonin D) Increases neurotransmitter release C) Potassium ions D) Prostaglandins

8. Which of the following best describes the concept of specificity in 11. Which of the following is an important functional parameter of pain fibers that transmit only one modality of sensation? receptors? A) Frequency coding principle A) Exhibit little or no adaptation B) Concept of specific nerve energy B) Not affected by muscle tension C) Singularity principle C) Signal only flexion at joint capsules D) Labeled line principle D) Can voluntarily be inhibited

9. Which of the following is an encapsulated receptor found deep in the 12. The excitatory or inhibitory action of a neurotransmitter is skin throughout the body as well as in fascial layers where they detect determined by which of the following? indentation of the skin (pressure) and movement across the surface A) Function of its postsynaptic receptor (vibration)? B) Molecular composition A) Pacinian corpuscle C) Shape of the synaptic vesicle in which it is B) Meissner’s corpuscle contained C) Free nerve endings D) Distance between the pre- and post-synaptic

D) Ruffini’s endings membranes

=A 12 =A 11 =D 10 =A 9 =D 8 =A

3 7 Cont.

13. Which of the following statements concerning the transmission of pain signals 16. Which of the following statements concerning the mechanoreceptive receptor into the is correct? potential is/are true? A) The “fast” pain fibers that conduct at about 6 to 30 m/sec are classified as A) Increase in stimulus energy results in an increase in receptor potential. type C fibers. B) When receptor potential rises above a certain threshold action potentials will B) Type A-delta pain fibers are responsible for the localization of a pain stimulus. appear in the neuron attached the receptor. C) Upon entering the dorsal horn, the fast and slow pain fibers C) Number of action potentials generated in the neuron attached to the receptor synapse with the same populations of neurons. is proportional to receptor potential. D) The paleospinothalamic tract is specialized to rapidly conduct pain signals to D) All of the above are correct. the thalamus. 17. In chemical synapses that involve a so-called second messenger, typically a G- 14. Which of the following is the system that transmits somatosensory protein linked to the postsynaptic receptor is activated when neurotransmitter information with the highest degree of temporal and spatial fidelity? binds to that receptor. Which of the following represents an activity performed by A) Anterolateral system the activated second messenger? B) Dorsal column–medial lemniscal system A) Closure of a membrane channel for sodium or potassium. C) Corticospinal system B) Activation of cyclic AMP or cyclic GMP. D) Spinocerebellar system C) Inactivation of enzymes that initiate biochemical reactions in the postsynaptic neuron. D) Inactivation of gene transcription in the postsynaptic neuron. 15. Which of the following pathways crosses in the ventral white commissure of the spinal cord within a few segments of entry and then courses to the thalamus 18. Neurons located in which of the following areas release serotonin as their contralateral to the side of the body from which the signal originated? neurotransmitter? A) Anterolateral system A) Periaqueductal gray area B) Dorsal column–medial lemniscal system B) of the spinal cord C) Corticospinal system C) Periventricular area

D) Spinocerebellar system D) Nucleus raphe magnus

=D 18 =B 17 =D 16 =A 15 =B 14 =B

4 13 Cont.

19. Which of the following systems conveys information concerning highly 22. Which of the following structures carries from the nucleus localized touch sensation and body position (proprioceptive) sensation? gracilis to the thalamus? A) Anterolateral system A) Fasciculus gracilis B) Dorsal column–medial lemniscal system B) Fasciculus lemniscus C) Corticospinal C) Lateral D) Spinocerebellar D)

20. Which of the following explains why individuals in severe pain have difficulty 23. Which of the following represents the basis for transduction of a sleeping without sedative medication? sensory stimulus into nerve impulses? A) The somatosensory cortical area for pain perception blocks the sleep- A) Change in the ion permeability of the receptor membrane generating circuits B) Generation of an B) Pain fibers entering the dorsal horn and the ascending pain pathways block the sleep-generating circuits C) Inactivation of a G-protein–mediated response C) Ascending pain pathways provide excitatory input to brainstem reticular D) Protein synthesis formation areas that are involved in maintenance of the alert, waking state D) The used in the slow pain pathway 24. Which of the following structures carries axons from neurons in the diffuse to neighboring cell groups and generally raise the excitability of the ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus to the primary brain somatosensory cortex? A) Medial lemniscus 21. The first-order (primary afferent) cell bodies of the dorsal column–medial B) External capsule lemniscal system are found in which of the following structures? C) Internal capsule A) Spinal cord dorsal horn D) Extreme capsule B) Spinal cord ventral horn C) Dorsal root ganglia

D) Nucleus cuneatus

=C 24 =A 23 =D 22 =C 21 =C 20 =B

5 19 Cont.

25. Which of the following is characteristic of the events occurring at an 28. Which of the following body parts is represented superiorly and excitatory synapse? medially within the postcentral gyrus? A) There is a massive efflux of calcium from the presynaptic terminal A) Upper limb B) Synaptic vesicles bind to the postsynaptic membrane B) Lower limb C) Voltage-gated potassium channels are closed C) Abdomen D) Ligand-gated channels are opened to allow sodium D) Genitalia entry into the postsynaptic neuron 29. Which of the following is a group of neurons in the pain suppression 26. In a neuron with a resting membrane potential of 265mV, the pathway that utilizes enkephalin as a neurotransmitter? distribution of which ion across the neuronal membrane represents the A) Postcentral gyrus least potential electromotive force (EMF)? B) Nucleus raphe magnus A) Potassium C) Periaqueductal gray B) Chloride D) Type AB sensory fibers C) Sodium D) Calcium 30. As the receptor potential rises higher above threshold, which of the 27. Stimulation of which brain area can modulate the sensation of pain? following best characterizes the new frequency of action potentials? A) Superior olivary complex A) Decrease B) Locus ceruleus B) Increase C) Periaquaductal gray C) Remain unchanged D) Amygdala D) Increase only when the receptor potential increases

to twice the level of threshold

=B 30 =B 29 =B 28 =C 27 =B 26 =D

6 25 Cont.

31. Which of the following is a type of in this region that 34. Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the utilizes enkephalin to inhibit pain transmission? contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect A) Nucleus raphe magnus which of the following? B) Postcentral gyrus A) The relative size of the body parts C) Dorsal horn of spinal cord B) The density of the specialized peripheral receptors D) Type C sensory fiber C) The size of the muscles in that body part D) The conduction velocity of the primary afferent fibers 32. The highest degree of pain localization comes from 35. The gray matter of the primary somatosensory cortex contains six layers of A) simultaneous stimulation of free nerve endings and tactile fibers cells. Which of the following layers receives the bulk of incoming signals from B) stimulation of free nerve endings by bradykinin the somatosensory nuclei of the thalamus? C) nerve fibers traveling to the thalamus by way of the paleospinothalamic A) Layer I tract B) Layers II and III D) stimulation of type A delta fibers C) Layer III only D) Layer IV 33. Inhibition of pain signals by tactile stimulation of a skin surface involves which of the following selections? 36. Which of the following statements concerning the neuronal membrane at A) Type A alpha fibers in peripheral nerves rest is correct? B) Type A beta fibers in peripheral nerves A) The extracellular sodium concentration is less than its intracellular C) Type A delta fibers in peripheral nerves concentration D) Type C fibers in peripheral nerves B) The concentration of chloride is greatest inside the cell C) If the resting potential is moved to a more negative value, the cell becomes more excitable D) The concentration gradient for potassium is such that it tends to move out

of the cell

=D 36 =D 35 =B 34 =B 33 =A 32 =C

7 31 Cont.

37. Which of the following is the basis for referred pain? 40. Which one of the following statements concerning visceral pain signals is A) Visceral pain signals and pain signals from the skin synapse with separate correct? populations of neurons in the dorsal horn A) They are transmitted along sensory fibers that course mainly with B) Visceral pain transmission and pain transmission from the skin is sympathetic nerves in the abdomen and thorax received by a common set of neurons in the thalamus B) They are not stimulated by ischemia in visceral organs C) Visceral pain signals are rarely of sufficient magnitude to exceed the C) They are transmitted only by the lightly myelinated type A delta sensory threshold of activation of dorsal horn neurons fibers D) Some visceral pain signals and pain signals from the skin provide D) They are typically well localized convergent input to a common set of neurons in the dorsal horn 41. Which disorder is characterized by excessive pain in a skin 38. Post-tetanic facilitation is thought to be the result of dermatomal distribution resulting from a viral infection of a dorsal root A) opening voltage-gated sodium channels ganglion? B) opening transmitter gated potassium channels A) Tic douloureux C) a buildup of calcium in the presynaptic terminal B) Thalamic pain syndrome D) electrotonic conduction C) Brown-Séquard syndrome D) Herpes zoster 39. Pain from the stomach is referred to which area of 42. Which disorder involves a loss of pain sensation on one side of the the body? body coupled with the loss of , precise tactile localization, A) upper right shoulder area and vibratory sensations on the contralateral side of the body? B) abdominal area above the umbilicus A) Herpes zoster C) proximal area of the anterior and inner thigh B) Thalamic pain syndrome D) abdominal area below the umbilicus C) Lateral medullary syndrome

D) Brown-Séquard syndrome

=D 42 =D 41 =A 40 =B 39 =C 38 =D

8 37 Cont.

43. Which disorder is characterized by the loss of pain sensation throughout 46. The ability to detect two points simultaneously applied to the skin is one entire side of the body and the opposite side of the face? based on which of the following physiologic mechanisms? A) Brown-Séquard syndrome A) Presynaptic inhibition B) Thalamic pain syndrome B) Lateral inhibition C) Herpes zoster C) Medial inhibition D) Lateral medullary syndrome D) Feed-forward inhibition 44. Which of the following electrical events is characteristic of inhibitory synaptic interactions? 47. Stimulation by touching or pulling on which of the following structures A) A neurotransmitter agent that selectively opens ligand-gated chloride channels is least likely to cause a painful sensation? is the basis for an inhibitory postsynaptic potential A) The postcentral gyrus B) Because the Nernst potential for chloride is about 270 mV, chloride ions tend B) The dura overlying the postcentral gyrus to move out of the cell along its electrochemical gradient C) Branches of the middle meningeal artery that lie C) A neurotransmitter that selectively opens potassium channels will allow superficial to the dura over the postcentral gyrus potassium to move into the cell D) Branches of the middle cerebral artery that supply D) An increase in the extracellular sodium concentration usually leads directly to the postcentral gyrus an inhibitory postsynaptic potential 48. Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, 45. Which of the following somatosensory deficits is NOT typically seen following repetitive sensations. The highfrequency end of the repetitive stimulation lesions that involve the postcentral gyrus? A) Inability to discretely localize touch sensation over the contralateral face and scale is detected by which of the following? upper limb. A) Merkel’s discs B) Inability to judge the weight of easily recognizable objects B) Meissner’s corpuscles C) Inability to accurately assess the texture of common objects by touching them C) Pacinian corpuscles with the fingers D) Free nerve endings

D) Inability to move the contralateral arm and leg

=C 48 =A 47 =B 46 =D 45 =A 44 =D

9 43 Cont.

49. Prolonged changes in neuronal activity are usually achieved through the 52. For a sensory nerve fiber that is connected to a Pacinian corpuscle located activation of on palmar surface of the right hand, the synaptic connection with the subsequent A) voltage-gated chloride channels neuron in the corresponding sensory pathway is located in B) transmitter-gated sodium channels A) the right dorsal column nucleus C) G-protein–coupled channels B) the left dorsal column nucleus D) voltage-gated potassium channels C) the dorsal horn of the right side of the spinal cord D) the dorsal horn of the left side of the spinal cord 50. Transmission of the electrical signal from the dendrites to the soma of a neuron occurs by which of the following? 53. Migraine headaches typically begin with a prodromal symptom such as nausea, A) Short-circuit current flow loss of vision, visual aura, or other sensory hallucinations. Which of the following B) An action potential mechanism is thought to be the cause of such prodromes? C) Electrotonic conduction D) Capacitive discharge A) Increased blood flow to brain tissue in the visual or other sensory cortex B) A selective loss of GABA neurons in the various sensory areas of cortex 51. Which one of the following statements concerning sensory neurons or their C) Constipation functional properties is true? D) Vasospasm leading to ischemia and a disruption of neuronal activity in the A) All sensory fibers are unmyelinated relevant sensory areas of cortex B) In spatial summation, increasing signal strength is transmitted by using progressively greater numbers of sensory fibers 54. Which statement concerning the generation of an action potential is correct? C) Increased stimulus intensity is signaled by a progressive decrease in the A) When the membrane potential in the soma/ hillock dips below receptor potential “threshold,” an action potential is initiated D) Continuous subthreshold stimulation of a pool of sensory neurons results in B) The action potential is initiated in synaptic boutons disfacilitation of those neurons C) The least number of voltage-gated sodium channels in an axon is found near E) Temporal summation involves signaling of increased stimulus strength by the node of Ranvier decreasing the frequency of action potentials in the sensory fibers D) Once an action potential is initiated, it will always run its course to

completion

=D 54 =D 53 =A 52 =B 51 =C 50 =C

10 49 Cont.

55. Position sense, or more commonly proprioceptive sensation, involves muscle 58. Which of the following statements accurately describes a feature of spindles and which of the following selections? temperature sensation by the nervous system? A) Skin tactile receptors A) Cold receptors continue to be activated even if skin temperature is B) Deep receptors in joint capsules C) Both tactile and joint capsule receptors lowered well below its freezing point. D) Pacinian corpuscles B) Both cold and warm receptors each have very specific, nonoverlapping ranges of temperature sensitivity. 56. The sensation of temperature is signaled mainly by warm and cold receptors whose C) Warm and cold receptors respond to both steady state temperatures sensory fibers travel in association with the sensory fibers carrying pain signals. Which and to changes in temperature. of the following statements best characterizes the transmission of signals from warm D) Temperature receptor function is the result of ion conduction changes receptors? A) Warm receptors are well characterized histologically. and not changes in their metabolic rate. B) Signals from warm receptors are mainly transmitted along slow-conducting type C sensory fibers. 59. Which of the following statements concerning synaptic transmission is C) Warm receptors are located well below the surface of the skin in the subcutaneous correct? connective tissue. A) When a specific population of synaptic terminals is spread over the D) There are 3 to 10 times more warm receptors than cold receptors in most areas of considerable surface of a neuron, their collective effects cannot spatially the body. summate and lead to initiation of an action potential. 57. Like other sensory systems, the has a descending component B) Even if the successive discharges of an excitatory synapse occur that functions to regulate the overall sensitivity of the system. Which of the following sufficiently close in time, they cannot temporally summate and initiate an selections best describes the function of the corticofugal signals transmitted from the action potential. somatosensory cortex C) A neuron is “facilitated” when its membrane potential is moved in the downward to the thalamus and dorsal column nuclei? less negative or depolarizing direction. A) Increase or decrease the perception of signal intensity B) Decrease the ability to detect body position sense D) Even when rapidly stimulated by excitatory synaptic input for a C) Remove the thalamus from the processing of somatosensory signals prolonged period of time, neurons typically do not exhibit synaptic fatigue.

D) Allow ascending information to bypass nucleus cuneatus and gracilis

=C 59 =C 58 =A 57 =B 56 =C

11 55 Cont.

60. Which of the following statements regarding the processing of sensory signals 63. Which of the following statements regarding the refraction of light is correct? by a pool of neurons is correct? A) Light waves have a longer wavelength in transparent solids than in air A) Convergence of input signals to individual neurons in the pool, each of which B) Light waves travel at higher velocity through transparent solids than through air contributes to the same output channel, can lead to amplification of the signal. C) The refractive index of a transparent solid is the ratio of the velocity of light in B) Divergence of input signals to multiple neurons in the pool, each of which air to the velocity of light in the substance leads to a different output channel, can lead to diffusion of the signal. D) The refractive index of air is zero C) The combination of multiple input signals from multiple sources onto a single E) When light waves strike a transparent solid, they always reflect away from the neuron in the pool is an example of divergence. solid rather than travel through the solid D) The distribution of multiple input signals from a single source onto many neurons in the pool is an example of convergence. 64. When comparing the fovea with the periphery of the retina, which of the following statements is correct? 61. Which of the following statements regarding the lateral A) The fovea contains an increased proportion of cones geniculate nucleus is correct? B) The fovea contains an increased proportion of ganglion cells A) Layer one is called a parvocellular layer C) The fovea contains an increased proportion of horizontal cells B) Layer one receives signals from the lateral half of the retina D) The fovea contains an increased proportion of rods C) Layer one receives signals that originate from rods E) The fovea contains an increased proportion of vasculature D) Layer four receives signals from the ipsilateral retina E) Layer four receives signals from Y ganglion cells 65. Which of the following is the middle ear ossicle that is attached to the tympanic membrane? 62. Which of the following substances will elicit the sensation of sour taste? A) Columella A) Aldehydes B) Incus B) Alkaloids C) Malleus C) Amino acids D) Modiolus D) Hydrogen ions E) Stapes

E) Ketones

=C 65 =A 64 =C 63 =D 62 =C 61 =D

12 60 Cont.

66. Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first? 70. Which of the following regarding the attenuation is correct? A) Inner nuclear layer A) Can increase the intensity of low-frequency sound transmission by 30 to 40 B) Outer nuclear layer decibels C) Outer plexiform layer D) Photoreceptor layer B) Increases the rigidity of the ossicular system, thereby reducing conduction of E) Retinal ganglion layer low-frequency sounds C) Masks high-frequency sounds in a loud environment so lower frequency 67. Ganglion cells attached to photoreceptors located on the temporal portion of the sounds are more easily heard retina project to which of the following structures? D) Occurs following a latent period of 4 to 8 seconds after the loud sound A) Contralateral lateral geniculate nucleus E) Protects the cochlea from the damaging vibrations of relatively quiet but high- B) Ipsilateral lateral geniculate nucleus frequency sounds C) Ipsilateral medial geniculate nucleus D) Calcarine fissure E) Contralateral medial geniculate nucleus 71. Which of the following substances will elicit the sensation of bitter taste? A) Aldehydes 68. Which of the following best describes the “blind spot” of the eye? B) Alkaloids A) Located 5 degrees lateral to the central point of vision C) Amino acids B) Exit point of the optic nerve D) Hydrogen ions C) Contains only rods and thus has monochromatic vision E) Ketones D) Contains no blood vessels E) Area where chromatic aberration of the lens is the greatest 72. Damage to the VIth cranial nerve will produce which of the following deficits 69. When parallel light rays pass through a concave lens, which of the following will occur? in eye movement? A) Rays converge toward each other A) Inability to move the eyes in a vertical up and down motion B) Rays diverge away from each other B) Inability to rotate the eyes within the eye socket C) They maintain parallel relationship C) Inability to move the eyes laterally towards the midline D) They reflect back in the direction from where they came D) Inability to move the eyes laterally away from the midline

E) Rays refract to one focal point E) Vertical strabismus

=D 72 =B 71 =B 70 =B 69 =B 68 =B 67 =E

13 66 Cont.

73. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the focal length of a convex 76. Which of the following taste sensations is the most sensitive (i.e., has the lens? lowest stimulation threshold)? A) Converging light rays passing through a convex lens will converge at a focal point A) Acid farther away than the focal length of that lens B) Bitter B) Diverging light rays passing through a convex lens C) Salty will converge at a focal point closer than the focal length of that lens D) Sour C) Parallel light rays passing through a convex lens will converge at a focal point equal E) Sweet to the focal length of that lens D) The image produced by a convex lens is right side up, but its two lateral sides are reversed with respect to the object 77. Which of the following statements regarding the basilar membrane is correct? E) The lens with the greatest convexity will have the longest focal length A) Vibrates best at high frequency near the base of the cochlea, whereas it vibrates best at low frequency at the apex of the cochlea 74. If a convex lens has a focal length of 1 cm (0.01 m), what is the refractive power of B) Spiral ganglion lies on its surface that lens in diopters? C) Contains basilar fibers whose diameter increases from the base of the A) 10.01 cochlea to the apex of the cochlea B) 10.10 D) Contains basilar fibers whose length decreases from the base of the cochlea C) 11 to the apex of the cochlea D) 110 E) Separates the scala media from the scala vestibule E) 1100 78. Which of the following substances is responsible for the umami taste 75. The condition of cataracts is usually the result of which of the following processes sensation? or conditions? A) Denaturation of the proteins in lens of the eye A) Acetic acid B) Elongated eye globe B) Potassium tartrate C) Unresponsive and dilated pupil C) Long-chained organic substances containing nitrogen D) Coagulation of the proteins in the lens of the eye D) Fructose

E) Increase in intraocular pressure E) Glutamate

=E 78 =A 77 =B 76 =D 75 =E 74 =C

14 73 Cont.

79. Analysis of visual detail occurs in which secondary visual area? 82. A deficiency of which vitamin prevents the formation of an adequate A) Brodmann’s area 18 quantity of retinal, eventually leading to night blindness? B) Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital A) Vitamin A and temporal cortex B) Vitamin C C) Frontal lobe C) Vitamin D D) Occipitoparietal cortex D) Vitamin E E) Posterior midtemporal area E) Vitamin K

80. Which of the following statements best describes the role of melanin in 83. What is the name of the condition whereby the lens of the eye becomes the pigment layer of the retina? almost totally unaccommodating in persons over 70 years of age? A) Precursor of the light sensitive chemical rhodopsin A) Amblyopia B) Serves as nutritional component for the rods and cones in the retina B) Emmetropia C) Dark pigment that prevents the reflection of light inside the globe of the C) Hyperopia eye D) Myopia D) Responsible for maintaining integrity of the canal of Schlemm E) Presbyopia E) Light reflected off the melanin pigment is a key element used in the process of accommodation of the lens 84. Which compartment of the cochlea contains the organ of Corti? A) Ampulla 81. Which of the following pairs of molecules combine to form rhodopsin? B) Saccule A) Bathorhodopsin and 11-cis-retinal C) Scala media B) Bathorhodopsin and all-trans-retinal D) Scala tympani C) Bathorhodopsin and scotopsin E) Scala vestibule D) Scotopsin and 11-cis-retinal

E) Scotopsin and all-trans-retinal

=C 84 =E 83 =A 82 =D 81 =C 80 =B

15 79 Cont.

85. Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of taste information from 88. Under low or reduced light conditions, which of the following chemical compounds is the tongue to the cerebral cortex is correct? responsible for the inward-directed sodium current in the outer segments of the A) Majority of thalamic neurons in taste pathway synapse in the occipital lobe photoreceptors? B) Nerve fibers carrying taste information from the tongue have no synapse in the A) Metarhodopsin II brainstem B) Cyclic GMP C) Nerve fibers carrying taste information from the tongue synapse in the solitary nucleus C) 11-cis retinal D) Thalamic nucleus involved in the taste pathway is the dorsal medial nucleus D) Cyclic AMP E) Thalamic nucleus involved in the taste pathway is the ventral posterolateral nucleus E) 11-trans retinol

86. Which cells in layer IV of the primary visual cortex detect orientation of lines and 89. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial nerve innervation of the borders? tongue is correct? A) Border cells A) Taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is transmitted to the B) Complex cells solitary nucleus by the glossopharyngeal nerve C) Ganglion cells B) Taste information from the pharynx is transmitted to the solitary nucleus by the facial D) Hypercomplex cells nerve E) Simple cells C) Taste information from the posterior third of the tongue is transmitted to the solitary nucleus by the glossopharyngeal nerve 87. Which of the following best describes when the transmission of sound waves in the D) Taste information from the posterior third of the tongue initially travels with the cochlea occurs? lingual nerve A) When the foot of the stapes moves inward against the oval window and the round window bulges outward E) Taste information from the posterior third of the tongue initially travels with the B) When the foot of the stapes moves inward against the round window and the oval chorda tympani nerve window bulges outward C) When the head of the malleus moves inward against the oval window and the round 90. Olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following groups of cells? window bulges outward A) Bipolar neurons D) It occurs when the incus moves inward against the oval window and the round window B) Fibroblasts bulges outward C) Modified epithelial cells E) It occurs when the incus moves inward against the round window and the oval window D) Multipolar neurons

bulges outward E) Pseudounipolar neurons

=A 90 =C 89 =B 88 =A 87 =E 86 =C

16 85 Cont.

91. Which of the following statements regarding hair cells is correct? 94. During photoreception, all of the following increase except A) Hair cells depolarize when their stereocilia are bent toward the shortest A) cGMP phosphodiesterase stereocilium B) Transducin B) Nerve fibers stimulated by hair cells have their cell bodies in the cochlear nuclei C) cAMP of the brainstem D) Metarhodopsin II C) The stereocilia of the hair cells are longer on the side of the nearest the modiolus E) Sodium influx into the outer segment of the rod D) There are more inner hair cells than outer hair cells in the organ of Corti E) Transmission of auditory signals is performed mainly by inner hair cells rather 95. Which of the following statements is correct regarding astigmatism? than outer hair cells A) Light rays do not come to a common focal point B) Light rays being emitted from distant objects are focused behind the 92. Accommodation for far vision (focusing on an object at a distance) requires retina which of the following processes? C) Light rays being emitted from distant objects are focused in front of the A) Constriction of the pupil of the eye retina B) Dilation of the pupil of the eye D) Light rays being emitted from distant objects are in sharp focus on the C) An increase in the formation of rhodopsin retina D) Causing the lens of the eye to have more curvature (making it fatter) E) There is a cloudy or opaque area or areas in the lens E) Causing the lens of the eye to have less curvature (making it thinner)

93. Which of the following events occurs in photoreceptors during 96. The stereocilia of hair cells are embedded in which membrane? phototransduction in response to light? A) Basilar A) Phosphodiesterase activity decreases B) Reissner’s B) Transducin activity decreases C) Tectorial C) Hydrolysis of cGMP increases D) Tympanic D) Neurotransmitter release increases E) Vestibular

E) Number of open voltage–gated calcium channels increases

=C 96 =A 95 =E 94 =C 93 =E 92 =E

17 91 Cont.

97. Which of the following is correctly paired with the extraocular 100. The condition of myopia is usually corrected by which of the following types of lens? muscle it innervates? A) Compound lens A) Abducens nerve–medial rectus B) Convex lens C) Spherical lens B) Oculomotor nerve–inferior oblique D) Concave lens C) Oculomotor nerve–lateral rectus E) Cylindrical lens D) Oculomotor nerve–superior oblique E) Trochlear nerve–superior rectus 101. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains the small bilateral cortical area that controls voluntary fixation movements? 98. After olfactory receptor cells bind odor molecules, a sequence of intracellular A) Frontal B) Limbic events occurs that culminates in the entrance of specific ions that depolarize the C) Occipital olfactory receptor cell. Which of the following ions are D) Parietal involved? E) Temporal A) Calcium ions B) Chloride ions 102. Which of the following sensory systems has the smallest range of intensity C) Hydrogen ions discrimination? A) Auditory D) Potassium ions B) Gustatory E) Sodium ions C) Olfactory D) Somatosensory 99. For the eye to adapt to intense light, which of the following may occur? E) Visual A) Bipolar cells will continuously transmit signals at the maximum rate possible B) Photochemicals in both rods and cones will be reduced to retinal and opsins 103. Which of the following molecules moves from the endolymph into the stereocilia and depolarizes the hair cell? C) The levels of rhodopsin will be very high A) Calcium ions D) There will be an increase in the size of the pupil B) Chloride ions E) Vitamin A will convert into retinal C) Hydrogen ions D) Potassium ions

E) Sodium ions

=D 103 =C 102 =A 101 =D 100 =B 99 =E 98 =B

18 97 Cont.

104. Which of the following events prompts the auditory system to interpret a 107. In the central auditory pathway which of the following represents the sound as loud? correct sequence of structures in the pathway? A) Decreased number of inner hair cells become stimulated A) Cochlear nuclei–superior olive–inferior colliculus via the lateral lemniscus B) Decreased number of outer hair cells become stimulated - medial geniculate–auditory cortex C) Hair cells excite nerve endings at a diminished rate B) Cochlear nuclei–inferior olive–inferior colliculus via the medial lemniscus D) Amplitude of vibration of the basilar membrane decreases - medial geniculate–auditory cortex E) Amplitude of vibration of the basilar membrane increases C) Cochlear nuclei–superior olive–superior colliculus via the lateral lemniscus - lateral geniculate–auditory cortex 105. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elements of the D) Cochlear nuclei–inferior olive–inferior colliculus via the lateral lemniscus retina? - lateral geniculate–auditory cortex A) Total number of cones in the retina is much greater than the total number of E) Cochlear nuclei–trapezoid body–dorsal acoustic stria–inferior colliculus rods via the lateral lemniscus–medial geniculate–auditory cortex B) Each individual cone responds to all wave lengths of light C) Photoreceptors activation (rods and cones) results in hyperpolarization of the receptor 108. Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of D) Central fovea contains only rods auditory information from the ear to the cerebral cortex is correct? E) Pigment layer of the retina contains the photoreceptors A) Inferior colliculus neurons synapse in the cochlear nuclei of the brainstem 106. The condition of hyperopia is usually caused by which of the following B) Neurons with cell bodies in the spiral ganglion of Corti synapse in the anomalies of the eye? inferior colliculus A) Decreased production of melanin C) The majority of neurons from the cochlear nuclei synapse in the B) Uneven curvature of the cornea contralateral superior olivary nucleus C) Eyeball that is shorter than normal D) There is no crossing-over of information between the right and left D) Eyeball that is longer than normal auditory pathways in the brainstem

E) Lens system that is too powerful and focuses the object in front of the retina E) Trapezoid neurons synapse in the cochlear nuclei of the brainstem

=C 108 =A 107 =D 106 =C 105 =E

19 104 Cont. 109. Which of the following statements regarding color vision is correct? 111. Which of the following muscles is contracted as part of the pupillary A) Green is perceived when only green cones are stimulated light reflex? B) The stimulation ratio of the three types of cones allows specific color A) Ciliary muscle perception B) Pupillary dilator muscle C) The wavelength of light corresponding to white is shorter than that C) Pupillary sphincter muscle corresponding to blue D) Radial fibers of the iris D) When there is no stimulation of red, green, or blue cones, there will be E) Superior oblique muscle the sensation of seeing white E) Yellow is perceived when green and blue cones are stimulated equally 112. Which of the following allows the visual apparatus to accurately determine the distance of an object from the eye (depth perception)? 110. The function of the round window can best be described by which of A) Monocular vision the following? B) Location of the retinal image on the retina A) Provides the connection point for the stapes C) Phenomenon of stationary parallax B) Serves to damp out low frequency sounds such as your own voice D) Phenomenon of stereopsis C) Transmits the frequency information into the cochlea from the E) Size of the retinal image if the object is of unknown size tympanic membrane D) Serves as the pressure relief valve for the cochlea 113. Which of the following is the most common cause of glaucoma? E) Transmits amplitude information into the cochlea from the tympanic A) Drugs that reduce the secretion of aqueous humor. membrane B) Increased resistance to fluid outflow through trabecular spaces into the canal of Schlemm. C) Normal function of phagocytes on the surface of trabeculae. D) Phagocytoses of proteins and small particles by the epithelium of the iris. E) The activation of reticuloendothelial cells in the interstitial gel outside the

canal of Schlemm.

=B 113 =D 112 =C 111 =D 110 =B

20 109 Cont. 114. Which of the following statements regarding the two types of deafness is 116. Horner syndrome occurs when sympathetic nerve fibers to the eye are correct? interrupted, leading to which of the following symptoms on the affected side of A) An audiogram of a person with conduction deafness would show much greater the face? loss for air conduction than bone conduction of sound. A) Blood vessels of the face become persistently constricted B) An audiogram of a person with nerve deafness would show much greater loss B) Profuse sweating occurs for bone conduction than air conduction of sound. C) The superior eyelid is maintained in an open position C) Conduction deafness occurs when the cochlea or cochlear nerve is impaired. D) There is an overproduction of lacrimal gland fluid D) Nerve deafness occurs when the physical structures that conduct the sound E) There is persistent constriction of the pupil to a smaller diameter than the into the cochlea are impaired. pupil of the opposite eye E) Prolonged exposure to very loud sounds is more likely to cause deafness for high-frequency sounds than low frequency sounds. 117. Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by both rods and cones at their synapses with bipolar cells? 115. Consider the situation in which an individual is turning their head to the left about the axis of the neck. The motion begins while the chin is directly over the A) Acetylcholine right shoulder and ends with the chin directly over the left shoulder. Which of the B) Dopamine following best describes the eye movements associated with this type of head C) Glutamate rotation in a normal individual? D) Glycine A) While the head is turning, the eyes will be moving to the right and saccadic eye E) Serotonin motion will be to the left B) While the head is turning, the eyes will be moving in the same direction as the 118. Olfactory information transmitted to the orbitofrontal cortex passes head rotation and the saccadic eye motion will be to the left through which thalamic nucleus? C) While the head is turning, the eyes will be moving to the right and the saccadic A) Dorsomedial eye motion will be to the right B) Lateral geniculate D) While the head is turning, the eyes will remain stationary within the orbits and C) Medial geniculate the saccadic eye motion will be to the right D) Ventral posterolateral E) While the head is turning, the eyes will be moving to the left and the saccadic E) Ventral posteromedial

eye motion will be to the right

=A 118 =C 117 =E 116 =A 115 =A

21 114 Cont. 119. Which of the following provides about two thirds of the 59 diopters of refractive 122. Auditory information is relayed through which thalamic nucleus? power of the eye? A) Dorsomedial nucleus A) Anterior surface of the cornea B) Lateral geniculate nucleus B) Anterior surface of the lens C) Medial geniculate nucleus C) Iris D) Ventral posterolateral nucleus D) Posterior surface of the cornea E) Ventral posteromedial nucleus E) Posterior surface of the lens 123. The phenomenon of taste preference is 120. Transmission of visual signals to the primary visual cortex from the retina includes A) a central nervous system process a synapse in which structure? B) the result of neonatal stimulation of circumvallate papilla A) Lateral geniculate nucleus C) a learned behavior in animals B) Medial geniculate nucleus D) a result of taste bud maturation C) Pretectal nucleus E) a result of taste bud proliferation following exposure to glutamic acid D) Superior colliculus E) Suprachiasmatic nucleus 124. Of the photoreceptors listed below which one responds to the broadest spectrum of wavelengths of light? A) Rod receptors 121. Which of the following statements regarding retinal ganglion cells is correct? B) Green cone receptors A) One W ganglion cell from the periphery of the retina typically transmits C) Blue cone receptors information from one rod D) Red cone receptors B) One X ganglion cell from the fovea typically transmits information from as many as E) Cells containing melanin in the pigment layer 200 cones C) W ganglion cells respond best to directional movement or vision under very bright 125. Which of the following structures secretes the intraocular fluid of the eye? conditions A) Ciliary processes D) X ganglion cells respond best to color images and are the most numerous of the B) Cornea three types of ganglion cells C) Iris E) Y ganglion cells respond best to rapid changes in the visual image and are the most D) Lens

numerous of the three types of ganglion cells E) Trabeculae

=A 125 =D 124 =A 123 =C 122 =D 121 =A 120 =A

22 119 Cont. 126. Which type of papillae is located in the posterior part of the tongue? 129. Which type of papillae is located in the folds along the lateral surfaces A) Circumvallate of the tongue? B) Foliate A) Circumvallate C) Fungiform B) Foliate D) Fungiform and circumvallate C) Fungiform E) Papilla of Vater D) Fungiform and circumvallate E) Papilla of Vater 127. Which structure functions to ensure that each of the three sets of extraocular muscles is reciprocally innervated so that one muscle of the 130. The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the pair relaxes while the cerebral cortex? other contracts? A) Frontal lobe A) Edinger-Westphal nucleus B) Limbic lobe B) Medial longitudinal fasciculus C) Occipital lobe C) Pretectal nucleus D) Parietal lobe D) Superior colliculus E) Temporal lobe E) Suprachiasmatic nucleus 131. The intraocular fluid of the eye flows from the canal of Schlemm into 128. Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials? which of the following locations? A) Amacrine cells A) Anterior chamber B) Bipolar cells B) Aqueous veins C) Ganglion cells C) Lens D) Horizontal cells D) Posterior chamber

E) Photoreceptors E) Trabeculae

=B 131 =E 130 =A 129 =C 128 =B 127 =A

23 126 Cont. 132. The first central synapse for neurons transmitting the sweet taste 135. Which of the following best describes the underlying basis of the dark sensation is in which of the following structures? current in the outer segment of the photoreceptors? A) Dorsal sensory nucleus of vagus nerve A) Dark current results from the influx of sodium ions via c-AMP–dependent B) Nucleus of solitary tract sodium channels C) Nucleus of olfactory nerve B) Dark current results from the influx of sodium ions via c-GMP–dependent D) Nucleus of hypoglossal nerve sodium channels E) Nucleus of facial nerve C) Dark current results from the efflux of potassium ions via c-GMP– dependent potassium channels 133. Which brainstem structure plays a major role in determining the D) Dark current results from the efflux of sodium ions via c-GMP–dependent direction from which a sound originates? sodium channels A) Cochlear nucleus E) Dark current results from the efflux of sodium ions via c-AMP–dependent B) Inferior colliculus sodium channels C) Lateral lemniscus 136. The phylogenetically new cerebral cortex, the neocortex,is composed of D) Superior olivary nucleus six layers tangential to the pial surface of the hemisphere. Which of the E) Trapezoid following statements concerning the organization of these six layers is correct? 134. Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal A) The neurons in layers I, I, and III perform most of the thalamocortical cells? connections within the same hemisphere A) Amacrine cells B) The neurons in layers II and III form connections with the basal ganglia B) Bipolar cells C) Specific incoming signals from the cerebellum terminate primarily in layer C) Ganglion cells IV D) Horizontal cells D) The neurons in layer V have axons that extend beyond layer V to E) Photoreceptors subcortical regions and the spinal cord

E) The neurons in layer VI send their axons to the hippocampus

=D 136 =B 135 =D 134 =D 133 =B

24 132 Cont.

137. As they leave the spinal cord and course peripherally to , the 140. Which of the following statements concerning the general functional axons of motor neurons must pass through which of the following structures? role of the cerebellum is correct? A) Posterior column A) The cerebellum directly stimulates motor neurons required to make a B) Posterior root movement C) Ventral white commissure B) The cerebellum is unable to make corrective adjustments to the D) Posterior horn movement once it is performed E) Anterior root C) The cerebellum does not receive feedback from muscles that execute 138. Which of the following items is the type of neuron whose axon forms the actual movement synaptic junctions with the skeletal muscle cells (extrafusal fibers) that comprise D) The cerebellum is not involved in the planning of a movement, only its the major part of a muscle? execution A) Alpha motor neurons E) The cerebellum plays an active role in the coordination of the muscles B) Pyramidal neurons required to make a movement C) Gamma motor neurons D) Granule cells 141. Which of the following spinal cord levels contains the entire E) Purkinje cells population of preganglionic sympathetic neurons? A) C5-T1 139. Ascending fibers from the excitatory elements of the reticular activating B) C3-C5 system reach the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus and from there they are C) S2-S4 distributed to which of the following locations? D) T1-L2 A) They project to the somatosensory nuclei of the thalamus E) T6-L1 B) They extend widely throughout many areas of cortex C) They reach the motor nuclei of the thalamus D) They course primarily to the precentral gyrus

E) They extend primarily to the postcentral gyrus

=D 141 =E 140 =B 139 =A 138 =E

25 137 Cont. 142. Which of the following statements best describes a functional role for 145. Which of the following body parts is represented most laterally and the lateral hemispheres of the cerebellum? inferiorly within the primary motor cortex? A) Controls and coordinates movements of the axial muscles as well as the A) Face shoulder and hip B) Hand B) Controls movements that involve distal limb musculature C) Neck C) Functions with the cerebral cortex to plan movements D) Abdomen D) Stimulates motor neurons through its connections to the spinal cord E) Lower limb

143. Which of the following items would produce an increase in cerebral 146. Which of the following items is the type of neuron whose axon forms blood flow? synaptic junctions with skeletal muscle cells (intrafusal fibers) within the A) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration muscle spindles? B) Increase in oxygen concentration A) Alpha motor neurons C) Decrease in the activity of cerebral cortex neurons B) Pyramidal neurons D) Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration C) Gamma motor neurons E) Decrease in arterial blood pressure from 120 mm Hg to 90 mm Hg D) Granule cells E) Purkinje cells 144. Which of the following is the correct Brodmann number designation for the primary motor cortex? 147. Preganglionic sympathetic axons pass through which of the following A) 6 structures? B) 5 A) Dorsal root C) 4 B) Dorsal primary rami D) 3 C) White rami E) 1 D) Gray rami

E) Ventral primary rami

=C 147 =C 146 =A 145 =C 144 =A 143 =C

26 142 Cont. 148. Which of the following statements best describes a functional role for the 151. Which of the following statements best describes afunctional role for the cerebellar vermis? intermediate zone of the cerebellum? A) Controls and coordinates movements of the axial muscles as well as the A) Controls and coordinates movements of the axial muscles as well as the shoulder and hip shoulder and hip B) Controls movements that involve distal limb musculature B) Controls movements that involve distal limb musculature C) Functions with the cerebral cortex to plan movements C) Functions with the cerebral cortex to plan movements D) Stimulates motor neurons through its connections to the spinal cord D) Stimulates motor neurons through its connections to the spinal cord

149. Which of the following statements about sleep is correct? 152. The gigantocellular neurons of the reticular formation release which of A) Although fast-wave sleep is frequently referred to as “dreamless sleep,” the following neurotransmitters? dreams and sometimes nightmares do occur at this time A) Norepinephrine B) Individuals rarely will awaken spontaneously from rapid eye movement B) Serotonin (REM) sleep C) Dopamine C) Muscle tone throughout the body is markedly suppressed during REM sleep D) Acetylcholine D) Heart rate and respiratory rate typically become very regular during REM sleep E) Glutamate

150. Which of the following statements concerning intrinsic spinal cord 153. A large portion of the cerebral cortex does not fit into the conventional circuitry is correct? definition of motor or sensory cortex. Which of the terms below is used to A) Motor neurons greatly outnumber spinal cord interneurons refer to the type of cortex that receives input primarily from several B) Most incoming sensory fibers from the periphery synapse with motor other regions of the cerebral cortex? neurons and not interneurons A) Cortex that is agranular C) Most descending supraspinal motor system axons synapse directly with B) Secondary somatosensory cortex motor neurons C) Association cortex D) Spinal cord interneurons are localized solely within the anterior horn D) Supplementary motor cortex

E) Both excitatory and inhibitory interneurons are found in the spinal cord E) Secondary visual cortex

=C 153 =D 152 =B 151 =E 150 =C 149 =A

27 148 Cont. 154. Which statement concerning the premotor cortex is correct? 156. Administration of a drug that blocks serotonin production will have which of A) The premotor cortex is located just posterior to the primary motor the following effects on sleep? cortex. A) Sleep induction will be almost immediate B) The lateral to medial sequence in the somatotopic organization of B) Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep will be blocked the premotor cortex is just the reverse of that seen in the primary C) Sleep induction will be significantly prolonged or blocked D) REM sleep will be immediately induced motor cortex. C) Stimulation of a small discrete group of neurons in premotor cortex 157. Which brain structure serves as the major controller of the limbic system? will produce contraction of an individual muscle. A) Hypothalamus D) Stimulation of premotor cortex does not lead to any muscle B) Hippocampus activation. C) Amygdala E) The premotor cortex sets the specific posture required for the limb D) Mammillary body to produce the desired movement. E) Fornix 158. Which of the following projection systems is contained in the superior 155. Which of the following features is characteristic of the cerebellar peduncle? supplementary motor cortex? A) Pontocerebellar A) It has no somatotopic representation of the body. B) Cerebellothalamic B) Stimulation of the supplementary motor cortex leads to bilateral C) Posterior spinocerebellar movements, typically involving both hands. D) Corticospinal C) It is located just anterior to the premotor cortex on the lateral surface of the hemisphere. 159. Which of the following terms applies to the combination of a motor neuron D) Like the premotor cortex, stimulation in the supplementary motor and all the skeletal muscle fibers contacted by that motor neuron? A) cortex leads to discrete movement of individual muscles. B) Motor unit E) The supplementary cortex functions totally independent of the C) Propriospinal neurons

premotor and primary motor cortex. D) Skeletal muscle fibers

=B 159 =B 158 =A 157 =C 156 =B 155 =E

28 154 Cont.

160. The creation of memory can be interrupted by which of the 163. The two hemispheres of the brain are connected by which nerve fibers following activities? or pathways? A) Phosphorylation of a potassium channel to block activity A) Lateral lemniscus B) Activation of adenylate cyclase B) Corticofugal fibers C) Unnatural loss of consciousness C) Corpus callosum D) Increase in protein synthesis D) Arcuate fasciculus E) Activation of cGMP phosphodiesterase E) Medial longitudinal fasciculus

161. The condition of prosopagnosia usually results from dysfunction or 164. Broca’s area is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the damage to which area of the cerebral cortex? following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to A) Prefrontal area Broca’s area? B) Junction of parietal and temporal lobe on nondominant side of the A) Spastic paralysis of the contralateral hand brain B) Paralysis of the muscles of the larynx and pharynx C) Frontal eye fields C) Inability to use the two hands to grasp an object D) Underside of medial occipital and temporal lobes D) Inability to direct the two eyes to the contralateral side E) Limbic association areas of frontal and anterior temporal lobes E) Inability to speak whole words correctly

162. Lesions of which of the following areas of the brain would have the 165. A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery on the left side is likely to most devastating effect on verbal and symbolic intelligence? cause which of the following symptoms? A) Hippocampus A) Paralysis of left side of face and left upper extremity B) Amygdala B) Paralysis of left lower extremity C) Wernicke’s area on the non-dominant side of the brain C) Complete loss of vision in both eyes D) Broca’s area D) Loss of ability to comprehend speech

E) Wernicke’s area on the dominant side of the brain E) Loss of vision in left half of both eyes

=D 165 =E 164 =C 163 =E 162 =D 161 =E

29 160 Cont. 166. The fibers of the corticospinal tract pass through which one of the 169. The peripheral sensory input that activates the ascending excitatory following structures? elements of the reticular formation comes mainly from which of the A) Medial lemniscus following? B) Medullary pyramid A) Pain signals C) Posterior funiculus B) Proprioceptive sensory information D) Medial longitudinal fasciculus C) Corticospinal system E) Anterior roots D) Medial lemniscus E) Input from Pacinian corpuscles 167. Which of the following structures serves to connect Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area in the cerebral cortex? 170. Signals from motor areas of the cortex reach the contralateral A) Arcuate fasciculus cerebellum after first passing through which one of the following structures? B) Lateral lemniscus A) Thalamus C) Medial longitudinal fasciculus B) Caudate nucleus D) Anterior commissure C) Red nucleus E) Internal capsule D) Basilar pontine nuclei E) Dorsal column nuclei 168. Which of the following maneuvers will attenuate the in skeletal muscle? 171. Cells of the adrenal medulla receive synaptic input from which of the A) Sectioning the dorsal root of a spinal nerve following types of neurons? B) Disruption of the A) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons C) Disruption of the corticospinal tract B) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons D) Sectioning the medial lemniscus on the contralateral side of the skeletal C) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons muscle in question D) Postsynaptic parasympathetic neurons

E) Creating a lesion in the contralateral globus pallidus E) Presynaptic parasympathetic neurons

=A 171 =D 170 =A 169 =A 168 =A 167 =B

30 166 Cont. 172. Which of the following statements about muscle and passive stretch of 175. Which of the following projection systems is contained in the inferior muscle spindles is true? cerebellar peduncle? A) Primary (Ia) sensory fibers increase their firing rate A) Pontocerebellar projections B) Secondary sensory fibers decrease their firing rate B) Cerebellothalamic projections C) Alpha motor neurons are inhibited C) Posterior spinocerebellar projections D) Gamma motor neurons are stimulated D) Corticospinal projections E) Muscle spindles go completely slack E) Dorsospinocerebellar projections

173. Which of the following statements concerning electroencephalogram 176. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) provides a cushioning effect both inside and activity is correct? outside the brain. Which of the following spaces lies outside the brain or A) Beta waves occur in normal adults who are awake but in a quiet, resting state spinal cord and contains CSF? B) Alpha waves occur at 14 to 80 cycles per second during periods of heightened A) Lateral ventricle excited activity or high tension C) Theta waves are commonly seen in children but also occur in adults during B) Third ventricle emotional disappointment or in degenerative brain states C) Cisterna magna D) Delta waves are characteristic of slow wave sleep D) Epidural space E) Both C and D are correct E) Aqueduct of Sylvius

174. Which of the following projection systems is contained in the middle 177. In a receptor, which type of muscle fiber is responsible cerebellar peduncle? for the dynamic response? A) Pontocerebellar projections A) B) Cerebellothalamic projections B) Static nuclear bag fiber C) Posterior spinocerebellar projections C) D) Corticospinal projections D) Dynamic nuclear bag fiber

E) Ventrospinocerebellar projections E) Smooth muscle fibers

=D 177 =C 176 =C 175 =A 174 =E 173 =A

31 172 Cont. 178. Neurological disease associated with the cerebellum produces which 181. Which of the following activities will increase the sensitivity of the of the following types of symptoms? stretch reflex? A) Resting tremor A) Cutting the dorsal root fibers associated with the muscle in which the B) Athetosis stretch reflex is being examined C) Rigidity B) Increasing the activity of the medullary reticular nuclei D) Ataxia C) Bending the head forward E) Akinesia D) Enhanced activity in the fusimotor (gamma motor neuron) system E) Stimulating the lateral hemispheres of the cerebellum 179. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that contribute to the innervation of the descending colon and rectum are found in which of the 182. Which of the following structures serves as an “alternative pathway” for following structures? signals from the motor cortex to the spinal cord? A) Superior cervical ganglion A) Red nucleus B) Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus B) Basilar pontine nuclei C) Superior mesenteric ganglion C) Caudate nucleus D) Ciliary ganglion D) Thalamus E) Spinal cord levels S2 and S3 E) Dorsal column nuclei

180. A complex spike pattern in the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum can be 183. The phenomenon of decerebrate rigidity can be explained, at least in initiated by stimulation of which of the following brain areas? part, by which of the following? A) Inferior olivary complex A) Stimulation of type 1b sensory neurons B) Brainstem reticular nuclei B) Loss of cerebellar inputs to the red nucleus C) Neurons in red nucleus C) Overactivity of the medullary reticular nuclei involved in D) Superior olivary complex D) Unopposed activity of the pontine reticular nuclei

E) Dorsal vestibular nucleus E) Degeneration of the nigrostriatal pathway

=D 183 =A 182 =D 181 =A 180 =E 179 =D

32 178 Cont. 184. Like the primary visual cortex, the primary motor cortex is organized into 187. There is an area in the dominant hemisphere, which when damaged, vertical columns composed of cells linked together throughout the six layers of the might leave the sense of hearing intact but not allow words to be arranged cortex. The cells that contribute axons to the corticospinal into a comprehensive thought. Which of the following terms is used to tract are concentrated in which cortical layer? identify this portion of the cortex? A) Layer I A) Primary auditory cortex B) Layer II C) Layer III B) Wernicke’s area D) Layer IV C) Broca’s area E) Layer V D) Angular gyrus E) Limbic association cortex 185. When a muscle is suddenly stretched, a signal is transmitted over Ia sensory fibers from muscle spindles.Which of the following statements best describes the 188. Efferent fibers from the cerebellum originate in response elicited by these spindle afferent signals? A) Deep cerebellar nuclei A) Contraction of the muscle in which the active spindles are located B) Purkinje cell layer of cerebellar cortex B) Relaxation of the muscle in which the active spindles are located C) Granular cell layer of cerebellar cortex C) Contraction of muscles antagonistic to those in which the active spindles are D) Molecular cell layer of cerebellar cortex located D) Relaxation of intrafusal fibers in the active spindles E) Floccular cortex of cerebellum E) Direct synaptic activation of gamma motor neurons 189. Afferent signals from the periphery of the body travel to the 186. Which of the following foramina allows cerebrospinal fluid to pass directly from cerebellum in which of the following nerve tracts? the ventricular system into the subarachnoid space? A) Ventral spinocerebellar tract A) Foramen of Magendie B) Fastigioreticular tract B) Aqueduct of Sylvius C) Vestibulocerebellar tract C) Third ventricle D) Reticulocerebellar tract D) Lateral ventricle

E) Arachnoid villi E) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

=E 189 =A 188 =B 187 =A 186 =A 185 =E

33 184 Cont. 190. Motor cortex neurons receive feedback from muscles activated by the 193. In controlling the fine muscles of the hands and fingers, corticospinal axons corticospinal system. This feedback arises from which of the following can synapse primarily with which of the following? structures? A) Posterior horn neurons A) Red nucleus B) Spinal cord interneurons B) Spinocerebellar tracts C) Spinal cord motor neurons C) Skin surface of fingers used to grasp an object D) Purkinje cells D) Muscle spindles in muscles antagonistic to those used to make the E) Renshaw cells movement E) Vestibular nuclei 194. Which of the following statements concerning spinal cord motor circuits is correct? 191. Which epileptic condition involves a postictal depression period lasting A) Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate static nuclear bag fibers from several minutes to perhaps as long as several hours? B) Descending supraspinal axons will synapse with either alpha or gamma motor A) Grand mal seizure neurons B) Petit mal seizure C) Clonus is caused by a hyperactive stretch reflex D) The contractile elements of intrafusal fibers are found at the central (nuclear) C) Jacksonian seizure region of the fiber D) Phase-out clonic seizure E) Both types of sensory fibers in a muscle spindle are that E) Temporal lobe seizure signal stretch of the two polar, noncontractile ends of the intrafusal fiber 192. The sweat glands and piloerector muscles of hairy skin are innervated by 195. Which of the following cells receives direct synaptic input from Golgi tendon which of the following fiber types? organs? A) Cholinergic postganglionic parasympathetic fibers A) Type Ia inhibitory interneurons B) Cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic fibers B) Dynamic gamma motor neurons C) Adrenergic preganglionic parasympathetic fibers C) Alpha motor neurons D) Adrenergic postganglionic sympathetic fibers D) Type Ib inhibitory interneurons

E) Adrenergic preganglionic sympathetic fibers E) Type II excitatory interneurons

=D 195 =C 194 =C 193 =B 192 =A 191 =C

34 190 Cont. 196. Which of the following neurotransmitters is used by the axons of locus 199. The perivascular space (Virchow-Robin space) in the brain is formed ceruleus neurons that distribute throughout much of the brain? between the wall of small penetrating vessels and which of the following A) Norepinephrine structures? B) Dopamine A) Dura mater C) Serotonin B) Arachnoid membrane D) Acetylcholine C) Pia mater D) Choroid plexus 197. Which of the following statements concerning mossy and climbing E) Ependymal cells fibers is correct? A) Mossy fibers provide direct excitatory input to Purkinje cells 200. Which of the following types of seizures is associated with a spike and B) Climbing fibers evoke simple spikes in Purkinje cells dome EEG pattern during the seizure activity? C) All spinocerebellar axons terminate as mossy fibers in the cerebellar A) Grand mal seizures cortex B) Temporal lobe seizures D) All pontocerebellar axons terminate as climbing fibers in the cerebellar C) Jacksonian seizures cortex D) Petit mal seizures E) All climbing fibers originate in the red nucleus E) Apoplectic seizures

198. Fine motor movement of the index finger can be elicited by 201. The excitatory or inhibitory effect of a postganglionic sympathetic fiber stimulation of which of the following brain areas? is determined by which of the following features or structures? A) Primary motor cortex A) Function of the postsynaptic receptor to which it binds B) Lateral cerebellar hemisphere B) Specific organ innervated C) Premotor cortex C) Ganglion where the postganglionic fiber originates D) Supplemental motor area D) Ganglion containing the preganglionic fiber

E) Red nucleus E) Emotional state of the individual

=A 201 =D 200 =C 199 =A 198 =C 197 =A

35 196 Cont. 202. Which of the following neurotransmitters is used by the axons of 205. A vascular lesion that causes degeneration of corticospinal axons in substantia nigra neurons that project to the caudate and putamen? the basilar pons will most likely lead to which of the following A) Norepinephrine conditions? B) Dopamine A) Paralysis primarily involving muscles around the contralateral should C) Serotonin and hip joints D) Acetylcholine B) Paralysis of the muscles of mastication E) GABA C) Loss of voluntary control of discrete movements of the contralateral hand and fingers 203. Which of the following statements concerning the function of D) Inability to speak clearly cerebellar neurons is correct? E) Inability to convert short-term memory to longterm memory A) Basket cells evoke excitatory responses in Purkinje cells B) Granule cells evoke excitatory responses in Purkinje cells 206. Which statement best describes a characteristic functional C) Golgi cells evoke excitatory responses in basket cells difference between a Golgi tendon organ and a muscle spindle? D) Purkinje cells evoke excitatory responses in cerebellar nuclear cells A) The output signals of a Golgi tendon organ lead to inactivation of the E) Stellate cells evoke excitatory responses in basket cells muscle associated with the active tendon organ B) Golgi tendon organs do not function in the course of voluntary 204. Which of the following items correctly describes the relationship of movements that require a normal level of tension development in the cerebrospinal fluid pressure to the venous pressure in the superior sagittal associated muscle sinus? C) Signals arising from Golgi tendon organs do not contribute to A) A few millimeters higher conscious proprioception B) A few millimeters lower D) Signals arising from Golgi tendon organs are synaptically linked C) Equal to directly to an D) Twice the value E) The signals from a Golgi tendon organ are conducted along sensory

E) One-half the value fibers that conduct more rapidly than those of the muscle spindle

=A 206 =C 205 =A 204 =B 203 =B

36 202 Cont. 207. The cerebellum is sometimes described as a “timing device.” Which of 209. Which type of cholinergic receptor is found at synapses between the following statements best describes the basis for this function? preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic system? A) The cerebellum receives visual input that enables it to determine any A) Muscarinic point in the 24-hour light-dark cycle B) Nicotinic B) The cerebellum computes the exact time used to excite adjacent C) Alpha D) Beta1 Purkinje cells E) Beta2 C) The cerebellar circuitry determines only the duration or end-point of each movement 210. Damage limited to the primary motor cortex (area 4) is thought to cause D) The cerebellar circuitry enhances the turn-on and turn-off times for hypotonia in the affected muscles. However, most cortical lesions, particularly each movement by delivering an excitatory signal followed by a precisely those caused by vascular infarcts, generally involve primary motor cortex in timed inhibitory signal addition to surrounding areas of cortex or cortical efferent axons. The latter type E) The cerebellar circuitry determines only the precise timing of the turn- of cortical lesion will cause which of the following? on signal, and the turn-off signal begins when the cerebellum ceases to A) Spastic muscle paralysis Function B) Flaccid muscle paralysis C) No paralysis, only jerky, fast movements 208. Output signals from Golgi tendon organs are transmitted to which of D) Complete blindness in the contralateral eye the following higher centers? E) Loss of sensation in the contralateral foot A) Inferior colliculus 211. The term limbic cortex includes the orbitofrontal cortex, subcallosal gyrus, B) Globus pallidus cingulate gyrus, and which one of the following areas? C) Cerebellum A) Supplementary motor cortex D) Red nucleus B) Postcentral gyrus E) Substantia nigra C) Lingual gyrus D) Parahippocampal gyrus

E) Paracentral lobule

=D 211 =A 210 =B 209 =C 208 =D

37 207 Cont. 212. The cerebellum participates in the learning of motor skills, and the 214. Evaluation of a patient reveals the following deficits:(1) decreased climbing fiber input to Purkinje cells is thought to be most important to aggressiveness and ambition, and inappropriate social responses; (2) inability to this process. Which of the following statements concerning this process is process sequential thoughts in order to solve a problem; and (3) inability to correct? process multiple bits of information that could then be recalled instantaneously A) Under resting conditions, climbing fibers evoke complex spikes in to complete a thought or solve a problem. Damage to which of the following brain regions might be responsible for such deficits? Purkinje cells at a very rapid rate A) Premotor cortex B) When a novel movement is performed, the actual movement may not B) Parieto-occipital cortex in nondominant hemisphere match the intended movement, which tends to decrease the firing rate of C) Broca’s area climbing fiber-initiated simple spikes D) Limbic association cortex C) The decrease in climbing fiber input decreases the overall sensitivity E) Prefrontal association cortex (excitability) of the Purkinje cells D) On the very first trial of the new movement, the Purkinje cell adopts a 215. The is initiated by stimulation delivered to which of the new, relatively long-term level of excitability following receptors? E) Neurons in the inferior olivary complex and their axons projecting to A) Muscle spindle the cerebellum are important contributors to the process B) Joint capsule receptor C) Cutaneous free nerve ending 213. Occlusion of which of the following structures would lead to D) Golgi tendon organ E) Pacinian corpuscle communicating hydrocephalus? A) Aqueduct of Sylvius 216. Which substance activates adrenergic alpha and beta receptors equally well? B) Lateral ventricle A) Acetylcholine C) Foramen of Luschka B) Norepinephrine D) Foramen of Magendie C) Epinephrine E) Arachnoid villi D) Serotonin

E) Dopamine

=C 216 =C 215 =E 214 =E 213 =E

38 212 Cont. 217. The posterior and lateral hypothalamus, in combination with the preoptic 220. In the patellar , which of the following items will synapse directly on area, are involved in the control of which of the following functions? alpha motor neurons that innervate the muscle being stretched? A) Cardiovascular functions involving blood pressure and heart rate A) Ia sensory fiber B) Regulation of thirst and water intake B) Ib sensory fiber C) Stimulation of uterine contractility and milk ejection from the breast C) Excitatory interneurons D) Gamma motor neurons D) Signaling that food intake is sufficient (satiety) E) Inhibitory interneurons E) Secretion of hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland 221. Which of the following statements best describes the functional role played by the 218. Which statement concerning the reticulospinal system is correct? pontine reticulospinal fibers in comparison to the medullary reticulospinal system? A) Reticulospinal neurons do not receive input from motor areas of the A) The pontine system works in concert with the medullary system with each providing cerebral cortex excitatory influence to extensor muscles B) Medullary reticulospinal fibers excite motor neurons that activate extensor B) The pontine system essentially functions in an opposing manner relative to the muscles medullary system C) Pontine reticulospinal fibers course in the spinal cord posterior funiculus C) The pontine system provides an initial slow excitatory influence, which is then followed by rapid excitation from the medullary system D) Medullary reticulospinal fibers course in the medial part of the ventral D) The medullary system provides slow excitation to extensor motor neurons, whereas funiculus of the spinal cord the pontine system provides slow excitation of flexor motor neurons E) Pontine reticulospinal fibers excite spinal cord motor neurons that activate E) The medullary system provides excitation to upper limb extensor motor neurons, limb extensor muscles whereas the pontine system provides excitation for lower limb extensor motor neurons

219. The neurons located in the locus ceruleus release which of the following 222. Which of the following is correctly paired with the sensory structure that neurotransmitters at their synaptic terminals? mediates the reflex? A) Norepinephrine A) Autogenic inhibition—muscle spindle B) Dopamine B) Reciprocal inhibition—Golgi tendon organ C) GABA C) Reciprocal inhibition—Pacinian corpuscle D) Stretch reflex—muscle spindle D) Acetylcholine

E) Golgi tendon reflex—Meissner corpuscle

E) Serotonin

=D 222 =B 221 =A 220 =A 219 =E 218 =A

39 217 Cont. 223. Which of the following items represents the structural basis of the 226. Nasal, lacrimal, salivary, and gastrointestinal glands are stimulated by which of blood–cerebrospinal fluid barrier? the following substances? A) Tight junctions between the ependymal cells forming the ventricular A) Acetylcholine walls B) Norepinephrine B) Arachnoid villi C) Epinephrine C) Tight junctions between adjacent choroid plexus cells D) Serotonin D) Astrocyte foot processes E) Dopamine E) Tight junctions between adjacent endothelial cells of brain capillaries 227. Which of the following reflexes best describes incoming pain signals that elicit movements performed by antagonistic muscle groups on either side of the 224. Damage to which of the following brain areas leads to the inability to body? comprehend the written or the spoken word? A) A) Insular cortex on the dominate side of the brain B) Withdrawal reflex B) Anterior occipital lobe C) Reciprocal inhibition C) Junction of the parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes D) Autogenic inhibition D) Medial portion of the precentral gyrus E) Most anterior portion of the temporal lobe 228. The spinocerebellum is involved in the control of ballistic movements. This type of movement is entirely preplanned in that the initiation, trajectory, and 225. In an otherwise normal individual, dysfunction of which brain area will endpoint are programmed by the cerebellum. Which of the following statements lead to behavior which is not appropriate for the given social occasion? is correct concerning the symptoms observed in patients with cerebellar lesions A) Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus that interfere with ballistic movements? B) Amygdala A) Movements are slow to be initiated C) Corpus callosum B) The speed of the movement is faster than desired D) Fornix C) The movement turn-off is reached more quickly D) Spastic paralysis appears in the affected muscle group

E) Uncus

E) A resting tremor develops in the affected limbs

=A 228 =A 227 =A 226 =B 225 =C 224 =C

40 223 Cont. 229. Decerebrate rigidity results from which of the following situations? 232. Bilateral lesions involving the ventromedial hypothalamus will lead to which A) Damage to the brainstem systems that control flexor motor neurons of the following deficits? B) Overactivity in the medullary reticulospinal system leads to hyperactivity in A) Decreased eating and drinking limb extensor muscles B) Loss of sexual drive C) An imbalance in the activity of medullary and pontine reticulospinal systems C) Excessive eating, rage and aggression, hyperactivity such that excitation of extensor motor neurons is the end result D) Uterine contractility, mammary gland enlargement D) Interruption of the medullary reticulospinal axons E) Obsessive compulsive disorder E) Interruption of the pontine reticulospinal axons 233. Which structure is an important pathway for communication between the 230. Brain edema is a serious complication of altered fluid dynamics in the brain. limbic system and the brainstem? Continued progression of brain edema may lead to which of the following A) Mamillothalamic tract situations? B) Fornix A) Relaxation of the vasculature smooth muscle and decreased blood flow C) Anterior commissure B) Increased blood flow leading to increased oxygen concentration D) Indusium griseum C) Vasoconstriction and decreased edema E) Medial forebrain bundle D) Relaxation of the vasculature smooth muscle and increased blood flow E) Compression of blood vessels leading to ischemia and compensatory capillary 234. Which of the following terms best describes the cerebellar deficit in which dilation there is a failure to perform rapid alternating movements indicating a failure of “progression” from one part of the movement to the next? 231. Which portion of the cerebellum functions in the planning of sequential A) Past-pointing movement? B) Intention tremor A) Vermis and fastigial nucleus C) Dysarthria B) Intermediate zone and fastigial nucleus D) Cerebellar nystagmus C) Lateral hemisphere and interposed nucleus E) Dysdiadochokinesia D) Cerebrocerebellum and dentate nucleus

E) Spinocerebellum and interposed nucleus

=E 234 =E 233 =C 232 =D 231 =E 230 =C

41 229 Cont. 235. The function of which of the following organs or systems is dominated by 238. Schizophrenia is thought to be caused in part by excessive production the sympathetic nervous system? and release of which of the following neurotransmitter agents? A) Systemic blood vessels A) Norepinephrine B) Heart B) Serotonin C) Gastrointestinal gland secretion C) Acetylcholine D) Salivary glands D) Substance P E) Gastrointestinal motility E) Dopamine

236. Which of the following structures in the vestibular apparatus is responsible 239. Which of the following structures is not considered to be part of the for the detection of angular acceleration? basal ganglia? A) Statoconia A) Caudate nucleus B) Macula B) Dentate nucleus C) Semicircular canals C) Substantia nigra D) Saccule D) Putamen E) Ampullae E) Globus pallidus

237. A person who has had a traumatic brain injury seems to be able to 240. Stimulation of which of the following subcortical areas can lead to understand the written and spoken word but cannot create the correct sounds contraction of a single muscle or small groups of muscles? to be able to speak a word that is recognizable. This person most A) Dentate nucleus of the cerebellum likely has damage to which area of the brain? B) Ventrobasalar complex of the thalamus A) Wernicke’s area C) Red nucleus B) Broca’s area D) Subthalamic nucleus C) Angular gyrus E) Nucleus accumbens D) Dentate nucleus

E) Prefrontal lobe

=C 240 =B 239 =E 238 =B 237 =C 236 =A

42 235 Cont. 241. Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15% of 244. Which statement concerning memory processing in the brain is correct? the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all A) The brain forms positive memory through facilitation of synaptic circuits, but is tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system unable to form negative memory by learning to ignore irrelevant contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism? information A) Astrocytes B) Short-term memory is considered to be a list of 7–10 discrete facts that can be B) Neurons recalled within a period of a several hours C) Ependymal cells C) It appears that rehearsal and repetition of information is not advantageous in D) Choroid plexus cells converting shortterm memory to long-term memory E) Brain endothelial cells D) Lesions involving the hippocampus cause a profound deficit in short-term memory 242. The concept of “autonomic tone” is quite advantageous because it allows the E) No morphologic or structural changes occur in the process of long-term memory nervous system to have much finer control over the function of an organ or organ formation system. This is exemplified in the control of systemic arterioles. Which of the following actions would lead to vasodilation of systemic arterioles? 245. Which of the following structures is maximally sensitive to linear head A) Increased activity of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons movement in the vertical plane? B) Decreased activity of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons A) Macula of the utricle C) Increased activity of postganglionic sympathetic neurons B) Macula of the saccule D) Decreased activity of postganglionic sympathetic neurons C) Crista ampullaris of the anterior semicircular duct E) Increased activity of preganglionic sympathetic neurons D) Crista ampullaris of the horizontal semicircular duct

243. Which structures in the cerebellum have a topographical representation of the 246. Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall long-term memories from the past. body? When damaged, which of the following brain regions leads to retrograde amnesia? A) The dentate nucleus A) Hippocampus B) The lateral hemispheres B) Dentate gyrus C) The flocculonodular lobe C) Amygdaloid complex D) The vermis and intermediate D) Thalamus

E) The cerebellar peduncles E) Mammillary nuclei of hypothalamus

=D 246 =B 245 =D 244 =D 243 =D 242 =B

43 241 Cont. 247. Hemiballismus, the sudden flailing movements of an entire limb, results when damage 250. Which structure connects the hippocampus to the limbic system? occurs to which area of the brain? A) Mamillothalamic tract A) The subthalamic nucleus B) Fornix B) The ventral basal complex of the thalamus C) The globus pallidus C) Anterior commissure D) The red nucleus D) Medial forebrain bundle E) The lateral hypothalamus E) Arcuate fasciculus

248. Although the sympathetic nervous system is often activated in such a way that it leads to 251. The condition of athetosis results when which area of the brain is mass activation of sympathetic responses throughout the body, it can also be activated to produce relatively discrete responses. Which of the following is an example of a local or dysfunctional? discrete sympathetic action? A) Globus pallidus A) Heating of a patch of skin causes a relatively restricted vasodilation in the heated region B) Substantia nigra B) Food in the mouth causes salivation C) Ventral anterior complex of the thalamus C) Emptying of the bladder may cause reflexive emptying of the bowel D) Putamen D) Dust particle in the eye causes increased tear fluid release E) Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellum E) Bright light introduced into one eye

249. Which statement concerning the transduction mechanism in vestibular hair cells is 252. Which component of the basal ganglia plays the major role in the control of correct? cognitive (memory-guided) motor activity? A) Movement that bends the stereocilia away from the kinocilium has a depolarizing influence A) Globus pallidus on the hair cell B) Substantia nigra B) The attachment of the stereocilia to the kinocilium is such that it activates voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane of the kinocilium C) Caudate nucleus C) Depolarization of the hair cell is achieved by inward movement of sodium from the D) Putamen endolymph E) Subthalamic nucleus D) Deflection of the cupula such that stereocilia move toward the kinocilium causes the hair cell to depolarize E) Inward movement of potassium through voltagegated potassium channels in the stereocilia

membrane has a depolarizing influence on the hair cell

=C 252 =A 251 =B 250 =D 249 =A 248 =A

44 247 Cont. 253. The brain’s use of energy is among the highest of any organ in the body, but 255. Stimulation of the punishment center can inhibit the reward center, unfortunately the storage of glycogen in the brain is minimal and thus anaerobic demonstrating that fear and punishment can take precedence over pleasure and glycolysis is not a significant source of energy. Considering reward. Which of the following cell groups is considered the this information about brain metabolism, which of the following statements is punishment center? correct? A) Lateral and ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei A) The brain is dependent on glucose delivery via the vascular system B) Periventricular hypothalamus and midbrain central gray B) Glucose delivered to the brain via the vascular system can be stored in C) Supraoptic nuclei of hypothalamus neurons for several hours D) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus C) Cessation of blood flow to the brain can be safely tolerated for up to about 10 minutes due to the considerable capacity for oxygen storage in brain tissue 256. A wide variety of neurotransmitters have been identified in the cell bodies and D) Glucose delivery to neurons is vitally dependent on insulin afferent synaptic terminals in the basal ganglia. A deficiency of which of the following E) An overdose of insulin causes glucose to be rapidly transported into the brain transmitters is typically associated with at the expense of other insulin-dependent tissues Parkinson disease? A) Norepinephrine 254. All the hair cells in the crista ampullaris of the horizontal semicircular duct B) Dopamine have their stereocilia and kinocilium oriented according to which of the C) Serotonin following patterns? D) GABA A) Same pattern with progressive increase in length of stereocilia from shortest E) Substance P to tallest with the tallest located adjacent to the kinocilium B) Random pattern with progression from short to tall stereocilia such that the 257. Drugs that stimulate specific adrenergic receptors are called sympathomimetic shortest is adjacent to the kinocilium drugs. Which of the following is a sympathomimetic drug? C) Same pattern with progressive decrease in length of stereocilia from tallest A) Reserpine to shortest, with the shortest located adjacent to the kinocilium B) Phentolamine D) Random pattern with progression from tallest to shortest stereocilia, with C) Propranolol the shortest adjacent to the kinocilium D) L-dopa

E) Phenylephrine

E) Random pattern with random distribution of stereocilia of various lengths

=E 257 =B 256 =B 255 =A 254 =A

45 253 Thank you!

اعمل لترسم بسمة، اعمل لتمسح دمعة، اعمل و أنت تعلم أن هللا ال يضيع أجر من أحسن عمال.

Done by: Team Leaders: Lulwah Alshiha Team Leaders Laila Mathkour Mohammad Alayed

Contact us:

References: • Guyton & Hall Physiology Review ( Second Edition ) • Linda Cases and Problem Physiology ( Fourth Edition ) • Ganong Review of Medical Physiology ( 23 Edition ) • E.S Prakash, Multiple Choices Questions In Medical Physiology

46