MCAT Psychology, Potomac Watch -The insula of the brain is implicated in conscious urges and emotions. Therefore smokers with brain damage involving the insula would be more likely to quit smoking more easily without relapse than smokers without brain damage to the insula -Avolition, Avolition amounts to the overall lack of drive to perform activities and pursue objectives. For example, people with this symptom may not have the will to run errands or perform a task, even when those tasks will bring obvious advantages to their lives (e.g., cooking). It is thus a negative symptom -An allosteric enzyme has a site other than the one for the substrate at which a molecule (not the substrate) that directs the function of the enzyme can bind -oxygen in H2O is δ- and thus will be attracted to a δ+ atom. The carbon double bonded to the nitrogen must be δ+ -First, exactly why is DNA negatively charged? The reason why DNA is negatively charged is the phosphate group that makes up every nucleotide (pentose + nitrogenous base + phosphate). When forming part of the phosphodiester bond, the phosphate group (circled in blue below) retains 1 of 2 negatively charges (the other being lost to form the other ester bond to a new pentose, which is the reason for the name "phospho-di-ester")

Brain Functioning Heart Physics Senses, Eyes, Ears, Tongue, Skin Sleep Stages, Radiation Waves Lengths

Chemistry Nomenclature (Zcis, Etrans) (R Clockwise, S Counterclockwise) DNA Structure, Amino Acids, DNA Nitrogen Bases (AG, TUC) ATP Cycles, Phosphagen Glycolytic Oxidative Colligative Properties gamma > beta > alpha

Homophily, Relationships from Shared Characteristics

Avolition amounts to the overall lack of drive to perform activities and pursue objectives. For example, people with this symptom may not have the will to run errands or perform a task, even when those tasks will bring obvious advantages to their lives (e.g., cooking). It is thus a negative symptom

Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death that can occur in multicellular organisms

The Stressor, Cognitive and behavioral approaches to the treatment of anxiety disorders usually refer to the stimulus that brings anxiety episodes

The zygote, undergoes a split for monozygotic twins, whereas dizygotic twins result from two ova

Game Theory, The idea that strictly rational and selfish decisions can be prejudicial for all the parties involved was offered by which cooperation theory?

Sex linked, means that the gene in question is present on the X chromosome

Adrenaline

Which of the following hormones found in the human menstrual cycle are produced in the ovary? 2 And 4 -You must be familiar with the graph of the menstrual cycle in order to know which curve refers to which hormone. There are four hormones involved: luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH), estrogen, and progesterone. If the menstrual cycle is understood well, you should immediately know that both estrogen and progesterone are secreted by the corpus luteum, which comes from the ovary. Alternatively, if the pituitary hormones are known, it is easy to eliminate LH and FSH because they are secreted by the anterior pituitary seminiferous tubules → epididymis → vas deferens

Ivas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra -Not, gametogenesis → seminal vesicles → seminiferous tubules

Why Is DNA Negatively Charged? The answer to this question is based on common electrostatics: opposites attract, like charges repel. This basic idea will come in handy for several questions on the real MCAT, including biochemistry and organic chemistry. Because DNA is negatively charged (due to its phosphate backbone), many of the DNA-binding grooves in proteins tend to be positively charged at physiological pH. Thus residues like arginine, lysine, and histidine are good targets for mutagenesis, as they are more likely to be critical for DNA binding. It should be mentioned that charge is not the only thing that determines the specificity of DNA binding (the shape of the pocket and the overall conformation of the protein are important as well for a variety of reasons, including access), but the presence of positively charged amino acids is common for most DNA- binding pockets

Of the 20 common amino acids, at pH=7, two are negative charged: aspartic acid (Asp, D) and glutamic acid (Glu, E) {both acidic side chains}, and three are positively charged: lysine (Lys, K), arginine (Arg, R) and histidine (His, H) {all 3 basic side chains}. Lysine and arginine are present in answer choice C.

You will be seeing electrophoretic gels regularly throughout your MCAT preparation since it is part of the assumed knowledge for the new MCAT. So let’s make sure you understand how to interpret Figure 1, which would lead you to the correct answer.

First, exactly why is DNA negatively charged?

The reason why DNA is negatively charged is the phosphate group that makes up every nucleotide (pentose + nitrogenous base + phosphate). When forming part of the phosphodiester bond, the phosphate group (circled in blue below) retains 1 of 2 negatively charges (the other being lost to form the other ester bond to a new pentose, which is the reason for the name "phospho-di-ester")

-In gel electrophoresis, negatively-charged DNA fragments migrate towards the positively- charged anode (i.e. due to the application of a voltage across the gel; regardless of the voltage, ANions migrate to ANodes). Longer molecules migrate more slowly because they experience more resistance within the gel (typically composed of agarose or a polyacrylamide gel-PAGE). Because the size of the molecule affects its mobility, smaller fragments end up nearer to the anode than longer ones in a given period

-The experiment visualizes only the radiolabeled DNA in the gel (which can be seen in 6 lanes). According to the passage (Experiment 1), the DNA fragments used in the 6 wells were all “identical in length”, so why did increasing concentration of XBR lead to the content from 2 wells not migrating in their lanes as far as the controls? There must have been an alteration in charge and/or mass. It is because the protein (XBR) bound to the DNA fragment (= DNA + protein complex) which reduced the negatively charge on DNA in a dose-dependent fashion and added to the mass of the fragment: more XBR, less migration. How could XBR do so? Because of positively-charged amino acids binding to a portion of the negatively charges on DNA.

The process is summarized in the following diagram which also includes the presence of ions that are typically released when binding occurs

-Affinity does not solely depend on electrostatics but may include, depending on the situation and/or to one degree or another, H-bonding, Van der Waal’s interactions (relatively very, very weak), and the shape of the molecules (e.g. a pocketed/cup-shaped/invaginated site matching a relatively large or protuberant ligand or substrate, leading to the imagery of ‘lock and key’ similar to the image above, but more realistically described as ‘induced fit’). In this particular question, we only have information regarding electrostatics: the attraction of negatively charged to positively charged molecules nitrogen is an integral part of the subunits (nucleotides: BCM 1.5, BIO 1.2.2) that polymerize to form DNA. After part 1 of the experiment, essentially all bacterial DNA will contain the isotope of nitrogen 15N. Thus, the original molecules contain only 15N. By semi-conservative replication in the presence of only 14N (parts 2 and 3 in the experiment), the first new molecules will each contain one strand of 15N (= the parent or template) and one strand of 14N (= the new or daughter strand). In the second replication, the 15N/14N molecule created in the first replication will be separated and used as a template. One strand of 15N will be used as a template for a new 15N/14N molecule, and one strand of 14N will be used as a template for a new molecule that will contain only 14N. This will produce equal amounts of the 15N/14N and the 14N molecules in the second generation.

On the Surface: The information provided in the first paragraph applies to all subsequent generations: "The method of DNA replication proposed by James Watson and Francis Crick is known as semi-conservative replication since each new double helix retains one strand of the original DNA double helix". That same formula is applied twice to make 2 generations.

So if you have been only growing in N15, you begin with 100% N15. The first generation in N14 produces 100% combinations of N15/N14. Now the 2nd generation, you get 50% N15/N14 and 50% N14/N14.

In color, here is N15 in blue and N14 in red (note that the question is asking about the 2nd generation, F2, but just as an academic exercise, we have included the 3rd generation, F3):

If conservative replication had occurred, the initial strand, which contained only 15N (see previous question), would not separate to form templates for two new strands (conservative = to resist or oppose change). The replication would produce no DNA molecules containing a mix of the old strand (15N) and the new strand (14N) [see Figure 1]. After one generation there would be the original old strand with 15N and an equal number of new daughter strands with 14N

Dispersive replication takes the original molecule and produces two new molecules that are both mixtures of the old and new strands (see Figure 1). Therefore, the centrifuge of a mixture that had replicated in this manner would show only a large band of 15N/14N molecules

Which of the following statements could be held LEAST accountable for DNA maintaining its helical structure? -Unwinding the helix would separate the base pairs enough for water molecules to enter between the bases, making the structure unstable -(Not The helix is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between bases, The sugar phosphate backbone is held in place by hydrophilic interactions with the solvent, C–G pairs have three hydrogen bonds between them, but A–T pairs only have two)

RNA Polymerase, Which of the following enzymes is most important in RNA synthesis during transcription? -(Not DNA polymerase, RNA replicase, Reverse transcriptase) -You are asked for an enzyme that will help synthesize a chain of RNA. You can then narrow it down to a choice that includes the word RNA. The two choices are either replicase or polymerase. In producing a strand of RNA, nothing is being replicated. A chain (polymer) of RNA is being made that is complementary, but not identical to, the strand of DNA. It is easy to conclude that RNA polymerase must be involved

(1) must be the gene with introns/exons (exons: coding regions; introns: noncoding regions), which according to the central dogma of biology is transcribed in the nucleus to (2) mRNA (BIO 3.0; of course, in RNA, thymine is replaced with uracil). RNA is modified leaving out the introns (4) and leaving the exons (3), creating functional mRNA, which is translated in the cytosol on a ribosome (which can be free or associated with rER) into (5) a primary structure/pre-protein that undergoes folding/modifications, producing the final protein p product (6). It takes three nucleotide residues to code for one amino acid (i.e., the "triplet" code), and thus their numbers are not "twice" but rather three times.

Note that an exon is a segment of a DNA or RNA molecule containing information coding for a protein or peptide sequence (introns, being the opposite, represent a segment of a DNA or RNA molecule that does not code for proteins, and thus interrupts the coding DNA sequence of genes)

When the base composition of E. coli DNA was determined, 16% of the bases were found to be adenine. What is the G + C content? 68% -If 16% is A and since A:T, then 16% must be T, and that means A + T = 32%. The rest must be G + C, thus = 68%.

Aside: Higher GC content increases stability of the DNA molecule since there are three H-bonds between G and C, but just two between A and T

The pKa (the pH at which 50% of the drug is ionized and 50% is present as base) of the anaesthetic is related to pH and the concentrations of the cationic and base forms by the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: pH = pKa + log ([base]/ [cation]). When an anaesthetic solution is injected into healthy tissue, it eventually takes on the pH of the surrounding tissue which is 7.4. As pKa approaches pH there is more of the uncharged base form present.

-At normal tissue pH of 7.4, which of the anaesthetics in Table 1 would have the highest percentage of diffusible form available to penetrate the cell membrane? Mepivacaine

It Would Increase It, What effect would injecting lidocaine into an infected site have on the onset time of analgesia? -The pH of normal body tissue is 7.4. According to the passage, “active infections can increase the acidity of surrounding tissues considerably” (in fact, active infections can reduce tissue pH as low as 5 or 6). As the local anaesthetic becomes more acidic, the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, and these combine with the uncharged anaesthetic. This shifts the equation to the left (see Figure 2), reducing the neutral/unionized (RN) form available to diffuse through the nerve cell membrane. Thus the fraction of the base form is inversely related to how long it takes for them to act (onset time)

The IC50 is the half-maximal inhibitory concentration, meaning it is the concentration of inhibitor required for 50% inhibition of the enzyme. Thus, the lower the IC50, the less inhibitor is required to inhibit the enzyme, and the more potent the inhibitor is. It's apparent that belinostat is the most potent of the three inhibitors listed, but the question asks which is the most potently inhibited by all three compounds, which makes the answer HDAC1.

Reminder: The idea of half-maximal concentration to achieve a goal is a common concept in MCAT biochemistry. You may see it in various contexts, such as IC50 in this problem. In your exam prep, you will certainly come across the Michaelis constant Km, which is defined as the substrate concentration at one-half the maximum velocity ("velocity" refers to the rate at which the product is formed).

There is also Kd, the dissociation constant for the formation of the enzyme–substrate complex, and logically, lower Kd means higher affinity (in fact, Kd is the inverse of the association constant Ka, which is unrelated to the acid dissociation constant Ka).

Conditions exist in which Km is equal to Kd (common for the MCAT); thus by inference, a low Km means a high affinity and therefore, for a given substrate concentration, a high velocity.

For competitive inhibition there is one more important constant, the Ki, or inhibition constant, which is the dissociation constant for the enzyme–inhibitor complex. Thus Ki can be defined for the MCAT as the concentration of inhibitor that is required to decrease the maximal rate of the reaction to half of the uninhibited value. In practical terms, the lower the Ki, the lower the concentration of inhibitor needed to lower the rate the IR absorption peaks. The absolute minimum to memorize are the bands for an alcohol (OH, 3200 - 3650) and that for the carbonyl group (C=O, 1630 - 1780) because these are the two most encountered functional groups in MCAT organic chemistry.

Bottle II has a peak at 1710 (carbonyl) 3333 - 3500 (hydroxyl) = carboxylic acid (i.e. benzoic acid). Bottle IV has a peak at 3333 so it must be the alcohol. Without doing anything else, there is only one possible answer, D.

{For fun, draw the structures of the four compounds; allyl,ORG 4.2, add -OH to make it an alcohol; benzoic acid - ORG 8.1; the four carbon ketone 2-butanone (= methyl ethyl ketone) and the four carbon aldehyde butyraldehyde (= butanal) - ORG 7.1} proton NMR. Not including the reference peak at zero, there is only one peak! This means two things:

(i) each H must be living in an environment which is identical to any other H in the entire molecule (only answer choice B. is possible); and

(ii) since there is only one peak, to calculate the number of H's n on an adjacent carbon: n + 1 = 1. Thus n is zero indicating that each H is attached to a carbon whose neighboring carbon has no attached H's (again, only option B. is possible) cyclohexanol which is a cyclic alcohol with six carbons. Now we look at Figure 1 to see where the four possible answers are. Note that in order for I or II to be possible, there would have had to be a reaction with the 5% sodium bicarbonate. However, Table 1 shows that a sodium bicarbonate test is positive with carboxylic acids (which is not cyclohexanol!).

Now let's compare III and IV in Figure 1. The only difference between the two is their response to the Lucas test. From Table 1 the Lucas test is positive with alcohols with five or less carbons (which is not cyclohexanol!)

Ketone, A water soluble unknown is unreactive in the presence of sodium bicarbonate, gives a positive 2,4-DNP test and negative Fehling's and Iodoform tests. In which of the following classes should this compound be classified? -(Not Aldehyde, Carboxylic acid, Alcohol) -only one test is positive - the 2,4-DNP test. By looking at Table 1, we see that aldehydes and ketones are the only two possibilities. But how can we differentiate the two? Easy! Also in Table 1, we see that Fehling's is positive with aldehydes. Since Fehling's is negative in our problem, then the answer must be ketones

Warfarin is a ‘blood thinner’ (= anticoagulant) used in the treatment of disorders that require the dissolution of a blood clot or for the prevention of clotting as suggested by the passage. A patient with deep vein thrombosis will be receiving warfarin to function as a blood thinner. The data presented in Tables 1 and 2 reveal that Cu-PTSM and Cu-ATSM are both readily displaced from HSA by warfarin, as indicated by increasing amounts of free Cu-PTSM or Cu-ATSM in the presence of increasing molar ratios of warfarin to HSA. Conversely, Table 2 shows that increasing molar ratios of warfarin to HSA did not displace Cu-ETS significantly; therefore, Cu- ETS would be the optimal choice in these patients

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning a graph of reaction rate v vs. substrate concentration [S] for an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics? At very high [S], the velocity curve becomes a horizontal line that intersects the y-axis at Km -(Yes, Km is the [S] at which v = ½ Vmax, As [S] increases, the initial velocity of reaction, v, also increases, The y-axis is a rate term with units such as μM/min)

dideoxynucleoside triphosphates are able to be used in the Sanger method because they lack a: hydroxyl group on C3 of their ribose component -(Yes, hydroxyl group on their phosphoric acid component, hydroxyl group on C1 of their ribose component, hydroxyl group on C5 of their ribose component)

-the method by which DNA is linked together. You should know that the chain is made by additions to the hydroxyl group of the third carbon in the sugar. Thus if the nucleotide will not accept a bond (= phosphodiester; BCM 1.5, 1.6; BIO 1.2.2), then the hydroxyl group at C3 must be missing.

Notice the availability of the 3’ OH on the adenine residue at the very bottom of the T-A-A trimeric nucleotide below, and notice the positions of the 2 phosphodiester bonds circled in blue

Which of the following enzymes would have to be included in the Sanger method in order for it to work? A. DNA gyrase B. DNA polymerase C. Reverse transcriptase D. DNA helicase

The least likely of the following radioactive deoxynucleoside triphosphates to be used to label the fragments is: A. dATP B. dGTP C. dUTP D. dCTP

-DNA Template, The shortest strands of DNA travelled the farthest in the gel, so the first nucleotide added will be at the bottom of the gel. The last nucleotide of the strand will be on the longest piece of DNA and will be at the top of the gel (P3). You simply need to identify the bottommost and topmost nucleotides

The Ki of an enzyme is the inhibitor constant, and it denotes the enzyme concentration required to achieve half-maximal inhibition. Therefore, a lower Ki is indicative of a higher

inhibitory ability. The highest to lowest concentration listed above is 7 μM > 10 nM > 8 nM > 100 pM. Therefore, 100 pM is the lowest concentration listed, so Compound 5 is the most potent inhibitor.

Disambiguation: The association constant Ka is unrelated to the acid equilibrium constant Ka. Context during the exam will permit you to clearly identify which Ka is being assessed. Even if you have never heard of Ki (which of course would no longer be the case, especially because there is a good chance that it will come up on the real exam), you could have reasoned the answer. The question asked what is “more potent” than 7 nM and 3 answer choices have higher values and only one answer choice has a lower value (‘one of these things are not like the other’), and so only one answer choice is possible.

The Bottom Line: When there is tight binding, Ki, KM, and KD (the dissociation constant = 1/(association constant) = 1/Ka), are - all 3 - relatively small values. Of course, Ka, would be relatively large because it is the inverse of KD, and more importantly, it is the association constant

Tertiary, It has been found that proinsulin, the precursor molecule to insulin, contains a portion that is stabilized by disulfide bonds after folding. Such disulfide bonds pertain to what level of protein structure? -(Not, Primary structure, Secondary structure, Tertiary structure, Quaternary structure)

-Disulfide bonds are sulfur-sulfur covalent bonds that help to stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins. Disulfide bonds are formed between the side chains of cysteine by oxidation of two - SH (thiol) groups to form a disulfide bond (S-S) = disulfide bridge.

Primary structures involve the amino acid sequence with the amino acids held together typically by amide bonds. Note that it is possible to have cys-cys residues involved in disulfide bonds in the primary structure but the question stem specifically mentions "folding" which refers to a higher order structure.

Secondary structures involve the conformation of the polypeptide backbone through hydrogen bonds. Tertiary structures pertain to the 3 dimensional folding of one polypeptide chain involving both covalent (sulfur bridges; answer choice C.) and non-covalent bonds, whereas quaternary structures involve the 3 dimensional folding of more than one polypeptide

Chemistry Nomenclature -The structure of glucose shows six carbons (this should be consistent with your knowledge of the molecule!). Only answer choices A and C have six carbons. The structure given never has two hydroxy groups attached to the same carbon -Hydrolysis breaks a molecule in 2 (by the action of water), while condensation means 2 molecules become one. ‘Acetyl’ refers to a methyl group bonded to carbonyl (C=O) and thus it is a 2-carbon unit. Adding three 2-carbon units together makes a 6-carbon unit.

Going Deeper: A coenzyme in a nonprotein molecule that cannot catalyze a reaction on its own but can bind with an enzyme (apoenzyme) to make the enzyme active (holoenzyme).

We have already discussed the fact that ‘acetyl’ is a 2-carbon unit. In fact, Ac-CoA can be considered as a courier in the body for the transport of 2 carbons for numerous biosynthetic reactions (oxidation to produce energy and carbon dioxide; building fatty acids from carbohydrates, not surprisingly most fatty acids in humans have C chains divisible by 2; etc.

-The key is to assess each carbon to see if it is bonded to 4 different substituents (= chiral). Ignore any carbon that is double bonded (because it is attached to the same thing twice) and ignore any carbon that is only showing 2 bonds (because it must be attached to H twice). All the other carbons in lovastatin, except those in methyl groups, are chiral.

Remember, chirality is not about being bonded to 4 different atoms, it requires you to evaluate any difference in the 4 substituents. You can look at the explanation to the configuration question to see a diagram with the labeling of the 8 chiral centers. A common question students ask is: if you are comparing 2 sides, when do you stop? You never stop! You continue until you find any point of difference. If there is perfect symmetry then there is no difference

-First a note regarding nomenclature: The shortest peptides are dipeptides, consisting of 2 amino acids joined by a single peptide bond, followed by tripeptides (3 amino acids, 2 peptide bonds), tetrapeptides (4 amino acids, 3 peptide bonds), pentapeptides (5 amino acids, 4 peptide bonds), etc. A peptide (= amide) bond is a covalent bond formed when the carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of another. In other words, focus on the number of times that you see C=O connected to N, as long as that bond is WITHIN the molecule (i.e. between amino acids). Since there are 3 such instances in the molecular structure provided, given the information provided above regarding 3 peptide bonds, the molecule must be a tetrapeptide. Going from left to right in the structure in the image, here are the 4 amino acids: Tyr-Pro-Phe-Pro-NH2.

Going Deeper: The rules above apply to linear oligo/polypeptides. However, cyclic oligo/polypeptides will always have 1 additional bond where the amino end and carboxyl end bond to complete the ring.

Beyond Required Assumed Knowledge (but the following includes some commonly explored ideas in MCAT Biochemistry passages): The tetrapeptide in the image is ‘morphiceptin’. It is an

opioid (= a selective opioid receptor agonist/ligand) so that it has analgesic effects like opium and those effects are reversed by naloxone (= opioid inhibitor; ‘blocker’; used to block the effects of opioids especially in overdose)

The labeling of amino acids as acid, basic, hydrophilic, hydrophobic is based on the side chain. Two amino acids have acidic side chains at neutral pH. These are aspartic acid or aspartate (Asp) and glutamic acid or glutamate (Glu). Their side chains have carboxylic acid groups whose pKa's are low enough to lose protons, becoming negatively charged.

Arginine and lysine are hydrophilic, basic amino acids. Their pKa's are high enough that they tend to bind protons, gaining a positive charge (note that nitrogen can accept a proton). Histidine can act as an acid or base thus it is a good physiologic buffer.

Naturally occurring amino acids are α-amino acids with the L-configuration (as opposed to most naturally occurring carbohydrates which are D-configuration).

The S-configuration can be confirmed by assigning priority at the α carbon (i.e. carbon-2 which is the neighbor of the carbonyl C=O carbon): N > COOH > CC which is counterclockwise. Note that it is implied that the lowest group must be a hydrogen pointing away from the viewer since the dark triangle represents a group pointing out of the plane

Recall that Z stands for ‘zame zide’ (i.e. the highest priority substituents are on the same side of the double bond, older term ‘cis’) and E is for ‘epposite’ sides of the double bond, older term ‘trans’. You should be able to easily see that the 2nd double bond is Z (cis). The first double bond requires some evaluation of the priority rules. But just to summarize: though the first double bond partly has a trans configuration (which has a certain priority), the fact that its competitor is cis and is bonded to 2 carbons and then there is a shorter route to an oxygen makes the cis competitor win and thus it is Z.

Here are the CIP priority rules:

Assigning a stereochemical configuration at each asymmetric (chiral) carbon in a molecule can be done by using the following steps:

1. Identify the chiral carbon, and the four attached groups.

2. Assign priorities to the four groups, using the following rules: i. Atoms of higher atomic number have higher priority. ii. The higher priority is assigned to the group with the atom of higher atomic number or mass at the first point of difference.

iii. If the difference between the two groups is due to the number of otherwise identical atoms, the higher priority is assigned to the group with the greater number of atoms of higher atomic number or mass. iv. To assign priority of double or triple bonded groups, multiple-bonded atoms are considered as equivalent number of single bonded atoms:

3. The chiral carbon is then evaluated from the side opposite the atom or group with the lowest priority. If the order of the other three atoms or groups in decreasing priorities is clockwise, the arrangement is designated R; if counterclockwise, the arrangement is designated S.

Figure 1A. A part of the hexahydro-naphthalene ring can be rewritten as that shown on the right according to the rules. Please note that this is just to enable visualization of the molecule in order to assign E and Z configurations.

Assigning configuration to the second double bond from the left is fairly simple (just as it is explained above). It is the first double bond from the left that is tricky. To assign its configuration, it will be useful to draw out that part of the molecule with the rules clearly applied. For example, when the rules are applied, the molecule can be written as shown on the right in Figure 1A.

If you pay attention to the second carbon of the C=C of the first double bond from the left, it is attached to C=C (pink), which should be read as CC. Now you see that C2 of the double bond is attached to 2 carbons (orange and pink). The orange carbon is attached to two other carbons and a hydrogen. The pink carbon is read (according to the rules) as if it is attached to two other carbons and a hydrogen. So, the orange and pink carbons are similar in terms of priority up to that point.

Then, when you look at the next atom, the orange carbon is attached to a carbon that is attached to an oxygen while the pink carbon is attached to a carbon that is attached to another carbon only. Between these two, oxygen wins the higher priority due to its higher atomic number. Hence, the orange side of the molecule gets priority and it is counted as Z one fewer S configuration chiral center, In the segments of lovastatin that are outside of the hexahydro-naphthalene moiety, as compared to R configuration chiral centers, lovastatin has:

On the Surface: Consider reviewing the priority rules in the explanation to the previous question. Notice that outside of the bicyclic hexahydro-naphthalene moiety, there is 2 R and 1 S configuration thus “one fewer S configuration”.

Going Deeper: Let’s discuss the evaluation of some of the different chiral carbons. There are 4 chiral centers where the H, which is the lowest priority group is already pointing away from the viewer so you can begin by assigning the priority for these 4 chiral carbons because assigning the configuration will be simple. Like the spokes of a wheel, if you see 1-2-3 and it would be as if you were turning Right, then the configuration is R, and the opposite for S.

If, however, hydrogen is pointing towards you, then assign R/S and then whatever result you get, the correct answer will be the opposite. To avoid confusion, one of the assignments of priority was placed in brackets for one of the (S) configurations. Of the 4 chiral carbons with H pointing away, 3 are (S) and 1 is (R).

The other 4 chiral carbons have the H is pointing towards the viewer. This means that whatever configuration that it appears to be, it is actually the opposite.

Argininosuccinase, According to the information provided, a conclusion that can be made with certainty is that neither mutant strain P nor Q have the defective enzyme:

You should recognize that enzymes typically end with –ase and so you can see that the figure provided indicates the 3 enzymes that are catalysts for the three reactions as shown. Now let’s reinterpret the question: if neither P nor Q have a defective enzyme X, then both P and Q must have a functioning enzyme X (the other interpretation is that they have no enzyme but that is not consistent with the data in the table provided). In other words, "Which of the answer choices corresponds to an enzyme that is fully functional in strains P and Q?"

The information in the table shows a (+) symbol in the last two columns indicating that both P and Q are able to convert argininosuccinate to arginine (see Table 1). This necessarily means that both P and Q have a functioning enzyme argininosuccinase (see Figure 1).

Going Deeper: More about the 1 gene, 1 enzyme hypothesis and the importance within a metabolic pathway. Let’s consider some hypothetic examples using Figure 1 but no longer considering Table 1 so we can explore other possibilities and their consequences.

For example, let’s say that Mutant #1 couldn't make ornithine. So, the gene that makes the enzyme for ornithine synthesis must have been mutated. If ornithine is added to the media, citrulline and then arginine would be made and Mutant #1 could grow.

Similarly, consider a genetic mutation in Mutant #2 affecting the enzyme that makes the arginine precursor citrulline. Adding citrulline as a supplement complements the mutation and drives arginine synthesis to completion. And consider a genetic mutation #3 affecting the final step of arginine synthesis — the conversion of citrulline to arginine. By adding arginine as a supplement, the mutation is complemented (like a ‘work around’) and Mutant #3 could grow. With each mutated gene, only one step of the metabolic pathway is affected. Therefore, one gene is responsible for one enzyme or protein (of course, it’s a little more complicated because some genes are responsible for polypeptides which combine with other polypeptides to form a functioning protein)

Strain P has a mutation in argG only, Experiments using the two mutant strains P and Q, reveal that strain P accumulates citrulline, but strain Q does not. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the data provided?

On the Surface: In the previous question, we established that the enzyme argininosuccinase must be functional for both strains and that means that argH is not defective (no mutation) for either P or Q. Thus any answer choice suggesting an argH mutation is incorrect.

Strain P accumulates citrulline. This means that the synthetic pathway was working up to citrulline but then was blocked from progressing. This means that the next step in the production line, the gene product from argG, is not functional (mutation). Thus we have our answer.

Going Deeper: Strain Q: no accumulation of citrulline means that there must be a blockage before that point, so given the information presented, argF must have a mutation meaning ornithine accumulates. Adding ornithine: no growth and it accumulates. Adding citrulline, no growth because there must ALSO be an argG mutation. This is consistent with adding something after the argG step/mutation, argininosuccinate, resulting in growth. Thus strain Q must have 2 mutations in the synthesis pathway shown

6, Consider tetrapeptides containing 2 equivalents each of the natural forms of arginine and proline. How many different linear tetrapeptides can be synthesized?

-when considering linear polypeptides that there must be an amino end and a carboxyl end, thus RRPP is a different molecule than PPRR (note the IUPAC official abbreviations: arginine is abbreviated as arg or R, proline is abbreviated as pro or P). Thus there are 6 possibilities: RRPP, RPPR, RPRP, PPRR, PRPR, PRRP.

Side Notes: If you have a statistics background, you can do “4 choose 2” = 4!/2!2! = (4)(3)(2)(1)/4 = 24/4 = 6.

The ability to form multiple H-bonds make arginine ideal for binding negatively charged groups. For this reason, arginine prefers to be on the outside of proteins, where it can interact with the polar environment.

A tetrapeptide is an oligopeptide since it only consists of four amino acids joined by peptide bonds. Tetrapeptides can be pharmacologically active including affinity to receptors involved in protein-protein signaling. Both linear and cyclic tetrapeptides can be found in nature

On the Surface: Molecules have free rotation around sigma (single) bonds (= 'conformation'). The image in the question stem is identical to the molecule labelled 'squalene' in Figure 1 viewed as a different stereoisomer (more specifically, a different conformer but certainly the same molecule).

In the absence of a better analogy (!!), you can imagine squalene in Figure 1 as a snake with its body straightened/elongated while squalene in the question stem is the identical snake but sidewinding. You can verify that they are identical by counting carbons and noting the position of double bonds and branches.

Going Deeper: The molecule in the question stem (and in Figure 1, squalene) has 30 carbons, so it is a triterpene (according to the rules given in the passage, Table 1; notice that C10 is "mono," C20 is "di," C30 is "tri," etc.). It is certainly a precursor for steroid biosynthesis, but the image is linear, and steroids are characterized by having four cyclic rings (in the four-ring structure, three are composed of six carbons—rings A, B, and C—followed by one with five carbons—ring D). However, looking at the conformer of squalene in the question stem, one can easily imagine how squalene can be a biochemical precursor to steroid-type compounds including cholesterol, steroid hormones (testosterone, estradiol, etc.), and vitamin D.

The Z configuration (“zame zide”) is where the highest-priority groups are on the same side of the double bond (cis) and one can quickly notice that all the double bonds are E ("epposite" side highest priority, or trans; 6E, 10E, 14E, 18E).

Carefully compare the molecule provided in the question stem to the representation of squalene in the passage (same molecular formula, just a different representation of the molecule).

Note that squalene is NOT conjugated. To be conjugated, there would be one single bond between double bonds, and due to resonance, the structure would have increased stability

Answer choice A could have reasonably occurred because it must be causing a reduction reaction (i.e. hydrogens must have been gained by a substrate), and since the number of double bonds is reduced from squalene to lanosterol in Figure 1, we expect that there was a donor for those hydrogens (note that on the MCAT, NADH/NADPH/FADH2 are all common reducing agents, which means that they can all be oxidized in the course of a reaction as they reduce a substrate).

Half reaction (simplified): H2C=CH2 + 2e- + 2H -> H3C-CH3 The reduction of the double bond by the addition of hydrogen is also called hydrogenation (e.g. the hydrogenation of unsaturated fats including trans fats). {Classic MCAT: What is the change in hybridization of carbon in the above reaction? Consider your response then see below. And please don't think that this is too basic for the MCAT: the AAMC brings the full range of straightforward and challenging MCQs.}

A condensation reaction, aka dehydration synthesis, is when two molecules or moieties (functional groups) combine to form a larger molecule, together with the loss of a small molecule. This is illustrated in the first step in Figure 1 (note the elimination of phosphate groups).

An oxidation reaction in biochemistry and organic chemistry is typically when the oxygen content increases (e.g., Figure 1 in the last step) or the hydrogen content decreases (note that the other important definition for both biochemistry and general chemistry is that oxidation is the loss of electrons).

Going Deeper: Yes, it is more complicated than as described; hence, the “reasonably” in the question stem. In particular, the issue of reduction is more complex; although, a reducing agent is used more than once in the series of reactions, many of the double bonds are lost in creating the ring structure (like a Diels–Alder reaction, which is beyond presumed knowledge).

For the mini-bonus question (!!): The hybridization of carbon changed from sp2 - with its double bond - to fully saturated (4 single bonds) sp3 (i.e. where carbon was in the center of a trigonal planar arrangement and then converted to being in the center of a tetrahedron)

-First we need to determine which reaction involves water as a reactant. A quick look at Figure 1 reveals H2O on the third line. Of course, oxygen in H2O is δ- and thus will be attracted to a δ+ atom. The carbon double bonded to the nitrogen must be δ+. Furthermore, since nitrogen is δ- and the hydrogens in H2O are δ- then their mating is also inevitable. In summary, the hydrogens in H2O help form the amino group -NH2 while the oxygen in H2O, which we are tracing, helps form the second carbonyl group, C=O, in the illustrated product (line 3, Figure 1). The forward and reverse reactions are represented below including the tracing of oxygen in the reaction; note that when water breaks (i.e. lyses) 1 molecule creating 2 molecules, this is called "water lysis" or more formally, hydrolysis (BCM 1.2.1).

Side Note: Of course, real molecular reactions do not have colored atoms! So how can you follow what happens to an atom during a reaction? Label it using an isotope – an atom with a different number of neutrons. O-16 is the most abundant form of oxygen and O-18 is a stable isotope used in both chemistry and medicine

-Imines and enamines are formed when aldehydes and ketones are allowed to react with amines. When an aldehyde or ketone reacts with a primary amine, an imine (= ‘Schiff base’) is formed (note that this is the reaction that occurs at the beginning of Figure 1 which converted C=O to C=N)

-Of course, a primary amine is just a nitrogen compound with the general formula R-NH2, where R represents an alkyl or aryl group. In an imine, the carbonyl group of the aldehyde or ketone is replaced with a C=N-R group. The reaction can be summarized as follows:

-two molecules combine to form a larger molecule and water is produced, thus it is a classic condensation reaction.

When an aldehyde or ketone reacts with a secondary amine, an enamine is formed. A secondary amine is a nitrogen with the general formula R2N-H. Tertiary amines (of the general form R3N) do not react with aldehydes or ketones.

Not surprisingly, hydrolysis of an imine is basically the opposite of the condensation reaction above. The following is a base-catalyzed imine hydrolysis while tracking the oxygen atom in red from the water molecule (note that this summarizes how to get to the answer of this GS exam question)

Amide, A mixture of alanine and benzoyl chloride is treated with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide to yield compound X. What functional group would be present in compound X? 1) Ester 2) Aldehyde 3) Amide 4) Ether

-This question begins with the issue of nomenclature. Alanine should be recognized as an amino acid (= ala = A; side group R = methyl). You should be able to draw the structure of alanine on your scratch paper (BCM 1.1.3 or see the previous question/answer).

Benzoyl chloride should be recognized as an acid halide. Draw the general structure of an acid chloride on your scratch paper (ORG 9.1; note that 'Benz' refers to benzyl, as in the benzene ring [ORG Chap. 5], which is stable to nucleophilic reactions so we need not account for its presence!).

Now if you were able to get the previous question correct then this question is just a follow-up. The amino acid contains a δ- nitrogen in the amino group which is a nucleophile. The nucleophile is attracted to the δ+ carbon of the carbonyl group in benzoyl chloride. The weakest bond breaks (the pi bond within the double bond, ORG 1.3.1), and the electron pair lands on the electronegative oxygen. Now carbon is surrounded by three electronegative atoms making carbon verrrrry δ+! This is an unstable situation!

Thus the negatively charged free electrons on oxygen quickly mate with the verrrrry δ+ carbon. However, since carbon can only be bonded four times, one of its substituents has to go!Since chloride is an excellent leaving group (see the last paragraphs of ORG 6.2.4), we are left with an amide (ORG 9.3).Draw the mechanism on your scratch paper.

Why was the medium "dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide"?Once again we turn our attention back to the previous question.Base treatment of an amino acid increases the rate of a nucleophilic reaction of the free amino group.

Would the "dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide" create other products in the reaction?Because it is dilute we would expect very little contamination or by-products. But just for fun, let's treat both our reactants with concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide.

Now NaOH in water (= aqueous) means Na+ and OH- (CHM 5.2), which simply means the nucleophile OH- since Na+ is a spectator ion (ORG 1.6).Note that both compounds have a carbonyl group which are internationally popular in attracting nucleophiles!Treat your preceding reactants with OH-.The nucleophile is quickly attracted to the δ+carbon of the carbonyl group (i.e. ORG 8.1).The weakest bond breaks (the p bond within the double bond, ORG 1.3.1), and the electron pair lands on the electronegative oxygen.Now carbon is surrounded by three electronegative atoms making carbon verrrrry δ+ !This is an unstable situation! {does this sound familiar?!}

Thus the negatively charged free electrons on oxygen quickly mate with the verrrrry δ+ carbon.However, since carbon can only be bonded four times, one of its substituents has to go!In the case of the amino acid, the hydroxyl group leaves simply re-establishing the carboxylic acid.In the case of the acid chloride, chloride is an excellent leaving group (see the last paragraphs of ORG 6.2.4), thereby creating a carboxylic acid

Which of the following sites would be ideal for tritium (3H) labeling? -Radiolabeled ligands represent a sensitive method for probing receptor binding. The interaction between norepinephrine and the adrenergic receptors is to be examined. -On the Surface: If you put the radiolabel 3H somewhere that can be exchanged (removed and replaced by normal hydrogen, H) then you won’t be following the norepinephrine any more (instead you will be following the molecule that accepted the tritium). Of course, in biological systems, the solvent is water. Water can protonate and it can deprotonate. BUT, water cannot remove a proton from the very strong C-H bond. Thus answer choice B is correct.

Going Deeper: The lone pair of electrons on N and O make it possible to accept a proton and once protonated, a proton can be released which means that if those atoms are tritiated, they may lose the radiolabel. Carbon has no lone pair and the C-H bond is very strong which makes labeling of the carbon a very reliable way to follow the activity of the ligand under examination the thermodynamic product (the one produced with the greater % under thermodynamic control, ‘thermodynamic mixture’) is the more stable thermodynamic product! But, sometimes, the real MCAT will be that straightforward! But sometimes not (!!) so let’s get some background

Side note: Choice III is not a direct response to the question regarding “relative thermodynamic stabilities” and the statement in choice III is factually unknowable based on the information provided and, in fact, it is often incorrect as a general statement.

Going Deeper: Keep in mind that ‘thermo-‘ relates to heat, and ‘kinetic’ relates to movement (which in this case relates to speed).

A chemical reaction is usually influenced by two factors:

1) the relative stability of the products (i.e. related to heat/temperature, thermodynamic factors).

2) the rate of product formation (i.e. related to speed, kinetic factors).

A reaction that is under thermodynamic control is typically done in higher temperatures relative to that under kinetic control. As a result, the temperature provides enough energy for the reaction to be reversible and favor the more stable product.

At low temperature, the reaction is likely to be under kinetic control (rate, irreversible conditions) and the major product is formed as a consequence of the fastest reaction. At a relatively high temperature, the reaction is likely under thermodynamic control (equilibrium, reversible conditions) and the major product is the more stable product (side note: notice that the image of the reaction in the question step shows double-sided arrows between indicating equilibrium conditions)

The reduced species of the electrochemical equilibrium with the most negative Eo value is the strongest reducing agent (CHM 10.1). Memory aside (!), it is of value to note that a reducing agent reduces the other substance, thus a reducing agent is oxidized. Note that only answer choices B. and C. are oxidized (= lose electrons). When you write the two relevant equations as oxidations, instead of reductions like the table provided, you will note that only answer choice B. has a positive Eo value indicating the spontaneous nature of the reaction. The table provided

demonstrates half-reactions written as reduction potentials. In order to write the oxidation, simply reverse the reaction and change the sign of Eo: Oxidation: Cr2+ ↔ Cr3+ + e- Eo = 0.410

Caffeine and theophylline are both neutral compounds. Which of the following likely represents the molecular formula for theophylline? C7H8N4O2 the passage gives the chemical formula for caffeine and then states that theophylline is the same minus a methyl group (P1). You should know the chemical formula for methyl (CH3) and you should know that if you remove a methyl group, you must replace it with a hydrogen in order for the molecule to remain neutral.

So,

C8H10N4O2 (see passage) - CH3 + H ------C7H8N4O2

-Also notice that you do not need to know how the ring is numbered in order to get the answer correct. It would not matter which methyl group is removed since doing so would require the replacement with a hydrogen atom producing the same molecular formula.

Going Deeper: Almost 99% of the mass of the human body is made up of six elements: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus.

Calcium is mostly in bone so for organic chemistry and biochemistry, it is very important to understand the covalent bonding patterns for the other atoms.

Mnemonic for the most important atoms in ORG: HONC increasing bonds for neutrality . . .

• H requires 1 more electron in its outer shell to become stable: thus hydrogen is neutral when bonded once

• O requires 2: thus oxygen is neutral when bonded twice • N requires 3: thus nitrogen is neutral when bonded 3 times • C requires 4: thus carbon is neutral when bonded 4 times Thus a nitrogen atom may form 3 single bonds. As well, it is capable of double and triple bonds. It has one unshared electron pair in the neutral state.

Let’s talk about how nitrogen bonds! Right now, you are mostly breathing nitrogen. 78% of air is N2(g) which is a diatomic molecule (2 atoms of nitrogen) and thus N is triple bonded to N to fulfill the octet rule (each N atom is surrounded by 8 electrons). Both nitrogens have one lone pair of electrons and the molecule is overall neutral.

-when you see nitrogen bonded 3 times, it is neutral and stable as seen in the image below. 4 times? N is positively charged (e.g. the acid ammonium, NH4+). 2 times? N is negatively charged (the unstable NH2-).

Have you ever seen a pattern like this before? Of course! Oxygen!

Oxygen in water (bonded twice) is neutral (the very stable H2O). And so, one more time? Positively charged (the acid H3O+). One less time? Negatively charged (the base OH-).

3, How many stereocenters does biotin possess? For the purposes of the MCAT, the following expressions are interchangeable: stereocenter, stereogenic carbon/center, chiral carbon/center, asymmetric carbon/center. We are looking for carbons that are bonded to 4 different substituents (NOT simply 4 different atoms). Always ignore carbons bonded to hydrogen 2 or more times and ignore carbons that have a double bond because in both of these cases, it is impossible to be bonded to 4 different substituents if you are bonded to the same thing more than once.

The structure shown in Figure 1 has a broken line emanating from a carbon in the ring indicating that the ligand (pentanoic acid) is in 3D moving away from the viewer and thus there is a hydrogen coming towards the viewer and there are another 2 different substituents ‘above’ and ‘below’ that central carbon for a total of 4 different substituents (it is the most obvious of the 3 chiral centers).

A bicyclic molecule is a molecule that has two fused rings. Within the bicyclic moiety of biotin, are 2 bridge carbons (these are carbons present at the shortest point of contact in a bicyclic compound). Each of the bridge carbons is attached to a hydrogen (not shown but implied), a group ‘above’, a different group ‘below’, and yet a different group across the bridge. Thus there are 3 chiral centers marked with a red asterisk below

-Note that the 5 compounds with 1 chiral center (= ‘stereocenter’ = ‘stereogenic center’ = ‘asymmetric carbons’) have a maximum of 21 = 2 stereoisomers (or more specifically, enantiomers) each, while cocaine has a maximum of 24 = 16 stereoisomers (enantiomers), using the 2n rule

We are looking for an answer choice showing lidocaine’s structure (see Figure 1) but with “amine dealkylation” which, apparently, means that an alkyl group is removed from the amine. Only answer choice D has exactly lidocaine’s structure but with an alkyl group missing from the amine.

Going Deeper: Answer choice D is monoethylglycylxylidide, MEGX, notice it has 1 ethyl (= monoethyl = alkyl) group remaining on the amine, whereas lidocaine has 2 ethyl groups on the amine. MEGX is the metabolite of lidocaine following first pass metabolism by the cytochrome P450 system within the liver, and shows the loss of an ethyl group from the tertiary amine.

Also note: It is of value to spend a few moments looking at the structures of the local anaesthetics in Figure 1. Notice that they generally have 3 components: 1) an aromatic group on one side; 2) an ester or amide linkage in the middle; 3) an amine functional group on the other side

Notice in the three structures provided that there are no carboxylic acid groups, no hydroxyl groups suggesting polarity. Instead there are nitrogens but they do not have their electron pairs as available as ammonia or an amino acid because they are conjugated with double bonds (involved in resonance). Thus at physiological pH, the 3 molecules are largely neutral and lipophilic (= hydrophobic; notice the substantial alkane/alkene components)

Chiral centers are tetrahedral atoms in molecular structures that allow molecules to exist as pairs of enantiomers. The structure of Compound 1 contains six chiral centers. Of these, how many are R and how many are S? -There are two steps to assign chirality in chemical structures. In step 1, the four groups attached to a chiral center atom are ranked from the highest (1) to the lowest priority (4). In step 2, the chiral center is reoriented so that the lowest priority group is placed in the rear and the remaining groups are connected in order of priority (alternative to step 2: if the lowest placed group is pointing towards you, assign priority as is, then whatever configuration you assign, the answer will be the opposite). An R chiral center has these groups (1, 2, and 3) in a clockwise order (like turning a steering wheel Right), whereas an S chiral center has the groups (1, 2, and 3) in a counterclockwise order. The R chiral center here is shown in a red box, and the S centers are shown in blue circles

Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a family of peptide hormones, with varying numbers of amino acids, that stimulate the digestion of fat and protein in the GI system. A sulfated form of CCK, illustrated below, can activate the CCK receptor.

-Octapeptide, Given the structure of the sulfated form of CCK above, which of the following is the most accurate descriptor? -The standard is to draw peptides with the amino group on the left and the carboxy terminal on the right. The molecule in this problem is drawn in reverse, which does not change anything but alerts you as to the possibility during the real exam.

Starting at the far left and reading to the right, count each peptide bonding, meaning each (O=C)N and you’ll count 7 meaning there must be 8 attached (because it is linear; if it were circular then 7 peptide bonds would represent 7 amino acids). The molecule is actually called “CCK8” because of the 8 amino acids.

Going Deeper: Note that the sulfate group is attached to the tyrosine (= tyr = Y) in position 7 from the amino end (meaning, near the C-terminus). Here is the primary structure of CCK8 in the order that you can see the amino acids in the structure provided, reading from left to right: D-Y(SO3H)-MGWMDF-NH2

Formulas Math

R = β/γ, How is the basic reproduction number R related to β and γ? PV=nRT Distance = Speed * Time Acceleration = Speed/Time V=IR, P=IV, P=(I R

, The relation between the half-life T1/2 and decay constant λ is:

3300 Distillation, 1700 Oxidation, Carbonyl groups would show peaks in the range of 1620- 1680. Cortisone has carbonyl groups and cholesterol does not

1/π, Two atoms of masses 2 units each are joined by a chemical bond of force constant, k = 4 units. What is the value for the frequency of vibration? (π = pi) It will decrease by a factor of √2, It will decrease by a factor of √2 0, Formal Charge of Carbon Atom In The Carbonate Ion

20(8), How many different kinds of linear octapeptides can be synthesized using the 20 common amino acids? If the question was about a linear tripeptide, 3 amino acids long, then there are 20 possible amino acids for the first position, 20 for the second position and 20 for the third position, thus 20 x 20 x 20 = 203 possible outcomes. Thus an octapeptide (8 amino acids) would have 208 possible outcomes y = (3/2)x -If the triatomic product is also gaseous, how does the pressure of the vessel before the reaction (= y) compare with the pressure of the vessel after the reaction (= x)

State Functions -Volume, Internal Energy, Entropy, Not Work -A state function is one that depends only on the present state of a system and not the path used to get to the present state. A system's volume, internal energy, and entropy do not depend on how the system arrived at the current state. However, the work done does depend on the path taken, e.g.: the work done could be as large as we want by taking a path as long as we want

60 Degrees, What are the bond angles in the epoxide ring?

1 : √2, In a liquid, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the liquid. If a liquid X has a density equal to twice the density of liquid Y, what is the ratio of the velocity of the wave in X to the velocity of the wave in Y?

10(-20), What is Keq for the following equilibrium at pH = 2? Fe2+ + 2e- ⇌ Fe -The reaction shows 2 electrons being transferred thus z =2 and at pH = 2, the graph shows that the horizontal line demonstrating equilibrium (note that this information is in the caption of the diagram) represents an electric potential between of -0.6, so we get:

Km, Most Affected By A Competitive Inhibitor (Not Vmax)

What is the net charge on the tripeptide K-K-A at pH = 1? +3

The natural log of a decimal is negative

6.0 L/min, Minute ventilation = tidal volume x respiratory rate The minute ventilation is the tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate. Given a resting respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, what is the minute ventilation?

Eo(Zn2+/Zn) < Eo(Fe2+/Fe), For galvanizing to be effective -The electrochemical reaction for the standard reduction potential Eo(Xn+/X) of a metal "X" is: Xn+ + ne- --> X. The more negative the Eo value, the greater the tendency for the equilibrium to shift to the left, that is, toward the production of cations. In order to minimize the reaction with Fe (rusting) and maximize the reaction with Zn (galvanizing), we want the following: since the cation of Zn is supposed to react more readily with the hydroxide ions (P4) than with iron (Fe), it would be facilitated if it ionized more readily than the iron, that is, if its standard reduction potential was more negative than that of iron

Increases by 50%, As an adaptation to lower temperatures, when humans get cold, the blood vessels near the skin undergo vasoconstriction. If the vessel’s radius decreases by 20%, and the flow rate stays the same, by how much does the flow velocity change? -the flow rate is the same. Since flow rate Q = A*v where A is the cross-sectional area and v is the flow velocity, a constant flow rate leads to the continuity equation A1*v1 = A2*v2 = constant. The area A of a vessel is circular in cross-section, thus equal to πr2

Grey, m2s-2 -Absor, bed doseJ·kg-1, Gy, Gray: [Energy]/[Mass]

Less than 7.0 but the water is neutral, The value of the water dissociation constant Kw varies with temperature. Its value is normally given as 1.00 x 10-14 mol2 dm-6 at room temperature but 1.00 x 10-13 mol2 dm-6 at 60 °C. What is the pH of pure water at 60 °C?

H3N+-CH2-COO-, The isoelectric point of glycine is 6.0. When glycine is in a buffer with a pH of 6.0, which form predominates? -At pH 6.0, the isoelectric point, glycine is electrically neutral. This corresponds to the zwitterion form shown below

12 500 N/m, A force-meter is attached to one end of a section of Substance Q42; the other end of the section is secured to a non-moving surface. When fully compressed, the force-meter registers a force exerted by the section of 250 N. What is the spring constant? -Since Fs = -kx, 250 N = -k(-0.02 m). k = 250 N/0.02 m = 250/(2/100) N/m = 250 * 50 N/m = 12 500 N/m.

Note: had this been a traditional spring with a fully extended point of 10 cm and full compressed at 8 cm, then the equilibrium point would be considered at 9 cm. However, the passage (P4) describes a key difference in this case for the application of Hooke's law: the distance from 10 cm to 8 cm occurs due to contraction, the relaxed state is at 10 cm, and there is no extension from the relaxed state to some point greater than 10 cm. The elastic property of a spring returning to its equilibrium point is not the same as Q42 requiring stimulation to contract in order to go from 10 cm to 9 cm, etc. Thus from P4 in the passage, "x is the distance of compression ... since Substance Q42 only compresses"

200N, How much force does the section apply when it compresses from rest state to 9.5 cm in length? k = 40 000 N/m

-Since extended is 10 cm and the passage has explained that this should be considered equivalent to the relaxed state of a spring, then we can look at what happens when it is compressed to 9.5 cm. Thus the displacement x is 0.5 cm or 0.005 m.

Since Fs = -kx,

Fs = (-40 000 N/m)(-0.005 m) = 200 N

2J, If k = 40 000 N/m, then how much energy does it take to compress Substance Q42 from its relaxed length to a length of 9 cm? The energy it takes to compress the spring will be the same as the potential energy now stored in the spring as a result of it being compressed. The potential energy in a spring is given by

W = ½ k x2, where k is the spring constant and x is the distance of compression. The last sentence in the passage says the spring is 10 cm long in its relaxed state. Therefore, when compressed to a length of 9 cm, the distance of compression is 1 cm (x = 1 cm = 0.01 m).

The question gives the spring constant as k = 40,000 N/m. Thus, the energy in the compressed string is

W = ½ kx2

= ½ (40,000 N/m)(0.01 m)2

= (20,000 N/m)(0.0001 m2)

= 2 Nm

= 2 J

At what time after t = 0 is the displacement of the diaphragm at a minimum? C -To determine the displacement (NOT distance), take the area under the graph. The 2 similar sized trapezoids, one positive and the other negative, cancel each other. At time C, the diaphragm is back or near to its starting position; hence, its displacement has zero magnitude at that moment

Hyperbola, The symmetry model describes a form of cooperative binding. Most enzymes do not engage in cooperative binding. The predicted shape of a graph representing reaction rate versus the addition of substrate to most enzymes would be expected to be: -The amount of substrate-enzyme complex would increase steadily as more substrate is added until a point at which all enzymes are involved in a substrate-enzyme complex, and any more substrate added will have no effect (saturation kinetics). The graph would show a steadily slowing curve of positive slope which reaches a point at which it levels off into a horizontal line. This curve is called a hyperbola (see image below). A sigmoidal shape would be expected in cooperative binding (i.e. the symmetry model as described in the passage or hemoglobin).

Note: This was a classic question in the old MCAT and, not surprisingly, the same concept comes up in the AAMC's new MCAT practice materials: the difference between the simple (rectangular) hyperbola and the sigmoidal curve suggesting cooperative binding (and also, the ability to recognize the shapes of these 2 curves independently; BCM 2.9, BIO 1.1.2, 7.5.1). Also note that the myoglobin saturation curve is a hyperbola, but hemoglobin has a sigmoid shape due to the cooperative binding of oxygen molecules.

And finally, note the positions of Vmax (= maximum velocity/reaction rate) and Km (substrate concentration at 1/2 Vmax) displaying Michaelis-Menten kinetics associated with the hyperbolic curve on the left, as opposed to the sigmoidal curve on the right (image from the GS BIO book or ebook, BCM 2.9):

False Table I, higher temperatures favor relatively more of the more stable conformer -True, the products must have less free energy than the reactants in the exergonic reactions at the various temperatures, the equation for the equilibrium constant K used to construct the

graph is derived from ΔG = -RT ln K, the 3 different temperature curves intersect at a point where the reaction is at equilibrium

Conformational isomers exist in a dynamic equilibrium, where the relative free energies of isomers determines the population of each isomer and the energy barrier of rotation determines the rate of interconversion between isomers.

Answer choice A: The graphs shows that for exergonic reactions (this means ΔG < 0), the equilibrium constant K is always greater than 1 (meaning that the forward reaction is favored which implies that the products are more stable). Recall that the equilibrium constant K is defined as the product of the product concentrations divided by the product of reactant concentrations.

Answer choice B: divide both sides by -RT then raise both sides to the power of e. Remember from your rules of logarithms than e to the power of ln x = x. Also recall that ln is log to the base e.

Answer choice C: From the graph, at a free energy difference of 0 kcal/mol (= equilibrium), this also gives an equilibrium constant of 1 (also consistent with BCM 2.2, 2.3, 2.4).

Answer choice D: A negative difference in free energy means that a conformer interconverts to a thermodynamically more stable conformation, thus the equilibrium constant will always be greater than 1. However, notice that K decreases with increasing temperature meaning that there is more, relatively, of the less stable conformer (in other words, energy from the higher temperature is able to override the energy barrier to conversion to the less stable conformer). Thus the statement in answer choice D is incorrect which makes answer choice D the correct answer!

Going a bit further: notice that a positive difference in free energy means the conformer already is the more stable one, so the interconversion is an unfavorable equilibrium (K < 1). Even for highly unfavorable changes (large positive ΔG), the equilibrium constant between two conformers can be increased by increasing temperature, meaning the amount of the less stable conformer present at equilibrium does increase slightly (see graph).

Note that: An endergonic process is accompanied by or requires the absorption of energy, the products being of greater free energy than the reactants. An exergonic process is the opposite and thus accompanied by the release of energy. Incidentally, the enzyme subunits described in the passage exist in one of two conformations which stands for 'tensed' (T) or 'relaxed' (R), and as described relaxed subunits bind substrate more readily than those in the tense state. At any rate, T/R was not be considered in this question

Magnesium phosphate is a salt, which can ionize and has the empirical formula Mg3(PO4)2. Thus, for each mole of Mg3(PO4)2, three moles of magnesium cations will be obtained.

Therefore, the concentration of magnesium ions will be three times that of the magnesium phosphate.

Mg3(PO4)2 ↔ 3Mg2+ + 2PO43-

Going Deeper:

To determine the concentration of magnesium from the complete dissociation of magnesium phosphate, one can make good use of the “Swap and Drop” method. This method stipulates that the charges on the ions can be crisscrossed to become the subscripts in an ionic salt. Here we have 0.1 M Mg3(PO4)2 dissociating into Mg2+ and PO43-:

Mg3(PO4)2 ↔ 3Mg2+ + 2PO43-

Then, to balance the equation, the concentration of magnesium is 3x that of magnesium phosphate. The correct answer is, therefore, answer choice D with 0.3 M.

Iron sulfate: Fe2+ and Cl- --> (swap and drop) FeCl2

Calcium nitride: Ca2+ and N3- --> (swap and drop) Ca3N2

On the Surface: The more positive the Eo value, the greater the tendency for that half- reaction to proceed to the right. Since the Eo value for the Ce4+/Ce3+ equilibrium system is more positive than that for the HNO2/NO equilibrium system, the latter will be shifted to the left; that is, NO will be oxidized (= lose electrons; recall LEO is a GERC! so Loss Electrons Oxidation is Anode, Gain Electrons Reduction Cathode; CHM 10.2).

Going Deeper:

HNO2 + H+ + e- ↔ NO + H2O Eo = +1.00 V

But the question asked to "oxidize NO" so you have to switch the reaction (LEO = Loss Electrons Oxidation)

NO + H2O ↔ HNO2 + H+ + e- Eo = -1.00 V

Now we need a reaction that gains an electron and when the 2 reactions are added together, the electrons cancel and the overall Eo value is positive (which means spontaneous; of course, the more positive, the better).

Ce4+ + e- ↔ Ce3+ Eo = +1.695

Overall: Ce4+ + NO + H2O ↔ Ce3+ + HNO2 + H+ Eo = +1.695 -1.00 = +0.695 V (positive, thus spontaneous)

From L = (n x λ)/4, λ = 4L/n

First wavelength = (4 x 24)/1 = 96

Second wavelength = (4 x 24)/3 = 32

Third wavelength = (4 x 24)/5 = 19.2

Fourth wavelength = (4 x 24)/7 = 13.7 approximately

Fifth wavelength = (4 x 24)/9 = 10.7 approximately

Going Deeper: Due to resonance in the ear canal, sounds near 4000 Hz are amplified and are thus louder than the other sounds entering the ear

W = ½ QV

In Figure 1, when the voltage is 5000 V (= 5 kilovolts), the charge is 0.35 C, and so we have:

W = ½ QV = ½(.35)(5000) = (.35)(2500) = 35 x 25 = 875 J

Alternatively, we can approximate: W = (.35)(2500) = (1/3)(2500) = 833 J

Going Deeper:

Notice that this represents the area under the curve in Figure 1 [i.e. W = ½ QV is the same as the area of a triangle = ½(base)(height)]

From the definition of voltage as energy per unit charge, one might expect that the energy stored on an ideal capacitor would be just QV. That is, all the work done on the charge in moving it from one plate to the other would appear as energy stored. But in fact, the expression above shows that just half of that work appears as energy stored in the capacitor. For a finite

resistance, one can show that half of the energy supplied by the battery for the charging of the capacitor is dissipated as heat in the resistor, regardless of the size of the resistor.

Note that Figure 1 is showing a direct relationship between charge (Q) and voltage (V)

determine the time t in seconds consistent with the time constant τ for the defibrillator's discharging capacitor -τ = R C and the equation for a discharging a capacitor:

V = V0(e-t/RC) since we are looking for the time t for the time constant, we can replace t in the exponent with the time constant where τ = R C, thus (recall we were also given that e is about 2.7; and from the graph, V0 is 5000):

V = V0(e-RC/RC) = V0(e-1) = 5000/e = 5000/2.7 = 1 852 V which gives a time of approximately 3.3 milliseconds from Figure 2.

Of course, there is no need to do a precise calculation because the answers are far enough apart. It is easier to estimate 5000/2.7 as 5000/2.5 = 50000/25 = 2000 V which gives 3.0 ms from Figure 2 which is close enough to the correct answer.

Going Deeper: the time constant can also be calculated (but only if you were given this information because it is not presumed knowledge) by taking the tangent of the curve at time = 0. You should be able to take your pencil to the curve at t = 0 (Figure 2) and notice that the slope intersects the x axis at around 3.3 ms.

Energy left in the capacitor: at 1.8 ms, checking Figure 2, V is approximately 2900.

The energy stored by a capacitor is given by (from Figure 1, 2900 corresponds to a charge of 0.20 C): W = 1/2 QV = 1/2(0.20)(2900) = (0.1)(2900) = 290 J

Going Deeper: If you were given the total resistance of the circuit, including the paddles and chest, at 47 ohms, for example, then you could calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.

τ = RC 3.3 ms/47 = C = 7.0 x 10-5 F or

using Figure 1 keeping in mind that C = Q/V = 0.35/5000 = 7.0 x 10-5 F.

One last teaching point!

When the defibrillator discharges, some energy loss occurs. Let's say that 60% of the energy leaving the capacitor during the discharge actually goes to the patient. Approximately how much energy would the patient experience during defibrillation?

From the first question in this unit, we know 875 J of energy are stored in the defibrillator's capacitor when it is charged to 5000 V. So, energy leaving the capacitor: (875 - 290) joules

= 585 J x 0.6 = 351 J

determine the minimum oxalate ion concentration in urine that would be required to form kidney stones -The inference is that the precipitate (s = solid) calcium oxalate forms the stone, i.e., Ca(OOCCOO)(s). The Ksp for calcium oxalate is given in the passage, and its value can only refer to the reverse of reaction (3), i.e., the product of the ion concentrations. The concentration of calcium ions in urine must be the concentration in blood multiplied by 1.5 (see Table 1) and then converted from mmol/L to mol/L.

Ksp for calcium oxalate = [calcium ion][oxalate ion]

2.7 × 10–9 = [2.0 mmol/L x 1.5 x (1 mol/1000 mmol)][oxalate ion] = [3.0 x 10-3][oxalate ion]

Thus,

[oxalate ion] = (27 × 10–10)/( 3.0 x 10-3) = 9.0 x 10-7 mol/L

Going Deeper: Technically, precipitation occurs when the product of [calcium ion][oxalate ion] is above the Ksp by any amount, which may be a minuscule amount that is not obvious from the number of significant figures in the question. Given the large differences between the answer choices, the answer provided is by far the best option

, Blood Force And Viscosity -where F is force, r is radius, l is length, v is speed, R is distance, and η is the viscosity. What are the dimensions of viscosity in the fundamental quantities of mass (M), length (L), and time (T)? M·L-1·T-1

144,000, Consider a solution containing a globular protein dissolved in water to produce a concentration of 120 g/L. If the osmotic pressure of the solution is 0.0224 atm at 27 oC, what would be the approximate molecular weight of the globular protein? (The universal gas constant can be approximated as 0.082 L atm K−1 mol−1.) n/V = Π/RT

(Note: Π is osmotic pressure; also, notice the similarity with the ideal gas law PV = nRT, thus n/V = P/RT; and finally, note that the temperature in kelvin would be 27 + 273 = 300 K.) n/V = Π/RT = 0.0224 / (0.082 x 300) = (approx.) 0.02 / (0.08 x 300) = 1/4 * 1/300 = 1/1200 moles/L

Using dimensional analysis (paying attention to the units), we can determine the molecular weight, MW (g/mol) since liters, L, cancels: MW = (120 g/L) / (1/1200 moles/L) = 120 * 1200 = 144,000 g/mol {of course, 12 x 12 = 144 and then add the zeros}

Note: Ensure the units are consistent, especially concerning R.

Gold nugget: A dalton (symbol: Da) is the standard unit that is used for indicating mass on an atomic or molecular scale (atomic mass). It is common to use kilodaltons (kDa) when describing proteins. Thus in this problem, the answer could have been given as 144 kDa

-12.5, The standard changes in Gibbs free energy for the reactions below are given.

Phosphocreatine → creatine + Pi ∆Go = –43.0 kJ/mol ATP → ADP + Pi ∆Go = –30.5 kJ/mol

Determine the overall ∆Go for the following reaction.

Phosphocreatine + ADP → creatine + ATP

-Application of Hess’s law: In order to get the final equation (phosphocreatine on the left, creatine on the right), no change should be made to the first equation (∆Go = –43.0 kJ/mol), but to get ADP on the left and ATP on the right, the second equation must be inverted; thus, the sign of Gibbs free energy must be changed (∆Go = +30.5 kJ/mol). Now the two equations can be added, which leads to canceling Pi and adding the Gibbs free energy values: –43.0 kJ/mol + 30.5 kJ/mol = -12.5 kJ/mol

30, The intensity of sound X is 1000 times that of sound Y. What is the difference in the intensity levels of X and Y in terms of decibels?

v = Vm A Kd + A where Vm is the maximum rate of gene expression and A is the concentration of free transcription factor. The preceding is represented in graphic form as follows: -The dissociation constant Kd (M) is: 1.5 x 10-5

-The equation is not required to answer this question. However, the statement at the end of the passage “Km is equal to the dissociation constant,” combined with your familiarity with the shape of the curve, should lead you to the correct answer. It is the same as a Michaelis–Menten

saturation curve. Kd is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is 1/2 Vm. Converting to M, 15 μM becomes 1.5 x 10-5 M

3, How many voltaic cells with a voltage of at least 1200 mV can be made using the standard half-cell reactions listed in Table 1? -1200 mV = 1.2 V

Start with the extremes: first and last reaction of the table because they would have the greatest difference in values. Leave the one with the positive Eo value as written because it is most likely to be spontaneous, then switch the other reaction and add the values: 0.82 + 0.48 = 1.30 V

Again we begin with the most positive and add the 2nd entry in the table: 0.82 + 0.42 = 1.24 V

3rd entry: 0.82 + 0.38 = 1.20 V. Now we don’t have to go lower in the table because the trend is clear and any further entry will be below 1.20 V

20 mL of 0.05 M Mg2+ in solution is desired. It is attempted to achieve this by adding 5 mL of 0.005 M MgCl2 and 15 mL of Mg3(PO4)2. What is the concentration of Mg3(PO4)2? 0.022 -On the Surface: Don’t convert mL to litres because it will cancel out. x = molarity of Mg3(PO4)2 --> Solve for x

(.005M Mg2+)(5mL) + (3x)(15mL) = (20mL)(.05M Mg2+)

Note the 3 in front of x because there are 3 potential Mg2+ generated from each Mg3(PO4)2 in aqueous solution.

.025 + 45x = 1 45x = 0.975 thus x = 0.022

Going Deeper: a detailed calculation . . . Let's begin with the total number of moles of Mg2+ present in the final solution: 0.05 moles/L x 0.02 L = 0.001 moles of Mg2+. Next, let's look at the number of moles of Mg2+ obtained from MgCl2: 0.005 moles/L x 0.005 L = 0.000025 moles of Mg2+. Now we know the number of moles of Mg2+ we need supplied from Mg3(PO4)2: (0.001 - 0.000025) moles = 0.000975 moles. Thus from the 15 mL of Mg3(PO4)2 we need 0.000975 moles of Mg2+. But each mole of Mg3(PO4)2 contains 3 moles of Mg2+ Therefore, the concentration of Mg3(PO4)2 = [(0.000975 moles)/(0.015 L)] x 1/3 = 0.022 mol L-1 = 2.2 x 10-2 M

-20.9 kJ/mol, Given that the hydrolysis of ATP has a ΔGo of -32.5 kJ/mol, and the hydrolysis of glucose-6-phosphate has a ΔGo of -11.6 kJ/mol, what is the overall ΔGo for the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP?

-The 2 reactions described in the question stem (hydrolysis = the breaking or lysis of a molecule due to its reaction with water):

1) ATP + H2O -> ADP + Pi ΔGo = -32.5 kJ/mol 2) glucose-6-phosphate + H2O -> glucose + Pi ΔGo = -11.6 kJ/mol

Now we just need to write the equation for the overall reaction of the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP.

Glucose + ATP -> glucose-6-phosphate + ADP ΔGo =

Notice that ATP is on the left (which means we can use its given ΔGo of -32.5 kJ/mol) but glucose-6-phosphate is on the right so we must use the reverse of reaction 2 (thus we reverse the sign of ΔGo to +11.6 kJ/mol). Thus the total ΔGo = -32.5 + 11.6 = -20.9 kJ/mol (interpretation: spontaneous, exergonic). Notice that Pi and H2O cancel

If the speed of the car described in the passage increased by a factor of two, the energy in the crash will: Increase By 4 -The energy of the crash is E=1/2mv2 where v is the speed of the car. So when the speed increases by a factor of two, the energy increases by a factor of 4

-Which of the following graphs best illustrates the driver’s head deceleration after the impact?

2000 millicuries, The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.2 years. If a sample's activity is 250 millicuries after 15.6 years, what must its original activity have been? -Using Number of half-lives elapsed = (Elapsed time)/(Length of half-life)

Number of half-lives = 15.6 years/5.2 years = 3

Using Fraction of initial activity remaining = (1/2)number of half-lives elapsed

Fraction of initial activity remaining = (1/2)3 = 1/8

Since Activity after 15.6 years = 250 millicuries

Initial activity = 8 x 250 millicuries = 2000 millicuries

206(82)Pb, In a hypothetical radioactive series, Tl-210 undergoes 3 beta decay processes, 1 alpha decay process and 1 gamma ray emission to yield a stable product. What is the product? 210(81)Tl --> xyZ + 30-1e- + 42He2+ + gamma ray

Since the sum of the atomic numbers and mass numbers on either side of the equation must be equal (matter cannot be created or destroyed), we get:

210 = x + (3 x 0) + 4 + 0 ; x = 206

81 = y + (3 x -1) + 2 + 0 ; y = 82

You can stop at this point or examine the periodic table for the name of the correct element (answer choice D.). Note that the atomic number and mass number of gamma rays are both zero

28 mmHg, Capillaries tend to be more permeable than most semipermeable membranes. The only significant plasma constituents that capillaries do not allow to pass are proteins. Given that the concentration of protein in plasma is approximately 1.5 mmol/L and the concentration of all solutes in plasma approximates 300 mmol/L, what is the oncotic pressure of plasma at the approximate body temperature of 37 oC with respect to capillaries? [The universal gas constant can be approximated as 60 L Torr K-1mol-1.] -First we should define "osmotic pressure": Osmotic pressure is the hydrostatic (i.e. water) pressure produced by a solution in a space divided by a semipermeable membrane (the capillary wall) due to a differential in the concentrations of solute (because we are told that the capillary wall is permeable to everything except proteins then only the proteins constitute the differential concentrations of solute).

Note: The term "oncotic pressure" refers to the osmotic pressure exerted by colloids only. Colloids include proteins and starches in solution. The focus of this problem is the pressure caused by the proteins.

Π = (n/V)RT [notice the similarity with the ideal gas law PV = nRT, thus P = nRT/V = (n/V)RT and we are given n/V in millimoles/L which we must convert into moles/L; also, degrees kelvin = 37 + 273 = 310.] = 0.0015 x 60 x 310 = 1.5 x 6 x 3.1 = 9 x 3.1 = 27.9 mmHg or Torr

500 μM, A novel enzyme DFL87G-1 catalyzes a reaction with kcat equal to 500 s-1 and a specificity constant, kcat/Km, equal to 106 M-1s-1. At what concentration of the substrate would DFL87G-1 achieve half of the maximum velocity? -Dimensional analysis involves carefully paying attention to the units in order to solve a problem. Whether you multiply or divide or whatever, you are always guided by the units in the question and answer choices to decide what to do next. You will be able to use this technique on the real exam to help you get the answer correct even if you do not fully understand the question!

For this particular question, we are given s-1 and M-1s-1 and the answers are all in a form of M (actually, micromolar). So dimensional analysis would lead us to (s-1) / (M-1s-1) = M and then convert to μM (of course, μ is the SI prefix for 10-6). Thus the math is simple:

Km = (500 s-1)/(106 M-1s-1) = 500 × 10-6 M = 500 μM

(the answer could have been given as 5 × 10-4 M = 0.0005 M = 0.5 mM )

Going Deeper: By definition, when the substrate concentration is equal to Km, the reaction rate is at half of the maximum velocity (Vmax). Thus the objective of this problem is to calculate Km. Simply using dimensional analysis, Km is calculated by dividing kcat by kcat/Km (note that kcat/Km is referred to as the specificity constant, also called kinetic efficiency)

Forces of Psychology: Psychoanalytic, Cognitive-Behavioral, Existential-Humanistic, Multicultural, and Social Justice -Historically speaking, the second force in psychology is behaviorism. It was developed after John Watson's 1913 paper “Psychology as the Behaviorist Views it.” He based his ideas on the animal experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov and Edward Thorndike. Behaviorism was more clearly established in the 1920s and 1930s under the name of “radical behaviorism” and by the hand of B.F. Skinner. Behaviorism was a direct reaction to the first force in psychology, psychoanalysis, and was developed after Sigmund Freud's 1895 paper "A Project for Scientific Psychology." At the time radical behaviorism emerged, psychoanalysis was already widely accepted and applied by many different thinkers and clinical psychologists. Behaviorism argued that unconscious drives and the unconscious mind could not be measured and tested and therefore psychoanalysis was unscientific. Controlled experiments in the laboratory were key to observing behavior in order to predict subsequent behavior. However, because of behaviorism’s emphasis on measurement, many have criticized it as too reductionist and linear. For example, it does not take into account how the mind constructs meaning for people

Hypnosis is an ancient and ineffective treatment technique used by charlatans A) Hypnosis is one of the many tricks up illusionists’ sleeves B) Hypnosis is an altered state of mind and a mind-altering technique C) Hypnosis can be explained by the neodissociation theory

Discussing issues of confidentiality with the ethics committee of the hospital A) Offering information in different languages B) Offering treatment by male and female members of the staff C) Offering halal food

1) Glass Ceiling, the career progression barriers women face in male-dominated professions, Begats The Glass Cliff, More Risky Behaviour 2) Glass Escalator, men advancing faster in female-dominated fields, Teaching And Nursing

A) Electroencephalography (EEG), The EEG technique involves the application of sensors or electrodes to the scalp of the person. It then registers the electrical activity in terms of voltage fluctuations. These electrical signal changes result from the ionic current flows occurring within neuronal tissues and in between neurons. This method is used to measure brain activity and may be important for detecting health conditions such as seizures and confusion. Since the doctor wanted to observe the patient’s brain structures, this would not be the most suitable option B) Magnetic resonance imagery (MRI), The structural MRI uses a magnetic field to temporarily realign the body’s hydrogen atoms, and radio waves to make the realigned atoms produce mild and registrable signals. The functional MRI was developed based on the observation that the signal increased whenever there was an increase in blood flow and hence in the neuronal activity of a certain area. The output of this technique is a detailed image of the different levels of activity of brain structures. Since the doctor

wanted to observe the structure of the patient’s brain, this would be the best diagnostic method C) Positron emission tomography (PET), The PET involves the use of a radioactive drug called a tracer. After being injected, swallowed, or inhaled, the tracer allows the measuring of aspects such as blood flow, oxygen use, and glucose metabolism. The output of a PET scan is an image of the tissues and how these are functioning at a cellular level. It is used for detecting health conditions such as cancer and brain disorders. Since the doctor only wanted to observe the patient’s brain structures, this would not be the most suitable option D) Magnetoencephalography (MEG), The MEG is the noninvasive technique with the least health risks and side effects for patients. Superconductor detectors called SQUIDs are used to measure ongoing electromagnetic brain activity with a temporal precision that is lacking in other diagnostic techniques. Its outputs are on the basis of millisecond by millisecond. It is used for detecting health conditions such as seizures. Since the doctor only wanted to observe the patient’s brain structures, this would not be the most suitable option

MRI, The following are among the imaging tools used to examine the interior of the human body: computed tomography (CT) scan, which uses X-rays; magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which uses the same principle as nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) in addition to radio waves; and positron emission tomography (PET) scan, which uses a radioactive tracer.

Ionizing radiation, in which there is enough energy to liberate electrons from atoms or molecules, can damage tissue and particularly DNA. Which of the following does NOT emit ionizing radiation? -(Does, CT Scan, PET Scan)

-MRI is associated with radio waves. It is assumed that you can relate radio waves to the very low energy part of the electromagnetic spectrum (after all, you are currently being bombarded by radio waves without lethal consequence; AM, FM, TV, Wi-Fi, etc.). And since we are told that ionizing radiation relates to high energy, we have information to suggest that MRI is not at that end of the spectrum.

Going Deeper: You should be familiar with the electromagnetic spectrum (see image below).

Gamma rays (PET scan) and X-rays (CT scan) are at the high-energy (i.e., high-frequency since E = hf, where h is Planck’s constant) end of the electromagnetic spectrum and are thus, ionizing; whereas, the lower-energy (i.e., low-frequency) end of the electromagnetic spectrum includes visible light (including nearly all types of laser light), infrared, microwaves, and radio waves (MRI) and thus, is considered nonionizing radiation.

Magnetic fields in NMR are used, in the case of proton NMR, to determine the number and types of hydrogens in a molecule, but do not ionize the molecule (not the same principle as

mass spectroscopy, ORG 14.3). Considering also the fact that radio waves are very low energy and ubiquitous, NMR/MRI is nonionizing.

Typical ionizing subatomic particles from radioactivity include alpha particles, beta particles (= positron emission = PET scan), and neutrons.

In general, ionizing radiation is harmful and potentially lethal to living beings, but can have health benefits in radiation therapy for the treatment of cancer and some thyroid diseases.

Related note: Unlike X-ray imaging, there is no ionizing radiation exposure associated with ultrasound imaging. This is why ultrasound can be used safely to follow fetal development

Brain Functioning Language Disorders, BP/WC, RU/DT 1) Aphasia, problem understanding or using words 2) Apraxia, Motor Speech Disorder 3) Hypercognition, Increased Alertness

Limbic System -Studies have shown that MRI scans show greater activity in the limbic system when immediate, vs. delayed, gain is presented

Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex -The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex controls reasoning. Selecting the gift card for $25 but having to wait for it would be a more rational, vs. impulsive, approach. Studies show that MRI scans show increased activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex when delayed gratification or rewards are involved.

Pons Assists -The pons assists in conveying messages between the different parts of the brain and the spinal cord

CNS/PNS/SNS/ANS(3)~ ParaSafe -The autonomic nervous system comprises a collections of motor neurons (ganglia) situated in the head, neck, thorax, abdomen, and pelvis, and the axonal connections of these neurons. It is an efferent system, spreading information from the central nervous system to peripheral organs. It is divided into three, not two subsystems: sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric. The sympathetic nervous system is associated with the fight-or-flight reflexive response, whereas the parasympathetic nervous system is associated with the rest-and-digest reflexive response. The enteric system is only recently referred to as a system in itself, to distinguish from the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. This is partly because it is has an independent reflex activity. It is composed of the nerve fibers that innervate the gastrointestinal tract, the pancreas, and the gallbladder -The autonomic nervous system does regulate visceral organs, such as the heart and the smooth muscles, and hormone release -The autonomic nervous system activates the sympathetic nervous system in emergency situations. For example, it is responsible for the fight-or-flight reflexive response. This reaction accelerates the organism’s metabolic functions, thus increasing energy expenditure. There is an overall sense of readiness and alertness. The release of cortisol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are involved. In non-emergency situations, it activates the parasympathetic nervous system. For example, it is responsible for the “rest and digest” reflexive response. This reaction slows down the organism’s metabolic functions, saves the organism’s energy, and increases a sense of relaxation. The release of acetylcholine is involved -The autonomic nervous system controls the reflexive reaction of the eyes to the light. As the intensity of the light increases, the more the parasympathetic nervous system constricts the pupils of the eyes. The light flux then returns to a manageable level. As the intensity of the light

decreases, the more the sympathetic nervous system dilates the pupils. This allows for a greater amount of light to be received and improves vision in dark places

Hippocampus -There is a relationship between childhood maltreatment and reduced hippocampal volumes

Insula -Smokers with brain damage involving the insula were more likely to quit smoking more easily and immediately without persistence of the urge to smoke than smokers without any brain damage -The insula of the brain is implicated in conscious urges and emotions

A) Prefrontal Cortex, The area in Figure 1 signalized with the letter A is the prefrontal cortex, which is thought to mainly control self-regulation. When high-stress women were shown photos of high-calorie food items, the brain scans showed diminished activity in this area because they sought comfort in high-calorie foods B) Medulla, medulla is part of the brainstem and thought to mainly regulate the automatic functions of the body such as heartbeat and breathing C) Pons, The pons is located in the hindbrain and is part of the brainstem. The pons is thought to mainly serve as the brain’s message center between the cerebellum and cortex D) Amygdala, The amygdala is signalized with the letter B in Figure 1 and is thought to mainly control emotions. The amygdala’s activity is heightened in this area because the women rated themselves as being highly stressed

Brain Scans, PET And MRI Studies A) Occipital of The Cerebral Cortex, Functions To Process Visual Input from The Eyes B) Temporal of The Cerebral Cortex, Integrates Hearing And Language Comprehension C) Frontal Lobe of The Cerebral Cortex, Governs Duties Such As Voluntary Movement, Judgement, Problem Solving, Planning D) Parietal Lobe of The Cerebral Cortex, Processes Sensory Input from The Skin, have shown that acute pain processing occurs in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex. This area processes tactile sensory information (e.g., pain, touch, pressure) and relays the information through the thalamus to the parietal lobe. If the parietal lobe is damaged, the sensation of touch is compromised E) Cerebellum, is responsible for movement, coordination, and motor control. When the cerebellum is impaired, it can lead to various forms of paralysis F) Hippocampus, is associated with creating new memories and learning. When there is damage to the hippocampus, individuals have challenges in forming new memories G) Medulla Oblongata, is located in the hindbrain, and its primary function is to control involuntary and automatic activities such as breathing, swallowing, digestion, sweating, sneezing, and other functions

Color is one of the features of visual sensory input, processed in parallel with depth, form, constancy, and movement. The spatial, temporal, and chromatic components of light fall on the photoreceptors of the retina. The sensory visual photoreceptors are rods and cones. Cones have an enormous density in the fovea centralis. They are thought to be responsible for color vision, day vision, and visual acuity. The sensory information received by the cones is then sent toward the central nervous system. This information is thought to be mainly processed by the occipital lobe, located at the back of the brain. The primary visual cortex then interprets this information. In other words, it becomes possible to identify which color is being perceived.

Free nerve endings are part of the modality of the somatosensory system that processes temperature and pain. They are spread throughout the skin, muscle, bone, and connective tissue. They are thought to be mainly responsible for detecting temperature changes and pain peptides released after tissue damage. The parietal lobe is located in the middle section of the brain. It is thought to be mainly responsible for processing tactile sensory information (e.g., touch, pain, and pressure). Although damage to this area can result in an inability to control eye gaze, such damage is not known to affect color perception.

Meissner corpuscles are cells that belong to the modality of the somatosensory system that processes pressure, vibration, and texture (called discriminative touch). The parietal lobe is located in the middle section of the brain. It is thought to be mainly responsible for processing tactile sensory information (e.g., touch, pain, and pressure). Although damage to this area can result in an inability to control eye gaze, such damage is not known to affect color perception.

The occipital lobe is thought to be mainly responsible for processing visual information received by the photoreceptors of the retina, namely rods and cones. Rods are not, however, sensitive to color. They are more numerous and sensitive than cones and are located mainly at the periphery of the retina. They are thought to be responsible for scotopic (dark-adapted or night) vision and peripheral vision. There is a period of habituation to the darkness, and only then do rods perform at their best

Studies have shown that when people experience social rejection or a threat to their sense of belonging, the brain perceives it much like a threat of physical harm or pain. MRI studies have shown that those who have been ostracized show activation of the right ventral prefrontal cortex. The ventral prefrontal cortex is the pathway that bridges the brain areas that are involved with emotion.

The occipital lobe controls vision The central flocculonodular lobes of the cerebellum control balance, coordination, and movement The corpus callosum connects the hemispheres and serves to transmit information between the two hemispheres

The hippocampus is the part of the brain that is involved with complex processes of memory. It is involved in the creation of new memories and linking memories to the senses. Thus, they would likely be interested in inspecting this structure.

The medulla is responsible for a range of sensory and involuntary functions such as heart rate. It has not yet been found to interfere with memory and learning processes.

The pons is located in the brainstem and controls voluntary activities such as sleep, bladder function, eye movement, posture, and so on. It has not yet been found to interfere with memory and learning processes. It has not yet been found to interfere with memory and learning processes.

The midbrain contains cranial nerves and functions to stimulate the muscles controlling eye movement

There are several neural changes that occur during adolescence. For example, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies of gray matter thickness indicate an increased thickening up until adolescence and thinning thereafter and throughout adulthood. The prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia, which support executive functions and reward processing, narrow during adolescence. Unused and thus excessive synapses situated in the prefrontal cortex are trimmed down. This contributes to the narrowing of the region but also boosts complex information processing and the ability to voluntarily inhibit responses. This response inhibition is directly connected with pursuing or not pursuing certain rewards and sensations

The occipital cortex is mainly involved in primary and higher-order visual processing. Damage in the occipital region would more probably lead to one or another form of blindness. So far it has not been found to play a role in reward and sensation seeking

The Broca area (or convolution of Broca) is mainly responsible for the motor neurons that synapse into the muscles involved in speaking. Damage to this area would most probably involve speech disorders. So far it has not been found to play a role in reward and sensation seeking

The medulla oblongata cortex is mainly involved in the control of vital functions, such as breathing, heart function, blood vessel function, digestion, sneezing, and swallowing. So far it has not been found to play a role in reward and sensation seeking

Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are mainly involved in processing the spoken word but have also been found to sometimes play a role in handwriting. Those two areas are often, but not always, involved when writing something down by hand on paper. Yet, given the given options, they are the least likely to be critical for handwriting

The visual cortex and the left angular gyrus are involved while writing. Namely, the visual cortex identifies the paper and creates the internal image of the letters. The left angular gyrus is responsible for the conversion of letter sequences into words

The cingulate cortex is involved. It sits in the frontal lobe and plays a role in initiating the writing process

The parietal lobe is involved in writing by transmitting the signal to the motor cortex, which then coordinates the appropriate physical movement that enable people to write

Long-term memory formation involves the synthesis of new protein via the intervention of cytoplasmic and nuclear molecules, whereas short-term memory does not. The opposite is stated in the option, and thus it is incorrect

The hippocampus and the medial temporal lobe are thought to be more important to the formation of declarative (vs. procedural) memories. Several neuropsychological studies support this conclusion

The cerebellum and the striatum are more important for the formation of procedural (vs. declarative) memories. Several neuropsychological studies support this conclusion

The neuropsychological Hebbian theory proposed that "cells that fire together wire together.” That is, that synaptic efficacy increases by repeated simultaneous activation of sets of neurons. Such repeated firing would translate into lasting cellular changes, such as in growth or metabolism, represent synaptic plasticity and sustain learning processes. Although supporting evidence is difficult to gather in more complex organism, there is some evidence suggesting that, in these organisms, synaptic strength long-term changes can be created via both Hebbian and non-Hebbian mechanisms

How Would A Biological Approach To Drug Addiction Describe The Process? -The abuse behavior stimulates the nucleus accumbens, and dopamine is released

The reward pathway, as it was named, was mainly discovered through operant conditioning rat experiments. Whenever electrodes were placed in the nucleus accumbens, the rats continually pressed the lever. An electrical discharge continually stimulated this area. This suggested that the stimulation worked as a positive reinforcement or reward for the lever-pressing activity. This region links with the ventral tegmental area, which, alongside the substantia nigrae, is responsible for the secretion of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Dopamine plays an important role in provoking feelings of pleasure. It also motivates the organism to seek the activity behind its release. Whenever the dopamine release was prevented in the rats, the lever pressing would cease. This led to the conclusion that these neural areas and this neurotransmitter were critical for the development of drug addiction behavior. This mechanism was named the reward pathway. Dopamine also influences motor movements and controls the information flow that

occurs in the prefrontal cortex, but these effects are less directly responsible for the reward mechanism that reinforces addictive behavior.

The basal ganglia comprise three major structures, one of which is the caudate nucleus. The caudate nucleus is part of a system known to be involved in voluntary movement and motor processes, as Parkinson’s disease studies have made evident. In addition, the basal ganglia seem to also be involved in non-motor functions such as learning, memory, sleep, and social behavior. In conclusion, there is no evidence relating this structure to addictive behavior

Most of human beings' serotonin concentration is in the intestinal tract. In the brain, the raphe nuclei are the main source of serotonin discharge. The neurotransmitter serotonin controls intestinal movements and regulates mood and homeostasis functions. For example, it regulates sleep and appetite. It is also implicated in impulsive, aggressive behavior. Finally, it plays an important role in the psychological disorder of depression. In conclusion, there is no evidence directly relating this structure to addictive behavior

The basal ganglia comprise three major structures, one of which is the caudate nucleus. The caudate nucleus is part of a system known to be involved in voluntary movement and motor processes, as Parkinson’s disease studies have made evident. In addition, the basal ganglia seem to also be involved in non-motor functions such as learning, memory, sleep, and social behavior. In conclusion, there is no evidence relating this structure to addictive behavior. Moreover, most of human beings' serotonin concentration is in the intestinal tract. In the brain, the raphe nuclei are the main source of serotonin discharge. The neurotransmitter serotonin controls intestinal movements and regulates mood and homeostasis functions. For example, it regulates sleep and appetite. It is also implicated in impulsive, aggressive behavior. Finally, it plays an important role in the psychological disorder of depression. Yet there is no evidence directly relating this structure to addictive behavior

Genetic studies show that there are genetic influences on drug addiction that cannot be linearly linked to one or a set of genes. For a geneticist, this means that: genetic influence translates itself into a predisposition or vulnerability. It must be activated by other factors, such as sociocultural ones

Sometimes genetic influence is caused by one or a set of specific genes. For example, Down's syndrome is caused by a genetic mutation that culminates in three copies of chromosome 21. Other times, however, genetic influence translates itself into a predisposition or vulnerability. In this case, the genes will only become a phenotype if other environmental factors are present. In the case of drug addiction, the person would only become an addict if other psychological and sociocultural factors acted upon the genes. Some of these risk factors are lack of parental supervision, lack of self-control, and a drug-benevolent culture. Thus someone’s predisposition does not necessarily translate into a drug addiction problem. Similarly, the presence of environmental drug addiction risk factors does not necessarily translate into a drug abuse problem

When geneticists argue that genes influence behavior, although no such gene or set of genes has been identified, they mean that such influence translates itself into a predisposition. This is not a theoretical hypothesis; it is an evidence-based claim. It is based upon evidence that demonstrates how some people are more vulnerable than others to becoming drug addicts whenever certain environmental factors and genetic patterns are present

The question specified that no gene or set of genes responsible for this behavior has been identified. This is not for lack of research, but a research conclusion

There are many phenotypes that only express themselves when the environment acts upon the genes in a particular way. This does not mean that genetic influence is being confused with environmental influence. Rather, it means that both influences are required for the phenotype to come about

Generally high activity in the insula but lower activity for those in the gum-chewing condition A) The insula of the brain is mainly involved in consciousness, perceptions, and self- awareness. It also plays a role in emotions and regulates metabolic functions such as maintaining a constant body temperature. When individuals experience higher stress levels, there is hyperactivity in the insula. Both groups were subjected to noise, hence high stress. Thus, the insula was likely very active. Yet, as explored in the passage, chewing has sometimes been found to decrease stress levels, and, as such, lower activity could have been registered in the chewing condition B) The insula of the brain is mainly involved in consciousness, perceptions, and self- awareness. It also plays a role in emotions, and regulates metabolic functions such as maintaining a constant body temperature. When individuals experience higher stress levels, there is hyperactivity in the insula, rather than lower activity. Moreover, sometimes chewing has been found to decrease stress levels. Thus, comparatively, those in this condition should show lower, not higher activity the insula C) The parietal lobe mainly helps to integrate sensory information from various parts of the body, knowledge of numbers, and language processing. It is not known to be involved in stress regulation and other emotion-related mechanisms D) The insula is involved in emotion processing, among other functions. It usually shows high, not low activity in stress conditions. The parietal lobe helps to integrate sensory information from various parts of the body, knowledge of numbers, and language processing. It is not known to be involved in stress regulation and other emotion-related mechanisms

Stroop Test for Gum Chewers -Participants in the no-gum-chewing condition would take longer and make more errors in naming a color word that was printed in a color not denoted by the name than those in the gum- chewing condition

-Stroop test assesses how quickly individuals react and how accurate they are when asked to name the color of the font with which the name of a color is written down. Sometimes the color of the font matches and sometimes mismatches the color that is identified in writing. It thus seeks to measure people’s performance in a task where there sometimes is cognitive interference between the information received through semantic and visual channels. Typically it takes longer and there is lower accuracy when the color of the font mismatches the printed name of a color, such as when presented the word green in red font. According to the described study, chewing gum reduces stress and improves cognitive performance. Thus, those chewing might perform better than those who were not chewing.

A) The Stroop test assesses how quickly individuals react and how accurate they are when asked to name the color of the font with which the name of a color is written down. Test takers are not asked to read backward and forward names of colors, Test takers are not asked to sort out the scrambled names of colors B) Although some studies point towards the existence of gender differences, a gender effect is still not clear. Moreover, there seems to be a compromise between speed and accuracy; gender-related superiority at one level sometimes involves inferiority (or at least no superiority) in the other. Moreover, test takers are not asked to recall names of colors; the Stroop test is not a memory test

Brocas Aphasia The condition known as Broca’s aphasia is the result of damage to the neural area called Broca, located in the left hemisphere, and not of damage to the Wernicke’s area. Damage to Wernicke’s neural area, also located in the left hemisphere, and named after a physician named Karl Wernicke, provokes fluent type of aphasia. Individuals are able to speak fluently, but the produced sentences lack meaningfulness, a condition known as fluent aphasia. On the other hand, damage to Broca’s area provokes Broca’s aphasia. This is a non-fluent type of aphasia. Individuals keep their auditory comprehension skills but are unable to speak fluently or repeat verbal material

A) Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent type of aphasia characterized by the inability to speak fluently B) Both the neural area and pathology were named after Paul Broca, a 19th- century physician C) Strokes and cardiac arrests are the most common cause of Broca’s aphasia. Patients have good chances of recovery

Schizophrenia, Cognitive Theory A) Cortical Thinning B) Higher Levels of Dopamine Production C) Smaller Volume In The Hippocampus And Nucleus Accumbens D) Smaller Ventricle Volumes

Table 1 associates declarative memory with the hippocampus and the medial temporal lobe. Which of the following tasks could be used in a neuropsychological study concerned with this type of memory? Test subjects would answer a set of general common knowledge questions, such as naming the planets of the solar system and the number of sides in several geometric figures -Declarative or explicit memory is a long-term storage that holds factual information that can be consciously recalled at any moment in time. An example would be the names of the planets in the solar system as learned during childhood. Implicit memory stores motor knowledge, such as learned dance choreography steps, that often cannot be consciously recalled. A test that involves memorizing stimuli such as words and immediately recalling them would probably be concerned with either short-term or working memory. A test inspecting memories from one’s own experience that involve pairs of objects would probably be concerned with episodic memory

Phineas Gage, Prefrontal Cortex Spinal Cord, Prefrontal Cortex, Temporal Cortex, Hypophysis -Self-regulation refers to the process by which people intentionally and purposefully initiate, adjust, interrupt, or stop their thoughts, feelings, or actions so that they can accomplish or maintain personal goals and plans. For example, someone who has the impulse to flee from an exam and subdues his impulse is able to self-regulate his behavior. The opposite happens when someone makes the decision to start a diet and is unable to resist overeating. The prefrontal cortex has been associated with executive functions and is regarded as critical for self-regulatory purposes. One of the most famous cases of brain damage serving as evidence in favor of this association is Phineas Gage. Phineas was an American railroad foreman who had a work accident in which a tamping iron went through his head. He survived, but much of his brain's left and perhaps even his right frontal lobe were destroyed and/or damaged. He apparently had personality changes after the accident, according to some descriptions provided by his family, friends, and colleagues. Before the accident he was known to be hard-working, committed, and responsible. Afterward, he was described as irreverent, disrespectful, impatient, less capable of pursuing a plan, and capricious. That is, his behavior was more uninhibited and often inappropriate. Patients with similar damage have been described as becoming aggressive, antisocial, or inappropriately humorous, and have also been observed to have unrestrained sexuality and appetite and to lack motivation. Such disrespect for social norms or the inability to adopt desirable behaviors does not seem to stem from memory problems, because they are aware of the unsuitability of their behavior—they just seem unable to control themselves. These cases suggest that the prefrontal cortex intervenes in voluntary self-regulatory processes. None of the other structures have been associated with intentional self-regulation or self-control. Their actions are largely involuntary (spinal cord and pituitary gland or hypophysis) or more important for other functions, such as memory, language, and perception (temporal lobe). None of these were found damaged in the case of Phineas Gage

A) Room Temperature; Thermoreceptor B) Stiff Chair; Mechanoreceptor C) Dogs Barking; Mechanoreceptor

D) Cones, Colour Vision, Day Vision E) Rodes, Nite, Scotopic Vision

-Rods are sensory visual receptors that exist in the retina alongside cones. These cells are bigger than cones and exist in more density in the periphery of the retina. Whereas rods are thought to be responsible for low light intensity vision, that is, night or scotopic vision, cones are thought to be responsible for color vision, day vision, and visual acuity—that is, high light level or photopic vision. They have a greater density in the macula, located in the center of the retina, and especially in its centermost portion, the fovea centralis. The colors of the curtain would thus more likely be received by cones, rather than rods. The other options correctly associate stimulus and receptor. Thermoreceptors detect heat energy changes (warmer, colder) in the environment and body; hence they would detect room temperature. Currently 28 transient receptor potential ion channels, which respond to specific temperature ranges and are organized into six families, have been identified. Mechanoreceptors receive tactile information (touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch), such as the stiffness of a chair. Both thermoreceptors and mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that mainly exist as cutaneous unspecialized free nerve endings of terminals of somatosensory afferent fibers. Yet mechanoreceptors also exist in musculoskeletal tissues; as specialized cells (e.g., Merkel cells); and as encapsulated nerve endings with different functions (e.g., Meissner corpuscles for light touch and vibration and Ruffini endings for deep pressure and stretch of skin). The dogs barking outside would amount to an auditory stimulus. These are received by the inner ear’s sensory receptors located in the cilia of hair cells in the organ of Corti. These sensory receptors are mechanoreceptors as well; they detect vibration, that is, air pressure changes provoked by sound waves. As with other mechanoreceptors, their function is mostly determined by the tissue wherein they are located

Hypothalamus, Endocrine Gland -The hypothalamus is an important part of the brain involved in homeostatic control and important endocrine regulation. In terms of the endocrine function, the hypothalamus both secretes releasing factors which controls hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary AND produces/secretes hormones directly into the posterior pituitary (I is correct). II is incorrect because the hypothalamus does not contain somatic receptors. Gonadotropins (FSH, LH) are secreted by the anterior pituitary heat promoting center → sympathetic nerves → adrenal medulla → epinephrine production -Which of the following best represents a possible series of physiological events following the detection by the hypothalamus of a cold environment?

Kidney Nephron Dialysis -The human kidney can be damaged from a number of causes resulting in a patient’s inability to filter toxins (i.e. urea) from the body which could result in death. Complete kidney failure is usually first treated with dialysis which “cleans” the blood.

-Figure 1: Dialysis. The “dialyzer” is a glass container that has 3 main components: (1) blood percolating through to be cleaned; (2) a dividing membrane; and (3) the dialysate. The latter is liquid containing chemicals used to draw fluids and toxins out of the bloodstream and supply electrolytes and other chemicals to the bloodstream. (kidney.niddk.nih.gov)

A) The membrane in the dialyzer separating the dialysate and the blood must be semipermeable B) The concentration of toxins in the dialysate must increase during dialysis C) The concentration of glucose and vital minerals in the dialysate must be similar to that of the patient’s blood D) Not, Excessive minerals and toxins cross the membrane in the dialyzer by osmosis

On the Surface: Dialysis only refers to the transfer of the solute (diffusion), while the transfer of the solvent is called osmosis.

Going Deeper: Diffusion is the movement of a substance down its concentration gradient (from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration). This is the process that must be occurring in the dialyzer to remove toxins from the blood (because the dialysate, logically, would have no toxins so the toxins defuse out of the blood into the dialysate). Note that vital substances in the blood should be kept in the blood: options would include having a dialysate with the same concentration of those substances (so they don’t diffuse out of the blood) or by adjusting the permeability of the membrane.

Osmosis is the movement of a solvent across a semi-permeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration. In Biology and Biochemistry, that solvent is, of course, water. In this context, the easier way to imagine osmosis is that it is simply the diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane from a region of high water concentration (i.e. low solute concentration) to a region of low water concentration (i.e. high solute concentration).

So in summary, osmosis deals with how much water passes through the membrane, while dialysis deals with what type of solute (i.e., sodium, protein, glucose) passes through by simple diffusion.

N.B. Notice the link between diffusion and osmosis and the Second Law of Thermodynamics (Physics). All spontaneous change leads to an increase in the entropy (randomness) of the universe. Of course, biological systems exist because processes which increase entropy can be coupled with processes which increase order, as long as the overall (net) entropy of the universe increases glomerulus., the active responses of the kidney to respiratory alkalosis are not directly associated with filtration. As such, the kidney’s active responses in this case are LEAST likely to occur at the level of the: -(More Likely, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, proximal convoluted tubule) where does filtration occur? The answer: in the glomerulus -Of course, the question is backwards: We know from the passage that the kidney’s active response to a pH imbalance is secretion and reabsorption which are typically associated with the renal tubules. The question stem is trying to underline the active role the kidney plays in pH imbalance and if we leave out filtration then we leave out the glomerulus.

-The nephron is a filtration -> reabsorption -> secretion unit where filtration occurs at the level of the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule, and reabsorption and secretion occur in the renal tubules

A renal stone is formed in the kidney and passed to the exterior of the body. Which of the following would be the normal route for the kidney stone? -renal pelvis → ureter → bladder → urethra

-urine is produced in the kidneys (mostly by the filtration of blood) and is transported, with the help of peristaltic waves, down the tubular ureters to the muscular sack which can store urine, the bladder. Through the process of urination (= micturition), urine is expelled from the bladder to the outside via a tubular urethra.

The renal pelvis (renal = kidney) is a part of the kidney that functions as a funnel for urine flowing to the ureter

Note: The amount of volume within blood vessels (= intravascular or blood volume) and blood pressure are proportional to the rate the kidneys filter blood

Heart Physics

Oxygen from lungs --> pulmonary vein --> heart --> aorta --> arteries to body tissues --> body tissues --> veins from body tissues (includes renal) --> vena cava --> heart --> pulmonary arteries --> lungs vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → pulmonary veins → left atrium vein --> lung cap

This question can be translated thus: if something enters a vein in your arm, where is the first capillary bed which will be encountered? The following is simply part of the basic cardiovascular anatomy you need to know: vein in arm (= upper body) --> larger veins --> superior vena cava -- > right atrium of the heart --> right ventricle of the heart --> pulmonary artery --> smaller arteries in the lung --> arterioles in the lung --> capillary beds in the lung --> venules in the lung --> veins in the lung --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium of the heart --> left ventricle of the heart --> aorta - -> many different arteries --> many different arterioles --> many different capillary beds of the body system including those that supply the heart muscle, the arms, the kidneys, the brain, the liver, etc. --> venules --> veins, and the story repeats itself.

Lung (Not Heart, Left Limbs)A biologically active agent, which completely diffuses through capillary beds, is injected into the brachiocephalic vein of the left arm. Which of the following would be most affected by the agent?

During inspiration, transpulmonary pressure should: increase, increasing airway radius and decreasing airway resistance -By various mechanisms, inspiration increases the size of your chest, or more precisely, your thoracic cavity. The increased amount of air in the chest in combination with the chest's desire to return to its initial position (= recoil) leads to an increased pressure in the lungs (= transpulmonary), as airway radius is inversely proportional to airway resistance

Lateral traction refers to the process by which connective tissue fibers maintain airway patency by continuously pulling outward on the sides of the airways. As the lungs expand these fibers become stretched. Thus during inspiration lateral traction acts: in the same direction as transpulmonary pressure, by increasing the airway radius -there exists fibers which pull on the airways and become stretched during inspiration. The preceding implies that the radius of the airway is increased by the stretching of the fibers. Thus both transpulmonary pressure (see previous question/explanation) and lateral traction result in an increase in airway radius

Aorta, Chemoreceptors

-The vena cava, the pulmonary artery and the femoral vein all carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Among our choices, only the aorta carries blood away from the lungs. Thus the aorta would be a perfect place to have receptors which would indicate whether the carbon dioxide exchange in the lung required an increase or decrease in respiratory rate (paragraph 4) in order to improve the quality of the blood supply to the rest of the body's organs

GERC= Gain Electrons Reduction at the Cathode Anode, Positive Electrode Anodes (-), Basic 14, OH- Cathode, Negative Electrode Cations (+), Acidic 0, H+

Cathodic Inhibitor Anodic Promotor -Since the hydroxide is being formed as a result of a reduction (Equation II), that terminal is referred to as the cathode. Since the bicarbonate (HCO3-) neutralizes the product of the cathode (Equation III), it can be referred to as an inhibitor since OH- contributes to the rusting process.

Anabolic, Building Up Catabolic, Breaking Down

Sigmoidal Shape, Cooperative Binding, Hemoglobin Hyperbola Shape, Substrate-Enzyme Complex. Myoglobin

Ventricles are able to increase their output only up to a certain point upon exposure to increased volume. Beyond that the output will drop. This is most likely explained by which of the following? -Increased volume of heart chambers, facilitate cross bridge formation between actin and myosin molecules. Cross-bridge formation, improves contractile power of the muscles

-Lactic acid, a negative inotropic substance, decreases pH of blood (because it is an acid!), Sympathetic nerve stimulation increases the concentration of Ca++ within muscle cells. Thus, which of the following is LEAST likely to be true regarding cardiac muscles? Decreased blood pH facilitates entry of Ca++ into the cardiac cells

-Not Constrict, exercise must dilate blood vessels going to the muscle of the heart so that the heart can get much needed oxygen as it "works out." -Exercise activates sympathetic system-releasing adrenaline into the blood, Exercise improves return of bodily blood to the heart, Exercise increases calcium release into cardiac cells

Decreased Blood Viscosity -Increased blood flow to the heart increases cardiac output. Flow in the circulatory system is determined by the blood pressure gradient between two points in the system, divided by the resistance to flow. Based on this and other information in the passage, which of the following factors tends to increase cardiac output?

Low blood pressure would normally result in which of the following? -Increased production of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex, Aldosterone increases intravascular salt which leads to passive reabsorption of water from the renal tubules; thus more water in blood vessels means higher pressure

Oxyhemoglobin, Blood in the pulmonary veins is rich in: Deoxygenated blood coming from the systemic circulation is pumped through the right ventricle, to the pulmonary artery and finally, toward the lungs. From the lungs, the oxygenated blood, containing oxyhemoglobin (= hemoglobin bound to oxygen) travels through the pulmonary vein toward the left side of the heart. Note that the pulmonary vein consisting of oxygenated blood is the exception to the rule; in most cases, oxygenated blood is located in the arteries while deoxygenated blood is in the veins of the circulation

Which action(s) would contribute to a decrease in blood flow? -Inflating a blood pressure cuff around the arm, Developing a blood clot in a coronary artery -Not Increased oxygen demand during exercise -During exercise, oxygen demand increases, leading to higher blood flow. When a blood pressure cuff is placed around the arm and inflated, the cuff squeezes the blood vessels, reducing their radius. Based on the passage, blood flow scales as the radius to the fourth power. So when the radius decreases, blood flow decreases. In contrast, when there is a blood clot in a vessel, the clot effectively reduces the area through which the blood can flow. Therefore, the blood flow decreases

Anemia, The blood flow is not always laminar. Which effect would make the blood flow turbulent? -Not Plaque build-up on the vessel wall, Decrease in blood temperature, Chronic dehydration

-The Reynolds Number R determines whether a fluid is laminar or turbulent. The Reynolds Number is given by R = vdρ/η where v is the flow velocity, d is the vessel diameter, ρ is the blood density and η is the blood viscosity. As R increases, the flow becomes more turbulent.

Plaque build-up decreases the vessel diameter, decreasing the Reynolds number. From Table 1, as the blood temperature decreases, the blood viscosity increases, also decreasing the Reynolds number. Anemia, when the blood is deficient in red blood cells, causes the hematocrit to decrease. Looking at Table 1, as the hematocrit decreases, the viscosity decreases, increasing the Reynolds number. When chronically dehydrated, the hematocrit increases, increasing the viscosity as can be seen in Table 1. An increase in viscosity decreases the Reynolds number

Electrical --> mechanical --> potential -Substance Q42 is fully expanded and then contracts in response to a 5.0 amp current. Which of the following best represents the conversion of energies in the process described?

-According to the question and the passage, current is applied (Electrical Energy) to Substance Q42 causing it to contract (Mechanical Energy); and finally, in the contracted state, using the spring analogy, Substance Q42 has potential energy.

Going Deeper: if you chose an answer beginning with "Potential" energy then we should examine this closer. Certainly, if Q42 was a spring and it was "fully expanded" then it would have significant stored (potential) energy that would try to return the spring to its native state. This problem is different because the fully expanded state of Q42 is indeed the native state. The passage suggests that if you had Q42 fully expanded, it would do nothing unless a current is applied. In other words, expanding Q42 did not store energy in the sense of a spring. On the other hand, once contracted after the application of current, Q42 would expand spontaneously due to its stored potential energy

Position P on the EKG of Fig. 1 probably correspond to: A) atrial contraction B) ventricular contraction C) the beginning of ventricular systole D) the beginning of ventricular diastole

The first heart sound represented in Fig. 1 is probably made when: -During ventricular systole, blood in the ventricle is forced against the closed atrioventricular valve

Would the walls of the atria or ventricles expected to be thicker? -Ventricles, because ventricular stroke volume is high -Thicker walls in a particular part of the heart would indicate that it is more muscular, and therefore is more efficient or forceful during its contraction. This immediately rules out answer choices B. and D., as they suggest that the thicker walled chamber would be less efficient or forceful. It should be known from the biology review (BIO 7.2) that the ventricles are more muscular (thicker-walled), but in the event that this is not initially known, information regarding the function of both the atria and the ventricles from the passage may help lead to this conclusion. First, systole, the period of contraction, refers to the period of contraction of the ventricles not the atria (P1, L5). This would indicate that the contraction of the ventricles might be more relevant in some way. Second, during diastole, atrial contraction occurs after most of the ventricle is already filled (P3, S4) and serves to push the small amount of blood necessary to complete the filling into the ventricles. Since the atrial contraction does not need to move a large amount of blood (the ventricle is already mostly full), it does not need to be as muscular

According to the graph, the net result of sympathetic stimulation on stroke volume is to:

-increase stroke volume at any given end diastolic volume

The wall of the left ventricle is at least three times as thick as that of the right ventricle. This feature aids circulation by assuring that: -blood entering the aorta is at a much higher pressure than blood entering the pulmonary artery -as a rule, the size of a muscle is proportional to its strength. The heart, which is a muscle, contains a chamber which must pump blood into the aorta to perfuse the grand majority of the body's tissues. Clearly, this chamber (= the left ventricle) must contain thicker muscle (= stronger) than a chamber that pumps blood only to the lungs (= the right ventricle through the pulmonary artery). The stronger chamber pumps blood with a greater force which means a higher pressure (recall from physics: P = F/A; PHY 6.1.2)

According to Fig. 1, the opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves is NOT associated with: a drop and rise in left ventricular volume -For, ventricular systole, a rise and fall in aortic pressure, the third phase of the cardiac cycle -Close analysis of Figure 1 (compare to previous questions especially question 8) reveals that during the period that the aortic and pulmonary valves are OPEN, the curve for left ventricular volume drops (= decreases) but does not rise (= increase)

-The ejection fraction (EF) is defined as the ratio of the stroke volume to the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole (EDV), which is expressed as a percentage, 50%

-The simplest way: estimate the volume of blood at the end of diastole (EDV) as 130 ml with a stoke volume of 65 ml so: 65/130 = 50%, answer choice B.

Alternatively, if you felt that EDV was somewhat more than 130 ml, so let’s say 135 ml: then the stroke volume would be 135 - 65 = 70 ml.

70/135 = 14/26 = 7/13 = just more than 50%, or work it out: 52% thus our estimate of 50% was reasonable.

Side note: A LV ejection fraction of 55 percent or higher is considered normal (obviously, this is not to be memorized for MCAT purposes). So 60% (answer choice C) is quite normal! Be wary of choosing normal values (especially if you have a background in health, nursing, paramedics, etc.) without working out the details

Decreased O2 partial pressure in systemic arteries, The developing fetus has a blood vessel, 'the ductus arteriosus', which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. When a baby is born, the ductus arteriosus closes permanently. Which of the following is the dominant feature found in a newborn whose ductus arteriosus failed to obliterate? -You can only understand fetal circulation if you understand normal adult circulation. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. If the ductus arteriosus remains open, or patent, after birth, some of the deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery will flow through the ductus into the aorta, which contains fresh oxygenated blood from the newborn's lungs. Thus, the mixing causes a decrease in oxygen and an increase in carbon dioxide partial pressures in the aorta. The aorta leads the blood into systemic arteries and circulation

It becomes easier to lose the second and third oxygen molecules, Hemoglobin found in humans is composed of four chains that can each bind one oxygen molecule. Given a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule, the sigmoidal shape of the oxygen saturation curve in humans is an indication of which of the following?

-(Not The first oxygen molecule dissociates from the heme component, while the next three dissociate from the globin component, It becomes more difficult to lose the second and third oxygen molecules, The fourth oxygen molecule dissociates from the heme component, while the previous three dissociate from the globin component)

-All four oxygen molecules reversibly bind to iron associated with the heme component of hemoglobin (i.e., answer choices A and D are incorrect). Incidentally, it is the iron in hemoglobin that gives blood its red color.

Your biology review likely got you used to thinking of the meaning of the sigmoidal shape of the oxygen saturation curve from left to right; now we are considering what it means from right to left. This is not meant as a trick, since this does represent what happens the other half of the time in our bodies: the offloading of oxygen. From left to right: cooperative binding means that each oxygen molecule makes the next one easier to bind (increasing the sharpness of the curve). And in reverse, the curve drops suddenly because losing oxygen makes it easier to lose (offload) oxygen. Thus, this process permits oxygen to be uploaded more easily in the lungs, where the partial pressure of oxygen is high, and offloaded more easily in body tissues, where the partial pressure of oxygen is low.

Going Deeper: An alternate way to express the same thing: Deoxyhemoglobin has a relatively low affinity for oxygen, but when one molecule binds to a single heme, the oxygen affinity increases, allowing the second molecule to bind more easily, and the third and fourth even more easily. The oxygen affinity of 3-oxyhemoglobin is about 300 times greater than that of deoxyhemoglobin. This produces the affinity curve of hemoglobin (sigmoidal), rather than hyperbolic as with myoglobin (which is monomeric; i.e., it is not composed of four units, but just one). By the same process, the ability of hemoglobin to lose oxygen increases as fewer oxygen molecules are bound.

Note: On oxygen binding, there are substantial changes in the quaternary structure of hemoglobin

The phrenic nerve is stimulated, Which of the following is MOST consistent with the process of inhalation?

-(Not The thoracic cage moves inward as the diaphragm moves downward, The internal pressure is positive with respect to atmospheric pressure, The diaphragm relaxes) -Inhalation is active and requires the contraction of the diaphragm by the phrenic nerve. The diaphragm thus moves downward, while the thoracic cage is pushed outward, increasing the volume of the chest cavity. This causes a negative internal pressure, which allows air to enter the lungs

The genetic basis of human blood types includes recessive (ZO) and codominant alleles (ZA and ZB). Determine which of the following genotypes produce blood that agglutinates when combined with type O serum, All 3, ZAZA, ZAZB, ZAZO -An antibody–antigen interaction involving serum and red blood cells leads to clumping or agglutination. Type O blood is the "universal donor", because the red blood cells have no antigens. However, type O serum contains anti-A and anti-B antibodies. I, II, and III contain red blood cells with either some A or B or both antigens, thus resulting in antibody–antigen interaction with type O serum

All of the following are true about a blood pressure of 150/60 EXCEPT: the value normally indicates the venous pressure in the arm -(Yes, 150 indicates the pressure as a consequence of ventricular contraction, the pulse pressure is 90, 60 indicates the diastolic pressure) -Blood pressure is not measured in the veins, it is routinely measured in the brachial artery (in the arm). Note that 150 mmHg indicates the systolic blood pressure when the ventricle contracts, 60 mmHg is the diastolic blood pressure during ventricular relaxation, and the pulse pressure is simply systolic minus diastolic (you will see this come up again in the AAMC's practice materials), thus 150 - 60 = 90

-A, Which of the following graphs would you expect to represent the oxygen dissociation curve for myoglobin? myoglobin will only start to release oxygen at pressures below 20 mmHg. To answer the question you must find the curve on the graph which shows the percent saturation of oxygen to be very high at oxygen partial pressures greater than 20 mmHg with a distinct lowering of the percent saturation occurring at pressures lower than 20 mmHg -The passage states that "the net effect of GBP is to shift the standard oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve . . ." (P1, S5), thus the curve may move in one direction or the other but the passage does not say that the shape of the curve is altered. Therefore, to answer this question, we only need to identify a curve with the same shape as the oxygen-binding curve (= oxygen dissociation curve) which is sigmoidal

Which of the following tissues most benefits from the shifts in the oxygen-dissociation curves caused by GBP and myoglobin? Skeletal muscle tissue -(Not, Cardiac muscle tissue, Loose connective tissue, Intestinal wall tissue) -when exposed to body tissues other than lung, in other words parts of the body with relatively low oxygen concentrations, both myoglobin (P2, S2) and hemoglobin with GBP (P1, S5) begin to release oxygen at a tremendous rate. The question can be translated thus: which of the following tissues can deplete its oxygen reserves quickest and thus would benefit most from a molecule which is used to delivering oxygen to oxygen-starved tissue? Oxygen debt can be most pronounced in skeletal muscle. Voluntary or skeletal muscle can deplete its oxygen stores so quickly that it switches to anaerobic respiration thus incurring an oxygen debt. The oxygen tension (= partial pressure = concentration) in this tissue is extremely low and will therefore benefit most from an influx of oxygen. {Note that myoglobin like myosin implies muscle}

In regions with an increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right. This is known as the Bohr effect or shift. What is the physiological significance of this shift? It facilitates the delivery of increased quantities of oxygen from the blood to cells which produce energy -(Not, It counteracts the shift in the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve caused by the presence of GBP, It counteracts the shift in the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve caused by the presence of myoglobin, It increases the pH of actively respiring tissue)

-This question reveals an interesting physiology lesson. Here is a statement you can easily deduce or should be memorized (!): an exercising muscle is acidic, hot and has a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide; an exercising muscle requires increased quantities of oxygen (= answer choice D.).

For your interest, we will examine the details: an exercising muscle is acidic because of (i) the accumulation of lactic acid and (ii) the high partial pressure of carbon dioxide which results in an increase carbonic acid. An exercising muscle is hot because of the increased metabolic rate and blood flow. Carbon dioxide is in high concentration in an exercising muscle since it is a product of aerobic respiration.

If you were to draw a sigmoidal shaped oxygen-binding curve to the right of answer choice B. in the question before last, you will notice that for a given partial pressure of oxygen, the curve shows a greater tendency to unload oxygen (= a lower oxygen saturation). Thus the exercising muscle gets increasing oxygen delivery as the curve shifts to the right

H+ + HbO2 ↔ HHb+ + O2 (tissues), The Bohr shift can also occur in response to a low pH. Under such conditions, which of the following equations best explains the Bohr shift? -if the tissue is acidic then it needs increased oxygen delivery to those tissues. Only answer choice B. delivers oxygen to the tissues.

Side note: Notice that answer choice B. also shows a proton as a reactanct which symbolizes a low pH environment. Although answer choice C. also shows a proton as a reactant, the equation does not describe a Bohr shift as there is no evidence of increased oxygen delivery to the tissues -(Not, CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3- (tissues), HCO3- + H+ ↔ H2CO3 ↔ CO2 + H2O

(lungs), HHB+ + O2 + HCO3- ↔ HBO2 + CO2 + H2O (lungs)

Sleep Waves, Psychiatric Sleep Disorders -Both longer and shorter durations of sleep are associated with a greater risk of coronary heart disease

A) Narcolepsy, Narcolepsy is one subtype of the hypersomnolence sleep disorders category from the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5). Those suffering from this pathology become drowsy, fall asleep, or feel very tired throughout the day. Around 70% of narcoleptics further suffer from cataplexy, which involves a complete loss of muscle function while remaining fully conscious of surroundings. This muscle tone loss causes the appearance of having instantly, unexpectedly, and unintentionally fallen asleep at inappropriate times and places for very short periods of time. This event may also be called a “sleep attack” and is caused by the autoimmune destruction of a neurotransmitter that regulates wakefulness (hypocretin). It usually comes about during the expression of certain emotions (e.g., laughing, screaming) B) Hypersomnia, Hypersomnia is a DSM-5 type of sleep disorder that belongs to the hypersomnolence sleep disorders category. It involves excessive nighttime sleep and day time sleepiness. Despite their long night sleep hours, individuals with hypersomnia are compelled to nap repeatedly during the day, even during an ongoing action such as work. Yet they do not experience cataplexic sleep attacks. They intentionally choose to sleep at that time of the day C) Apnea, Sleep apnea involves difficulty breathing while asleep. Although individuals who suffer from this condition may feel sleepy during the day, they do not experience cataplexic sleep attacks D) Somnambulism, Sleepwalking, or somnambulism, is a DSM-5 type of sleep disorder that belongs to the parasomnia sleep disorders category. This is a particular type of sleep disorder that is mainly characterized by motor symptoms occurring during sleep (e.g., bruxism, somnambulism). The case described involved experiencing motor symptoms (paralysis) during the day, while performing a daily action

1) Narcolepsy And Periodic Leg Movement Syndrome, Narcoleptic individuals are sleepy during the day. However, narcolepsy is a type of dyssomnia that involves sleeping for long periods of time. Secondly, periodic leg movement syndrome involves involuntary leg movements and the movement is not seemingly a reaction to an anguished dream 2) Dyssomnia And Parasomnia, Dyssomnia and parasomnia are broad sleep disorder categories, which include a variety of subtypes of sleeping problems. Their subcategories more adequately apply to the sleep disorders described 3) Insomnia And Night Terrors, In the DSM-5, insomnia is a subtype of dyssomnia. Its main symptom is difficulties falling or remaining asleep. People may have trouble in the beginning, middle, or end of their sleeping hours. The second sleep disorder described was night terrors. Night terrors are a subtype of parasomnia, more frequent in children than in adults. The individual, usually a child, will wake up very upset, crying, screaming,

or feisty (distressed arousal from sleep). It will be very difficult to calm the person down. On the following day, the person does not remember the episode 4) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder And Nightmares, Attention- deficit/hyperactivity disorder is not a sleep disorder. Moreover, nightmares do not involve physical distress at arousal and absence of recollection of the event on the following day. These symptoms are more consistent with the night terrors diagnosis than the nightmare diagnosis

During stage 4, 50% or more of the waves are delta waves, which have a frequency of 4 Hz or less. During this stage, sleep is deepest and the waves are slowest and largest in amplitude. Human growth hormone is released, boosting restorative biological processes; metabolic functions slow down; breathing becomes slow and regular; muscular activity is limited; and no dreams are thought to occur. It is very difficult to wake a person up during this stage, and the sleeper will wake up confused. Somnambulism and sleep terrors can occur

Theta waves are produced during sleep stages 1, 2, and 3; very deep relaxation; and meditative states. During stage 3, there are 50% or more theta waves, which have a frequency between 4 and 8 Hz. In stage 2, the electromagnetic phenomena of spindles and K-complexes occur

Alpha waves are emitted during awake states of overall deep relaxation, such as during meditation, hypnosis, and listening to music, and during REM and non-REM sleep stage 1. The person is conscious and feels drowsy, or experiences light sleep

Beta waves characterize the normal waking, conscious, thinking, focused, and alert psychophysiological state of consciousness. They are also produced under stressful situations and during REM

Selective sleep deprivation refers to the process of implementing or experiencing alterations in the duration and progression of cycles and their stages. This method was used to inspect the impact of such changes on memory functions and allowed for the establishment of the association between specific stages and specific memory functions, as stated in the passage. As show in Figure 1b, small amounts of alcohol affect the duration and progression of REM and NREM stages. As such, alcohol consumption most likely affects both declarative and procedural memory. This leads to selective sleep deprivation and most likely affects both procedural and declarative memory. Although not depicted in the Figure, it is also known that alcohol leads to more parasympathetic activity during the beginning of the night, which calms the body systems and leads to comatose sleep. REM sleep is suppressed in this period, as shown in Figure 1b. Later, the sympathetic nervous system becomes more active than during normal sleep (1a). People may wake up in the middle of the night, unable to fall asleep again. NREM, and principally deeper NREM (NREM 2, 3, and 4) stages are suppressed. Hence, in Figure 1b, it is shown how a greater amount of time is spent in awake states in alcohol-induced than in non- alcohol induced sleep The assumption that it would mainly affect procedural memory is based on the observation drawn from Figure 1b that alcohol consumption leads to disrupted and fewer REM phases.

While this observation is correct, alcohol consumption is also shown to affect NREM stages, and thus most likely also declarative memory

As stated in the passage, even relatively moderate amounts of alcohol can have a measurable impact on the quality of sleep and, as such, on memory functions. The amount of alcohol that was tested in the experiment depicted in the Figure was 0.5 liter

If only declarative memory was affected, this would stem from a lack of NREM cycles

Commodification of Sleep, Material factors such as income influence how we negotiate sleep with ourselves and others Commodification means that an item, action, or process that previously had no relevance in economic terms is assigned an economic value. When people perceive that there is a trade-off between sleeping and income gain, sleep operates as a commodified good; people start exchanging sleep for money. This exemplifies what is stated in the passage about how material factors can affect how sleep is negotiated with ourselves and others

The passage mentions that disruptions in REM and NREM sleep can negatively affect memory functions. This was related to the biological impact of sleep deprivation, rather than the commodification discourse

The regulation of sleeping times through alarm clocks rather than through the availability of daylight itself is not an argument that supports the hypothesis that sleep becomes commodified. This practice alone might not be related to economic considerations but based on technological inventions that free human beings from the dependence on natural light

As stated in the passage, the practice of inemuri is performed to show commitment. That is, the gain is being regarded by others as a committed worker. No reference was made to existing economic gains that would point toward the use of this practice as a commodified good. Albeit possibly existing, this was not what was stated drinks heavily on Friday night? That person: A. falls asleep quickly. However, REM sleep is disrupted. Thus, emotional regulation, memory retrieval processes, and concentration difficulties are experienced the following day.

Alcohol, when consumed close to sleep time, can help a person fall asleep more quickly because of its sedative effects. Therefore, in the first stage of sleep, the drinker actually sleeps better. However, after the second stage of sleep, REM sleep is disrupted. Over time, the lack of REM sleep can affect a person’s concentration and memory. It can also reduce their optimism and their emotional regulation abilities in such way that grumpiness or anger bursts may be observed

Although he does fall asleep quickly because of the alcohol, REM sleep is negatively impacted and disrupted

Because alcohol has a sedative effect, insomnia should not occur

Alcohol has a sedative effect; however, it only helps the person to sleep better in the first half of sleep – not throughout the night. Also, the following day one does not commonly feel refreshed and ready to work

Someone sleeping in a dorm was suddenly woken up while in stage 3 of sleep. They would likely be, very disoriented and sluggish. They would take a long while to react to the noise appropriately

Stage 3 of sleep is characterized by deep, slow-wave, delta, or Non- Rapid Eye Movement (NREM) sleep. It typically starts 35-45 minutes after falling asleep, and repeats in approximately one hour and a half cycles. .People’s metabolism is slowed down since stage 2, and persists throughout NREM stages. When woken, they are very disoriented. It can take them up to 10 minutes to fully realize what is happening around them

Stage 3 of sleep is a deep NREM stage, and they would not be alert. It is during stage 1, characterized by Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep, that one can feel that one was “just resting the eyes” and wake up to a state of full alertness and orientation

Individuals’ bloodshot eyes are not characteristic of Stage 3 of sleep or of even of REM stage 1

Body temperature does not decrease in Stage 3 of sleep; it decreases in stage 2 alongside the rate of other metabolic functions

An EEG involves applying sensors or electrodes to the scalp of the person; it then registers the brain’s electrical (vs. electromagnetic) activity in terms of voltage fluctuations. These electrical signal changes result from the ionic current flows occurring within neuronal tissues and between neurons. Whenever the brain is active, electrical activity is registered. The recordings in Figure 2 show small waves, with smaller amplitude that those in Figure 1. This is typical of REM, waking, and light-sleep stages (non-REM stage 1 or 2)

Electromagnetic activity is measured via magnetoencephalography (MEG), not EEG. This is a more recent method, with greater millisecond to millisecond temporal precision than the EEG. In addition, only Figure 2 could possibly illustrate REM activity. The waves in Figure 1 are large, with greater amplitude. These are usually registered during deep or slow-wave sleep (non-REM stage 3 or 4)

REM consolidates, at a synaptic level, memories created during that day’s awake period. NREM stage 2 consolidates memories at a system level

Wakefulness (process C) is regulated by circadian rhythms. It progressively alternates with sleep (process S), which is a homeostatic drive

Metabolic stress triggers degenerative processes. Sleep counteracts such effects

It is known that a sleep cycle is composed of REM and non-REM periods. REM lasts about 10 minutes and NREM an average of 70 to 120 minutes. NREM stages, from 1 to 4, show increasing depth or increased wave amplitude. The information disclosed in the option does not amount to an interpretation of gathered evidence, and thus can hardly be regarded as a hypothesis or theory. It also does not discuss sleep functions, as requested in the question

Memory consolidation hypothesis suggests that learning processes are supported by REM stage, via the synaptic consolidation of memories, and NREM stage 2, via systemic consolidation. For example, sleep deprivation studies showed it leads to marked performance decline. Such decline is thought to result from an inability to consolidate memories when unable to sleep. Yet little direct evidence has been gathered to support such interpretation. For this reason, it remains a theory

The two-process model is a physiological hypothesis that aims at explaining physiological differences that occur during a 24-hour cycle. It proposes that S (sleep processes) progressively alternates with C (awake processes). When C is progressively activated due to the influence of circadian rhythms, the less known S, regulated by homeostatic processes, is progressively shut down. This alternating cycle would be repeated approximately in 24-hour cycles and affect the body’s cyclical concentration of hormones and neurotransmitters. There is not sufficient evidence to support this model, and, as such, it remains a theory

The neuroregenerative metabolic theory still lacks irrefutable supporting evidence. For this reason, it remains a theory. It argues that in certain animals, for example those that hibernate under harsh environments and in individuals with diseases such as Alzheimer and Parkinson, there exists marked metabolic stress. Sleep would be triggered to set in motion regenerative and energy conservation processes, and thereby compensate the additional energy expenditure. It has been criticized for failing to explain why infants in non-harsh environments sleep more than adults

Hallucinations are sense-perceptions that are not provoked by actual external stimuli. By definition, hypnagogic hallucinations occur during the transition between a relaxed, alert, awake state of consciousness and the first sleep stage. Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid and realistic misperceptions that may involve any sense (auditory, visual, tactile, etc.). Common hypnogogic hallucinations revolve around the experiences of floating or seeing loved ones

Hallucinations are a common psychotic symptom. However, the particular case of hypnagogic hallucinations is not considered a sign of psychosis

Dreams can be regarded as hallucinations. However, by definition, dreams occur during the REM sleep stage, while hypnagogic hallucinations occur before falling fully asleep

Desert mirages can be regarded as hallucinations. However, these are natural, visual, light- induced phenomena that can be photographed and occur in desertlike environments (as opposed to particular sleep stages)

Biochemistry Cycles

Oxidative phosphorylation, the process in which ATP is formed as electrons are transferred from electron carriers to oxygen Glycolysis, the process in which ATP is formed as glucose is converted into pyruvate Glycolysis To Krebs Cycle, the process in which ATP is formed as pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA Krebs Cycle, the process in which ATP is formed as acetyl CoA is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide

-acetyl CoA, the most important metabolic link for energy production is:

CADET Face Right, Shift The Curve To The Right -CO2, Acid, 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature

-The most important link for energy production is Acetyl-CoA because it is the main entrance point to the Krebs cycle [and thus to the electron transport chain (ETC) which follows Krebs]. Recall that anaerobic glycolysis in animal cells produces 2 net ATP per glucose molecule while the Krebs cycle produces 2 GTP (= equivalent to 2 ATP) directly and ATPs indirectly through reducing equivalents which will undergo oxidative phosphorylation. Since Acetyl CoA is the entry point for the Krebs cycle, it is the most important link for energy production

-In animal cells, one mole of glucose initially produces a total of 8 ATPs [2 net ATP directly 2 NADH (recall that 1 NADH => 3 ATPs during oxidative phosphorylation)]. In turn, the conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA produces 6 ATP (via 2 NADH) and finally the Krebs cycle produces the remaining 24 ATPs [2 GTP 2 FADH (recall that 1 FADH => 2 ATPs during oxidative phosphorylation) 6 NADH], for a total of 38 ATPs per mole of glucose (net = 36 ATP). Therefore, the Krebs cycle produces the most ATP (indirectly). The hydrolysis of glycogen (a polymer of glucose-phosphate) produces mainly glucose-phosphate monomers and the (leftover) glycogen polymer

-glycogenesis is the creation of glycogen, while glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen into one molecule of glucose-6-phosphate and the remaining glycogen strand. Both have use for glucose-1-phosphate. In glycogenesis, glucose-6-phosphate is converted to glucose-1- phosphate at the beginning of the pathway. In glycogenolysis, the first step involves cleaving the terminal glucose residue, which results in glucose-1-phosphate. In order for cells to use this molecule in glycolysis, it must first be converted to glucose-6-phosphate

A) Glycogenesis And Gluconeogenesis B) Glycogenesis And Glycogenolysis C) Glycolysis And Gluconeogenesis

Pentose Phosphate Pathway, Nearly All Cellular NADPH A) The PPP relies on the availability of NADP+

B) The PPP enables excess ribose to be metabolized. C) The PPP has an irreversible oxidative section and a reversible nonoxidative phase. -The PPP produces ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide and nucleic acid synthesis, and for coenzymes such as NAD and FAD. The pathway also supplies NADPH for reductive biosyntheses and it is a route for excess pentose sugars to be brought into the mainstream of glucose metabolism.

The pathway has two main parts. The first is the irreversible oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate to ribose-5-phosphate while NADP+ is reduced to NADPH and the rate-limiting reaction is catalyzed by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Control of this part of the pathway is mainly by the availability of NADP+, as opposed to the availability of NADPH (i.e. answer choice B is incorrect). The other part of the pentose phosphate pathway is made up of reversible nonoxidative reactions that interconvert sugars according to the cell's needs using the enzymes transketolase and transaldolase the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is correct? -The PPP supplies ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH in the quantities the cells require

-In the folate pathway, based on the information in the passage, 5-MTHF is a: Metabolic end- product

Glycogenolysis, Glucose-1-phosphate is converted to glucose-6-phosphate during which of the following processes?

Glycogenesis starts with glucose-6-phosphate -> glucose-1-phosphate, whereas the opposite procedure—glycogenolysis—ends with the reverse, which means glucose-1-phosphate -> glucose-6-phosphate (which can then be fed into glycolysis for energy production in muscle cells; or in liver cells, the phosphate group is removed and the free glucose can leave the cell for use elsewhere in the body). The interconversion (in either direction) of glucose-1-phosphate <-> glucose-6-phosphate is catalyzed by the enzyme phosphoglucomutase

Glycogenolysis (= the lysis or breakdown of glycogen): The breakdown of glycogen (n) to glucose-1-phosphate and glycogen (n-1), by phosphorolysis. Glycogenolysis is important in the fight-or-flight response and the regulation of glucose levels in the blood. Regulation: glucagon and insulin, and stimulated by epinephrine during the fight-or-flight response.

Gluconeogenesis: Fructose-6-phosphate -> glucose-6-phosphate -> glucose

Glycolysis (the lysis, or breakdown of glucose): Glucose -> glucose-6-phosphate -> fructose-6- phosphate

Glycogenesis (the genesis or creation of glycogen): The process of glycogen synthesis, in which glucose molecules are added to chains of glycogen for storage. The process is activated during rest periods following the Cori cycle, in the liver, and also activated by insulin in response

to high glucose levels. Glucose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate by the action of glucokinase or hexokinase. Glucose-6-phosphate is converted into glucose-1-phosphate by the action of phosphoglucomutase. Glucose-1-phosphate is converted into UDP-glucose by the action of the enzyme UDP-glucose phosphorylase.

Pentose phosphate pathway (not asked): Glucose-6-phosphate -> 6-phosphogluconolactone (no involvement of glucose-1-phosphate)

-Active Riboflavin Acts As A Coenzyme

The order related to the production of urine in the nephron: Glomerulus → Bowman’s capsule → proximal convoluted tubule → loop of Henle (descending → ascending) → distal convoluted tubule → collecting duct (urine)

The force of hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus (the force of pressure exerted from the pressure in the blood vessel itself) is the driving force that pushes filtrate out of the capillaries and into Bowman’s capsule

Embryogenesis: fertilization --> (2) cleavage --> (3) blastulation --> (4) gastrulation --> (5) neurulation

-the pronuclei (egg + sperm) formed in (1) undergoes (2) to produce a morula consisting of up to 16 blastomeres. The morula develops into a blastocyst, consisting of a fluid filled cavity (= blastocoel), during (3). The three primary germ layers are formed during (4) and the neural tube is formed during (5). Based on the passage, the cell cluster implanted into the uterus, which consists of two to eight cells, is the morula (consisting of two to eight blastomeres)

DNA Replication, Nonsense Mutations 1) Point mutation is a change affecting a single base pair in a gene 2) Deletion is the removal of a sequence of DNA, the regions on either side being joined together 3) Inversion is the reversal of a segment of DNA 4) Translocation is when one chromosome breaks and attaches to another 5) Duplication is when a sequence of DNA is repeated 6) Frame shift mutations occur when bases are added or deleted in numbers other than multiples of three. Such deletions or additions cause the rest of the sequence to be shifted such that each triplet reading frame is altered

-the electrically neutral form of glutamic acid (i.e. the zwitterion at the isoelectric point, pI) is midway between the two lowest pKa's

High Basic Ph, More Electrons, Deprotonated Low Acidic Ph, More Protons, Deelectrified

1) Positive Feedback 2) Negative Feedback the Km to be raised, but the Vmax to remain the same -Competitive inhibitors bind to free enzyme only, raising the Km value, but not the Vmax. At high enough concentrations of substrate, the enzyme can still be saturated, which is why the maximum velocity is not affected. However, the higher the concentration of inhibitor, the more substrate is required for half-saturation. Thus, the Km value increases.

-Going Deeper: The Lineweaver–Burk plot (see below) has a characteristic form dependent on the form of inhibition. Note that competitive inhibitors have the same y-intercept as uninhibited enzyme (the inverse of Vmax does not change, because Vmax is unaffected by competitive inhibitors), but there are different slopes and x-intercepts between the data sets. Noncompetitive inhibition produces plots with the same x-intercept as uninhibited enzyme (because Km is unaffected) but different slopes and y-intercepts

The illustration suggests that D binds to an allosteric site which changes the confirmation of the active site such that the substrate can no longer bind (i.e. does not fit, no affinity). The preceding describes allosteric regulation (specifically, negative allosteric modulation) by an allosteric inhibitor called a ‘negative effector’. A ‘positive effector’ (allosteric activator) binds to the allosteric site to stabilize the more active form of the enzyme and thus enhance enzyme activity.

An uncompetitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme-substrate complex but D binds before that step can occur. A competitive inhibitor competes with the substrate for access to the enzyme's active site (i.e. it would not bind to an allosteric site like D does in the illustration).

Going Deeper: Of course, an enzyme inhibitor is a molecule that binds to an enzyme and decreases its activity. Since blocking an enzyme's activity can kill a pathogen (bacteria, virus, fungi, etc.) or correct a metabolic imbalance, many drugs are enzyme inhibitors.

Competitive inhibition: the substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time. Typically, the inhibitor has an affinity for the active site of an enzyme where the substrate also binds; the substrate and inhibitor compete for access to the enzyme's active site. This type of inhibition can be overcome by high enough concentrations of substrate (Vmax remains constant), i.e., by out-competing the inhibitor. However, the apparent Km will increase as it takes a higher concentration of the substrate to reach the Km point, or half the Vmax. Competitive inhibitors are often similar in structure to the real substrate.

Uncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds only to the substrate-enzyme complex, it must not be confused with non-competitive inhibitors! Uncompetitive inhibition causes Vmax to decrease (maximum velocity decreases as a result of removing the activated complex) and Km to decrease (due to better binding efficiency as a result of Le Chatelier's principle and the effective elimination of the ES complex thus decreasing the Km which indicates a higher binding affinity).

Non-competitive inhibition (which was not tested in this question but assumed knowledge for the new exam): the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its activity but does not affect the binding of substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the concentration of the inhibitor. Vmax will decrease due to the inability for the reaction to proceed as efficiently, but Km will remain the same as the actual binding of the substrate, by definition, will still function properly.

Mixed inhibition (also not required for this question but presented for completeness as it is also assumed knowledge): in this case, the inhibitor can bind to the enzyme at the same time as the enzyme's substrate. However, the binding of the inhibitor affects the binding of the substrate, and vice versa. This type of inhibition can be reduced, but not overcome by increasing concentrations of substrate. Although it is possible for mixed-type inhibitors to bind in the active site, this type of inhibition generally results from an allosteric effect where the inhibitor (i.e. molecule D) binds to a different site on an enzyme. Inhibitor binding to this allosteric site changes the conformation (i.e., tertiary structure or three-dimensional shape; see the illustration in the question stem) of the enzyme so that the affinity of the substrate for the active site is reduced

Greater Than Km, Inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by an uncompetitive inhibitor is more prominent when the substrate concentration is which of the following?

Uncompetitive inhibition, also known as anti-competitive inhibition, takes place when an enzyme inhibitor binds only to the complex formed between the enzyme and the substrate (the E-S complex). Hence, when substrate concentration is high and greater than Km, they are more likely to form E-S complex and be affected by the inhibitor.

A different Km value but the same Vmax value, If the inhibitors were acting as purely reversible competitive inhibitors, then compared to the kinetics of the enzyme without an inhibitor, they would theoretically result in which of the following? -A competitive inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active site of the enzyme, so increasing the concentration of substrate will decrease the chance of inhibitor binding to the enzyme. So if the substrate concentration is high enough the enzyme will reach the same Vmax as without the inhibitor. However, it will require a higher substrate concentration, so the Km of the enzyme will also be higher

The ability of potassium ions to act as allosteric regulators of the pump resulted in the higher ubiquinone reductase activity -Allosteric regulation of enzyme activity involves conformational changes due to the binding to a partner, which could be another protein or a cofactor. Metal ions often serve as cofactors during the allosteric regulation of enzyme activity. From the passage, we learn that a series of conformational changes within subunits exposing ion-binding sites of the pump control the flow of electrons, which reflects the catalytic activity of the pump. In other words, the ion binding to its respective subunit would induce conformational changes leading to allosteric regulation of enzyme activity. From that, we can conclude that potassium ions may serve as allosteric regulators of the pump by binding to it and inducing conformational changes required for successful electron flow.

-Side note: Potassium is below sodium in the first group of the periodic table and is thus a bigger atom the mechanism of allosteric control of enzyme activity is correct? Allosteric enzymes show greater sensitivity to changes in substrate concentration compared to classical type enzymes with hyperbolic kinetics

-Allosteric enzymes are multi-subunit proteins which have allosteric sites ('allo' means other) separate from the active site to which bind allosteric modifiers (activators or inhibitors). These cause conformational changes in the enzyme, giving sigmoidal kinetics rather than the hyperbolic kinetics of classical enzymes. This affects the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate and hence the activity of the enzyme. An allosteric activator increases the affinity whereas an

inhibitor decreases it. The sigmoid kinetics means that over a critical range, the enzyme is more sensitive to changes in substrate concentration than is the case for those with hyperbolic kinetics.

-myoglobin is associated with a hyperbolic curve and hemoglobin is associated with a sigmoidal curve

A) Vestibular System, The sensory system in charge of spatial orientation, and formed by the utricle, saccule, and three semicircular canals B) Auditory System, Although the structures identified are also part of the auditory system, it is not the latter that is the sensory system in charge of balance and spatial orientation. The relationship between the two systems is at best indirect. This is because only some people with hearing problems also have balance problems; not everyone experiences simultaneously damage to both. C) Otolithic System, The term otolithic system is not used. Moreover, the otoliths are three oval calcareous structures located in the saccule and utricle of the inner ear. They are sensitive to gravity and acceleration, not to spatial orientation D) Cochlear System, The cochlea is also located in the inner ear. It receives auditory information and sends it to the nervous system. It is part of the auditory system; the term cochlear system is also not used

1) The hippocampus and the medial temporal lobe are thought to be more important to the formation of declarative (vs. procedural) memories 2) The cerebellum and the striatum are more important for the formation of procedural (vs. declarative) memories 3) Although it does not apply to every type of long-term potentiation, the maxim is that "cells that fire together wire together.”

Core Symptoms In The DSM-5 1) Depressive States, Anhedonia, feelings of worthlessness, feelings of sadness, weight loss, and insomnia 2) Psychotic States, Psychomotor agitation, paranoia, isolation, aggressiveness, and incoherent speech

-Historically, neurosis (e.g., anxiety-disorders) and psychosis (e.g., schizophrenia spectrum disorders) are the two main groups of psychological disorders. Neurosis involves distress but not delusion, and psychosis involves delusion and hallucination. This distinction was proposed by psychoanalytic theories and the one adopted in the first Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) of psychiatric disorders. Neither concept is a structural component of people’s psyche in any existing psychoanalytic theories.

-Schizophrenia is the name given to one of Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders listed in DSM-5. It normally manifests itself in adolescence or early adulthood, and symptoms include partial disorganization of personality functions, a tendency to withdraw into a subjective world of ideas, and a general loss of reality testing. Schizophrenia differs from other mental illnesses of definite organic origin in that it does not involve dementia or loss of memory and orientation. It is not usually opposed to “normality” because there are many non- schizophrenia-like mental disorders. For Carl Jung, Freud’s theory failed to conceptualize “normality” or “normal” personalities. Yet both Jung and Anna Freud, two prominent psychoanalytic theorists, dedicated themselves to the study of what normality is. Neither concept is a structural component of people’s psyche in any existing psychoanalytic theories

-The ISF is the fluid outside the blood vessels while the blood plasma is the fluid within the blood vessels. Thus, the two fluids are separated by the wall of the blood vessels (i.e. the capillary wall). The ICF of the cells bathing in the ISF are separated from their environment by the cell surface membrane

-Cl- ions from both sides of the membrane would diffuse across the membrane, but would stop net movement once the electrochemical gradient no longer existed

-At equilibrium, [K+x] > [K+y]; a likely explanation for this is that: some K+ moved with the negatively charged Cl- across the membrane from Y to X some K+ moved with the negatively charged Cl- across the membrane from Y to X -Proteins spanning the plasma membrane contain hydrophobic regions (mostly uncharged, neutral molecules), which tend to associate with the hydrophobic lipid bilayer, and hydrophilic regions (mostly charged or polar molecules), which tend to associate with the inside or outside hydrophilic environment of the cell. In order for a protein to rotate through the plane of the bilayer, hydrophilic regions would have to traverse the hydrophobic bilayer. As a rule, interactions of this nature (hydrophobic-hydrophilic) are energetically unfavorable electrostatic in nature, Some peripheral proteins are bound to the membrane due to interactions with the integral membrane proteins -It is unlikely that weak forces, such as Van Der Waal's, would provide the stable protein-protein interaction needed to anchor a protein to the plasma membrane. On the other hand, covalent bonds occur intramolecularly as opposed to intermolecularly, eliminating answer choice C. We would not expect a peripheral protein or the portion of an integral protein facing the extracellular fluid to be hydrophobic, because of the hydrophilic nature of the fluid (see previous question/answer). This leaves us with answer choice B.; the interactions are likely to occur between a charged (hydrophilic) portion of the integral protein with the charged portion of the peripheral protein to allow the protein to act as a receptor for hormones regulating intracellular reactions -The main effect of the transmembrane association of fibronectin with the cytoskeletal microfilament -Since the mobility of the proteins in the phospholipid is restricted (P2, L3-L4), answer choice A.'s statement of freely diffusable proteins is incorrect. In addition, answer choices B. and D. can be discounted because the anchoring of a transmembrane receptor to proteins on either side of the membrane should not have substantial effects on the fluidity or surface area of the membrane. The main result of such interactions is the formation of a system that allows transduction of a signal from the outside of the cell, caused by a molecule binding to the receptor, to the inside of the cell, where the signal is usually amplified to produce intracellular changes

In muscle cells, the actin filaments are: thin and associated with the proteins troponin and tropomyosin

Bladder, A radioactive element is injected into a patient which preferentially accumulates in parasympathetic ganglia. Where will the signal be the highest? -The parasympathetic fibers travel mainly through the vagus nerves and the anterior roots of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. They are not as extensively distributed in the body as the sympathetic fibers and their ganglia (= collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS, eliminating answer choice B.) are located near or within the visceral organs. From the answer choices provided, the bladder is the only organ innervated by the parasympathetic system. Recall that the parasympathetic system is important in the 'vegetative responses' of the body

Determination, The process by which cells in the developing embryo become committed to a specific outcome is called: During the process of differentiation, a cell specializes into a committed or determined cell via a mechanism called induction. Cleavage, the stage in embryogenesis following fertilization, occurs much earlier than differentiation

Phospholipid Bilayer, In which of the following cellular components would the greatest proportion of glycoproteins be expected? The passage gives various functions of glycoproteins. The question asks which of the cellular components has characteristics that would suit the special functions of a glycoprotein. A phospholipid bilayer is a membrane, and one of the functions of the oligosaccharide attached to a protein is to anchor the protein to a membrane

Golgi Apparatus: Oligosaccharide modification most likely occurs in the: Synthesis, transfer of precursor oligosaccharide to protein, and initial trimming of precursor oligosaccharide occurs in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (i.e. an important site of protein synthesis). Subsequent processing and modification of the oligosaccharide chain is carried out in the Golgi apparatus

Covalent Bonds, Glycoprotein formation would be most affected by treating a protein with an agent which destroyed its: -(Not hydrophobic bonds, Van der Waals bonds, electrostatic bonds) -the glycoprotein is formed by attaching carbohydrate groups through covalent bonds. Therefore, to interfere with this formation, an agent that destroys these covalent bonds is needed

If a base mutation occurred in cells so that all the hydroxylysine residues were replaced by asparagine residues in the amino acid side chains, which of the following would result? Protein recognition would be impossible -(Not Glycoprotein formation would cease, The strength of loose connective tissue might be affected, Protein folding could not occur)

-collagen involves a disaccharide linked to hydroxylysine. If all hydroxylysine residues are replaced by asparagine, the function of collagen is sure to be affected. It is necessary to know from the biology review that collagen is an important component of the loose connective tissue in order to correctly answer the question. It is possible, however, to narrow down the options. One function of the oligosaccharide part of the glycoprotein is to aid in recognition

The initial generation of a nerve impulse as a result of depolarization, Which of the following processes would be LEAST affected by a reduction in a cell's ability to produce glycolipids? -Given that glycolipids are a critical component in membranes, including myelin sheaths (P4), and all four answer choices involve cellular events which involve the plasma membrane, the real question becomes: which of the following processes relies least on the glycolipid part of the plasma membrane. The initial generation of a nerve impulse depends on the activity of membrane channels which are proteins

Schwann Cells, the functions of which of the following cells or cellular components would be most affected by an irregularity in glycolipid production? -glycolipids are found in abundance on the surface of nerve cells, as part of the myelin sheath. To answer the question, knowledge about the structure of neurons is required. Fibers lying in grooves on the surface of the neurolemma of glial cells are unmyelinated. Nodes of Ranvier are unmyelinated spaces between myelin sheaths. Cell bodies of neurons are not covered by a myelin sheath. Schwann cells themselves make up the myelin sheath and will thus be most affected by any irregularity in glycolipid production

Tumor lymphangiogenesis, the formation of lymphatic vessels around the tumor

Signal Proteins, Vascular endothelial growth factor would be best identified in which of the following categories?

The Expression of Genes, In general terms, what is the primary genetic difference between a hepatocyte and a muscle cell?

Fertilisation, which of the following steps of a normal sexual developmental sequence is abolished in the process of cloning?

Blastulation, Implantation of the developing embryo into the uterine lining occurs during:

Glycogen, fat, protein: In which order of priority are the human body's nutrient stores utilized for energy production during fasting and subsequent starvation?

Which of the following is NOT true of the different kinds of RNA in eukaryotes? They all contain codons -Single Stranded, Uracil, Adenine, There are 3 types of RNA: (1) ribosomal RNA (rRNA); (2) messenger RNA (mRNA) and (3) transfer RNA (tRNA). RNA is a single-stranded polymer made

up of four bases, namely uracil, adenine, guanine and cytosine. Only mRNA can contain a codon, a genetic code consisting of three base pairs that can be translated by the cellular machinery into an amino acid during protein synthesis

-Redox reactions are chemical reactions during which atoms change their oxidation states by transferring electrons between different species. Oxidation reactions involve the loss of an electron by a molecule and the reduction reaction would result in a gain of an electron by a molecule. The molecule that donates or loses electrons is being oxidized, while the molecule that accepts electrons is being reduced. Since NADH provides electrons in the first step of the electron transport chain in the Na+-NQR pump, NADH is losing electrons therefore it is being oxidized. Answer choice D may sound correct because NADH indeed gives away a proton during the oxidation process; however, it is the loss of electrons, which oxidizes NADH

Spleen Functions -Filters damaged red blood cells, Filters bacteria, Stores erythrocytes -The spleen contains white pulp and red pulp. While the white pulp contains leukocytes which filter red blood cells as well as foreign particles, the red pulp stores erythrocytes. It does not, however, produce platelets which are formed from fragments of large bone marrow cells or magakaryocytes the phosphorus became incorporated into the DNA component of the phages and the sulfur into their protein component, The DNA double helix is composed of a sugar- phosphate backbone from which bases extend towards the center of the helix. Although amino acids in proteins do not contain phosphate, there are 2 amino acids whose side chains contain the sulfur atom. Therefore, if the bacteriophage enter the bacterial cell to replicate (= form progeny) in a medium containing labelled sulfur and phosphate molecules, we would expect the phosphate and sulfur atoms to be incorporated into DNA and protein components, respectively

A glycosidic bond is a covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate molecule and any other group, both carbohydrate and non-carbohydrate. Figure 1 shows us that pNP-β-cellobioside has two glycosidic bonds, and we know from the passage that Os1BGlu4 can catalyze the hydrolysis of any glycosidic bond. Thus the reaction would yield 3 fragments

The passage identifies Os1BGlu4 as a hydrolase. A hydrolase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of a chemical bond, which includes phosphatases, proteases, and esterases. Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars, and is thus a glycoside hydrolase (side note: it is found in saliva, being the first stage of chemical digestion, as well as in pancreatic juice).

‘Transferase’ is the general name for the class of enzymes that transfer specific functional groups (e.g. a methyl or glycosyl group, i.e. glycosyltransferase from answer choice B) from one molecule (the donor) to another (the acceptor)

Radio Waves, Which of the following types of radiation has a longer wavelength than infrared radiation? Visible light, Ultraviolet radiation, Gamma rays

-The electromagnetic spectrum from longer to shorter wavelength goes as follows: radiowaves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays. -Side Note: Long wavelengths = low frequency, and low frequency = low energy. Radio waves are low energy waves. -The velocity v = (frequency)(wavelength) so when the medium/environment is the same (constant velocity) then longer wavelengths have lower frequencies. -The energy of a wave = (Planck's constant)(frequency) so low frequency = low energy

-Since both sulfur and carbon have the same electronegativity, there is an even charge distribution and, as a result, no permanent dipole. Since there is no dipole, there is no absorption of infrared

-The Melting Point of Water Would Decrease, Increase Pressure -The negative slope of the solid-liquid equilibrium curve in the phase diagram depicts that increasing the pressure causes a decrease in the melting point (temperature)

NH3, Similar Phase Diagram To Water -Ammonia, like water, is a polar molecule. Ammonia possesses a partially negative nitrogen atom and a partially positive hydrogen atom. Thus ammonia exhibits hydrogen bonding, which is the basis for the negative slope of the solid-liquid equilibrium curve in the phase diagram for water

Colligative Properties, From the equation Tb = KBm, where KB is constant, "m" or the molality is the factor to be considered. Recall that m = (Number of moles solute)/(1000 g solvent) and number of moles = (Mass of substance present)/(Relative molecular mass). Since glucose has a smaller relative molecular mass than sucrose, there will be a greater number of moles of glucose present when equal masses of the two substances are used. Therefore, the molality of glucose is greater and hence the boiling point elevation is greater

Methods To Prevent Overheating, Not Adding A Nucleophile, Boiling chips, Boiling slowly, Adding a vacuum -Overheating may destroy the pure compounds or increase the percent impurities. Some of the methods which are classically used to prevent overheating include boiling slowly, the use of boiling chips (= ebulliator, which makes bubbles) and the use of a vacuum which decreases the vapor pressure and thus the boiling point. A nucleophile could only create unwanted products and thus prevent the isolation of a pure product from the original mixture.

-Going Deeper: Boiling chips, or boiling stones, are small chunks of inert material. A few are added to a liquid before it is heated and they tend to promote steady, even boiling. In theory, a liquid should boil when it is heated at its boiling point. The temperature should remain constant because the excess heat is dissipated in overcoming the heat of vaporization required to move

liquid molecules into the gas phase. In practice, spontaneous formation of gas bubbles within the liquid can be slow which could lead to super-heating and ultimately, large violent bubbles. Boiling chips produce small gas bubbles where the liquid molecules can evaporate and initiate boiling at a steady even rate

Hydrogen Bonding, The students were able to separate ethyl acetate from 1-butanol because of the difference in boiling points of these 2 compounds. This difference is most likely attributed to which of the following factors? -Alcohols (1-butanol) have a partially negatively charged oxygen and a partially positively charged hydrogen which can engage in hydrogen bonding which increases the boiling point. Esters (ethyl acetate) have a partially negative oxygen but no partially positive hydrogen so no hydrogen bonding -ethyl acetate must have the lower boiling point because of the lack of hydrogen bonding

Not They have β linkages, Both maltose and cellobiose share certain features in common. Which of the following is NOT consistent with both molecules? They are carbohydrates, They have the same molecular formula, They are dimers

According to the experimental observations, it seems that the basis for the selectivity of attack of the methoxide ion on the epoxide ring is: on the carbon atom that is the least sterically hindered

A Strong Base, Given that Reaction 1 and 2 have very large Keq values, which of the following can be predicted regarding the methoxide anion?

SN2 reaction, Based on the reaction products and on the kinetic studies, the mechanism for the reaction of the methoxide ion and the epoxide most resembles a (an):

Which of the following changes to the axon would increase the capacitance? Increasing the membrane surface area

Resistance Decreases, How does the total resistance change with longitudinal distance along the axon?

In the presence of a metabolic poison that specifically and completely inhibits the function of mitochondrial ATP synthase, which of the following would you expect to occur? An increase in the pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane -ATP synthase is the motor that converts ADP to ATP by using the chemical energy (chemiosmosis) of allowing protons in the intermembrane space (where they are in higher concentration) go down their concentration gradient to enter the mitochondrial matrix. Blocking this event means that less protons enter the matrix and so the difference in concentration of protons on either side of the inner mitochondrial membrane is higher

Remain The Same, A student observes that when an ice cube floats in a glass of water, part of the ice cube projects above the surface of the water. When the ice cube melts, the level of the water surface will: -The object displaces an amount of water equal to its weight when it is floating. Thus, if the object were to change state, since its mass remains constant, the level of the water would remain constant

The plaque formations vibrate at a resonant frequency equal to the frequency of the ultrasonic waves. Using ultrasound waves targeted at the brain, a team of researchers restored memory to mice with symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. The ultrasound technique removed amyloid beta plaques from the brains of the mice. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why ultrasonic waves break apart plaque formations? -The frequency of the ultrasonic waves must be equal to or is an integral multiple of the natural frequency of the plaque formations. As a result the plaque formations resonate when forced to vibrate by the ultrasonic waves; the amplitude of vibrations of the plaques are such that they break apart/shatter like a wine glass does in response to a resonant frequency

FeO4-2, Most Oxidised Form of Iron (+6) Fe3+, Strongest Oxidising Agent -Oxidizing agent is the ion that receives electrons and undergoes a reduction. Here we can see that Fe3+ have the highest oxidation number, and can receive 3 electrons to be reduced to Fe. Therefore, this makes Fe3+ the strongest oxidizing agent

Morphine Rules, X Cannot Be Hydrogen -An opioid must have at least 15 carbons, Additional functional groups are essential for morphine-like effects, The 2 carbons in the linker must both be secondary positions.

If X were hydrogen (H), then the carbon in (b) could not be quaternary and the nitrogen in (d) could not be tertiary. Background information: A primary position is where the atom is attached to one carbon. A secondary position is where the atom is attached to two carbons. A tertiary position is where the atom is attached to three carbons. A quaternary position is where the atom is attached to four carbons.

Morphine, Greatest Solubility In Water

By blocking sodium channels, mexiletine is able to decrease the frequency of action potentials by: decreasing the repolarization phase, the kinetics of diffusion would likely remain the same

It would be drastically reduced, A second experiment was carried out with the addition of an ionophore that increases the permeability of the cell membrane, allowing monovalent cations to travel freely through the membrane. How might this affect the cells' action potential?

-The addition of a monovalent ionophore would allow the unrestricted passage of Na+ and K+ through the membrane, thus heavily decreasing the ion gradient between the intra- and extracellular environments. It would likely not destroy it completely, as divalent cations (especially Ca2+) would help maintain the gradient, but the resulting action potentially would be greatly reduced a second substance, which acts by increasing the uptake of K+ in skeletal muscles, lowering the extracellular concentration of K+ and causing: the membrane potential to become more negative -The concentration of K+ is much higher inside the cell than outside, leading to the negative membrane potential. An increased uptake, and likely accumulation, of K+ would cause the membrane potential to be even more negative (hyperpolarization). This hyperpolarization would increase the threshold for depolarization. It would not cause an efflux of chlorine, which already exists in higher concentrations outside the cell membrane-impermeable anions, The concentration of potassium ions inside resting cells is relatively similar to that of sodium ions outside the cell. The negatively-charged intracellular membrane can be partly explained by the presence of: -Membrane-impermeable anions, such as proteins and other molecules, line the inside of cell membranes, drawn by the positively-charged sodium ions in the extracellular space. Chlorine ions are present in high concentrations outside of the cell, often as sodium chloride ions, which make answer choice B incorrect

-an inversion involves a segment of the chromosome breaking off, rotating, and reinserting itself. Thus, you can visualize that the gene segment, EFGH, has flipped. And since the inversion did not include the centromere, that is the centromere was located outside of the inversion, it is paracentric

Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death that can occur in multicellular organisms. The proteins involved in apoptosis are associated with pathways for cell cycle arrest and DNA repair. These processes are mostly regulated through the interplay of various proteins involved in feedback loops

Calcitonin Secretion, A certain compound has been found to strengthen bone by increasing calcium deposition in the bones. This compound would most likely stimulate which of the following? -what is responsible for increasing calcium in the bones. Of the 4 possible choices, only calcitonin would have such an effect, making answer choice B the correct answer. Calcitonin, which is secreted by the thyroid gland, stimulates osteoblast activity while inhibiting osteoclasts activity, thereby increasing calcium levels in the bones. Parathyroid hormone and osteoclast activity both have opposite effects

Net Neutral Charge, The pentapeptide ANLEQ has been evaluated by a team of researchers. A single-point mutation was applied resulting in a change of the amino acid residue glutamine to

arginine. At physiological pH, the new pentapeptide in solution would be expected to carry approximately:

LH, Which of the following hormones leads to the expulsion of the egg from the ovaries?

The organism's potential for reproduction, The amount of DNA possessed by a haploid organism will LEAST affect which of the following characteristics? The organism's phenotype, The rate at which meiosis occurs, The length of time between its meiotic divisions

Hybrid Inviability, If pronounced differences in DNA content did interfere with chromosome pairing, the likely result would be: Genetic Drift, Random Mating, Disruptive Selection

Which of the following processes likely occurs to allow the normal chromosome pairing observed in grass species? The interstitial repetitive sequences in one homologous chromosome would loop so that pairing could occur -The unpaired sequences in the homologous chromosome without the interstitial repetitive sequences would duplicate so that pairing could occur, The homologous chromosome with the interstitial repetitive sequence would undergo a translocation so that pairing could occur, The homologous chromosome with the interstitial repetitive sequence would undergo a deletion so that pairing could occur

Would the DNA content of the host species or the parasitic species in a parasite-host relationship, be expected, on average, to be lower? Parasite, because the parasite species usually reproduce more quickly than the host species -organisms with high C values (more DNA) reproduce more slowly than organisms with low C values. In the parasite-host relationship, the parasite reproduces much more than the host. Many generations of a parasite may infect a single host (i.e. bacteria vs. humans, ticks vs. dogs, etc.). Therefore, it is reasonable to narrow down the choices to ones in which the parasite is said to have less DNA, and rule out answer choices A and B as the correct answer. Although it is usually true that the parasite is smaller than the host, this is not necessarily caused by the difference in DNA content. In fact, the passage gives an example of two organisms with large differences in C values that are the same size as adults (P1)

The number and distribution of repetitive sequences in a gene family exerts its greatest effect on a species' fitness by: varying the quantities of specific genes produced in the different hybrids of the species -reducing hybrid viability of the species, altering the amount of DNA present in the genome of the species, reducing the fertility of the species

Blood Pressure, Filtration of plasma occurs in the Bowman's capsule of the human nephron. What is the driving force for this initial filtration step in the kidney? Blood (or hydrostatic) pressure is proportional to the filtration rate

-An ionic gradient formed by a countercurrent multiplier system, A chemiosmotic gradient across the semipermeable tubular membrane, Contraction of smooth muscles surrounding the Bowman's capsule

Pepsin's peak activity in the stomach is around pH = 2. From the figures given in the answer choices, only answer A contains a peak in activity around pH of 2

Lipids, A person with a complete obstruction of the common bile duct would have a decreased ability to digest: Obstructing the bile duct will prevent bile from reaching the small intestine. Thus the role of bile in the emulsification of fats (lipids) would be blocked, Proteins, Nucleic Acids, Carbohydrates

Wild-type mutants are probably called "petite" mutants because: the size of the mutant colonies are smaller than normal -The word petite is taken from the French word for small. The real question is: what's so small about the petite mutants? To begin with, we are told that their mitochondria have mutated such that this mutant yeast is an obligate anaerobe (= an organism that survives in the absence of oxygen thus produces energy via anaerobic respiration only; P1, S2). Normally mitochondria produce energy via aerobic respiration which is much more energy efficient than the anaerobic pathway. Thus the mutants have, relative to the normal yeast cells, less energy from metabolism to reproduce, grow, etc. Consequently, we would expect a group (= colony) of petite mutants to be smaller than a group of normal yeast cells, and thus, the answer choice B is correct. Answer choice D is physically impossible since daughter cells have nuclei and a nucleus is much larger than a mitochondrion

The most probable cause of the mutation in the wild-type mutant is: a deletion in the mitochondrial DNA -The mutation in the wild-type mutant is such that the organism can still function. However, some part of a protein or enzyme must be affected in order to make the yeast an obligate anaerobe. Also, the mutation involves only the mitochondria, which have their own DNA. Therefore, the mutation which causes this phenotype would be located in the mitochondrial DNA, and would be such that no drastic changes would occur (as would be likely in a translocation). Answer choices A and D can be ruled out because the passage states that the mutation is inherited in a nonchromosomal fashion in paragraph 1

"petite" mutants differ from regular cells in terms of their: ability to produce ATP -The mutant is identified by the fact that it is an obligate anaerobe, suggesting that normal phenotypes are likely facultative anaerobes. Thus the difference between the two will be related to this difference in mode of respiration. In the obligate anaerobe the anaerobic pathway is the only pathway that can be used. The anaerobic pathway leads to less ATP production per glucose molecule than the aerobic pathway. Facultative anaerobes can use either aerobic or anaerobic pathways depending upon the prevailing conditions. This means that the facultative anaerobe has the potential to produce more ATP than the obligate anaerobe, and this is the essential difference

Mitotic Division, During which of the following processes can complete cytoplasmic inheritance of the "petite" mutation occur? -The processes of meiosis and mitosis with respect to the inheritance of the "petite" mutation are both drawn out in Figure 1. The end result of meiosis is four cells with both mutant and normal mitochondria present. The end result of mitosis can include cells which contain only the mutant mitochondria [i.e. complete inheritance of the "petite" mutation; notice the third cell from the left in the bottom of Figure 1 (b)]. Answer choice C can be ruled out because no division takes place in between the meiotic and mitotic divisions and therefore complete inheritance of any trait cannot occur. Answer choice D is incorrect because the passage states that the "petite" mitochondrial phenotype is inherited in a nonchromosomal fashion, and metaphase is a stage in chromosomal cell division

The daughter cells of the mitotic division, In which of the following cells, could a respiratory deficiency be present? -A respiratory deficiency would be present in cells that contain only the "petite" mitochondria. From the figure, all daughter cells of meiosis will contain a mix of both normal and mutant mitochondria, ruling out answer choice B. The diploid zygote would combine two of these kinds of daughter cells, leaving a zygote also containing a mix of normal and mutant mitochondria. This rules out answer choice A. Answer choice D is clearly incorrect as it states that the parent cell contains normal mitochondria. Only the daughter cells of mitosis as shown in Figure 1 could contain only the mutant mitochondria

Condensation/Dehydration, The lone pair of electrons from the amino group of the amino acid attacks the carbon of the carbonyl group on the pyridoxal phosphate effecting a nucleophilic addition (2nd order). Subsequently, water is eliminated creating a C=N bond (= an imine). The reaction can be characterized as either condensation or dehydration (note: the opposite would be the adding of water to break a single organic molecule into 2 separate molecules = hydrolysis) (Decarboxylation, Nucleophilic substitution, first order, An aldol reaction combined with hydrolysis) deprotonation of an acid followed by bond rearrangements, Hydrogens attached to a carbon that is located at the alpha position to the C=O group are weakly acidic (ORG 7.1). In Step 2, an alpha hydrogen is lost, creating a series of double bond rearrangements. However, the product is still an imine because of the C=N bond (hydration, oxidation, decarboxylation)

Hydrolysis, Notice that the C-N bond is broken, so there is lysis. Also, the elements of water are incorporated into the products: O in the alpha keto acid and 2 H's in the amine. The process is thus hydrolysis (and answer choice A is correct) . Note that this reaction is simply the reverse of imine formation -Not oxidation, Decarboxylation, hydration

Tautomerization, Tautomerization is the rearrangement of atoms in a molecule while preserving the molecular formula. In Step 4, no atoms are lost or gained, so the molecular

formula must be preserved. On inspection, it can be seen that the H from N in the ring structure moves to the C adjacent to the -NH2 group (Condensation, Phosphorylation, An aldol reaction)

Pyridoxal phosphate is regenerated, pyridoxal phosphate is a cofactor which is a small non- protein part of an enzyme (and since it is organic, it could more precisely be described as a coenzyme). Enzymes are catalysts and so are unchanged at the end of the reactions the are catalyzing. Thus eventually pyridoxal phosphate must be regenerated (Oxidative phosphorylation, Substrate level phosphorylation, Glycolysis)

Val-Lys, A mixture of dipeptides was being evaluated by researchers. At pH 7.4, which of the following dipeptides in the mixture would most likely bind to a cation exchange column? -Cation exchange columns bind postive charged species and will thus bind dipeptides with a net positive charge. At near neutral pH, only the Val-Lys dipeptide has a net positive charge The skin, the body's largest organ, is divided into 3 layers including the epidermis. The latter contains a waterproof, tough protein called keratin. How then is it possible that humans can sweat freely in hot temperatures? Specialized sweat glands can secrete their products into channels which pass through the epidermis -Sweat glands are exocrine glands which secrete their products to the outside of the human body -Active and passive transport systems carry sweat across the epidermis, Specialized sebaceous glands can secrete their products into channels which pass through the epidermis, Osmotic pressure releases sweat across the epidermis

The Oxidation of Foods, Most body heat, under normal conditions, is produced by: -Mammals oxidize food (answer choice B is the correct answer), but does NOT reduce food (answer choice A is incorrect). Clearly mammals do not break down muscle under normal circumstances to maintain heat (answer choice C is incorrect). Though TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary) increases metabolism indirectly through the activity of hormones from the thyroid gland, it is secreted, like other homeostatic hormones, when higher metabolism is required. In other words, it is not secreted to be the main source of normal baseline body heat and therefore, answer choice D is incorrect. Oxidation of foods creates ATP but the process is not 100% efficient. Most of the waste goes to the creation of heat energy

The Best Way To Reduce Body Temperature, Relax smooth muscle of blood vessels -Not, Increase kidney function, Constrict skeletal muscle, Reduce insulin levels -Body heat and water loss are increased by increasing blood flow in the dermis of the skin which occurs by relaxation of the smooth muscle (= media, BIO 7.3) of blood vessels in the skin (vasodilation). The result is cooling by radiation, the production of sweat, and evaporation of sweat due to heat at the surface of the skin causing cooling

Perspiration evaporates and cools skin, Which of the following best describe why perspiring causes a reduction in body temperature? -Not, Perspiration carries heated water to the surface, Perspiration removes excess Na+ and Cl- ions from cells, Perspiration causes vasoconstriction

Liver cells use a different isomer of glycogen phosphorylase, Biopsies of the patients showed glycogen accumulation in muscle cells (Figure 1A), but not in the liver -Not Glycogen is not stored in the liver, Glycogen is transported out of the liver via carrier- mediated transport, Muscles do not require ATP) -Myophosphorylase is stated in the passage to be an isoform of glycogen phosphorylase found specifically in muscle cells (also, the name “myophosphorylase” implies that it is a phosphorylase for the muscle – ‘myo’). Thus, organs such as the liver, kidneys, or heart would likely not be directly affected by GSD-V

Considering the information provided and your knowledge of glucose and fructose, which of the following is MOST likely to be accurate regarding the reaction with periodic acid? A. The reaction would break the cyclic structures of glucose and fructose, with glucose having an additional fragment per molecule.

B. The reaction would break the cyclic structures of glucose and fructose, each into equal fragments.

C. The reaction would break the cyclic structure of glucose but not fructose.

D. The reaction would neither break the cyclic structure of glucose nor fructose.

Consider your response before scrolling down.

The key points:

1) Periodic acid will react with carbohydrates. Since glucose and fructose are carbohydrates, we expect that there will be a reaction and the location will be at the vicinal diols (according to P2 of the passage). There is nothing to suggest that the form (either cyclic or linear) is relevant. In fact, for many monosaccharides (including glucose and fructose), the cyclic forms predominate, and it is the cyclic form of glucose that polymerizes to make the chains which form glycogen, and it is glycogen which is the purpose of the PAS test in McArdle disease.

2) ‘diol’ refers to 2 alcohol/hydroxyl (OH) groups, and a vicinal diol is where the two hydroxyl groups occupy vicinal positions, meaning they are attached to adjacent atoms.

3) Glucose and fructose are structural isomers (= same molecular formula but different order and/or kinds of bonds). Fructose is a ketone in its linear form while glucose is an aldehyde. Through an intramolecular nucleophilic addition reaction between a carbonyl group and an OH group of the same molecule, glucose forms a six-membered ring (5 carbons + 1 oxygen) while fructose forms a five-membered ring (4 carbons + 1 oxygen). Because there is more than 1 type of atom within the rings, glucose and fructose are 'heterocycles'.

4) Comparing the 2 structures: glucose has 3 points where there are vicinal diols available for oxidative cleavage by periodic acid while fructose has 2 points.

Note that glucose (below) has vicinal diols at C1-C2, C2-C3 and C3-C4 and thus cleavage would be expected at those locations resulting in aldehydes or ketones. Note that C4-C5 is not a vicinal diol since there is no –OH group connected directly to C5

No Increase In Lactate, A deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in muscles indicates that glucose is not being released from glycogen. Thus, lactic acid fermentation is not occurring, and lactate will not build up in the cells. There will be no increase in lactate levels in the post- exercise blood sample (Calcium Lactate Glucose)

Decreased concentrations of ATP, and increased concentrations of Pi, For a patient affected by GSD-V, which one of these scenarios describes the concentrations of metabolism products in muscle cells after exercise? -Because of the deficiency in glycogen phosphorylase, glucose is not released from glycogen, which decreases the production of ATP by glycolysis. Thus, any ATP used in muscles during exercise is not replenished, leading to an accumulation of ADP and Pi metabolic switching to oxidative phosphorylation, The "second wind" phenomena experienced by GSD-V patients is most likely due to a(n): -In GSV patients, since glycogen is not broken down into glucose due to a deficiency of myophosphorylase, the body switches to aerobic exercise very quickly. Once anaerobic exercise gives way to aerobic exercise, glycolysis is no longer the primary source of ATP production. Aerobic exercise allows fatty acids to be used as an energy source, generating ATP from oxidative phosphorylation -(activation of phosphofructosekinase-1, decrease in venous lactic acid, metabolic switching to oxidative phosphorylation, increase in insulin)

Gastrula, During which stage of human embryological development do the three germ layers first assume distinct form? an increase in the size and/or number of nucleoli, During the period of time that primary oocytes remain in prophase I of meiosis, they undergo an extended period of growth, including accelerated synthesis and accumulation of rRNA. The increased rate of rRNA synthesis is accompanied by: -rRNA is synthesised from DNA template in the nucleolus -(Not disassembly of ribosomes into their component parts, thickening of the nuclear membrane, a decrease in nuclear chromatin material)

The passage states that HCl is expected to have a higher boiling point than either H2 or Cl2. The likely reason is that HCl: exhibits weak dipole-dipole interactions, unlike H2 and Cl2 -Any dipole-dipole interaction (ie, due to the separation of charges or difference in electronegativities between H and Cl) present requires energy to be broken before the HCl can

enter the gaseous phase, thereby making HCl more difficult to boil (i.e. the boiling point is elevated). Neither Cl2 nor H2have a separation in charge. Note that for the molecule HF, the boiling point is even greater due to H-bonding which is an even stronger intermolecular force than simple dipole-dipole interactions

The pH of the reaction mixture drops sharply near the equivalence point of the titration because: the concentration of H+ increases sharply -Once the C6H5NH2 is depleted (producing C6H5NH3+), additional protons from the HCl can no longer be neutralized. Thus the [H+] increases dramatically, leading to a decrease in pH

Aniline acts as a Lewis base because aniline: has a lone pair of electrons on its nitrogen atom

Meso, This question tests your ability to identify a molecule which has no enantiomer. In other words, a molecule whose mirror image can be superimposed on itself

Which of the following hormones increases blood glucose levels? Glucagon and epinephrine -When blood glucose levels are low, both glucagon and epinephrine are secreted. The release of glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, which restores the body's blood glucose levels. Epinephrine also acts by stimulating glycogenolysis, especially during "fight-or-flight" situations. The sudden increase in available glucose allows muscles to increase their rate of glycolysis and gain extra energy during a time of need

Which of the following is chiral? 2-Bromopentane -A chiral carbon is one which has four different substituents. The number 2 carbon in 2- bromopentane is the only carbon in which this is the case

An example of a transamination reaction would be: the conversion of aspartate to oxaloacetate -examples of transamination reactions: the amino acids on the left of the diagram alanine, aspartate and glutamate are converted to their corresponding keto acids pyruvate, oxaloacetate and α-ketoglutarate, respectively -(Not, the conversion of glyceraldehyde to pyruvate, the conversion of pyruvate to ethanol, the conversion of cyclohexanone to cyclohexylamine)

Most Cells, The passage indicates that transamination reactions occur in many tissues. In addition, the presence of the transaminases in the circulation implies that the reaction also takes place there. From this information, it appears that transamination occurs in most cells

3-methyl-2-pentanone, Which of the following represents the product of the reaction between propyl ethanoate and 1 equivalent of 2-butyl lithium (sec-butyllithium)?

Given the mechanism provided, in order to produce a secondary alcohol, which of the following must be true? R' must be a hydrogen -The stimulus mentions that "The tertiary alcohol that results contains 2 identical alkyl groups (R in the mechanism shown)." Now look at the tertiary alcohol in the Summary (it is the 3rd and last compound). Since we are told that the R groups are identical alkyl groups then, by definition, R' must be hydrogen for it to be a secondary alcohol and there is no other requirement. -Going Deeper: To produce a secondary alcohol there must be only 2 alkyl groups attached to the central carbon. Since RLi must necessarily be an organolithium (= alkyl lithium), a reaction with R = H is impossible. On the other hand, R' = H gives an alkyl methanoate which is still an ester (for example, ethyl methanoate). Note that if R" = H then instead of having an ester, we would have a carboxylic acid. Either way, to produce a secondary alcohol R" = H is certainly not necessary

The kind of metabolic poison that would most directly interfere with glycolysis would be an agent that: closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized -Glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose through anaerobic respiration, would be inhibited by an agent that mimics glucose but is not able to produce the products as if it where glucose -Aerobic Metabolism, Not, binds to pyruvate and inactivates it, inhibits the formation of acetyl coenzyme A, reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell

If the reaction is an equilibrium type reaction, what does Le Chatelier's Principle predict for a decrease in temperature? Reaction shifts to the right to yield more products -An easy way to figure out questions involving Le Chatelier's Principle applied to temperature changes is to write out "heat" in the equation as a reactant or a product. In this example, heat is released from the reaction (shown by the temperature rise in the reaction vessel) so it can be considered a product:

P2 + 2Q2 --> 2PQ2 + heat

-If we decrease the temperature of the vessel, then we are decreasing the product on the right of the equation and the equilibrium of the reaction will shift towards the right to counteract this, in accordance with Le Chatelier's Principle

Bent, Given that the atom P possesses a lone pair of electrons, what would be the expected shape of the product molecule? -The passage describes the product as a triatomic molecule, which we worked out in first question based on this passage to be PQ2. The central atom P is thus bonded twice to Q and, according to the question, P also has a lone pair of electrons. Thus P is surrounded by 3 electron pairs (minimum) which is a trigonal planar arrangement leaving a bent molecule

It increases the charge carrying capacity of the water, Why do you suppose that adding an electrolyte to the iron would increase its rate of rusting?

-Electrolytes, by their very nature and definition, are charge carriers when in the molten state or in solution. Since the electrons must move from the center of the drop to the exterior (P2, L4-6), facilitating this process would increase the rate of the rusting

-CH3OCH3, Which of the following molecules can be involved in hydrogen bond formation but cannot form hydrogen bonds with molecules of its own kind? -Ethers possess a highly electronegative atom (oxygen), but no hydrogen atom is directly bonded to an oxygen or any other electronegative atom. As a result, another molecule with an electropositive hydrogen (i.e. water) can form hydrogen bonds with the oxygen atom of an ether, but the ether's hydrogen atoms will not be involved in hydrogen bonding

Phospholipid bilayer, In which of the following cellular components would the greatest proportion of glycoproteins be expected? -Not Lysosomes, Microfilaments, Mitochondria -A phospholipid bilayer is a membrane, and one of the functions of the oligosaccharide attached to a protein is to anchor the protein to a membrane

3, Hydrolysis of one molecule of pNP-β-cellobioside yields how many fragments, theoretically? -A glycosidic bond (= glycosidic linkage) is a covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate to another group, which may be either a carbohydrate or a non-carbohydrate.

Figure 1 shows us that pNP-β-cellobioside has two glycosidic bonds, and we know from the passage that Os1BGlu4 can catalyze the hydrolysis of any glycosidic bond. Thus the reaction would yield 3 fragments naturally-occurring arginine? Basic Amino Acid -L-Configuration, α-Amino acid, S-Configuration

∆G > 0, Which of the following is most likely consistent with the overall synthetic pathway for arginine (accounting for coupled reactions)? -Synthesis or building a molecule (anabolic) requires energy (endothermic; BCM 2.3) thus +∆H.

We cannot be surprised that Gibbs free energy is positive which suggests that building complex molecules is not a spontaneous reaction. Of course we know these reactions can occur as long as they are coupled with a favorable reaction (i.e. the hydrolysis of ATP

C-S, Which of the following diatomic systems will show no infrared absorption? -Note the first sentence of the last paragraph: The absorption of infrared radiation ... cannot occur unless there is a dipole ...

Since both sulfur and carbon have the same electronegativity, there is an even charge distribution and, as a result, no permanent dipole. Since there is no dipole, there is no absorption of infrared

DNA Replication, The polymerase chain reaction most likely resembles which of the following cellular process? -(Not Transcription of DNA, Protein synthesis, Translation) -As described in the passage, the polymerase chain reaction utilizes DNA primers that anneal to the DNA template. DNA polymerase then extends the DNA primers in an effort to replicate the DNA strand. These steps are identical to those of DNA replication in a cell (BIO 1.2). However, in a cell, the cycle occurs once per cellular division

Why is a heat resistant DNA polymerase required for successive replication in the polymerase chain reaction, rather than simply a human DNA polymerase? The high temperatures required to melt the DNA double strand may denature a normal human cellular DNA polymerase -Since mammalian cells function at 37 oC, this is also the optimal temperature for enzyme activity. The temperatures used in PCR, which are well above 70 oC, would easily denature human DNA polymerase which is why a heat resistant DNA polymerase is required (BIO 4.3). Using human DNA polymerase would require new enzyme after each cycle, and therefore would not be very efficient

It is an anabolic reaction that synthesizes new DNA strands, Which of the following statements could be used to correctly describe the overall polymerase chain reaction? -A catabolic reaction involves the breakdown of macromolecules, whereas an anabolic reaction involves the synthesis of macromolecules from individual building blocks (BIO 4.1). PCR entails the synthesis (amplification) of a new DNA strand using a DNA template and free nucleotides, therefore, it is an anabolic reaction that synthesizes new DNA strands

The use of PCR for sex determination relies on the fact that: the X and Y homologous chromosomes have different sizes of intron 1 of the amelogenin gene -sex determination can be determined by amplifying intron 1 of the amelogenin gene which is found on the sex chromosomes. Due to a deletion, intron 1 on the Y sex homologue is shorter than intron 1 on the X sex homolog. This difference in size can be used to distinguish between males and females because males have one X and one Y chromosome while females have two X chromosomes. Therefore, females will have only one uniform size of intron 1 which does not bear the deletion. In contrast, males will have 2 different sizes of intron 1 following its amplification. Hence, B. is the correct answer choice

Two types of intron 1 since the individual has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, What would PCR amplification of an individual's intron 1 of the amelogenin gene reveal if the individual were male? -A male individual, which contains one X and one Y chromosome, should have 2 types of intron 1. The passage states that intron 1 on the Y chromosome has a deletion which renders it smaller in length than the corresponding allele on the X chromosome, thereby providing males with 2 different size fragments. Females which have 2 X chromosomes will then have only 1 type of intron 1 of uniform size

Alleles, Both copies of intron 1 of the amelogenin gene on the 2 sex chromosomes can be referred to as: -(Not homologous chromosomes, recessive traits, spliced RNA) -Alleles are two or more alternative forms of a gene that are found at the same place on homologous chromosomes. Since there is a 184 base pair deletion on the Y homologue and there is no deletion at the same position in the X homologue, intron 1 represents two different alleles of the same amelogenin gene

The substrate binds more tightly to R because: -R has a higher affinity for the substrate than T -If a molecule has a high affinity for something, it is likely to be associated with it maximally. The substrate binds more tightly to the R conformation even though the R conformation is present in small amounts because R has a higher affinity for the substrate than T -Not there are 10 000 times more T conformation molecules than R conformation molecules, the value of the equilibrium constant does not change

The symmetry model would NOT account for an enzyme: with many different biologically active conformations -(Not which engages in positive cooperativity, with a complex metal cofactor, which is a catalyst for anabolic reactions) -The symmetry model describes an instance of something which may be described as positive cooperativity (P2). The model does not exclude the enzyme from having cofactors, and places no restriction on what the enzyme's function will be. However, the symmetry model does not account for the existence of any other conformations than the two described (P2)

Allosteric enzymes differ from other enzymes in that they: are regulated by compounds which are not their substrates and which do not bind to their active sites -(Not are not denatured at high temperatures, they operate at an optimum pH of about 2.0, they are not specific to just one substrate) -An allosteric enzyme has a site other than the one for the substrate at which a molecule (not the substrate) that directs the function of the enzyme can bind

The pathway in Figure 1 occurs spontaneously: only if coupled with a sufficiently exergonic reaction or series of reactions -The biosynthetic pathway is anabolic: subunits are used to build more complex molecules. Building requires energy and thus without energy cannot proceed. Figure 1 must be coupled with reactions that release sufficient energy to drive the synthesis of lanosterol. The release of free energy (Gibbs free energy) is signified by a negative change in Gibbs free energy, termed an exergonic reaction. Of course, an endergonic reaction requires free energy to occur (e.g.,

Figure 1) and has a positive Gibbs free energy. Adding the ∆G values of the endergonic and exergonic reactions must give a negative ∆G in order for the reaction to be spontaneous

+4, What is the oxidation number of sulfur in sulfurous acid? -Let's look at H2SO3. The oxidation number of H is +1 and that of oxygen is -2. Therefore, not including S, the total oxidation state is (+1 x 2) + (-2 x 3) = -4. Since the molecule has no overall charge, the oxidation state of S added to -4 must be equal to zero; thus, S = +4

58.5%, What is the percent by mass of oxygen in sulfurous acid? -The relative atomic mass of O ≈ 16, that of H ≈ 1.0, and that of S ≈ 32. Thus, the relative molecular mass of H2SO3 is (2 x 1.0) + 32 + (16 x 3) = 82. The mass of the molecular oxygen (16 x 3 = 48) is more than half of 82. There is only one answer, choice (D), that is greater than

0.5! Alternatively, you can do it the old-fashioned way: 48/82, etc

An important function of the pentose phosphate pathway is the generation of: NADPH for fatty acid synthesis -(Not NAD+, which is used for glycolysis, NADH for the production of ATP via the electron transport chain, NADP, which is a substrate in amino acid metabolism) -The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) generates NADPH, which is used for reductive biosynthesis reactions within cells (i.e., fatty acid synthesis and the synthesis of other compounds such as cholesterol and other steroids). PPP is responsible for almost two-thirds of cellular NADPH. PPP does not produce NAD, NADP, or NADH.

Going Deeper: You should have a clear "big picture" for each of the biochemistry pathways that are on the AAMC syllabus. Here is the big picture for the pentose phosphate pathway:

PPP (aka the phosphogluconate pathway; aka the hexose monophosphate shunt) functions in parallel with glycolysis and generates NADPH and pentoses (= 5-carbon sugars, which include ribose-5-phosphate required for the synthesis of RNA and DNA).

There are two distinct phases: 1) the oxidative phase, in which NADPH is generated; and 2) the non-oxidative synthesis of 5-carbon sugars. For most organisms, the pentose phosphate pathway takes place in the cytosol. Note: Although PPP does begin with the oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate, PPP’s primary role is anabolic rather than catabolic

Circuit Diagram -Not When the patient is being defibrillated, current in the segment of wire X will be flowing towards the patient -The defibrillator cannot discharge while the switch is in the position in the diagram, The plate Q of the capacitor in the center of the diagram has a negative charge, The label R likely represents the patient's chest

-As implied in the question stem, current is the movement of positive charge and thus it comes from the positive terminal of the battery and, with the switch in the current position, would charge the 'top' plate of the capacitor in the diagram, and thus the 'bottom' which is labelled Q must be negatively charged. Between the 2 paddles would be the patient's chest symbolized as the resistor R.

In the diagram, the capacitor is being charged. To discharge the capacitor, the switch would need to be at position 2 in order to complete the circuit on the right of the diagram as long as the paddles are applied to the patient's chest. At that time, current (the movement of positive charge) would come from the top plate of the capacitor (which had been charged) and flow down the far right side of the circuit, through R, then through X (moving away from the patient) and then return to the negative terminal of the capacitor.

Side Note: The real exam could also explore the use of 2 very important equations: V = IR (Ohm's law), and P = IV (where V is voltage in volts, I is current in amperes, R is resistance in ohms, and P is power in watts, which is the same as joules/second). Of course, as shown in the diagram, the resistor can be approximated as the patient's chest. Alternatively, if the resistance of the paddles where taken into account, then the resistors would be added in series. And finally, the voltage V would be that of the capacitor which is discharging

Shorter, In radioactive decay, the time constant is called the decay constant (λ) and it usually represents the time it takes for all but 37% of the atoms to decay. For this reason, as compared to the decay constant λ, half-life is: -The half-life is the time for only 50% of the atoms to decay which occurs before (i.e. a shorter time) the time for 63% of the atoms to decay (note that "the time it takes for all but 37% of the atoms to decay" is the same as saying that 63% has decayed).

Side note: This is not assumed knowledge for the exam but only a point of possible interest: 1/e = 0.37 which is the origin for the percentage used for the time constant. "Half-life" is self- explanatory

Increased pH, When the body’s intake of calcium is low, in order to maintain homeostasis, there is an increased renal absorption of calcium. Based on the information provided, which of the following changes in urine is most consistent with a decrease in calcium intake in a person with kidney stones? -a decrease in calcium intake is associated with increased renal absorption of calcium, which means there will be less calcium in the urine. Now we just apply Le Chatelier’s principle: Beginning with reaction (3), if calcium is low (i.e., being removed), the reaction shifts to the left, producing more oxalate ions; reaction (2) shifts to the left; and then reaction (1) shifts to the left. The net result of the latter two reactions is the net removal of hydrogen ions, which means that the pH increases

More likely, because the increased pH will lead to increased oxalate ion concentration, Potassium citrate is a medication that can be used to treat gout. A side effect of potassium

citrate is the alkalization of urine. Would calcium oxalate kidney stones be more or less likely to be produced in a person taking potassium citrate? -More alkaline (i.e., more basic) means that there is less hydrogen ion, and thus, we apply Le Chatelier’s principle: less H+ shifts reactions (1) and (2) to the right, which results in more oxalate ions being produced, which then shifts reaction (3) to the right, producing the precipitate: kidney stones

The binding is via coordinate covalent bonds, Organic chelating agents have been used to bind calcium ions thereby dissolving calcium oxalate kidney stones. What can be inferred regarding the interaction between the chelating agent and the calcium ions? -Chelation is the bonding of ions and molecules (= the ligand) to metal ions. Chelation involves two or more separate coordinate covalent bonds between a polydentate (poly = multiple bonded; dent = teeth) ligand and a single central atom (in our case, calcium cations; the ligand bites the metal!). Usually these ligands are organic compounds, and are called chelators (AKA: chelating agents, sequestering agents).

Note that the bonds are covalent, not ionic (answer choice A). Since calcium is positively charged (cation), the attraction must be to a negative charge (either a formal negative or partial negative charge as one typically sees for oxygen or nitrogen in organic compounds; thus answer choice B is dubious). And since the charge should be negative, a conjugate base (e.g. Cl-) would be more likely than a strong conjugate acid (e.g. HCl; answer choice D is upside down).

There are several questions regarding chelates and Lewis acids/bases in the last 3 released AAMC practice exams (which contain real, past MCAT questions). Why is this important? Easy, chief among examples: because heme contains four nitrogen atoms that coordinate to iron in hemoglobin to form a chelate! And there is so much more, for example, chelation therapy is used as antidotes for patients poisoned by mercury, arsenic, or lead. EDTA is a ‘famous’ chelating agent that can sequester calcium and iron cations.

Going Deeper: First, notice that the statement in the question stem is logical: If an agent can “bind calcium ions” then looking at reaction (3), the reaction would shift to the left (Le Chatelier's principle) which will remove the solid form of calcium oxalate which means that the kidney stone (the precipitate) is indeed dissolving.

Ideally, for the MCAT, you would have a clear view of the following forms of bonding between atoms:

Ionic: between two ions with opposite charges. Ionic bonds form when one atom gives up one or more electrons to another atom (typically: metal loses, nonmetal gains).

Covalent: AKA molecular bond, involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms. Often, the sharing of electrons allows each atom to attain the equivalent of a full outer shell, thus a stable electronic configuration.

Polar covalent: AKA covalent with ionic character, involves the unequal sharing of the electron pair between two atoms. The atom which is more electronegative attracts more from the bond than the other atom. The bond formed between these two atoms have a permanent electric dipole (the molecule may or may not have a dipole depending on the overall distribution of charges, like adding vectors).

Coordinate covalent bonding: AKA coordinate bond, a form of the Lewis acid-base interaction in which both of the electrons in the bond are contributed by a donor (Lewis base) to an electron acceptor (Lewis acid) {Mnemonic: lEwis Acids: Electron pair Acceptors}.

The Lewis acid in coordination complexes, often called a ‘central metal ion’ (or atom), is often a transition metal, although main group elements (e.g. calcium, magnesium) can also form coordination compounds. The Lewis base donors (= ligands) can be atoms, molecules, or ions. The ligand must have one or more electron pairs which can be donated to the central metal. Typically, in biochemistry, nitrogen or oxygen makes the coordinate bond to the metal (making answer choice B incorrect). But (!!), be careful with nitrogen! When in an amide (peptide) bond, nitrogen is partially positive due to resonance which means that it is not likely to coordinate calcium ions (AAMC MPT3 Q37).

Just to underline: the interaction is not ionic, not even ‘coordinate ionic’, but rather coordinate covalent.

Another definition that you are expected to know for the MCAT: The ‘coordination number’ which is the number of donor atoms bonded to the central metal ion or atom.

Example: [Co(H2O)6]2+

You can see that there are 6 water molecules bonded to the cobalt(II) cation thus the coordination number is 6 and the oxidation state of cobalt is +2 (as indicated by the superscript 2+ and knowing that water is neutral).

Back to hemoglobin (!!): Of course, the heme group consists of an iron cation bound in a heterocyclic ring, a porphyrin. The porphyrin ring consists of four pyrrole molecules (seen in each ‘corner’ of the diagram below) linked together by bridges with the iron cation bound in the center. The iron ion, which is the site of oxygen binding, coordinates with the four nitrogen atoms in the center of the ring, which all lie in one plane. The iron is bound strongly (covalently) to the globular protein via the N atoms of the imidazole ring of a histidine residue below the porphyrin ring. A sixth position can reversibly bind oxygen by a coordinate covalent bond, completing the octahedral group of six ligands

7, What is the optimal number of β-alanines required to achieve a potent PKA inhibitor?

R9D, BL binds to PKA both inside and outside the enzyme active site and inhibits the ATPase activity. The most important amino acid for the inhibitory activity is R9 (amino acid R at position 9 along the primary structure). Which of the following mutations is most likely to have the greatest effect on the inhibition of the interaction between PKA and BL?

The passage's last paragraph describes IC50 as the half-maximal inhibitory concentration (aka

IC50) and thus, suggests that it is a measure indicating how much of a particular drug is needed to inhibit a given biological process by 50%. Therefore, the answer to this question is where the circle corresponding to 50% kinase activity appears along the x-axis: here, it is approximately

10–20% of the way between 10-7 and 10-6. Because 10−9 M, 10−6 M, and 10−3 M convert to 1 nM, 1 μM, and 1 mM respectively, the correct answer is 150 nM.

Alternate method: If you had to estimate the point on the curve (x-axis) at 50% (y-axis), it is a bit to the right (i.e., a higher number) than 10-7 M = 100 x 10-9 M = 100 nM. So we are looking for an answer slightly higher than 100 nM, thus 150 nM (notice that according to the graph, the number must be significantly below 10-6 M = 1000 nM, which is indeed the case).

Background Information: The idea of half-maximal concentration to achieve a goal is a common concept in MCAT biochemistry. You may see it in various contexts, such as IC50 in this problem. In your exam prep, you will certainly come across the Michaelis constant Km, which is defined as the substrate concentration at one-half the maximum velocity ("velocity" refers to the rate at which the product is formed).

There is also Kd, the dissociation constant for the formation of the enzyme–substrate complex, and logically, lower Kd means higher affinity (in fact, Kd is the inverse of the association constant Ka, which is unrelated to the acid dissociation constant Ka).

Conditions exist in which Km is equal to Kd (common for the MCAT); thus, by inference, a low Km means a high affinity and therefore, for a given substrate concentration, a high velocity.

For competitive inhibition there is one more important constant, the Ki, or inhibition constant, which is the dissociation constant for the enzyme–inhibitor complex. Thus, Ki can be defined for the MCAT as the concentration of inhibitor that is required to decrease the maximal rate of the reaction to half of the uninhibited value. In practical terms, the lower the Ki, the lower the concentration of inhibitor needed to lower the rate.

As you practice with the GS exams, you will come across all of the preceding constants as well as others that are also part of the assumed knowledge for the new MCAT (Keq, kcat, Ksp, Ka, Kb, Kw).

Going Deeper: The definition of "warhead" was not required to answer this question correctly, because it was clearly demonstrated from passage to diagrams that the issue was inhibition. Nonetheless, for your interest, a warhead in biochemistry is a small molecule with a reactive group that binds covalently to the enzyme's catalytic site. This stands opposed to, for example, reversible inhibitors that can bind to enzymes through weak noncovalent interactions such as ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and hydrogen bonds

Glass, Water has a specific heat of 4.18 J/g·oC, while glass (Pyrex) has a specific heat of 0.78 J/g·oC. If 40.0 J of heat is added to 1.00 g of each of these, which will experience the larger temperature increase? -Water: (40 J)/(4 J/g·oC) = 10 oC for 1 g -Glass: (40 J)/(1 J/g·oC) = 40 oC for 1 g

ΔG = ΔH - TΔS, Only ΔG would be positive -At a given temperature, T in kelvin, the relationship between the three thermodynamic quantities including the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG), the change in enthalpy (ΔH), and the change in entropy (ΔS) can be expressed as follows: -The sublimation of carbon dioxide occurs quickly at room temperature. What might be predicted for the three thermodynamic quantities for the reverse reaction? -“The sublimation of carbon dioxide occurs quickly at room temperature” hopefully reminds you that solid carbon dioxide ("dry ice") spontaneously (ΔG must be negative by definition) converts to the gaseous state (fog machines in nightclubs, theaters, etc.) because carbon dioxide cannot exist in liquid form at room temperature (reason: no H-bonds, nonpolar molecule, only held together by very weak van der Waals forces).

Sublimation means:

Solid CO2 + heat -> vapor

Entropy (randomness) is clearly increasing (thus, positive ΔS) because we are moving from a structured, ordered solid to randomly moving gas particles. Heat is required, so it is endothermic, meaning ΔH is positive. The question is asking about the reverse reaction, so all three signs are reversed: ΔG is now positive; ΔH is now negative; ΔS is now negative.

Going Deeper: Notice that a negative ΔS multiplied by a –T (see the Gibbs free energy equation) creates a positive term that overshadows the effect of the negative ΔH, and thus, ΔG is still positive. Also, please keep in mind that sometimes the MCAT will provide the Gibbs free energy equation, but sometimes it will not a higher wavelength and the same velocity, Consider a sound wave emanating from a stationary Doppler ultrasound probe that bounces off RBCs in blood approaching the probe with velocity, v. Assuming the Doppler ultrasound waves are only transmitted through fluid, the original wave relative to the reflected wave has:

-Doppler ultrasound is a noninvasive test that can be used to estimate blood flow through vessels by bouncing high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) off circulating red blood cells (RBCs). A probe can be positioned such that blood in a vessel under investigation may appear to be moving toward or away -From the equation for the frequency of the sound observed (o) from the frequency of the sound from the source (s = frequency emitted) using the velocity of the sound in that medium, V: fo = fs(V +/- vo)/(V +/- vs)

Since the distance between object and observer is decreasing, use vo (velocity of observer) and -vs (velocity of source), and given vo = 0, we get fo = fs(V)/(V - vs) > fs, thus fo > fs (The preceding is true because the term (V)/(V - vs) is necessarily greater than 1 (plug in any real, which means positive, imaginary values), thus fo must be greater than fs.)

Therefore, the observed frequency is greater, which means the wavelength is lower from the observer's point of view (from velocity = frequency x wavelength). Thus, the wavelength from the source (= the original wavelength) is higher. As long as the environment (e.g., temperature, fluid) is relatively constant, the velocity of sound wave is constant.

Important: Understanding the Doppler effect within the context of ultrasound is important for the new MCAT. Carefully notice from the equation above that if either the observer or source is not moving (i.e., one of the small letter v's is equal to zero), then there are four terms left in the equation. This means that as long as you have three of the terms, the fourth can be determined.

Also important: For the new MCAT, it is also expected that you understand the difference between an ultrasound and a Doppler ultrasound. Both are noninvasive tests, but the key difference is the use of the Doppler effect in Doppler ultrasound to estimate blood flow through blood vessels by bouncing high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) off circulating red blood cells (or off a moving fetus during a fetal ultrasound, again to detect movement). A regular ultrasound uses sound waves to produce images, but can't show blood flow.

The handheld device (probe) placed against the patient's skin is a transducer that converts ultrasound waves to electrical signals, which can be converted to images and/or sounds. The Doppler ultrasound transducer can be called a transceiver because it can both transmit and receive

Metabolic acidosis, Diabetic ketoacidosis is an example of which of the following imbalances? -(Not Respiratory acidosis, Respiratory alkalosis, Metabolic alkalosis) -If there is an acidosis OR alkalosis that is NOT because of the respiratory system, then we know that it must be metabolic and not respiratory. Thus, only one answer is possible: metabolic acidosis.

Going Deeper: Keto acids contain a ketone group (= keto) and a carboxylic acid group (= acid). Keto acids are involved in the Krebs cycle and glycolysis (pyruvic acid, oxaloacetic acid).

When ingested carbohydrate levels are low, stored fats and proteins become the primary source of ATP production. Fats can be used to form ketone bodies. Amino acids can be deaminated to produce alpha keto acids and ketone bodies.

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is potentially life threatening and results from a shortage of insulin; because the body can’t bring the glucose into cells for use, it switches to burning fatty acids and producing acidic ketone bodies that can cause symptoms and complications

Respiratory alkalosis, Vomiting normally results in the expulsion of gastric contents, but prolonged vomiting may also include the expulsion of contents from the upper small intestine. Consider a person who begins vomiting and then the process becomes prolonged. Prior to the onset of compensatory mechanisms, that person would be expected to have experienced all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? -(Has Metabolic alkalosis, Dehydration, Metabolic acidosis) -“Respiratory” means that the origin of the problem is the lungs (hyperventilation vs. hypoventilation), which is not consistent with the act of vomiting; thus, D must be the exception.

Going Deeper: Vomiting results in a loss of fluids (dehydration, B) and the loss of gastric acid, leaving the body relatively basic (metabolic alkalosis, A). However, prolonged vomiting may lead to the vomiting of intestinal contents including bile and pancreatic juice (which is high in bicarbonate to neutralize acid from the stomach, thus the body loses base). This could lead to metabolic acidosis respiratory acidosis, Normal CO2 is 40 mmHg with the normal range being 35–45 mmHg. If a patient’s pH is 7.3 and pCO2 is 50 mmHg, the patient must have: -(Not respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis) -Acidosis is a pH of < 7.35, so only answers A and C are possible; “respiratory” means that the source of the problem is ventilation (breathing). Hypoventilation reduces the lungs' ability to "blow off" carbon dioxide, so CO2 accumulates in the blood, which increases hydrogen ion concentration (pH decreases = acidosis). Thus, the answer must be A, respiratory acidosis.

Going Deeper: Consider the following buffer systems in the human body:

K-G-K-N, Polypeptides sloughed off in fingerprints react with ninhydrin. Which of the following tetrapeptides would likely be most reactive with ninhydrin? -It is apparent from Figure 1 (note that in this case, X must represent OH; and R must be the side group) that it is the amine in the amino acid that is reacting with ninhydrin. So we should be looking for tetrapeptides with the maximum number of amine groups available for bonding (= answer choice A with 2 lysine groups, K). Certainly, the terminal amine of lysine residues in peptides are available to react with ninhydrin (recall: lysine has 2 amine groups

Base treatment of an amino acid usually results in the conversion of the acid to a derivative via the amino-carboxylate salt, enhances the rate of nucleophilic reaction of the free amino group -tests your recognition of the δ- nitrogen in the amino group as a nucleophile (= nucleus-loving, AKA positive charge-loving!). Now only answer choices B. and C. are possible. Recall that nitrogen's lone pair electrons are essential to carrying out a nucleophilic reaction. In the reaction provided in the question, we go from a nitrogen with four bonds (= no lone pair available) to one with three bonds thus the addition of a base freed up the lone pair which can now engage in a nucleophilic reaction. Furthermore, the free amino group prior to the addition of a base was positively charged thereby being a distinctly terrible nucleophile!!

Amino acids can be divided into the following four general categories based on their acid-base charge properties at intracellular pH (~6-7):

1) Positively charged 2) Negatively charged 3) Hydrophobic 4) Hydrophilic

2, Assuming that one equivalent of electrophile, X, reacts with catechol, how many trisubstituted isomers of catechol (i.e., with the molecular formula C6H3(OH)2X) are possible? -An electrophile (“electron-loving” species) would add to the electron-dense benzene ring. Carbons 1 and 2 (i.e., where the OH groups are attached) are already bonded four times, so there is no hydrogen available to be substituted. Carbons 3, 4, 5, and 6 all have hydrogens available to be substituted by the electrophile, X.

Let’s imagine that X represents a halogen. Notice that 3-halobenzene-1,2-diol (correct numbering) and 6-halobenzene-1,2-diol (incorrect numbering) are the same due to the symmetry of the molecule; likewise, 4-halobenzene-1,2-diol (correct) and 5-halobenzene-1,2- diol (incorrect) are the same. Thus, only two isomers are possible

Assuming that two equivalents of the electrophile, X, react with catechol, how many tetrasubstituted isomers of catechol [C6H2(OH)2X2]—as compared with trisubstituted isomers of catechol—are possible?

3,4-dihalobenzene-1,2-diol 3,5-dihalobenzene-1,2-diol

3,6-dihalobenzene-1,2-diol 4,5-dihalobenzene-1,2-diol

2, Among the catecholamines, dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine, how many possess a chiral center? -Chiral carbon, stereocenter, or stereogenic carbon all refer to a carbon attached to four different substituents. Ignore all carbons within the six-member benzene ring since they all possess double bonds to carbon (bonded twice to the same atom makes bonding to four different substituents impossible). Notice that for dopamine, the first carbon removed from the ring must be attached to two hydrogen atoms, making it achiral (not chiral). However, for the other two molecules, at the first carbon removed from the ring there is (1) an OH group, (2) a hydrogen that is not shown, and (3) two other substituents that are clearly different from each other. Thus, two of the molecules shown have exactly one chiral center each (norepinephrine and epinephrine)

Adrenergic receptors are a class of G protein–coupled receptors that are targets of catecholamines. Binding of a catecholamine to the receptor will generally stimulate the sympathetic nervous system. A key component of the active site has two linked, identical amino acid residues that can donate an H-bond to the agonist. Which of the following would be most consistent with the described component of the active site of adrenergic receptors? -Review the structures from the passage. Catechol + amine = catecholamine. Notice that the catechol moiety of the three catecholamines is a stable component and has two OH groups. One could reason that an efficient way to H-bond would be with an amino acid that also has OH as a substituent, thus serine (Ser-Ser, or S-S, to bond to two OHs from the catecholamine). Since the question stem states that "the active site . . . can donate an H-bond", we can now reason that the H-bond is between the O of the catechol and the H of the serine side group.

The other answer choices are not polar (hydrophobic side chains: methionine—M or Met, isoleucine—I or Ile), or the side chain is negatively charged at physiological pH, meaning there is no donatable H for an H-bond (glutamic acid as glutamate—E or Glu). Keep in mind that the amino and carboxyl ends of the amino acids in the active site would both be involved in peptide bonding since a receptor is a protein with an extremely long chain of amino acids

Some clues: the association (affinity) constant is 10 million which is exceedingly high (of course the dissociation constant is concomitantly low; you can tell they are inversely related by the units) and, not surprisingly, the reaction is highly exergonic. Consider reviewing the explanation to the previous question to see why the charge on ANLEQ will still be negative at pH 8 (in fact, it will be negative at any pH over 3.4). Thus we can reasonably expect that it would bind to an active site which has a net positive charge. But we also know, discussed in the previous question, that ANLEQ also contains polar and non-polar regions, thus it would be reasonable to expect that it would bind to something with properties that are similar (hydrophobic, polar) or opposite (ionic charge, since in electrostatics, opposites attract).

Going Deeper: When the affinity is very high, we might reasonably expect something even more specific; for example, a large hydrophobic amino acid from the substrate may fit in a pocket or groove at the active site containing a small (or more than one) hydrophobic amino acid like glycine. And so ionic attractions (positive/negative), H-bonds, hydrophobic interactions are among the active site-substrate interactions affecting the affinity of one to the other.

Be careful with Ka! Ka is often discussed as the acid dissociation constant but when the discussion is about protein/enzyme binding, then Ka may represent the association constant (also called the affinity or binding constant). Affinity is defined as the attractive force between two groups, ions, or molecules that causes them to enter into and remain in a non-covalent complex. The association constant is a special case of the equilibrium constant. anion exchange chromatography, ANLEQ is overexpressed in cell cultures as part of a short peptide sequence VSPGSANLEQ that is cleaved into two fragments and purified using ion exchange chromatography. Using a buffer of pH 7, the best purification strategy would be to use: -(Not cation exchange chromatography, size exclusion chromatography, gel filtration) -Since ANLEQ is negatively charged in solution at pH 7, it would be best to use anion exchange chromatography, which preferentially binds anions. Size exclusion chromatography would be largely useless, as both fragments are relatively the same size.

Background: Anion exchange chromatography uses an ion-exchange resin containing positively charged groups, such as diethyl-aminoethyl groups (DEAE). Thus anion exchange resins will bind to negatively charged molecules. This form of chromatography is commonly used to purify proteins, amino acids, sugars/carbohydrates and other acidic substances with a negative charge

The microenvironment changes, such that the pKa of the glutamate side chain becomes significantly raised, X-VUR has been shown to go through a multi-step activation cycle with multiple intermediate conformations. In one conformation, the glutamate in bound ANLEQ becomes protonated, even at physiological pH. What is a possible explanation for this occurrence? -(Not The experiment is always conducted in a highly acidic buffer, An adjacent residue forms a salt bridge with the glutamate side chain, Conformation changes result in a highly hydrophilic environment) -The microenvironment in which a peptide or residue exists inside a protein can be significantly different than in solution. In this case, changes to the microenvironment, such as increased hydrophobicity or a sudden proximity to another negatively-charged residue can cause an increase in pKa for the glutamate side chain. Thus it could be reasoned that a significant increase in pKa would allow the carboxyl to remain protonated, even at physiological pH. A is incorrect because the question already states that the protonation occurs at physiological pH. C and D are incorrect because such changes would actually decrease the pKa of the carboxyl side group

It Would Be Lower, The freezing point of a solution of lactose was determined. Subsequently, lactase - an enzyme involved in the hydrolysis of lactose into its monomers - was added to the lactose solution. The enzyme was eventually removed from the solution. How would the freezing point of the post-lactase solution compare with that of the original solution?

-Lactose would be degraded to smaller molecules by the enzyme. Thus, the number of molecules in solution would increase, leading to an increase in the number of moles of molecules. The molality of the solution would then increase [Molality = (Number of moles of solute) / (1000 g solvent)]. From Tf = K'fm, the freezing point depression would increase, and hence the freezing point would decrease. (This problem is a classical example of a colligative property, which depends on the number, not the type, of molecule or particle present.) -Lactase is a disaccharidase that breaks down the disaccharide lactose into its constituent glucose and galactose monomers (hydrolysis, hydrolase). Lactase is mostly present along the brush border membrane of enterocytes lining the villi of the small intestine

Nucleus, A collection of nerve cell bodies in the central nervous system is generally referred to as a: -(Not nerve, Schwann node, ganglion) -A ganglion is a cluster of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system, while a nucleus is a cluster of nerve cell bodies in the central nervous system.

Side note: There is no such thing as a 'Schwann node'. Schwann cells are glial cells of the peripheral nervous system which can sometimes wrap around axons of motor and sensory neurons to form the myelin sheath. The gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called nodes of Ranvier

Muscle Contraction, Neither actin nor myosin changes length during muscle contraction -(Not Troponin and tropomyosin slide past each another, allowing the muscle to shorten, Decreased intracellular [Ca++] enhances the degree of muscular contraction, Cardiac muscle fibers contain centrally located nuclei) -Actin and myosin filaments do not change length, but instead slide past each other. This is known as the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. For whatever reason, this concept has been the most tested MCAT question type regarding muscle contraction. Second most important: Contraction of the sarcomere (which is delineated by Z-lines) occurs when the Z-lines move closer together, making the myofibrils contract, and therefore the whole muscle cell and, potentially, the entire muscle contracts

RH + O2 + NADPH + H+ → ROH + H2O + NADP+

-NADPH is oxidized, and O2 is reduced

-Oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in the oxidation state, whereas reduction is the gain of electrons or a decrease in oxidation state. Here, NADPH donates a hydrogen atom during the conversion of O2 into H2O to function as a reducing agent and becomes oxidized in the process. Conversely, H2O has gained electrons compared with O2, and so is reduced.

Mnemonic: LEO is A GERC: Loss Electrons/Oxidation at the Anode, Gain Electrons/Reduction at the Cathode

IV, IM, SC -A key consideration when answering this question is that 4R is a neuroprotective agent; therefore, it is important that significant and sustained brain concentrations are achieved. Although IV achieves a very high brain concentration of 4R initially, levels decline very rapidly (within 1 min), and so it is unlikely to exert significant biological effect.

Of course, there is also the issue of side effects: the high concentrations for IV can be expected to cause tremors (recall from the question stem that tremors occurred with a concentration of over 5000 ng/mL, which is only seen in the IV graph; also note that the scale along the y-axis is different for all three graphs). Both IM and SC reached a similar peak concentration of approximately 300 ng/mL, but levels remained higher with IM administration: after 8 h, approximately 100 ng/mL was present after IM administration versus 0 with SC. Therefore, IM would be the first choice followed by SC.

Side note: Although Cmax was never overtly defined, it can be inferred to be the maximum concentration, not just because of the acronym Cmax, but more importantly because the question stem states the actual maximum concentrations, which can be confirmed by looking at the diagrams

What effect would a competitive reversible inhibitor be expected to have on Vmax and Km? -Vmax would stay the same, but Km would increase -the inhibitor (I) binds the active site of the enzyme (E) reversibly, and thus it can be displaced by the substrate (S). Therefore, if [S] is gradually increased for a given [I], the inhibitor will be displaced from the active site of the enzyme, and the effect of the inhibitor will be overcome as the enzyme reaches its normal maximal velocity (Vmax). On the other hand, the Km of the enzyme, which represents the [S] at half Vmax, should increase. In our example, the same Vmax for the enzyme will be reached if enough S is added; however, this increase in [S] needed to overcome the effect of the inhibitor will raise the Km accordingly. You should be aware that the larger the Km, the less efficient the enzyme, because a higher [S] is required to reach a given velocity of the reaction trypsin and pepsin, Extracts of the intestinal parasite Ascaris were found to contain irreversible noncompetitive inhibitors of human enzymes. The enzymes were likely:

-Which of the following enzymes are present in the gastrointestinal tract?" Among the answer choices, carboxypeptidase, trypsin, and pepsin are correct -In order for a parasite to have gained access to the intestines, it must have passed through the stomach initiate muscular tetany, Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) acts as an irreversible inhibitor at the active site of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme deactivates the chemical transmitter, acetylcholine. The main effect of DFP would be to: -(Not prevent the passage of nerve impulses along the postsynaptic neuron, prevent the entry of Ca2+ into the synaptic knob, generate a very large action potential) -At the neuromuscular junction, a depolarization of the cell due to an action potential causes the opening of Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic terminal. An increase in intracellular calcium leads to the fusion of acetylcholine-filled vesicles to the membrane. Acetylcholine (ACh) diffuses into the synapse, where it binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, leading to the activation of muscle fibers. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase, also present in the junction, terminates the signal by deactivating ACh. The deactivation of the enzyme by DFP will lead to a relative increase in ACh in the synapse, and consequently the ACh signal will be amplified, leading to muscle tetany (= successive activation of a muscle fiber over a short period of time such that the muscle does not have time to recover from an action potential and is in a constant state of activation). Note that an action potential is referred to as an "all-or-none" phenomenon; once the minimal threshold has been reached for a particular cell, the action potential has a characteristic magnitude and duration, which cannot be altered by an increase in stimulus. Therefore, an increase in ACh binding as a result of DFP deactivation will lead to an increase in frequency of activation of the action potential in the postsynaptic membrane, as opposed to an increase in the magnitude of the action potential

Prostaglandins are complex lipid molecules, some of which mediate the sensation of pain. Aspirin, a common pain reliever, likely works by: Aspirin is a reversible inhibitor (think about it: your pain will come back after a certain time) that inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins

+∆G, +∆H, -∆S, When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a glycogen polymer, the changes in free energy, total energy, and entropy would be consistent with which of the following? -At a given temperature, T in kelvin, the relationship between the three thermodynamic quantities, including the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG), the change in enthalpy (ΔH), and the change in entropy (ΔS) can be expressed as follows:

ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

Building a molecule (anabolic) requires energy (endothermic; CHM 8.2), thus +∆H. Going from more than one molecule (dimer or polymer) to just one molecule (monomer) is more ordered,

less entropy, thus -∆S. Keeping in mind that the temperature, T in kelvin is always positive, we get ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = (+) - (+)(-) = (+) + (+) = (+)

We cannot be surprised that Gibbs free energy is positive, which suggests that building complex molecules is not a spontaneous reaction. Of course we know these reactions can occur as long as they are coupled with a favorable reaction that gives off even more energy (i.e., the hydrolysis of ATP)

Membrane proteins have hydrophobic surfaces, Thermal shift assays can be performed using a number of different fluorescent dyes. Some, such as Sypro Orange, are not suitable for usage with membrane proteins. Which of the following might be a suitable explanation? -(Not Dyes cannot permeate through the lipid bilayer, Sypro Orange does not bind to membrane proteins, Membrane proteins are unstable at high temperatures)

in the sarcolemma, At the neuromuscular junction, the receptors on the ACh-activated channels are likely located: -(Not on the tubule of the T system, on the muscle surface, in the synaptic cleft) -The synaptic terminal faces the muscle cell (= muscle fiber), and the acetylcholine released must reach receptors on the muscle cell (see paragraph 2 of the passage). These receptors should logically be located on the surface of the muscle cell (= plasma membrane = sarcolemma) with which the neurotransmitter will first come into contact (motor end plate)

The neuromuscular junction: (1) Presynaptic terminal; (2) Sarcolemma; (3) Synaptic vesicle; (4) Acetylcholine receptor; (5) Mitochondrion

the frequency of the nerve impulses, The depolarization across the muscle membrane triggers an all-or-none action potential in the muscle cell. This suggests that an increase in the amount of transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction would change: -(Not the amplitude of the action potential, the direction of the action potential, the speed at which nerve impulses travel along the muscle cell) -We are told that the muscle cell engages in an "all-or-none" action potential. In other words, either the action potential occurs (100%) or it does not occur (0%), but there is nothing in between. Another way of considering the concept "all or none" is graphically. Figure 2 (A) is the control in Experiment 2, which is the classic action potential curve (BIO 5.1.2) that occurs under natural conditions. Thus in nature, either the curve occurs essentially as drawn or it does not (i.e., no action potential), but the action potential curve does not occur in a graded fashion (all or none)

A depolarization in the postsynaptic membrane, A mutation in the gene that codes for acetylcholinesterase would likely inhibit all, but which of the following processes? -(Not A hyperpolarization in the postsynaptic membrane, The passage of a series of nerve impulses along the axon of the postsynaptic neuron, The development of an inhibitory postsynaptic potential) -Acetylcholine (ACh) can depolarize the postsynaptic membrane (P2). Acetylcholinesterase terminates the action of ACh. Thus, if acetylcholinesterase no longer had its normal activity (i.e., because of a mutation), then ACh could continue to depolarize the postsynaptic membrane uninhibited

The neuromuscular junction: (1) The action potential reaches the axon terminal. (2) Voltage- dependent calcium gates open, allowing calcium to enter the axon terminal. (3)

Neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and ACh is released into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis. (4) ACh binds to postsynaptic receptors on the sarcolemma. (5) This binding causes ion channels to open and allows sodium and other cations to flow across the membrane into the muscle cell. (6) The flow of sodium ions across the membrane into and potassium ions out of the muscle cell generates an action potential which travels to the myofibril and results in muscle contraction.

Green labels: A: Motor Neuron Axon B: Axon Terminal C. Synaptic Cleft D. Muscle Cell E. Part of a Myofibril

the relative refractory period, In the control of Figure 2, the part of the curve between 4 and 5 msec is most consistent with: -(Not the absolute refractory period, the depolarization of the membrane, saltatory conduction) -to determine that at between 4 and 5 msec the membrane potential is in the process of returning to its resting potential (note that (A) and (B) are drawn to the same scale). The lowest point in the curve has just been passed at 4 msec. The period between the highest point of the curve and the lowest point corresponds to the absolute refractory period in which another action potential cannot be generated. In the process of returning from the lowest point to the resting potential, action potentials may be generated, but with difficulty. This corresponds to the relative refractory period

Sensitizing ECL cells to gastrin, In addition to stimulating gastric chief cells, cholinergic activity from the vagus nerve increases acid production by stimulating parietal cells. Yet another action of the cholinergic activity from the vagus, consistent with the information provided, would likely be which of the following? -(Not Sensitizing parietal cells to somatostatin, Desensitizing ECL cells to gastrin, Desensitizing parietal cells to histamine)

-If the ECL cells are more sensitive to gastrin, then the parietal cells would be more stimulated and more acid would be produced (consistent with the information provided, e.g., regarding the cholinergic activity from the vagus nerve increasing acid production). Somatostatin has an inhibitory effect, so increasing its potency will reduce acid production (answer choice B is incorrect). Likewise, desensitizing ECL cells to gastrin (answer choice C), or parietal cells to histamine (answer choice D), according to Figure 1, would result in a reduced production of acid

Nitrile, Given the information about burimamide and Table 1, which of the following functional groups added to the nitrogen replacing the sulfur atom in burimamide would be the most rational in the production of cimetidine? -(Not Thiol, Phosphoric acid, Amide) -From the passage: "improving on the efficacy and safety of burimamide . . . by replacing sulfur with nitrogen with an additional functional group to reduce the protonated form of this antacid, which eventually resulted in the production of cimetidine." Thus, we are looking for a functional group that is unlikely to be protonated in the stomach (pH of approximately 2). A pKa below 2 means that the deprotonated form would predominate at pH = 2. And from Table 1, nitrile has a very low pKa, making it the best of the options provided.

Note: Technically, a pKa of -10.1 means that the protonated form would be dominant at a pH of less than -10.1 (yes, minus!), which is very unlikely; thus, the molecule can be confidently predicted to be unprotonated at the pH of the stomach.

Cimetidine is shown below. You can see that the N plus the CN group (nitrile) have replaced the sulfur atom in burimamide (see structure in passage). You may also notice some other changes (an additional methyl on the far left and an additional S atom)

Cimetidine likely functions by: binding to the histamine receptor and acting as an antagonist. -(Not not binding to the histamine receptor and acting as an agonist, not binding to the histamine receptor and acting as an antagonist, binding to the histamine receptor and acting as an agonist) -By binding to the histamine receptor, cimetidine prevents histamine from binding, and therefore there is less acid produced by the parietal cells. If cimetidine was an agonist, it would bind to the receptor AND stimulate the production of acid (not good for an antacid medication)! Thus, it is the first designed histamine receptor (H2) antagonist, and hence it inhibits stomach acid production. You’ll hear more about it in medical school!

The rate constant kcat (= "catalytic constant") is an indicator of the rate of product turnover. Thus, from the data provided, cimetidine complex 2 produces less product in the presence of

increasing fluoride concentration (= inhibitor, answer choice B), and cimetidine complex 1 is essentially unaffected by changing fluoride concentrations (there is no trial suggesting fluoride increases product formation, which would be suggestive of a role as an agonist; in fact, the values for kcat for complex 1 are all within the margin of error, suggesting that increasing concentrations of fluoride have no effect on complex 1).

Of course, fluoride in solution is an anion, and if there was some evidence of the actual mechanism (which there is not), then if fluoride displaced an ion, we would expect it to take the spot of an anion. Copper in solution is a cation. At any rate, only answer choice B is supported by the data presented

Going Deeper: Superoxide is produced as a byproduct of oxygen metabolism and, if not regulated, causes many types of cell damage. Hydrogen peroxide is also damaging, but less so, and is degraded by other enzymes such as catalase and is primarily regulated in peroxisomes (intracellular organelles). Thus, superoxide dismutase is an important antioxidant defense in nearly all living cells exposed to oxygen. As described in the question stem, several cimetidine– copper complexes have demonstrated superoxide dismutase–like activity

3-Phosphoglycerate, Which of the following is NOT associated with a large negative free energy of hydrolysis? -(Is, Phosphoenolpyruvate, 1,3-Diphosphoglycerate, ADP) -A "large negative free energy of hydrolysis" means that the lysis (= breakdown) of the molecule in question is favored, in fact spontaneous to a strong degree.

Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) has the highest-energy phosphate bond found in living organisms (-61.9 kJ/mol; yes, twice as much as ATP!!), and should be recognized as a source of ATP production in glycolysis (i.e., the hydrolysis of PEP drives ATP production).

These two molecules have negatively-charged phosphate groups in close proximity to each other (recall: like charges repel), making hydrolysis strongly favored: 1,3-diphosphoglycerate and ADP (adenosine diphosphate). In fact, the hydrolysis of 1,3-diphosphoglycerate is the only other source of ATP in glycolysis besides PEP. The hydrolysis of the terminal phosphoanhydridic bond, whether in ATP or ADP, is a highly exergonic process (primarily due to the repulsion of the phosphate groups within the reactant, as well as a gain in resonance energy for the products), releasing 30.5 kJ/mol energy (negative Gibbs free energy).

1,3-diphosphoglycerate + ADP -> 3-phosphoglycerate + ATP

Thus, 3-phosphoglycerate is the stable product of the hydrolysis of 1,3-diphosphoglycerate.

Going Deeper: Not only are the answer choices the key substrates involved in ATP production in glycolysis, but they can also be described as the key metabolites of substrate-level phosphorylation. In glycolytic substrate-level phosphorylation, per molecule of glucose: two 1,3- diphosphoglycerate are converted to two 3-phosphoglycerate by transferring a phosphate group

to each of two ADP by a kinase; two phosphoenolpyruvate are converted to two pyruvate by the transfer of their phosphate groups to two ADP by another kinase. Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. Of course, an alternative way to create ATP is through oxidative phosphorylation, which takes place during cellular respiration in the mitochondria where NADH and FADH2 are oxidized (oxygen is reduced to water) and chemiosmosis is harnessed through ATP synthase to produce ATP

.16, Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. If the frequency of the dominant allele for Huntington's disease is 0.6 in a particular isolated population, what proportion of the population is free of the disease? -Since Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, only homozygous recessive alleles will provide a normal individual who is free from the disease. Since the frequency of the dominant allele is 0.6, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4, following Hardy–Weinberg laws. Therefore, the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype, which is denoted as q2, is 0.42 = 0.16

Which of the following would best explain why the student’s illustration shows 2 electrons funneled into the ETC but Table 1 shows only one electron per cytochrome b, c and a, respectively? The metal ion in cytochrome is a one-electron acceptor requiring 2 molecules of each cytochrome per electron pair entering the ETC. -(Not The student made an error, The electron pair is shared between 2 different cytochromes: one electron from the electron pair goes to one cytochrome as the other electron goes to a different cytochrome, The cytochromes have half of the molecular weight of the precursors in the ETC) -For many cytochromes, the metal ion present is that of iron, which interconverts between Fe2+ (reduced) and Fe3+ (oxidized) states (electron-transfer processes) or between Fe2+ (reduced) and Fe3+ (formal, oxidized) states (oxidative processes). Thus the cytochromes b, c, and a (which is the order they appear in the ETC, and notice that is the order of increasing positivity meaning spontaneity in Table 1) are one-electron acceptors, per molecule, thus requiring 2 molecules for 2 electrons -Side note: All associated complexes involved in the ETC are within the inner mitochondrial membrane, meaning they have a significant hydrophobic component.

Also note: Ferrous (Fe2+) indicates a divalent iron compound (+2 oxidation state), as opposed to ferric, which indicates a trivalent iron compound (+3 oxidation state)

Lactate, Based on Table 1, in the absence of coenzyme A, which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? -(Not Pyruvate, Malate, Succinate) -The first step is to recognize that the strongest reducing agent is the species which is most strongly oxidized. The table shows reduction potentials of the starting materials (left side of the equation). The higher the reduction potential of the species, the greater is its tendency to get

reduced. And the species that is getting reduced is called the oxidizing agent, but the question asks about the reducing agent. So to find the best reducing agent (= the agent that gets oxidized), we need to look at the reverse reaction. Now in the reverse reaction, the higher the reduction potential of the species, the greater is its tendency to get oxidized and thereby act as a strong reducing agent. Of course, when you change the direction of the reduction potential reactions in Table 1 into oxidation reactions, you must also change the sign on the Eo value; so succinate -> fumarate becomes -0.03 (not spontaneous by definition because the value is negative); malate -> oxaloacetate becomes +0.17 (spontaneous because the value is positive); but, lactate -> pyruvate becomes +0.18 which is both spontaneous and the highest positive value. Therefore, lactate is most likely to be oxidized making it the strongest reducing agent. Note that in the question stem, "in the absence of CoA" is mentioned to eliminate the first reaction in the table as an option*.

Note: Mnemonic – LEO is A GERC, Loss Electrons Oxidation is Anode, Gain Electrons Reduction at Cathode.

Also note: Another classic MCAT question would be for you to identify the coenzyme NAD+ as an oxidizing agent – it accepts electrons from other molecules and becomes reduced.

* Notice that the reverse of the first reaction in Table 1 could be described as the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and would have a large, positive Eo value revealing pyruvate as a strong reducing agent but requiring the presence of CoA

Which of the following statements best describes why the ETC is effective in achieving an overall electron transfer? The Eo value of each carrier becomes more positive than the previous carrier -(Not Each step involves the pumping of protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane, All reactions are based on the interconversion of the ferrous ion to the ferric ion, NADH and oxygen come into contact only on the matrix side producing water)

-Because the more positive Eo value is more likely to occur as written, the only way to transfer electrons from one compound to another spontaneously, is that each carrier has a more positive Eo value that the previous as can be confirmed by looking at Table 1 for the values for cytochromes b, c, a, in that order and then, not surprisingly, oxygen becomes the last acceptor to become water. In fact, most of the oxygen that we consume ends up becoming water in an effort to produce energy (i.e. ATP) via the ETC.

The sequence of events can be summarized thus:

Reduced molecule #1 + Oxidized Molecule #2 --> Oxidized Molecule #1 + Reduced Molecule #2

Not all steps in ETC pump protons across the membrane. Ferrous (Fe2+) indicates a divalent iron compound (+2 oxidation state), as opposed to ferric, which indicates a trivalent iron

compound (+3 oxidation state), and the reactions may be based on oxidation or reduction of iron, or NAD+/NADH, or flavoprotein, or copper as the redox ion within the ETC. NADH and oxygen do not directly come into contact. The proton gradient created by several of the carriers in the ETC including NADH drive the mechanical rotor of ATP synthase, the energy from which phosphorylates ADP to ATP, while the protons are added to the oxygen (on the matrix side).

Recall: Gibbs free energy is negative when the reaction is spontaneous (the opposite sign that Eo would be when spontaneous). This is not surprising since the Gibbs energy change for a system under standard conditions (1 atm, 298K) is ΔGo = -nFEo, where n is the number of electrons involved, and F is Faraday's constant (F does not need to be memorized). The negative sign in the preceding equation suggests why their signs are opposites with the same conditions

The biceps muscle holds the forearm and any load held by the hand, if present. There are forces at the elbow joint where the humerus meets the radius. The human forearm can be considered as a set of levers as illustrated below -Consider that the arm is in rotational and translational equilibrium, as the load held in the hand increases, what would be the expected change in the vertical and horizontal components of the forces at the elbow, respectively? Increased Increased

Torque Forces -torque forces, and more importantly, how the concept can be applied to biological systems. You can see (or imagine from your experience) that as the weight in the hand increases, the biceps must contract more to maintain equilibrium. But you can see from the illustration and the line diagram that the biceps is not connected to the forearm in a perfectly vertical way. There is the angle α which means that to counteract the increasing weight, there will be an increasing cosine(α) component (vertical) and an increasing sine(α) component (horizontal). Just to clarify: The position where the biceps is attached to the forearm clearly does not change and therefore the function of the angle remains unchanged, but the biceps force B is increasing so the vertical and horizontal components of the force, Bcos(α) and Bsin(α), both increase. {Recall: SOH-CAH- TOA: Sine is Opposite over Hypotenuse, Cosine is Adjacent over Hypotenuse, Tangent is Opposite over Adjacent.}

Going Deeper: Consider the following line diagram showing the key forces: 1) H on the right: the weight of the hand and its load; 2) FA: the weight of the forearm and the center of gravity of the forearm which may not necessarily be at the center of the forearm because of irregular weight distribution in the muscle, etc.; H on the left: the downward force of the upper arm/humerus on the elbow joint; E: the force at the elbow joint counteracting the horizontal component of the force of the biceps in order to maintain equilibrium; B: the force of contraction of the biceps. Notice that there are only 2 horizontal forces: the horizontal component of the biceps force counteracted by the horizontal component at the elbow.

This was a theoretical question requiring reasoning but no calculation. If a calculation was required, like any torque problem, you would need to choose a fulcrum (at which point the torque = 0) and then calculate the torques about that fulcrum. Typically, you would choose either the elbow joint or the point of biceps attachment to the radius as a fulcrum depending on what the unknown is (or unknowns are). If there are 2 unknowns, then you choose the fulcrum to eliminate one of the unknowns. If there is only one unknown, then choose any known point as the fulcrum

Which of the following best explains why the protocol requires the student to add the tea leaves to 80 °C H2O in Step 1? Caffeine is relatively soluble in H2O at 80 °C

-(Not H2O at 80 °C serves to dampen the dry tea leaves, H2O at 80 °C serves as a solvent for the reaction of calcium carbonate and caffeine, H2O at 80 °C is below the boiling point)

Purine, Caffeine is best characterized as a: -(Not steroid, pyrimidine, nitrogenous base) -Purines and pyrimidines are both nitrogen bases but the former has 2 rings and the latter has 1 ring, For example, the purines adenine and guanine (= "PurAG") and the pyrimidines thymine, cytosine and uracil

The solvent used to do the extraction should do all of the following EXCEPT: react chemically with the solute to form a complex product -(Do, be sparingly soluble in the liquid from which the solute is to be extracted, readily dissolve the substance to be extracted, be easily separated from the solute after extraction) -Ideally, a solvent dissolves the solute (for example, when you add salt to water) but you do not expect nor would the objective be to create a complex molecule between the water and the solute because that would change the nature of the solute (i.e., salt or caffeine, etc)

Which of the following best states the relationship between methylene chloride and the aqueous extract? Methylene chloride will make up the bottom layer of liquid and aqueous extract the top layer in the separatory funnel -(Not The aqueous extract will make up the bottom layer and methylene chloride the top layer in the separatory funnel, The aqueous extract is soluble in the methylene chloride, Impurities in the mixture are extracted from the methylene chloride to the aqueous extract) -the density of water is 1 g/ml (you are expected to know the density of water; also, water = aqueous) and the density of methylene chloride is given in the passage as 1.33 g/ml. Clearly, the more dense layer would be found at the bottom (answer choice A).

Going Deeper: for your interest ONLY: Dichloromethane or methylene chloride is the chemical compound with the formula CH2Cl2. It is a colorless, volatile liquid with a moderately sweet aroma which is considered to be infinitely miscible (able to be mixed together, soluble) with most organic solvents

receptor antagonist, In the absence of caffeine and when a person is awake and alert, little is expressed by CNS neurons. However, during a continued wakeful state, over time, adenosine accumulates in the neuronal synapses resulting in the binding to and the activation of adenosine receptors found on certain CNS neurons; when activated, these receptors produce cellular

responses that ultimately increase drowsiness. Thus it can be concluded that when caffeine is consumed, it acts as an adenosine: -(Not chaperone, promoter, receptor agonist)

-The question stem suggests that caffeine antagonizes adenosine receptors; in other words, caffeine prevents adenosine from activating the receptor by, presumably, blocking the location on the receptor where adenosine binds to it. As a result, caffeine temporarily prevents or relieves drowsiness, and thus it is a “stimulant” (see paragraph 1, or your experience!). In fact, the caffeine molecule is structurally similar to adenosine (both are purines), and is capable of binding to adenosine receptors on the surface of cells without activating them, and so we can be even more precise and say that caffeine acts as a competitive antagonist.

Since adenosine and caffeine are purines, their structures would not be consistent with a chaperone (answer choice A) which is a protein (i.e. heat shock proteins) that assist in the folding/unfolding and assembly/disassembly of macromolecular structures (knowing the definitions of each of the answer choices is very important for the new MCAT). A promoter (answer choice B) is a region of DNA that initiates transcription of a particular gene. Promoters are located near the transcription start sites of genes, on the same strand and upstream on the DNA (towards the 5' region of the sense strand). Caffeine is not an adenosine receptor agonist (answer choice C) as that would mean that caffeine induces drowsiness.

Going Deeper: A receptor antagonist (= “a blocker”) is a type of receptor ligand or drug that blocks or dampens agonist-mediated responses rather than provoking a biological response itself when binding to a receptor. Thus antagonists have affinity but no efficacy for their receptors (as suggested by the above, ‘efficacy’ refers to the relationship between receptor occupancy and the ability to initiate a response at the molecular, cellular, tissue or system level).

Also, as suggested by the passage and its structure, caffeine is both water- and lipid-soluble (that’s why it can be extracted by the procedure described in the passage), and as a result, it readily crosses the blood–brain barrier that separates the bloodstream from the interior of the brain where it interacts with the adenosine receptor

To answer this question, it is important to understand the experimental approach used in this work. To create a mutant, the amino acid sequence in a protein is altered by changing one or more amino acids in the original protein sequence. Since only few amino acids are changed, the

main folding and the general properties of the protein are not affected. However, massive changes can occur at the active site of the protein - in this particular case, a biotin-binding site.

It is given in the background information to this question that based on free energy calculations, introducing a negative charge at the position of S27 would disrupt the hydrogen bonds formed between S27 side chains of streptavidin and biotin. From illustration I, we can see the hydrogen bonds (implied by dotted lines as opposed to solid lines inferring covalent bonds) formed between the ureic oxygen of biotin and the hydrogen at the S27 amino acid residue (i.e. serine at position 27 in the primary structure) of streptavidin. To introduce a negative charge, negatively charged amino acids must be used. There are only two amino acids that are negatively charged at a physiological pH: glutamate (E) and aspartate (D). Therefore, the correct answer indicates D or E. Answer choice C is only partially correct because R (arginine) is a positively charged amino acid

The binding free energy, ΔG can be calculated using experimental approach and it depends on a number of factors including which of the following? -The internal energy change within a molecule, The electrostatic energy of the binding surface, The change in the conformational entropy

The difference in electrostatic properties as defined by the presence of the guanidine group in 2-iminobiotin and the absence of the ureic group in biotin, 2-iminobiotin shows a drastically lower binding affinity to the natural streptavidin as compared to biotin. Also, the streptavidin mutant has a significantly lower binding affinity to biotin as compared to the 2- iminobiotin, which is reflected by Ka values in the table. The main reason for such difference could be due to which of the following? -(Not The protonation change in the 2-iminobiotin affecting the formation of hydrogen bonds, The change in thermal energy in 2-iminobiotin as compared to biotin, The structural differences between the biotin and its analogs)

-The binding free energy modeling and mutant design was based on a local electrostatic charge distribution between biotin and its two analogs. This information was used to alter the electrostatic properties of streptavidin mutant by introducing a negative charge in the position S27. While other listed suggestions may have indirectly affected the binding affinity between streptavidin and biotin analogs, the main reason for such differences is the change in the ability to form multiple hydrogen bonds - in both cases as a result of altered electrostatic properties.

Note that answer choice A is a trap because it indicates that the formation of hydrogen bonds is affected, which is correct. However, the reason for affecting hydrogen bonds suggested is incorrect

The high ΔE value measured for biotin complexed with the streptavidin mutant could be explained by: the electrostatic attraction between biotin and the mutant being weak

-(Not the loss of van der Waals bonds formed between biotin analogs and streptavidin, the introduction of structural strains in the complex, the electrostatic attraction between biotin and the mutant being strong) -Electrostatic energy is directly related to attraction/repulsion between surfaces. The high values in electrostatic energy means the weak attraction, which is counterintuitive at first glance. Since the charge was altered in the streptavidin mutant, its binding affinity to biotin was reduced as reflected by the reduction in Ka values. Binding affinity depends on the ability of residues to form short-range interactions like salt bridges and hydrogen bonds, which is defined by the electrostatic properties of a binding domain (recall that ‘electrostatic’ simply refers to the fact that opposite charges attract and like charges repel). The electrostatic properties of a protein domain, in turn depend on the presence of polar and charged amino acid residues. Because of that, we conclude that the electrostatic attraction between the biotin and the streptavidin mutant should be weak

According to the information provided, the drastic reduction of the Ka measured for the streptavidin mutant complexed with biotin was likely due to which of the following? -The disruption of hydrogen bonds formed by the side chains between biotin and streptavidin, The change in the charge of the biotin-binding site of the streptavidin mutant -Not The conformational change within the molecule reducing the binding surface between biotin and streptavidin mutant -rom the scheme showing the binding between natural streptavidin and biotin (I), it is clear that there are two hydrogen bonds missing in the complex formed by the streptavidin mutant and the biotin (III). The formation of hydrogen bonds is affected by the change in amino acid residue in the mutant that has introduced a negative charge at the position S27. Therefore, both answer choices I and III are correct. Note that the hydrogen bonds are implied by dotted lines as opposed to solid lines inferring covalent bonds

0.82, Astatine is the last member of Group VII and is radioactive with a half-life of 8 hours. Astatine is an alternative to radioactive iodine for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid conditions. Consider the transport of an astatine sample which took 20 hours. What proportion of the sample had undergone radioactive decay? -A half-life of 8 hours means that every 8 hours, half of the sample will undergo radioactive decay. The total number of half-lives undergone by the sample is: 20 hours/(8 hours/half-life) = 5/2 = 2.5. The percentage of the sample leftover after radioactive decay is given by: (1/2)n where n = number of half lives. After 20 hours, the amount of our sample remaining is: (1/2)2.5 = (1/2)3 = 1/8 (approx.). Therefore, the proportion of the sample that has undergone radioactive decay is: 1 - 1/8 = 7/8 = 0.88. Note that the real answer is slightly lower than this value if you take our approximation into account. We could have deduced the answer without the equation by realizing that after 8 hours, 50% (half) of the sample has undergone radiation and after 16 hours, 75 % (half of the half remaining) of the sample has undergone radiation. Thus after 20 hours, the amount must be somewhat more than 75 % leaving only one possible answer What effect will increasing the pressure have on this system? The equilibrium will shift to the left, Less particles are on the left side of the equation (9 moles versus 10). Therefore,

the increase in pressure favors a shift in the equilibrium position to the left as the reactants occupy less volume (Le Chatelier's principle) Nitric oxide (NO) is a free radical which is well known as a powerful vasodilator with a short half- life of only a few seconds in blood. Consider the equilibrium shown below which was established within the confines of a closed system. Reaction I

4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ↔ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)

ΔHrxn = -1100 kJ mol-1

Why would sodium bicarbonate be added to local anaesthetics? -To increase the amount of the base form which shortens the time it takes to work -(Not To inhibit the formation of the base form so they take longer to work, To increase the amount of cationic form present and so it becomes less painful to inject, To equilibrate the amounts of cationic and base form present) -Addition of the weak base sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) acts to increase the pH of the solution. As pH rises, there are fewer positively charged hydrogen ions. The charged compounds release hydrogen ions into solution and the equation shifts to the right (see Figure 2) producing more of the uncharged base, increasing the rate at which the unionized form crosses the membrane to have its effect on the cytoplasmic side

Steroids, Cholesterol, cortisone and cortisol are best identified as: -Note, cortisol and cortisone, which are two common corticosteroids, are derived from cholesterol. Cholesterol is thus a precursor molecule to corticosteroids. Bile acids are steroid acids in which cholesterol also serves as a precursor

Which of the following would explain the non-separation of cortisol from cortisone by the method of gas-liquid chromatography (GLC)? The solid material in the column of the GLC,

through which substances pass in their mobile phase, absorbs cortisol and cortisone equally well. -(Not Cortisol and cortisone have relatively high boiling points, Cortisol and cortisone have very similar boiling points, Cortisol moves through the column of the GLC, through which substances pass in their mobile phase, at a much quicker rate than cortisone) -GLC separate compounds by molecular weight and polarity. If the solid material in the column absorbs both cortisol and cortisone equally well, then they cannot be separated by this method.

Answer choices B and C allude to the distillation method, in which compounds are separated by their boiling points. Therefore, these two choices are incorrect.

Answer choice D is also incorrect because it suggests that Cortisol can be separated out through GLC from cortisone, which is the opposite of what the question is asking

In the body tissues, cortisol is converted to cortisone by which of the following enzymes? 11-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase -(Not 11-Oxysteroid isomerase, Steroid ligase, Transferases) -Cortisol has a hydroxyl at the 11' carbon and cortisone has a carbonyl at the 11' carbon, thus 2 H's were removed requiring a dehydrogenase that acted at the 11th carbon (11-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase). It cannot be an isomerase because the 2 molecules differ by 2 hydrogens, meaning they must have different molecular formulae (thus they are not isomers). A ligase joins 2 molecules which is clearly not the case. And lastly, a transferase transfers a group of atoms but the reaction described is simply the removal of 2 hydrogens (= dehydrogenase; note that enzymes are often named as per their action)

In the reoxidation of QH2 by the enzyme Complex III ubiquinone-cytochrome c reductase, the stoichiometry of the reaction requires 2 moles of cytochrome c per mole of QH2 for which of the following reasons? Cytochrome c is a one-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a two-electron donor -(Not Cytochrome c is present in Complex III as 2 separate molecules, Cytochrome c is a two- electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a one-electron donor, As a result of the entropic penalty, twice as much cytochrome c as compared to QH2 is required) -As long as you recognize coenzyme Q from QH2, the difference of course being the loss of the 2 hydrogens WITH their electrons making QH2 a 2-electron donor (reminder: a covalent bond is composed of 2 electrons), and that you recall the relationship between coenzymes and metal ions (most often iron, and especially for cytochrome c), then you also recognize that cyt c is a one-electron acceptor in the reaction shown:

QH2 + 2 ferricytochrome c (Fe3+) --> Q + 2 ferrocytochrome c (Fe2+) + 2 H+

In summary, for many cytochromes, the metal ion present is iron, which interconverts between Fe2+ (reduced) and Fe3+ (oxidized) states (electron-transfer processes) or between Fe2+ (reduced) and Fe3+ (oxidized) states (oxidative processes), the difference between reactant and product in each case is one electron

When an ether solution of an aldehyde is added to an ether solution of lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4), the carbonyl group of the aldehyde will be: reduced to the corresponding primary alcohol -(Not hydrated to the corresponding diol, reduced to the corresponding secondary alcohol, deoxygenated to the corresponding alkane) -one of the very important reducing agents, LiAlH4, which can reduce aldehydes and ketones to their corresponding alcohols. However, an aldehyde has only one R group as a substituent but a ketone has two R groups. Thus an aldehyde is reduced to a primary alcohol and a ketone is reduced to a secondary alcohol.

Going Deeper: Reducing agents such as NaBH4 (generally 'mild') and LiAlH4 (strong) react with aldehydes and ketones to form alcohols. The reducing agent functions as if they are hydride ion equivalents and the H:- attacks the carbonyl carbon atom to form the product

Iodoform and 2,4-DNP, Acetone should give positive test results for which of the following chemical tests? -(Not Lucas and sodium bicarbonate, 2,4-DNP and Fehling's, Iodoform and potassium permanganate) -acetone as a ketone and whose molecular formula is CH3-CO-CH3. Next, a quick glance at Table 1 reveals ketones besides 2,4-DNP and CH3-CO- besides Iodoform

3-Pentanone falls into group VI, but acetone falls into group V. This is most likely due to the fact that acetone is: a methyl ketone -(Not a cyclic ketone, an aldehyde, aromatic)

How do gamma rays behave in an electric field? They are not deflected in any direction -(Not They are deflected toward the positive plate, They are deflected toward the negative plate, They oscillate between plates, that is, they are attracted to one plate and then the other) -Since gamma rays are uncharged electromagnetic rays, they are not deflected in magnetic or electric fields under normal conditions

(Graph) Beta Decay, How would the radioisotope of magnesium with mass number 27 undergo radioactive decay? -(Not electron capture, alpha decay, gamma ray emission)

All of the following contribute to the large, negative, Gibbs free energy change upon hydrolysis of “high energy” compounds EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception? Low activation energy of the forward reaction -(Yes Stabilization of products by solvation, Stabilization of products by extra resonance forms, Electrostatic repulsion within the reactant) -There are 2 key points: 1) the free energy change is calculated based on the difference of the energy of the reactants and products, NOT based on the activation energy (see diagram below; as an aside: notice the lowering of the activation energy with the use of an enzyme); 2) so called “high energy” compounds like ATP do not have low activation energy for the forward reaction because that would make ATP unstable at body temperature. The relative stability of “high energy” compounds is due to their relatively high activation energy for hydrolysis

-Phosphate groups are negatively charged and so repel each other (electrostatic repulsion) especially in close proximity (i.e. within the same molecule) making the energy of the reactant relatively high, which affects free energy. Solvation (when dissolving in water) has a negative free energy when polar molecules dissolve (spontaneous, favorable). Note that “high energy” compounds like ATP cannot be stabilized by resonance to the same extent as their products because of the competing resonance of the bridging anhydride oxygens (they are not as free to engage in resonance)

The following represents the primary structure for an active subdomain of SA with all circles being amino acids, all connections being covalent bonds, and the highlighting of the connection between amino acids at various positions in the primary structure, All of the following are true regarding the preceding diagram EXCEPT: 34 cysteine residues

-All, the diagram provides some information about the tertiary structure, there are exactly 17 cystine residues, none of the black circles can represent methionine -Covalent bonds between different regions of the primary structure points to disulfide bridges. There are 17 bridges meaning 17 cystine residues and at least 34 cysteine residues but more is possible, and in this case, probable.

Going Deeper: Of course, the primary structure is just the simple order of the amino acids. However, the diagram is showing some covalent bonds which are not along the primary sequence (i.e. bonding between amino acids at different points in the chain). This provides some information about the tertiary structure (disulfide bridges aid in the stabilization of the 3-D structure of proteins).

The bonds must be cys-cys as methionine, which is the other sulfur-containing amino acid, cannot be involved in disulfide bonding. Since cysteine-cysteine = the dipeptide cystine, there are exactly 17 cystine residues (17 times in the diagram that 2 black circles are connected with a bond) which must involve exactly 34 cysteine residues. However, this does not mean that the chain could not have other cysteine residues that are not involved in disulfide bonding (for example, proteins can have an uneven number of cys residues). In fact, the diagram has “SH” in the chain at the top left and there is only one amino acid that has SH: cysteine. So there is definitely more than 34 cys residues in SA.

Just for your interest, the formation of the disulfide bond is an oxidation reaction:

Changing the pH of binding reaction mixtures can have a dramatic effect on ligand- protein binding. Altering the pH of reactions between warfarin or ibuprofen and HSA is likely to: affect ibuprofen-HSA binding but not warfarin-HSA binding -(Not affect both reactions equally, affect warfarin-HSA binding but not ibuprofen-HSA binding, Not affect either interaction)

-According to paragraph 2 of the passage, the interaction between HSA and warfarin binding is hydrophobic, whereas the interaction between HSA and ibuprofen is ionic. Ionic interactions occur between negatively and positively charged groups in proteins. As the pH increases and decreases, the concentration of H+ ions decreases and increases, respectively, which interferes with interactions between other charged groups. Therefore, pH will readily disrupt the ionic interaction between HSA and ibuprofen, but not the anionic interaction between HSA and warfarin

The binding of Cu-PTSM, Cu-ATSM, and Cu-ETS to SA (40 mg/mL) from a variety of species was tested using radio thin layer chromatography (radio TLC) at 1 min, 30 min, and 24 hours.

After 24-h of mixing the copper chelates with SA, radio TLC revealed only the presence of the intact radiopharmaceuticals. Based on this information, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? The association between the radiopharmaceuticals and SA is reversible -(Not Radiocopper was lost to the protein by ligand exchange, All serum albumin have identical binding sites, regardless of species, The association between the radiopharmaceuticals and SA is irreversible) -This displacement of Cu-based ions by warfarin and ibuprofen, as shown in Table 1, confirms that the interaction is reversible because if it was irreversible they could not be displaced. The observation that only intact radiopharmaceuticals were detected by radio-TLC as shown above rules out the possibility that radio-copper was lost to the protein, because if copper was removed then both Cu-PTSM and PTSM (without copper attached) would have been detected.

Note that if answer choice C were true, all of the individual copper chelates would have similar binding affinity for their respective sites. However, it is clear that some bind with higher specificity to some serum albumins (Cu-PTSM and human serum albumin) than others (Cu- PTSM and dog serum albumin). Thus, there are likely differences in the binding pockets that account for the difference in binding affinity G2, Apo-X is a drug which blocks prophase from occurring. When Apo-X is added to a tissue culture, in which phase of the cell cycle would most cells be arrested? -The order of events in the cell cycle is: G1, S (synthesis), G2, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase. If a drug prevents prophase from occurring, most cells will be arrested at the stage immediately prior to prophase, G2

Complex II, Which complex in the electron transport chain does NOT contribute to the proton gradient? -Complex II is succinate dehydrogenase (or succinate-CoQ reductase) -The electron transport chain occurs on the inner mitochondria membrane, as part of the oxidative phosphorylation. The overall process of the electron transport chain includes the flow of electrons from NADH and FADH2 to O2, coupled with the synthesis of ATP via the proton motive force. This is powered by the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, from protons pumped into the intermembrane space. Among the four complexes involved in the electron transport chain, Complex I transports 4 protons, Complex III transports 4 protons, and Complex IV transports 2 protons.

Complex II is the only component that does not involve the transport of protons into the intermembrane space. Therefore, answer choice B is the correct answer.

Side note: The idea behind this question is commonly tested. Here is an alternate way the question could have been asked: As part of the electron transport chain, protons are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix at each of the following major sites EXCEPT for: Complex II

In parts of the world where malaria is endemic, individuals with sickle-cell trait cannot contract the disease. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? The protozoan which causes malaria cannot live in red blood cells containing the abnormal hemoglobin -(Not The protozoan which causes malaria needs the amino acid altered by the point mutation to survive, A closely linked gene to the mutated gene in anemic patients confers resistance to malaria, There is too little oxygen in sickle cell patients to support the protozoan which causes malaria) -Answer choice A. is false because for survival, eukaryotes usually require oxygen, carbohydrates, etc., but not a specific amino acid in a specific polypeptide; even if it were the case that the organism needed the replaced amino acid to survive, it could certainly find that amino acid in other cellular proteins. Answer choice B. is false because the explanation is improbable and the passage does not even hint of linked genes. Answer choice D. is false because the word "patients" implies people with the disease yet the question only refers to people with the trait (cf. P4/F1). Then we are left with the plausible explanation in answer choice C. which suggests that the organism cannot procreate in an environment where 40% of the hemoglobin is abnormal

Genetic Counseling, an area in which information from restriction fragment length polymorphism could have the most practical value is: -(Not, criminology, epidemiology, forensic research) -detection of polymorphisms (through restriction fragment length polymorphism) could be useful in pre- or postnatal diagnosis. It would follow that if the polymorphism can be detected in the child, then the same polymorphism could be detected in one or both of the parents. In this way parents may be advised of their chances of producing a child who will display the particular trait that is associated with the polymorphism before they try to conceive (e.g. genetic counselling)

If the heterozygous male in the first generation in Figure 1 was substituted with a homozygous male for the normal condition, the phenotypes of the third generation would be expected to be in the ratio of: 1 normal : 1 sickle-cell trait

Which of the following biological processes will be most affected by the presence of the mutant gene for sickle cell anemia in an individual? The production of carbon dioxide, water and ATP during the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation -(Not, Fermentation of pyruvate to lactate and ATP, Production of pyruvate and ATP in glycolysis, The production of carbon dioxide and ATP from ADP in the electron transport chain) -Sickle cell anemia lowers the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells. This means that less oxygen is reaching the cells for use in cellular respiration. Processes that can produce energy (ATP) in the absence of oxygen (glycolysis followed by fermentation) would be upregulated (occur more often) but limited by the fact that the product can accumulate and become toxic (lactic acid; just as an example, lactic acid can build up in muscles which can trigger incapacitating cramps). Option D. states that carbon dioxide is produced through the processes of the Electron Transport Chain, which is incorrect. We are left with option C. which makes sense because oxygen is needed to form carbon dioxide and water, and is also used in oxidative phosphorylation. Because this would be markedly decreased due to lack of oxygen delivery, it would be the process most affected

If another wild-type mouse was measured alongside the experimental mouse, with the exception that it has never been exposed to any light-dark cycles, one might expect that the dark-adapted mouse would: exhibit a similar circadian rhythm, varying only in pattern duration -While circadian rhythms and the way that cells and organisms respond to light are still being actively studied, they are endogenous, as the passage states. This means that certain processes, such as circadian rhythm, originate from the cells and organisms themselves.

A mouse that has never been exposed to a light cycle may have a skewed pattern that doesn't necessarily correspond to a 24-hour clock, but will display one nevertheless. In lieu of light cues, animals will sometimes adjust to other stimuli, such as a feeding schedule. B is incorrect for two main reasons; the question is not prompting whether any gene is or isn't expressed, and even so, the genes are expressed along with any circadian rhythm, as mentioned in the passage -The passage mentions that circadian oscillations are entrainable, which means that the patterns match that of patterned environmental stimuli. Thus, although circadian rhythms are endogenous, and occur even when isolated from environmental cues, they will adapt to external cues, such as a prolonged light-dark cycle. The extended light-dark cycle will not affect the double-mutant mouse, which will continue to display erratic activity

Glycerate-2,3-biphosphate likely functions to shift the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve by: reducing the affinity between oxygen and hemoglobin at low oxygen concentrations

-(Not, increasing the carbon carbon-dioxide concentration in the red blood cells, altering the pH of the tissue fluid surrounding the red blood cells, forming a complex with oxygen at low oxygen concentrations) -The effect of GBP is to cause a greater release of oxygen at areas of lower oxygen tension, without affecting the ability of hemoglobin to pick up oxygen at high pressures (i.e. in the lungs). To release oxygen to the cells, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen must be low, but only at those points at which oxygen is needed (where oxygen concentration is low).

CADET, face Right!

The causes of a rightward shift can be remembered using the mnemonic: CADET, face Right! This refers to an increase in CO2, Acid, 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature. Thus factors that move the oxygen dissociation curve to the right are conditions where tissues need more oxygen (= increased oxygen delivery to tissues = decreased oxygen binding to Hg).

For example, during exercise, muscles have a higher metabolic rate, need more oxygen, produce more carbon dioxide and lactic acid, and their temperature rises.

The following image (public domain, Ratznium) summarizes the shifts (you do not need to memorize ‘Haldane effect’ or ‘Bohr effect’ for MCAT purposes):

Dehydration, Considering only the process described, which of the following cellular reactions would be consistent with a negative ∆S? -(Not, Respiration, Catabolism, Hydrolysis) -A negative ∆S means that entropy is decreasing during the reaction.

Entropy is a measure of randomness so a decrease in entropy means that there is an increase in order (anabolism = the synthesis of more complex substances from simpler ones). A

dehydration reaction (condensation), for example, can take two monosaccharides, such as glucose and fructose, and join them together (to form sucrose) using dehydration synthesis. Thus 2 monosaccharides produce 1 disaccharide which means there is more order. The process of hydrolysis is the reverse reaction, meaning that the water is recombined with the two hydroxyl groups and the disaccharide reverts to being monosaccharides which increases entropy and is catabolic.

The second law of thermodynamics states that entropy increases in any real system. Respiration is a biochemical process with a significant amount of waste, for example, as heat lost to the universe

All of the following contain a phospholipid bilayer EXCEPT: basement membrane -(Yes, neurolemma, sarcolemma, cell membrane) -The sarcolemma and the neurolemma are specialized plasma membranes located in muscle cells and neurons, respectively. Recall that the plasma membrane consists of a lipid bilayer, in accordance with the Fluid Mosaic Model. When the plasma membrane surrounds cells, it is called the cell (or cellular) membrane, or cytoplasmic membrane, or plasmalemma.

The basement membrane, formed from a homogenous noncellular material lies at the base of the epithelial cells of the body

All of the following explain the ionic concentrations in Table 1 EXCEPT: Na+ and Cl- ions passively diffuse more quickly into the extracellular fluid than K+ ions -(Yes, Na+ ions are actively pumped out of the intracellular fluid, the negative charge of the cell contents repels Cl- ions from the cell, the cell membrane is more freely permeable to K+ ions than to Na+ and Cl- ions) -Table 1 shows us that the inside of the membrane is negatively charged (Vm = -70 mV), yet there are 10 times the number of sodium cations outside the membrane as compared to inside. The passage suggests that there should be a strong gradient for positively charged sodium to diffuse into the intracellular fluid (P2, S2-3; opposite charges attract). Also, since Table 1 shows that the ionic concentration of sodium outside the cell is so much greater than inside, then this would be another reason that sodium should diffuse into the cell. Thus the only way for sodium to be driven against its charge and concentration (= electrochemical) gradient is by active transport not diffusion (P2)

If cyanide was added to nerve cells, what would be expected to happen to the ionic composition of the cells? Intracellular Na+ would increase since the sodium pump would be impaired -(Not, Na+ ions would be actively pumped into the cell and K+ ions would be pumped out, The potential of the cell membrane would not be reversed so that Cl- ions would freely enter the cell, The cell membrane would become freely permeable to Na+ and Cl- ions) -The sodium-potassium pump uses energy to transport these molecules against their concentration gradients. Cyanide is an inhibitor of an essential enzyme of the electron transport chain, which is a major source of ATP (energy) for the cell. If cyanide is added to the cells,

considerably less energy will be produced, and the sodium potassium pump would be impaired, and depending on the concentration of cyanide and energy resources, the pump may be unable to function

The temporary increase in the sarcolemma's permeability to Na+ and K+ ions that occurs at the motor end plate of a neuromuscular junction is immediately preceded by: The release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron into the synaptic gap -(Not, The release of adrenaline from the motor neuron into the synaptic gap, The passage of a nerve impulse along the axon of a motor neuron, The release of noradrenaline from a sensory neuron into the synaptic gap) -acetylcholine is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is important in motor neurons. Acetylcholine must cause an action potential in the following cell to continue the signal to the appropriate muscle. Action potentials start with the membrane becoming temporarily more permeable to sodium ions, causing depolarization of the membrane. Therefore, the post-synaptic membrane (motor end plate; BIO 5.1F) will become more permeable to the positive ions immediately following acetylcholine being released from the pre-synaptic membrane and reaching receptors on the post-synaptic membrane by diffusion

The overall reaction which takes place at the sodium pump is given by the equation: 3Na+(inside) + 2K+(outside) + ATP4- + H2O →

3Na+(outside) + 2K+(inside) + ADP3- + Pi + H+

4, When a muscle is very active, at the end of glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate by the addition of H+ ions. During vigorous exercise, how many ions of K+ could be pumped into a cell per molecule of glucose? -Since the exercise is "vigorous," mostly anaerobic conditions prevail. Therefore, one molecule of glucose produces 2 molecules of ATP. Since we have 2 ATP, now you can multiply the given equation (in this question) through by 2. Thus the coefficient for potassium becomes 4

Alveoli, Active transport assumes particular importance in all but which of the following structures? -(Not, Cells of the large intestine, Nerve and muscle cells, Loop of Henle) -Active transport moves molecules against a gradient and requires energy (P1). Blood returning to the lungs from the rest of the body is deoxygenated and comes into contact with a high concentration of O2 in the lungs. Clearly O2 does not need to be actively transported and, rather, will readily diffuse. The alveoli of the lungs require such fast and efficient transport of O2 into the body and CO2 out of the body that only the rapid process of diffusion will do

At inhibitory synapses, a hyperpolarization of the membrane known as an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is produced rendering Vm more negative. This occurs as a result of: an increase in the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to Cl- ions -(Not, an increase in the postsynaptic membrane's permeability to Na+ and K+ ions, an increase in the permeability of the presynaptic membrane to Ca2+ ions, the entry of Cl- ions into the synaptic knob) -how do we make the membrane potential (Vm) more negative? The easy way to answer is simply by looking at the equilibrium potentials of the ions in Table 1. Only chloride and potassium have equilibrium potentials more negative than Vm. If the permeability of either of the two ions could be increased then Vm would become more negative (i.e. the value would become closer to that of the ion whose permeability increased). Thus answer choice D. is the only possible answer. In reality the membrane is always very permeable to potassium and that is an important reason resting Vm is negative. Thus increasing the already very high potassium permeability is not an important factor in membrane hyperpolarization. Imagine what would happen if the permeability to sodium suddenly increased: Vm would tend towards the equilibrium potential of sodium which is positive (= depolarization

One of the latest adaptations of the Sanger method uses four different colored fluorescent derivatives attached to the four different ddXTP terminators. The most likely main advantage of this new approach is that: all four reactions could be carried out simultaneously prior to electrophoresis and then can run on one gel -(Not, electrophoresis treatment to the denatured DNA would no longer be necessary, ddUTP can be used as a chain-terminating dideoxynucleotide triphosphate, the technique would be faster and more economical)

-Answer choice A. is incorrect since electrophoresis, as described by the passage (P3), is quite necessary as it provides information about the size of the fragments; for example, we would know how far A is from the end of the molecule compared to the nucleotide above and below in the gel (Fig. 1).

Answer choice B. is incorrect: Recall from the first paragraph that we are using chain- terminating dideoxynucleotide triphosphates. There is nothing to suggest that using ddUTP would be an advantage, nor that fluorescent dyes somehow make the use of ddUTP possible. And since we are dealing with DNA, not RNA, we expect the following to be possible for DNA (recall A:T, G:C) ddATP, ddTTP, ddGTP, ddCTP, not ddUTP.

Answer choice C. is unlikely since adding a step is unlikely to make the procedure faster, moreover, adding a fluorescent compound to an established procedure will not make it cheaper!

Finally, P2 describes how all four reactions are carried out in separate reaction mixtures or containers and Figure 1 shows the four different reactions running in four different gels. In so doing, it is clear which fragment contains A, T, G or C at its labelled end. However, if the dideoxynucleoside triphosphates were color labelled, different reactions could occur simultaneously in the same vessel and detected on one gel using the radiogram and then

analysing the color of each band (i.e. all red = ddA, green = ddC, etc.) instead of using four different containers and then checking under each ddX as in Figure 1. Interesting!

-Compound 1 antagonizes the cleavage and catalytic activities of NS3 protease. Therefore, it functions as an antagonist. Conversely, a placebo would be expected to have no effect because it is used as a negative control, whereas an agonist and a catalyst would be expected to have stimulatory effects A) an antagonist B) an agonist C) a catalyst D) a placebo

Positively Charged, Patients with different mutations in NS3 protease exhibit different responsiveness to Compound 1. Based on the information presented, if the difference in binding was strictly due to the amino acid mutations outlined in Figure 2, what type of amino acids are most important for the inhibitory action? -(Not, Negatively charged, Hydrophobic, Polar uncharged)

Almost all mammals, and certainly humans, are endotherms (“warm-blooded”). Consider radiant heat passing between an endotherm and its cooler environment. Heat would be expected to be radiated and absorbed in which of the following ways? Heat exchange occurs in both directions: the endotherm radiates more and absorbs less heat per unit area than the environment -(Not, Only the endotherm radiates heat, which is then absorbed by the environment, Only the environment radiates heat, which is then absorbed by the endotherm, Heat exchange occurs in both directions: the environment radiates more and absorbs less heat per unit area than the endotherm)

-Radiation happens when heat moves as energy waves, infrared waves (electromagnetic), directly from its source to something else. The environment can radiate, for example, from the sun, fire or artificial sources of heat. Blood flows to the skin so the heat can radiate into the environment. A two-way dynamic equilibrium occurs and, because the question stem puts the endotherm in a “cooler environment”, overall the endotherm radiates more and absorbs less.

If you had some doubts, consider that your body temperature is about 37 Celsius (98.6 Fahrenheit), but how would you feel if the environmental temperature was 30 Celsius (86 Fahrenheit)? Despite being in a cooler environment, you would still feel that the environment is radiating heat to you, even if overall (net) you were losing heat. The preceding is just a simple, tangible example illustrating the nature of the 2-way equilibrium.

Going Deeper: This question tests your understanding of homeostasis and the fact that your apparent equilibrium with your environment is a dynamic one. As endotherms, we maintain our bodies at a metabolically favorable temperature, largely by the use of heat released by its internal bodily functions instead of relying almost purely on ambient heat. Such internally

generated heat is mainly a byproduct of routine metabolism, but under conditions of excessive cold or low activity we might apply special mechanisms adapted specifically to heat production (i.e. shivering).

Side note: Endotherms can maintain a relatively high body temperature because cellular metabolism is less than 40% efficient leaving more than 60% converted to heat energy

One of the the possible injuries during a high speed motor vehicle accident includes a traumatic hemothorax in which blood accumulates in the pleural cavity. With regards to a traumatic hemothorax, which of the following would be of greatest concern? Low oxygenation due to compression of the lung -(Not, High oxygenation due to an elevated diaphragm, Low oxygenation due to blood in the main bronchi, High oxygenation due to excess blood inside of the alveoli)

-The lung is covered by a membrane (= the pleura). Lungs reside in the thoracic cage which includes the ribs, sternum and the muscles between the ribs (intercostal muscles). If blood accumulates in the space outside the lungs (the pleural space), since the thoracic cage is firm, the blood will apply pressure on the pliant lung thus reducing the size of the lung (reducing the surface area for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide). Thus blood oxygen levels can become dangerously low.

Note that since the blood is in the pleural space, it is not in the bronchi nor in the alveoli since they both reside withint the lung itself. Nonetheless, if blood poured into the alveoli, oxygenation would decrease remarkably since the surface to exchange gas by diffusion has been interrupted.

Note that an elevated diaphragm (answer choice A.) compresses the lung and would not cause high oxygenation. Not to mention, blood in the pleural cavity would not likely lead to an elevated diaphragm (if there is a large volume of blood, it could compress the lung and displace the diaphragm downward) A localized increase in IFNγ in lung tissue would lead to: an inflammatory response -(Not, a decrease in activin A expression, a disruption in T cell differentiation, an inflammatory response, negative regulation of activin A function) -Even supposing one knows nothing about interferon-γ, we know from Figure 1 that the incubation of alveolar macrophages with IFNγ causes a marked increased in activin A expression. The passage tells us that activin A is involved in the body's inflammation response, thus a localized increased in IFNγ would likely lead to inflammation. Both A and D are similar answers, but both are incorrect. IFNγ leads to an upregulation of activin A. B happens to be untrue, but it is irrelevant to the question

Before mounting an IFNγ-mediated response, alveolar macrophages may employ what process to protect the body against foreign bodies? Phagocytosis -(Not, Apoptosis, Antigen presentation, Plasmolysis)

-Since alveolar macrophages defend the body against foreign bodies, they must dispose of them upon contact, ingesting them via phagocytosis

Positive Regulator, GM-CSF knockout mice with permanently disrupted GM-CSF have been found to exhibit an over-expression of IFNγ. Thus, IFNγ's relationship to activin A is that of a(n): -(Not, inhibitor, anti-inflammatory regulator, transcription factor) -IFNγ is a positive regulator of activin A, as blocking IFNγ through a specific antibody decreases intrinsic activin A expression.

Going Deeper: A knockout mouse is a genetically modified mouse in which researchers have inactivated, or "knocked out", an existing gene. The loss of gene activity often causes changes in a mouse's phenotype. You may see 'knockout mice' on the new MCAT because they are important animal models for studying the role of genes. By causing a specific gene to be inactive in the mouse, and observing any differences from normal behaviour or physiology, researchers can infer its probable function

IFNγ is 143 amino acids long and within its sequence is 11 amino acids divided into two clusters termed D1 and D2. These 2 clusters have an affinity for heparan sulfate (HS). HS occurs as two or three chains associated with cell surface proteins involved in regulating a wide variety of biological activities. Consider the HS subunit below.

-Which of the following is most consistent with the primary structures of D1 and D2, respectively? KTGKRKR and RGRR

-The illustration presents the structure of a linear polysaccharide as the moiety of a proteoglycan (i.e. proteins that are heavily glycosylated). The key aspect to the structure is the ubiquitous presence of anions (carboxylate and sulfate) which would suggest that the greatest affinity to a binding site would be where positively charged amino acids would be present. In other words, high content in arginine (arg, R) and lysine (lys, K), though histidine (his, H) could have a positive charge as it is a good buffer, but is not among the answer choices. Answer choices B and C contain hydrophobic amino acids (alanine, ala, A; phenylalanine, phe, F; tyrosine, tyr, Y; tryptophan, try, W). Answer choice D is predominantly negatively charged (aspartic acid, asp, D; glutamic acid, glu, E) and thus would repel HS

Three of the plates were treated with water to: insure that any change in the number of bacteria were the result of the addition of antibiotics -(Not, account for bacteria that grow better in an aqueous medium, account for bacteria that grow worse in an aqueous medium, insure that all extraneous factors that could cause a change in bacteria number were eliminated) -The water is meant to serve as a control since it is of an equivalent volume to that of the added antibiotics, it can be assumed that it is meant only for measuring an antibiotic-free environment peptidoglycan in cell wall, What is the likely feature of certain bacteria which allow them to retain dye upon being stained? -(Not, the presence of a bilayer nuclear membrane, pili on surface of cell wall, the presence of active Golgi bodies) -Dye attaches to the peptidoglycan in the cell wall. Note that according to Table 2, no pili were present. Bacteria (prokaryotes) do not have a nucleus nor Golgi bodies (apparatus) -bacteria are prokaryotes and thus have no membrane bound intracellular organelles (i.e. no nucleus, no Golgi, no ER, no lysosomes, no mitochondria, etc.). Of course, bacteria do have ribosomes as the latter is a complex of rRNA and protein but is not membrane bound

40, If five bacterial cells were plated on a culture dish, in a medium without any antibiotics, and incubated under ideal conditions, how many cells would most likely be present on the plate after 3 generations?

-Bacterial growth is exponential when incubated under ideal conditions and is often calculated as doubling time 2n. The equation is actually B x 2n, where B is the number of bacteria that you start with and n is the number of generations. For example, beginning with 5 bacterial cells and 3 divisions described in the question stem, we get 5 x 23 = 5 x 8 = 40 cells present after 3 generations.

The old fashioned way (!!): 5 cells divide so after 1 generation there are 10, after a 2nd generation there are 20, and after a 3rd generation there are 40

Mesoderm, Which of the following gives rise to the skeletal system?

Tonus, Which of the following refers to a continuous partial contraction of a muscle? -(Not, Tetany, Twitch, Tremor) -The difference between tetanus and tonus is that the former is a sustained contraction, lacking any relaxation, while the latter describes the state of partial contraction of all muscles. Of course, 'tonus' is just Latin for tone so the definition is simply describing muscle tone (a constant low-level activity of muscle tissue).

A twitch is a a short, sudden jerking movement that may look like a spasm.

A tremor is an involuntary quivering movement (= oscillations of muscle contraction and relaxation, there may also be twitching)

E. coli does not have a nucleus, The difference between the bacterium E. coli and the fungus Aspergillus is: -(Not, Aspergillus contains ribosomes, E. coli has a cell wall, Aspergillus can undergo anaerobic metabolism) -Bacteria are prokaryotes and therefore do not have a nucleus. Fungi, on the other hand, are eukaryotes and therefore contain a nucleus, so this is the difference between the two organisms. Note that both fungi and bacteria have cell walls, ribosomes and can undergo anaerobic metabolism

Eyes And Vision -Rods are sensory visual receptors that exist in the retina along with cones. These cells are bigger than cones and are concentrated at the periphery of the human retina but absent in the fovea centralis (the center). They are thought to be responsible for low light intensity vision, i.e., night or scotopic vision

-Day vision and color vision are enabled by sensory visual photoreceptors called cones. These cells are thought to be responsible for color vision, day vision, and visual acuity, that is, high light level or photopic vision. They exist in greatest density in the fovea centralis (the center) of the human retina

Accurate vision is not a specific type of vision, as it can refer to many aspects. In those aspects that relate to the acuity of vision, such a process is thought to be enabled by cones

Summation Wave, Silence And Darkness, Diminished And Inverted When light rays encounter obstacles in their path, such as the slits in the Young slit experiment, they bend around them to some extent and fill the region behind the obstacle, a phenomenon called diffraction (this is a result of the wavy nature of light). Refraction is the bending of light rays due to a change in velocity when waves go from one medium to another. Reflection occurs when light rays bounce back into a medium from a surface with another medium (e.g. a mirror reflects light). Selection has something to do with biology!

It Would Be Halved, Under otherwise constant conditions, what would happen to the distance on a screen from the central maximum interference pattern to the nth order maximum if the distance between the slits was doubled?

Reflection is the process by which light rays bounce back into a medium from a surface with another medium. Note that there are 2 surfaces, both A and B, which meet the criterion for reflection. Remember: just because some light reflects, does not mean that all of the light reflects. Specifically, some of the light will transmit completely through the bubble while some would have been reflected at A and some at B

The cladding must have a lower index of refraction than the core, What condition of the cladding will ensure that light signals are confined in the core? -(Not The cladding must be conducting, The dielectric nature of the cladding, The cladding must have a higher index of refraction than the core)

-A dielectric is a medium or substance that transmits electric force without conduction and thus a dielectric is an insulator (even if you were not sure, silica is a form of glass which is an insulator). Paragraph 1 establishes 2 points: 1) we are dealing with dielectric materials and 2) light is confined to the core because of the difference in index of refraction between the 2 layers of silica.

On the Surface: By definition, total internal reflection can occur on the condition that 0 < n2 < n1. The external medium with refraction index n2 being the cladding, and the incident medium with refraction index n1 being the core, the result follows.

Easy to remember: Light can be retained (e.g. total internal reflection) in the medium with the higher index of refraction (= higher optical density).

Going Deeper: Let's break the Physics down so that you can keep it straight during the real exam. The higher the value of n (index of refraction), the greater the optical density. You probably already have the sense that water or glass would be more optically dense than air. Optical density or the index of refraction, is an indication of the degree to which a refractive medium retards transmitted rays of light (yes, the light slows down). This can also relate to the bending of light when it enters that medium. Higher n? More bending.

Here is the big picture: When light is coming from a medium that is more optical dense (higher value of n), that medium can retain the light! Yes, the light will not escape from the medium with the higher optical density.

Always? Of course not, after all, if you are standing at the side of a pool (so you are in air, less optically dense), you can see the bottom of the pool (light is moving through the water, transmitted/refracted at the surface of the water and then makes a beeline for your eyes). But, if you keep your eye on a particular spot at the bottom of the pool and then start walking away, you will get to the point that you can't see that spot anymore. If there was no water, you could see it. But because the water is there, and more optically dense than air, it has retained the light beyond a particular angle of incidence to the surface, of course, that is the famous critical angle and, beyond which, there is total internal reflection within the water. No light escapes beyond the critical angle when the light is coming from the more optically dense (higher n) medium.

Gold Nugget: And so, if the indices of refraction of 2 transparent media are different (i.e. different optical densities), then the velocities of light in the 2 media are different, the wavelengths are different but famously, the frequency does not change (an MCAT classic!).

Helpful equations:

1) The speed of light in a medium is v = c/n where c is the speed of light in a vaccuum and n is the index of refraction. In other words, as the index of refraction increases, the speed of light in that medium decreases (as compared to a vacuum).

2) Since frequency f is constant for the described condition above, velocity v and wavelength λ are directly related: v = λ f.

3) As a result of the above, the energy (E = h f) of the photon is not affected by the refraction or the refractive index of the medium (note that h = Planck's constant, approximately 6.6 x 10-34 joule-seconds)

If the critical angle in medium 1 is larger than that in medium 2, both measured with respect to an interface with air, which of the following statements is exact? Medium 1 has a lower index of refraction than medium 2

-The relation for the critical angle θc is , where n1 is the refraction index of the incident medium, n2 that of the external medium. Since total internal reflection can only occur on the condition that 0 < n2 < n1, the function sin(θc) is limited to the interval from 0 to 1 where it is increasing, and θc ranges from 0 to 90o. If θc is higher in medium 1, then medium 1 has a lower refraction index, n1.

Some background: A reasonable way to imagine the critical angle is that it is the angle of incidence beyond which rays of light passing through a denser medium (more optically dense, higher n) to the surface of a (or interface with a) less dense medium (less optically dense, lower n) are no longer refracted but totally reflected. More specifically, it is the angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90°. You can look at the explanation to the previous question for some other issues surrounding the critical angle but here we will focus on the common representation of Snell's law: n1 sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2 if n1 has the higher index of refraction then it can 'retain' light (total internal reflection) producing an angle of refraction of 90 degrees.

Where n1 > n2 n1 sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2 = n2 sin(90) = n2 (recall that the sine of 90 degrees is the number 1)

θ1 is the critical angle which we can now symbolize as θc, thus: sinθc = n2 / n1

Knowing that the sine of an angle can never be greater than the number 1, you now have a mathematical reason why n1 > n2.

And so, increasing θc increases sinθc and the consequence of that according to the equation above is that n1 must be relatively lower to maintain the equality

1.30, Consider that the critical angle at the interface between the core and the cladding is 60o. If the core has an index of refraction of 1.50, what is the index of refraction of the cladding?

-the sine of the critical angle θc is given by:

sinθc = n2 / n1

... we also reasoned based on Physics, and separately based on algebra, that n1 must be greater than n2 and thus answer choice D is not possible.

From the AAMC's official syllabus (just google MCAT topics) for the current MCAT: "sin and cos values of 0°, 90°, and 180°; relationships between the lengths of sides of right triangles containing angles of 30°, 45°, and 60°". Of course, sin 60° = (root 3)/2 = 0.866. {If you have forgotten your MCAT-related algebra then consider the video below New: MCAT Translational Motion: The Basics}

Thus, the index of refraction of the cladding is: n2 = n1 sinθc = 1.50 sin 60° = 1.5 (.9) = 1.35

The angle of refraction in the optical fiber increases, We know that for silica, the index of refraction varies nonlinearly with the wavelength of the light passing through it; this relation is illustrated in Figure 3. Suppose now that the incident light signal has a fixed angle of incidence. How does the angle of refraction in the optical fiber vary if the wavelength of the incoming signal increases steadily? -as the wavelength increases, the index of refraction decreases. Snell's law provides the equation where the left side represents the incident medium (air) and the right side the silica fiber. The left being constant, so must the right side be; hence, as the index of refraction of silica n2 decreases, the angle θr must increase

When light falls on rod cells: 11-cis-retinal is converted to all-trans-retinal -Link your knowledge of rods to infer that the question is referring to the reaction shown in Figure 1. Using the numbering system alluded to in the figure and described in the caption, you can reason that the double bond at C-11 is being converted from cis to trans and that the product has all trans double bonds.

Going Deeper: Rods are light-sensitive photoreceptors that contain the membrane protein, rhodopsin (assumed knowledge, but also mentioned in paragraph 1 of the passage), which contains retinal, whose photoisomerization (i.e., the conversion between two isomers caused by light) is shown in Figure 1. The symbol above the arrow in Figure 1 is the Greek letter gamma, which symbolizes light energy. Alternatives include just putting “E” or “light” or “hf” (from physics, E = hf where h is Planck’s constant, f is the frequency; PHY 9.2.4, 12.5)

-Note the double bond between carbons 11 and 12: the substituents at that double bond are on the same side (cis or Z for "zame zide"!), but that same position becomes trans (E) in the product. In fact, carefully evaluating the product will show that all the double bonds are trans.

Also note: The “al” suffix indicates that retinal is an aldehyde, as can be seen by C-15, which is HC=O (note that answer choice B says "retinol," which would be an alcohol). Please keep in

mind that even if answer choice B had said "11-cis-retinal is converted to 11-trans-retinal," it would still be wrong because D is the best answer (i.e., the most accurate description of the product).

Final point: Retinal is one of the many forms of vitamin A and is the chemical basis of animal vision, and it all begins with the photoisomerization of retinal

.25, After 10 minutes in the dark, what fraction of rhodopsin is photobleached? -While Figure 2 shows a y-axis value of approximately 0.75 at 10 minutes, the equation (and the axis label) reminds us that the y value is given as (1-p), meaning the fraction of rhodopsin that has been regenerated. Thus, if 0.75 has been regenerated, then 0.25 remains photobleached

The equation for the recovery of rhodopsin gives a time constant of 350 seconds. This represents: the average amount of time required for half of the rhodopsin to be regenerated -(Not the time required for all of the rhodopsin to reach full regeneration, the rate at which rhodopsin generates after light exposure, the maximum velocity of rhodopsin regeneration) -If we take a look at Figure 2, we see that 350 seconds (just under 6 minutes) approximately corresponds to the amount of time required for 50% of the rhodopsin to be regenerated.

Going Deeper: In case you got tripped up by the question stem, a “time constant” is simply a measure of time that it takes to observe significant change in a given process. What that change is would need to be defined (or discovered, as was the case in this particular question). In first- order kinetics, the time constant is the reciprocal of the rate constant

Color blindness in the early stages of disease presentation, Retinitis pigmentosa is a group of inherited progressive disorders of rod cells that can lead to complete blindness. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with retinitis pigmentosa? -(Most Likely, A mutation in the gene coding for rhodopsin, Increase in the minimum time for regeneration after light exposure, A mutation in rhodopsin pre-mRNA splicing factors)

-On the Surface: Cones = Color; rods are responsible for dim light and peripheral vision. A defect in rods would not be expected to present with color blindness in the early stages.

Going Deeper: A mutation in the gene for rhodopsin or in its pre-mRNA splicing factors would lead to the production of defective rhodopsin, which will not perform optimally. Among other issues, the minimum time for regeneration (possibly 20 minutes from Figure 2 or as long as 45 minutes from the second paragraph of the passage) would be expected to increase because, as a whole, the ability of rhodopsin molecules to regenerate is suboptimal.

Not surprising: Recent investigations have shown that adequate vitamin A (= a combination of retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids) supplementation can postpone blindness in patients with retinitis pigmentosa (RP) by up to 10 years.

Also not surprising (!): Patients in the early stages of RP first notice compromised peripheral and dim light vision due to the decline of the rod photoreceptors.

Cone cells (Cones = Color vision = visual aCuity) work best in relatively bright light. Cones in a human eye are most concentrated toward the macula, especially in its center, the fovea centralis, a small rod-free area with very densely packed cones; these quickly reduce in number toward the periphery of the retina

Real, Based on the passage, what type of image would have to be produced by the objective magnification? -Not Virtual/Real -In order for the eyepiece to magnify the first image formed by the objective, this image has to be real. If it were virtual, no light rays would emerge from it and therefore it could not be magnified by the eyepiece

Two compound microscopes A and B were compared. Both had objectives and eyepieces with the same magnification but A gave an overall magnification that was greater than that of B. Which of the following is a plausible explanation? The distance between objective and eyepiece in A is less than the corresponding distance in B -(Not The distance between objective and eyepiece in A is greater than the corresponding distance in B, The eyepiece and objective positions were reversed in A, The eyepiece and objective positions were reversed in B) -The magnification by the first lens will be the same for both microscope A and microscope B, but the magnification by the second lens (given as M = -i/o where i is the image distance and o is the object distance) will change when the objective and eyepiece are moved. The relationship between i and o can be seen using the lens equation 1/f = 1/i + 1/o. First, the objective lens creates an image distance o away from the eyepiece. Propagating that image through the second lens, consider what happens when the two lenses are moved closer to each other (that is, o decreases). As o decreases, using the lens equation, the new image distance i on the opposite side of the eyepiece must increase. This move increases the magnification by the second lens, giving a larger overall magnification

0.04mm, The magnification of the eyepiece of a compound microscope is x15. The image height is 25 mm and the magnification of the objective is x40. What is the object height? -The total magnification of the object is equal to the product of the magnification contributed by each lens. Therefore, total magnification = 15 x 40 = 600. From magnification = (image height)/(object height), we get 600 = 25/x, thus x = 25/600 = 1/24 = 1/25 approximately = 0.04 mm

200 Diopters, What is the refractive power of an objective lens with a focal length of 0.50 cm?

Using diopters = 1/(focal length in meters) Number of diopters = 1/(0.50 x 10-2 m) = [102/0.5] = 102/(1/2) = 2 x 102 = 200

Side Note: Although there is no agreed upon SI abbreviation for diopters (some use 'dpt'), the AAMC typically uses the capital letter D in their practice materials and exams (of course, m-1 is most consistent with the SI system)

Moderator Variables, Changes Strength of Relationship Between Independent And Dependent Variables, Standardization, Reliability, Validity

A) Macrosocial B) Microsocial

A) False Positives, Type 1 Error, Rejection of a True Null Hypothesis B) False Negatives, Type 2 Error, Non-Rejection of A False Null Hypothesis

-Macrosocial, Parts To A Whole, Rites of Passage, How Society Remains Stable -a mediating variable in the study of stress, health, and psychological outcomes? When the variable discrimination is introduced, it helps to explain the relationship between stress and health -A mediating variable (also known as the moderator, intervening variable, or intermediary variable) is a variable that is thought to affect the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. Imagine that respondents fulfilled a stress survey (independent variable). They experimental group was then subjected to discrimination (mediating variable) whereas the control group was not. Then, finally, physical and psychological health measures would be gathered. If results showed that more stressed respondents who were subjected to discrimination had more negative health outcomes than those who wore not subjected to discrimination, then discrimination would be a mediator

-A moderating variable is a variable that moderates (i.e., strengthens or lessens) the relationship between two variables. That is, it does not always and necessarily strengthen such relationship - A bias is an error introduced into the study that affects the findings -Regression toward the mean is a threat to internal validity. Regression toward the mean occurs when the first measurement produces extreme results. Then, more than likely, the outcome during the second measurement will be closer to the mean

-Internal validity, External validity, Content validity, Construct validity -Questions of validity are often brought up when discussing intelligence measures. Internal validity refers to whether the inferences or conclusions drawn can be linked back to the independent variable(s). In the example provided in the passage, no independent measures were mentioned. That is, internal validity concerns the design of the experiment. It is often contrasted with external validity, which is concerned with the way findings obtained in a specific study can be generalized to other situations and people. The passage questions precisely whether the attribute of intelligence can be generalized, which makes it more likely that the claim in the passage is referring to external, not internal, validity. Content validity refers to the extent to which all facets of a given construct are reflected in the adopted measure. As the passage mentions, each one of the tests assesses different aspects of intelligence. In particular, g-factor tests such as Raven’s Progressive Matrices exclusively aim at assessing fluid

intelligence and not crystallized intelligence. They do not reflect every facet of what has been associated with the construct of intelligence. Construct validity refers to the extent to which the instrument or psychological assessment tool is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. Given that different aspects of intelligence are measured via the two tests, and in particular Wechsler tests, which include a wide range of subscales that assess different skills, it is possible that the tests are not exclusively assessing “intelligence” but some related or additional aspect, such as declarative memory

Internal Consistency -is a type of reliability that assesses the coherence or redundancy of the components of a measure or the items of a scale. It is usually quantified through the Cronbach’s alpha. As a rule of the thumb, alpha coefficients below 0.70 translate poor reliability. A high Cronbach’s alpha demonstrates that the instrument captures the construct being examined and the instrument yields consistent or reliable scores -Internal consistency is unrelated to how high the response rate will be, is unrelated to the sensitivity threshold for a particular study population if responses were measured via forced-choice, discrete, categorical variables? -Many migrants moving for more than one reason A) Poor access to specific migrant communities B) Social changes affecting migration reasons C) Migrants lying about their reasons

-Migrants may have come for more than one reason, and therefore it would be difficult to classify their reason for coming to the country via forced-choice, single, mutually exclusive categorical variables. For example, someone may come to join family, to study, and to work. In this way, the question would not actually be measuring the overall reasons for migrating, but forcing participants to choose an option. This could affect validity and reliability. On another day, participants might choose a different reason, and the assessed reasons at a single point in time might not accurately translate existing reasons. None of the other possible research design issues is directly linked with the type of adopted question. Social changes would affect the reliability of results regardless of the adopted question. There is no lack of migrants to research, as is shown by the data. However, there may be representative and thus validity issues if migrants who participate belong to specific communities, such as those who legally enter the country with the original intent to stay. In this case, the outlined reasons may be skewed and not represent the reasons of the whole community. Yet this would be a sampling issue and not related to the adopted question. There is no reason that legal migrants would lie to the researcher more than any other respondent, such as due to the social desirability bias. This is a trustworthiness issue also unrelated to the type of adopted question

Endowment Effect -does not amount to a methodological limitation. Instead, it amounts to the hypothesis that people ascribe more value to the things they own than to the things they do not possess.

Therefore they would tend to demand more money or assets to sell or give up their possessions than they would be willing to pay to acquire them

-Generalizability, Attrition Bias, Selection Bias, Multidimensional Scales, Conformity And Deindividuation, Social Desirability Issues, Confirmatory Expectations

The Gini Coefficient -whether there are more or less inequalities in health in a population

-One limitation of the Gini coefficient is that it does not take into account benefits and income distributed to informal markets, as it is difficult to measure thoseThe Gini coefficient is a relative measure of inequalities. It is possible to compare different Gini coefficients of different countries, over time and explore whether they indicate more or less inequality, but the Gini coefficient by itself does not indicate how absolute earnings increase or decrease over time, The Gini coefficient is a relative measure that cannot be used to make observations and predictions about the absolute number of people living in poverty in a country. The Gini coefficient has been criticized in that under certain circumstances (e.g., population changes) it can indicate greater equality while the actual number of people living in poverty is rising

Social Gradient In Health -Education, Housing, Unemployment

Conflict Theory To Reduce The Social Gradient In Health -Put hospitals under state control rather than market control

1) Meta-analysis, is a quantitative method that employs statistical techniques to synthetize, or summarize the empirical results of multiple independent studies. It involves collecting a set of independent studies that defined similarly and studied the same set of targeted variables. Then, the findings of the multiple studies are compared to one another via some chosen technique (e.g., relative risk, means, and differences). Finally, it may provide a summary result of the strength of the association between the targeted variables. This is what is illustrated in Figure 1, which lists a set of studies, and summarizes and compares their results. In the meta-analysis in Figure, the independent variables were short and long sleep duration, and the dependent variable was the risk of developing or dying of coronary heart disease). The chosen comparison method was relative risk, and an overall relative risk is further provided. 2) Solomon four-group design, is an experimental design. It includes two experimental and two control groups. Each of the groups is exposed to different components of the intervention. This is not what is illustrated in the Figure, which lists a set of studies and describes and compares their results 3) Longitudinal cohort design involves selecting a group that shares a similar characteristic (e.g., age), and following that group over a period of time to monitor the effect of time on a set of dependent variable(s)

4) Ethnography is a qualitative method often used in anthropology to study a cultural group and its norms, values, and cultural practices by observing the way they live from within, as a participant observer. This is not what is illustrated in the Figure, which lists a set of studies and describes and compares their results.

A) Correlation Tests Such As Pearson’s, Correlations test the strength and significance of the relationship between two variables. The null hypothesis is “there is no relationship between variables.” B) Mean And Standard Deviation Analysis, Means and standard deviations are not hypothesis tests; they are descriptive statistics that help to describe and explore patterns in data C) Group Differences Tests Such ANOVA, If the null hypothesis was “skin conductance means do not significantly differ for different colors,” which of the following statistical techniques would specifically test this hypothesis? D) Normality Tests Such As Kolmogorov–Smirnov’s, Normality tests such as Kolmogorov–Smirnov investigate whether the data is normally distributed. The null hypothesis is “the data is normally distributed”; it does not concern group differences

Time Lag, It examines data on people of the same age at different points in time

Sampling Bias, Self Selection Bias -refers to a consistent error that is produced due to the sample selection. Those who volunteer for a research study may be motivated in ways compared with those who did not volunteer for a study. In a study about suicide, those who volunteer for the study may be more motivated and less apathetic, which may then mean that they do not represent the larger group of interest, that is, others who are suicidal

Probability Sampling -refers to a type of sampling in which everyone has the opportunity to participate. Recruiting research volunteers is an example of non-probability sampling

Confounding spillover effect of the intervention into the assessment phase in Group 1 -some spillover of the intervention in Group 1, where the research subjects started the intervention (mountain climbing) and then moved into the assessment phase (control phase). However, this does not pertain to sampling

Double Blind Procedures Likert Type Scale, Ordinal Scale 1) Conformity Expectations 2) Self-Fulfilling Prophecy

Singlism refers to negative stereotyping and discrimination directed toward people who are single. One way to study singlism is to have research subjects use adjectives to describe single

and married people. A study has shown that generally more positive adjectives are ascribed to married people than to single people.

Gender Stereotypes pertain to beliefs about traits possessed by males and females. This would not clarify about singlism.

Ethnocentrism refers to judging another culture based on the standards of one’s own culture and believing one’s own culture to be superior. This would not clarify about singlism.

Ingroups And Outgroups are social groups with which an individual identifies as being a member or does not identify as being a member. This would not clarify about singlism

1) Construct Validity; Measures The Right Variable, that is, whether the experimental procedures measure ways of overcoming distractions such as the bright lights and noise, Construct validity refers to the extent the instrument is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. In this case, the dependent variable was ceasing to play. The independent variable was attending to the pop up message; this is the construct being assessed. The fact that noise and bright lights were not considered in the original design does not demean in any way the validity of the used construct. Moreover, the raised criticism is concerned with the generalization of findings to the real world, not with the quality of the adopted measure. They call attention to the possibility of having overlooked an important variable 2) Internal Validity; Results Linked Back To Independent Variable, that is, whether the bright lights and noise can cause attrition, Internal validity refers to whether the inferences or conclusions drawn can be linked back to the independent variable(s). It is unrelated to attrition (participants’ drop out of longitudinal studies). If bright lights and noise are regarded as a confounding variable, possibly mediating gambler’s attention to the popup message, then the internal validity might be threatened 3) External Ecological Validity; (Lab Setting), that is, whether in the real world the pop- up messages would be effective, because in a casino the bright lights and noise can be distracting, Ecological validity is a subtype of external validity that refers to the extent that the findings or data from a laboratory experiment or research study can be generalized to the real world. The original study measured whether pop up messages (independent variable) could lead players to cease playing (dependent variable). The question describes a possible limitation of this design, namely the absence of bright lights or noises in a laboratory setting. In typical casinos, these are present. Their presence might change the relationship between independent and dependent variable found in the casino. That is, the criticism was concerned with whether the findings could be generalized to the real world, that is, with ecological validity. In the laboratory the confounding variable would be absence of bright lights and noise 4) Predictive Validity; How 1 Score Can Affect Another, that is, the extent to which the bright lights and noise in a casino can predict whether gamblers continue to play, Predictive validity refers to how well the scores of an instrument can predict another criterion (or instrument, or measure) that assesses the same construct. For example, if

the results obtained with some intelligence measure help to predict those obtained with a different intelligence measure. Noise and bright lights could be regarded as an additional variable assessing attentional processes (not paying attention or forgetting to the set budgetary limits) and ceasing to play as a confirmation of having payed attention

A) Prevent A Response Set, All Cs, rote responding, which involves answering to questions in an automatic, non-reflected manner. For example, research participants may simply go down the instrument and select the response that falls in the middle (central tendency response bias). To prevent rote responding, researchers can vary the format of the questions, invert the answering scale, or intermix the correct choice position. These strategies aim at forcing participants to read and think about the question before answering, and to prevent impact of response bias heir impact on the validity of the study B) Provide A Rationale for Conducting A Pilot Study, mini-studies of the actual research study. The goal of a pilot study is a test run of the actual study to identify any flaws or errors that can be rectified C) Increase Face Validity, whether, on the surface, the question items of the instrument appear to be measuring what they are supposed to. The operative word is “appears”: it is a subjective assessment, because to examine face validity one is simply reviewing the question items and making an evaluation D) Increase Ecological Validity, whether the findings gathered in laboratory settings can be generalized to the real world

Collectivist Oriented, Asians And Hispanics Collectivism, Cross-Cultural Study

-Traditional ideologies and hierarchical relationships are not relevant to collectivism. At best, they would relate to, e.g., Geert Hofstede’s power distance dimension -Although possibly co-occurring phenomena, the definition of collectivist behaviors does not revolve around the demonstration of respect for the elderly

Geert Hofstede -described a set of dimensions that helped to culturally describe different social groups, two of which were the contrasting dimensions of "collectivism" versus "individualism". It refers to a cultural value that emphasizes orientation toward collective units or primary groups such as family and friends. The social networks of collective cultures are extensive and valued. Risk aversion tends to be high in collectivist communities, with the exception of risks which are deemed permissable for the common good of the community.

Edward T. Hall’s -distinction, communication styles can be characterized into low-context or high-context cultures. High-context cultures value indirect communication styles; much is left unsaid and needs to be inferred. Although these are often and respectively related to collectivist and

individualist cultures, the core of the definition of collectivism does no revolve around this distinction

Collectivist v. Individual Societies -The study described in the question recruited users from Western countries choosing English language settings. This makes it highly likely that this sample was composed of individuals from individualist cultures, such as the United States, Canada, Australia, and United Kingdom. Asia, on the contrary, is classified as having a collectivist or high-context culture. Those recruited from Asian countries and choosing Asian language settings probably belonged to such a collectivist culture. Individualistic cultures put strong emphasis on individual needs and desires. Emotions are seen as a way of expressing these, and members of individualist cultures are more likely to express them explicitly. Individuals from collectivist cultures are less likely to express their personal emotions explicitly in order to maintain the stability of the group. Additionally, there are a few studies showing that honor-related values and emotions such as pride and shame are relatively more important in collectivist cultures, whereas self-centered values and emotions such as personal happiness are relatively more important in individualistic cultures

A) The high-context sample is that likely composed of Asians, and the low-context sample more likely composed of Western people. As stated, differences in the way these cultures express their emotions have been found B) Although pride is valued more by collectivist cultures, by tending to refrain from expressing emotions explicitly, Asians would not necessarily express it more often. Moreover anger is more of a primary and less controllable emotion. As such, it is less sensitive to cultural differences C) Friendliness and shame are social emotions and valued more by collectivist, not individualistic cultures

-Employ formal language, rely on nonverbal cues, and be comfortable with silences -High-context cultures are those that have communication styles that rely on shared experiences, implicit messages, relational aspects, and nonverbal cues. That is, people from high context cultures tend to listen by focusing on the tone and how something was communicated, say more with fewer words, and intentionally make use of silence. Much is understood from manner, status, physical context, relationship, and/or shared background without use of words. They will also often take time to think things through before making a response. Conversely, lower-context cultures (e.g., America) are less comfortable with long pauses, use words to fill up silences, and communicate everything explicitly

Low Context Cultures A) Explicit communication with little reliance on nonverbal cues is the main attribute in low- context cultures B) “Assume what is being said is what is actually meant” is characteristic of low-context cultures C) Those in low-context cultures want to get to the point quickly so as to meet an objective

1) Random Digit Dialing, a probabilistic sampling strategy that randomly selects phone numbers within area codes to recruit participants 2) Snowball Sampling, a non-probabilistic sampling technique that involves asking research subjects to refer or recommend people from their social network who might be interested in participating. The idea is that over time, the “snowball” gets larger. A major limitation of this type of sampling strategy is the amount of sampling bias introduced into the study. Specifically, study participants may lack diversity 3) Purposive Sampling, a non-probabilistic sampling strategy that looks for certain characteristics and only selects those who fulfil selection criteria 4) Simple Random Sampling, a probabilistic sampling technique that will typically use a number generator to select subjects for a study

1) Extreme Response Style, the tendency of participants to favor the end points of a rating scale, for example, on a five-point Likert scale. As mind wandering was not measured by a rating scale but by answering yes or no, extreme response style could not affect findings 2) Social Desirability Bias, happens when respondents answer a question or a probe in way that they perceive as being favored by the researcher or their peers. Individuals tend to over-report behaviors and attitudes that they believe others will approve of and underreport behaviors and attitudes they believe others will disapprove of. As paying attention is perceived as an intellectual quality that is desirable, there is a possibility that participants might tend to underreported their mind wandering and thereby comply with social desirability 3) Bradley Effect, a variation of social desirability bias that occurs among White voters, in which they have a tendency to favor Black candidates in voting polls while actually intending to vote for the White candidate 4) Moderacy Bias, the opposite of the extreme response style and refers to the tendency to choose the middle points in a rating scale. As mind wandering was not measured by a rating scale but by answering yes or no, this bias could not affect findings

Case Study, To Study Specific Traits And Qualities of Histrionic Personalities Under An Idiographic Perspective -An idiographic perspective on personality assumes that each individual person has a unique psychological structure that is not comparable with other people’s personality structure. As a result, a case study method should be employed. This is a qualitative research method that is dedicated to the in-depth longitudinal study of a particular individual, collective of individuals, or situation in context. They are often used to draw insights and guide future research and focus on the identification of qualities. Many data collection techniques can be used

Archival Data And Ecological Validity -Ecological validity refers to the generalizability of the findings to the real world. One of the limitations of self-reported measures about attitudes and perceptions of aggression in sports is people’s tendency to want to portray themselves in positive manner. Therefore they may not tell

the truth when completing measures. Using archival data or existing data like penalty records offers the opportunity to observe real-life behavior -Archival data refers to existing data that has already been collected by previous researchers. It does not necessarily offer more options of having different variables available. The data is contingent on what the previous researchers collected. The sample size depends on the sample size of the original study, and thus the use of archival - data does not assure larger sample sizes. -Inter-rater reliability refers to whether two or more individuals who code or rate the observations of the behavior will come up with the same conclusion or if their observations will be similar. It does not pertain to archival data or self-report measure

Conformity Theory, Absenteeism -conformity theory would propose that absenteeism is possibly regarded as a non-customary practice among workers. Hence, those experiencing work-family conflict want to conform to the “normal” behavior of workers, which is attending their jobs regularly

To Investigate False Negatives -Not Change their theoretical framework

A) Increase the sample size B) Use additional statistical data analysis methods C) Review empirical evidence adopting the same measures

Main Methodological Aims of Using Physiological Measures -Not, To introduce another dependent variable and assess convergent validity 1) To deal with the effects of denial upon findings 2) To minimize reliability threats such as respondent error 3) To measure whether chronically ill patients are actually stressed

A) Convergent validity is concerned with whether there is a relationship between measures that are theoretically related or that theoretically seek to assess the same construct. If the results of two or more measures of the same construct and/or of theoretically related constructs show a strong correlation between them, then convergent validity is established. Physiological indicators, measuring features such as heart rate and galvanic response, are often employed to assess anxiety, which is a key emotional component in individuals’ responses to stressful situations such as chronical illness. They could be employed in addition to other measures of anxiety states, such as alongside anxiety self-reports. Yet, it is more important to have better measures than many measures. Moreover, convergent validity does not need to be established in the same experiment; previous or subsequent studies can be utilized to inspect this issue. Hence, this is the least important aim of introducing physiological measures B) As acknowledged in the passage, chronically ill patients who have not yet me to terms with their disease are often in denial. Denial is an avoidance coping mechanism, also portrayed in psychoanalysis as a defense mechanism. It involves refusing the existence

of a stressing situation or trigger and acting as if it does not exist. As such, these individuals will not likely acknowledge, at least accurately, voluntarily, and via self-report measures, the difficulties they are experiencing and how anxious they feel. To minimize respondent errors, such as those caused by denial mechanisms, lack of self-awareness, social desirability, and faking, which represent validity and reliability threats, physiological indicators are often adopted in the field of psychology. This is one of their main aims C) Reliability refers to the degree to which some experiment or instrument is capable of generating consistent, dependable, stable, and predictable results, and is not affected by external factors. As acknowledged in the passage, chronically ill patients who have not yet me to terms with their disease are often in denial. Thus, in different runs of the same experiment, they might provide different answers to the same item or behave different when similarly stimulated. For example, they might have accepted their condition and start acknowledging their difficulties consciously, or they may, when failing to remember their previous answers, try to hide their difficulties differently. This respondent variability that does not translate an actual psychological state change amounts to a source of error that might affect the reliability of findings. To minimize these errors and thereby boost the study’s reliability, physiological indicators are often adopted in the field of psychology. This is one of their main aims D) Validity refers to the assessment of whether the adopted instrument or experimental procedures assess what they intend to assess. Physiological indicators are often regarded as more valid measures of anxiety and other emotional states. It is thought that these help to overcome some of the shortcomings of self-report measures, helping to more accurately assess whether chronically ill patients are actually, within or beyond self-awareness and biases, physiologically stressed. This is one of their main aim

1) Validity, Measurements’ correctness 2) Reliability, measurements’ consistency

Psychologists And Schools of Thought

A) Social Constructionism, Social Phenomena And Their Meanings Are Not Objective, Rather Are Subjective, Constructed or Acquired Within A Larger Social Context B) Psychoanalytic Theory, Unconscious Drives And Infancy Experiences In Personality Development C) Humanistic/Existential Theory, Promoting Humans Being Positive Behaviours Through Genuine Acceptance Growth Potential D) Behavioural/Cogntitive Approach E) Hypnosis, Franz Mesmer, Freud, Ericsson F) Cognitive Theory, Schizophrenia G) Multicultural H) Social Justice

A) Social Learning Theory, formulated by Albert Bandura, posited that human behavior is learned through observation and modeling. It would likely be interested in determining whether altruistic behaviors observed on television affected the frequently of acting altruistically; it utilized a very similar research procedure for the study of aggressiveness B) Social Constructivism argues that social phenomena and their meanings are not necessarily objective. Rather, these are subjectively constructed or acquired within a larger social context. It would be more insterested in subjective, socially constructed meanings attached to altruism, than in the effects of recent observational experiences on behavior C) Psychoanalytical Theory focuses on how unsconscious drives and infancy experiences affect personality development. It is not so interested in the effects of recent observational experiences on behavior D) Humanistic Theory focuses on promoting human beings’ positive behaviors through genuineness, acceptance and growth potencial. It is not so interested in the effects of recent observational experiences on behavior.

Social Cognitive Psychologists -focus on learning through the social environment. If applied to the topic of infidelity, social cognitive psychologists would argue that infidelity is learned through the observation of others in the individual’s immediate social environment

Attachment-Oriented Psychologists -John Bowlby's attachment perspective assert that human beings strive for attachment and bonds in relationships. They desire a safe and secure relationship

Behavioural Psychologists -argue that behavior is learned through conditioning and/or reinforcement

Evolutionary Psychologists -men are less likely to be committed to one mate because they have a higher potential for reproduction than women. Because it takes nine months for females to bear a child, there is a higher cost of reproduction for females, and they want commitment from a partner

Conflict Theory Most Likely Operationalise Physician-Patient Communication In The 3 Phases of Bad News Delivery? -Conflict theory asserts that individuals in higher social classes control the economic, social, and psychological resources of individuals from lower social classes. Utilizing a conflict theoretical perspective, the physician–patient relationship is also affected by these power relationships. One way a conflict theorist would measure power or dominance is to examine the verbal dominance of the physician over the patient in a clinical encounter, such as measuring the ratio of how much the physician speaks and how much the patient speak

A) Functionalism Approach, Functionalism argues that society is a system and each part of the system has its function and works together to contribute to the stability of the system. The physician–patient relationship and communication are viewed as a social system, with each party having its defined roles and functions. B) Social Constructivist Perspective, Social constructivism focuses on the meanings and perceptions constructed through the interactions of the different individuals involved. The physician and patient each bring different views and lenses in the clinical interaction. C) Utilitarian Theory, This is based on the rational choice theory, which assumes that a cost-and-benefit analysis is calculated on the exchange of services between the parties involved

1) Behavioral Theory; Humanistic Theory, Behavioral approaches developed into cognitive behavioral approaches. Both are interested in observable and measurable behavior. However, in contrast with the cognitive behavioral approach, the behavioral theory originally denied the existence or influence of people’s thoughts and beliefs upon their behavior. That is, reporting on a survey like the 16PF that one believes one is a social person would not make that person sociable, in which case tests such as the 16PF would lack validity. That is, behavioral approaches would reject these tools as objective measures of behavior. Moreover, the humanistic theory was a branch that developed from psychoanalytic theory. Its main emphasis is on the importance of relationships, free will, and individual experience, not on the personality-revealing importance and meaningfulness of the unconscious. Hence Rorschach test is less adequately associated with humanistic approaches than with psychoanalytic approaches 2) Trait Theory; Psychodynamic Theory 3) Behavioral Theory; Psychodynamic Theory, The psychodynamic theoretical framework is associated with the projective measures described in the passage, which aim at assessing conscious and unconscious aspects of personality. However, as noted, the objective measures are not associated with behavioral theory.

4) Trait Theory; Sociocultural Theory, Trait theory is commonly associated with the 16PF. Sociocultural theory is greatly concerned with the way sociological and cultural aspects shape personality. Projective measures not only do not aim at assessing these issues, they seek to tap into universal transcultural aspects that shape personality

-Structured personality assessment tools like the 16PF usually revolve around the identification and description of broad personality dispositions, traits, or attributes that characterize a particular individual. The resulting set of characteristics amounts to a personality typology (e.g., the extroverted person vs. the introverted person). This view of personality can be traced back as far as the writings of the philosopher Theophrastus, produced more than 2,000 years ago, about different “characters” and their traits (e.g., the Talker). Both 16PF and Theophrastus’ theory, among many others, can be regarded as personality trait theories. On the other hand, projective instruments accept the notion of conscious and unconscious influences on the expression of an individual’s personality. They are designed to allow for the expression of these influences. Therefore these are usually developed under a psychoanalytic theoretical framework, greatly developed by Sigmund Freud and his disciples

1) Behaviourist, Hypotheses drawn from behaviorist theory would not likely include beliefs and thoughts as variables 2) Social Cognitive, “self-identity,” which involves knowledge of self-efficacy and related constructs and theories, hypothesized that self-efficacy was a mediating variable between social support and healthy eating, Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory stresses that personal, socio-environmental, and behavioral factors, as well as their reciprocal interaction, influence behavior. Self-efficacy, or belief in one’s ability to perform a given behavior, is one of the personal factors included in the model. As applied to healthy eating, it translates into belief in one’s ability to choose healthy foods. The support of peers and parents would amount to a socio-environmental factor 3) Cognitive Dissonance, Cognitive dissonance is a construct, rather than a theory. It describes how people experience an internal state of tension, stress, frustration, or conflict when their attitude, beliefs, or thoughts are not consistent with their actual behavior. The greater the dissonance, the more disturbing the distress. The hypothesis did not consider the feelings participants experienced when they were unable to act in accordance with their beliefs 4) Situationist, A situationist approach explains behavior as a function of the circumstances people find themselves in. It considers that external factors (e.g., social support) are more important than internal factors (e.g., self-efficacy). Even if different types of support are conceptualized as different types of situations, the hypothesis was not primarily concerned with their effect, but rather with the mediating effect of self- efficacy. That is, an internal factor was thought to have greater importance than external factors

Game Theory was initially developed in the field of mathematics in studies of decision making. Games such as the prisoner’s dilemma were used to demonstrate how, when two people play a game and both make purely rational decisions that benefit them individually the most, they may

both lose the most. Unlike wise, when both adopt a cooperative strategy, both may end up benefiting the most. For example, if two people are arrested together due to the same crime in the absence of strong incriminating proof, a purely rational and egotistical person being individually interviewed by police officers would betray the other in an attempt to benefit the most and likely go free. If both individuals adopt this egotistical strategy, they would likely end up incriminating each other and thereby both would lose the most, such as by being both imprisoned. On the other hand, if they both adopted a cooperative strategy that aimed at protecting both of them, they could both benefit the most, such as by remaining free. Thus, in this case, it might be economically better to cooperate. This justifies the evolutionary advantage of cooperative actions.

Hamilton’s theory was about kin selection and revolved around the evolutionary concept of inclusive fitness. According to this theory, an organism’s genetic success (fitness) is the result of altruistic and cooperative behaviors (inclusiveness) which are adopted among those that share similar genes.

Durkheim was a sociologist who, among other aspects, developed a theory on suicide. It posited that, when people identify strongly with a community, they might commit suicide to protect that community's interest. That is, he posited that social identification generated altruistic actions, such as suicide

A) Dissociative Disorder, Dissociative disorder, formerly named multiple personality disorder, has the following main diagnostic criteria: Disruption of identity (characterized by two or more distinct personality states, as recognized by the self or others, involving alterations in the sense of self, agency, affect, behavior, consciousness, memory, perception, cognition, and/or sensory-motor functions, and that may be described in some cultures as an experience of possession); and Memory losses that are inconsistent with ordinary forgetting B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder, The main diagnostic criteria of generalized anxiety disorder is the presence of a persistent, recurrent, and excessive anxiety and worry (apprehensive expectation) that further is difficult to personally gain control over. It can further involve at least three (for adults) of the following symptoms: Restlessness; Being easily fatigued; Concentration difficulties or mind blanks; Irritability; Muscle tension; and Sleep disturbance (difficulty falling or staying asleep, or restless, unsatisfying sleep). Although the case described involved excessive worry, this was expressive of a health concern and there further were somatic symptoms C) Obsessive–Compulsive Disorder, The main diagnostic criteria of obsessive– compulsive disorder (OCD) are the presence of either obsessions (i.e., intrusive, recurrent, and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are nor excessive worries about daily problems and are the target of avoidance mechanisms) or compulsions (i.e., unrealistic, repetitive behaviors or mental acts that seek to prevent or reduce distress some dreaded event or situation). Although the person’s worry about illnesses might be obsessive, other aspects of OCD are absent, such as the use of avoidance mechanisms

D) Somatic Symptom Disorder, characterized by the existence of somatic symptoms which have no apparent biological or medical cause and no other psychiatric explanation. Diagnostic criteria are: One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life and persist for at least six months; and Excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to one's somatic symptoms and/or health status. The case described included health concerns (belief to be about to die), several somatic symptoms, and worry about such state of affairs. It thus fitted this diagnosis. Synonymous for this pathology in the literature are “Illness Anxiety Disorder”, “Conversion Disorder”, “Somatoform disorder”, and “Factitious Disorder”

Sigmund Freud, Id Ego Superego -human experience and behavior are determined by conscious and subconscious motivations but also by unconscious drives. These drives and motivations are mostly shaped by childhood experiences and are critical for identity development. Positive regard is not a psychoanalytic mechanism used to explain identity development, and neither is gene activation one of the considered consequences of childhood experiences

-Freud’s dream analysis theory distinguishes between manifest and latent content. Whereas manifest content refers to the remembered plot, latent or hidden content refers to the unconscious, underlying, symbolic meaning of the dream. In the reported case, the manifest content would be being ignored by the female dog. An example of latent content is the therapist’s interpretation (the client’s relationship with her mother was behind her eating disorder). This is one of the possible unconscious meanings of the client’s dreams

-The concept of alter ego was initially developed by Heinz Kohut in the context of his self- psychology approach to psychotherapy. Alter ego amounts to egos that have been constructed so as to feel alikeness, twinship, or similarity to other people. That is, is consists of an alteration of the ego which may lead to the development of a double life and, in the extreme, to dissociative disorders

Carl Jung, Psychoanalysis, Analytical Psychology 1) Incubation, Stepping Back from Problem, Different Perspective 2) Insight, Sudden Not Gradual 3) Means End Analysis 4) Analogies -Archetypal is a term used by the psychoanalyst Jung to refer to the way the collective unconscious manifests itself in people’s dreams. Archetypal content includes universal, collective, and ancient symbols. For example, since ancient times, the archetypal symbol of stairs would mean evolution.

-The psychotherapist addressed the symbolic or figurative meaning of the client’s dream. However, Freud did not use this term to refer to one specific type of dream content. Rather, symbolism was the language of the unconscious, whether or not it appeared in dreams

-Carl Jung is a neopsychoanalyst who broke off from Sigmund Freud. He asserted that archetypes, which are images and symbols, are elements of the collective unconscious with an universal meaning. In his work, a hierarchy of needs is absent

Jean Piaget, Genes/Nature, Egocentrism, Helmet Study -egocentrism consists of a lack of discrimination, or differentiation between one’s perspective and that of others. It is a cognitive reasoning trait that affects behavior and is surpassed only at the end of adolescence. Until then, children move from initial state of total egocentrism to a final state of total objectivity. In its most primitive stage, there is a total lack of awareness that there may be perspectives and experiences of the world that differ from one’s personal perspective and experience. During the last stages, the individuals are unable to differentiate their own perspective from that of the social milieu to which they must adapt. Egocentric thinking does affect behavior. However, the action of giving presents is not necessarily the output of reasoning processes. It can simply illustrate cultural behavioral learning. Children, regardless of their egocentrism, often share or give presents to others. Thus, this item is the least adequate to assess egocentrism.

-According to Jean Piaget, egocentric people may be unable to differentiate self, others, and the world, ending up believing that everyone thinks and feels the same as they do. They might think that, in the same way they themselves know they fell down, others would know too. Thus, high ratings on his item would translate high egocentrism.

-Piaget’s original egocentrism task consisted of presenting a 3D picture with three mountains, and asking what a doll, placed in front of them, would see. Four year-olds almost always chose a picture that represented what they could see, and were not aware that the doll might have a different view or perspective. They only correctly identified the doll’s perspective around the 8 years of age. Thus, this item would assess Piaget’s views on egocentrism; high ratings translating high egocentrism.

-As noted, egocentric people may be unable to differentiate self, others, and the world, ending up believing that everyone thinks and feels the same as they do. They do not think that others experience the world differently, and might like different things. Thus, this item could assess egocentrism; high ratings on this item would translate to low egocentrism

-Balancing weights on a balance scale amounts to one of Jean Piaget tests of cognitive (vs. moral) development. A similar test was utilized to assess whether children had acquired conservation of weight. Lumps of clay, molded different for each testing moment, were utilized as weights.

-Imagining the world from another’s perspective (what they were feeling, thinking, and might likely do) helps to assess perspective-taking skills. These skills are a sign of Piaget’s decentration ability, sometimes proposed as a steppingstone toward the demonstration of sympathetic behaviors like helping. Although it may indicate or be associated with behaviors

with a moral dimension, it does not involve a moral decision. The later is critical for the distinction of individual’s moral development as viewed by Kohlberg A) Sensorimotor Stage, Birth -2, is characterized by sensory exploration and motor coordination. The child learns how to use the senses and motor skills or reflexes to explore the world. For example, the reflex of sucking on the mother’s nipple is thereafter utilized as a schema to suck on other objects; the child is exploring the world via the mouth. It has several substages. B) Preoperational Stage, 2-7, because they are unable to understand that the two pieces of clay have the same volume but are simply presented to them under different forms (block and flattened disk). This manifests their inability to perceive the constancy between the two pieces, a trait Piaget names lack of conservation of mass. During this stage, children’s interaction with the world is mediated by mental representations but bounded to perceptive experience. Hence, they reason that, if the piece looks bigger, it is because it actually is bigger. These characteristics do not apply to the other stages. C) Concrete Operational Stage, 7-11, is generally characterized by the emergence of internal and rule-bound abilities that allow the manipulation of ideas and concepts. It is named concrete because such manipulation requires the existence of a reference to real, physical objects. It does not occur in an exclusively abstract plane, devoid of a clear link to reality. For example, adding up two oranges may be easily performed, whereas adding up one plus one may be difficult or impossible D) Formal Operational Stage, 11-12, logical reasoning achieves an unlimited scope, high flexibility, high stability, total deductiveness, total reversibility, and total logical necessity. Operations can thus be performed solemnly in the abstract plane

Lev Vygotsk, Behaviour/Nurture

Abraham Maslow, Humanist, Self Actualisation, Affiliation/Belonging -the need to belong is experienced comes only after basic needs like food, water, and shelter are satisfied or fulfilled -The different types and levels of needs of family members, and how the members’ goals meet these needs -Maslow’s self-actualization theory focused on human beings’ needs or motivations for acting. He argued that these needs are hierarchical in that we strive to meet the needs on the lower rung of the hierarchy (i.e., physiological needs) before we strive to meet our needs in the highest rung (i.e., self-actualization). Notice the parallel of Maslow’s theory with the hierarchy of the needs for travel described in the passage

Henry Murray, Theory of Psychogenic Needs, Affiliation/Belonging -posited that all human beings have psychogenic needs that are basic and rooted in the unconscious. He identified 27 needs, and one of them is the need for affiliation -asserts that individuals have different needs, one of them being a need for affiliation—having relationships with people and spending time with people

Gordon Allport

Robert Sternberg, Intelligence And Love A) Triangular Theory of Love, Intimacy Passion Commitment B) analytical intelligence, creative intelligence, and practical intelligence. -He saw three different factors as defining intelligence: analytic intelligence (i.e., problem solving), creative intelligence (i.e., capacity to deal with new situations), and practical intelligence (i.e., ability to adapt to a changing environment). His notion of intelligence is based on Howard Gardner’s idea that intelligence cannot be limited to a test score but is a culturally varied expression of different dimensions. While Gardner based his dimensions on more academic categories (visual-spatial intelligence, verbal-linguistic intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic intelligence, naturalistic intelligence, logical-mathematical intelligence, musical intelligence, interpersonal intelligence, intrapersonal intelligence), Sternberg’s approach focused on more general dimensions. In opposition to those theories about intelligence are approaches that base intelligence on a numerical score. These would include Louis Thurstone’s theory of primary mental abilities. He saw intelligence as consisting of verbal comprehension, perceptual speed, numerical ability, reasoning, word fluency, associative memory, and spatial visualization. Others perceive intelligence as general cognitive ability expressed across different categories. Charles Spearman analyzed different mental aptitude test results and saw a pattern emerging. People who scored high on one test would usually score high on all of them, and people who performed badly in one category performed badly overall. He concluded that intelligence must be a general cognitive ability, the g-factor

Carl Rogers, Humanist, Client Centred Therapy, Person Centred Theory -the individual who comes in for therapy is not a patient but a client, who has the capacity to grow. However, the only way the client can grow and undergo a constructive personality change is through the therapist’s unconditional positive regard for the client, which is based on respect and empathy. According to Rogers, the same perspective is to be applied to child–parent relationships (or any other type of relationship). Children whose parents have unconditional positive regard for them are able to develop emotionally and psychologically and differentiate themselves. Neglected children experience greater difficulties developing a sense of who they are and of their potential -a humanistic theory that focuses on a client’s growth, which can be facilitated by the therapist’s unconditional positive regard and empathy for the client -Passive v. Active Clients -Carl Rogers is a humanist and formulated client-centered therapy. This theory does not propose any hierarchy of needs. Instead, it argues that the individual who comes in for therapy is not a patient but a client, who has the capacity to grow. The only way the client can grow is through the therapist’s unconditional positive regard toward the client, which is based on respect and empathy. This theory does not propose any hierarchy of needs

-why a fearful person starts seeking out new experiences after subjected to the therapist’s unconditional positive regard?

-Carl Rogers is a well-known humanist who formulated client-centered therapy. He argued that the individual who comes in for therapy is not a passive patient but an active client; clients have the capacity to grow and progressively come closer to fulfilling their full potential. According to Rogers, key to this constructive personality change is the therapist’s unconditional positive regard toward the client, which consists of accepting the client totally, without judgement, and with great respect. Additional key therapist attitudes are empathy (ability to understand the client) and communication skills. When fearful, thus defensive clients start seeking out new experiences, they are manifesting how they are trying to reach their full potential, thus growing and changing constructively. Unconditional positive regard, empathy, and communication would be critical for this change to come about

Martin Seligman’s Learned Helplessness Theory -speculates that when people are in situations where they perceive have no control, they will eventually just give up. The theory of learned helplessness has been used to explain depression

BF Skinner, Behaviourist, Operant Conditioning -individuals’ behavior is causally determined by observable aspects of their environment, via classical or operant conditioning learning processes. For a classical behaviorist (radical behaviorism), everything revolves around observable (vs. positive regard or other unobservable psychological constructs) past learning experiences, where both the causes and effects can be easily identified. That is, unless they translated into observable behavior, one which may subsequently be modified, psychological (e.g., positive regard) and genetic factors do not exist or have no relevance -He believed that inner experiences were irrelevant for the study of behavior, Thus, his theories do not cover the need for affiliation or belonging

Ivan Pavlov, Classical Conditioning -Psychologists of the behaviorist school use the concepts of neutral, conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, and conditioned and unconditioned response -The bell was a neutral stimulus developed into a conditioned stimulus, the food was an unconditioned stimulus, and the salivation was an unconditioned response -In Pavlov’s research, which involved studying classical conditioning in dogs, the ringing of a bell was paired with the stimulus of food, eliciting a response of salivation at the time of the bell ringing that was formerly only forthcoming as a response to the stimulus of food. The dogs then associated the ringing of the bell with food, and thus salivated as a result of the ringing of a bell. In Pavlov’s research the bell was a neutral stimulus that, through pairing with an unconditioned stimulus, was developed into a conditioned stimulus. The food was an unconditioned stimulus, and the salivation was an unconditioned response

Max Weber -According to some sociologists, the defining characteristic of modern societies is that they are bureaucracies. For some, bureaucracies are “iron cages,” based purely on rationality and efficiency rather than creativity, and thus they stifle a person’s human instinct

-Max Weber believed that bureaucracies were the fundamental structures of modern societies, due to rising populations, complexity, and the capitalist economy. He believed that in modern societies there was increasing rationalization, meaning that traditional forms of belief, such as religion and superstition, were replaced by rational and scientific ways of understanding the world. He also saw bureaucracy as an “iron cage,” meaning that it traps people in a system of control and rationality, devaluing creativity and individualism

Karl Marx -Karl Marx did write about bureaucracies, but he primarily focused on explaining the workings of industrial capitalism and how this would one day be replaced by communism, and his work is not as associated with the term bureaucracy

Emile Durkheim -Emile Durkheim also used the term bureaucracy, as he believed that due to the decline of traditional groups based around religion and community and the growth of bureaucratic organization, moral values are declining in the West. However, this concept is not integral to his writing -Social change leads to suicide rates going up, While a change in suicide rates has no effect on social change

Auguste Comte -Often considered the founding father of sociology, as well as the coiner of the term, Auguste Comte was a French positivist sociologist to whose work the concept of bureaucracy was not integral

Eric Fromm, 8 Universal Human Needs, Affiliation/Belonging -8 universal human needs: relatedness, transcendence, rootedness, sense of identity, frame of orientation, excitation, unity, and effectiveness

Eric Ericson, 8 Stages of Psychosocial Development -One of the stages of Erikson’s development theory is ego integrity versus despair. Individuals aged 65 and older typically reflect back on their life, examining what they have done and achieved. Those who master this stage well will feel satisfied that they have journeyed through their life with integrity. Those who do not master this stage will feel that they have wasted their life and may feel bitter -Teens and adults who experience an identity crisis and make a non-adaptive emotional choice may show drug abuse tendencies

-Erikson argued that emotional development goes through bipolar crises. Adaptive versus non- adaptive emotional choices must be made. The specific crisis that occurs during adolescence is identity formation versus identity diffusion. If teens choose the identity diffusion option (non- adaptive), they experiment with delinquent, rebel, and self-doubting behaviors. This choice could involve drug use and misuse. The adaptive choices of identity formation, which culminate in the development of a positive identity, involve experimenting with constructive behaviors, self-

certainty attitudes, and specific social roles, hobbies, and semi-professional activities. These are not all-or-nothing choices: the person can experiment with positive and negative identity attitudes during the crisis. Yet for the crisis to be successfully and healthily resolved and a positive non-addictive personality developed, the adaptive choices would need to end up having more developmental weight.

Sigmund Freud developed a psychoanalytic approach to personality development. For him, children go through a set of stages. Each stage is associated with certain personality traits and unconscious dilemmas. The first is the oral stage, which occurs in the first two years of life. During this stage, the child’s main way of interacting with the world is through the mouth. Objects are taken into the mouth for recognition and tasting. The sucking reflex, used for breast feeding, causes great pleasure. If this stage is uneventful, the child develops a sense of trust and comfort. When problems occur, the person becomes fixated in oral pleasure. The person may also experience some trauma and regress to this stage. In either case, prejudicial oral behaviors can be acquired, such as overeating, overdrinking, smoking, and nail biting. In addition, most drugs remove a person's sense of autonomy, independence, and responsibility for his actions and for the events unfolding around them. Hence drug taking would be a form of regressing to the oral stage.

Carl Rogers placed great importance upon the notions of self-concept and self-esteem. A self- concept is a set of structured perceptions and beliefs about who the self is and what one can do. Self-esteem relates to how much and how well one loves and appreciates oneself. The development of an individual's self-concept and self-esteem is greatly influenced by what other people think and feel about that person. Thus teens or adults might show drug abuse tendencies if they and others think that they are rebels and delinquents, and/or if the non- delinquent self is not properly loved and valued.

Behaviorist approaches place great importance on the idea of behavior reinforcement. They could argue that, if the family, friends, and peers of the teenager or adult positively reinforced, praised, or appreciated outlaw behavior such as drug abuse and misuse, the person might end up adopting those behaviors. Such a personality change would allow the person to keep being appreciated and valued. If, on the other hand, such behaviors were censored, punished, or not rewarded by others, they would less probably be acquired. Yet, for reasons such as the reward pathway, social intervention might not be critical for the acquisition of such deviant behavior

Albert Bandura, Social Cognitive/Learning Theory -posits that humans learn (i.e., modify their behavior) by observing others’ behavior and imitating it. They accept the influence and existence of genes and psychological constructs, but the highlight is on others behavior (vs. regard or attention) and its effects on one’s learning process (vs. genetic activation). Positive regard is not a construct used to explain identity development -Human Behaviour Is Learned Through Observation/Modeling

Robert Merton, Self-Fulfilling Prophecies, Model of Deviance

-to address issues of financial crisis, racism, and discrimination. Thereafter, the term was often applied in the classroom context, wherein the teachers’ expectancies about their students were shown to favorably and unfavorably influence the students’ behavior and outcomes. According to this body of research, confronting the falsity of the belief or assumption does not break the self-fulfilling cycle. People assume that they are basing their reasoning on facts, and cease to engage with new, possibly disconfirming information. It has been shown to be more efficient to not act in accordance with held beliefs. For example, a mother who believes her child is bad should not act toward the child as if he or she were bad. She should rather give the benefit of the doubt to the child, and assume the child is (at least also partly) good -Bank Withdrawals/Bank Runs

-Stephanie Madon’s definition of self-fulfilling prophecy. It looks at phenomenon of self-fulfilling prophecies from a psychological angle

-According to the American sociologist Robert K. Merton, and his strain theory, deviance can be explained through the relationship between cultural goals and structural means. In his typology, there are five deviance categories: conformity, innovation, ritualism, retreatism and rebellion.

A) Innovation describes the acceptance of larger cultural goals (e.g., the “American Dream,” wealth, prestige) while rejecting the structural and institutional means that society has defined has legitimate to achieve these goals. Merton further describes how many uneducated and poor citizens do not have access to legitimate means of achieving wealth and power and therefore retreat to criminal behavior B) Conformity occurs when people accept both the majority’s goals and attitudes. Since the majority does not engage in criminal activity to acquire wealth, those who conform will less likely commit crime than people who act innovatively. C) Ritualism refers to the rejection of cultural goals and the acceptance of societal means or behaviors. This is exactly the opposite of what was described in the question, which involved accepting the goals but not the means. D) Rebellion differs from every other category because it is the only behavior which is temporary. Those who rebel reject both OLD normal goals and means or behaviors but simultaneously seek to replace these with both NEW goals and means. Thus, they reject (old) and accept (new) goals and means

Karl Marx, Conflict Theory, Economic Influences Drive Social Change -Conflict theory is based on the Marxist tradition. It argues that market control of the health system in a country translates into the regulation of the access to healthcare by income and wealth status factors. Conflict theory would advocate for a medical system that provides free access to all citizens. Furthermore, conflict theory argues that institutions (e.g., the health organizations) should be regulated by the state in order to ensure the provision of good service.

-Conflict theory is concerned with larger social inequalities and would not propose solutions based on changing everyday interactions between health professionals and patients. A theory that would possibly demand more power for the patients would be symbolic interactionism. This

theory criticizes the strong hierarchy and power difference that exists between patients and medical professionals.

-Conflict theory would argue against giving more freedom to health care providers, because it would fear a decline in access and equality if health care providers chose what patients and diseases they could attend. Conflict theory favors more state control because it perceives a strong state as a guarantor of greater health equality

Historic Materialism, Economy Creates Material Conditions That Drive Social Change 1) Tribal Farm Stage 2) Primitive Communism Stage 3) Feudal Estate Property Stage 4) Capitalism Stage

William Hamilton, Kin Selection Theory -Kin Selection, Evolutionary Concept of Inclusive Fitness

Warren Thompson, Demographic Transition Model -4 Stages of Country Growth

John Bowlby, Bobo Doll -Attachment Theory, Infants And Caregivers

Diana Baumrind, 4 Parenting Styles -Authoritative, Authoritarian, Permissive, Uninvolved

Mary Ainsworth, 3 Attachment Styles (Mary Main Disorganised) -secure, avoidant, and anxious–ambivalent

Herbert Spencer, Ants In Your Pants, Eusocial Superorganisms -used the term superorganism to explain how societies evolved in a way that was not similar to an organism. He understood the interaction between humans as essential to forming structures that have their own organizational forms, and which can adapt to changing circumstances. This, for Herbert Spencer, was a way to better understand the division between nature and culture -Ants, How Humans Societies form Structures That Are Not Organic Rather Social

Auguste Comte, Rites of Passage Maintain Stability In Society -Auguste Comte, together with Emile Durkheim and Herbert Spencer, was the founding father of structural-functionalism. Functionalism perceives society as an organic entity. Every element of society has to be understood with regard to the function it serves for the overall construction of society. Functionalism would ask how rites of passage contribute to the stable order of society. It is a macro-sociological approach

Lawrence Kohlburg, Autonomy And Justice, Not Caring/Interdependence

-Cognitive Development, Not Moral Development A) Pre-Conventional Stage, Personal Gain B) Post-Conventional Stage, Good Deeds C) Conventional Level, Law Enforcement

-his theory of moral development. It encompasses six stages of moral development, which can be grouped into three different levels: preconventional (more common among children, who make moral decisions based on direct consequences and personal gains), conventional (more common among adolescents, who make moral decisions based on the principles and rules of others and of society), and postconventional (rarer among adolescents and involving basing moral decisions on one’s own moral reasoning, principles, and perspectives). The act of killing is regarded as an act with a moral dimension across many cultures, including in the United States. Thus the decision of whether to kill the “bad guy” is a moral decision. It is the only described behavior from the listed options with such character. According to Kohlberg’s theory, answers involving non-preconventional reasoning would point toward a normal moral development

Carol Gilligan, Critical of Kohlberg -Female Theory v. Adolescent Males -Carol Gilligan formulated a theory of moral development that contested Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development. She argued that Kohlberg’s theory was androcentric; that is, it was premised on results collected predominantly from male research subjects. Therefore, when Kohlberg asserted that females did not reach a comparable level of moral development compared with their male counterparts, Gilligan maintained that females make moral decisions based on ethics of care as opposed to males, who make moral decisions based on ethics of justice. In other words, females tend to make moral decisions based on relationships and on themselves as interconnected with others. Carol Gilligan would want to explore the role of ethics of care. In the table, emotional talk and partnership building, for example, might should a gender bias favoring women -that whilstle blowers with high moral development might act out of values such as caring and interdependence?

A) Jean Piaget, a developmental psychologist , put forward the theory of cognitive development –not of moral development. He posited that development occurs in stages: (1) Sensorimotor development (birth to 2 years), (2) Preoperational thinking (2 to 7 years), (3) Concrete operations (7 to 11 years), and (4) Formal operations (after 11 to 12 years). He never discussed issues of caring and interdependence B) Lawrence Kohlberg did not take into account the issues of caring and interdependence. He posited instead that people are instigated by the values of autonomy and justice. His theory suggests that there are three distinct levels of moral reasoning and two stages within each level. Individuals go through these stages in a linear and sequential manner: pre-conventional (pre-moral), conventional morality, and post-conventional (principled morality)

C) Bell Hooks was an African American female feminist, author and advocate. She did not write about the relationship between care and moral reasoning

Wolfgang Kohler, Chimpanzees Bamboo And Bananas, Insight Learning -Kohler was one of the founders of Gestalt theory. He is credited with coining and studying the insight learning process. This theory posits that people and animals do not learn by operant conditioning or trial and error. Rather, they learn by having an insight or figuring out a solution for their problems. This solution is then applied to their situation. That is, the problem-solving attempts are meaningful and purposeful, rather than random strategies carried out on the off- chance of getting lucky and finding out the solution. He published a book called Mentality of the Apes in 1917 in which his experiments with chimps are described

Pierre Bourdieu, Middle-Class Children, Cultural Capitale, Habitus A) Anomie, a sense of “normlessness,” or lack of understanding of the prevailing norms and values B) Praxis, a Marxist term meaning practical action based upon theory C) Habitus, set of ingrained dispositions that dictate cultural behavior, middle-class individuals possess a higher level of cultural capital, and he used the concept of habitus to describe the set of dispositions that lead behavior and taste D) Ascribed Status, a term employed by Ralph Linton to describe a status or social position that is fixed at birth and not achieved or chosen

Julie Brines, Dependency Model -which posits that notions of femininity are the reason why the more women depend economically on their male partners, the more housework they do, likely apply to the masculine gender? -The more dependent men are on their spouse economically, the less housework they do -Julie Brines formulated the dependency model when she found that the more women depended economically on their male partners, the more housework they did. She offered two explanations for this finding: economic exchange rules; and notions of femininity. That is, not only did women do more work because they were contented with swapping commodities, as they were also “doing gender” (i.e., adopting behaviors that were congruent with their gender). Unlike wise, the more economically dependent men were on their female partners, the less housework they did. Brines explained this finding through conceptions of masculinity. Men’s masculinity is threatened or weakened when they are not the main household provider. Performing housework, which is a behavior that is culturally perceived as characteristic of the feminine gender, would but worsen such state of affairs. Thus, they are also doing gender if they do less, rather than more work in the house when they are more economically dependent on their female partners -Economic Exchange Rules Explanation, According to this idea, an economically dependent man would try to enact his masculinity by failing to perform house work -Doing Gender, the relationship between economic dependency and amount of time spent on housework, which was the purpose of Brines’ “doing gender” explanation

Zimmerman and West, “Doing Gender” - is a symbolic interaction of gender ascriptions and roles, such as those associated with the concepts of “husband” and “wife.” A study measuring time spent in household labor by each partner in married and unmarried households compares specifically the impact of being married upon the dependent variable. Since findings showed that the gap in time spent in household chores between men and women in married-couple households was larger than in unmarried- couple households, this suggests that “being married” is very influent. It could allow for the argument that marrying is a way of embracing tradition and assuming the roles of “husband” and “wife,” and in such way that genderization is reinforced and greater differences relating to time spent in domestic chores are observed

The Time Availability Perspective -would not expect any differences in time use to occur when marital status is looked at as an independent variable. Scholars following the time availability perspective assume that household work is distributed among members of a household based solely on an individual’s availability to do the work

Becker’s Relative Resource Framework -would not expect any differences in time use when marital status is looked at as an independent variable. Becker’s relative resource approach argues that paid and unpaid labor is divided in a way that maximizes efficiency. Men, according to the theory, have a comparative advantage in the labor market and are therefore more likely to do more paid work and contribute less to the domestic sphere

Arlie Hochschild Double Burden -described how changes in the labor market affect women’s contribution to both paid and unpaid labor. The double burden is a description of the increased demands on women from both the labor market and the domestic sphere. Hochschild’s findings do not pertain to the study presented, as she is interested in changes over time rather than differences due to marital status

Robert Agnew, Generale Strain Theory, Uganda Condoms -stressors or strains (e.g., social pressure) can trigger negative emotions, which then increase the likelihood of certain negative or deviant behaviors such as crime. It has been applied to understanding other types of behaviors that are elicited from negative emotions -Not, Disillusionment of Dreams

Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, 5 Stage Model of Grief -People go through an emotional stage characterized by denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Her work with dying people and John Bowlby’s attachment and loss theory influenced the development of this model

Julian Rotter’s Locus of Control Theory -examines the extent to which people believe that circumstances are controlled by their own behavior (internal locus of control) or by outside forces (external locus of control)

Alfred Adler, Founder of Individual Psychology -mainly developed concepts such as inferiority complex, overcompensation, and birth order -Superiority/Inferiority, Birth Order -Feelings of Intensity Influence Personality Development

Apoptosis Theory -a biological theory that maintains that aging occurs due to preprogrammed cell deaths in bodies

Max Weber’s Theory of Protestant Ethic -Max Weber’s theory of the Protestant ethic does not explain why we trust certain strangers. In his book The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904/05), German sociologist Max Weber proposes that capitalism is a result of the predominating Protestant work ethic in Northern Europe. The Protestant work ethic perceives hard work and prosperity as signs of salvation. It encourages people to work more than necessary in order to invest more money in future business. According to Weber, this created a fundamental transition in values that led to modern capitalism

Jean Baudrillard’s Object Value System Theory -object value system theory does not explain why we trust certain strangers. Baudrillard was concerned with consumerism and how different objects are consumed in different ways. He stated that an object has not only economic value but also symbolic, functional, and sign value

Georg Simmel’s Concept of The Stranger -Georg Simmel explains that the stranger is someone who eventually is and remains physically close to oneself but belongs to an outside group and thus is and remains personally distant. Individuals tend to trust them when they are surrounded by signs and clues such as tools and uniforms that signalize or communicate that they are perming a useful social function that entitles them to be physically close despite their personal distance. For example, strangers can be policemen, tradesmen, or salesmen. When people go to the butcher shop they assume that those working inside the shop are performing a social function that involves possibly dangerous instruments and that such tools will not be used to hurt them; they tend to trust the stranger. The stranger exists in modern society because of the economic division of labor that forces oneself to trust people one has never met before -According to Georg Simmel, religiosity is an inner disposition toward the sacred—faith, for example—while religion is the objective, organizational form that religiosity assumes in a social world (e.g., churches). This does not pertain to diffusion of innovations theory

Emile Durkheim’s Notion of Collective Consciousness

-notion of collective consciousness does not explain why we trust certain strangers. Collective consciousness refers to the beliefs, ideas, and moral attitudes that are shared by a large group within society

Emile Durkheim, Mardi Gras Carnival Season Safety Valve -He would draw upon his concept of the safety valve. Durkheim argued that Mardi Gras presents a relatively harmless way for people to express discontent and resistance -Durkheim’s notion of deviance. Durkheim looked at deviance with a focus on its function in society. The function of deviance is to show people what is right and wrong in society. It is a label that is given by the other members of society. During Mardi Gras/Carnival some forms of deviance are not labeled as bad or undesirable and are therefore allowed and performed in public. For him events such as Mardi Gras would act as a safety valve in society. Safety valves are social institutions that allow “letting off steam” without any severe consequences for the larger society. These institutions would help to reduce tensions. Other safety valve institutions can range from sports to strikes, gambling, and prostitution. These behaviors cannot be completely eradicated from society and thus become tolerated on special occasions. Front stage and backstage refers to Erving Goffman’s concept of dramaturgy and does not apply to Durkheim’s views on Mardi Gras. Durkheim also would not be primarily interested in the dialectics between fast and feast. Furthermore, Durkheim would not be concerned with dialectic processes; this would be Marxist thinking. “Opium of the people” is a concept that is also related to Marxist approaches

Howard Gardner, Multiple Intelligence Theory, 8 Intelligences -Different Learning Models, Teaching Methods, Learning Failures -Neurological Damage Studies help to distinguish between different types of intelligence -IQ Testing, Behaviour Is Not Intelligent, Against, 52 Low

A) Gardner posits that there are many behaviors that are intelligent and that every person exhibits a different combination of intelligent behaviors. As listed by Gardner presently, these intelligent behaviors can be grouped under the following modalities: musical– rhythmic; visual–spatial; verbal–linguistic; logical–mathematical; bodily–kinesthetic; interpersonal; intrapersonal: naturalistic; and existential. This means that, to the present day, he never considered a phonemic type of intelligence that dealt specifically with phonemes, which are the perceptual acoustic unitary constituents of words B) Gardner argues that every person has a different intelligence profile, with person-specific weaknesses and strengths. Thus, someone’s intelligence cannot be described through normality and majority trends, as it is observed when utilizing IQ tests to assess intelligence. Some people learn wonderfully with traditional teaching methods, whereas others do not. In the latter case, it is not the person that lacks intelligence; rather, it is the teaching method that is unsuitable and needs to be changed. That is, learning failures are the result of inadequate teaching methods C) Gardner supports each one of his eight primary intelligences with neurological evidence drawn from the study of people with brain damage. These studies clearly allow the

identification of each different type of intelligence. The exception is the ninth, existential intelligence, for which Gardner remarks no evidence has yet been gathered D) Gardner stands against the narrow definition of intelligence that IQ tests disseminated. For him, there is more to intelligence than reading, writing, and arithmetic skills. His modalities or types of intelligence seek to identify these different ways through which behavior manifests its intelligence

Lars Tornstam, Gerotranscendence Theory -Who Defines Their Identity Mainly In Terms of Their Relationship To Other People And The World -Gerotranscendence theory was developed by Lars Tornstam, who did not agree that older people disengage from the world and others as they age. Instead aging was to be regarded as a developmental stage, marked by a change in the focus of attention from oneself to the relationships held with others and the world, and a diminished preoccupation with rationality, material wealth, and success. Thus, elders who are more concerned with relational and transcendental issues than with themselves and their achievements are likely coming to terms with their developmental stage and, as such, likely experiencing greater well-being

A) According to gerotranscendence theory, an elder who accepts his or her developmental stage would be less preoccupied with financial issues. Thus, financial security is unlikely to be at the basis of their well-being B) Gerotranscendence theory does not describe old age as stage revolving around role confusion and identity issues. Thus, these issues are unlikely to be at the basis of their well-being from a gerotranscendence perspective C) At the core of gerotranscendence theory is neither the place of residence of elders, nor how frequently they relate to their significant others. In a sense, these are material day- to-day aspects. They are less important at this stage than issues revolving around spirituality and the way the self is defined in relational terms. Thus, these aspects are unlikely at the basis of their well-being

Murray Bowen, Family Systems Theory -Using principles from systems theory, he argued that the family is a system and an emotional unit. The behaviors, attitudes, roles, communication patterns, and interactions of every member in the family system will affect the emotional patterns of other family members who belong to that system. Raising self-awareness, along with family members’ awareness of these issues, might enhance interpersonal relationships among family members -Techniques for discussing family members’ roles, interactions, and communication patterns

A) Self-Actualization is a concept explored greatly by humanists like Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. It consists of the human need of realizing one’s full potential and finding meaning in life. It is not derived from Murray Bowen’s theory B) Fictive Kin are family members who are not related to other family members by blood (e.g., offspring) or institutional (e.g., marriage, adoption) ties, and yet are considered family. Murray Bowen was neither particularly concerned with their identification and

integration in the family system, nor with their involvement with household chores. He would rather be interested in every element of the family system, their roles, and their interactions and communication patterns C) Behavior Modification is a type of intervention that would most likely stem from behavioral or cognitive behavioral theories. It was not one of Murray Bowen’s concerns

James Marcia, Adolescent Identity Crises -drew upon Erik Erikson’s theory and defined four identity statuses characteristic of late adolescence. These amounted to different ways of dealing with identity issues and were: identity achievement (commitment to self-chosen goals and principles); foreclosure (commitment to parentally chosen goals and principles); identity diffusion (absence of goals and principles); and moratorium (struggling with setting goals and principles). The only status involving an identity crisis was the moratorium

Privation, Attachment Theory Perspective A) Deprivation, refers to the loss of an attachment. Genie never had any attachment and hence did not lose an existing attachment or experienced deprivation B) Privation, the absence of any form of attachment. Individuals suffer from privation if they have never developed any sort of attachment to anyone, including their caregivers. As stated in the question, Genie did not form any kind of attachment; therefore, she suffered from privation C) Isolation, a description of what Genie endured; it is not a concept that describes an attachment-related experience D) Affectionless Psychopathy, the inability to show affection or concern for others. It does not refer to the lack of attachments

James–Lange Theory of Emotion -maintains that emotions stem from the physiological response. An individual first experiences a physical reaction; then he/she interprets and links that particular physical sensation to an emotion. The emphasis of this theory is on the physical arousal -A Stimulus Can Trigger A Set of Physiological Responses That Are Then Experienced Subsequently As Specific Emotions -The James–Lange theory of emotion argues that a particular event triggers a physiological arousal. The person then interprets that arousal and experiences an emotion. In other words, the physiological response comes first, and is followed by the emotion

Observational Learning -where individuals imitate their social environment and others. Here, the man sees others grimacing and assumes it is an emotion of disgust.

Schachter–Singer Theory -focuses on cognitive factors. A stimulus is presented (e.g., artichokes), which triggers a physical sensation (e.g., an urge to vomit); the individual perceives this sensation and interprets, reasons, and then labels the emotion (e.g., disgust). The emotion then follows

Cannon–Bard Theory of Emotion -which argues that physiological responses and emotions are experienced simultaneously. Here, the man is said to experience the urge to vomit and disgust at the same time -External Events Provoke Both A Certain Physiological Arousal And An Emotional Response -The Cannon–Bard theory argues that physiological response to emotional triggers and the subjective emotional experience are independent processes. That is, both the physiological arousal and subjective emotional experiences can occur simultaneously and the same physiological response can co-occur with several different subjective experiences

Adlerian Theory -was developed by the psychiatrist Alfred Adler, the main founder of individual psychology. This is a counseling theory that revolves around concepts such as superiority, inferiority, and birth order. It asserts, for example, that, as human beings, our psyches are driven by the goal of superiority, which refers to the goal of being competent at whatever we do. This is not a theory of emotions.

Drive-Reduction Theory -is a motivation theory, not an emotion theory. It argues that all organisms strive toward a state of homeostasis. As soon as a biological or physiological need such as hunger is experienced, it acts upon the organism as a drive or motivation. As long as the organism is pressed by the drive, it will not stop performing the behavioral actions required to satisfy the need and thereby restore the balance

Facial Feedback Theory -The facial feedback theory argues that facial expressions can trigger emotional experiences. A frown would trigger feelings of sadness, anger, or some other unpleasant feeling

Arousal Theory -Arousal theory is not a theory of emotion. Arousal theory argues that environment and external stimuli stimulate mechanisms in the brain

Sapir–Whorf Hypothesis -The principle of linguistic relativity holds that the structure of a language affects the ways in which its respective speakers conceptualize their world, and may inclusively affect cognitive processes and structures, Language differences such as those described in the question stem are thus critical for the study of this hypothesis in natural settings

Visual Cliff Experiment, Walk And Gibson -A large glass table was set about a foot off the floor. Half of the table had a checkered pattern underneath it; the depth looked shallow at that half of the table. Then, to create an illusion of a deeper side in the other half of the table, the checkered pattern was created on the floor, rather than right under the glass. They examined at what developmental stage children and other animals used depth cues and whether they might be innate. Infants aged 6½ to 12 months,

placed at the center of the table, and being called and encouraged by their mothers from the “deep” end, generally were not willing to crawl to the deep side. They interpreted this finding as evidence that depth cues were innate and were being used to guide behavior

Stanley Milgram, Obedience To Authority Figures -He was prompted to conduct the study in an effort to understand the atrocities of the Nazis during World War II. The laboratory experiment involved research subjects being told that they were the “teacher” and that a “learner” would have electrical shocks administered by the teacher at incremental levels. The learner was a confederate as well as an “authority figure” who told the teacher to administer the shocks despite the teacher’s protestations. The learner would then feign pain as the shocks were administered. This experiment and the study of obedience to authority figures would best help in understanding the dynamics of how children end up participating in brutal killings

Ivan Pavlov, Classical Conditioning, Salivating Dogs

BF Skinner, Operant Conditioning, Lever Pressing Rats -Reinforcements are used in operant conditioning (or instrumental learning). Operant conditioning argues that people tend to learn and repeat behaviors that result in pleasurable rewards and avoid behaviors that result unpleasant outcomes. Reinforcements can be primary or conditional. Primary reinforcements always trigger pleasant outcomes by themselves. These do not require the co-presence of other stimuli. In the case described, the favorite music was a positive primary reinforcement because it was capable of eliciting pleasure by itself; it was participants’ favorite music. The researchers wanted the music to act as primary reinforcement and the roundish actors as a secondary one for their participants to learn that being roundish was a pleasurable thing

A) Classic Conditioning is a learning model, not a type of stimulus. It involves learning that two stimuli always go together. Through classic conditioning, a person behaviorally learns that on being exposed to one of the stimuli, the other stimulus will show up. That is, there is the expectation (and appropriate physiological response) of soon experiencing the paired stimulus. B) Secondary or Conditional Reinforcements are unable to provoke direct pleasurable effects. In this case the favorite music, as an isolated stimulus, was able to provoke joy by itself. Hence it did not act as secondary reinforcement. C) Reinforcements increase the odds of a response, whereas punishers reduce its odds. The adjective “positive” is used when one adds pleasant stimuli (for reinforcement) or unpleasant stimuli (for punishers). The adjective “negative” is used when one removes unpleasant stimuli (for reinforcers) or pleasant stimuli (for punishers). In the described experiment, nothing was removed as stimuli; no “negative” reinforcers or punishers were utilized. Liked music was a positive reinforcement, and disliked music was a positive punisher. Even considering that there was an alternation between liked/disliked music,

and thus one might conceive that positive reinforcers also involved negative reinforcers (taking the disliked music away), there would – never be solemnly negative reinforcers

Leon Festinger, Social Comparison Theory -Speed Dating, we compare ourselves to others along various dimensions because we have no objective benchmark to compare ourselves to -Includes Observation And Modeling

Harold Kelley, Theory of Casual Attribution, Why Questions -we attempt to answer the “why” questions using three types of information: consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness

Matching Hypothesis -matching hypothesis maintains that although we would love to find a partner who is much more attractive than we are, ultimately we focus on finding someone who is comparable to our own level of attractiveness

Stress Results from Negative Life Events, Which Can Trigger Depression -Holmes and Rahe are known for their stress theory, which argues that life events can cause stress, which can then in turn trigger illness and disorders. They ranked 43 different life events in terms of the amount of stress they produced, and the first three most stressful life events were death of a spouse, divorce, and marital separation

A) Cortisol is a hormone that is secreted in situations of stress. Holmes and Rahe were not concerned with physiological or other biological aspects associated with stress B) Erik Erikson, a developmental theorist, argued that young adults enter a stage where they have to master the conflict and tension between intimacy and isolation. Holmes and Rahe did not examine this conflict in particular C) Negative Reinforcement is a term used by behavioral psychologists in understanding how a behavioral response can be weakened by removing its pleasant outcomes. Holmes and Rahe’s theory is not behavioral

Diana Baumrind -was a clinical and developmental psychologist known for having empirically identified, in 1967, four parenting styles: authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved. In the Authoritarian Parenting style, children are expected to follow the strict rules and punished when failing to do so without being offer explanations. In the Authoritative Parenting style, rules and guidelines that children are expected to follow are set more democratically and dialogue and forgiveness are fostered. In the Permissive or Indulgent Parenting style, very few demands are made to children and parents have low expectations for them, but communication is fostered. Finally, the Uninvolved Parenting style is characterized by few demands, low responsiveness, low involvement, and little communication.

Sigmund Freud, the father of psychoanalytical theory, argued that unconscious drives influence personality and behaviors. He was not specifically concerned with parenting styles

John Bowlby is known for his work in attachment theory that focused on types of relationships between infants and their caregivers, not parenting styles.He was not specifically concerned with parenting styles

Carl Jung was a psychiatrist and psychoanalyst who diverged from Freud to create the field analytical psychology. One of its core concepts is the collective unconscious. He was not specifically concerned with parenting styles

Muzafer Sherif, Robbers Cave -focused on group membership and conflict and competition over resources. Twenty-two boys were recruited and randomly placed in either the “Eagles” or “Rattlers” groups. Time was given for the boys in both groups to bond with each other by having them do activities, with T-shirts given out with the name of their group. After this initial bonding time, it was announced that there would be a series of competitive games and a prize for the winning group. Each group began to show competitive and aggressive behavior, marking off its territory and flinging taunts at the other. Sherif’s findings showed how in- and outgroups can be easily formed whereby those in the ingroup begin acting in a prejudicial manner toward those in the outgroup. Although group membership might also be at play, findings from this experiment would not best explain the dynamics of how children end up participating in brutal killings

Harry Harlow, Early Infant Maternal Separation Infant monkeys were separated from their mothers immediately after birth and randomly assigned to one group that had a surrogate mother made of heavy wire. The other group had a surrogate mother made of soft cloth. Only one group was nursed at a time with a built-in nipple. Findings showed that baby monkeys preferred the cloth surrogate mother, clinging to it even if they were not being fed by this surrogate mother. This demonstrated the need for attachment at a very early age. Even though attachment formation might be also at play, the findings from this experiment would not best explain the social dynamics of how children end up participating in brutal killings

Emile Dirkheim, Anomie, Suicide, Sociologist of The Functional School -Anomie to explain, among other things, the levels of suicide and crime in a society -Anomie stems from Emile Durkheim’s work and refers to a breakdown in stability in a society that causes alienation. This can then cause social problems including suicide. This approach is sociological; it does not discuss the formation of distorted mental representations of the world, others, and self -postulates that people commit suicide because they do not have any bonds or attachments -Anomie means “normlessness,” or a lack of understanding society’s social norms, and it occurs when society is unable to effectively influence individuals to follow norms and values. As the government dictates behavior at every level in North Korea, the people will have a clear

understanding of social norms. Thus, anomie is unlikely experienced, Not The New York Melting Pot of Interracial Marriages -Suicide Theory, Social Identifcation, Genetics, Altruistic Actions, Such As Suicide

Émile Durkheim Mean By “Organic Solidarity? A Complementary Form of Social Bond A) A Complementary Form of Social Bond, Durkheim believed there were two kinds of social bonds based on solidarity: mechanical and organic. The first one corresponds to pre-industrial societies and is conceived as a structure where many similar parts together pull the “social” machine. Organic solidarity is instead based on complementary bonds, similar to an organism where the different parts fulfill the diverse functions and keep a body going. Even though some authors see Durkheim as a socialist, mainstream sociological thought considers him conservative B) Social Revolution, the insurgence of the collective of citizens against the instituted forms of organization of the industrial, economic life of a country. They rebel against them with the hope of changing these structures, and, consequently, the entire structure of society. It was incentivized by socialist thinkers for the goal of swapping the ownership of the means of production from the hands of powerful elites to the hands of the commons C) Alienation, one of Marx’s most important concepts, defined as the state humans are under in the capitalist mode of production. He believed it was necessary to build up a consciousness able to overcome alienation, thus building a communist society D) An Ideal Type of Capitalist Society, a concept developed by Max Weber, who employed the term to refer to a mental construct used to understand and categorize social reality

Ferdinand Tönnies’ theory of Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft -According to Ferdinand Tönnies and Émile Durkheim, modernity (the era of industrial societies) is essentially shaped by the decline of small communities that offered a sense of purpose and belonging to their members -described how a growing population and the rise of urban centers led to modern societies that are characterized through more impersonalized interactions between members of society. The decline of small, traditional communities led to more personal choice for individuals and increased social diversity. Emile Durkheim shared the perception that the decline in small, traditional communities was central to modernization -Max Weber, understanding of the processes that shape modernity. He views modernization as the replacement of traditional world views through rational perspectives. According to this, people’s adoption of a more calculating and efficiency oriented mindset is a main characteristic of modern societies -While Ferdinand Tönnies had a rather pessimistic outlook on modernity and emphasized the benefits of strong social bonds in traditional, pre-industrial societies, Emile Durkheim perceived those changes in community structure as beneficial to society. For him, modern societies flourish because of an increased division of labor, which marks the transition from kinship and neighborhood-based bonds to economic bonds that are shared by different individuals.

Therefore, the interpretation of the effects of the decline in traditional communities and the division of labor marks a major difference between Tönnies’ and Durkheim’s views -Karl Marx, The perspective that puts capitalism in the center of understanding modernity is Marxism. Karl Marx agreed with the observations made by Max Weber (i.e., rationalization), Ferdinand Tönnies (i.e., decline of communities), and Emile Durkheim (i.e., division of labor) but emphasized that those processes were just symptoms of a larger social change (i.e., capitalism) that shaped the essence of modernity

The 3 Ideal Types of Religious Activity, Max Weber in Economy and Society (1922)? -In Economy and Society, Weber recognizes three ideal types of religious activities: world-flying mysticism, world-rejecting asceticism, and inner-world asceticism. An ideal type is an abstract, hypothetical concept that shows the main characteristics (i.e., the main ideas) of a concept, often in isolation in order to understand it better A) World-Flying Mysticism, an ideal type associated with the Eastern world. This religiousness enabled by religiousness the religious person to come across or understand that which is ‘hidden’ or ‘secret’ in the absolute B) World-Rejecting Asceticism, an ideal type associated with Western medieval values. It amounts to a religion-driven self-discipline that rejects the values and the practices of society in favor of awaiting supernatural rewards. Such salvation is thought to be attained by performing ethical behavior, guided by God, and refusing to participate in worldly affairs so as not to reinforce them C) Inner-World Asceticism, (or worldly asceticism) is an ideal type associated with modern Western values. It is fairly similar to world-rejecting asceticism differing only on the way social participation is viewed. More specifically, for this type, social participation within the real world’s institutions is thought to lead to salvation. A classic example is Calvinist Protestantism D) Calvinist Protestantism, not an ideal type. Rather, it amounts to a specific religion that can be categorized via the existing three types. Specifically, it is Weber’s famous example of worldly asceticism

Donald Broadbent’s Outdated Attention Filter Theory -is a model in which attention is regarded as a sustained focus of cognitive resources on a task that filters off extraneous stimuli. Only the information that is filtered in or targeted would be further processed, interpreted, recognized, and stored in memory. The remainder would be discarded. This is similar to what is described in the question stem, in that everything that lies outside one's experience is not perceived or registered

-Timothy Leary coined the term “reality tunnel.” It describes how every individual’s perception of the world is filtered through his or her own experiences and beliefs

Talcott Parsons, Gloss

-is a sociological, rather than a psychological construct. It was used by Talcott Parsons to describe the mind constructs reality, "filtering" information unconsciously due to cultural pressures like language, personal experience, and beliefs.

Benjamin Bloom’s Taxonomy, Educational Objectives -a concept named after the American educational psychologist Benjamin Samuel Bloom. It is used to assess whether educational objectives fit into the categories of cognitive, affective, or psychomotor

Metacognition, How Ones Mind Works -describes how humans are able to observe their own minds at work. Metacognition helps us understand learning processes and evaluate the extent to which a new concept is successfully comprehended and stored. It is unrelated to the theory described in the question stem

Paul Ekman -Cultural Aspects Do Not Significantly Influence The Non-Verbal Expression And Recognition of The Most Basic Emotions, Positive And Negative

A) For example, he showed pictures of people expressing the six basic emotions (anger, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise) to literate Eastern and Western people. There was a high agreement between participants about which emotion was being expressed in the picture. Ekman concluded that the expression (and recognition) of emotions has a universal quality. That is, some emotions are universally correctly identified and similarly expressed. He concluded so even though the results for contentment were less consensual across cultures B) Ekman found precisely the opposite. People from different cultures generally agreed about which emotion was being expressed in each of the presented photographs C) A small set of Ekman’s studies showed how positive emotions were culturally sensitive. That is, the expression and recognition of positive emotions (not of negative ones, as stated) seemed to be influenced by cultural aspects D) Although some gender differences were found in some of Ekman’s subsequent studies, none demonstrated that women from different cultures would differently express (and recognize) their emotions. Instead, in some studies, women were found to be more accurate than men at emotion recognition

Erving Goffman, Dramaturgical Approach, Symbolic Interactionism -Front Stage And Back Stage, Japanese Inemuri, Father of Microsociology -2 Stigmas, Discredited/Discreditable -Total Social Institutions, Public/Private Spheres (Jail)

-The dramaturgical approach is a sociological theory that is closely linked to social interactionism. Its founder, the sociologist Erving Goffman, observed how people engaged in impression management techniques and tried to control how they were viewed by an audience or other people. He used the metaphor of the stage to describe how people’s behavior has a

front stage (what can be seen by the audience) and a backstage (what cannot be revealed to the audience) component. He saw the front stage as the arena where people perform actions that are congruent with social expectations and role ascriptions. In surface acting, in contrast to deep acting, the actor does not have to embody and feel the expressed emotions. It is thus more likely that the felt emotions are hidden in surface acting and that some form of emotional labor is taking place, one which aims at expressing only desirable or socially acceptable and expected emotions. This is the acting that that leaves more space for the difference between individual and observed performance

Erving Goffman, Dyslexia, Labels, Social Stigma -form an attribute, behavior, or reputation that is socially discrediting in a particular way -According to Goffman, a stigma is a socially discrediting attribute, behavior, or reputation that is assigned to an individual due to that person’s belongingness to a particular social group. It usually involves social exclusion or rejection. Common examples are those ascribed due to someone’s ethnic group or nationality, physically visible characteristics (e.g., scars, physical disabilities), or known psychopathological or medical conditions, as in the case of dyslexia

A) Goffman and other researchers developed labeling theory in order to show how classifications and judgments made by other individuals and groups can affect self- identity and shape people's behavior. The criticism suggests that social classifications are likely not the only trigger of behavior B) This amounts to a description of the impact of reference groups. Although a stigma is thought to affect individuals in a similar manner, their main distinguishing feature is not intrapsychic. Instead, it revolves around the negativity associated to the ascribed trait and the socially discrediting impact of such trait C) According to Goffman there are two forms of social stigma: the discredited, in which the stigma is already revealed by the individual and known by other people, and the discreditable, in which individuals have not (yet) revealed their stigmatizable condition. Since dyslexia is a concealable disease, that is not necessarily immediately visible to others, it would more likely fall upon the discreditable category

-prisons are an example of total social institutions because: prisoners cannot set apart the public from the private spheres -Goffman was one of the main proponents and supporters of symbolic interactionism. A total institution is a formally regulated environment where a great number of individuals live for a considerable period of time, in isolation from the remainder. Goffman describes prisons as total institutions because the ordinary separation between places to sleep, play, and work is disrupted. The distinction between public and private, which is a central feature of living in modern society, is no longer in place. Other total institutions also exist, such as mental hospitals -In total institutions normal bonds are disrupted. Since people are social beings, these bonds are replaced naturally. However, these new bonds are not necessarily a substitution of family bonds. Moreover, this change in social networks is not the main characterizing feature of total institutions

-Normally prisoners are aware, rather than unaware they are under surveillance. Many prisons are built in a circular structure with a tower in the middle from where the whole space can be observed. This construction, the panopticon, was designed by Jeremy Bentham in the 18th century and analyzed by Michael Foucault as proof of modern surveillance societies and how they exercise control -Goffman saw prisons as a total institutions which exercised great social control over prisoners, but more so because of the nonexistent division of spheres than because of the greater power of the group of prison guards

Everett Rogers, Diffusion of Innovations Theory -why African American women get fewer mammograms compared with their Caucasian female counterparts? -It is possible that there is pervasive distrust of medical personnel in African-American communities -Everett Rogers’ (1962) cultural diffusion of innovations model describes how the diffusion of new ideas can spread directly or indirectly across society. He posited that communities which were more conservative and unwilling to adopt new technology would be slow to accept innovative ideas. Distrust of medical personnel would be a driver for that unwillingness to change

Weber’s Law, Gustav Fechner, Father of Psychphysics -someone who was feeling cold while showering and decided to increase the water temperature very slowly until it was finally perceived as warm?

-Psychophysics is a science that aims at investigating the relationship between physical stimuli and psychological events or experiences. Weber’s law is core to this theory. It states that the minimum change in some physical stimulus (e.g., increasing the water temperature by 1 degree) that is noticeable by the individual amounts to a constant ratio. This just-noticeable constant is calculated by subtracting the final quantitative measurement of the stimulus from the original quantitative measurement. People would be able to perceive a change in sensation every time the strength of the stimuli increased or decreased by the same amount

The Central Executive, Alan Baddeley/Graham Hitch's Working Memory Model -working memory model was developed in two stages. The original working memory included the central executive as a component. The functions of this component are still under debate. Nevertheless, it is most commonly assumed that it is mainly responsible for managing attentional resources for the purpose of performing a present task, allowing selective and divided attention to come about. It also controls the flow of information, so that only that which is needed for resolving a present task is available in working memory. For this purpose, it replaces older and irrelevant information with newer and relevant information in its subsidiary temporary memory systems (the phonological loop, utilized for auditory information; and the visuospatial sketchpad, utilized for visual and special information)

A) The central executive is thought to retrieve information from long-term memory (e.g., semantic memory and episodic memory). Yet, long-term memory is not under its control. It simply accesses it to retrieve relevant information when needed The subcomponents at its service are only the phonological loop (used to temporarily store needed auditory information) and visuospatial sketchpad (used to temporarily store needed visual or spatial information). Originally, these systems are not named phonological memory and visuospatial memory. B) The central executive retrieves information (from long-term memory), directs information to the appropriate subcomponents under its control (auditory to the phonological loop and the visual or spatial to the visuospatial sketchpad), manages its permanence in working memory (by replacing irrelevant with relevant information), and manages attentional resources. Hence, this option is incomplete. It fails to mention its role for managing attentional resources. C) The only subsidiary components to the central executive are phonological loop (used to temporarily store needed auditory information) and visuospatial sketchpad (used to temporarily store needed visual or spatial information). They are subsidiary in that they are fully controlled by the central executive. Other memory systems are not controlled by this system. Held information is simply accessed and made available when needed

C. Wright Mills -author of The Sociological Imagination, is one of the precursor theorists in 1960s sociology who introduced a new way of thinking methodologically about the self and society. Through Mills’ macrosociological proposal, the concept of objectivity in sociology, which had been at stake since Max Weber’s writings, was now largely abandoned in the search for a more creative approach. Mills was also one of the first intellectuals to conceptualize power and the relation between it and the local government of the United States

Social Identity Theory, John Turner And Henri Tajfel, 1970s -3 Elements, categorization, identification, and comparison -describes how an individual’s self-concept develops in relation to social groups, a process through which social identity and its cognitive and emotional value are constituted. Categorization (putting ourselves and others under a concept that describes us and the others), identification (finding ourselves similar to particular groups and their characterizing attributes and, by identifying with hese groups, linking our self-esteem to our group membership), and comparison (comparing our group favorably with other groups)

Robert Nisbet -Critic of Macrosociology And Social Inequality, He maintained that sociology was an academic science and the involvement of sociologists in social movements and political activism should be avoided. For Nisbet, objectivity was also important, as he embraced structural functionalism, a common conservative theory, as opposed to Mills’ neo-Marxist theory

Max Weber

-Max Weber is viewed as one of the founders of sociology, along with Émile Durkheim and Karl Marx. He favored interpretative, thus subjective approaches to the study of actions (anti- positivist methodology), as Mills

Erving Goffman -saw his approach toward sociology flourish in the 1960s but in the opposite sense of Mills’ theory. Being the “father of microsociology,” he used the observer method to study ordinary interaction and was concerned with individual interactions. Macrosociology is instead concerned with larger phenomena

Urie Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Systems Theory -Ecological systems theory was first applied to understand child development and their socialization. It maintains that human behavior (in this case, health behavior) is influenced by multiple levels or spheres of influence of different orders, including the microsystem, which is related to the individual (e.g., the patient’s beliefs, personality, past experiences, etc.); the mesosystem, which is related to those with whom the person relates to directly (e.g., the family, community, neighborhood, workplace, school, friends, etc.); the exosystem, which relates to institutions and organizations which regulate that person’s community and with which the person does not often interact directly (e.g., health services, social services, legal institutions, industry, mass media, etc.); the macrosystem, which relates to that person’s cultural milieu (e.g., culture, traditions, laws, etc.); and the chronosystem, which relates to the dimension of time (e.g., when the person was born, when they lost their parents, etc.). The latter system was introduced a later stage of his career

Murray Bowen’s Family Systems Theory -Family systems theory argues that individual behaviors must be understood within the family system they come about. That is, one cannot understand individuals outside their family unit. It does not identify a wider frame of influence, as ecological system theory does

John Bowlby’s Attachment Theory -Attachment theory emphasizes that behavior stem from the emotional attachments developed between infant and parents/caregivers. There are several types of attachment, characterized by the different sets of behaviors and experiences, and that influence relationship patterns established during adulthood. This theory is not concerned with the spheres of social influence upon the individual, as ecological system theory is

Milton Gordon’s Assimilation Theory -Assimilation theory is used in sociology to understand how immigrants adopt the cultural norms of the new host country. It is not concerned with the spheres of social influence upon the individual, as ecological system theory is

Milton Bennett, Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity -Ethnocentric, It is not necessary to study other cultures’ perspectives. People are people. As long as we ensure that we treat everyone equally there should be no problem

-The Developmental Model of Intercultural Sensitivity is a framework that describes how people relate to cultural differences. It was developed by Dr. Milton Bennett and is now widely used to better understand the different stages of how individuals relate to other cultures. Bennett distinguishes between three ethnocentric stages (denial, defense, minimization), which have in common that one’s own culture forms the basis for reality perception and organization. Those are followed by the more complex ethnorelative stages (acceptance, adaptation, integration), which see one’s own culture in relation to other cultures. Quote A is an example of minimization of cultural difference and the only example that is still rooted in ethnocentric beliefs. People at this stage are likely to overestimate their tolerance toward other cultures, which is often displayed in a belief in the universal values of human nature (e.g., people are people). This belief can lead to a lack of awareness of cultural differences. Quote B is an example of the first stage of ethnorelativism, the acceptance of difference. The speaker accepts the existence of cultural differences. Quote C shows an individual’s adaptation to difference, the second stage on the ethnorelativist continuum. Quote D illustrates the last stage of the model, the integration of difference. This stage is characterized by the ability to shift fluidly and with empathy between different cultural perspectives and to acknowledge the relative truth of one’s own worldview

Evelyn Kitagawa and Philip Hauser, 1973 Study -how life expectancy of 25-year-old US women linearly and positively correlated with education level -According to the study, there is a direct linear positive correlation between education level and life expectancy in women aged 25 years in the United States. A linear positive correlation finding could be shown with successive increases of life expectancy for increasingly higher education levels. Level of education and access to health, as demonstrated by these researchers in the 1970s, are both associated with socioeconomic status: the higher the latter, the greater the access to medicine and education. This has commonly been noted as one of the social inequalities in health

George Simmel, Religion v. Religiosity A) Karl Marx, religion and religiosity interchange indeterminately, implying at the same time an “expression of suffering and a protest against real [capitalist] suffering”—thus the well-known phrase “religion is the opium of the people.” B) Georg Simmel, a German sociologist, is one of the major influences of religious studies. His method of mutual development of religious forms (religion) and their content (religiosity) was a breakthrough from the dominant positivism of his time. In his view, religiosity is an inner disposition toward the sacred—faith, for example—while religion is the objective, organizational form that religiosity assumes in social world, such as the different churches. Religiosity is therefore the substance, or content, of religious organizations. Simmel’s view is that religion is inherent in human beings and a growing distinction between religion and religiosity implies a higher development in society C) Auguste Comte, For both Comte and Spencer, religious forms and their content are synonymous with each other. Where these two writers differ from Simmel is that they see religion as a phase humanity needs to overcome in order to move toward a more rational society

D) Herbert Spencer, For both Comte and Spencer, religious forms and their content are synonymous with each other. Where these two writers differ from Simmel is that they see religion as a phase humanity needs to overcome in order to move toward a more rational society

Wernicke–Korsakoff Syndrome -a neurodegenerative disease mainly characterized by memory loss -the most well-known neurodegenerative disease that has memory loss as its main symptom. Anterograde and retrograde amnesia are often present, and the individual is unable both to transfer new information to long-term memory storage and to retrieve information from long-term memory storage, principally memories of events that took place before the onset of the disease. Additional symptoms include mental confusion, ataxia (lack of motor coordination), hallucinations, and ophthalmoplegia (eye muscle weakness). It is usually associated with deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) caused by alcohol abuse, malnutrition, or infections such as HIV/AIDS

-Resting tremor is an uneven, rhythmic, low-frequency tremor that tends to be present in the resting condition in the hands and forearms and disappears with active limb movements. It is different from ataxia, the lack of control over body coordination. Tremor is not a main symptom of this syndrome, although sometimes it can be observed in cases of acute withdrawal. Parkinson’s disease is the most well-known neurodegenerative disease that has as its main symptom resting tremor. Additional symptoms of Parkinson’s include the loss of fine motor control, bradykinesia (movement slowness), and rigidity (muscle stiffness)

1) G. Stanley Hall; Biopsychosocial Approach; Quietness Before The Storm, made significant contributions to Educational psychology. He was the author of the first known psychology work on adolescence, a two-volume book entitled Adolescence, firstly published in the beginning of the 20th century. For him, adolescence was a period of stress and storm that involved conflict with parents, mood disruptions, and risk behavior. Current evidence supports his views but raises the contention that not everyone experiences adolescence as a period of storm (intra-individual differences) and that adolescence experiences are culture-bound. Although his work contained psychological and sociological discussions, and accepted Darwin’s recapitulation theory on development, it is not accurate to state that he adopted a biopsychosociological model. The later was only formally introduced many years later 2) Sigmund Freud; Psychoanalytic Approach; Interiorization of Social Norms, The term “latency” was employed by Sigmund Freud to designate the fourth stage of individuals’ sexual development, one that was preceded by the oral, anal, and phallic stages and followed by the genital stage. It was thought to occur from 6 or 7 years of age up until puberty. During this phase, the libido or psychic sexual energy was thought to be invested in the development of the self rather than in sexual issues, so that the child would learn and adapt to social norms and costumes. Sexuality would be dormant or latent

3) B.F. Skinner; Behaviourist Approach; Reward And Punishment Learning, accredited for having contributed to the behaviorist approach via the description of reward and punishment learning. His theory did not contemplate developmental differences such as adolescence 4) Erik Erikson; Psychoanalytic Approach; Identity And Role Confusion, a psychoanalyst but is mainly credited with his psychosocial approach to human development. He made significant contributions to Ego psychology. He argued that identity development went through epigenically determined bipolar crises, which were: Trust vs. Mistrust (from birth to one year), Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (two to three years), Initiative vs. Guilt (four to five years), Industry vs. Inferiority (six years to puberty), Identity vs. Role Confusion (adolescence), Intimacy vs. Isolation (young adulthood), Generativity vs. Stagnation (middle adulthood), and Integrity vs. Despair (late adulthood). Adaptive vs. non-adaptive or unhealthy emotional choices could be made at each crisis. As it can be observed through this listing, the use of the term latency to describe a developmental stage and the exploration of what is entails was not put forward by Erikson

Thomas Malthus, Demographic Change, Lack of Food -Thomas Malthus believed that eventually, as populations can grow exponentially at a much faster rate than the available food supply, population growth will outpace means of subsistence, and this will lead to human catastrophe and misery

Karl Marx -For Marx, population growth is the result of capitalism and the need for new labor to be created in order to produce wealth for the bourgeoisie. Due to capitalism, unemployment increases and a reserve army of labor is created. As a result, wages decrease, and a large part of the population cannot feed itself

Frank Notestein, Demographic Transition, 4 Stages -Frank Notestein claimed that every country passes through stages of population growth. The first stage is a high birth rate and high death rate society. Next, there is a high birth rate and a low death rate. Finally, society transitions to a low birth rate and a low death rate. This leads to a stable population with little growth. This theory is known as the theory of demographic transition

Jean Baudrillard -a postmodern theorist associated with the concept of hyperreality, has little to say about demographic change in his work

Body Chemicals A) Melatonin, the circadian rhythm path. The retina detects light changes and informs the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus. The information is then sent to the pineal gland. This structure is located in the center of the brain. Based on the existing level of darkness, melatonin is released by the pineal gland, helping to regulate sleep patterns in seasonal and circadian rhythms. Higher amounts of melatonin are produced when there is less light, inducing sleepiness. Dysregulation of or damage to this endocrine structure is associated with sleep disorders B) Adenosine, is a compound that exists as a nucleotide in the nucleus of the cells of all living tissues. Its concentration increases during the day and increases the organism’s sleepiness. This hormone is not released by the pineal gland C) Testosterone, is a hormone that stimulates the development of male secondary sexual characteristics, produced mainly in the testes but also in the ovaries and adrenal cortex. It has a morning peak and is thus indirectly related to circadian rhythms. However, this hormone is not released by the pineal gland, nor is it released in proportion to darkness D) Adrenaline, or epinephrine, is a hormone that is released by the adrenal medulla and by some neurons, as a reaction to factors such as stress and low blood-sugar levels. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, thereby increasing, for example, blood pressure and heart rate. This hormone is not released by the pineal gland, nor is it released in proportion to darkness

A) Nicotine, widens the capillaries and can foster certain emotions like anxiety and pleasure. Dopamine, a “feel-good” neurotransmitter, raises levels of awareness and general pleasure. When nicotine enters the system, dopamine levels increase B) Melatonin, is a hormone that is mainly involved in sleep regulation, seasonal reproduction regulation, body weight, and energy balance C) Cortisol, is a stress hormone. It is released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. It helps to increase blood sugar and suppress the immune system and the metabolism of fat D) Oxytocin, is a hormone that is involved in a set of maternal behaviors. For example, it causes pregnant women to start having contractions and milk to begin flowing for nursing. It is also involved in attachment formation with significant others and in sympathy

1) Neurotransmitters, Catecholamines such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are hormones secreted by the adrenal gland. They help the body to respond to stress by increasing individuals’ heart rate and blood pressure. As described in the passage, the individuals in the clown group felt calmer. Hence, if there were to be any changes in catecholamine levels, it should be expected that those in the clown group had lower levels than those in the no-clown group 2) Cortisol, is a stress hormone. As described in the passage, the individuals in the clown group felt calmer. Hence, if there were to be any changes in cortisol levels, the clown group should be expected to have lower, rather than higher levels of cortisol than those in the non-clown group

3) Oxytocin, is known as the attachment or love hormone. It also promotes lactation. It has also generally been found to regulate stress responses by activating the parasympathetic nervous system. It was also associated with the emotion of happiness. As described in the passage, the individuals in the clown group felt calmer and happier. Thus, if there were to be any changes in oxytocin levels, the clown group should be expected to have higher, not lower levels of oxytocin 4) Vasopressin, is a hormone that is mainly concerned with regulating water balance in the system. There are also some recent studies suggesting that stress can increase the secretion of vasopressin. As described in the passage, the individuals in the clown group felt calmer. Hence, if there were to be any changes in vasopressin levels, the clown group should be expected to have lower, not higher vasopressin levels

A) Melatonin, helps to sustain people’s circadian rhythms. It is mainly involved in the sleep- wake cycle regulation. It is secreted into the bloodstream at night, inducing drowsiness and making the person feel sleepy. It has been found to be effective in the treatment of anxiety due to its calming effects. These effects suggest that melatonin is not involved in the outset of acute anxiety episodes. Moreover, no findings have yet associated low or high levels of melatonin with anxiety disorders B) Epinephrine, The hormone epinephrine (or adrenaline) and the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (or noradrenaline) are released in greater quantities during stressing, threatening situations. Anxiety disorders involve experiencing normal situations as menacing. This perception prompts fight-or-flight, stress-related responses. For example, the person’s blood flow, arousal, alertness, attention and memory are boosted; and the chemicals epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in great quantities. Thus, these substances could be present during the onset of a panic attack C) Norepinephrine, The hormone epinephrine (or adrenaline) and the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (or noradrenaline) are released in greater quantities during stressing, threatening situations. Anxiety disorders involve experiencing normal situations as menacing. This perception prompts fight-or-flight, stress-related responses. For example, the person’s blood flow, arousal, alertness, attention and memory are boosted; and the chemicals epinephrine and norepinephrine are released in great quantities. Thus, these substances could be present during the onset of a panic attack D) Serotonin, neurotransmitter. It is mainly involved in the regulation of homeostatic processes, such as sleep and appetite. It also plays an important role in the regulation of mood. Low levels of serotonin can result in the development of both depressive and anxiety disorders. Thus, serotonin levels might decrease during the onset of panic attack

A) Catecholamine, Catecholamines are neurotransmitters (such as adrenaline, dopamine, and noradrenaline) that have been found to have a role in the flight-or-fight response to stressful stimuli. Specifically, they are involved in the flight response and responsible for

the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. They are not critical for skeletal muscle control B) Acetylcholine, Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter. It is released by the neurons. It then synapses at the muscular junctions and provokes the contraction of the skeletal motor cells. It is critical for motor movement. Its absence or blockage (for example, via antagonist drugs) would cause paralysis C) Frataxin, Frataxin is one protein which may cause paralysis. It is not a neurotransmitter D) Cortisol, Cortisol is a hormone that has been found to have a role in the flight-or-fight response to stressful stimuli. Specifically, it is involved in the flight response and responsible for the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. It is not critical for skeletal muscle control

Low Melatonin Secretion NOT True of The “Venturer” Type of Traveler Who Likes Adventure And Unstructured, Exotic Travel -They demonstrate a weak orienting response to the presentation of new stimuli and therefore higher levels of melatonin secretion

A) They are more likely to engage in smoking and impulsive decision making B) They show higher activation in the brain regions of the right insula and posterior orbitofrontal cortex C) They exhibit blunted cortisol responses to stressors

Nociceptors -This mechanism would explain pain ratings across conditions. It describes the neuronal path of pain sensations. Nociceptors are cutaneous cells that specialize in pain perception. They are one of the three types of free nerve endings that are spread throughout the skin, muscle, bone, connective tissue, joints, and viscera. After tissue damage, pain peptides (e.g., histamine, globulin, and arachidonic acid) are released and captured by nociceptors. The information is then carried along efferent nerves toward the parietal lobe. This lobe, to which the somatosensory cortex belongs, is thought to be mainly responsible for processing and integrating somatosensory and proprioceptive information, thereby allowing for pain perceptions to come about.

-Pain sensations activate a set of interdependent nervous, endocrine and immune processes. In what concerns endocrine processes, some research indicates that music modulates the brain’s limbic system, which is constituted by a set of structures such as amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, olfactory bulb, and cingulate gyrus, among other. These structures are responsible for the release of stress hormones and neurotransmitters. For example, the hypothalamus activates the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, which culminates in the release of cortisol by adrenal glands. That is, the limbic system triggers the release of stress hormones. Music apparently weakens this arousal. It also activates the opioid system (a set of spread neurons responsible for the release of, e.g., beta endorphins and dynorphins),

inducing pleasurable and relaxing sensations. Both these mechanism might be behind observed lower pain ratings in music conditions.

-All the bodily reactions provoked by musical stimuli would be absent in this condition, hence overall activation likely would be lower, principally in the auditory cortex. Moreover, some evidence shows that silence or, less markedly, the absence of music reduces overall neurophysiological activation. That is, it is associated with hypoactivation, one which is usually joined by a relaxation experience. Despite lower activation and possible relaxation, the absence of music, when compared to the presence of music, was simply less effective at minimizing pain experiences

A) Terminal Receptors, No Such Thing Marshmallow B) Thermoreceptors, a sensory receptor that detects changes in temperature. C) Mechanoreceptors, a sensory receptor that responds to pressure, position, stretching, and touch D) Chemoreceptors, sensory receptors that are stimulated by chemicals. They generate an action potential for smell and taste

-Pheromones affect other organisms partly via the stimulation of the secretion of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This hormone controls the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis in vertebrates and plays an important role in regulating the reproductive cycle of many species -Pheromones are chemical substances produced by many animals and can affect other organisms’ behavioral and physiological changes. That is, they communicate to other organisms certain important features, such as menstruation cycle stage. Their main interpersonal effects are related to mating, reproductive, and offspring-rearing behaviors. In this sense, this is a nonverbal form of communicating with others -Pheromones are chemical substances that are mainly sensed by the olfactory glands (or Bowman’s glands)

Nociceptors, Cells That Specialise In Pain Perception -They are one of the three types of free nerve endings that are spread throughout the skin, muscle, bone, connective tissue, joints, and viscera. The other types of free nerve endings, part of the same somatosensory system’s modality, detect mechanical stimuli (touch, pressure, and stretch) and temperature (cold and heat). After tissue damage, pain peptides (e.g., histamine, globulin, and arachidonic acid) are released and captured by nociceptors. The information is sent to the parietal lobe. This lobe is thought to be mainly responsible for processing and integrating somatosensory and proprioceptive information (e.g., pain perception)

-Rods are sensory visual photoreceptors that exist in the retina. They are responsible for low light intensity vision (night vision). Moreover, the temporal lobe is thought to be mainly involved in primary auditory functions, such as the interpretation and production of speech, and memory processes (via the medial temporal lobe memory system)

-Dendrites are parts of neurons, along with the nucleus and axons. Whereas axons send electric impulses from the nucleus of the nerve cell to other cells, dendrites receive electric impulses and conduct them toward the cell’s nucleus. They are further responsible for capturing neurotransmitters (as axons release them). Moreover, the temporal lobe is thought to be mainly involved in primary auditory functions, such as the interpretation and production of speech, and memory processes (via the medial temporal lobe memory system) -Meissner corpuscles are cells that belong to the modality of the somatosensory system that processes pressure, vibration, and texture. These cells are not responsible for pain perception

Least Adequate As A First Therapeutic Approach To The Treatment of Minor Anxiety Disorders?

A) Meditation, sometimes recommended for the treatment of anxiety disorders. It improves individual’s self-control and minimizes their anxiety B) Cognitive Behavioural Therapy, is often recommended for the treatment of anxiety disorders. It has been shown to help patients to deal with anxiety triggers and their effects C) Anxiolytics, medications that targets anxiety. These drugs are classified as sedatives and can calm patients with anxiety symptoms. This is therefore fitting as a first therapeutic approach in treating minor anxiety disorder D) Antidepressants, usually target the reuptake of serotonin or noradrenaline, thereby possibly fostering mood regulation, and decreasing feelings of depression and anxiety. Antidepressants have been actually found to be effective for the treatment of anxiety disorders associated with depressive symptomatology. Yet, their use as a first approach might be too drastic. Therapeutic approaches targeting anxiety directly or with fewer side effects would be more adequate

1) Self-Esteem, Loves Oneself 2) Self-Efficacy, Self-efficacy refers to one’s belief or confidence in one's behavioral ability to master a given task or attain a goal. That is, it amounts to someone’s trust in their own abilities to perform the actions required for succeeding at a task, Someone who goes beyond reflection and adopts the behaviors required for succeeding at managing their symptoms, not relying on others to achieve such results, would demonstrate strong health self-efficacy. Those who do not believe in their abilities will less likely perform such actions, and thus demonstrate weak self-efficacy 3) Self-Identity 4) Self Enhancement, a set of impression management techniques that aims at making oneself more appealing to others. These techniques revolve around changing the way one dresses and looks in order to convey a particular first-impression. In this case, the nice looking woman wanted to enhance her intellectual side and downplay her beauty 5) Self Concept, Structured Perceptions

A) Other Enhancement, is a set of impression management techniques that focus on the targeted individual. The individual flatters, agrees with, or does small favors for the other person in an attempt to be approved or viewed positively; to leave a positive first impression B) Self-Serving Bias, is the tendency to assume the responsibility over positive, successful events but to avert responsibility for negative, failed events. C) Actor–Observer Effect, consists of attributing one’s own behavior to external events (situational attribution) but explain the behaviors of other people by internal causes such as traits or character (dispositional attribution)

1) Identity Diffusion refers to the absence of goals and principles. Identity crises are not involved 2) Foreclosure consists of committing to parentally chosen goals and principles. This is a form of resolving identity issues; identity struggles are not involved 3) Identity Achievement is a form of resolving identity issues, namely by adopting self- chosen goals and principles. Identity struggles are not involved

1) Stigma, Social Rejection Due To Negative Attribute To Hold Social Group Membership, amounts to the assignment of one or more negative attributes to a person, simply due to that person’s social group memberships, and consequent social exclusion or rejection. This process is thought to have been originally described by Erving Goffman in 1963, who defined stigma as “the situation of the individual who is disqualified from full social acceptance” for a deeply “discrediting attribute.” The stigmatized person ends up internalizing his or her failure to conform to the social norm that others have identified as his/her shortcoming 2) Stereotype. Unlike stigma, stereotypes do not necessarily involve social rejection, Whole Group Assignment 3) Howard Becker’s Labeling Process. Unlike stigma, labelling does not necessarily involve social rejection

4) Mores, Social rejection is not necessarily involved, Strict Set of Moral And Ethical Norms About Mandatory Behaviours People Should Exhibit 5) Taboos, Social Control, Too Sacred or Dangerous, Taboos are norms about actions that cannot be performed by ordinary people, being either too sacred or too dangerous. Taboos exist in every culture in different forms, acting as (usually ancestral) culturally transmitted social control systems. People are often unaware of the taboo they are abiding by, yet they feel compelled as a social group to avoid acting in certain ways or discussing certain topics. Sigmund Freud explored taboos extensively, principally incest. Both more primitive and more civilized societies avoid incestuous sexual relations. The mere thought of incest normally provokes immediate feelings of revulsion and anger. The violation of this prohibition is commonly censured and severely punished by the whole society. This exemplifies how taboos work socially 6) Social Norms, Rates/Customs, Believe Some Rites of Passage Can Vary Based on Culture Though Are Always Defined By Social Institutions

1) Group Membership, School Uniforms, Groups provide a way for individuals to form social identity, and people generally categorize the world and other individuals as “us” or “them.” The “us” is the in-group and the “them” is the out-group. Consequently, an individual identifies oneself as being a member of the in-group, and does not identify oneself as being a member of an out-group. Mandating school uniforms, therefore, would reduce the students’ classifying each other into in- and outgroups; they would all apparently belong to the same in-group. Additionally, this might strengthen their sense of belonging to the in-group of a particular school 2) Authoritarian Personality, are characterized by holding a propensity for order, power, hierarchy, and status. Those with authoritarian personalities tend to ask for unquestioned obedience from others 3) Contact Hypothesis, one strategy for dealing with prejudice is to bring people of different groups together. Through this, they are expected to learn to appreciate each other in terms of shared experiences and uniqueness, rather than group membership

1) Big Five Personality Traits, OCEAN,16PF, openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (i.e., emotional stability). These categories were established via the principal component analysis and the factorial analysis of the sixteen factors proposed by Raymond Cattell. They have been empirically tested by investigators such as Goldberg, as well as Costa and McCrae 2) Myers–Briggs Type Indicator, based on Carl Jung’s four principal psychological functions: sensation, intuition, feeling, and thinking. The indicator is widely used for personality assessment purposes. It is assumed that, in any given individual, one type is usually more dominant than the others. The tool has been criticized for its lack of statistic validity and its tendency to produce answers that are highly influenced by factors of social desirability 3) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, 10/5, Starke R. Hathaway and J. Charnley McKinley. It is a widely used standardized psychometric personality test that

consists of multiple scales, such as hypochondriasis, depression, masculinity/femininity, and paranoia 4) Hans Eysenck’s Personality Theory, Eysenck based his personality theory on analysis of self-reported questionnaires. He proposed that personality operates along two axes: introversion/extraversion and neuroticism/stability. This model was later expanded to include one more factor, namely psychoticism (vs. issues such as sociability and self- control) 5) Revised NEO Personality Test, Big 5 Personality Model 6) Rorschach Inkblot Personality Test

-In survey studies, social desirability is a well-known source of response bias and invalidity. It refers to people’s attempt to appear better than they are, primarily by overrating socially acceptable traits and underrating socially censured traits. This is the case in claiming that one always (rating = 5) washes one’s hands after using the bathroom, which is a socially recommendable behavior. Although this might be true, the person may also be attempting to appear more socially adequate than in reality. If the answers to other items from the same scale show the same pattern, the evaluator may have to consider that there is an intentional or unintentional attempt to distort the survey’s results.

A) The person admits to lying on occasion by rating the item with a 4. Hence the respondent is probably not faking or distorting the survey’s results in an attempt to convey a more positive image of him- or herself to evaluators B) The person admits to being late on occasion by rating the item with a 4. Hence the respondent is probably not faking or distorting the survey’s results in an attempt to convey a more positive image of him- or herself to evaluators C) The person admits to sometimes having experimented with illicit drugs by rating the item with a 2. Hence the respondent probably is not faking or distorting the survey’s results in an attempt to convey a more positive image of him- or herself to evaluators

Social Interactionist Perspective -a social interactionist perspective, which claims that how people see illness and disease affects their behavior toward them. A redefinition of malnutrition focused not on the lack of food but on the appropriate amount and nutritional value of what people consume could help raise awareness and reduce obesity in the long run.

Modernization Theory Would Point To In Order To Explain Poverty And Inequalities -Population Growth, Technology, Cultural Patterns

-Global power relationships would not be the main focus of modernization theories. These are more focused on investigating the process of social evolution and the development of societies. Dependency theory, for example, would explain poverty as a result of unequal distribution of power around the world. This theory would look at colonialism and neo-colonialism as a cause of global social inequalities

1) Trickle Down Effect, Lower-class people adopt the tastes of higher-class people, which in return renders certain products undesirable for the upper classes. This effect is named the trickle-down effect, referring to Thorstein Veblen’s theory about markets. He claimed that markets operate by making consumer goods available at a price point that initially only people from higher classes can afford. Lower classes begin to purchase those products when they are produced in larger quantities and are therefore more affordable 2) Social Transmission, the way knowledge and skills are passed on within a group or a society 3) Proletarian Drift, Similar Process, Not Georg Simmel 4) False Consciousness, used by Marxists to describe how members of the working class are misled by capitalist institutions and ideology

Dramaturgical Approach, As A Form of Emotional Labour? A) Surface Acting B) Backstage Work, backstage behavior or performance, rather than work, they could roughly be understood as synonymous in the context of the question. Even so, in the backstage, people control less their emotional expression and are more authentic. Thus, it is less likely that any emotional labor is involved C) Self-Handicapping, the cognitive tendency to protect the self-esteem and/or social esteem by making specific attributions. For example, attributing one’s poor performance to external causes (situational attributions), and one’s good performance to internal causes (dispositional attributions). Although it can be regarded as a form of emotional labor, it was not put forward by dramaturgical approaches D) Self-Verification, the tendency to use social interactions as a way of validating and corroborating one’s self-concept. This concept was not put forward by dramaturgical approaches

1) Survival Advantage, Dolphins Smile, Permanent 2) Social Facilitator, Individuals Whose Presence Boosts The Performance of Individuals 3) Fixed Actions Pattern, Instinctive Behavioural Sequences, Genetically Programmed Responses, The Specific Environmental Stimuli 4) Reproductive Advantage,

Magic Law of Contagion -Thomas Gilovich, Dale Griffin, and Daniel Kahneman -Dirty Money, Good Luck Charms

Implicit Memory, Procedural Memory -Stores Motor Behaviour And Well-Known Actions

Declarative Memory And Procedural Memory -2 Drinks of Alcohol Before Sleep, affect the duration and progression of REM and NREM stages

Anchoring Bias -Value The First Most, Not Single Piece of Information

Distributive Justice -Organisational Psychology Term, Beliefs About How The Amount or Value of Compensations, Usually Salary Related, Is Fair

Procedural Justice -Whether The Means Used To Determine These Amounts Are Fair

Phi Phenomenon, Moving Dot Visualisations -Max Wertheimer, Berlin Gestalt School -Maurits Escher Impossible Figures

Diffusion of Responsibility -assumes that individuals are less likely to intervene or help in a crisis situation when there are other individuals around

Availability Heuristic -an example of a cognitive shortcut that focuses on making use of information that immediately comes to mind about some particular topic or issue. This immediate information then becomes the framework for judging the likelihood of events occurring

Group Polarisation -occurs in a group in which individuals take on views that reflect a more extreme position than they might hold privately

Cognitive Dissonance

-The Discomfort Experienced When An Individual Has Thoughts And Behaviours That Are Inconsistent, Celebrating With A Glass of Champagne - People have more positive attitudes toward the winning candidate they did not vote for after the election -Cognitive dissonance theory argues that an uncomfortable internal state is evoked when individuals observe an inconsistency between two or more of their own attitudes and/or behaviors. To reduce the psychic discomfort or tension created by the contradiction, and increase the consistency/agreement between their overall attitudes and/or behaviors, they may end up altering either their behaviors and/or attitudes. As applied to the voting case, when the results of the election are in conflict with people’s original preferences, and the person wants to favor the elected person anyhow, cognitive dissonance may be experienced. To reduce it, they cannot change the outcomes of the election or their past voting behavior. They can only change their own preferences. Hence, some may try to eliminate the experienced dissonance by altering their attitude toward the (initially disliked) candidate who won

Cognitive Behavioural, Food Journal -Cognitive behavioral orientations target both behaviors and cognitions and their inter- relationship. The underlying belief is that changing the way people think will change the way they behave and feel - vice versa. Diaries are often used in cognitive behavioral interventions as a way of monitoring clients’ thoughts, behaviors, and progress. They help clients to, e.g., detect their thought patterns and how they influence their behavior, thereby facilitating change

Existential Orientation -to counseling or coaching emphasizes the human condition as a whole by focusing on the individual’s strengths and capacities as well as limitations. The issue of choice is at the heart of the therapy. Individuals all have choices, and the goal of the counselor is to help the client explore the choices before him/her. Interventions would thus not be restricted to food-related thoughts and behaviors.

Psychodynamic Orientation -focuses on the client’s unconscious inner conflicts and how these conflicts influence experience and behaviors. The goal of therapy or counseling is to reveal the unconscious to the conscious and find the meaning of seemingly meaningless experiences and actions. Interventions would thus not be restricted to food-related thoughts and behaviors related to a specific area (eating).

Mindfulness -a term most commonly employed to designate a set of Buddhism-inspired therapeutic techniques – not a school of thought in Psychology. Focus on bodily sensations and the here- and-now are critical aspects of mindfulness. Its techniques usually involve helping clients to heighten their awareness of the here-and-now reality (in terms of thoughts, feelings, and body sensations) through bodily and focused-attention techniques, such as deep breathing, visualization, and meditation - not diary writing

Group Think

-a social phenomenon that occurs in groups that are cohesive. The group as a whole tends to make more irrational decisions without weighing all the alternatives because the group as a whole is insulated from outside evaluation

A) Members are extremely optimistic. B) Members are pressured not to dissent. C) Members who have some doubts do not bring them up.

Social Loafing -the phenomenon wherein people spend less time and effort on a task when performing it in a group setting than when alone

Vestibular Sense, Not Used To Send Signals To Other Organisms -In most mammals, the vestibular sense is located in the vestibular labyrinth of the inner ear. Via mechanoreceptors in the hair cells, the labyrinth receives and passes on sensory information critical for the organism’s sense of balance and gravity, spatial orientation, motor coordination, body position, and gaze stability during head movement. It is composed of five receptor organs: the anterior, the posterior, the lateral semicircular ducts, and the two otolith organs called the utricle and the saccule

Seismic Signals -Seismic signals are produced by creating vibrational waves using a body part and an external substrate, such as water or soil. These waves are then captured by other organisms via many different structures (e.g., mechanoreceptors, subgenual organs). The seismic sense refers precisely to the exchange of vibrational information between a wide range of organisms (e.g., spiders, elephants). It is a form of animal interaction and communication. It is thought to have a role in predator–prey interactions, foraging, mate choice and competition, and parent–offspring interactions

Haptic Sense, Touch -bidirectional exchange of tactile information arising from the physical, proximal, and intimate interaction of the organism with its surroundings and other organisms. Tactile information is captured by sensory receptors, mainly located throughout the skin and linked to kinesthetic senses. It is thought to have a role in fighting, mating, and social integration. For example, grooming is a form of social interaction based on the haptic sense

Bioluminescence -A chemical reaction within the light-organ culminates in the emission of light. This light signal is then received by the photoreceptors of other organisms, some of which located in very same light-organ. It is a special vision sense that is used for communication purposes, thought to figure into predator–prey interactions and mate competition and choice. For example, adult fireflies control the beginning and end of their light emission. Certain male flash patterns have been shown to be preferred by female fireflies. Hence light emission plays a part in mate selection

Consciousness, awareness of internal and/or external stimuli

Divergent Thinking, JP Guilford, Associative -to put forward as many solutions as possible for a given problem in a short period of time in a playful manner. In Guilford’s Alternative Uses Task (1967), a test that assesses divergent thinking, examinees are requested to list as many uses as possible for a common household item. The scoring has four components: originality, fluency, flexibility, and elaboration. Alternative tests that use pictures as stimuli also exist. These tasks are associative. In the example provided, workshop participants had to associate concepts with the pictorial stimulu

Inductive Reasoning -uses multiple pieces of information concerning particular cases to reach a general conclusion explanative of the overall available data

Bottom-Up Thinking, Perceptual Processes -how perception begins processing minor units and moves upward toward the whole representation. This term is sometimes made synonymous with inductive reasoning and applied to other areas of cognition such as thinking approaches. In this case, it also means using small units of information to arrive at a general conclusion -used to describe a particular type of information processing and knowledge organization, not a learning process. It proposes that people process information by starting with smaller and simpler units, and then proceed by moving up the complexity ladder, from sensation to emotion and then to cognition

Convergent Thinking, JP Guilford -instead of delineating many solutions, the aim is to arrive at the “correct,” single, best solution for a given problem. The process involves comparing data associated with solution alternatives, and weighting or determining the best alternative. It is a useful, logical decision-making process. It can be used in conjunction with the results of divergent thinking, helping to triage the best of the many found solutions

Insight Learning, Wolfgang Kohler

Observational Learning -Observational (or vicarious or social) learning was a model originally put forward by Albert Bandura. According to this theory, people learn by observing others perform behaviors and mimicking such behaviors. In Kohler’s experiment, the chimpanzees did not observe other chimpanzees performing the action

Operant Conditioning -Operant conditioning (or instrumental learning) is an associative learning process greatly developed by B.F. Skinner and Edward Thorndike. It posits that the organism associates its own actions (responses, reflexes, or instincts) with the consequences of those actions. According to Thorndike’s law of effect, the behaviors that lead to favorable outcomes (positive reinforcement) are likely to be repeated. The behaviors that lead to null or negative outcomes are likely to be stopped. In Kohler’s experiment, there was little “trying”. This led Kohler to argue against this type of learning process

Confirmation Bias -Cognitive bias can be considered a problem-solving obstacle because it hinders reaching correct or superior conclusions. Confirmation bias refers to the tendency to make exclusive use of information that supports a belief, hypothesis, theory, idea, or conclusion. Disconfirming information is discarded and forgotten

Mental Set -Fixedness, or mental set, refers to the tendency of being unable to switch one’s perspective of a given problem. It is usually the fruit of past training or knowledge about how to solve a given problem. Such past experience makes it harder to find alternative solutions for the problem

Functional Fixedness -a particular type of fixedness. It refers to the inability to see beyond the common functions or uses of a given tool. An example would be being unable to see a spoon as an object with which one can dig or scrape

Insight -Insight can be considered a problem-solving technique. It involves a sudden, rather than gradual, realization about the problem’s solution, often described as the eureka moment

Cultural Relativism -not using any one cultural standard as a benchmark for evaluating behaviors, values, or norms, including benchmarks for how child abuse is to be censored and sanctioned

Ethnocentrism -refers to judging one’s own culture as more superior than other cultures. Professional enthnocentrism can stem from having been trained within the dominant culture’s values, leading providers to view patients from other cultural groups as exotic, aberrant, or pathological.

-False Positives, For example, some cultural groups have restrictions on hair cutting or bathing. American professionals unfamiliar with that cultural practice could eventually report it as child neglect, when actually it was simply a cultural practice

Countertransference -a clinical phenomenon whereby the therapist or counselor consciously and unconsciously reacts to the client’s experience. Sometimes this reaction involves identification with the client’s experiences and sometimes identification with the experience of significant others’ in the clients’ life. Victims of abuse often feel silenced because they do not feel they have any power to change their situation without retaliation from the perpetrator. The therapist feeling silenced can be considered as a countertransferential reaction that involves identification with the client

-Transference in therapy refers to the phenomenon in which the client unconsciously transfers or redirects his/her feelings to the therapist or counselor. The question asks about the therapist's experience, not the client's

Bystander Effect -refers to a phenomenon in which an individual who is a bystander and who witnesses a person needing help does not intervene simply because there are others around

Dissociation -refers to the psychological detachment from surroundings and others typically due to a traumatic incident. It has been argued that it may is a coping mechanism

Anterograde Amnesia -New Information

Retrograde Amnesia -the inability to retrieve old memories, or memories that were formed prior to the event that triggered memory problems

Fugue Amnesia -a memory loss of personal identity. It is reversible

Dissociative Amnesia -a selective or partial memory loss, most commonly of traumatic events

Working Memory -to hold a set of items in memory for a short period of time and to manipulate such information, for the duration of the attention span

A) The working memory system is commonly thought to be dedicated to the limited, temporary storage, maintenance, and manipulation of sensory, perceptual, abstract, and linguistic information. That is, it is commonly thought that the information stored by this system lasts for a short period of time, although it still remains unclear for how long.

When in use, brain activity is registered in the frontal, parietal, and temporal areas. Interference and time are thought to negatively affect its performance B) Working memory is not restricted by type of information. This statement defines implicit memory instead. The implicit memory system, generally made synonymous with procedural memory, is thought to be mainly dedicated to motor learning skills. Tasks one has learned and practiced in the past are sometimes stored by this system so that these can be automatically performed without the use of reflective, conscious, voluntary, or explicit cognitive resources. For example, experienced drivers do not usually have to think about their gestures to be able to drive successfully. This reveals they are using their implicit memory systems C) Working memory is not restricted by type of information. This defines explicit memory instead. The explicit memory system stores, via voluntary and conscious mechanisms, the information that is needed for the performance of a task that is not yet mastered. For example, inexperienced drivers need to think about their every action, from gear switching to using the pedals, before acting. This suggests they are using the explicit memory system D) Although some controversy stills persists about the speed of the decay of information stored by working memory systems, it is originally and most frequently thought that this not a permanent, long-term storage. This type of storage is thought to be performed by the long-term memory system instead. Information stored there is available for very long periods of time without there being the need of utilizing maintenance mechanisms

Long-Term Memory

Semantic Memory, Long-Term Generale Facts -often contrasted with episodic memory. It is a specific type of long-term memory, dedicated to storing general knowledge information, such as the name, sound, and meaning of objects and words

Episodic Memory, Long-Term Events Experiences -a specific type of long-term memory. It stores temporally organized personal-life experiences. An example would be remembering the first time one won a competition and which competition was won afterward

Procedural Memory -Long-Term Ride Bicycle

Free-Recall Test -presenting a list of items to participants. For the second stage, participants are asked to remember and verbalize as many items as possible from the target list. These tests allow for the identification and study of the serial position effect, wherein the first (primacy effect) and the last (recency effect) items of the list are better recalled than the items that fall in the middle of the list

Cued-Recall Test -presenting a list of items to participants. Participants are then asked to remember the items of the list with the help of memory cues. For example, to recall the word “apple,” the drawing of an apple tree or the word “fruit” can be presented as cues during the recall task. Many types of cues or hints can be used, but they must be related to the target to be remembered. The use of cues is known to facilitate recall and is an example of how the semantic network affects recall

Recognition Test -involve presenting a set of items to participants. The second stage of the test involves presenting both new and old items to participants. The task is to detect the items to which one was previously exposed. The described test is a face-recognition test because the items are faces. These allow for the identification of the cross-race facial recognition effect, which consists of having greater recognition (and hence memorization) difficulty for faces of other races

Relearning Test -involve studying a set of items twice, at two different moments. After each memorization stage, participants are presented with a normal recall or cued-recall memory test. This procedure allows for the identification of what Hermann Ebbinghaus called “the method of savings,” which states that it takes less time to memorize a set of items when the list is learned for a second time. According to him, this was because the information, although apparently forgotten or inaccessible by conscious retrieval means, is still subconsciously remembered and available. This subconscious memory decreases the time it takes to relearn the same material

Maintenance Rehearsal, Shallow Processing -Instead of defining structures or memory components, Fergus Craik and colleagues argued that differences in recall were associated with different levels of information processing. They proposed that there were two main levels: narrow and deep. Narrow processing involves the repetition or rehearsal of superficial aspects of the material, such as the font type, and simple repetition of the material to be remembered (maintenance rehearsal). One example would be repeating a phone number out loud until one writes it down. Deep processing involves establishing semantic associations with the material to be remembered (elaborative rehearsal), for example, considering the meaning of the material and associating images with each item. The strategies mentioned all involve deep processing. Deeply rehearsed material is found to be more easily memorized and retrieved

Elaborative Rehearsal

Shallow Processing -the repetition or rehearsal of superficial aspects of the material, such as the font used. The examples provided involve establishing semantic associations and reflecting upon the meaning of the material to be remembered (deep processing)

Priming

-experimental procedure that involves showing stimuli, often subliminally, to increase a person’s sensitivity to other stimuli, for example, showing the word “apple” to increase the person’s sensitivity to the word “fruit.” The process is unconscious, affects decision making, lasts for around a day, speeds up retrieval, and relies on implicit memory processes

-Priming amounts to the pre-activation of specific concepts in memory and is known to affect subsequent behaviors in a priming-congruent manner. Its effects can last about 24h, and it can or not involve subliminal stimuli (i.e., stimuli that are presented below the threshold of attention and conscious recognition). This research design involves the subliminal manipulation of the independent variable via priming procedures. Namely, group A is subliminally exposed to the sentence “Art is beautiful,” whereas group B is subliminally exposed to the sentence “God exists.” Only the latter sentence expresses a metaphysical belief and is likely to prime religious beliefs. Thus, group A serves as a control group. This procedure adds to the study’s validity. Both groups then fill in healthy-lifestyle surveys (dependent variable) and may immediately engage in unhealthy behaviors by eating the chips (dependent variable). This allows for the study of the impact of the independent variable (the sentences) on the participants’ healthy- lifestyle attitudes and behaviors via group comparisons. Lastly, participants were informed, consenting volunteers, and were debriefed. These procedures respect current ethical guidelines

Young–Helmholtz Trichromatic Theory, Red Blue Green

Downward Comparison -the process wherein individuals compare themselves with those who are worse off than themselves. In applying this process to those who have been recently diagnosed with a chronic illness, because they have experienced a loss, they may compare themselves with those who are worse off. Studies have shown that downward comparison reduces negative affect, emotions, or mood tip of the tongue phenomenon the inability to recall familiar information fully, while having access to fragments of the information or information that is semantically close to the target. The frequency of this phenomenon seems to increase with age, and has been used to illustrate how retrieval can be flawed independently of the workings of other components of the memory system

Low-Context Communicators can typically be described as employing direct patterns of communication, with explicit descriptions and terms, speaking more and frequently raising their voices (animated, dramatic), and often being impatient to get to the point of the discussion.

Hierarchical Communication Pattern -refers to a flow of communication that starts with a sender who is an authority figure and moves down to individuals beneath him/her. This does not correspond to what was described.

High-Context Communicators

-cultures generally utilize indirect communication, talk less, rely on nonverbal cues, and are very comfortable with silences. They tend to use more formal language that emphasizes the hierarchical relationships of individuals. This does not correspond to what was described.

Paralanguage -refers to the nonverbal aspects of communication such as tone, pitch, loudness, and tempo of speech that convey meaning and emotions. Individuals from high-context cultures tend to rely on paralanguage. This does not correspond to what was described

Essentialism -there is a set of characteristics that can be applied to a specific form or entity (a group of people, animals, objects, etc.). In the case of gender, essentialists argue that psychological dimensions for gender are universal. All women share the same psychological characteristics, and the same holds true for men. In other words, there are no cultural variations, and therefore essentialists do not believe that cross-cultural research is necessary, Essentialism argues that psychological traits and characteristics are universal and not culturally specific. Therefore cross- cultural research is not at the heart of essentialism

Functionalist Perspective To Gender -Functionalism argues that society is made up of components within a system, and these parts work to serve a particular function. Therefore gender serves specific roles or functions, particularly in maintaining various social functions such as division of labor.

Social Constructivist Approach -constructs and phenomena are socially constructed; that is, everyone interprets different meanings for their lived social realities

Cocktail Party Effect The ability to recognize one’s own name being said in another conversation can be explained by the same mechanism as the ability to attend to one conversation in a crowded and noisy room. The cocktail party effect is explained through selective attention, which enables people to choose which stimuli in their environment they want to attend to.

-auditory information is stored for a longer amount of time than visual information. The difference is only a few seconds, in which the stimulus is replayed as echoic memory.

Invisible Gorilla Experiment -shows that people’s perceptions of events are not always reliable. The experiment was conducted together with a series of similar experiments at Harvard University to better understand perceptual blindness, a lack of attention that leads to missing a stimulus that is in plain sight. Perceptual blindness occurs when the focus of attention is elsewhere and the stimulus that is presented is not expected by the participant.

Holland Code

-a psychological assessment tool that is supposed to help people identify what kinds of people environments they prefer to be surrounded by in their work and private life. This is not connected with the cocktail party effect.

Ideal Free Distribution Theory -a model originally developed by Fretwell and Lucas (1969) to explain foraging behavior in animals. Given that the quality of available food (e.g., amount and accessibility of resources) varies by location, it could be thought that all animals would compete over the best spots. However, according to the ideal free distribution theory, animals that are free to sample the environment will distribute themselves as a function of the feeding areas’ quality. After a period of sampling, the animals begin to settle into spots as a function of the payoff received from that spot. Given that a higher number of predators and competitors will reduce the payoffs of the best spots, lower-quality spots will start being populated. In the simple example given, the fish were equally distributed along equally good stations. An increase in food distribution rate at one of the stations makes it twice as good as the other. Hence a redistribution of the fish would be expected in densities proportional to the ability of the station to support the fish. Instead of groups of three, a group of four and a group of two should result from the rate increase

Thomas Theorem -states that if people define situations as real, they become real in their consequences. This theorem states that the perception and interpretation of a situation can have more influence on an individual and social level than objective measurements and empirical findings. In accordance with the Thomas theorem, the comparatively low performance of Black men depicted in Figure 1 would be explained by racial stereotypes that perpetuate Black men’s interpretation of the situation when they have to perform in educational institutions. Furthermore, the Thomas theorem would explain the strong influence of teachers’ expectations on students’ educational attainment (i.e., teacher expectancy effect).

White Privilege -refers to the open and hidden advantages experienced by White people in Western countries when compared with non-White people. This term is used to understand how racialized societies affect White people.

Accumulated Advantage, Matthew Effect, Robert Merton -The Matthew effect was described by Robert K. Merton and describes how an individual who already owns status, prestige, or economic capital is more visible to society than someone with lower assets and can therefore progress up the social ladder more quickly and easily.

-Institutional racism refers to the structured and continuous processes that oppress and disadvantage youth from minority ethnic backgrounds in their educational attainment

Social Functionalism

Functionalism perceives social institutions such as the education system to be social structures that create and maintain stability in a society. The educational system has latent and manifest functions that contribute to forming members of society into entities that conform to the social rules. The hidden curriculum is one of those latent functions of education that teaches socially appropriate values, behaviors, and norms -Functionalism is concerned with the macro structures of societies—how systems work—and would therefore not look at the consequences social systems have on individual choice. -A functionalist perspective would not be concerned with the way social inequality is reproduced through the hidden curriculum. What the answer option mentions is the correspondence thesis, which describes how the hidden curriculum reproduces middle- and upper-class values and suppresses lower-class students. It has been argued, for example in the Marxist perspective, that this is one reason the hidden curriculum reproduces class structure and therefore contributes to social inequality. -Functionalism is not concerned with issues of social mobility, as it assumes that social inequality is an inherent characteristic of society. Furthermore, the theories concerned with issues of social mobility have argued that the hidden curriculum increases social inequality by enforcing social values that are supported by the privileged groups in society

A) Door-In-Face Technique, the requester starts with a very large appeal and more often than not will be denied (the door will be slammed in his/her face). The requester then makes a concession and offers a second request, upon which the person being asked will feel that he/she should also make a concession and will more likely accept the offer B) Foot-In-Door Technique, asking for a smaller request. Once the requester has the individual’s attention and the requester thus has his/her foot in the door, the requester makes a larger request C) Lowball Technique, making an offer attractive and then, once a person agrees to the request, raising the price of the original offer. Underlying this technique is the principle of commitment. Once individuals commit to something, more than likely they will not retract their original decision D) Scarcity Technique, Scarcity of Resources E) Deadline Technique, Limited Time F) Reciprocity, Social Norm, The experiment illustrates the importance and power of the social norm of reciprocity. The participants who had received drinks before felt obligated to reciprocate the favor by buying a piece of cake. The social norm of reciprocity ensures that people repay things or actions that they have received with items or actions of a similar kind G) Compliance, Compliance is not a social norm but a reaction to a request. Several different persuasion techniques, such as the foot-in-the-door or the door-in-the-face techniques, can foster compliance H) Altruism, the concept of selflessness and acting out of concern and care for others. It is a value rather than a norm. Values describe what is considered desirable in a society, whereas norms set out rules of behavior in a community

Master Status, Role Engulfment -master status is a form of social status that has the power to entirely define and shape a person’s identity. This type of status can be negative or positive. Disability can work as a master status in a negative form

Role v. Status -The difference between role and status is that status refers to a social position, while role means a social behavior. People hold a status but perform a role. The term master role is more commonly referred to as role engulfment. It refers to a role that becomes an integral part of a person's identity, almost to the exclusion of all other roles. Although people may perform the disability role in such way that it becomes ingrained in their personality, the passage referred to other people’s views of disabled people; to the way people were “defined socially”

Sick Role -a certain set of behaviors that patients are expected to display. Robert Merton and the functionalist tradition argued that being sick is a form of deviance. Sick people are not obliged to follow certain social norms and perform certain social roles. Yet, they are obliged to perform the sick role; that is, to try to get well and seek competent help in the process. Criticism has arisen regarding this concept because of the idea of the doctor–patient power relationship and the sick role’s limited applicability to chronic illnesses and disability

They Are Invoking Their Autonomy Rights And Violating The Sick Role -If a patient decides not to get the EEG examination recommended by the doctor, what principle are they invoking, but simultaneously what role are they violating?

A) neither privacy (maintaining the security and confidentiality of patient records) nor justice (equitable distribution of services) are at stake B) Consumerism in medicine refers to the patients’ ability to consume medical services. The paternalized role in health care refers to providers telling the patient what to do (as what a parent would do for a child). Although the patient did not follow the recommendation, and as such “violated” the paternalized role, they are opting against consumerism rights C) All patients can use their discretion in making decisions. This right is usually named autonomy in medicine. Moreover, doctor–patient communication is not a social role

Disabled Body, Cultural Construct -disability is not an inevitable result of biology but highly contingent on social and historical processes

Positive Emotions -Believing in the transcendent gives people hope for the resolution of their problems and instills optimistic attitudes

Agape Happiness, 6 Forms of Love, John Lee

Eudaimonic Happiness, Good Virtue -Eudaimonic happiness is a type of happiness that derives from leading a good and virtuous life, doing worthy activities, and experiencing a sense of life purpose. Eudaimonic happiness has been found to be correlated positively to good physical and mental health

Hedonic Happiness, Material Things -focuses on living life in the moment, such as enjoying material things acquired, good food, or money. It is short-term and fleeting

Matrifocal -In matrifocal societies, women hold a pre-eminent place in kinship structures. This can involve having households with people from different generations that are linked by blood to the mother and passing on family’s propriety to the women in the family. Matrifocality does not imply that the decision-making and the power is held by women. It simply regulates where and who should cohabit and how the family structure should be organized, being the anchor point a woman

Polyandry -which is the practice of one woman having more than one husband.

Matriarchal Societies -which refers to societies where the power and authority run in the female line.

Endogamy -which refers to social norms that dictate that in-group members are the only viable marriage partners. However, endogamic societies usually do not apply this norm exclusively to women

Ego Depletion Theory, No Chocolate No Date -refers to the capacity to self-regulate or control oneself when prior energies and resources have been reduced. The study assumed that subjects who could not eat the chocolate had to spend energy refraining from doing so, and those who failed to follow such instruction demonstrated ego depletion. They explained the “cheating” result by stating that the energy depletion experienced in the experimental condition led to lack of restraint to resist other temptations, such as agreeing to a coffee date or giving out their phone number

Social Cognitive, Learning Through Social Environment

Facial Feedback Hypothesis -maintains that there is a bidirectional relationship between individuals’ emotions and their facial expressions. In other words, people’s facial expressions reflect their internal emotional states. However, facial expressions can also trigger emotional states. This bidirectional process is thought to occur simultaneously, in a biofeedback manner, where facial expressions of emotions intensify the subjective experience of emotions, which in turn increase the tendency to facially

express it, and so forth, in a continuous loop. In a study wherein an injection that temporarily paralyzed the facial expressions of subjects, the subjects cannot facially express their feelings, and the loop is halter. In an empirical study utilizing this procedure, experimental subjects actually reported less negative states than their counterparts in the control group

Context Cues -external cues and their availability was found to enhance recall. Being presented with an image of a past event in social media can work as a context cue, and thus facilitate recall.

Recall of Information -can be facilitated or hindered by the matching of a person’s psychological or physical state at the moments of encoding and retrieval. Those state-dependent cues can help to recall memories. However, these mechanisms do not explain why it is easier to recall memories that were posted on a social media network.

Displacement Theory of Memory -that was described in the answer has been applied to short-term memory rather than the episodic long-term memory involved in storing social media posts. This theory was popular during the 1930s, 1940s, and 1950s but has now been widely criticized due to lack of empirical evidence.

Neurological Consolidation Processes -can make memories stronger or weaker by creating excitatory stimulation or inhibition patterns, respectively. As such, memories become easier or harder to recall. Social media posts would likely increase the strength of a pattern, i.e., increase its excitatory stimulation pattern, and thereby facilitating recall. They would unlikely create inhibition patterns

Mere Exposure Effect, Familiarity Effect, Facebook Postings -It claims that people develop an affinity for other people and objects just because they are frequently exposed to their presence. This effect has been used to explain mating behavior and is frequently taken advantage of in advertising. For social media network engagement, the mere exposure effect would predict that people develop greater affinity for contacts who post frequently and with whom one is therefore more familiar

Collective Identity, Cohesive Community -refers to a historical, jointly created, and collectively shared definition of a group’s attributes, values, and beliefs. Group members are aware of and tend to identify themselves with this identity -Collective Awareness of Shared Traits And Circumstances, Cohesive Community

Herd Behaviour -describes how individuals in a group, in the absence of a central authority, sometimes act and think by following on neighbors’ behaviors and thoughts, thus appearing to be following orders. It is not a collective awareness of shared traits.

Groupthink -refers to how group members’ desire for group harmony and lack of conflict can become so strong that they conform to the group’s decisions without evaluating critically their own and the group’s decisions. It is not a collective awareness of shared traits.

Collective Unconscious -a psychological term used by Carl Jung to describe the unconscious mind that is supposedly transmitted along generations and shared by different individuals. He used his concept of the collective unconscious to better understand human archetypes and symbolic thinking

Analogies -Thinking personality types tend to approach the world by categorizing and analyzing data, checking for inconsistencies, and focusing on external, objective data. Thus, the manager would prefer a logical approach, such as analogy and means–ends analysis. In deciding to look back at similar past experiences, he is using analogy. Analogy is a problem-solving technique that involves finding similarities between present and past situations, thereby identifying successful problem-solving strategies.

Incubation -a problem-solving technique that involves stepping back from the problem and focusing on other activities. This technique allows the problem solver to adopt a different perspective on the problem or have an insight come about. It would not be the first strategy to which thinking types would turn to.

Insight -can be considered a problem-solving technique. It involves a sudden rather than gradual realization about the problem’s solution, often described as an “eureka moment.” The process behind the insight is still poorly understood. It is often associated with intuitive and sensing personality types, not thinking types. It would not be the first strategy thinking types would turn to.

Means–End Analysis -a problem-solving technique that involves determining the goal (end) and the steps (means) required to achieve it. Whenever each step is achieved, a reevaluation of end and means is performed.

Holistic Approach, Traditional, Unorthodox Medicine -The term holistic is currently more commonly reserved to describe traditional, indigenous, complementary, alternative, or unorthodox medical approaches to health. This set includes every approach that differs from mainstream medicine, from Chinese medicine and acupuncture, to Shamanism, homeopathy, Shiatsu, art therapy, prayer, and etc

Biopsychosocial Approaches

-address physical and non-physical dimensions of health, including emotional, psychological, social, occupational, and spiritual. This is the approach that is currently recommended by modern, orthodox, scientific, or evidence-base medicine

1) Metacognition, How Ones Mind Works 2) Dissociative State, Gamblers Ruin 3) Representativeness Heuristic, Gamblers Fallacy/Ecological Validity

1) Status, Social Position 2) Role, Social Behaviour 3) Master Role, Role Engulfment 4) Sick Role

A) Cognitive Dissonance, Mental Conflict, Champagne Glass B) Cognitive Behavioural, Keeping Food Journal

Gamblers Fallacy

Pop Up Gambling 1) Dissociative State, When individuals are in a dissociative state, their awareness, attention, and emotions are disconnected from their environment. Gamblers often lose track of time and do not pay attention to external stimuli, which is one reason they may become oblivious to how much they are spending. The pop-up message might help them to leave the dissociative state. They would be forced to get a grip of reality, and realize that they were overspending. This might increase the odds of them stopping to gamble 2) Repressive State, Repression is a term used in clinical psychology to describe a defense mechanism whereby an individual pushes his feelings, wishes, and/or desires away from his consciousness. Consequently, according to psychoanalytical theory, the individual denies or does not acknowledge that the feeling or desire exists. In the pop-up messages case, individuals were at best denying the reality need to stop playing; they were not denying inner feelings. As such, they cannot be said to be in a state of repression 3) Depressive State, Simplifying, a depressive state can be characterized by the perseverance of negative affect, and lack of drive. Although depression and gambling appear to be empirically and positively related to one another, the pop-up messages are not design to minimize depressive states. If anything, for a depressed person, the pop- up message would rather strengthen their depressive feelings, and as such likely have the converse effect 4) Anxiety State, As with depression, anxiety has been found to be empirically and positively related to gambling. Similarly, if anything, for an anxious person, the pop-up message would rather enhance their anxiety, and as such likely have the converse effect

Representativeness Heuristic -The gambler’s fallacy (also known as Monte Carlo fallacy and the fallacy of the maturity of chances) amounts to the tendency to believe that if some event has happened very frequently or very rarely, the odds will soon change. That is, that frequent events will soon cease to happen and infrequent events will soon happen. This is a bias because the individual does not acknowledge, while estimating the odds of some future event, that statistical occurrences are independent of each other. In other words, if the individual flips a coin three times and happens to get heads, this does not imply that the chances of getting tails in the next flit are greater. There is still a 50% probability of the coin landing heads up. On the other hand, representativeness heuristic amounts to the tendency to assume that a new sample of events will resemble the sample of events one is acquainted with. That is, that the odds associated with the attributes of a known sample will be similar to those of another unknown sample. For example, one can judge the frequency of divorce in the light of the number of divorcees one is acquainted with. However, given that couples and divorcees usually mingle among themselves, such judgement can be biased. As applied to gambling, this would mean that gamblers that are winning might assume they will continue to win in the future (the “lucky strike”), and, if they are

losing, that they will continue to loose. This is why this phenomenon might have the opposite effect

Automatic Processing -refers to the ability to perform a task or activity in an effortless manner with almost no conscious thought. This occurs after a person has repeatedly performed an activity for quite some time, so that it then becomes second nature. This is not in any way the opposite of the gambler’s fallacy

Personalization -an example of a cognitive distortion whereby the individual believes that events or something another person says are linked back to him/her. This inaccurate belief or assumption then influences the individual’s emotions and/or behavior. This is not in any way the opposite of the gambler’s fallacy

Third Person Effect, Gamblers Fallacy, Wasnt Me TV Commerical -The third-person effect is a phenomenon in which individuals indicate that persuasive messages like advertisements or commercials have minimal or no effect on them. However, they believe that other people will be persuaded by the advertisement or commercial, unlike themselves, After watching a gambling commercial, research subjects are more likely to rate that the commercial has little influence on them but that others will be more influenced by the message

Auguste Comte, Conflict Theory And Structural Functionalism 1) Auguste Comte would only be interested in social inequalities insofar they helped to better understand how society remains stable. An approach that would be interested in how rites of passage facilitate social inequalities is conflict theory 2) Auguste Comte would not be interested in the oppression of women through rites of passage. Functionalism sees gender inequalities as one of the structures that help keep society in order, such as through the promotion of division of labor. However, feminist approaches would look at how and why rites of passage such as female genital mutilation serve to oppress women in society and help to support patriarchy 3) Functionalism would assume that changes in rites of passage on a micro level would not really affect their function on a macro level. An example of a theory that would be concerned with changing rites of passage in modern society would be Ulrich Beck’s risk society. His theory would observe how secularization and individualization processes affect rites of passage in modern society

Social Constructivist Approach -constructs and phenomena are socially constructed; that is, everyone interprets different meanings for their lived social realities

1) Social Institution, A social institution is a whole set of norms, beliefs, and values expressed in a structured form. It is not a single, isolated, specific behavioral norm, such as the one described. An example of a social institution would be religion, education, marriage, or family 2) Social Norm, The traditional color choices for brides and female wedding guests signify a social norm. A social norm is an expectation to behave (e.g., to dress) in a way that is in accordance with a particular social situation. Many rites and customs are expressions of social norms 3) Rite of Passage, a whole set of rituals that is carried out in a community at a particular time and location. A wedding dress code just forms part of the norms, symbols, objects, and practices that constitute a rite of passage 4) Ethnocentrism, the process generalizing the beliefs, norms, and values of one culture to all other cultures 5) Cultural Diffusion, The traditionally Western ritual of the bride and groom exchanging wedding rings becoming more and more popular as a part of Chinese wedding ceremonies, Cultural diffusion describes how elements from one culture such as practices or objects spread among individuals from a single culture or from different cultures. Direct cultural diffusion usually happens between neighboring countries when there is a lot of contact between the citizens. Indirect diffusion describes the spread of cultural items even if there is no strong personal contact between members of the different cultures. Indirect cultural diffusion is very common and is aided through mass media and Internet use 6) Enculturation Process, A 3-year-old child who attends church for the first time and learns the appropriate behavior in religious places is going through an enculturation process rather than cultural diffusion. Enculturation enables members of a culture to learn the appropriate rituals, values, and norms of their own culture either through observational learning or direct explanation and advice 7) Cultural Transmission, The daughter deciding to set up her own wedding rituals similar to her mother’s wedding is an example of cultural transmission rather than cultural diffusion. Cultural transmission describes how the learning of rituals and practices that takes place within one culture 8) Direct Diffusion, The popularity of playing both hockey (which originated in Canada) and baseball (which originated in the United States) in the border region between Canada and the United States is an example of direct diffusion. Direct diffusion happens when countries neighbor each other, the borders are fairly open, and the citizens have many possibilities for communication and trade

A) the relationship between rites of passage, social institutions, and culture? Rites of passage can vary based on culture but are always defined by social institutions

B) Some rites of passage are more universal, while others only exist in specific communities.” From this statement it can be deduced that rites of passage can vary based on culture C) Secondly, it is stated that “they are mediated by social institutions and use different symbols to express the meaning of the transition for the individual and the community.” This suggests that rites of passage are always defined by social institutions D) Social institutions shape and are shaped by a group’s culture. It is senseless to oppose the two constructs as distinct concepts. In that culture is a set of meaningful symbols, this is sort of implicit to the statement remarking that rites of passage “are shaped by social institutions and different symbols are used to express the meaning of the transition for the individual and the community.”\ E) The passage never suggests that rites spread across social institutions. Actually, they tend to be quite institution-specific

Social Identity Theory -maintains that individuals’ identities are rooted in their group memberships. Individuals will first categorize themselves based on the social group (e.g., “I am Asian American”). They then build a social identification; that is, they adopt the identity of the group in which they classified themselves. Finally, social comparison occurs: individuals will begin to compare the group they are in with another group -Labeling is not relevant to social identity theory, Social identity theory does not address individual, social, and collective identities

Incentive Theory A) Positive Reinforcement, Weekly Bonuses B) Negative Reinforcement, Yearly Target Cuts

Drive Reduction Theory -drive-reduction theory, which states that as long as a person is in a state of arousal or tension triggered by a physiological or biological need, he or she will try to fulfill the need. Needs can include hunger, thirst, and the need for warmth and are seen as the basis for an individual’s motivation

Yerkes–Dodson Law -claims there is an inverted U-shaped covariation of physiological arousal and performance. It is sometimes referred to as the inverted-U hypothesis. It states that peak performance is neither at lower nor higher emotional arousal levels, but rather at mid-range arousal levels. Higher levels of arousal can be triggered by factors such as the presence of other people and task complexity, both responsible for increasing levels of arousal and thereby affecting performance. Complex but accomplishable tasks more likely elicit optimum levels of physiological arousal, principally for a person working from home alone. They are not so complex that the individual fears not being able to accomplish them nor so simple that no cognitive challenges are raised, in the case of working from home alone

McDonaldized Good, Sleep, George Ritzer -Efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control

-Efficiency refers to the efforts made to minimize time investment. Calculability means a shift from subjective toward measurable, quantifiable goals (e.g., time saving). The process of standardizing and routinizing leads to the dimension of predictability of outcomes and tasks. Control refers to the measurability of those standardized procedures and goals. Although one might argue that our sleeping patterns are becoming more efficient and calculable in accordance with Ritzer’s observation, they are still far away from being standardized and controlled

Planning Fallacy, University Paper -the phenomenon of underestimating the amount of time it takes to complete a task. In this scenario, students wait until the last minute to work on the paper, and suddenly realize it will take them longer to fulfil the task. That is, they underestimate the amount of time it will take from the beginning

Moore’s Law -focuses on the quantity of devices, and can be regarded as a cultural diffusion concept, the rise in smartphone addiction. This could at most serve as indirect evidence of Moore’s Law

Cell Phone Diffusion, Positive v. Negative Effects 1) Social Accessibility, Positive 2) Attentional Split 3) Social Interaction Anxiety 4) Incivility

1) Activity Theory, Activity theory would posit that this is because elders invest on social activities and roles. This would allow them to find meaning and connect with others 2) Disengagement Theory, argues that as people age they disengage from activities and their roles. Thus, under this hypothesis, adolescents and young adults would feel more, rather than less connected to their community 3) Developmental Theories, middle-aged adults are focused on work and raising their children

A) Emotional Memory, often remembered with greater accuracy and/or vividness than events lacking such emotional component. They are also often cued or triggered by stimuli that are connected to our senses, such as a smell, a sound, on, in this case,

music. From the information provided about the study, the most validly conclusion is that the music cued an emotional memory B) Repressed Memory, a memory of an event (often traumatic) that has been blocked by the unconscious C) Positive Reinforcements D) Reflective Response, a clinical response that can be made by a counselor to capture the client’s underlying feelings

1) Biopsychosocial, a medical model that argues that health is the result of a complex interaction between factors of different orders. These are psychological (e.g., emotions, behaviors, and cognitions), social (e.g., culture, education, family structure, or social norms), and biological (e.g., genes, physiology, and anatomy). For a non-believer, religion could be regarded as either a psychological or a social factor. For a believer, however, it would be regarded as a spiritual factor worthy of a separate dimension that is not at the outset contemplated via this model 2) Semiotics of Culture, Cultural semiotics is the study of culture via the examination of the generation of meanings for cultural symbols, signs, and language. An example of a cultural sign could be the culture-bound belief that pain is the result of divine intervention. Yet, semiotics would be preoccupied with whether this belief was or was not a cultural sign; they would not be concerned with the specific explanation of pain 3) Cultural Congruence, the study of whether services and service providers are adequately matched to the cultural needs of the clients. They would not be concerned with the specific explanative model of pain 4) Biopsychosocial-Spiritual, From the perspective of a believer, spirituality is as real and important as any other factor, thus meriting its detachment from the reminder aspects. The commonly neglected spiritual and/or religious dimension has been increasingly raising the interest of researches. Terms such as biopsychosocial-spiritual model, holistic model, and religious model have been used to describe medical models, explanative of health and disease that incorporate multiple dimensions including the spiritual/religious

1) Catharsis is a Greek word that means purification or cleansing. As a therapeutic method, it targets emotions. It is usually argued to involve two processes: intense emotional expression and processing; and cognitive insightfulness. As stated in the passage, pain is not an emotion. Moreover, seldom (if ever) is this method used for treating pain disorders and associated stress. For this reason, it is the least likely to decrease experienced levels of pain and stress. 2) Moderate Aerobic Exercise is a common stress therapy. It has been found to have antidepressant and anxiolytic effects. Albeit inconsistent, evidence also suggests it can have a weak to moderate positive effect on the treatment of chronic pain by relaxing patients, increasing their tolerance to pain, and reinforcing their mobility. 3) Meditation is regarded as both an altered state of mind and an ensemble of mind altering techniques, such as breathing exercises, There is evidence suggesting the beneficial use of meditation for both pain and stress management.

4) Hypnosis is a mind altering technique and an altered state of mind. It is sometimes used for the treatment of pain and stress symptomatology, and has been shown to have beneficial effects

Contact Hypothesis -argues that the best way to deal with prejudice is to bring people of different groups together so they can begin a dialogue about each other’s value systems and better appreciate the similarity of their experiences and backgrounds. -Reducing contact is the opposite of what the contact hypothesis maintains -Psychoanalysists like Sigmund Freud might argued that generally individuals seek to displace their aggression onto a substitute object (i.e., a scapegoat in layman’s terms) when the real cause cannot be found or aggressed. They did not propose this as a means of reducing prejudice

Cooperation Hypothesis -which asserts that the best way to deal with prejudice is to bring people from different groups together so they can cooperate and work together toward a common goal.

Aids People To Legitimise Discrimination Against An Immigrant Group? 1) Perceived Threat, when people perceive a threat to their identity or well-being, they are more likely to legitimize prejudice and discrimination. In other words, people generally want to view their own group more positively, and when something threatens their group’s values they will retaliate against the other group 2) Perceived Sense of Contentment, People generally legitimize prejudice under feelings of threat and not contentment or happiness 3) Breakdown of Social Norms, the collective dissolution or shift of behavioral expectations and codes of conduct. It does not have a direct relationship with discriminatory behavior or prejudice. Moreover, there would have to be some factor justifying or introducing these attitudes and behaviors before the breakdown of non- discriminatory social norms occurred and the collective started to support discriminatory attitudes instead 4) Diffusion of Responsibility, the phenomenon wherein people are less likely to assume responsibility when there are more people witnessing the emergency event. It does not have a direct relationship with discriminatory behavior or prejudice; it happens regardless of type of victim

1) Recency Recall, experiencing greater ease when recalling the information that was presented more recently 2) Selective Attention, the process of filtering out a large amount of information and focusing on the most relevant information or stimulus

3) Semantic Priming, when an initial stimulus influences the way someone gives meaning or interprets some subsequent stimulus. In this case, the anteceding contextual cues were known words. They primed or influenced the way the boy interpreted the subsequent unfamiliar word, helping him to figure out its meaning 4) Automatic Processing, refers to mechanisms that are involuntary or do not require attention

George Miller, 7 Words, Plus/Minus 2 -Approximately seven (plus or minus two) chunks of information can be stored at a time in an individual’s short-term memory. By limiting the number of items, the likelihood of remembering ALL the items in the list is increased. This phenomenon was firstly described by George Miller in 1956

Melting Pot of Society, Interracial Marriages More Common -The melting pot refers to an ideal goal in which immigrants coming to a new country adopt the culture of the new country. Society becomes more homogeneous as a result of a blending of different elements. The rise of interracial marriages has often been described as a phenomenon that indicates this blending of different cultures and the advancement of the melting-pot ideal in society. Critics of this concept have pointed out several disadvantages to this perspective. “Melting” or assimilation might lead to a loss of distinct cultural practices and values. Furthermore, the concept lacks critical reflection upon existing societal power structures that prevent the melting from happening in reality and that can potentially lead to the domination of one culture over the others. Over the years, the debate on multiculturalism has led to a reconsideration of the melting-pot metaphor, and new expressions such as “salad bowl” or “mosaic” have emerged. These terms have been employed to describe the pluralistic rather than homogeneous nature of modern societies

1) Culture of Poverty, a controversial theory first formulated by Oscar Lewis after his ethnographic work in a village in Mexico. He argued that poor people share a distinct culture of their own. It is not a macrosociological theory that aims to explain poverty patterns or differences between groups 2) The "Undeserving Poor" Theory, a concept rather than a theory. This concept, along with that of the “deserving” or “able-bodied,” was introduced by the Victorian-era Poor Law in 1834. It describes the belief that poor people only deserve welfare support when they are physically or mentally unable to provide for themselves. This discussion is still relevant for the political discussion around welfare in many countries, and was more recently brought to the discussion in 1989 by Michael B. Katz‘s book The Undeserving Poor: From the War on Poverty to the War on Welfare 3) Feminization of Poverty, attempts to explain why women in general are at the greatest risk of poverty throughout developed and undeveloped countries alike. Both structural and cultural factors have been cited as contributing to poverty among women, such as lower incomes and social and cultural norms that impede women’s access to formal employment

4) Strain Theory, used in criminology and sociology. It is a microsociological theory that does not aim to explain poverty patterns such as those illustrated by Figure 1. Rather, it aims to explain how deviance occurs due to the strains created by social structure

Family Ecology Theory -focuses on how families are affected by the environment around them and how the environment is influenced by the families. Family ecology theory is equally interested in natural physical–biological environments, human-built environments, and social–cultural environments. Neighborhoods are one vital component of the human environment, and thus this approach would be keen on investigating its effects on family

Family Development Perspective -focuses on the life cycle of the family and how it transitions over time due to both predictable and unpredictable factors -The family life cycle and how adopting children affects the family’s connection with social institutions

Carl Jung’s Analytical Psychology Theory -Carl Jung described two main types of decision-making preferences: thinking (logical decision- making) and feeling (emotional or subjective decision-making). These preferences are thought to reflect individual differences regarding the way people make decisions and may or not be expressed in the outer world via their actions. According to Jung, thinkers are those that are guided by rules, whereas feelers thinkers are those that are guided by particular circumstances while making decisions. This pair of preferences amounts to one of the “factors” identified by Carl Jung in his analytical psychology approach to personality, according to which people can be understood in the light of four factors: Attitude toward the world (Introversion and Extraversion); Preferences regarding incoming information (Sensing and Intuiting); Preferences regarding information processing and decision-making (Thinking and Feeling); and Preferences regarding the orientation to the outer world and expressed actions (Judging and Perceiving). These four sets of preferences were utilized for the construction of a well-known personality test, namely, Myer-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). By combining these preferences, it yields whether the person has one of the 16 possible personality types

Type A And Type B Personality Theory -claims that humans can be distinguished into two different personalities. Type A is more ambitious, short-tempered, and outgoing, whereas type B is more relaxed, patient, and introverted. This theory gained importance in the field of health psychology. For example, there is substantial evidence supporting that type A personality type is one of the risk factors associated with coronary heart disease

Hippocrates’ Medical Theory of Personality -divides humans into four basic temperaments: sanguine (passionate, active, social, and attention-seeking), choleric (irritable, impatient, proud, and fast), melancholic (reflective, analytical, perfectionist, and quiet), and phlegmatic (relaxed, pleasing, introverted, and

submissive). Although these types may affect decision-making, they are not defined in defined in such terms. Thus, the exercise would less likely aim at tapping into this typology.

Extravert And Introvert Personalities, Jungian’s Analytical Psychology -correspond, respectively, to personalities oriented toward the external world (e.g., surrounding events and objects) and the inner life (e.g., thoughts and feelings). These distinction is thought to have been originally introduced by Carl Jung, and it was then included in several personality assessment tools and personality theories. These two categories were not however drawn to delineate decision making preferences. They rather intended to portray different attitudes toward the world

1) Behaviorism, For Burrhus Skinner, one of the main authors behind the development of behaviorism, children were “tabulas rasas” or empty vessels. Language was a cognitive behavior that had to be learnt via an interaction with the environment, as with any other behavior, and through the same operant conditioning mechanism. Parents’ praise and attention worked as positive reinforcements that increased the likelihood of using such language. That is, “praise” and alike parental behavior determined language acquisition and influenced the use of rich vocabulary 2) Nativism Theories, Noam Chomsky, Nativist theories, such as that of Noam Chomsky, considered the father of modern linguistics, argue that children are born with brain structures and functions that allow for language acquisition. That is, that people’ linguistic skills are greatly influence by genes, not the environment. They do not need to learn fully how to speak. One of the innate functions is the universal grammar (linguistic knowledge). It specifies certain rules that can be applied to combine words and governs different languages and that is an innate (vs. acquired) ability. Some empirical evidence supports this view; children seem to have a critical period during which language acquisition is optimal (between the age 2 and puberty) 3) Social Interactionism, Interaction Theory of Language Development, argues that the interaction between people’s innate characteristics and the language-using environment determine language acquisition. One of the main proponents of this theory was Lev Vygotsky, the main developer of sociocultural psychology. In brief, he postulated that children learn from their environment and through social learning. That is, by communicating with others, children developed their linguistic skills; interacting with adults worked as “scaffolding.” Then, praise might contribute to the use of rich vocabulary but would not be the sole responsible for such results 4) Structuralism, Ferdinand de Saussure applied structuralism to the field of linguistics. He would rather emphasize how language is a static system of interconnected units with semiotic proprieties. That is, signs connect signifier to signified and are organized in levels of increasing complexity, from the phonetic level, to the phonological level, to the morphological level, and to the syntactic level. This structure is systematic and transversal. It determines the relationship between function-defined linguistic elements

1) Astereognosis, a form of tactile agnosia that consists of a general inability to recognize the size, form and other proprieties of objects by touch and in the absence of vision. It

most commonly affects only one hand. Bilateral astereognosis is rare. This diagnosis is unrelated to face recognition, and should not be assigned in the light of the test results described in the question stem 2) Visual Agnosia, the inability to recognize visually presented objects despite the preservation of elementary sensory visual functions. That is, people see that objects are present in their visual field but they are unable to know what they are. Although prosopagnosia can be regarded as a type of visual agnosia, the test targeted exclusively face recognition. Since those with prosopagnosia tend to be able to recognize objects other than faces, this diagnosis would be too broad and might be inaccurate 3) Apperceptive Agnosia, a form of visual agnosia, usually distinguished from associative agnosia. It is defined as a type of visual agnosia that is caused by impaired visual processing deficits and poor perceptive abilities. This diagnosis should not be assigned in the light of the results of a test that targets exclusively face recognition. Rather, it should be assigned in the light of tests targeting visual processing abilities 4) Prosopagnosia, alternatively known as face blindness, is the only type of agnosia that is defined as the inability to recognize familiar faces, and might be assigned in the light of test results. Those without this dysfunction tend to be able to recognize everyone from set B and some individuals from set A. If someone does not recognize people from sets A, B, and C equally, then the person might have prosopagnosia. Further testing should be done to confirm the diagnosis. E.g., one might check whether there was damage to the right fusiform gyrus, which is the structure thought to cause this dysfunction

1) Feminism, crime is the result of patriarchy rather than capitalism 2) Marxism, capitalism is criminogenic because the inequality in society makes crime inevitable and that, on some levels, capitalism even rewards crime 3) Functionalism, crime is inevitable in all societies, not just capitalist ones, and would focus on its function 4) Postmodernism, would not likely refer to capitalism. Instead, they could more likely claim that every structural explanation of crime, such as capitalist being the cause of crime, are metanarratives, “big stories” that cannot account for the diverse reasons for crime. They might also favor the idea that the accountability of crime rests more on individual factors than on whatever more general and universal aspects, and that the truth about crime should be determined via the adoption of scientific methods or the study of history

1) Obedience, the criminal is following an order from somebody above him or her in the chain of command, which is an example of obedience. In fact, this phenomenon is often called obedience to authority, was originally investigated by Stanley Milgram, and was utilized to explain some of the horrors committed during the Second World War 2) Conformity, to the phenomenon of aligning one’s behavior and values with those of the majority's. It can result from normative and/or informational social influence. These are distinguished as a function of people’s motivation or use of others’ behavior. In the case described, the actions of the majority, such as say of other gang leader followers, were not described as bearing an influence

3) Internalization, the process of accepting certain values and behaviors as one’s own in such a way that they become deeply ingrained in one’s personality 4) Informational Influence, Whereas normative social influence involves adopting the behavior of others so as to be accepted and liked, informational social influence involves using other people as sources of information or cues about how to behave in particular circumstances so as to be accepted and liked. In both cases, the behavior of others is copied. The question mentioned how the act was not a “copycat” crime. Thus it is reasonable to presume that informational influence could not explain or trigger the offending behavior

A) Differential Association, the belief that those who associate with criminals will eventually become criminals due to being exposed to deviant norms and values B) Diffusion of Responsibility, refers to how people are less likely to take responsibility for their behavior when in a group C) Cognitive Dissonance, amounts to an uncomfortable internal state of tension which is experienced when one’s attitudes are inconsistent with one’s behaviors. In the present case, the criminal might experience stress if they did not see themselves as criminals and yet were performing a criminal act. Yet, in the question, what is claimed is that the criminal feared being judged by society in stereotypical terms D) Stereotype Threat, Stereotype threat amounts to feeling or actually being at risk of being more likely judged dispositionally, than situationally, when performing behaviors that are congruent with the negative stereotypes associated with one’s ingroup. This is what is described in the question stem, which posits that a person from an African race is worried that the crime will confirm the negative ‘criminal Black man’ stereotype, that already exist in society, in such way that their specific situation (of it being a first offense motivated by the will to help a friend) are disregarded. The stereotype threat risk has been shown to affect performance. That is, people under such risk may end up fulfilling the stereotype unintentionally, along the lines of self-fulling prophecies

To Explain The Behaviour of People In Riots 1) Peer Pressure, involves being influenced by one’s group members to act in a certain way. In riots one is not necessarily acting in accordance with one’s peers, but rather in accordance with an indiscriminate collective 2) Deindividuation, In a group, people sometimes lose their self-identify and behave in ways that they would not do without the influence of the group. This phenomenon is named deindividuation. The passage stated precisely how individuals are “swept” by the crowd’s behavior “regardless of race, and in the absence of both personal history of such acts and persuasive actions from the other members.” That is, how they acted unlike themselves for that moment

3) Social Facilitation, occurs when people perform better or more productively in a group than when alone. This concept is more often used in relation to organizational settings. The passage made no reference to such an aspect when describing riots. Moreover, one’s performance is not been assessed during riots. Thus, this concept unlikely explains their behavior 4) Social Loafing, occurs when people perform less well in groups because they rely on the work of the other members. It is also a concept developed within the area of organizational psychology. In the described riot example, it is stated that individuals perform unusual actions – not that they fail to perform or contribute to the group’s objective. Thus, this concept does not apply

Police Officers Views 1) Ethnocentrism, the tendency to judge another culture from the exclusive perspective of one's own ethnic culture and its values, standards, habits, and expectations. This often entails the belief in the superiority of one’s own ethnic group. In the passage the police officers are said to feel that there is "something inferior in Black culture that will lead to crime". It is also stated that there are many "white officers" in the police. These statements suggest that there is a sense of ethnocentric superiority from the White officers toward Black people 2) Institutional Discrimination, as opposed to individual discrimination, is prejudice and active discrimination held by a social institution toward some social group (s). Although the passage hints at this phenomenon when describing the reactions of those within the criminal system, it does not suggest that it did so due to a feeling of superiority toward Black people. Rather, individual officers were the ones who were associated with such beliefs 3) Racialization, From a sociological (vs. psychological) perspective, racionalization (or ethnicization) is a term employed to describe the attribution of social identities to groups that reject those very same identities. The reaction of the Black group toward the "criminal" identity is not described 4) Orientalism, the interpretation of a culture, particularly one that is Southeast Asian, in a stereotyped way that reflects a Western bias

Hypnosis, Slips of The Tongue, And Free Association -the id is a term used in psychoanalysis to designate the unorganized part of the individual psyche or personality that holds people’s drives or instincts (Triebe, as originally described in German), namely Thanatos (death and aggression) and Eros (life and libido). These contrary drives are generally unconscious, coexist alongside each other in the id, spring from a state of excitation in the body, and aim at being satisfied. However, they often remain in the id unsatisfied, either by being deemed unacceptable by the superego, which holds internalized social laws and codes of conduct, or by being in conflict with one another (life vs. death; kill vs. procreate). According to psychoanalysis, even when these desires do not reach conscious awareness, it is possible to get a glimpse into them via techniques such as free association, slips of the tongue, hypnosis, fantasies, sense of humor, and body movements

A) Diary writing, agenda setting, and pro–con analysis are cognitive behavioral therapeutic techniques that were not put forward or utilized by psychoanalysts interested in the Id. They focus more on conscious thoughts, emotions and behavior monitoring (observable issues), that on unobservable issues like the Id B) Meditation, with its focus on the present moment, was deemed by Jung as a technique that neglected the id C) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRIs), EEGs, and MEGs are methods employed for the study of biological and physiological brain activity. They are not utilized to investigate the Id

1) Lucid Dreaming, consists of being aware that one is dreaming while the dream is going on 2) Latent Content Dreaming, Sigmund Freud distinguished between manifest content (remembered plot, images, and so forth) and latent or hidden content (symbolism or unconscious meaning of the manifest content). This distinction does not involve being aware of one’s dreaming while dreaming 3) Paradoxical Sleep, a term often used to refer to REM stages. According to EEGs and other physiological measurements, individuals feel they are awake, and yet they are so deeply asleep that it is hard to wake them up; in this contradiction lays the paradox. Lucid dreaming is a different phenomenon; it is not a sleep stage 4) Prodromal Dreaming, Prodromal dreams are those that predict or warn the dreamer about forthcoming diseases. Along with symptomatic dreams, which occur during the disease and concern symptomatology, their scientific value, if any, is still under research. They are unrelated with an awareness that one is dreaming while dreaming

Extrinsic v. Intrinsic Motivators, Girl Basketball Player -Extrinsic motivation is usually compared to or paired with intrinsic motivation. Extrinsic motivation amounts to the drive of changing one’s behavior due to external tangible rewards and punishments, such as the metaphoric carrot, a prize, a sanction, or parental recognition and praise. It is instrumental and thought to operate along the lines of behavioral conditioning. - Unlike wise, intrinsic motivation amounts to the drive of changing one’s behavior due to intangible, internal factors, most commonly involving a sense of pleasure or satisfaction. Common intrinsic motivations are social status, autonomy, curiosity, social acceptance mastery, power, and honor. For example, people may experience joy and satisfaction when acting autonomously and exploring the surroundings by themselves. Their reward is the joy experienced while performing autonomy-related behaviors

-Motivation consists of a drive to perform behaviors. It can be categorized as intrinsic or extrinsic. Intrinsic motivation refers to doing an activity simply for the satisfaction, enjoyment, interest, and pleasure derived (e.g., satisfaction with own performance), such as in the girl’s case. Extrinsic motivation refers to doing an activity as a means to an end and because it will lead to a specific outcome (e.g., being or not esteemed by her parents), such as her friend’s case -Consistency and bounded rationality are not types of motivation. Bounded rationality refers to how individuals’ decision making is limited by the information that individuals hold, time, and their cognitive skills. Consistency refers to the repetition in time of certain patterns

A) Internal Motivators are not usually paired with extrinsic motivators. Moreover, the offered definition is more appropriate for describing primary drives or motivators than to describe intrinsic or internal motivators. Drive-reduction theory distinguishes primary from secondary drives. The former involves satisfying innate physiological needs induced by imbalanced homeostasis (e.g., hunger or thirst), and the latter involves satisfying social or acquired needs (e.g., affiliation, social acceptance, or status). Although some authors consider that physiological needs or drives are examples of intrinsic motivators, other authors establish a difference. That is, the internal motivators label is inadequate, and the examples provided along with the definition are controversially included in the category of intrinsic motivators B) Innate Motivators are not usually paired with extrinsic motivators. Instinct theory of motivation focuses on “innate” motivators, that is, inherited biological predispositions that trigger behavior. They can be distinguished from primary drives in that it is not homeostatic imbalance that triggers them. Rather, inherited behavioral traits would generate them, such as those related to mating behavior. Moreover, intrinsic motivation is defined as a function of obtained rewards or outcomes, not in terms of what triggers behaviors. From the perspective of intrinsic motivators, the motivator or driver would be the satisfaction experienced while establishing a relationship with someone, not the desire to mate itself C) Biopsychosocial Motivators are not usually paired with extrinsic motivators. The biopsychosocial perspective was applied to the study of motivation, or some theories, such as Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, include social, psychological and biological motivators and can be regarded as such. In these theories, factors are categorized in mutually exclusive categories that can be social, psychological, or biological. This is not what helps to distinguish extrinsic from intrinsic motivators

Waiter Style

A) Kinesics, body movement communication. It is focused on aspects such as facial expression and gestures. Its immediacy and communication through the sight channel make it more likely to be important. The waiter might smile B) Paralinguistics, aspects of spoken communication that do not involve words (that are nonverbal). These could include tone and pitch of voice. For instance, the waiter could greet people with a soft tone of voice C) Verbalizations, “social interactions,” which involves knowing about expression and detection of emotions. The correct answer is C. For communication purposes, there must be a sender (organism expressing a message), a receiver (organism decoding the message), and a communication channel (means by which the message is expressed, from emails to facial expressions). Emotional expression, wherein the message is the emotion itself, can involve several different channels, most often used simultaneously. Among people, evidence shows that the most important channels for overall and emotional communication purposes are nonverbal and the least important are verbal. For example, Albert Mehrabian found that recipients drew upon approximately 10% of verbal information and 90% of nonverbal information for decoding a message. Nonverbal aspects are more immediately perceived and more likely to be responsible for leaving a positive first impression. With the exception of the use of verbalizations, each listed option offers a nonverbal communication channel. Hence, the least important would be the chosen wording D) Proxemics, the study of spatial requirements of humans, the physical distance that people leave between themselves. It has been found to differ across cultures and can be used to express emotions. For example, the waiter could move toward the arriving customers but keep a certain respectful distance when reaching them

1) Emulation of Tactile Representation, tactile information such as the weight or thickness of a book can influence how information is processed on a subconscious level. This is influential on people’s reading experience and has been used as an explanation of why many people prefer reading paper books. Designers try to translate those tactile clues into visual representations, but because tactile information and visual information are processed differently in the brain, it remains a challenge to add tactile components to e-books 2) Activation of Physical Landmark Processing, Information obtained from a book is processed via a mental representation of the text that is similar to the way people remember physical spaces such as locations and terrains. This way of anchoring meaning to structure enables people to better process information and is the explanation of why people sometimes remember the exact position of a paragraph inside a book. It has been argued that e-book readers may struggle with a lack of mental landscape clues. This is the reason designers try to embed visual elements such as a two-page structure into e-books 3) Enhancement of Focal Attention, a conscious act of concentrating on something, to the exclusion of everything else. Designing an e-book to visually resemble a paper book is rather aiming at issues that are processed in the background of attention, not at issues isolated for closer processing via focal attention

4) Activation of The Ventral Pathway, The ventral pathway is one way of processing information obtained through reading. This pathway processes letters and words simultaneously and enables quick and effortless reading. When people are good readers or read familiar information, this pathway is usually activated. When people read less familiar information or when children learn to read, they usually activate the dorsal pathway which involves sounding out a word letter by letter

Autonomy, Western Biomedical Model of Disclosing Explicit Information About The Prognosis of An Illness A) Patient-Centered Communication, refers to communication behaviors that promote respect, mutuality, and shared decision making in the physician and patient clinical interaction. The traditional Western biomedical model does not emphasize patient- centered communication; instead, it is characterized by a hierarchical relationship between the physician and patient B) Justice, one of the principles in the Belmont report that discusses how there needs to be an equitable distribution of benefits and costs and how research participants are to be treated fairly C) Collectivism, refers to an orientation that is centered on community, family, and groups versus individualism, which refers to an orientation focused on individual and personal rights and needs D) Autonomy, refers to individuals having free will to make their own decisions. This is at the heart of informed consent, in which patients are given sufficient information to make an informed decision about the medical regimen or the intervention proposed,

Delivery of Medical Diagnosis, Doctor/Patient A) Compliance Rooted, refers to following the rules and guidelines set forth by regulating bodies or authority figures. There are no rules about the deliverance of news, thus this does not apply B) Action Oriented, Action oriented is not a term employed to describe approaches to bad news communication or doctor-patient interactions. Secondly, the question stem mentions "extensive medical and technical language" for diagnosis' description. This does not involve necessarily any action oriented mind-set, where possible courses of action are sketched C) Consumer Focused, The term “consumer” is sometimes used in health care to refer to patients. This implies that the “consumer” is at the center of the interaction and has the ability to choose how medical services should be delivered. In the example, the patient remained silent and was not given decision-making power D) Paternalistic Oriented, the physician limits the interaction to ten minutes, employs possibly difficult-to-understand language, and fails to ask questions to the patient. This suggests that a paternalist approach was employed. Paternalism in medicine refers to conveying or manifesting behaviorally the idea that the patient’s health and associated decision-making are best left in the hands of health care providers

BMI Stands for Body Mass Index

-This is not an example of a body type. There are three types of body types: mesomorphs, ectomorphs, and endormorphs. A) Mesomorph is an example of a body type that is characterized as muscular and athletically built. Studies have shown that people with a mesomorph body type are perceived as being more confident, assertive, powerful, and adventurous than ectomorphs, which is a body type characterized as tall, thin, lanky, and fragile looking B) Ectomorph is a body type that is characterized as tall, thin, lanky, and fragile looking. Ectomorphs are typically depicted as shy, awkward, and tense, not as powerful and confident. It is the athletically built mesomorph type, not the thin ectomorph type that is more likely perceived in such manner C) Endomorphs are characterized as fat, round, and lacking muscular tone. They tend to be perceived as relaxed, sociable, and peaceful. They are not perceived as shy, awkward, and tense compared. Rather, it the ectomorph type that is perceived in such manner

The Motor Reflexes of A Full-Term Singleton Were Tested 2 Days After Birth A) Plantar Grasp Reflex, The plantar grasp is a reflex that disappears around the 6 weeks of age. It amounts to the flexing of the toes whenever the sole of the foot is gently caressed. The toes curl inward. It is commonly tested in motor reflex assessments and is targeted by the BNBAS B) Babinski Reflex, Babinski is a reflex that disappears before 18 weeks of age. It amounts to the upward flexing of the big toe whenever the outer side of the foot’s sole is vigorously stimulated, such as through scraping. It is commonly tested in motor reflex assessments and is targeted by the BNBAS C) Sucking Reflex, Sucking is a reflex that is maintained throughout infancy or beyond. It amounts to the contraction of the muscles that surround the mouth. It can happen when the area is stimulated or in the absence of stimulation, such as during sleep. It is commonly tested in motor reflex assessments and is targeted by the BNBAS D) Fight-or-Flight Reflex, Not Tested

Mimicry In The “Biochemical Profiles" of The Depressed Mother And The Infant -there was a similarity between baby and mother’s internal biological states -Biochemical profiles consist of measurements of the body’s chemicals and biological states at a given moment. When the author employed the term “mimicked” to describe the relationship between the baby and the mother’s profiles, it meant that their profiles resembled each other in terms of biochemical markers

Biologically Speaking, Pregnancy Starts When -Pregnancy is a biological event that starts with fertilization—more specifically, when the sperm enters the ovum (or egg) and the zygote (fertilized egg) is constituted. Immediately afterward, the fallopian tube’s cells propel the zygote through the tube toward the uterus. This process takes between three to five days. Meanwhile, the zygote’s cells quickly and repeatedly divide.

-The embryo is referred to as a fetus around the eighth week of development, when the main organs and the brain are formed. Yet pregnancy starts with fertilization. -Pregnancy is a biological event that starts with fertilization. It has nothing to do with abortion laws. Moreover, abortion is illegal in most Western countries after the three months of pregnancy, that is, when the woman has been pregnant for three months. -The heart starts beating after approximately 22 days. Fertilization has already occurred

A) Through Paralinguistic Communication, Paralinguistic communication involves all the content-free components of verbal communication such as the tone, pitch, pauses, and speed of speech. Paralinguistics conveys nonverbal messages during verbal communication acts that often people cannot control and over which they lack awareness B) Through Metacognitive Verbalizations, Metacognition involves knowing about knowing, or one’s knowledge about one’s own cognitions. For example, it involves one’s own knowledge about strategies to use for problem solving or to promote learning. “Metacognitive verbalizations” could refer to verbal statements about such knowledge. Even if the interviewee acknowledged the nervousness orally, this statement would unlikely express nervousness. It would rather express assurance and self-confidence. Moreover, the question described paralinguistic behavior, not metacognitive verbalizations C) Through Intuitive Verbalizations, Intuition is an example of knowledge that comes by way of making inferences about based on one’s feelings, sensations, or “gut.” “Intuitive verbalizations” might refer to those describing these sensations. Not only would they unlikely express nervousness as the question described paralinguistic behavior D) Through Haptic Communication, Haptics refer to human touch or touching. Since the interview was being performed on the phone, it is unlikely that this channel was used to express nervousness

Wealth, Not A Drug Abuse Cause -Protective factors, unlike risk factors, reduce the odds of suffering from a certain condition. Given the seriousness of drug abuse behavior, several studies were conducted with the intent of pinpointing drug abuse risk and protective factors. Poverty came forward as a drug abuse social risk factor. People from poor families and/or poor communities are more likely to start using drugs, principally when employment and economic opportunities are lacking. Hence, comparatively, a wealthy background acts as protection against the risk of becoming an addict. However, this is one among many other risk and protective factors. In itself poverty does not cause drug addiction, and everyone who lacks economic means does not become an addict

A) Peer pressure is often mentioned as one of the main causes of drug use, principally during adolescence. Wanting to belong to a group that uses drugs, the adolescent tends to start using drugs too. Frequently this initial perhaps recreational and social use of drugs culminates in drug abuse behavior B) The reward pathway, as it was named, refers to the neuronal areas and processes that underlie addictive behavior. More specifically, the stimulation of the nucleus accumbens,

the ventral tegmental area, the substantia nigra, and the secretion of the neurotransmitter dopamine are activated by drug use, and work as a positive reinforcement or reward that reinforce drug use and abuse C) One community-related drug abuse protective factor is the strength of neighborhood bonds and family supervision. People who reside in communities whose members have strong and caring relationships and who have a caring family are less likely to starting using and abusing drugs. This especially applies to communities that as a whole censure these behaviors and offer alternatives, such as after-school healthy activities

Breast Cancer Awareness Movement 1) Collective Behavior Theory, There are a few collective behavior theories, most of which propose that some irrational and emotional mechanism leads people to act differently when in a large group. The passage describes the organized rise and evolution of the breast cancer movement, resource mobilization, and stigma change over more than 30 years. It does not address the emotional experience of women with breast cancer and how it might have fueled social changes 2) Resource Mobilisation Theory, Breast Cancer Movement, Resource mobilization theory explains the emergence and evolution of social movements through a focus on organizational resources. Those can be material, moral, social-organizational, human, or cultural. The passage implies that the breast cancer movement was successful because it managed to raise ongoing material and social support (public and corporate) 3) Relative Deprivation Theory, Relative deprivation theory would be concerned with the question of how people are driven into social movements in the first place. It assumes that people judge their status affectively, rather than objectively, when performing social self-comparisons. They would join social movements when feeling that they are being treated unequally. Due to the stigma, there might be a sense of being unfairly treated fueling the women’s adherence to the social movement. However, this was not discussed in the passage 4) Transformative Discourse Theory, DNE

A) Reformative Social Movements, The breast cancer movement has been criticized for focusing on one social issue, while neglecting the larger health, health care, and social contexts, One of the most influential and widely used categorizations of social movements was developed by the anthropologist David Aberle. In accordance with the nature and extent of the targeted change, four different types of social movements can be delineated: alternative social movements (which want limited change for specific individuals), reformative social movements (limited change for groups or whole society), redemptive social movements (radical change for specific individuals), and revolutionary social movements (radical change for groups or whole society). The breast cancer movement aimed for changes for women (one group) and worked to improve conditions within the existing health care and political regime. This makes it a reformative social movement. It was criticized for not being radical enough B) Redemptive Social Movements, aim for radical changes on the individual level. A typical example for a redemptive social movement is a religious movement that aims for

total personal transformation. The breast cancer movement was not aiming for such a radical change and was more concerned with social change than individual transformation C) Alternative Social Movements, Although alternative social movements have been criticized because of their limited perspective on social issues, they operate on an individual level. Those movements mainly aim for change within an individual’s lifestyle or perspective. An example of an alternative movement is Alcoholics Anonymous, which seeks to change the addiction behavior of specific people. The breast cancer movement wanted changes to extend to the whole group of people with, or involved in the treatment of breast cancer D) Revolutionary Social Movements, aim for radical change on a social level. Revolutionary social movements often aim to overthrow a regime or an ideology. An example would be the guerilla movement with its famous icon Che Guevara that led to the Cuban Revolution

1) Justice, the need of distributing equally the costs and benefits of new treatments across social groups (e.g., class, race, gender, etc.). As stated in the passage, everyone who might suffer from breast cancer was subjected to the one step procedure regardless of demographics 2) Beneficence, refers to the need of assuring that the medical staff intends to benefit patients, and that costs and benefits of medical procedures are balanced to the advantage of the patient. At the time, the one step procedure was the norm; medical staff likely believed that it was most advantageous to proceed in such manner. That is, medical staff was likely well-intended and this principle was likely respected 3) Non-Maleficence, complements the justice principle. It refers to the need of avoiding or at least minimizing the harm incurred upon the patient and society when treating patients. At the time, the one step procedure was the norm; medical staff likely believed they were minimizing harm when proceeding in such manner. That is, medical staff was unlikely ill-intended and this principle was likely respected 4) Autonomy, The one-step procedure required patients to sign a consent form in advance where they agreed with the surgeon performing an immediate mastectomy if evidence of cancer was found during biopsy. This potentially violates the ethical principle of autonomy. Autonomy refers to the need of ensuring that patients are informed fully about the condition, available treatments, their benefits, costs and risks, that they can understand the information fully, and make an independent, autonomous decision about the procedures. As stated in the passage, the surgery was performed “often directly after biopsy when the women were still under anesthesia”. Thus, time constraints and the eventual altered state of consciousness induced by anesthesia would likely threaten this principle

Breast Cancer Framing, Changing The Sick Role of Women With Breast Cancer -Framing plays an important part in understanding the success and failure of social movements and how they affect society as a whole. An example of framing that occurred in the breast cancer movement is

-If a social movement wants to have an impact, it has to present its ideas in a way that will resonate with people and effectively communicate what they feel must be changed and why. This process within social movements is what sociologists call framing. Framing is the social construction of reality through concepts and theories that influence how people, groups, and societies perceive the world. An example of successful framing that occurred in the breast cancer movement was the shift in discourse around women with breast cancer. The perception shifted from seeing women as victims who have to disguise their incomplete body to portraying women as strong heroes and survivors of breast cancer. This changed the sick role and led to empowerment of those patients

Taking Drugs Is Deviant, Abnormal Behaviour -What assumption do the pathology approach and the social condition approach share? -All the early approaches explaining substance abuse would agree that drug use violates social norms and therefore has to be considered a form of deviance that needs to be addressed. Later approaches point out that exactly this criminalization and stigmatization have made drug use a far greater social and medical problem than required

Pathology Tradition for Drug Users -is that drug users have abnormal personalities and mental illnesses that drive them into drug use. The social-condition perspective speaks against that and emphasizes the impact that social factors and contexts have on drug use -One branch of the pathology-approach school believes in the evil powers of drugs that change people’s brain structure and make them mentally ill, but there is no consensus for this view across approaches -Only theories that take into account social context pay attention to the role that neighborhoods play in drug consumption

Symbolic Interactionism for Drug Abuse -Symbolic interactionism might propose that social interventions sometimes reinforce or increase users' drug abuse behavior because: users enact the negative meanings assigned to them by society -Symbolic interactionism is a theory that argues that people act toward themselves and others based upon jointly created meanings and symbols. These symbols are developed during past and present social interactions, transformed via interpretative activity, and shape reality. Those who support this theory propose that social interventions sometimes fail because the meanings attributed by those performing the intervention to the target of the intervention may be negatively connoted. In turn, reality would be shaped in line with these assigned negative meanings. That is, if those enacting the intervention attributed negatively connoted meanings to drug users and their behavior, drug users might end up acting accordingly. For example, if people believe drug users are compulsive liars, and mistrust everything they do or say, drug users become restricted to this meaning. Consequently, they may eventually engage in identities and activities that are seen as deviant but are consonant with the perception others have of them. This would be how symbolic interactionism might explain why interventions sometimes reinforce drug use and abuse

A) Other people and institutions are not necessarily outgroups. It is common for drug users to identify and connect to various different groups including their friends and family, Moreover, symbolic interactionism in not concerned with in- vs. outgroups B) This is neither a social interactionist perspective nor is this view supported by research evidence. Many drug users keep their social ties with the conventional world such as family and friends C) Although it has been found that attention is often focused on the most problematic cases, this is not a social interactionist perspective. The focus on the most problematic cases can lead to further marginalization and disappointment when the case does not succeed in fighting the addiction

The Bell Curve, Richard J. Herrnstein And Charles Murray, Social Stratification -explained the higher drug use and dependency risk associated with lower-class citizens in their book The Bell Curve, which was published in 1994. They controversially claimed that the underlying reason for those differences is that poor people on average have lower intelligence coefficients than rich people -The theory outlined in The Bell Curve claims that social stratification, that is, membership in either the affluent or poorer classes is, at least partly, explainable through genetically inherited differences in intelligence coefficients. Richard J. Herrnstein and Charles Murray would argue that drug use and dependency are more of a problem in the lower classes of society because the members of those classes lack the intelligence to deal with their addiction. Their theory draws on elements of evolutionary biology and sociology and has been widely criticized for its essentialist view of intelligence and neglect of socialization as an important force in explaining social inequalities -The Bell Curve is not concerned with questions of access and exposure. Furthermore, research has shown that access to drugs is a complex phenomenon. Social class can play a role in determining access to drugs, but it would be simplistic to say one class has better or worse access -Health concerns are not part of the theory outlined in the Bell Curve -While it is true that poor people usually find themselves living in more deprived areas than rich people, which might gain them access to certain drugs and also facilitate social acceptance of drug consumption, this was not of concern in The Bell Curve

Social Support Theories for Drug Abuse -why might it be easier for someone from upper classes than for someone from lower social classes to fight addiction? Upper-class people have more supportive networks, more education, and more access to knowledge

A) According to social support theories, upper-class people have more supportive networks (i.e., social, emotional and companionship support), more access to education (i.e., informational support), and more access to knowledge (i.e., informational support) than lower-class people. This higher level of and better access to social support makes it

highly likely that middle-class people can better deal with fighting addiction than lower- class people B) Having social networks with better access to drugs does not explain why it might be easier for upper-class people to fight addiction. What is described here is that lower- class people might face a unique addiction problem because they and those in their social networks (i.e., people they relate with) have better access to drugs. However, this theory is unlikely to be a cause of difficulty in fighting drug addiction C) While it is true that lower-class people face an increased risk of harm through drugs, this does not lead to any conclusions about which group has more social support while fighting drug dependency. The risk of harm through the pure use of substances is similar for all groups, but the lower classes have fewer financial and social resources to face and treat resulting physical and mental health problems D) The term ”mutually supportive counterculture” refers to marginalization through secondary deviance. The substance use is classified as primary deviance, which can lead to marginalization and social exclusion of the user. Secondary deviance takes place when several of those marginalized users come together and form a social group, a mutually supportive counterculture. Being a member of this group can lead to further social exclusion. This is an example of how social support, more precisely companionship support, does not necessarily help to fight addiction

Priming, Politicing for Euthanasia At A Funeral Home -Priming refers to the process of triggering schemas using certain cues. For example, watching a violent movie can be a priming stimulus as it can trigger aggressive behaviors. In this case, the location of the polling place (e.g., funeral home) can trigger thoughts about death

Social Capital -refers to the values or benefits that are associated with networks or groups of people. Social capital has social value and can increase the social value of the individual or the group. Examples of social capital are education, community, church, and other groups

States Rotating Ballot Lists 1) Discrimination Biases, Discrimination effects are unrelated to the location of items on a list, and thereby cannot be minimized by rotating names 2) Stabilises Descriptive Social Norms of Voters, Descriptive social norms do not describe what should be done, but rather what is done. However, these are unrelated to the location of items on a list, and thereby cannot be minimized by rotating names 3) Right-Side Brain Dominance, unrelated to the location of items on a list, and thereby cannot be minimized by rotating names 4) Response-Order Biases, Studies have shown that when individuals are ambivalent about candidates, they tend to select the name that appears first on the ballot. This type

of bias was named “response order effect” or “take the first heuristic”. It is used as a cognitive shortcut when respondents seek to reduce the mental effort needed to complete a survey or make a decision. It consists of choosing the first option more frequently, sometimes without processing or reading options presented at a subsequent positions in the list. As a result, some states rotate the ballot order district by district. It is sometimes regarded as contributing to the primacy effect, which is one of the serial position effects, along with the recency effect. Serial position effects are those related to the position of items in a list of items that needs to be memorized. People tend to recall better items at the beginning of the list (primacy effect) or items at the end of the list (recency effect). Items in the middle of the list are more often forgotten or recalled imprecisely

Memory Retrieval Mode 1) Insight, Wolfgang Köhler was one of the founders of Gestalt psychology. He proposed a learning-by-insight theory after observing how chimpanzees solved problems. His observations stood against the behaviorist view that learning happened via trial and error in apes. Instead, it appeared to happen by insight. They suddenly realized how to solve a problem and carried out their strategic instrumental solution in a purposeful (and not systematic, as in trial-and-error approach) manner. This is a learning theory, not a retrieval theory that revolves around nodes and links 2) Transfer Appropriate Processing, developed by Fergus Craik and Robert Lockhart in 1972, states that when deep processing information while encoding and retrieving information, recall is facilitated. The use of acronyms as memorization and retrieval method is a common example of how this process works. This is a theory connecting two memory processes, not a retrieval theory that revolves around nodes and links 3) Spreading Activation, In Collins and Loftus’ (1975) spreading activation model, ideas or concepts are represented by nodes. Similar concepts are located close to one another. The stronger the relationship or association between (similar or dissimilar) concepts, the larger the representative link that connects them. When one node is activated, the activation spreads through the network, and more quickly where strong links exist. This is the reason for naming this model “spreading activation.” It was developed to explain how semantic memory was organized, namely, like a network 4) Encoding Specificity, Thompson and Tulving (1973) developed the encoding specificity principle. It states that when the same contextual cues are present during memorization and recall, it is easier to remember information. For example, if a narrator wears a cane, and the cane is present during the recall task, people’s performance improves. This is a theory connecting two memory processes, not a retrieval theory that revolves around nodes and links

Cognitive Attention Models -From the viewpoint of cognitive attention models, what function would most likely make a patient remember only two of the available therapies after having just been informed about the disease, mortality rates, three available therapies, and their complications?

A) Focused Attention, a term often contrasted with divided attention. It refers to people’s concentration on one source of informational input, sensory stimulus, and activity to the exclusion of any other. For example, when watching TV and talking on the phone, people may focus on the talking activity exclusively and stop paying attention to what is being shown on TV. The patient was presented with a single source of information, which was the doctor’s discourse. Thus, it is unlikely that this function was involved in the registered memory difficulties B) Attention Deficit, a term used as an alternative to the hyperactivity disorder diagnosis. Hyperactive people are mainly characterized by the symptoms of impulsivity, inattentiveness, and restlessness. This does not amount to a cognitive attention function C) Divided Attention, refers to how people must divide their attentional resources across tasks when they are performing more than one task simultaneously. For example, when talking and driving at the same time, people must divide their attention between the talking and the driving tasks to be able to succeed at both. The patient was simply listening to information, not performing multiple tasks simultaneously D) Selective Attention, Attention is known to have limited capacity and be selective. Selective attention refers to people’s ability to filter out relevant information from a background of multiple, divergent, and competing information. An example is being in a very noisy environment, engaged in a conversation, and being able to hear someone say our name on the other side of the room without their having to shout. In this case, the patient was given a large amount of relevant information concerning his diagnosis. This could overload attentional mechanisms and require the use of selective-attention mechanisms, whereby more relevant information is stored and less relevant information is discarded. Alternatively, he might have immediately considered one of the treatment options as irrelevant, discarding it and being unable to remember it when asked. Hence, selective attention might be responsible for the inability to remember all the information

Social Learning Theory, Sports Coaches for Positive Role Models -Social learning theory speaks to how people learn and imitate through the use of modeling, vicarious experiences, exemplars, and socialization. Under social learning theory, the research interests would rest on the impact of the coach’s behavior and attitudes on the behavior and attitudes of players. The only option which offers this view is the one concerned with the impact of coaches’ socialization on players’ performance -How does socialization by a coach affect the performance of players?

Pygmalion Effect Hypothesis, Home Team -Referees tend to unconsciously and biasedly favor home teams (vs. visiting teams) because they have an a priori expectation that that team will perform better -The Pygmalion effect is concerned with expectations of performance or behavior. If someone expects at the outset that an individual or group of individuals will perform well, then they tend to perform well. Some researchers argued that the home advantage can be explained by this effect. Namely, that a priori expectations held by referees about the better performance of home teams and their players (vs. vising teams and their players) unconsciously bias their decisions in favor of the home team and its players, thereby contributing to the observed home advantage

Traditional Assimilation Theory -When individuals enter the host country, they will gradually lose their original cultural identity so as to absorb more peacefully the culture of the host country -Acculturation is the phenomenon of accepting and integrating in one's personality the values, customs, and way of living of another culture, Assimilation theory is an acculturation theory first advocated by Milton Gordon in the mid-1960s. The premise is that immigrants entering a new homeland will go through a social process involving the gradual loss of the values and norms of their culture of origin, and the gradual adoption of the language, norms, values, and practices of the host country. This cultural adjustment process would be critical and minimize the negative health outcomes of immigration. That is, those who do not embrace the culture of the new country are expected to show greater negative health outcomes

Social Stratification, Social Class -Social stratification refers to the societal ranking of individuals into hierarchically organized categories or groups, wherein some groups and their members are below or above others. Since the variable social class usually describes different hierarchical classes that order the individuals of a society. it would be the most direct form of assessing social stratification. It shows a linear relationship to it. Yet, many variables can single-handedly or conjointly interact and result in social stratification. Income and wealth are an example

Culture-Bound Syndromes -health disorders that are specific to certain cultures -In the Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), culture-bound syndromes, also known as “folk illnesses”, amount to sets of physical and psychological symptoms that are identified, observed, and are regarded locally as illustrative of psychological abnormality. These are mostly studied in the fields of ethnomedicine or medical anthropology. For example, there is “Arctic hysteria” in Alaska, which consists of a dissociative episode, followed by excitement and then seizures, and “amok” in Malaysia, which consists of a menacing attitude, followed by a sudden manifestation of angriness and violence. The DSM has attempted to incorporate these syndromes into the manual since 1994, initially defining them as recurrent, locality-specific patterns of aberrant behavior. It has been argued these syndromes reflect ways of conceiving normality across cultures that clash with those within the more Western-culture produced DSM

Cultural Formulation -the term employed by the DSM-5 to refer to the interview that is to guide clinicians interested in evaluating the cultural factors influencing patients’ perspectives of their symptoms and treatment options; it is not the name given to culture-specific health disorders

Cultural Concepts of Distress -the title of the glossary offered as an appendix in the DSM-5. In this appendix, cultural syndromes, idioms of distress, and their explanations are described. It is supposed to help clinicians understand cultural differences; it is not the name given to culture-specific health disorders

Cultural Competence -is not used to refer to the judging of other cultures from the viewpoint of one’s own culture. It rather refers to organizations’ and/or practitioners’ behaviors that assist in the delivery of services that are respectful and align with the diverse cultural and linguistic needs of clients/patients

Dyslexia, Explicit Learning -explain how the meaning of unknown words can sometimes be predicted as based on its verbal context -Explicit or direct teaching of reading and comprehension skills revolves around supporting students to consciously identify and actively apply specific heuristics, mnemonics, and cognitive and metacognitive strategies whenever they experience reading difficulties or seek to create a representational reading and comprehension system. This often happens via peer-student and teacher-student interactions and guided practice. It is usually contrasted with implicit learning, wherein learning occurs more passively, without reasoning, as based on the unconscious apprehension of frequent patterns, observation, and imitation. Evidence shows that those with diagnosed dyslexia learn to read better when taught via explicit processes. An example of an explicit process would be explaining how the meaning of unknown words can sometimes be predicted as based on its verbal context. Context-based reading strategies are very useful for students with dyslexia

Sharing the names of successful and famous individuals with diagnosed dyslexia with class students could most likely: establish a reference group and help to shape the aspirations of students with dyslexia -Reference groups have been defined as actual or imaginary individuals or groups who occupy a social role that has (or is perceived as having) a significant impact upon personal evaluations, aspirations, or behavior – just like role models. The sharing of the famous individuals with dyslexia mentioned in the passage with class students might create the representation of a group of successful people with dyslexia, and thereby boost the achievement behavior of students, principally of those with dyslexia who might more easily identify with them. Students with dyslexia might start to will to be as successful and famous as the reference group individuals. This might be important because those with dyslexia are sometimes limited in their aspirations and perceive themselves as equipped with fewer skills than their peers. This knowledge might thus help them to overcome disease-related personal failure fears and attitudes

A) Role Strain refers to the difficulties that can occur when someone is not able to meet the expectations associated with one of their social role(s). In the present case, the social role would that of being a student, and one which might be strained due to the pathology. Readers with dyslexia might experience role strain, but naming examples of successful people with the same diagnosis would unlikely reduce role strain. At best, it would enhance it; they might feel more pressured to succeed

B) Peer Pressure refers to the way a peer group can influence the values, attitudes, or behaviors of equals to make them conform to group norms. The knowledge of famous individuals with dyslexia would unlikely minimize peer pressure. If students included those famous individuals in their group of “peers” when informed, which is a stretch of the definition of “peer” as used in this context, then at there might be an increase (not a reduction) of peer pressure to succeed C) Social Facilitation refers to the observation that people tend to perform better on certain tasks when executing them in the presence of a group of people. This applies in particular to simple tasks that people are already used to doing. This phenomenon has not been related to the effects of reference groups

Womens Role Strain, Multifunction Rooms -Gender roles amount to socially and culturally determined expectations and beliefs about the experiences of men and women. Gender role strain is a concept used to describe how sometimes multiple assigned roles, in this case to women, can create tension and conflict. For example, women may be expected to nurse their young children; their gender role would thus involve taking care of infants. In regard to professional issues, women’s role is known to have changed in the past decades. They are generally expected to hold jobs, principally in most sociocultural Western contexts such as the U.S. Evidence also shows that they may experience difficulties fulfilling both roles, that is, experience role strain. It is conceivable that home designs have also changed in recent decades with the goal of helping families deal with role strain. For example, spaces that allow for multitasking professional and family duties, such as including office spaces near nursing rooms, could have become more common. -Gender role conflict theory states that the roles assigned to each gender can have negative consequences for individuals. This theory is more often applied to men, not women. James O’Neil, one of this theory’s leading researchers, claims that restrictive definitions of masculinity can, for instance, damage men’s well-being, restrict their emotionality and affectionate behavior, and create conflicts between men's work and family relations. Although gender role conflict could be applied to understanding and studying women’s role strain, it seldom is; it is also not commonly defined as a women’s problem. Thus conclusions regarding the relationship between women’s role conflict changes and house design changes would be unlikely. Role taking is a mechanism that allows people to adopt the perspectives of others. In psychology, the term role playing is often used to refer to the acting out of certain social roles or characters -None of these psychological mechanisms are commonly understood as prone to sociocultural longitudinal changes. Hence conclusions regarding how changes in the use of role taking or role playing mechanisms are related to home design changes would be unlikely

Self-Efficacy was a term explored greatly by Albert Bandura, who defined it as personal judgments or beliefs about one’s abilities to plan and execute certain actions to achieve certain goals. That is, it relates to the performance of behaviors and associated outcomes. According to Erikson, the experience of accomplishment has the most impact on a person’s self-efficacy. That is, past success experiences are those which affect self-efficacy beliefs the most. Being encouraged by teachers is a form of social persuasion that does not necessarily involve any specific behavior or successful/unsuccessful goal achievement. Yet, it may still indirectly affect

self-efficacy. It has been found that discouragement affects self-efficacy more strongly than encouragement does

Panic Disorder v. Panic Attack, Month In Duration -People with dismissive attachment style see themselves as strong and independent people. They see others as unreliable and unworthy

Social Exchange Theory -posits that social interactions are an exchange of concrete and intangible "goods" and "services". At each transaction, costs and benefits are weighted, and the more rational option is chosen. It is possible that the labor market gives more benefits (e.g., money) to parents than to grandparents for the same amount of costs (e.g., time). If so, this meant that parent led households were less likely to be economically strained, and less often in need public assistance.

Matriarchy -means that the lineage is headed and governed by a female. Since the Figure did not break down the data by gender, this argument does not apply.

Structural Functionalism -is a sociological theory that is more concerned with the functions and roles of social structures, then with structural economic needs. Secondly, what is observed in the Figure is that combined households request less, not more frequently public assistance. Thus, the argument does not properly explain findings.

Black Feminist Theory -is a strain of theory that emphasizes that gender is not the only force that marginalizes women in society, but race must be taken into account. The Figure did not break down the data by race, thus does not help to understand these issues

Coping Strategies, Not Hypnosis -Coping is defined as the changing of cognitions, emotions, and behaviors for the purpose of better managing stress states (i.e., the state of actually having one’s homeostatic balance threaten by specific external and/or internal demands, or, under Lazarus definition, states emerged from appraising situations as excessively taxing for the person's available resources[RM1] ). Currently, most studies investigate a wide variety of specific coping strategies (e.g., relaxation, seeking social support, finding solutions for the stress cause, watching TV, biofeedback, etc.). Even if someone knew how to self-hypnotize oneself, which is rare, and used that method for the purpose of coping with stress, seldom, if ever, is hypnosis conceptualized in the literature as a coping strategy. Rather, it is usually regarded as a state or technique for inducing altered states of mind.

A) Biofeedback is a technique to help individuals gain greater self-awareness and control over their physiological functions. For example, they can be taught how to slow down their heart rate by breathing in a specific manner B) Many relaxation techniques are used, taught, and studied as coping strategies. These are even at the core of some psychotherapeutic approaches for the treatment of anxiety- related disorders C) Social Support, such as asking for the help of friends and family, is a well-known effective coping strategy

Rational Choice Theory -argues that mate selection is a goal-oriented economic choice. Individuals use the information or cues they hold about the potential partner to evaluate the costs and benefits of choosing that specific partner. They choose the course of action (mate) that will most likely bring them the greatest benefits and the lowest costs. Attribute-related, information-based preferences are those that are assumed to be economically sounder. Research in this field showed there are gender differences in both long-term and short-term adult mate choice preferences. For example, regarding long-term mate choice preferences, physical attractiveness is critical to men, status and resources are critical to women, and kindness and intelligence are important to both genders.

Sigmund Freud In His Psychoanalytical Theory argued that a child has the unconscious desire to be intimate with the opposite-sex parent at a certain age. Those who are fixated at that developmental age and demonstrate an Oedipus complex will tend to choose partners that resemble that parent in adulthood. The Oedipal complex applies to men, whereas the Electra complex applies to women.

Object Relations Theory focuses on the idiopathic and intrapsychic experience of early relationships, particularly the infant–mother/caregiver dyad, and how this influences future relationships with others. They would unlikely be interested in universal gender differences associated with mate selection preferences.

Marxist Theory focuses on class and conflict stemming from capitalism. It does not focus on relationships

Social Constructionist, QWERTY Keyboard Layout, Social Convention -Social constructionism is a theory of knowledge that claims that people create a culture of artifacts and shared meaning through socialization and interaction. The creation and use of artifacts and meanings is based on social conventions, which are implicit or explicit rules made by a group of people. A standard like the QWERTY keyboard would be an example of such a convention. There would be rules regulating the use of keyboard that were accepted by users in both meaning and form, and specifically dictated that these should be QWERTY

A) Rational Choice Theory is a micro-sociological approach that assumes that humans try to maximize their personal benefits and reduce their individual costs. This thinking

process determines their behavior. Rational choice would argue that the individual costs of adapting to a new keyboard layout would outweigh the benefits associated with it. B) Social Constructionism would not look at the social costs and benefits that are associated with a standard but would try to understand the shared meanings that were developed when establishing this convention and the mechanisms in place to maintain it C) Social Institutions, Gatekeepers for Change, If someone argued that social institutions (e.g., family, education, and economy) played a role in the failure of the Dvorak layout

Social Institutions -Social institutions are structures and mechanisms that sustain social order within ingroup members. I.e., they regulate the behavior of the individuals that belong to that institution by hindering or encouraging certain actions. By claiming that social institutions played a role in the failure of the Dvorak layout, one is saying that social institutions worked as gatekeepers, hampering the adoption of a new behavior by society, and as such, contributing to the failure of the Dvorak layout.

A) Although social institutions can be created and influenced by people, their power is not based on individuals. Institutions organize themselves. This means they are emergent phenomena that develop beyond the conscious intentions of the individual humans involved B) Social institutions are providers of rules for how people are expected to behave in society, but those rules do not necessarily help to increase equality C) Social institutions differ from the common understanding of an institution as a physically existing place. Examples are the social institutions of the family or religion

The Dvorak Layout Would Make Typing More Efficient -Which claim made in the passage could be interpreted as being an ethnocentric claim potentially leading to privilege for a dominant subgroup of Western culture?

A) Dvorak was optimized to the English language, and different cultures, including Western cultures, use languages other than English. The assumption that a standard set shaped for only ONE language, which is a dominant one in the world, would make ALL typing more efficient could be considered as ethnocentrism. Ethnocentrism means to judge other groups solely by the values and standards of one's own culture, especially with regard to language, behavior, customs, and religion. Ethnocentrism is based on assumptions that are often deeply rooted in an individual’s understanding of normality. Those assumptions can be harmful if they lead to a power difference between different groups. In this case, Dvorak might only benefit or improve the efficiency of English language users , and simultaneously possibly harm or make less efficient non-English language users. Thus, it could reinforce the privilege of English-speaking communities and reduce the privilege on non-English speaking communities

B) Information technology, long office hours, and strain injuries claims were statements biased toward or framed within the context of “modern industrialized societies”, which are not necessarily from Western cultures C) The claim that QWERTY is the current standard of keyboard layouts is an observation that applies to every keyboard-using device used nowadays and is thus not culturally biased by the perspective of any particular Western society subgroup. D) The claim that Dvorak failed due to a lack of support is an observation that is not culturally biased by the perspective of any particular Western society subgroup

What Do Secondary And Reference Social Groups Have In Common? -They can both be important for determining a person's self-identity and attitudes. -Both secondary social groups and reference groups can influence a person’s self-identity and attitudes. The former does this based on social ties and networks, whereas the latter provides a measurement and evaluation frame for one’s qualities, circumstances, attitudes, values, and behaviors that can shape those fomented by the individual

A) The interaction held with secondary groups is usually less personal than the interaction held with primary groups. This is their defining difference. However, reference groups, unlike primary and secondary groups, are entities that are not defined in accordance with differences in the intensity and intimacy of social interactions. Rather, these are defined as actual or imaginary individuals or groups who occupy a social role that has (or is perceived as having) a significant impact upon personal evaluations, aspirations, or behavior. The relationship held with these influent individuals may be personal or impersonal B) A secondary social group requires group membership; people have to have a (rather impersonal) relationship with the group. A reference group can exist independently from an individual’s membership. As noted, a reference group is the group of people who occupy the social role to which the individual aspires, with whom one may or not have a relationship, and belong or not to their group C) Secondary groups are often based on the exchange of commodities such as payment for services. Reference groups do not depend on group interaction and are therefore not dependent on the exchange of commodities

Absolute Poverty Measures -Not, Poverty refers to a state of financial and cultural deprivation

A) Absolute poverty is not having the economic resources needed to maintain basic living standards of food and shelter. Primary poverty is the inability to meet material and financial needs, and as such is tapped into by absolute poverty indicators. Secondary poverty refers to the inability to meet nonmaterial, cultural needs (e.g., education, or leisure), and as such is not tapped into by the mentioned indicators. Currently, secondary poverty has been given more importance. It is said that people might have enough money to fulfill their material basic needs, thus failing to experience primary poverty, but still lack access or enough financial resources to engage with to cultural

activities. Absolute poverty indicators measure exclusively survival-related financial needs; they do not take into account that there is such a thing as secondary poverty\ B) Absolute poverty is quantified by taking precisely into account the minimum needed for living; those who do not reach that threshold are deemed poor C) Absolute poverty indicators are developed for specific societies, and as such take into account how poverty is shaped by culture, time, and space D) The cultural and temporal specificity of the indicators implies that standards must, and normally are revised. It is only in this manner that the indicator keeps up with shifts in the costs and benefits of living, and becomes meaningful or revealing

Symbolic Interactionism, Vegan Dinner Request A) Symbolic interactionism argues that all meaning amounts to subjective interpretations of events, objects, and behaviors. People in society often create eventually different subjective meanings about things. These different "personal truths" or subjective interpretations about the situation can lead to the misunderstandings and conflicts. In the case described, a symbolic interactionist would likely posit that the act of bringing vegetarian food to the diner party signified different things for the vegetarian and the host. It is unlikely that the vegetarian was bringing food along to impose personal beliefs; he or she were surprised by the remark. Yet, the host interpreted his or her behavior in such manner, and as such a conflict arose B) Taboos are norms about actions that cannot be performed by ordinary people, by being either too sacred or too dangerous. The act of bringing vegetarian food along can hardly be regarded as about dangerous or sacred behavior in any country. Moreover, symbolic interactionism is more interested in subjective meanings than in larger collective phenomena, such as taboos C) Social conventions are behavioral rules that are established and accepted as a guide for social conduct, such as etiquette. Symbolic interactionism is more interested in subjective meanings than in larger collective phenomena, such as social conventions. Moreover, social conventions are generally created by a collective, not by only two individuals, and must be accepted by a large group of people D) Social norms consist of rules about what is and is not appropriate behavior across social situations. Social conventions are sometimes regarded as a particular type of social norms. As noted, symbolic interactionism is more interested in subjective meanings than in larger collective phenomena, such as social conventions. Moreover, social norms are created by a collective, not by a single person

Denial, Anorexia -Denial is a defense mechanism. It seeks to protect the self from distressing information or facts. It involves blocking from awareness distressing information of facts. The self-observation ('I am thin'), friends' commentary ('You are thin'), and scale measures indicating objective weight loss is evidence supporting the thinness of the individual. By ignoring or refusing to acknowledge this evidence, that is, by denying it, individuals are able to sustain their belief that they are fat and avoid the distress caused by whatever contradicts such belief

The Emotional Opposite of Depression In The Spectrum of Moods? Maniac -Maniac states often involve the emotions of happiness, euphoria, and excitement, and thoughts of grandeur, power, and invincibility. Historically, maniac states are regarded as the opposite of depressive states, which often involve the emotions of sadness, worthlessness, and guilt instead. According to clinicians of the early 20th century, it was clinically surprising to find patients who alternated between two apparently polar opposites, and as such has very marked mood swings. This pathology was originally named maniac-depressive disorder, and is currently known as bipolar disorder

A) Anxiety and associated disorders involve states of stress. Historically, stress was regarded as a negative and taxing demand, rather than an emotion. Hence, it could not amount to the end of a mood spectrum. Currently, stress is more commonly regarded as a physiological response to demands that interpreted as exceeding the organism's resources or abilities. It may be experienced at different levels of intensity and valence. In that stress may be positive or negative, it cannot also be the end of a mood spectrum B) Frigidity was a term used at the beginnings of clinical psychology, psychiatry, and psychoanalysis. It is still colloquially employed, but the term hypoactive sexual disorder is to be currently preferred. It describes a sexual dysfunction wherein individuals lack sexual desire. It is often comorbid with depressive states; it is not its polar opposite in the spectrum of moods. It can even be regarded as one of the areas wherein the diagnistic criterion of depressive disorders of loss of interest and pleasure manifests itself C) Apathy consists of diminuished motivation, and may express itself at cognitive, motor, or emotional levels. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, regards 'loss of interest or pleasure' and 'motor redardation' as possible diagnostic criteria of depressive disorders. Hence, apathy, can be regarded as a symptom of depression, and as such not its polar opposite

1) Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, revolve around experiencing concentration difficulties and psychomotor agitation 2) Antisocial Disorder, revolve around the avoidance of social interactions and the violation of social norms 3) Autism Spectrum Disorder, revolve around experiencing difficulties with social interactions and communication, and showing repetitive and limited patterns of behavior 4) Reactive Attachment Disorder, The children act normally, except for the way they indiscriminately welcome everyone and seem to lack a safe haven or reference figure. According to the DSM-V, these children would suffer from disinhibited social engagement disorder, a subtype of reactive attachment disorder, from the category "Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders." Its main symptom is the seeking of the close company of unfamiliar adults by young children. It is usually diagnosed in children between the ages of 9 months and 5 years

Historic Materialism, Economy Creates Material Conditions That Drive Social Change -Historic materialism posits that there are four stages of social development. The first is the tribal form stage, where the social structure is based on kinship relationships and may culminate in the creation of slavery-related producing social classes. The second is the primitive communism stage, where tribes form peaceful or war conquest alliances that culminate in the creation of cities and the concepts of private propriety and proletariat emerge. The third is the feudal or estate property stage, where one feudal class concentrates resources and manages trading, and the producing class is composed of peasants. Some division of labor starts to emerge. The fourth is the capitalism stage, where an increase in commerce and trading emerges along with aristocracy’s debt, and revolutions culminate in the structuring of society around profit, commodities, and labor division. Along these stages, social change is the result of the way goods are produced and traded. That is, historical materialism believes that economy creates material conditions that drive social change

A) Marx describes social change happening in stages that are dependent on economic conditions. Each stage means a better living standard for the people but will eventually collapse because of class conflicts and internal contradiction. Capitalism is the fourth stage of this model. Hence, social change is not argued to emerge only when capitalism is abolished B) Marx describes social change as happening in stages that are dependent on economic conditions. Socialism is the results of the revolutions that take place during the capitalist stage. It is argued to offer social stability C) The workers' revolutions take place only during the capitalist stage and generate socialism. Since three stages precede it, and all were responsible for social changes, these revolutions could not possible be the single drive behind social change

A) Regulator, Regulators in the study of kinesics are body movements that control the flow of the conversation. A common regulator would be a nod to keep the conversation going B) Illustrator, amount to body movements that reinforce a verbal message. An example of an illustrator would be waving the hand while saying goodbye or pointing to an object when speaking about it C) Adaptor, In the study of nonverbal communication, researchers such as Peter Andersen and Paul Ekman classified body movements, and particularly kinesics, into several categories or types. The most commonly studied are: self- and object- adaptors (nervousness-related self and object touching, respectively), emblems (culture-specific interactive movements unrelated to speech), illustrators (movements related to and illustrative of speech), manipulators (actions used to act on objects in the environment or the self), and regulators (conversational mediators). The category adaptors includes movements which help people cope with stressful or tense situations, commonly unconsciously, and as such have an adaptive function. They may involve self-touching or the touching of objects. Nervously swinging the legs and tapping the pen or nail biting are examples of adaptors

D) Emblem, Emblems in the study of kinesics are body movements that are symbolically representative of verbal communication. Common examples would be a thumbs-up or two fingers for victory. These are relative to a given culture

Hypnosis Has A Very Poor Reputation -being dismissed as a mystic, ineffective, and "miraculous" approach to the treatment of mental disorders. However, this technique, as developed by Franz Mesmer, amounted to the application of then-scientific physics’ principles of magnetism to mental health issues. Moreover, despite its very poor reputation, it has been effectively used for the successful treatment of ailments such as pain, anxiety, depression, impotence, and frigidity. Finally, well-known and reputed psychologists such as Erik Erikson and Sigmund Freud used hypnosis in their therapeutic practices.

A) Stage illusionists sometimes use hypnosis for the entertainment of the audience. This use of hypnosis has contributed to the unscientific and mystical reputation that hypnosis currently has B) One of the best ways of defining hypnosis is by describing it as a mind-altering technique. It is used to slow down the nervous system. The hypnotized person enters into an altered state of mind, experiencing deep relaxation and high suggestibility. Hence, hypnosis is both an altered state of mind and the technique that induces it C) Hypnosis is currently explained by non-state and state theories. The neodissociation theory of hypnosis was initially formulated by Ernest Hillgard during his hypnotic pain control studies. He argued that there are multiple control systems of action and thought, one of which refers to the "hidden observer." One of the hypnotist's tasks is to lead the participant toward that state and help the emergence of the "hidden observer

Sociological Concept, Gender A) Gender is an accumulation of observations about biological, psychological, and social features of a group of individuals. It is not a theory, as gender on its own does not provide an explanation of how society works. Different theories explain different aspects of gender: for example, how gender is constructed in society or how perceptions about masculinity and femininity influence the way people accomplish certain tasks B) Rational choice is not a concept but a theory. It looks at what affects an individual’s decision-making process and how those individual decisions accumulate in society C) Functionalism is not a concept but a theory. It looks at how different structures in society depend on each other and work together D) Social constructionism is not a concept but a theory of knowledge. Its main concern is how people in society construct shared understandings of the world around them

Expectancy theory and self-medicating hypothesis would work hand in hand by proposing that some adolescents and college students consume excessive amounts of alcohol because they: expected alcohol to help them to cope better with the stress they are experiencing and to feel more relaxed

A) Self-Medication Hypothesis is a theory about how people manage stress by using nonprescription drugs and/or performing certain behaviors compulsively. According to this hypothesis, some people enact addictive behaviors with purpose of treating their psychological and physical distress; they self-medicate through addictive behavior B) Expectancy Theory of alcohol consumption maintains that those individuals who hold favorable or positive expectations or attitudes about the positive effects of alcohol will consume more alcohol. For example, people can believe that alcohol will make them feel calmer, have more courage, or appear more attractive. Both theories would thus work and in hand by proposing that those who believe that alcohol is effective at treating their anxiety problems might end up self-medicating and drinking excessively

1) Positive expectations associated with alcohol consumption are outlined (becoming more attractive). Yet, this explanation does not make use of self-medication theory by suggesting that alcohol was utilized to reduce experienced distress. Rather it states that it was utilized to conform to the norms of the majority group 2) Positive expectations associated with alcohol consumption are outlined (becoming more successful and building a more extensive social network). Yet, this explanation does not make use of self-medication theory by suggesting that alcohol was utilized to reduce experienced distress. Rather it describes the way adolescents tried to achieve such results (imitating behavior) 3) Using others as a frame of reference aligns with social comparison theory, but this does not address the expectations of drinking (expectancy theory) and how drinking would help to cope with stress or tension (self-medicating theory) sexual-selection evolutionary theory, male drinking-game players participating in games along with an attractive female crowd would most want the game: to foster competition and be skills-based

-Charles Darwin’s sexual selection perspective came about through observing that many species desire to maximize their reproductive success and that the adopted strategies are gender-dependent. Among the human species, men’s role is to show off their skills so as to become more appealing to women. The females’ role is choosing the male who has demonstrated the most appealing traits. Drinking games that promote competition and are skills- based are thus more likely to serve this sexual selection function

A) Deindividuation occurs in groups where there are so many people that any one individual loses his or her sense of self-awareness, identity, and accountability. This is the opposite of what men would want, from an evolutionary sexual-selection perspective B) Luck and chance go against the notion of the evolutionary theory that men have to compete to get females’ attention. Hence, although the outcome of this process might promote the man’s appeal, this would not amount to an evolutionary mechanism that allows men to master a task and distinguish themselves from the remainder. There is no showing off of skills and control in luck events

C) From a sexual-selection evolutionary perspective, a wide beverage offer would not promote as much attractiveness and domain over other men as a skill-based competitive game involving skills other than drinking

Participants in the drinking game experiment illustrated by Table 1 were most likely weighted before the start of the game so that, when calculating the BAC, researchers could take into account: the weight of a person, because those who are heavier have a slightly lower blood alcohol level than those who are lighter

How would the sleeping pattern of a young male college student likely be if he played drinking games one night and how would he likely feel the next day? He falls asleep quickly. However, his REM sleep is disrupted. The next day he has difficulties concentrating and remembering things

-Alcohol, when consumed close to sleep time, can make a person fall asleep more quickly because it has a sedative effect. Therefore in the first stage of sleep the drinker actually tends to sleep better. However, the second stage of sleep, REM sleep, is disrupted. Over time, alcohol can have a negative effect on REM sleep, and the lack of REM sleep can affect a person’s concentration and memory

A) Although he does fall asleep quickly because of the alcohol, REM sleep is negatively affected and disrupted B) Insomnia should not happen because of the sedative effects of alcohol C) Alcohol has a sedative effect; however, it only helps the person to sleep better in the first half of sleep. It does disrupt REM sleep, which then has a detrimental effect on memory and concentration

Labeling Theory -Which recommendation might a labeling theorist make so as to eliminate social problems like self-harm injuries and suicide attempts? Change related terminology

-Labeling theory posits that the act of labeling represents power. Those in power from social and legal institutions define the parameters of what is to be considered as deviant and what is to be considered as normal behavior. Individuals who are labeled as deviants and are consequently sanctioned may ultimately engage in further and more serious deviant behaviors. In line with this reasoning, labeling theorists might recommend changing the terminology related to suicide and self-harm in such way that those who commit these acts ceased to be regarded as deviants. For them, this change might be a stepping stone toward of the elimination such behaviors.

A) Labeling theory does not argue in favor of a disease model. In so far as diseases are regarded as deviant behavior, they would even rather recommend against this change

B) Labeling theory highlights how the label itself, along with the sanctions that are enacted toward what is regarded as deviant, reinforce deviant behavior. Thus, to facilitate their elimination, a labeling theorist could even recommend against the sanctioning of these behaviors C) Evidence-based practice refers to the use of the best clinical information when opting for certain interventions and treatments. This does not pertain to labeling theory

Social Comparison, Ranking Income -why ranked income position predicts better life satisfaction than absolute income? -Ranked income position measures the relative position individuals or groups hold within a society in terms of income, varying from lower to higher income categories. Social comparison theory was initially developed by authors such as Leon Festinger, who thought that people had the innate tendency to compare themselves to others, principally when no objective self- evaluation criterion existed. No matter how objective of an indicator income is, social comparison theory would argue that it might still be subjected to a social comparison cognitive process. People would need to judge how good or bad their income was in comparison with that of others before forming an opinion or belief about their own income. If this process took place instinctively, people would never have an objective opinion about their income. Their opinion would always be tainted by the subjectivity of their own relative social status (higher or lower than others)

A) Anchoring Bias, a cognitive tendency affecting decision-making and probability judgements. It consists of the tendency to elevate to a benchmark status the first piece of information, and to confer lower accuracy or weight to pieces of information obtained subsequently. Since the timeline of information gathering is irrelevant to the outcome of the resulting relative social status, principally when speaking of social tendencies, the predictive superiority of ranked income position would not be properly explained by the anchoring bias B) Locus of Control, maintains that people can regard events as being within their control (internal locus of control) or outside of their control (external locus of control). Some studies found that internal locus is correlated to happiness positively. Yet, there is no specific relationship between type of locus of control and actual income, vs. ranked income position that could dictate why the latter correlates more strongly and positively to happiness. It could even favor actual income instead, because, whereas one has some responsibility for one’s own income, one cannot possibly influence the income of every individual so as to influence ranked position. Hence, locus of control could not properly explain the superiority of ranked income position C) Fundamental Attribution Error, refers to the tendency to explain others’ behaviors as stemming from dispositional, intrinsic, or inner traits rather than from situational, contextual, or temporary factors. It has no known clear association with either income or ranked income position. As such, it would not properly explain the superiority of ranked income position

1) Feminist Theory, maintains that society and social structures are andocentric; that is, they are dominated by the masculine gender and reflect a male perspective. They would more likely propose that gender affects cross-race biases 2) Social Constructivism Theory, argues that there is no objective reality. Rather, individuals construct their own meaning and reality for social phenomena. This theory is not specifically concerned with what boosts cross-race biases; it is more concerned with its underlying meaning. This theory would more likely propose that the meaning of racial categories affects cross-race biases 3) Conflict Theory, asserts that society is composed of people competing for a limited amount of resources. Conflict arises when these are perceived to be unequally distributed. They could thus likely argue that cross-race bias was a byproduct of perceived resource distribution inequalities. That is, that the greater the perceived inequalities, the greater the conflict, and the greater the bias 4) Assimilation Theory, argues that different immigrant groups will be absorbed into the host country. They will adopt the values and norms of the host country and discard their own cultural values and traditions. This theory would more likely propose that factors such as cultural differences and cultural assimilation affect cross-race biases

Suicide Theories -Durkheim, a macrosociologist sometimes regarded as one of the founders of modern sociology, is most famous for his anomie theory. Anomie means “normlessness,” that is, lack of (clear, easily graspable) social norms. For him, a state of anomie translated into societal suffering and ultimately led to the occurrence of deviant behavior, of which suicide was an example. He might explain the difference depicted in Figure 1 by suggesting that youth is less bound to understanding and following social norms. As such, they would suffer less from their eventual lack (i.e., from anomie), and consequently less often commit anomic suicide

A) Economic Theories on Suicide propose that economic difficulties such as unemployment are greatly responsible for people’s suicidality. They might argue that the younger cohort less frequently experiences serious economic difficulties or has economic burdens. For this reason, they would commit suicide less often. Yet, for Durkheim, the core cause of suicide was not economic. It was people’s interpersonal relationships and social ties B) The Interpersonal Theory of Suicide proposes that suicidality derives from the simultaneous presence of two interpersonal factors, namely, thwarted belongingness (feelings of being alone) and perceived burdensomeness (feelings of being a burden). They further argue that suicidal ideation should be distinguished from the capability to perform suicidal behavior. These are not macrosociological factors named by Durkheim as the cause of suicidality C) The Hopelessness Theory of \Depression, credited to Lyn Abramson and colleagues, is a psychological theory that suggests that childhood physical and emotional maltreatment leads to suicidality in adulthood. This is a psychological theory. Durkheim’s theory was macrosociological

Dual Diagnosis Necessity, Alcoholism And Depsression -What is the first concern of a clinical psychologist when treating an elderly man who starts sleeping more during the day, has less appetite, stops exercising, drinks at least four drinks daily, and is said to be “spiraling downward”?

Suicide Screening, for PTSD Triggers A) Direct or indirect exposure to traumatic events, Cluster A DSM-5 B) Persistent and exaggerated negative beliefs or expectations about oneself, others or the world, Cluster D DSM-5 C) Hypervigilance, Cluster E DSM-5

Apraxia Refers To Motor Difficulties -According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), this symptom is not diagnostic of a Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). Those which are fall upon the following clusters: A (direct or indirect exposure to trauma); B (persistent re-experiencing); C (Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli); D (onset or aggravation of cognitive and emotional negativity); E (hyper-arousal and reactivity); F (duration); G (emotional or functional consequences); and H (no other probable causes)

Homophily, Relationships from Shared Characteristics -What would the theory of homophily add to the evolutionary view that male friends bound for historical activity-based reasons?

-The theory of homophily says that relationships like friendships tend to form based on shared characteristics such as background attributes, personality, and views about life. Studies show that as soon as early childhood, children tend to become with friends with others who are similar to themselves

A) The theory of homophily is concerned with similarity, not with the effort employed in building relationships. Moreover, in general, people tend to form relationships such as friendships based on proximity and ease of reach rather than distance, and effort expenditure B) Homophily is not centered around the concept of reciprocity. Homophily is based on the concept of similarity C) Geographic proximity is only one of the types of similarity that people can share. It is not viewed as the cornerstone of relationship building by the theory of homophily. Moreover, the closeness of the relationship between men’s wives is not discussed by the theory of homophily

A) Social Conflict Theory, argues that conflict exists due to disparities in resources in society. Applied to interpersonal relationships such as marriages, social conflict theory looks at the partner who has the power and the resources, how he/she strives to maintain the power, and how the other partner attempts to minimize the power

differential. This theory is not concerned with why relationship partners might be happy with an activity exchange B) Social Exchange Theory, Between Partners, Activity Exchnage, focuses on how relationships are formed and perpetuated when one partner’s perceived rewards are maximized and the costs are minimized. In the described case, a swap between domestic needs and financial needs is occurring. According to this theory, both partners are happy with the exchange because they perceive that the costs (holding a job or performing domestic tasks) and the rewards (having money without working and seeing domestic needs attended to without having to do them for oneself) are balanced out in a way that maximizes what they perceive as rewards and minimizes what they perceive as costs C) Attachment Theory, argues that infants develop a style of bonding or attachment to their parent or caregiver (e.g., secure, avoidant, or anxious). This type of attachment pattern then influences adult relationships. This theory is not concerned with why relationship partners might be happy with an activity exchange D) Endogamous Selection, Mate Selection, Ethnologue, concerned with is how individuals select their mate from their own social class or religious, racial, or ethnic group. It is not concerned with why relationship partners might be happy with an activity exchange

Adults’ Opinions About Interracial Friendships 1) Myers–Briggs Personality Test; Object Relations Theory, Measuring for personality attributes does not capture the concept of childhood socialization in terms of how values, orientations, and behaviors are learned. Object relations theory argues that the intrapsychic experiences human beings have in their early relationships will affect later adult relationships. It could be used to explain the effects of childhood experiences on current attitudes from an intrapsychic viewpoint 2) Neighborhoods’ Race Ratio; Ecological Theory, Measuring the extent to which a neighborhood is racially diverse is not the best way of measuring how a child is socialized. Parents have the most influence in socializing their children. Even when residing in racially diverse neighborhoods, children might not be exposed to such diversity. They might attend specific less racially diverse schools, and b e socialized among the parents’ less diverse social network. Ecological theory argues that micro (individual)-related factors, mezzo (family, neighborhood)-related factors, and macro (societal)-related factors work together in explaining social phenomena. That is, it more often serves to explain social collective phenomena than the individual longitudinal effects of childhood socializations on present attitudes 3) Friendship Formation Motivations; Drive Theory, Motivation assessments do not measure childhood socializations, they measure what drives people toward action. Drive theory maintains that human beings have internal drives or internal stimuli that drive them to action. People act so as to reduce the level of arousal. As such, this theory does not properly explain the longitudinal effects of childhood socializations on present attitudes

4) Parents’ Inter-Race Attitudes; Social Learning Theory, One way to measure how a child was socialized during childhood is to measure the attitudes of the parents, such as those regarding inter-racial friendship. Conservative parents teach their children conservative values, while more liberal parents teach their children more liberal beliefs. Social learning theory would help explain the impact of this variable, because this theory focuses on how behaviors are learned prior to their performance primarily through observational learning and social interaction. Thus, this theory might argue that observing parents’ attitudes and behavior would model children’s opinions and behavior in the long-term

How would a longitudinal ethnographic study about friendship in adulthood look like? A group of adults from culturally diverse backgrounds would be observed and interviewed about how they developed meaningful relationships

-Ethnography is a qualitative research method often employed in anthropology to study culture. It can also be used to study social phenomena such as friendships, for example, exploring the processes of friendship formation and evolution. This method observes research participants in their natural environment and does not actively interfere or manipulate the environment, variables, or participants. Open-ended interviews are often used to explore research participants’ views about the world, and observations are employed to understand processes, rituals, and practices

The Subconscious, According to Sigmund Freud, which part of the personality would store the social rules and norms people learn starting in childhood? the strong health self-efficacy of a chronically ill patient? -Taking on the responsibility of filling their pillbox and storing emergency phone numbers on their cell phone include close friends who may be referred to as a “sister” or a “cousin.” -If procedures regarding care givers research stipulate that “a family is a self-defined group of two or more individuals who may be bound by blood ties or law but necessarily function in a way that makes them feel they are a family”, then the research sample will:

Gender role socialization theory; Women more often do emotion work, which is work revolving around emotions and relationships, because they have conformed to the roles they have been socialized to do

A) Emotion Work, Arlie Hochschild, refers to work that revolves around interpersonal relationships and managing emotions so as to render them “appropriate” to the circumstances. Gender differences in caregiving, which is an emotional work, have been repeatedly found. Women more often perform this type of labor. Gender role socialization theory maintains that this is because women, unlike men, are socialized to

fulfil social roles that revolve around nurturing, supporting, rearing, and caring. When conforming to the roles they have been socialized to do, they would end up more often being caregivers than men B) Trait Theory of Personality, Big 5 Traits, maintains that personality is composed of broad dispositions or traits such as introversion/extroversion or neuroticism/emotional stability. Agreeableness is one of the traits in the Big Five Theory of Personality; however, it has not been demonstrated that women tend to be more agreeable than men or that this correlates with doing emotion work such as caregiving. Finally, the definition of emotion work offered is not very accurate. Emotion work is not necessarily unpaid or revolves around family members exclusively, such as for those with nursing professions C) Attachment Theory focuses on the emotional bonds or attachments that form between human beings since infancy. It argues that the patterns or attachment styles that characterize the relationship between the infant and the primary caregiver will affect the attachment patterns adopted in adulthood. This theory is concerned with delineating universal attachment styles that are detected across genders and age groups. It is not concerned with explaining why women in general tend to do emotion work or perform caregiving tasks. Finally, the definition of emotion work offered is not very accurate and “cooperative” attachment is not one of the commonly investigated styles D) Alfred Adler posited that feelings of inferiority influence personality development. However, his theory is not concerned with explaining why women more often do emotion work or perform caregiving tasks. Moreover, Adlerian theory does not associate inferiority with the feminine gender. Finally, the definition of emotion work offered is not very accurate; affective rewards are not key defining aspects

Social Control Theory, Macrosocial Entities Family College Religion -Not, Adolescents with antisocial personality disorders commit more crime A) Married men with children tend to commit less crime B) Adolescents without college plans commit more crime C) Religious people tend to commit less crime

-Social control amounts to the socialization process of being, as individuals, regulated by primary group relations, or of regulating, as large macrosocial institutions, such as education, religion, law and the political system, concerned members. This theory assumes that people have a natural tendency to break social conventions and rules. It is their attachment to or relationships with these macrosocial entities that prevents them from engaging in criminal or deviant behavior. This option offers that those with personality disorders, which is a personal trait, commit more crime. Although possibly true, this finding does not implicate any macrosocial group. As such, it would not be directly explained by social control theory -Social control amounts to the socialization process of being, as individuals, regulated by primary group relations, or of regulating, as large macrosocial institutions, such as education, religion, law and the political system, concerned members. This statement is not in accordance with social control theory because it describes how prisoners should be prevented from getting jobs. Since, according to this theory, only one’s membership with macrosocial institutions and

social groups is able to prevent the performance of deviant behavior, and holding a job implicates one’s membership with a professional organization, this proposal would contradict social control theory. A supporter of this theory would propose instead that criminals should be able to and supported in their job search and job maintenance attempts, as this would prevent them from engaging with further deviant behaviour

Role Engulfment -Role engulfment is one of the self-perception changes that prisoners may suffer after imprisonment and describes how ex-prisoners see themselves more as criminals than as parents, partners, students, or professionals

A) Role engulfment is described within labeling theory as the process through which one of someone’s social role is perceived as stronger or more important than any other role, to the point of dominating every other role in identity formation. As it applies to this case, the ex-prisoners’ perception of themselves as criminals (self-identity) can be so strong that it supersedes other roles such as of parent, partner, student, or professional. Negative ascriptions such as this one more often lead to role engulfment B) The process described here is social learning based on a role model. Role engulfment is not defined along the lines of modelling theory C) In role engulfment, one of the roles is not only more important as it supersedes every other role D) Role engulfment is about how one of the roles supersedes every other role in identity formation, not about how one is stuck in a role that one is unable to change

What do the concepts of ideology and false consciousness have in common according to most Marxists? They both refer to processes that mislead members of the proletariat

A) From the viewpoint of Marxists, ideology and false consciousness both refer to phenomena that occur in capitalist societies. Ideology is the collection of ideas proposed by the dominant class of society to all members of society that legitimizes the dominant forces, and hides what keeps the disempowered group in its place. False consciousness is the process through with certain views and false beliefs bear what often amounts to a detrimental impact upon the proletariat. More specifically, it refers to the actual adoption of the ideological views imposed by the dominant class and in such way that one may act against one’s own interests based on false beliefs. An example would be when people vote for a tax that benefits only citizens who are much wealthier than the voters themselves. What these processes have in common is that both hide the true power relations between classes and potentially mislead the proletariat B) False consciousness describes a state of mind that prevents a person from recognizing injustice toward them and toward their social class. Ideology is the set of ideas that justifies this injustice. Hence, although both concepts influence the way injustice is experienced, this is not a shared quality

C) The beliefs one holds and the awareness one has regarding one’s standing in society are called class consciousness. Hence, this is not a shared quality, as it refers to a different concept D) Ideology refers to the collection of ideas proposed by the dominant class of society to all members of society. False consciousness, however, is the process via which these false beliefs affect the individual

1) Sensory Adaptation refers to a sensibility decline due to the repeated exposure to the same stimulus. It does not amount to a law 2) Perceptive Adaptation refers to the gradual adjustment of the individual’s perceptual system to several perceptive distortions. A common example is sailors failing to notice the boat’s oscillation after spending some time at sea. It does not amount to a law

A) Biological Fallacy, refers to the assumption that all phenomena can be explained by biological factors. This includes social inequalities, for example, which have been proposed to result from differences in genetic heritage. Unlike wise, psychological masquerade applies specifically to how people are sometimes and incorrectly convinced that psychological symptoms do not have a biological cause – which is the opposite of what is observed for biological fallacies B) Associationism, a concept credited to the philosopher Aristotle that refers to the way items occur in consciousness sequentially or simultaneously. That is, it refers to the way ideas are cognitively or mentally organized. In psychology, the term is used by different theories that draw upon this idea of the co-occurrence or sequentiality of mental events, such as the behavioral theory that proposes that contingency learning is strengthened by the association between or co-occurrence of two types of stimuli (the unconditioned and the conditioned); or the neuropsychology theory that proposes that mental events and their corresponding underlying brain process can be analyzed as a process or set of organized step-wise components. The concept of psychological masquerade is unrelated to types of mental organization C) Psychological Masquerade, how the symptoms of organic and psychological disorders, such as hallucinations, sometimes resemble each other, a psychological and anthropological concept that refers to the way people’s self-perceptions are influenced by the way others see them. The term is often made synonymous with the term “looking glass-self”. Psychological masquerade is unrelated to how self-perceptions are constructed in the light of other people’s perceptions of the self D) Reflected Appraisal, a psychological and anthropological concept that refers to the way people’s self-perceptions are influenced by the way others see them. The term is often made synonymous with the term “looking glass-self”. Psychological masquerade is unrelated to how self-perceptions are constructed in the light of other people’s perceptions of the self

Social Interactions -Role Strain, Role Exit, Role Overhaul, Role Engulfment, Criminals v. Free Masons

Social Control Theory, Domestic Violence -Domestic violence is triggered by the lack of regulations and cohesive networks in society -Social control theory maintains that social networks and social control mechanisms must be in place in society to regulate its members. These connections and their control mechanisms promote pro-social behaviors and reduce anti-social behaviors. Someone adopting this perspective would claim that lack cohesive social bonds and associated social control mechanisms would be responsive for violence. Thus, an intensification of social bonds and associated control mechanisms would diminish aspects such as domestic violence

A) Learned Helplessness, Martin Seligman. It refers to a cognitive state whereby one views a situation as beyond their control. It was studied with animals that were being shocked no matter what they did. After some time under such harsh conditions they tended to stop moving, not even trying to escape the shock, as if having given up on resolving their problem B) Acute Stress, DSM disorder that is characterized by severe anxiety-related symptoms that occurs after a direct exposure to a traumatic event. It is thus not the phenomenon caused by listening to traumatic stories, or "second-hand" trauma C) Compassion Fatigue, Counselors who experience the cumulative effects of strain and exhaustion from hearing the stories of violence of victims of domestic violence over time, Compassion fatigue (or secondary victimization, or secondary traumatic stress disorder) refers to the emotional disruption caused in helpers by listening repeatedly to clients’ narratives about horrific and traumatic events. The accumulation of secondary distress generates a state that resembles post-traumatic stress disorder. Its symptoms include: cognitive intrusion, avoidance, negative affect, anhedonia, anxious arousal, and dysphoric arousal. Although it was not identified as a separate disorder in Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), research about it is ongoing and regards such experience as an occupational hazard with psychological and functional consequences D) Post-Traumatic Stress Syndrome, a stress disorder that is characterized by flashbacks, nightmares, and other symptoms of anxiety. It is caused by direct rather than secondary exposure to a traumatic stimulus. It is more severe than acute stress

A) Attribution Theory, argues that individuals tend to attribute causal explanations to events. It has been observed being applied to justify crime. Specifically, people make different causal attributions to offenders of different races. A similar argument could be made in regards to the cause of victimization B) Feminist Theory, explores the role of patriarchy in the domination of women, and some of its proponents argue that physical assault on women is motivated by power and control rather than sexual gratification. It could argue that, in certain races, patriarchy was more marked than in others. As such, individuals from those races would have higher propensity for being victimized .Some evidence further suggests that there are

some inter-racial differences, such as white individuals being victims of assault in in interracial marriages more frequently, and less frequently being perpetrators in interracial marriages C) Social Desirability Theory, is more adequately described as a mechanism, phenomenon, or bias – not as a social theory. It is defined as the phenomenon whereby individuals in a research study will attempt to present themselves in a more favorable light. In studies involving sensitive topics (e.g., racial opinions) or which are utilized for sensitive purposes (e.g., job applications), there is a chance respondents will distort or fake factual information so as to be more favorably perceived. Secondly, social desirability is not commonly used to explain such differences. Moreover, presently, there is no evidence of social desirability affecting differently different racial groups. That is, theoretically speaking, it could affect equally every group. Thus, this is the least helpful theory at explaining found differences D) Conflict Theory, posits that certain groups will have different levels of power due to differential access to resources. The group with greater power will tend to exploit the group with less power. The table does neither provide any data about each group’s access to resources nor about which group is exploiting (assaulting) which. Even though, theorists from the field could argue that those with less resources and power would have higher propensity for being victimized. In ascending order, that those with the least power would be: American Indian/Alaska Native, then Mixed Race, then African-American, then White, and finally Asian Pacific Islander. That is, the group with the greatest power in the U.S., where the study was performed, would be the Asian Pacific Islander. In broad strokes, for Asian, White, and African-American races, this would be consistent with reports from the Census depicting medium household income in 2004 but not necessarily with other metrics

1) Confirmation Bias, In general, confirmation bias refers to the tendency to look for information and interpret it in a way that confirms our preconceptions. Disconfirming information is discarded and forgotten. It is not the right answer for this question, as it is just the general description of a bias rather than an explanation for the findings of only positive traits being influenced by “attractiveness.” 2) Halo Effect, Cognitive biases are common reasoning mistakes that culminate in incorrect conclusions. The halo effect is a form of confirmation bias. It means that once we have formed positive feelings toward a trait of a person (or object), it might influence how we perceive his other positive or neutral traits; we might perceive them more positively. This explains why higher ratings on the attractiveness scale led to higher ratings for “intelligence” and “fairness,” two positive traits, but not for “moodiness” and “intimidation,” two negative traits 3) Belief Perseverance Bias, Belief perseverance bias is the tendency for original beliefs to persist, even after disconfirming evidence has been shown. In other words, people’s beliefs are often resistant to challenge and change. This is not the case in the scenario, as no disconfirming evidence has been mentioned

4) Branding, Branding is an expression used in the marketing industry to achieve a more positive customer attitude toward a product. It is not the correct explanation for the findings

A symbolic interactionism researcher who is observing two people enjoying a coffee together at a cafe would primarily point out that: the drinking ritual is symbolic and more important than the drink itself

A) Social Exchange Technique, a persuasion tactic assumes that if a person is given a physical or psychological reward, then they will be more likely agree to the request in the future B) Physical Attractiveness Manipulation Technique, a factor that promotes compliance. However, a $5 coupon is given to participants, and thus is unrelated to physical attractiveness C) Fear Then Relief Technique, The fear-then-relief strategy is a method where feelings of anxiety or apprehension are aroused and then the threat is quickly eliminated by replacing it with a small request. An offer of a $5 coupon is very unlikely to raise anxiety D) Lowball Technique, a persuasion technique where the individual is offered an item at an attractively low price, and once the person has agreed, the price is increased

Classical Conditioning, LEAST likely to be affected by an intellectual disability such as in fetal alcohol syndrome -Intellectual disabilities have been found to affect social learning, academic learning, and experimental learning -Therefore classical conditioning is the least likely form of learning to be affected by intellectual disabilities. It involves the pairing of two different stimuli. The first stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus, which produces an involuntary response without any previous learning (the unconditioned response). A neutral stimulus is introduced, and the brain associates this neutral stimulus with the unconditioned response, which then produces the same response (conditioned response). The neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned response. This makes classic conditioning the most basic form of learning. It has been observed in sea slugs and fruit flies

A) Academic Learning, Academic learning relates to schooling, such as learning to read, write, and do math. Experimental learning is cause-and-effect learning, the classic example being that of touching a hot object. A child with severe intellectual disabilities would not make the connection between the heat from the object (cause) and the pain experienced (effect) B) Operant Conditioning, Operant conditioning is based on the principle of strengthening or weakening a response depending on the consequences of a behavior. This makes it highly likely that this type of learning might be affected by intellectual disabilities, depending, of course, on the severity of the disability C) Social Learning, Social learning is learning from others in social situations, mainly through observation. This type of learning has also been found to be affected by intellectual disabilities

Raven’s Progressive Matrices scores positively correlate with more gray and white matter and negatively correlate with frontal and parietal lobe activation -This option specifies the context (Raven’s Progressive Matrices), the associated neural area (dimensions of gray and white matter, and frontal and parietal lobe activation), the adopted statistical test (correlations), and the direction of the relationship (positive or negative). To further improve the reliability of the conclusion, the specific imaging methods employed should also be stated and the specific correlation statistical results reported on. This is usually performed in the methods section (imagery and statistical methods employed; software specifications) and in the findings section (statistical test results) of a research study’s report. The extent of the details there provided should allow for the study to be replicated. The other options are not as specific and therefore improperly generalize “intelligence” or fail to identify the type of found relationship (applied statistical test). Raven’s Progressive Matrices were used, and these tests are thought to measure an aspect of fluid intelligence —not any other type of intelligence or aspect—and found to positively correlate with other g-factor measures. In addition, in the conclusion where effort is associated with neurological findings, effort is selected as a mediating variable. As such, it should be measured as specific cause–effect relationship statistical tests employed (e.g., regression and mediation models)

Eating Attitudes, Icek Ajzen -“I want to display self-control about food” and “I am terrified of being overweight,”\ -Attitudes are one of social psychology’s areas of interest. According to Icek Ajzen, a well- known researcher in this area, attitudes are relatively enduring dispositions that influence behavior in regard to a particular aspect. Harris Trandis identifies three attitude components: affective, behavioral (or conative), and cognitive. The examples of survey items provided in the question assess affective (“terrified”) and conative ("I want to display self-control") aspects of respondents’ attitudes toward eating. Although eating-related attitudes are used to diagnose anorexia and bulimia nervosa, two psychological disorders that involve abnormal eating behavior, what the survey assesses is attitudes—not the existence of a psychological disorder. For example, not everyone who wants to display self-control around food and eats slower than others would be diagnosed as having anorexia or bulimia by a psychiatrist. That is, people’s eating attitudes, as detected via the survey, can be interpreted and related to the diagnostic criteria employed to diagnose these disorders, but they do not directly assess the existence of these disorders. Social norms are sets of rules that are shared by a group of people and that regulate their behavior. Social etiquette amounts to a set of social norms that regulates polite behavior in particular. Although eating behavior is often subject to social etiquette, it varies from culture to culture and even from family to family. Therefore it is unlikely that a survey with universal intents is measuring social etiquette

According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), the symptoms of PTSD are re-experiencing, avoidance, negative cognitions and mood, and arousal. In this context, “arousal” is: aggressive, reckless, or self-destructive behavior

-The DSM-5 defines arousal as aggressive, reckless, or self-destructive behavior, sleep disturbances, hypervigilance, or related problems, and associates it with the fight-or-flight instinct. Re-experiencing refers to spontaneous memories of the traumatic event and flashbacks; avoidance refers to the permanent attempt to control and escape distressing memories, thoughts, feelings, or external reminders of the event; and examples of negative cognitions and mood are a persistent and distorted sense of blame of self or others, estrangement from others or markedly diminished interest in activities, and inability to remember key aspects of the event

Emile Durkheim, Division of Labour -Division of labor amounts to the employment of individuals with specialized skills for the accomplishment of a common professional goal. Each individual is part of the team and holds a different function. According to Émile Durkheim, division of labor is a way of increasing the social system’s productivity and efficiency, that is, of boosting job performance. During the Industrial Revolution the division of labor underwent considerable changes, one example being Henry Ford’s development of assembly line production for manufacturing cars. Assembly lines were created to increase the productivity and efficiency of automobile factories and involved a clear division of car design and car production tasks. Individuals would not, as they had before, hold both design and manufacturing functions. The interdependency of individuals, rather than their self-sufficiency for the production of goods, also called “socialization” of labor, was intensified during the Industrial Revolution partly due to labor changes such as this. Lean production is a development of the assembly line idea, introduced also in an automobile factory environment by Taiichi Ohno. It differs from Ford’s approach in that, for example, cars and their pieces are only made at the client’s demand, and no excess resources are accumulated. Both these changes are important for mass production, also known as Fordism -Mechanical Solidarity is a term introduced by Durkheim to describe the type of social integration or cohesiveness that occurs when coworkers share the same beliefs, customs, values, and/or experiences. It is more common in small, undifferentiated societies, not in societies with complex labor divisions such as assembly lines

New Social Movements -NOT: Primarily recruited from the middle classes, Centered on a single issue or a limited range of issues, Often anti-materialistic -Mainly political, as opposed to social or cultural, in its aims, New social movements are primarily social and cultural rather than political. For example, rather than political representation for workers, which was the primary aim of traditional social movements, new social movements seek objectives such as individual self-realization and human rights. New social movements primarily recruit from the middle class. They are also often centered on single issues, such as the environment. Likewise, they are often anti-materialistic, seeking improvement in social and cultural issues rather than primarily material or economic issues

US Demographic Trends -The dependency ratio refers to the relationship between the working and the dependent population. Due to the aging population and the falling mortality rate in the U.S., there is a rising

dependency ratio, with more dependent people compared with a smaller working-age population A) A Higher dependency ratio B) An aging population C) A bigger foreign-born population D) A lower birthrate

1) Rationalization 2) McDonaldization, George Ritzer’s work was based on the theory of rationalization, but his theory, unlike Max Weber’s theory, referencing as it does McDonald’s and technology, is more in line with the trends associated with globalization 3) Americanization, a term used in reference to globalization, but it is not referenced in the question stem 4) Hybridization, a concept associated with biology and has no relevance to the question