Secr Medical Department Bilaspur Division Question Bank for Departmental Examination for C.H.I

SECR MEDICAL DEPARTMENT BILASPUR DIVISION QUESTION BANK FOR DEPARTMENTAL EXAMINATION FOR C.H.I

A. All questions bear equal marks. B. There is only one most appropriate answer. C. Only four options are given. D. Data as available are as on 2018.

1. Test to detect contamination of mustard oil with argemone oil? (a) Nitric acid test (b) Sulphuric acid test (c) Chromic acid test (d) all of the above ANS : a 2. Lathyrism results due to: (a) Aflatoxin (b) BOAA (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Sanguinarine ANS: b 3. Epidemic dropsy is due to: (a) Sanguinarine oil (b) BOAA 5555 (c) Drug induced (d) Ergot alkaloids ANS: a 4. Richest source of vitamin B1: (a) Rice (b) Milk (c) Egg (d) Groundnut ANS: d 5. All are examples of Food Fortification except: (a) Iodisation of salt (b) Vitamin A in Vanaspati (c) Fluoridation of water (d) Saffron colour in milk ANS: d 6. Which of the following poisonings can result in spastic paraplegia? (a) Lathyrus (b) Strychnine (c) Sanguinarine (d) Organophosphates ANS: a 7. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm? (a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 33 (d) 36 ANS: b 8. Mid day meal contains proteins and calories in what proportions: (a) 1/2 proteins and 1/2 calories (b) 1/2 proteins and 1/3rd calories (c) 1/3rd proteins and 1/3rd calories (d) 2/3rd calories and 1/3rd proteins ANS: b 9. What is /are components of Nutrition surveillance? (a) Policy maker (b) AFP surveillance (c) Nutritional survey (d) DOTS ANS: c 10. Why cereals and pulses are combined: (a) 10% cereals contain protein and pulses contain 40% (b) Cereals are deficient in methionine and lysine is deficient in pulses (c) Cereals are deficient in lysine and methionine is deficient in pulses 2

(d) Cereals are rich in essential ANS : c 11. The best parameter for assessment of chronic malnutrition is (a) Weight for age (b) Weight for height (c) Height for age (d) Any of the above ANS : c 12. Richest source of cholesterol is: (a) Egg (b) Hydrogerated oil (c) Butter (d) Cheese ANS : a 13. In assessing the nutritional status of community the following are used Except: (a) Mortality in 1-4 years age group (b) Low birth weight (c) Weight/height index in preschool children (d) Percentage of pregnant lady with less than 11.5% Hb ANS : d 14. Vitamin A prophylaxis includes all Except: (a) For infant 1,00,000 I.U. at 6 month interval (b) For more than 1 years 2,00,000 I.U at 6 month interval (c) For postpartum 3,00,000 I.U (d) 50,000 I.U at birth ANS : d 15. Dental caries is due to deficiency of: (a) Fluorine (b) Zinc (c) lead (d) Calcium ANS : a 16. Standardization of food by the directorate of marketing and inspection of government of India is known as (a) PFA standards (b) Codex Alimentarius (c) AGMARK standard (d) ISI standards ANS: c 17. First clinical sign of Vitamin-A deficiency is: (a) Night blindness (b) Conjunctival xerosis (c) Bitot’s spots (d) keratomalasia ANS: b 18. Minimum amount of sunlight exposure necessary for adequate synthesis of Vitamin-D in the human body is: (a) 5 min (b) 30 min (c) 2 hrs (d) 5 hrs ANS: a 19. Most sensitive tool for evaluating iron status of the body is: (a) Hb level (b) Serum iron (c) Serum transferring saturation (d) serum ferritin ANS: d 20. Poor man’s iron source is (a) Almond (b) Grapes (c) Soya (d) Jaggery ANS: d 21. Under the prevention of Food Adulteration Act (PFA) the level fo iodine salt at consumer level is: (a) 0 -5 ppm (b) 5 -10 ppm (c) 5 -15 ppm (d) 5 -30 ppm ANS: c 22. In drinking water recommended fluoride level is _____ ppm: (a) 0.5 (b) 0.5-0.8 (c) 1.5 (d) 1.1 ANS: b 23. Water fluoride is removed by: (a) Boiling (b) Nalgonda technique (c) Patna. Technique (d) Filtration ANS: b 3

24. Egg are “reference protein” because: (a) High caloric content (b) Increased protein/100 gms (c) Increased biological value and +NPU (d) Decreased digestibility coefficient ANS: c 25. Pasteurization by Holder method is heating milk at: (a) 60° C for 45 minutes (b) 65° C for 30 minutes (c) 100° C for 15 minutes (d) 136° C for 15 minutes ANS: d 26. What is absent in breast milk (a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin A ANS: c 27. According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given upto (a) 6 months (b) 4 months (c) 8 months (d) 10 months ANS: a 28. Rice is poor in all except: (a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Vitamins A, D, C (d) Lysine ANS: d 29. Fish is the source of all except? (a) Iron (b) Iodine (c) Vitamin A (d) Phosphorus ANS: b 30. ‘Twin fortified salt’ contains: (a) Iodine + Fluorine (b) Iodine + Calcium (c) Iodine + Iron (d) Iodine + Chlorine ANS: c 31. Daily requirement of Iodine in adults is: (a) 50 mcg (b) 100 mcg (c) 150 mcg (d) 200 mcg ANS: c 32. Endemic cretinism is seen when iodine uptake is less than (a) 5 micro gram/day (b) 20 micro gram/day (c) 50 micro gram /day (d) 75 micro gram/day ANS: b 33. Pasteurised milk is most commonly tested by: (a) Phosphatase test (b) Coliform test (c) Catalase test (d) Oxidase test ANS: a 34. Milk borne diseases are: (a) Brucellosis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Leptospirosis (d) All ANS: d 35. Colostrum has in compared to normal milk: (a) Decreased Vitamin A (b) Decreased Na+ (c) Increased proteins (d) Increased calories ANS: c 36. Phosphatase test in milk is done to know (a) Quality of pasteurization (b) Contamination of milk (c) Nutritive value (d) Coliform count ANS: a 37. Compared with cow’s milk, mother’s milk has more: 4

(a) Lactose (b) Vitamin D (c) Protein (d) Fat ANS: a 38. Soya bean contains protein to the tune of: (a) 20 % (b) 40 % (c) 60 % (d) 80 % ANS: b 39. Lathyrism is due to consumption of: (a) Red gram dhal (b) Contaminated ground nuts (c) Bengal gram dhal (d) Khesari dhal ANS: d 40. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm (a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 33 (d) 36 ANS: b 41. The best parameter for assessment of chronic malnutrition is: (a) Weight for age (b) Weight for height (c) Height for age (d) Any of the above ANS: c 42. In assessing the nutritional status of community the following are used except: (a) Mortality in 1-4 years age group (b) Low birth weight (c) Weight/height index in preschool children ANS: b 43. The infectivity of chickenpox lasts for: (a) Till the last scab falls off (b) 6 days after onset of rash (c) 3 days after onset of rash (d) Till the fever subsides) Percentage of pregnant lady with less than 11.5% Hb ANS : d 44. Which of the following is not true of Measles? (a) High secondary attack rate (b) Only one strain causes infection (c) Not infectious in pro-dromal stage ANS : c (d) Infection confers lifelong immune 45. All are true regarding measles vaccine except: (a) Freeze dried live attenuated vaccine (b) Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml (c) Is occasionally associated with TSS ANS: b (d) Contraindicated in pregnancy 46. Which of the following is the reservoir for measles? (a) Man (b) Soil (c) Fomites Ans: a (d) Monkey 47. Measles vaccine is not given before: (a) 9 months (b) 12 months (c) 15 months Ans: a (d) 18 month 48. MMR vaccine is recommended at the age of: (a) 9-12 months (b) 15-18 months (c) 2-3 years (d) 10-19 years Ans: b 49. Most.Common. complication of mumps in children is: (a) Pneumonia (b) Pancreatitis (c) Aseptic meningitis (d) Encephalitis Ans: c 50. Incubation period of swine flu: (a) 1-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks (c) 10-15 days (d) 5 weeks Ans: a 51. Pig in H1N1 influenza acts as: (a) Carrier (b) Amplifying host s (c) Reservoir (d) Vector 52. True about Diphtheria are all except: 5

(a) Carriers are more common sources of infection than cases (b) Incubation period is 2-6 days (c) 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT vaccine (d) Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India Ans: c 53. Diphtheria carrier are diagnosed by: (a) Throat culture (b) Gram’s staining (c) Albert’s staining (d) Schick test Ans: a 54. True regarding pertussis is all except: (a) It is associated with an inspiratory whoop (b) It is a droplet infection (c) Para pertussis causes more severe disease then pertussis Ans: c 55. Father of Indian Surgery is: (a) Dhanvantari (b) Charaka (c) Susruta (d) Atreya Ans: c 56. Malarial parasite was discovered by? (a) Robert Koch (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Charles Alphonse Laveran Ans: c (d) Ronald Ross 57. Small pox vaccine was introduced by: (a) Paul Ehrlich (b) Robert Koch (c) Louis Pasteur Ans: d (d) Edward Jenner 58. Samuel Hahneman is referred to as founding Father of: (a) Ayurveda (b) Allopathy (c) Homeopathy Ans: c (d) Yoga 59. Which of the following diseases is known as “Barometer of Social Welfare” ? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Cholera (c) Leprosy Ans: a (d) Malaria 60. Breast Feeding Week is celebrated on? (a) 1st week of March (b) 1st week of July (c) 1st week of August Ans: c (d) 1st December 61. Black death is: (a) Plague (b) Dengue (c) Tuberculosis Ans: a (d) Cholera 62. Who is regarded as Father of Public Health? (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Cholera (c) John snow Ans: b (d) Robert Koch 63. Definition of health given by WHO includes which of the following dimensions: except (a) Social (b) Physical (c) Mental (d) sports Ans: d 64. Communicability of disease is assessed by (a) Secondary attack rate (b) Generation time (c) Serial interval (d) incubation period Ans: a 65. ‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is: (a) Coronary artery disease (b) Chronic liver disease (c) Chronic obstructive lung disease (d) Alzheimer’s disease Ans: d 66. Natural history of disease is best studied by: (a) Cross sectional study 6

(b) RCT (c) Case-control study Ans: d (d) Cohort study

67. Disease elimination means: (a) Cure of the disease (b) Preventing the transmission totally Ans: b (c) Eradication of the vector (d) Complete termination of infective organism 68. Disease eradicated from world: (a) Small pox (b) Guineworm (c) Polio Ans: a (d) Diphtheria 69. In India which disease is near to elimination: (a) malaria (b) Rabies (c) Polio Ans: c (d) Mumps 70. Primary prevention of obesity: (a) Low fiber diet (b) High fiber diet (c) High cholesterol diet Ans: b (d) High intake of protein 71. Which one of the following is NOT a water born disease. (a) Giardiasis (b) Amoebiasis (c) Strongyloidosis Ans: c (d) Taeniasis 72. Which of the following is not targeted in Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)? (a) Eradicating extreme poverty (b) Fostering global partnership for development (c) Reducing child mortality (d) Improving health care delivery Ans: d 73. The incubation period of Measles is: (a) 3 days (b) 10 days (c) 21 days Ans: b (d) 30 days 74. Recommended vaccination strategy for rubella is to vaccinate first and foremost: (a) Women 15-49yrs (b) Infants (c) Adolescent girls Ans: a (d) Children 1-14yrs 75. M.C. complication of mumps in children is: (a) Pneumonia (b) Pancreatitis (c) Aseptic meningitis Ans: c (d) Encephalitis 76. Incubation period of swine flu: (a) 1-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks (c) 10-15 days (d) 5 weeks Ans: a 77. Pig in H1N1 influenza acts as: (a) Carrier (b) Amplifying host (c) Reservoir (d) none Ans: d 78. True about Diphtheria are all except: (a) Carriers are more common sources of infection than cases (b) Incubation period is 2-6 days (c) 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT vaccine (d) Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India Ans: c 79. Treatment of choice for diphtheria carriers is: (a) Erythromycin (b) Tetracycline (c) Penicillin Ans: a (d) DPT 80. Diphtheria carrier are diagnosed by: (a) Throat culture (b) Gram’s staining (c) Albert’s staining (d) Schick test Ans: a 7

81. false about Pertussis is (a) Incubation period is 7-14 days (b) Main source of infection is chronic carriers (c) Can affect any age (d) Secondary attack rate in unimmunised persons is 90% Ans: b

82. A child with pertussis should be isolated for: (a) 1-2weeks (b) 2-4weeks Ans: c (c) 3-4weeks (d) 4-6weeks n Summers 83. Vaccine for meningococcal meningitis should be routinely given to: (a) Laboratory workers (b) Young adolescents (c) 4-8 years old children Ans: b (d) Elderly population 84. WHO criteria for High endemicity for Meningococcal disease include: (a) 0.1% (b) 0.01% (c) 0.001% (d) 1.0% Ans: b 85. Most important feature to diagnose severe pneumonia: (a) Cyanosis (b) Chest indrawing Ans: b (c) Nasal flaring (d) Fast breathing 86. Point of control in tuberculosis the infection is: (a) < 1% in 0-14 group of children (b) > 1% is all children 0-5 yrs age group Ans: a (c) < 1% in 15-49 of age group (d) < 2% in 0-14 group 87. Which of the following is true about tuberculin test? (a) It gives the immune status of patient Ans: b (b) It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis (c) It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis only (d) It is highly positive in a post measles case 88. BCG is: (a) Live attenuated vaccine (b) Killed vaccine (c) Toxoid Ans: a (d) Immunosuppressant agent 89. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is: (a) Mass Miniature Radiography (b) Sputum examination (c) Tuberculin Test Ans: c (d) Clinical examination 90. National Tuberculosis Institute is located at: (a) New Delhi (b) Chingelput (c) Bangalore Ans: c (d) Chennai 91. Antitubercular drug which causes Optic neuritis is: (a) Ethambutol (b) Rifampicin (c) Isoniazid (d) Pyrizinamide Ans: a 92. TB multidrug regimen is given to: (a) Prevent resistance (b) Broad spectrum (c) Prevent side effects (d) None Ans: a 93. Sputum positive TB is: (a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve (b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve (c) BACTEC +ve Ans : a (d) Mantoux test positive 94. Which type of sample can be used to isolate poliovirus earliest? (a) Stool (B) Blood (C) Throat (d) CSF Ans: a 95. True about complete eradication of poliomyelitis from India is: (a) From 2012 onwards, no vaccine associated polio case has been detected (b) Last polio case in India was reported in 13 January 2011 (c) Mostly IPV is used currently Ans: b (d) India is the only country which is not able to eliminate it completely 8

96. Screening is the most commonly used epidemiological tool in school health services. Which level of prevention does it refer to? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Primary and secondary Ans:b

97. Which of the following is not spread by fomites? (a) AIDS (b) Typhoid (c) Diarrhea (d) Hepatitis A Ans: a 98. For every clinical case of poliomyelitis subclinical cases are: (a) 500 in children and 75 in adults (b) 500 in children and 25 in adults (c) 250 in children and 25 in adults (d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults Ans: d 99. Polio is due to: (a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Protozoa (d) Fungus Ans : a 100. Killed Vaccine of polio is: (a) Salk (b) Sabin (c) Both (d) None Ans: a 101. Which of the following is not transmitted through sexual route? (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis E (c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E Ans : b (d) Hepatitis D 102. Isolation period of Hepatitis A: (a) 1 weeks (b) 2 weeks (c) 3 weeks (d) 4 weeks Ans: c 103. Hepatitis A virus shedding in faeces is: (a) One week before the symptoms appear (b) Two weeks after the symptoms appear (c) Two weeks before the symptoms and two week thereafter (d) One week before the symptoms and one week Ans: c 104. The freshly prepared ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) should not be used after: (a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours Ans: d 105. Which of the following is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera? (a) Tetracycline (b) Doxycycline (c) Furazolidone (d) Co-trimoxazole Ans: a 106. The usual incubation period for typhoid fever is: (a) 10-14 days (b) 3-5 days (c) 21-25 days Ans: a (d) less then 3 days 107. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except: (a) Mass chemoprophylaxis (b) Proper disposal of excreta (c) Chlorination of water Ans: a (d) Early detection and management of cases 108. A convalescent case of cholera remains infective for: (a) < 7 days (b) 7-14 days (c) 14-21 days (d) 21-28 days Ans: c 109. WHO ORS contains: (a) Potassium bicarbonate 2.5 (b) Glucose 20 g Ans: d (c) Sucrose 10 g (d) all of the above 110. In salmonolosis disease, isolation is done till: (a) Fever subsides (b) Blood culture negative Ans: d (c) Spleen subsides (d) Stool culture negative for three times 111. Best disinfectant for cholera stools is: 9

(a) Bleaching powder (b) Cresol Ans: b (c) Coal-tar (d) Formalin 112. Chandlers Index is used in epidemiological studies of (a) Round worms (b) Hook worms (c) Guinea worms Ans: b (d) Sand fly 113. Intermediate host for Hydatid disease is: (a) Man (b) Dog (c) Cat Ans: a (d) Fox 114. Dracunculiasis was more common in which of the following state? (a) Orissa (b) Rajasthan (c) Tamil Nadu (d) U.P. Ans: b 115. Highest level of health care is: (a) Primary health care (b) Tertiary care (c) Child care (d) Secondary level care Ans: b 116. Classical dengue fever is transmitted by: (a) Aedes mosquito (b) Anopheles mosquito Ans: a (c) Mansonoides mosquito (d) culex mosquito 117. Infective period of Aedes mosquito for Classical Dengue fever(break bone fever) (a) 10-20 days (b) 20-30 days (c) 30-40 days Ans: d (d) life long 118. The infective form of malarial parasite through a blood transfusion is: (a) Trophozoite (b) merozoite (c) sporozoite (d) schizont Ans a 119. Which of the following statement regarding dengue is correct: (a) Caused by 3 serotypes of dengue virus (b) It is endemic in India (c) Aspirin is used for treatment Ans: b (d) Clinical course of dengue is more fulminant in children than adults 120. In a Chloroquine resistant zone the presumptive treatment of malaria to be given is: (a) Chloroquine + primaquine 45 mg (b) Chloroquine + pyrimethamine (c) Sulphalene 1000 mg Ans: d (d) sulphadoxine +pyrimethamine 121. In high-risk areas the radical treatment for Plasmodium vivax infection after microscopic confirmation is ad ministration of tablets primaquine in the daily dosage of: (a) 0.25 mg/ kg body weight (b) 0.50 mg/ kg body weight (c) 0.75 mg/ kg body weight Ans: a (d) 1.00 mg/ kg body weight 122. The most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a community is: (a) Spleen rate (b) Infant parasite rate (c) Annual parasite incidence Ans b (d) Slide positivity rate 123. True about epidemiology of malaria: (a) Extrinsic incubation period 0-14 days (b) In India common during January to June (c) Rare in urban areas (d) Mosquito acts as definitive host Ans: d 124. Anti malaria month: (a) April (b) May Ans: c (c) June (d) September 125. A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having a population of 1 lakh. Out of 20000 slides examined,500 turned out to be malaria positive. The annual parasite incidence is: (a) 20 (b) 5 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4 Ans: b 126. What is causative organism for Malaria? 10

(a) Plasmodium (b) Anopheles (c) Culex Ans: a (d) Yersinia 127. Malaria is transmitted by: (a) Female anopheles mosquito (b) Male anopheles mosquito (c) Culex mosquito Ans: a (d) Aedes mosquito 128. DEC is used extensively in the chemotherapy of Filariasis. It is most effective against: (a) Microfilariae (b) Adult worm (c) Infective stage larvae (d) All of the above Ans: a 129. The Clinical incubation period of Filariasis is: (a) 10 to 20 days (b) 3 to 6 months (c) 6 to 12 months Ans: d (d) 8 to 16 months 130. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on: (a) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 (b) Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90 (c) Days 0, 3 Ans: d (d) Days 0, 7, 28 131. Which of the following should be injected in and around the wound in class III rabies bite? (a) Tetanus toxoid (b) Antibiotic solution (c) Anti rabies serum Ans: c (d) None of the above 132. Bite of which of the following animals do not result in human rabies? (a) Dog (b) Mouse Ans: b (c) Horse (d) Cat 133. In the case of dog bite the biting animal should be observed for at least: (a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 3 weeks Ans: b 134. Rabies does not occur in which of the following parts of India? (a) Daman and Diu (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Dadra and Nagar Havelli Ans: b (d) Pondicherry 135. True about yellow fever: (a) It is a flavivirus (b) Transmitted by Aedes (c) Incidence is increased by humidity Ans: d (d) all of the above 136. Yellow fever certificate of vaccination is valid for: (a) 1 year (b) 10 years (c) 35 years (d) Lifelong Ans: b 137. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by: (a) Culex (b) Aedes Ans: a (c) Mansonia (d) Anopheles 138. Kyasnur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by: (a) Mite (b) Tick (c) Lice Ans: b (d) Bug 139. Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a silence period of: (a) 18 years (b) 20 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years Ans: c 140. The highly infections clinical form of plague is: (a) Bubonic plague (b) Pneumonic plague (c) Septicaemic plague Ans: b (d) All of the above 141. Plague is transmitted by: (a) Hard tick (b) Soft tick (c) Rat flea Ans: c 11

(d) Louse 142. Vagabond disease transmitted by: (a) Louse (b) Mite (c) Tick (d) Black Fly Ans: a 143. Reservoir of Indian Kala-azar is: (a) Man (b) Rodent (c) Canine (d) Equine Ans: a 144. Kala-azar is transmitted by: (a) Phlebotomus sergenti (b) Phlebotomus papatasii (c) Phlebotomus argentipes Ans: c (d) All of the above 145. All the following statements are true for Indian Kala-azar Except: (a) It is transmitted by the bite of an infected sandfly (b) Dog is the reservoir of infection (c) The causative parasite is cultivated in the NNN medium (d) The disease is endemic in Bihar Ans: b 146. True about Trachoma is: (a) Is a disease of high infectivity (b) Prevalence of severe and moderate trachoma in > 1 % in children less than 10 yrs is indication for mass treatment (c) Irritants like kajal or surma also predispose Ans: c (d) is a non-avoidable cause of blindness in india 147. Azithromycin mass treatment is given in community when prevalence of Trachoma is more than: (a) 4% (b) 6% (c) 8% (d) 10% Ans: d 148. Three doses of tetanus vaccine provides immunity for: (a) 1 year (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 15 years Ans: c 149. The period of communicability of Tetanus is: (a) 7 days (b) 14 days Ans: d (c) 21 days (d) None 150. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than: (a) 1 per 10,000 (b) 2 per 10,000 (c) 5 per 10,000 (d) 10 per 10,000 Ans: a 151. Leprosy commonly spreads by: (a) Milk (b) Droplet Ans: b (c) Water (d) Mosquitoes 152. Most common nerve involved in leprosy: (a) Ulnar N (b) Common peroneal N Ans: a (c) Median N (d) Radial N 153. Treatment of leprosy a/c to WHO is done by all drugs, except: (a) Dapsone (b) Clofazimine (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampicin Ans: c 154. Duration of MDT (Multidrug Therapy) to resolve paucibacillary leprosy is: (a) 6 month (b) 8 month (c) 9 month (d) 12 month Ans: a 155. World AIDS day is on: (a) 1st May (b) 31st October (c) 1st December (d) 29th May Ans: c 156. The first country in the South East Asian Region (SEAR) to report AIDS was: (a) Sri Lanka (b) India (c) Thailand (d) Bangladesh Ans: c 157. The most common mode of HIV transmission in India is: (a) Blood transfusion (b) Mother to child transmission (c) Sexual transmission Ans: c (d) Use of unsterile syringes and needles 158. Major signs for AIDS case definition according to WHO are: (a) Generalised lymphadenopathy (b) Prolong fever more than 1 month (c) Chronic diarhoea > 1 month (d) all of the above Ans: d 159. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started within: (a) 24 hours 12

(b) 48 hours Ans: c (c) 72 hours (d) 6 hours 160. HIV sentinel surveillance is used to identify/ calculate: (a) High risk population (b) Prevalence of HIV (c) Trend finding among populations (d) All of the above Ans: d 161. First case of AIDS was reported in: (a) 1984 (b) 1986 (c) 1981 (d) 1988 Ans: c 162. Window period for HIV infection is: (a) 3-12 weeks (b) 8-20 weeks (c) 6-24 weeks Ans: a (d) None 163. Incubation period of syphilis: (a) 9-90 days (b) 9-18 days Ans: a (c) 80-90 days (d) 10 days 164. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except: (a) Measles (b) Typhoid Ans: a (c) Hepatitis B (d) Gonorrhea 165. ‘3 by 5 Initiative’ was launched in developing countries to combat: (a) Tuberculosis (b) Malaria (c) SARS (d) HIV/ AIDS Ans: d 166. All of the following are blood-borne infections except: (a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Hepatitis E Ans: c (d) Hepatitis G 167. Carriers are important in all the following except: (a) Polio (b) Typhoid (c) Measles (d) Diphtheria Ans: c 168. Incubation period less than few hours: (a) Hepatitis – A (b) Food poisoning Ans: b (c) Influenza (d) Rabies 169. Epidemic caused by type A arbovirus in India is: (a) Chikungunya (b) KFD Ans: a (c) Yellow Fever (d) Dengue 170. Animal to man transmission seen in: (a) Rabies (b) Japanese encephalitis Ans: a (c) HIV (d) Mumps (e) Tetanus 171. Tetracycline is used in the prophylaxis of: (a) Cholera (b) Brucellosis Ans: a (c) Leptospirosis (d) Meningitis 172. Which is not transmitted by Aedes aegypti? (a) Yellow fever (b) Dengue (c) Japanese encephalitis Ans: c (d) Filariasis 173. Rat is associated with: (a) Leptospirosis (b) Measles Ans: a (c) Tetanus (d) Influenza 174. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease? (a) Hydatid cyst (b) Malaria 13

(c) Filariasis Ans: a (d) Dengue fever 175. Zoonotic disease of viral etiology include: (a) Q fever (b) Rickettsiae disease (c) Rabies (d) Rubella Ans: c 176. Prophylaxis for anthrax: (a) Erythromycin (b) Doxycycline Ans: b (c) Penicillin (d) Vancomycin 177. Isolation period, false is: (a) Chicken pox – 6 days after onset of rash (b) Herpes zoster – 6 days after onset of rash (c) Measles – up to 3 days after onset of rash (d) German measles – 7 days after onset of rash Ans: d 178. Inclusion body in neuron is seen in: (a) Rabies (b) Diphtheria (c) Yellow fever Ans: a (d) Japanese encephalitis 179. All are zoonotic disease Except: (a) Brucellosis (b) Leptospirosis (c) Scabies Ans: c (d) Rabies 180. Disease transmitted by water is: (a) Hepatitis B (b) Polio (c) Japanese encephalitis Ans: b (d) Dengue fever 181. Patients are to be isolated in all of the following diseases except: (a) AIDS (b) Smallpox (c) Anthrax (d) Plague Ans: a 182. Incubation period in staphy lococcal food poisoning: (a) 1-6 hours (b) 6-12 hours Ans: a (c) 16-18 hours (d) 24 hours 183. Following dietary changes are advised to reduce prevalence of coronary heart disease except (a) Increased complex carbohydrate intake (b) Saturated fat intake less than 10% of total energy intake (c) Salt intake less than 20g/day Ans: c (d) Reduce fat intake to 20-30% of total energy intake 184. Modifiable risk factors in coronary artery disease are all Except: (a) Personality (b) Smoking Ans: a (c) Obesity (d) Hypertension 185. True about hypertension, the primary prevention includes: (a) Weight reduction (b) Exercise promotion (c) Reduction of salt intake Ans : d (e) all of the above 186. The most common cancer, affecting both males and females of the world, is: (a) Cancer of the pancreas (b) Buccal mucosa cancer (c) Lung cancer Ans: c (d) Colo-rectal cancer 187. The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is: (a) Oropharyngeal carcinoma (b) Gastric carcinoma (c) Colo-rectal carcinoma Ans: d (d) Lung cancer 188. The most common type of cancer among females in India is: (a) Cervical cancer (b) Breast cancer (c) Ovarian cancer Ans: d 14

(d) Non 189. Which of the following can be prevented by screening: (a) Ca cervix (b) Ca Breast (c) Ca Prostate (d) All of the above Ans: d 190. For Asian populations, the normal BMI (Body Mass Index) range is: (a) 18.5 – 24.99 (b) 18.5 – 22.99 (c) 20.5 – 24.99 Ans: b (d) 20.5 – 22.99 191. All of the following sites are used for measuring skin fold thickness to assess obesity except: (a) Mid-triceps (b) Biceps (c) Subscapular Ans: d (d) Anterior abdominal wall 192. The most common cause of blindness in India is: (a) Cataract (b) Trachoma Ans: a (c) Refractive errors (d) Vitamin A deficiency 193. Under NPCB in India, cutoff for blindness is defined as having a vision of: (a) < 3/60 in worse eye (b) < 6/60 in better eye (c) < 3/60 in better eye Ans: b (d) < 6/60 in worse eye 194. Blindness can be seen in: (a) Measles (b) Mumps Ans: a ,c (c) Rubella (d) Coxsackie 195. Most common cause of blindness due to easily preventable cause in children: (a) Diabete (b) Trachoma (c) Vit. A deficiency (d) Cataract Ans: c 196. Most common cause of stroke in India is: (a) Cerebral thrombosis (b) Cerebral embolism (c) Cerebral hemorrhage Ans: a (d) Subarachnoid haemorrhage 197. Diabetes mellitus is best diagnosed by: (a) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) > 100 mg/dl and Post-prandial blood sugar (PPBS) > 140 (b) FBS >125 mg/dl and PPBS >199 mg/dl (c) HbA1c = 5.5% [AIIMS November 2011] Ans: b (d) FBS > 70 md/dl 198. In India causing maximum death among the following is: (a) Drowning (b) Road traffic accident (c) Burns (d) Poisoning Ans: b 199. Glycosylated haemoglobin reflects the mean blood glucose level of previous: (a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months Ans : c (d) 6 months 200. In RNTCP the schedule for sputum examination for category I patients is: (a) 2, 3 and 5 months (b) 2, 4 and 6 months (c) 1, 3 and 5 months Ans: b (d) 2, 5 and 7 months 201. Best indicator of trend of Tuberculosis unaffected by current control measures is: (a) Annual Risk of Infection (b) Prevalence of TB infection (c) % of primary drug resistance Ans: a (d) % of Multidrug resistance 202. Every TB sputum positive patient can infect up to: (a) 1-2 persons per year (b) 5-6 persons per year (c) 10-15 persons per year Ans: c (d) 100-200 persons per year 203. The sputum examination under DTP is done when the patient present with: (a) Cough of 1-2 wks duration 15

(b) Persistent cough of 1-2 days duration (c) Fever Ans: a (d) Chest pain 204. Target group for pulse polio immunization is (a) 0-1 years (b) 0-3 years (c) 0-5 years (d) 0-10 years Ans : c 205. OPV Vaccine type: (a) Killed (b) Live (c) Toxoid Ans: b (d) none 206. Pulse polio immunization covers: (a) 0-5 yrs children (b) 0-1 yrs children Ans: a (c) 1-5 yrs children (d) 0-2 yrs children 207. Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) includes all except: (a) Malaria (b) Respiratory infections Ans: d (c) Diarrhoea (d) Tuberculosis 208. ‘Seven Cleans’ of safe and hygienic birth practices include: (a) Clean walls and Clean floor (b) Clean towel and Clean water for hand washing Ans: b (c) Clean birth canal and Clean cord surface (d) Clean mind and Clean environment 209. According to maternal health programme the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant women should be: (a) 100 mcg (b) 200 mcg Ans: d (c) 300 mcg (d) 400 mcg 210. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goals, except: (a) Refractive errors (b) Cataract (c) Trachoma (d) Glaucoma Ans: d 211. About National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB), all are true except: (a) Increase cataract surgery rate to 450 operations per one lac population (b) Intra-ocular lens implanation in more than 80% of cataract surgery cases (c) 100% coverage of vitamin A prophylaxia doses from 9 months to 3 years age (d) Development of 50 paediatric ophthalmology units Ans c 212. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals? (a) Cataract (b) Epidemic conjunctivitis (c) Onchocerciasis Ans: b (d) Trachoma 213. All of the following are included in Vision 2020 for India except: (a) Diabetic retinopathy (b) Glaucoma Ans: c (c) Vitamin A deficiency (d) Refractive errors 214. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is: (a) High prevalence (b) Low prevalence (c) High sensitivity (d) High specificity Ans: c 215. True regarding specificity: (a) Identifies false +ve (b) Identifies false –ve (c) Identifies true +ve (d) Identifies true –ve Ans: d 216. Most number of false positives by a screening test is because of: (a) High specificity (b) High sensitivity (c) High prevalence 16

(d) Low prevalence Ans :b 217. The ability of a test to correctly diagnose the percentage of sick people who are having the condition is called as: (a) Sensitivity (b) Specificity (c) Positive predictive value (d) Negative predictive value Ans :a 218. Most important factor for a test to be a good screening test is: (a) Specificity (b) Sensitivity (c) Reliability (d) Predictive value Ans :b 219. Validity includes: (a) Sensitivity and specificity (b) Precision (c) Acceptibility (d) None Ans: a 220. If prevalence is increased, which of the following will be seen? (a) Sensitivity increase (b) Specificity decrease (c) Increase positive predictive value (d) Decrease positive predictive value Ans: c 221. Specificity measures: (a) True positive (b) True negative (c) False positive (d) False negative Ans: b 222. 65. A screening test is more sensitive: (a) Few false positive (b) Few false negative (c) More false positive (d) More false negative Ans: b 223. High false positives in a test is due to: (a) High incidence (b) High prevalence (c) High sensitivity (d) High specificity Ans: c 224. Positive predictive value of a test does not depends upon: (a) Sensitivity (b) Specificity (c) Prevalence of disease (d) Incidence of disease Ans: d 225. Sensitivity numerator is: (a) False positives (b) False negatives (c) True negatives (d) True positives Ans: d 226. Epidemiological survey of ‘at risk’ is called: (a) Survey (b) Screening (c) Surveillance (d) Rehabilitation Ans:b 227. Not a part of National Screening Programmes? (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Carcinoma cervix (c) Refractive errors (d) Dental caries Ans: d 228. Screening in general population done in cancers of: (a) Breast (b) Colon (c) Cervix (d) All of the above Ans: d 229. Route for HIV transmission with maximum efficiency is: (a) Sexual 17

(b) Transfusion of blood/blood products (c) Sharing needles/syringes (d) Mother to child transmission ans: b 230. About ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) true is all except: (a) They are preferably females (b) There is one ASHA worker per 1000 population (c) ASHA is skilled birth attendant (d) Provides primary medical care for minor ailments ans: c 231. All are included in National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) except: (a) Strengthening of JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana (b) Formation of family health and social welfare societies (c) State and district health mission (d) Recruitment and training of ASHA 232. NRHM was started in: (a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2000 ans: a 233. Mental health programme was started in (a) 1982 (b) 1987 (c) 1990 (d) 1995 ans: a 234. Maternal mortality must be reduced to less than: (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 ans: a 235. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in: (a) 1996 (b) 1993 (c) 1998 (d) 1994 ans: d 236. RTI act was passed in: (a) 2004 (b) 2005 (c) 2000 (d) 2007 ans: b 237. Population explosion is defined as population growth rate > _____ per year: (a) 1.8 (b) 2.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 3.5 ans: b 238. WHO defines adolescent age between: (a) 10-19 years of age (b) 10-14 years of age (c) 10-25 years of age (d) 9-14 years of age ans: a 239. First disability census was done in the year (a) 1881 (b) 1951 (c) 1981 (d) 2001 ans: a 240. Which is/ are true for Kerala in relation to India? (a) High literacy rate (d) Older age of marriage (e) Higher Life expectancy (d) all of the above ans: d 241. First census in India was done in? (a) 1861 (b) 1871 (c) 1881 (d) 1891 Ans: b 242. ‘Modern concept of Family Planning’ includes all except: (a) Sex education (b) Adoption services (c) Screening for cervical cancer (d) In-vitro fertilization Ans: d 243. “Pearl Index” Is normally used for studying the: (a) Effectiveness of a contraceptive (b) Unmet need for family planning (c) Prevention of undesired pregnancies and of STD in young people (d) Basis of women’s response to survey question Ans: a 244. Population control can be achieved by: (a) By spacing between the pregnancies (b) By promoting infanticide (c) By prohibiting infanticide (d) Securing maximum involvement of non-governmental agencies Ans: a 245. Barrier methods are all Except: (a) Diaphragm 18

(b) Foam tablets (c) Vaginal-sponge (d) Lippes loop Ans: d 246. ‘Today’ – a contraceptive contains: (a) Prestaglandin F 2 (b) Norethisterone (c) 9-Nonoxynol Ans: c (d) cu releasing mesh 247. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is: (a) Bleeding (b) Pain (c) Pelvic infection (d) Ectopic pregnancy Ans: a 248. Characteristics of an ideal candidate for copper – T insertion include all of the following except: (a) Has borne at least one child (b) Is willing to check IUD tail (c) Has a history of ectopic pregnancy (d) Has normal menstrual periods Ans: c 249. Copper – T is preferably inserted postnatal, after: (a) 2 weeks (b) 4 weeks (c) 5 weeks (d) 8 weeks Ans: a 250. Radioopaque material in copper-T: (a) Silicon (b) Barium sulphate (c) Carbon (d) None Ans: b 251. Which one of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication for oral contraceptive pills? (a) Nursing mothers (b) Cancer of breasts (c) Cardiac abnormalities (d) History of thrombo-embolism Ans: a 252. Absolute contraindication of IUCD is (a) Anemia (b) Diabetes (c) PID (d) Hemorrhage Ans: c 253. Contraindication of O.C.P.:s (a) Liver disease (b) Epilepsy (c) Renal disease (d) all of the above Ans: d 254. Minipill is contraceptive of choice for (a) Elderly females (b) Lactating females (c) Obese women (d) Menstruating women Ans: b 255. Serious complication of oral contraceptive is: (a) Leg vein thrombosis (b) Headache (c) Break through bleeding (d) Breast tenderness Ans: a 256. All of the following can be used as emergency contraceptive measures except: (a) Female condoms (b) IUD (c) Minipill (d) Yuzpe and Lancee Ans: a 257. Following vasectomy for family planning. A patient should be advised to use some other method of contraception, till: (a) Removal of all sutures (b) Pain completely sutures (c) Two weeks (d) 3 months Ans: d 258. Most common method of sterilization practiced in India (a) Female sterilization (b) Male sterilization (c) Both equally common (d) None Ans: a 259. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act does not protect act of termination of pregnancies after: 19

(a) 20 weeks (b) 24 weeks (c) 28 weeks (d) 30 weeks Ans: a 260. Under Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act (MTP) Act 1971 of India, permission given by: (a) Wife only (b) Husband only (c) Both wife and husband (d) Guardian Ans: a 261. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally: (a) Barrier methods (b) OCP’s (c) IUCD (d) Inj. DMPA Ans: a 262. Purest water in nature is: (a) River water (b) Rain water (c) Deep well (d) Impounding reservoirs Ans: b

263. All the following statements are true about break point chlorination, except:

(a) Free chlorine is released in water after break point chlorination (b) Chlorine demand is the amount needed to kill bacteria, oxidize organic matter and neutralize ammonia (c) 1 ppm free chlorine should be present in water after break point has reached Ans: c 264. All the following provide evidence of faecal pollution except: (a) Faecal streptococci (b) Coliform (c) Cl. Tetani Ans: c (d) Enterpathogenic virus (d) Contact period of 1 hour is necessary 265. Recommended standard for bacterial water quality in small community supplies is: (a) No coliform (b) No E coli in 100 ml (c) Coliform less than 10/100 ml (d) Coliform less than 1/100 ml Ans: a 266. Temporary hardness of water is primarily due to the presence of: (a) Calcium and magnesium sulphates (b) Calcium and magnesium chlorides (c) Calcium and magnesium bicarbonates (d) Calcium and magnesium nitrates Ans: c 267. Horrock’s apparatus estimates: (a) Free chlorine (b) Combined chlorine (c) (a) + (b) (d) Chlorine demand Ans: d 268. Ortho-toulidine test is used to determine: (a) Nitrates in water (b) Nitrites in water (c) Free and combined chlorine in water (d) Ammonia content in water Ans: c 269. Most desired temperature range for drinking water is: (a) 0-5°C (b) 5-10°C (c) 10-15°C (d) 15-20°C Ans: b 270. Most undesirable metal in drinking water is: (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Zinc Ans: d (d) Lead 271. ‘Most reliable’ evidence of fecal contamination of water is provided by: (a) Coliform bacteria (b) Cl. Perfringens (c) St. fecalis (d) Cl. Welchii Ans: a 272. “Safe and Wholesome water” does not include being: (a) Free from pathogenic agents 20

(b) Free from harmful chemical substances (c) Free from colour and odour (d) Free from chlorine Ans: d 273. All are “Water-Washed Diseases” except: (a) Scabies (b) Trachoma (c) Typhoid (d) Conjunctivitis Ans : c 274. Disinfecting action of chlorine on water is mainly due to: (a) Hydrogen chloride (b) Hypochlorous acid (c) Hypochlorite ions (d) Hydrogen ions Ans: b 275. Which of the following agents have ‘residual germicidal effect’ when used for disinfection of water: (a) Chlorine only (b) Chlorine and Ozone gas Ans: a (c) Chlorine and UV radiation (d) chlorine ,ozone gas ,and uv radiation 276. Level of hardness in soft water is ___ mEq/liter: (a) Less than 1 (b) 1-3 (c) 3-6 (d) over 6 Ans: a

277. To find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water, following is used: (a) Chloroscope (b) Chloronome (c) Horrock’s apparatus (d) Winchester Quart Bottle Ans: c 278. Indicator solution in Horrock’s Apparatus contains: (a) Ortho-toulidine (b) Starch iodide (c) Ortho-toulidine arsenite (d) Bromocresol purple Ans: b 279. Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of: (a) Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium (b) Chlorides of calcium and magnesium (c) Nitrates of calcium and magnesium (d) Oxides of calcium and magnesium Ans: a 280. When the level of hardness in water is around 150-300 mg / litre it is classified as: (a) Very hard water (b) Hard water (c) Moderately hard water Ans: b (d) Soft water 281. The minimum recommended level of residual chlorine in the drinking water is for one hour: (a) 0.25 mg/L (b) 0.5 mg/L (c) 1.0 mg/L (d) 2.0 mg/L Ans: b 282. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of: (a) E. coli (b) Coliform (c) Enterococci (d) Clostridium difficile (e) Streptococcus pyogenes Ans: c 283. Softening is recommended when hardness of water is more than: (a) 50 mg/litre (b) 75 mg/litre (c) 100 mg/litre (d) 150 mg/litre Ans: d 284. Fresh bleaching powder contains: (a) 33% chlorine (b) 3.3% chlorine (c) 0.33% chlorine (d) 0.033% chlorine Ans: a 285. Chlorination time allowed is: (a) 1/2 hour 21

(b) 1 hour (c) 1 1/2 hours (d) 2 hours Ans: b 286. When river water is stored for the first 5-7 days, the bacterial count drops by as much as: (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 90% (d) 100% Ans: c 287. One tablet of chlorine is effective to disinfect how much quantity of water: [MP 2003] (a) 5 L (b) 10 L (c) 20 L Ans: c (d) 30 L 288. Drawback of ozone as water disinfectant is: (a) No effect (b) Long time period for action (c) Teratogenicity (d) No residual action Ans: d 289. Criteria for “Problem village” include all Except: (a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community (b) Water is more than depth of 15 meter (c) There is excess of Na+, K+, F+ salts (d) Risk of Guinea worm infection Ans: d 290. Psychrometer is used to measure: (a) Humidity (b) Air velocity (c) Room temperature (d) Radiant heat Ans: a 291. Which of the following is non-natural gas causing green house effect? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane (c) Ozone (d) CFCs Ans: d 292. The best parameter to measure air pollution is: (a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) CO (d) N2O Ans: a 293. Air velocity is measured by: (a) Hygrometer (b) Psychrometer (c) Anemometer (d) Wet bulb thermometer Ans: c 294. Which agency monitors air quality in India? (a) Central Research Institute (b) Ministry if health and Family Welfare (c) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (d) Central Pollution Control Board Ans: d 295. Number of air changes in one hour in a drawing room should be not less than: (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Ans a 296. The effective temperature of ‘comfort zone’ is: (a) 69 – 76°F (b) 77 – 80 F (c) 83 – 85 F (d) 86 – 90 F Ans b 297. Kata thermometer is used nowadays to determine: (a) Air velocity (b) Humidly of air (c) Direction of air flow (d) Cooling power of air Ans: a 298. Whispering produces a sound of: (a) 20-30 dB (b) 30-40 dB (c) 40-50 dB (d) 50-60 dB Ans: a 22

299. Exposure to following minimum level of sound can cause rupture of tympanic membrane, leading to permanent hearing loss: (a) 90 dB (b) 110 dB (c) 160 dB (d) 1600db Ans: c 300. An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without damage to their hearing is: [Karnataka 2004] (a) 45 db (b) 65 db (c) 85 db (d) 105 db Ans: c 301. Recommended illumination range for regular work is ______(a) 6-12 (b) 25-50 (c) 50-75 (d) 75-100 Ans: a 302. The optimum floor space recommended per adult person in a house (a) 70–90 sq. ft. (b) 101–150 sq.ft. (c) 151–200 sq.ft. (d) 201–250 sq. ft. Ans: a 303. All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except: (a) River outfall (b) Land treatment (c) Oxidation ponds Ans: a (d) manure pits 304. Most satisfactory method of Refuse disposal is: (a) Dumping (b) Controlled tipping (c) Incineration (d) Bangalore method (Composting) Ans: d 305. The depth of Water Seal in RCA Latrine is: (a) 1 cm (b) 2 cms (c) 5 cms (d) 12 cms Ans: b 306. The biological oxygen demand (BOD) indicates: (a) Organic matter (b) Bacterial content (c) Anaerobic bacteria (d) Chemicals Ans: a

307. Waste water without human excreta is called: (a) Sewage (b) Humus (c) Sullage (d) Effluent Ans: c 308. Following latrines are suitable for camps and temporary use except: (a) Shallow trench latrine (b) Pit latrine (c) Borehole latrine (d) Septic tank Ans: d 309. Following are the waste types not to be incinerated EXCEPT: (a) Pressurized gas containers (b) Reactive chemical waste (c) Halogenated plastics (d) Content of combustible matter above 60% Ans: d 310. The sewage ground water is disposed by (a) Oxidation pond (b) Soakage pit (c) Activated sludge process (d) Any of the above Ans: c 311. If land is available the ideal method of disposal is: (a) Composting (b) Incineration (c) Controlled tipping (d) None Ans: c 312. Most important prerequisite in sanitary latrine is: (a) Water seal 23

(b) Adequate drainage (c) Squatting plate/slab (d) Smooth slope of the pan Ans: a 313. All the following wastewater contains human excreta Except: (a) Sewage (b) Sullage (c) Faeces (d) None Ans: b 314. Which of the following is not a recommended sanitation measure for swimming pool sanitation? (a) Recommended area per swimmer = 2.2 sq. metre (b) Water to be refiltered in less than 6 hours (rapid sand filters) (c) Residual level of free chlorine to be > 0.5 ppm (d) 15% water to be replaced by fresh water every day Ans: c 315. Thickness of lead apron of prevent radiation: (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.2 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 1mm Ans: c 316. Pyrethrum is a: (a) Contact poison (b) Stomach poison (c) Both of above: a + b (d) Space poison Ans: a 317. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are: (a) Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Aedes (d) Mansonia Ans: b 318. All of the following statements about mosquito are true except: (a) It is a definitive host in malaria (b) It is a definitive host in filaria (c) Its life cycle is completed in 3 weeks (d) The female can travel upto 3 kilometers Ans: b 319. Dengue fever is transmitted by: (a) Tiger mosquito (b) Jackal mosquito (c) Wolf mosquito (d) Lion mosquito Ans: a 320. Which of the following flies do not bite: (a) Sand fly (b) Housefly (c) Blackfly (d) Tse tse fly Ans : b

321. Flight range for Aedes Mosquito is (a) 10 meters (b) 100 meters (c) 400 meters (d) 11 kms Ans: b 322. Sandfly does not transmit: (a) Kala-azar (b) Oriental sore (c) Oraya fever (d) Trench fever Ans: d 323. All of the following methods are anti-larval measures except: (a) Intermittent irrigation (b) Paris green (c) Gambusia affinis (d) Pyrethrum Ans: d 324. Aedes mosquito transmit the following diseases except: (a) Yellow fever (b) Dengue fever (c) Chikungunya fever (d) Japanese encephalitis Ans: d 325. Organophosphate insecticides are all except: (a) Dieldrin (b) Propoxur (c) Lindane 24

(d) all of the above Ans: d 326. All of Vector borne diseases except: (a) Syphilis (b) Typhus (c) Dengue (d) J.E. Ans : a 327. Chikungunya is transmitted by: (a) Aedes (b) Culex (c) Mansonoides (d) Anopheles Ans: a 328. Mineral oils are used in mosquito control measure as a? (a) Personal protection methods (b) Larvicide (c) Adulticide (d) Space spray Ans: b 329. DDT is: (a) Stomach poison (b) Repellants (c) Contact poisons (d) Fumigants Ans: c 330. An example of Space Spray is: (a) Pyrethrum (b) Malathion (c) DDT (d) paris green Ans: a 331. Natural insecticide among following is: (a) Malathion (b) Pyrethrum (c) Aldrin (d) BHC Ans: b 332. Which of the following is “nuisance mosquito”? (a) Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Aedes (d) Mansonoides Ans: b 333. The nerve gas ‘sarin’ is: (a) Organophosphorous compound (b) Organchloro compound (c) Carbamate (d) Acridine ans: a 334. All are true about Pyrethrum except: (a) Residual action is similar to DDT (b) Vegetable origin (c) Contact poison (d)synergstic with DDT Ans: a 335. Mineral oils are used in mosquito control measure as a: (a) Personal protection methods (b) Larvicide (c) Adulticide (d) Space spray Ans: b 336. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts? (a) Yellow (b) Black (c) Red Ans: a (d) Blue 337. “Inertization” deals with: (a) Mixing biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal (b) Incineration of biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal (c) Dumping of Biomedical waste in sanitary landfills (d) Screw feed technology to disinfect sharps Ans: a

338. Incineration is: (a) High temperature reduction process (b) low temperature reduction process (c) High temperature oxidation process 25

(d) Low temperature oxidation process b) Low temperature reduction process Ans: c

339. Which of the following Biomedical wastes can be incinerated?

(a) Pressurized gas containers (b) Radiographic wastes (c) PVC (d) Human anatomical waste Ans: d 340. A known HIV positive patient is admitted in an isolation ward after an abdominal surgery following an accident. The resident doctor who changed his dressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood. Which of the following would be right method of choice of discarding the dressing? (a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag (b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag (c) Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send for incineration (d) Pour 2% Lysol on the dressing material and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag Ans: a 341. Safe disposal of mercury is: (a) Collect carefully and recycle (b) Controlled combustion (c) Treatment with chemicals Ans: a (d) Deep burial 342. Biodegradable waste products, disposing in which of the colour code of the bags: [UP 2008] (a) Blue (b) Black (c) Green Ans: d (d) Yellow 343. Chernobyl nuclear explosion accident occurred on 26th April, 1986. It resulted in emission of: (a) Methyl isocyanate (MI(C) (b) Union carbide (c) Ur235, Po210 (d) I131, Cs134, Cs137, Sr90 Ans : d 344. In draughts, commonly noticed vitamin deficiency is: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B Ans: a (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D 345. Most commonly reported disease in the post disaster period is: (a) Acute Respiratory Infections (b) Gastroenteritis (c) Tetanus (d) Malaria Ans: b 346. Natural disaster causing maximum deaths: (a) Hydrological (b) Meterological Ans: a (c) Geological (d) Fires 347. The gas responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy was: (a) Methyl isocyanate (b) Potassium isothiocyanate (c) Sodium isothiocyanate Ans: a (d) Ethyl isothiocyanate 348. During disaster management the following condition would be classified under international code green signal: (a) High priority treatment (b) Medium priority treatment (c) Ambulatory patient (d) Dead patients Ans: c 349. Following occupational diseases are notifiable under the Indian Factory Act, 1976 except: (a) Silicosis (b) asbestosis (c) byssinosis Ans: d (d) bagassosis 350. Ideal periodical examination of worker in an industry is done every: (a) Day (b) Month (c) Year (d) Depends on type of exposure Ans: d 26

351. ‘Safety officers’ have to be appointed in factories where no. of workers is more than: (a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 2000 (d) 5000 Ans: b 352. Lead poisoning in industries commonly occurs by: (a) Inhalation (b) Ingestion (c) Skin absorption (d) Conjunctival route Ans: a 353. Inhalation of sugarcane dust could cause:

(a) Bagassosis (b) Byssinosis (c) Tobacosis (d) Farmer’s lung Ans: a 354. All are disease manifestations associated with Low Temperature except: (a) Chilblains (b) Prickles (c) Frostbite (d) Trench foot Ans: b 355. The minimum air space per worker prescribed by Indian Factory (Amendment) Act, 1987 is: (a) 200 cu ft (b) 300 cu ft (c) 500 cu ft Ans: c (d) 700 cu ft 356. “White Fingers” may result from which of the following occupational hazards: (a) Heat (b) Cold (c) UV Radiation (d) Vibration Ans: d 357. Nearly 3/ 4th of occupational cancers are: (a) Skin Cancer (b) Lung Cancer (c) Cancer Bladder (d) Leukemias Ans: a 358. Sickness absenteeism is a useful index to assess: (a) Working environment (b) Sincerity of the workers (c) Worker management relationship (d) State of health of the workers Ans: b 359. Bagassosis is a pneumoconiosis caused by inhalation of: (a) Sugarcane dust (b) Cotton (c) Coal particles (d ) Asbestos Ans: a 360. Dust particle, in a industry is a: (a) Biological hazards (b) Chemical hazards (c) Physical hazards (d) Mechanical hazards Ans: b 361. According to the factory Act (1948), minimum space each worker should have in a factory (in Cu.ft.) is: (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 400 (d) 500 Ans: d 362. Occupational exposure that may cause sterility in females: (a) Aniline (b) Lead (c) Radon (d) Nickel Ans: b 363. Most commonly abused agent in India: (a) Cannabis indicia (b) Tobacco (c) Heroine (d) Amphetamine Ans: b 364. Best way to dispose e-waste is: 27

(a) Burning (b) Incineration (c) In a landfill (d) Recycling Ans: d 365. Environmental health includes. (a) Physical (b) Biological (c) Social (d) All of the above Ans: d 366. Purpose of environmental health. (a) Safe drinking water (b) Safe food (c) Control of disease producing organism (d) All of the above Ans: d 367. Human can remain alive. (a) Three minutes without oxygen (b) Without water for three days (c) Without foods three weeks (d) All of the above Ans: d 368. Human body consists. (a) 50% water & 50% solid (b) 60% water & 40% solid (c) 70% water & 30% solid (d) 80 % water & 20 % solid Ans: c 369. Solid waste management includes. (a) Collection (b) Segregation (c) Transportation (d) All of the above Ans: d 370. Disposal of solid waste. (a) Vermicompost (b) Aerobic method (c) Anaerobic (Bengaluru method) (d) All of the above Ans: d 371. Community dustbin should be. (a) Located outside village (b) Away from residential area (c) At least 100 meter away from water source (d) All of the above Ans: d 372. Hospital waste consist of. (a) Pathological waste (b) Communicable waste (c) Sharps and chemical waste (d) All of the above Ans: d 373. Hospital waste are labeled as. (a) Bio hazard waste (b) Cytotoxic waste (c) Pharmaceutical waste (d) All of the above Ans: d 374. Polluted air can result in. (a) Burning sensation in respiratory tract (b) Lung cancer (c) Asthma (d) All of the above Ans:d 375. Should be defecation not allowed (a) In river (b) With in 20 meter (c) Over the road towards river Ans: d (d) All of above 28

376. Mechanized cleaning of road. (a) Road should be concreate (b) Broad (c) No hanging electrical wire (d) All of the above ans d 377. To control infection disease /Epidemic. (a) To identify source of infection (b) To observe pathway of medium of spread (c) To confirm pathogen by laboratory (d) All of the above Ans: d 378. Reporting of infection disease. (a) to report incidence within 24 hours to health authority (b) It is a common practice to keep infected person in separate place (c) All details of patents to be provided to local health authority (d) All of the above Ans: d 379. Spread of disease. (a) Causative organism of disease search portal of exit from human body (b) It may be mosquito bite (c) Nasal and throat swab (d) All of the above Ans: d 380. Portal of Exit of infectious disease. (a) Nasal and throat secretion (b) Stool and urine (C) Skin (d) All of the above Ans: d 381. Role of health worker. (a) To recognize incidence of infection and to report to health authority (b) TO conduct health awareness in community (c) Organize vaccination to population (d) All of the above Ans: d 382. In communicable disease. (a) Microbiology help in identifying pathogen. (b) To identify causative organism agent which leads to disease. ©Disease may be symptomatic or asymptomatic. (d) All of the above Ans: d 383. Spread of communicable disease. (a) Direct contact (b) Droplet (c) Through fomites (d) All of the above Ans: d 384. Indirect spread of disease. (a) Vectors (b) Air bone (c) Through item used .by humans as cloths Paper etc. (d) All of the above Ans: d 385. Immunity can be. (a) Natural (b) Acquired immunity (c) Vaccines, immunoglobulins (d) All of the above Ans: d 387. Some communicable disease are. (a) Swain flu (b) Covid 19 (c) Influenza (d) All of the above Ans: d 388. Incubation period. (a) Time taken from day of infection (b) Appearance of 1st symptom (c) Time taken from day of infection to appearance of 1st symptom 29

(d) All of the above Ans: c 389. Influenza. (a) Is a worldwide disease (b) Is respiratory path way infection (c) Spread is due to coughing and thrum Droplet infection (d) all of the above Ans: c 390. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. (a) Cause of concern in developing countries (b) Co – partner of Aids (c) A bacterial infection by miccobactrom tuber cult (d) All of the above Ans: d 391. In Tuberculosis. (a) Due to saliva, cough when active (b) Due to droplets (c) Incubation period is 3 to 6 weeks (d) All of the above Ans: d 392. Diagnosis of tuberculosis. (a) Sputum test (b) Mantoux test (c) X-Ray, chest, other part of body (d) All of the above Ans: d 393. P. Tuberculosis to be doubted. (a) Regular coughing 3 to 4 weeks (b) Continuous fever (c) Chest pain, hemoptysis (d) All of the above Ans: d 394. Drug used for treatment of tuberculosis. (a) Rifampicin (b) I N H (c) Pyrazinamide, streptomycin (d) All of the above Ans:d 395. BCG vaccination is for available. (a) Malaria (b) Chicken pox (c) Tuberculosis (d) Swain flu Ans: c 396. Type of Hepatitis. . (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All of the above Ans: d 397. Hepatitis ‘B’ infection. (a)Through Blood (b) Sexual discharge, contact (c) Through infected mother to baby (d) All of the above Ans: d 398. Typhoid is. (a) Salmonella typhi infection (b) Human is source (c) Infection is due to stool and urine (d) All of the above Ans: d 399. Health worker should educate population. (a) Hand wash (b) To disinfected water (c) Vegetables and fruits to be washed properly (d) All of the above Ans: d 400. Food poisoning. (A) Due to salmonella (b) Is common 30

(c) Food should be cooked well, served hot (D) All of the above Ans: d 401. Malaria is due to. (a) Mosquito Bite (b) Causative organism is plasmodium (c) People can die due to malignant Malaria (d) All of the above Ans: d 402. Dengue is. (a) Mosquito transmitted disease (b) A cause of concern in India in last few Decade (c) No vaccine is available (d) All of the above Ans: d 403. About Rabies. (a) Known as hydrophobia (b) This is most dangerous infective disease of central nervous system (c) Due to animal bite & licking of broken skin. (d) All of the above Ans: d 404. Regarding vaccine for rabies. (a)Pre- exposure vaccine. (b) Post-exposure vaccine (c) Total 5-6 dose has to be taken following dog bite (d) All of the above Ans d 405. KALAJAR. (a) Due to leismonia parasite (b) Due to Female sand fly bite (c) In India human is only host (d) All of the above Ans: d 406. To control KALAJAAR. (a) Control sand fly (b) Personal protection – use of mosquito net (c) Aldehyde test is for diagnosis (d) All of the above Ans: d 407. About tetanus. (a) It is most fatal disease (b) Vaccine is available (c) Mother and all children are immunized for prevention (d) All of the above Ans: d 408. About Leprosy. (a) It is a long time duration disease (b) There is sensory loss in limbs (c) Nerve are thickened. (d) All of the above Ans: d 409. Sexually transmitted disease. (a) Syphilis (b) Gonorrhea (c) AIDS (D) All of the above Ans: d 410. Cancer is. (a) Abnormal increase of size of any part of body (b) Can spread at distant location of body (c) Cervical cancer is a common cancer in female. (d) All of the above Ans: d 411. About diabetes. (a) It is a long duration disease (b) Due to deficient secretion of insulin (c) It is type 1 & type 2 (d) All of the above Ans: d 412. About obesity (a) Due to increase in fat deposition in body 31

(b) If BMI is more than 30 in male and 28.6 in female is status of obesity (c) Obesity can be in all age group (d) All of the above Ans: d 413. Blindness is due to. (a) Cataract is most common cause (b) Vit-A deficiency (c) Corneal Opacity (d) All of the above Ans: d 414. Accidents is. (a) Modern world epidemic (b) About 9% death is due to accident (c) Safety awareness can minimize accident (d) All of the above Ans: d 415. IEC. (a) Is a tool for health awareness. (b) Maps, chart, film, pamphlets TV etc. are tool (c) Community participation (d) all of the above Ans:d 416. School health is. (a) Yearly medical checkup (b) About 27% of student population is covered (c) Awareness among students about disease (d) All of the above Ans: d 417. Human body Needs. (a) Protein, fat, carbohydrate (b) Vitamins (C) Minerals (D) All of the above Ans: d 418. Human body amino acid. (a) Lysine (b) Levine (c) Threonine (d) All of the above Ans: d 419. Some vitamins. (a) Retinol (b) Cholecalciferol (c) Niacin (d) All of the above Ans: d 420. Iodine deficiency can result in. (a) Goiter (b) Hypothyroidism (c) Cretinism (d) All of the above Ans: d 421. Protein Energy malnutrition PEM. (a) Malnutrition (b) Incidence in 0-6 year old children (c) Marasmus is due to food starvation (d) All of the above Ans: d 422. Eating house Norms. (a) Should have three Rooms-serving, kitchen and store (b) Serving room should have at least 100 SQ feet (c) Kitchen should have smooth surface and wall easy to clean (d) All of the above Ans: d 423. Slaughter house norms. (a) Regularly inspected by health inspector (b) Should have mechanized equipment (C) To be inspected before and after slaughter (d) All of the above Ans: d 424. Investigation of an epidemic consist. 32

(a) Diagnosis confirmation (b) Detail of epidemic and 1st person infected (c) Source of infection (d) All of the above Ans: d 425. Common Laboratory examination. (a) From stool (b) Blood (c) Sputum (d) All of the above Ans: d 426. Good quality of fish. (a) Without smell (b) Fish eye Should be transparent (c) Gills of fish should be pink (d) All of the above. Ans: d 427. Human survival require. (a) Air (b) Water (c) Food (d) All of the above Ans: d 428. Water in body maintain. (a) Compensate water loss of tissue (b) Maintain liquidity of blood (c) Remove toxic waste of body by flow of liquid. (d) All of the above Ans: d 429. Safe water should be. (a) Free from pathogen (b) Free from toxic chemical (c) Free from colour & smell (d) all of the above Ans: d 430. Water is available on earth. (a) Rain water as main source (b) Accumulated water source ponds, river (c) Under ground source –Tube well, well (d) All of the above Ans: d 431. Suitable site for well. (a) Type of soil (b) If flooded in rainy season then not suitable (c) Any source of contamination near by then not suitable (d) All of the above Ans: d 432. Water delivery system PVE pipe. (a) Is rust free (b) Strong (c) Suitable for under sound system (d) All of the above Ans: d 433. World water days is celebrated. (a) 22 March (b) 23 March (c) 24 June (d) 21 April Ans: a 434. Water purification is based on. (a) Boiling (b) Filtering (c) Chlorination (d) All of the above Ans: d 435. Solid waste is generated. (a) From house hold (b) Commercial place (c) Industrial place (d) All of the above Ans: d 33

436. Solid waste management consists (a) Collection of waste (b) Segregation of waste (c) Transportation and disposal (d) All of the above Ans: d 437. For Low-cost disposal of solid waste. (a) Vermi composting (b) Natural composting (c) Avea method (d) All of the above Ans: d 438. In rural area waste is disposed. (a) From community dustbin (b)Composting at deserted place © All house should have own toilet (d) All of the above Ans: d 439. Hospital waste management. (a) Done by authorized agency only (b) Colour code for covered dustbins (c) Use of chemical for disinfection (d) All of the above Ans: d 440. Paramedical staff should practice safety measure. (a) While giving injection, collecting blood samples (b) While conducting delivery, and workng in Lab (c) While working for disposal of Bio-medical waste (d) All of the above Ans: d 441. Human takes and release during respiration. (a) Human takes 20.9% of O2 and release 16.5% of O2 (b) Takes 0.04% of CO2 and release 4.4% (c) Takes 79% of nitrogen and release 79% (d) All of the above Ans: d 442. Corban dioxide source are. (a) Respiration (b) Burning (c) Volcano (d) All of the above Ans: d 443. Polluted air can result in. (a) Headache (b) Giddiness (c) Weakness, loss of memory (d) All of the above Ans: d 444. Comfortable room should have. (a) Ventilation in rooms should be 10 times (b) No dust in air (c) Humidity of air should be between 65-70% (d) All of the above Ans: d 445. Air pollution is a health hazard i.e. (a) Toxic gas can result in death and other adverse effect (b) Burning in eye, Respiratory distress (c) Lung cancers, Br Asthma distress (d) All of the above Ans: d 446. Air pollution can be controlled by. (a) Limited use of coal & petroleum oil. (b) Use of electric powered transportation (C) Tree plantation (d) All of the above Ans: d 447. Housing should have. (a) Should have kitchen, toilet, ventilator (b) Should not be noise producing (c) Surface should be concrete, and should have at least two rooms with veranda 34

(d) All of the above Ans: d 448. Ventilation help in. (a) Proper O2 supply (b) Maintaining temp and humidity (c) Remove bad smells from room (d) All of the above Ans: d 449. Natural lighting. (a) Natural light i.e. sun light which is essential for human, tree and animal (b) Sun light is a good pathogen destroyer (c) VIT-D synthesis (d) All of the above Ans: d 450. Artificial Light facts. (a) Artificial light is required for 24 hours work for transportation and industries (b) Electric Bulb, LED (c) Light from artificial source should not be blinking (d) All of the above Ans: d 451. Radiation from other planets (a) Main source of radiation is natural i.e. cosmic rays (b) Atomic explosion (c) Man made radiation i.e. uranium mine (d) All of the above Ans: d 452. Accepted decibel value for sound are. (a) In bed room- 25 decibel (b) Living room – 40 decibel (c) School class 30-40 decibel (d) All of the above Ans: d 453. In Kumbh mela/ Large gathering of people in camp desired requirement are. (a) Housing (b) Medical facility & sanitation (c) Safe water (d) All of the above Ans: d 454. Food seller should maintain. (a) All container, Bowel should be clean (b) Can’t sell any item not mentioned in his license. (c) All should wear cleaned dress daily (d) All of the above Ans: d 455. Ice-cream (Ready to eat) seller. (a) Should keep ice-cream in a refrigerator, ice Box (b) All vendor should be free from any contagious disease (c) Ice cream should not be taken over counter, only take away system (d) All of the above Ans: d 456. Cold storage should maintain (a) Should be pukka. And easily washable (b) No drain should pass through cold storage (c) Cold storage should be free from dust, humidity and fly (d) All of the above Ans: d 457. Pan seller should maintain (a) His feet should not touch any item (b) Items used should be kept in a clean container (c) Seller should have frequent Nail trimming (d) All of the above Ans: d 458. Swimming pool manager should maintain. (a) Should have toilet for use of swimmer (b) Should take bath in bath room before interring in swimming pool (c) Swimmer should be free from skin disease, cold cough, ear or nasal discharging person (d) All of the above Ans: d 459. Parlor, salon should have (a) Floor should be cleaned thrice daily 35

(b) All surface should be plain and to be cleaned before and after (c) All hair and waste should be collected frequently from salon and collected in dustbin (d) All of the above Ans: d 460. Train coach maintainer. (a) At terminal station complete washing of rake (b) Proper use of disinfectant (c) Use of paste controller (d) All of the above Ans: d 461. Office manager should maintain. (a) All table, chair should be dusted wet cleaned before arrival of employee (b) Floor should be wet cleaned (c) All employee should clean computer before starting work (d) All of the above Ans: d 462. Regarding septic Tank system part. (a) Air communication pipe (b) Inspection chamber (c) Manhole (d) all of the above Ans: d 463. Temp of air is measured by. (a) Dry bulb thermometer (b) Well bulb thermometer (c) Maximum thermometer (d) All of the above Ans: d 464. Air velocity is measured by meter per second m/s. (a) Quite air flow 0.5 m/s (b) Strong air flow 10 m/s (c) Cyclone 30-35 m/s (D) All of the above Ans: d 465. GOVT. trying to remove huts and slum by. (a) Removal of huts and providing alternative accommodation (b) Govt construct new house over owner land (c) Proper road and safe water supply system in slum (d) All of the above Ans: d 466. Source of calcium. (a) Cow milk (b) egg (c) Sitafal (d) All of the above Ans: d 467. Requirement of calcium. (a) In Adult-400mg (b) Lactating women – 1000mg (c) children 400mg-600mg (D) All of the above Ans: d 468. Vit-E facts are. (a) Water soluble (b) heat Labile (c) Adult require 40mg/day (d) All of the above Ans: d 469. Iron facts are. (a) Iron in human body is mainly in hemoglobin and myoglobin (b) Fish, Egg, pulse and green leaves are main source (c) Iron deficiency result in anemia (d) All of the above Ans: d 470. Fluorine facts are. (a) Essential for bone and teethes proper development (b) If taken in large amount develop skeletal fluorosis (c) Main source is water and food (d) All of the above Ans: d 36

471. Some trace minerals is necessary for body. (a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Cobalt (d) All of the above Ans: d 472. Regarding folic acid source. (a) Liver (b) Vegetables (c) Soybean (d) All of the above Ans: d 473. VIT-B6 Fact are. (a) Required in metabolism of Amino acid (b) Available in fish (c) Its shortage results in peripheral neuritis (D) All of the above Ans: d 474. VIT-B1 facts are. (a) It is water soluble (b) Available in whole wheats, ground nut (c) All of the above Ans: d 475. Vitamin B2 facts are. (a) Due to shortage stomatitis and glossitis occurs (b) Main source are green vegetable, cow milk, Egg etc (c) Thiamine (B-1) deficiency cause Beri-Beri disease (d) All of the above Ans: d 476. VIT-B12 facts are (a) Also called cyanocobalamin (b) Involved in DNA formation (c) Deficiency result in megaloblastic anemia (d) all of the above Ans: d 477. Vitamin B4 facts are. (a) Named as niacin/nicotinic acid (b) It is water soluble (c) Source are, wheat, rice and pulse (D) All of the above Ans: d 478. Vit-D facts are. (a) Deficiency result in Rickets in children (b) Deficiency results in osteomalacia (c) Deficiency in development of teethes (d) All of the above Ans: d 479. Marasmus disease sign &symptoms are. (a) Deficiency in Calories (b) Loss of muscle (c) Loss of weight (d) All of the above Ans: d 480. KWASHIORKAR disease sign and symptoms are. (a) Deficiency in protein (c) Mental changes seen (d) Depigmentation (d) All of the above Ans: d 481. Lathyrism disease facts. (a) Due to KHESARI pulse (b) A disease of nervous system (c) It consist a toxic chemical (d) All of the above Ans: d 482. ERGOTISM facts are. (a) Due to ergot fungus of agriculture origin (b) Mixed with mustered plants (c) black colour (d) All of the above Ans: d 37

483. Epidemic dropsy facts are. (a) Toxic poison is sanguinarine (b) Swelling in both legs (c) Person may die due to heart failure and respiratory problem (d) All of the above Ans: d 484. Nitric acid test is conducted. (a) To detect sanguinarine (b) It indicate argemon oil presence (c) Orange colour change indicate presence of argemon oil (d) All of the above Ans: d 485. Food standard are. (a) ISI standard (b) Agg mark (c) Fssai (d) All of the above Ans:d 486. National nutation program are. (a) Mid-day meal program (b) Applied nutrition program (c) VIT-A prophylaxis program (d) All of the above Ans: d 487. Healthy Egg observation. (a) No sound by shaking (b) Should not float (c) Bad smell if broken (d) All of the above Ans: d 488. Good quality meat. (a) Meat should be shining like Marble (b) colour should not be yellow or deep violet (c) No smell (d) All of the above Ans: d 489. Chicken pox facts are. (a) Belong to a virus varicella. (b) Fever and restless is common (c) Generally in children (d) All of the above Ans:d 490. Measles facts are. (a) Throughout world (b) it is a Rna virus (c) Source of infection is infected human (d) All of the above Ans: d

491. Polio is due to: (a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Protozoa (d) Fungus Ans: a 492. Chicken pox vaccine is: (a) Live vaccine (b) Killed vaccine (c) Conjugated vaccine (d) Toxoid vaccine Ans: a 493. Measles vaccine is not given before: (a) 9 months (b) 12 months (c) 15 months (d) 18 months Ans: a 494. A herd immunity of over____ % is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria: (a) 70% (b) 55% (c) 60% (d) 65% Ans: a 495. Treatment of choice for diphtheria carriers is: (a) Erythromycin 38

(b) Tetracycline (c) Penicillin (d) DPT Ans: a 496. A child with pertussis should be isolated for: (a) 1-2weeks (b) 2-4weeks (c) 3-4weeks (d) 4-6weeks Ans: c 497. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in humans is most common because of: (a) Contact (b) Inhalation (c) Infiltration (d) Inoculation Ans: b 498. One of the following is known as Tuberculin Conversion Index: (a) Incidence of infection (b) Prevalence of infection (c) Incidence of disease (d) Prevalence of disease Ans: a 499. National tuberculosis institute is situated at: (a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (c) Bangalore (d) Delhi Ans: c 500. BCG is: (a) Live attenuated vaccine (b) Killed vaccine (c) Toxoid (d) Immunosuppressant agent Ans: a