Final Exam Review Sheet

Study of Life

1. _____ Biology is the study of a. animals only c. plants b. small living things only d. all living things

2. _____ The condition of a constant internal environment or steady state in an organism is a. homeostasis c. assimilation b. specialization d. metabolism

3. _____ How many experimental variables are present in a valid controlled experiment a. none c. one or two b. only one d. as many as needed

4. _____ The period of time from which an organism is born until it dies is known as a. irratibility c. time span b. life span d. stimulation

5. _____ A fact of nature that has been confirmed many times by observation and can not be broken is known as a(n) a. hypothesis c. theory b. scientific law d. observation

6. _____ A theory is a summarizing statement of observed experimental facts that has been tested many times and is accepted as true.

7. An educated guess is known as a (an) ______.

8. List the five characteristics of living organisms. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

9. Pea plant clones are given different amounts of water for a three-week period. First pea plant receives 400 milliliters. The second pea plant receives 200 milliliters. The third pea plant receives 100 milliliters. The fourth pea plant does not receive any extra water; the plant only receives natural ways of receiving water. They are each placed under 100W bulbs and receive 10 hours of light. They are grown in 5 L of soil, and are housed at room temperature. The height of pea plants is recorded daily.

Identify the following: control group, experimental group/groups, independent, dependent, experimental and controlled variables/constants.

Inorganic Chemstry

1. _____ A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n) a. nucleus c. element b. molecule d. cell 2. _____ Which of the following states of matter contains particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. solid and liquid 3. _____ Atoms are composed of a. protons with a positive charge c. electrons with a negative charge b. neutrons with no charge d. all of the above

4. _____ Any substance that consists of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio is a(n) a. molecule c. covalent molecules b. compound d. ions

5. _____ In a solution, the substance that does the dissolving is known as the a. solute c. dissolvent b. solvent d. a and c

6. ______is the universal solvent and is the most common solvent in cells.

7. A substance that dissolves in another is called a(n) ______.

8. The type of change in which the identity of a substance does not change is known as a(n) ______change.

Organic Chemistry

1. _____ Each of the following is a a major type of organic compound EXCEPT a. proteins c. water b. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates

2. _____ Which statement about organic compounds is CORRECT? a. all contain carbon c. none can be made in chemistry labs b. all contain nitrogen d. they contain most of the 90 natural elements

3. _____ The main function of glucose is a. to act as an enzyme c. to form nucleic acids b. to assist in protein synthesis d. to act as a source of energy

4. _____ Which of the following are NOT lipids? a. fats c. waxes b. oils d. enzymes

5. _____ The building blocks of proteins are a. glycerol c. glucose b. amino acids d. fatty acids

6. _____ T/F If a substance has a pH of 3, it is considered to be acidic.

7 Neutral ph is ______.

8. An organic catalyst is a(n) ______.

9. The name of an enzyme usually ends in ______. 10. The substance on which on an enzyme acts is a ______.

11. What two factors will denature and enzyme? ______, ______

The Cell

1. _____ The part of the cell that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is the a. nucleus c. cytoplasm b. nuclear envelope d. cell membrane

2. _____ Most biological membranes are a. impermeable c. slightly permeable b. selectively permeable d. highly permeable

3. _____ The powerhouse of the cell which provides its energy is the a. plastid c. mitochondria b. chloroplast d. Golgi apparatus

4. _____ Cells that do not have a nucleus are said to be a. selectively permeable c. eukaryotic b. osmotic d. prokaryotic

5. _____ T/F The tough fibrous substance which comprises most of woody plants is pectin.

6. _____ T/F The basic units from which cell membranes are constructed are lipid bilayers.

7. _____ If two substances of different concentrations are present on either side of a semipermeable membrane, the substances move toward the area of higher concentration until all motion ceases.

8. The basic unit of structure and function in living things is the ______.

9. _____ The process that requires energy to move molecules of different concentrations across a cell membrane is known as active transport.

10. You are observing a cell under the microscope. How do you know whether the cell is a typical plant cell or typical animal cell? (differentiate them)

11. Name and explain the functions of the four different cell membrane proteins.

Cell Transport

1. Name the three types of osmotic solutions and how animal and plant cells respond to them. Name the solution, concentrations of water in and out of the cell, which way the water will move and the end shape of the cell.

2. How do osmosis and diffustion differ? What type of cell transport are they? Photosynthesis/Respiration

1. _____ The process that involves oxygen and breaks down food molecules to release energy is a. respiration c. lactic acid fermentation b. alcoholic fermentation d. glycolysis

2. _____ The products of photosynthesis are a. glucose and O2 c. H2O and CO2 b. glucose and CO2 d. H2 and O2

3. _____ The CO2 bubbles in beers and wines are a by product produced in a. lactic acid fermentation c. aerobic respiration b. alcoholic fermentation d. photosynthesis 4. _____ Fermentation enables cellular respiration to continue under a. anaerobic conditions c. photosynthetic conditions b. aerobic conditions d. none of the above

5. _____ Most plants are heterotrophic.

6. _____ The total amount of ATP that a cell gains for each glucose molecule that enters glycolysis depends on the presence of carbon dioxide.

7. _____ The light reactions of photosynthesis can occur only under light conditions and the dark reactions can only occur during the dark hours.

8. _____ Glycolysis breaks down glucose into two pyruvic acids.

9. _____ Lactic acid fermentation is a type of anaerobic process which causes muscle soreness.

10. _____ The major light absorbing pigment in plant photosynthesis is chlorophyll.

11. _____ In what organelle does cellular respiration occur?

12. Distinguish between autotrophs and heterotrophs.

DNA/Protein Synthesis

1. _____ After DNA replication, the two DNA molecules that are made a. are complementary c. must replicate again b. are identical d. cannot replicate again

2. _____ In RNA, the code word AUG that specifies methoinine can also serve as a(an) a. anticodon c. start codon b. termination codon d. stop codon

3. _____ Cytosine and thymine are a. phosphates c. purines b. nucleic acids d. pyrimidines

4. _____ The two strands of a DNA helix are a. purines c. complementary b. pyrimidines d. identical 5. _____ The backbone of a chain of nucleotides consists of a. sugar and phosphate groups c. phosphate group b. nitrogenous bases d. deoxyribonucleic acid

6. _____ In messenger RNA , each codon specifies a particular a. nucleotide c. amino acid b. purine d. pyrimidine

7. _____ Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA in a process known as a. translation c. transformation b. replication d. transcription

8. _____ The genetic code in DNA depends upon the order , or sequence of a. nucleotides c. sugars b. phosphate groups d. purines

9. _____ The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is a. translation c. transformation b. replication d. transcription

10. _____ When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and attaches to the end of a growing protein chain.

11. Name the three types of RNA and tell the function of each.

12. Describe the steps of replication, transcription, and translation in protein synthesis.

Cell Division/Meiosis

1. _____ Which cells in the normal human body rarely undergo cell division? a. skin c. digestive tract b. bones d. nerves

2. _____ As a result of mitosis in a human body cell, the nucleus of each daughter cell contains a. 46 chromosomes c. 92 chromosomes b. 23 chromosomes d. 36 chromosomes

3. _____ The type of asexual reproduction that occurs in bacteria and prokaryotes is a. binary fission c. meiosis b. mitosis d. none of the above

4. _____ The repeating sequence of growth and division through which many eukaryotic cells pass is called a. the cell cycle c. cytokinesis b. binary fission d. meiosis

5. _____ The correct sequence of the phases of mitosis is a. interphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase d. prophase, interphase, anaphase, telophase 6. _____ The G 1, G 2, S, and M phases are all part of a. cytokinesis c. prophase b. anaphase d. interphase

7. _____ In most cases a living thing grows because it produces a. useless cells c. larger cells b. more cells d. smaller cells

8. _____ During the cell cycle checkpoints are used to insure that the cell will go directly into mitosis.

9._____ Cytokinesis begins when the cytoplasm divides and the cell membrane pinches inward.

10. _____ Spindles move chromosomes during cell division.

11. _____ A gene is a triplet codon of DNA.

12. _____ Cells can not grow indefinitely because the volume grows faster than the surface area of the cell.

13. _____ The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid.

14. The pinched cell membrane that completes cytokinesis in an animal cell is the ______.

15. _____ Most of the cell’s life is spent in telophase

16. During the cell cycle, if the DNA is not replicated properly, what two events could occur?

17. Explain why it is important for gametes to be haploid.

18. Describe in detail the steps of the two stages of meiosis. What is the end result of meiosis I and meiosis II ? Be sure to describe what crossing over is and why it is important.

Mendelian Genetics

1. _____ allele a. the outward appearance or expressed form of a trait b. form of a trait that is not expressed 2. _____ genotype c. branch of biology that focuses on heredity d. passing of traits from parents to offspring 3. _____ recessive e. set of the alleles of the genes an individual has f. different form of a gene 4. _____ phenotype g. comparison of two numbers

5. _____ genetics

6. _____ Which of the following is a genotype of an individual heterozygous for a trait? a. Rr c. YY b. tt d. Pr

7. _____ Which of the following is a genotype for an individual homozygous for a trait? a. Rr c. YY b. Tt d. Pr 8. _____ The genotype of an individual that shows the dominant phenotype can be determined by crossing it with an individual that is a. heterozygous recessive c. homozygous dominant b. heterozygous dominant d. homozygous recessive

9. _____ The effect of a recessive allele is not observed while the dominant allele is present according to Mendel’s principle of a. segregation c. dominance b. independent assortment d. blending inheritance

10. _____ The physical appearance of an individual is its a. phenotype c. heredity b. genotype d. alleles

11. _____ If an organism has two identical alleles for a trait, it is a. homozygous c. heterozygous b. homozygous dominant d. heterozygous recessive

12. _____ When two hybrid organisms are crossed, the offspring will probably show a phenotypic ratio of a. 1:1 c. 1:3:1 b. 1:2:1 d. 3:1

13. _____ If a family has four sons, the probability that the next child will be a boy is a. 1/2 c. 1/5 b. 1/4 d. 4/5

14. _____ If any offspring from a test cross shows a recessive phenotype, the parent with the unknown genotype is a. heterozygous dominant c. homozygous dominant b. heterozygous recessive d. homozygous recessive

15. _____ During meiosis, the production of new gene combinations in the chromosomes results from a. homologs c. crossing over b. fertilization d. two factor cross

16. Different forms of a gene are called ______.

17. Chromosomes that are of the same size and same gene banding patterns are ______.

18. _____ Cells that contain a single set of chromosomes are said to be haploid (N).

19. _____ If genes are not connected, they undergo independent assortment.

20. _____ Mendel’s law of segregation states that traits which are dominant always appear together.

21. _____ Groups or packages of genes located on one chromosome which are usually inherited together are a. sex linked c. homologous b. loci d. linkage groups

22. _____ The sex chromosomes in the female and male respectively (in order) are a. YY, XX c. XX, XY b. XY, XX d. XXY, XXX 23. _____ Sex linked genes are usually located on which of the chromosomes a. Y c. autosomes b. either one d. X

24. _____ Which process causes new combinations of genes a. crossing over c. mitosis b. replication d. synthesis

25. When a mouse with black fur is crossed with a mouse with white fur, all F1 generation offspring have gray fur. a) What genotypic and phenotypic ratios be expected in the F2? b) Is this incomplete or co-dominance? Why?

26. In cattle hair color shows co-dominance. Red is dominant, and white is recessive. In the heterozygous condition co-dominance is shown as a roan (something of a light red due to a mixture of red and white hairs) coat color. If a roan bull and a roan cow are mated over several years and produce 12 offspring. a) Show the genotype and phenotype ratios of the offspring. b) How many of the offspring would be expected to be white? Roan?

27. In dogs, spotted coats (S) are dominant over solid coats (s). Suppose two heterozygous spotted dogs are crossed. a. What would be the resultant genotypic ratio of the offspring? b. What would be the resultant phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

28. _____ Which is more likely to occur when genes are far apart on a chromosome? a. crossing over c. deletion b. translocation d. insertion

29. _____ In normal dominance why do hybrids show the dominant phenotype? a. two alleles are active b. two alleles are inactive c. an active allele compensates for an inactive allele d. an active allele does not compensate for an inactive allele

30. _____ In most cases a dominant allele codes for a. tRNA c. a polypeptide that works b. rRNA d. a polypeptide that does not work

31. _____ In a trait that shows incomplete dominance, the a. active allele compensates for the inactive allele b. active allele does not compensate for the inactive allele c. two alleles are active d. two alleles are inactive

32. Traits controlled by two or more genes are called ______.

33. Sex linked traits tend to show up more often in which sex?______

34. Which parental sex determines the sex of the offspring? ______

35. The condition in which both alleles for a trait are expressed is ______.

36. When non disjunction occurs, the condition where cells have extra copies of chromosomes is known as ______. 37. Name and describe the two types of gene mutations. Use drawings to demonstrate the resultant mutant DNA.

38. Name and describe the four types of chromosome mutations. Use drawings to demonstrate the resultant mutant DNA in each type.

39. In Drosophila, plump body is a dominant trait, and wrinkled body is a sex lined recessive trait. A female Drosophila of unknown genotype was crossed with a wrinkled body male fly, of genotype XpY. Half of the male and half of the female offspring were plump bodied and half of the male and half of the female offspring were wrinkled bodied. What was the genotype of the female fly?

Human Inheriance

1. _____ Rh blood groups are examples of human traits that are a. determined by multiple alleles c. polygenic b. sex linked d. sex influenced

2. _____ A person who is considered the universal receiver and can receive a transfusion of any ABO blood group must be blood type a. A c. AB b. B d. O

3. _____ Hemophelia is caused by a a. dominant gene on the X chromosome c. recessive gene on the X chromosome b. dominant gene on the Y chromosome d. recessive gene on the Y chromosome

4. _____ If a person has the genotype of Hh in reference to Huntington’s disease, they would a. carry the disease b. be normal b. express the disease d. be resistant to malaria

5. _____ If a man’s genotype for the Rh factor is Rh+ Rh-, his phenotype is a. codominant for Rh factor c. Rh negative b. incompletely dominant for Rh factor d. Rh positive

6. _____Which is not an example of a polygenic human trait? a. ABO blood types c. hair color b. skin color d. weight

7. _____ Eye color is an example of a. multiple alleles c. polygenic inheritance b. sex linked inheritance d. non- disjunction

8. _____ In humans, sex is determined by the a. presence of 2 X chromosomes c. presence or absence on an X chromosome b. number of chromosomes d. presence or absence of a Y chromosome

9. Each human sperm cell contains ______autosomes.

10. _____ A display or picture of all the chromosomes in a cell is called a karyotype.

11. _____ Human chromosomes can be studied for genetic disorder by by removing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the embryo in a procedure called amneocentesis. 12. _____ A pedigree is a family record (tree) that shows how a trait is inherited over generations.

13. _____ Beard growth is a sex limited trait.

14. _____ In blood types, antigens A and B are co-dominant with O.

15. Distinguish between traits controlled by multiple alleles and polygenic traits.

Evolution

1. _____ The long slow process of change in a species over times is a. fitness c. diversity b. adaptation d. evolution

2. _____ Sedimentary rocks form when layers of small particles are compressed a. in the desert c. in the mountains b. in a snow field d. under water

3. _____ Darwin called the combination on physical traits and behaviors that help organisms survive a. fitness c. diversity b. adaptation d. common descent

4. _____ The human appendix is an example of a(an) a. homologous structure c. vestigial organ b. essential organ d. embryonic structure

5. _____ The majority of all fossils are found in a. amber c. sedimentary rock b. sand d. running water

6. _____ The process of carbon dating of fossils is based upon the fact that half the atoms of unstable radioactive isotopes decay in a specific time period. This time period is called a. half radioactive decay c. half time span b. half life d. half dating

7. _____ An organisms ability to survive and reproduce is known as a. fitness c. adaptation b. evolution d. homology

8. _____ The fossil record indicates that several times in the past, huge numbers of species have disappeared suddenly in a phenomenon known as a. speciation c. convergent evolution b. divergent evolution d. mass extinction

9. _____ Farmers change the gene pool of a population by a. artificial selection c. natural selection b. adaptive radiation d. convergent evolution

10. _____ All the individuals of the same species in a given area that breed and reproduce form a a. gene pool c. phenotype b. niche d. population 11. _____ Evolution does not occur unless something upsets a population’s a. genotype c. genetic equilibrium b. phenotype d. camouflage

12. _____ The evolution of one hump and two hump camels is probably the result of a. convergent evolution c. divergent evolution b. genetic drift d. adaptation

13. _____ According to Darwin, the process in which organisms best suited to their environment survive and reproduce is called a. convergent evolution c. natural selection b. divergent evolution d. artificial selection

14. _____ A bat wing, human arm, whale flipper, and dog leg are all examples of a. adaptive radiation c. vestigial structures b. homologous structures d. convergent evolution

15. _____ The length of time it takes for one half of a radioactive element to decay is a (an) a. era c. year b. half life d. epoch

16. _____ Change in a species over time is called a. fitness c. diversity b. evolution d. relative dating

17. _____ The combination of an organism’s habitat and its role in that habitat is called speciation.

18. _____ A random change in a gene frequency is known as genetic drift.

19. All the members of a population share the same genes or ______.

20. Natural selection is also known as ______of the ______.

21. The theory that evolutionary change occurs slowly and gradually is known as ______.

22. Explain how natural selection might produces a modern giraffe from short necked ancestors.

Ecology

1. _____ The nitrogen cycle is most directly dependent upon the a. process of transpiration in autotrophs b. ability of consumers to move from place c. metabolic activities of soil bacteria d. evaporation of water from the Earth’s surface

2. _____ The largest biome on the Earth is the a. marine biome c. taiga b. tundra d. desert biome

3. _____ Most of our area of New Jersey is located in which land biome? a. tropical rain forest c. grassland b. tundra d. temperate deciduous forest 4. _____ The type of climax vegetation that grows in a certain geographical area is most directly influenced by the a. climatic limitations of the area b. dominant biotic factors present c. number of consumers present d. complexity of the food webs in the area.

5. _____ Which of the following describes a pioneer species a. large, grow slowly, reproduce slowly, disperse very few seeds b. large, grow quickly, reproduce quickly, disperse very few seeds c. small, grow slowly, reproduce slowly, disperse many seeds d. small, grow quickly, reproduce quickly, disperse many seeds

6. _____ In order to avoid predators, the clown fish hides unharmed in the stinging tentacles of the sea anemone. The clown fish attracts food to the sea anemone. This is an example of a type of relationship known as a. mutualism c. predator- prey b. commensalisms d. parasitism

7. _____ Compared with the energy received from producers by animals in the second trophic level, animals in the third trophic level receive about a. 1 percent less energy c. 10 percent less energy b. 1 percent more energy d. 10 percent more energy

8. _____ Which is an example of an ecosystem? a. a population of monarch butterflies b. the interdependent biotic and abiotic components of a pond c. all the biotic factors found in a field d. all the mammals that live in the Atlantic Ocean.

9. _____ The interaction of the abiotic and biotic factors in an environment constitutes a(an) a. ecosystem c. biosphere b. biome d. ecology

10. _____ A food web best illustrates the a. role of carnivores in recycling environmental resources b. pathway of energy through the living components of an ecosystem c. amount of food needed by organisms in a terrestrial biome d. dependence of autotrophs on the abiotic factors in an ecosystem

11. _____ Which type of organism is not shown in the following representation of a food chain? Grass-----Mouse-----Snake-----Hawk a. herbivore c. producer b. decomposer d. carnivore

12. _____ All the living components of an ecosystem are called a. biotic factors c. organic factors b. abiotic factors d. trophic factors

13. _____ Two organisms are placed in the same species if they a. are able to mate and produce fertile offspring b. are able to share similar environments c. both require the same food materials d. both have structures for aerobic respiration

14. _____ The thin layer surrounding the Earth which contains life is known as the a. biome c. ecosystem b. biosphere d. community

15. _____ A lake contains minnows, mosquito larvae, sunfish, algae, and pike. Which of these organisms would probably be present in the largest numbers? a. minnows c. sunfish b. larvae d. algae

16. _____ Each of the following contributes to human population growth except a. high birthrate. c. low adult death rate b. low infant death rate d. shorter lifespan

17. _____ Tropical ecosystems are more diverse than temperate zone ecosystems because a. the growing season in tropical ecosystems never stops b. more food is produced in tropical ecosystems c. the climate in tropical ecosystems does not vary much from year to year d. all of the above

Continue to next page.