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Children infectious diseases Tests

1. What groups of lymph nodes will be damaged more frequent at pseudotuberculosis? A. Inguinal, axillar, mesenteric B. *mesenteric C. anterior and posterior cervical D. submandibular, anterior cervical E. posterior cervical, occipital

2. What changes in a peripheral blood are typical for Rubella? A. *leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis B. leucopenia, lymphomonocytosis C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear cells D. leucocytosis, neutrophilia E. leucopenia, plasmocytosis, anemia

3. What is the criterion of exanthema period beginning at Rubella? A. Appearance of the enanthem B. *Appearance of rashes C. Repeated rise of body temperature D. Strengthening of catarrhal signs E. Increase and tenderness of lymphatic nodes

4. Choose one of the main diagnostic signs at infectious mononucleosis: A. *Syndrome of acute tonsillitis B. short fever C. Catarrhal syndrome D. exanthema E. toxic syndrome

5. The course of diphtheria could be: A. mild B. severe C. *with complication D. toxic E. spread

6. To atypical form of infectious mononucleosis belongs: A. *asymptomatic B. clinical C. mild D. moderate E. severe 7. Indicate the term of patient's contagiousness at acquired Rubella. A. Till 5th day from the disease beginning B. *Till 5th day after appearance of rashes C. Till 5th day after appearance of the last rash D. Till 9th day after the disease beginning E. Till 10th day after appearance of rashes

8. What is the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission: A. *air-droplet B. transmissive C. Water D. Vertical E. Food

9. Name the mechanism of the pseudotuberculosis agent transmission. A. droplet B. contact C. *fecal-oral D. alimentary E. by water

10. Indicate the possible mechanism of infectious mononucleosis transmission: A. Fecaly-oral B. Water C. air-dust D. *Contact E. Food

11. What immunity will develop after pseudotuberculosis? A. species specific, stabile B. *type specific, stabile C. species specific, unsteady D. type specific, unsteady E. species specific, for all the life

12. To atypical form of infectious mononucleosis belongs: A. clinical B. mild C. moderate D. severe E. *Effaced

13. Choose the main diagnostic sign of the infectious mononucleosis. A. short fever B. Catarrhal syndrome C. exanthema D. toxic syndrome E. *lymphadenopathy

14. Name the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission: A. fecaly-oral B. Water C. air-dust D. *Contact-domestic E. Food

15. Choose the main diagnostic sign of infectious mononucleosis: A. short fever B. *hepatosplenomegaly C. Catarrhal syndrome D. exanthema E. purulent lymphadenitis

16. What etiological therapy is used for the infectious mononucleosis treatment? A. Antibiotics B. antihistamines C. glucocorticoids D. *Preparations of recombined interferon E. Vitamins

17. What diet is prescribed to the patient with infectious mononucleosis? A. № 2 B. № 3 C. *№ 5 D. № 8 E. № 10

18. What is the seasonality of diphtheria? A. Summer B. Spring-summer C. *Autumn-winter D. Summer-autumn E. Spring

19. What changes in the blood analysis at Rubella will be different from the changes at measles? A. monocytosis B. Appearance of atypical mononuclears C. leucopenia D. *Increased number of plasmatic cells E. leucocytosis

20. How will differ rashes at scarlet fever from rashes at pseudotuberculosis? A. More large elements of rashes, concentration of rashes round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet B. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in several pushes C. The rashes are maculo-papulous, bright, spread all over the body during 3-4 days, then pigmented D. *Absence concentration of rashes round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet E. rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks

21. Describe morphology of rashes at measles. A. pin-point, on a red background B. small maculae, rose, on the unchanged background C. Polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles), on the unchanged background D. maculo-papulous, farther appear hemorrhagic elements star-like form with necrosis in a center. E. *maculo-papulous, bright, sometimes hemorrhagic, on the unchanged background

22. What is the duration of exanthema period at measles? A. 1-2 days B. 2-3 days C. *3-4 days D. 4-5 days E. 5-6 days

23. Name the clinical periods of pseudotuberculosis. A. Incubation, height, recovery B. Incubation, initial, height, recovery C. *Initial, height, recovery D. Initial, height, exacerbation, recovery E. Initial, height, recovery, relapses

24. For what age group pseudotuberculosis is not typical for? A. *Newborns B. Early age C. Under-fives D. Junior school E. Senior school 25. Name the properties of the measles virus. A. *complement binding, hemagglutination, hemolytic, symplast forming activity B. hemolytic, symplast forming activity C. complement binding, hemagglutination, hemolytic activity D. complement binding, symplast forming activity E. hemagglutination, hemolytic, symplast forming activity

26. Enumerate atypical forms of measles. A. *Abortive, hemorrhagic, hypertoxic, subclinical B. fulminant, asymptomatic C. With complications D. With the secondary infection E. With exacerbation of chronic diseases

27. What is the incubation period in measles? A. *9-17 days B. 11-21 day C. till 14 days D. 13- 14 days E. 17-21 day

28. What is the term of patient's isolation in case of measles, which is complicated by pneumonia? A. On all catarrhal period B. Till 5 day from the beginning of rashes C. 5 days from the beginning of illness D. 9 days from the beginning of illness E. *On 10 days from the beginning of rashes

29. What is the term of Measles patient contagiousness? A. Catarrhal period, period of exanthema B. last 2 days of catarrhal period, period of exanthema, 3-4 days period of pigmentation C. *last 2 days of incubation period, catarrhal period, 3-4 days of exanthema period D. Period of pigmentation and exanthema E. Last week of the incubation period, catarrhal period, period of exanthema

30. What is the term of patient isolation at acquired Rubella? A. On 4 days from the beginning of rashes B. Not less than 5 days from the beginning of disease C. *Not less than 5 days from the beginning of rashes D. Not less than 5 days from the beginning of last rashes E. Not less than 9 days from the beginning of disease 31. When does the body temperature at the uncomplicated measles become normal? A. At the end of catarrhal period B. At the beginning of exanthema period C. At the end of exanthema period D. *In the period of pigmentation E. In the period of recovery

32. Indicate the features of measles pigmentation spreading. A. Begins from lower extremities, staging spreads farther B. At the same time appears all over the body C. Begins from a trunk, spreads staging on the face, extremities D. A rash turns pale, disappears without trace E. *Begins from a face, passes staging, in that order, that pouring out

33. Indicate the term of patient's isolation in uncomplicated measles. A. 5 days from the beginning of illness B. 9 days from the beginning of illness C. *Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes D. 10 days from the beginning of rashes E. On all catarrhal period

34. How will differ rashes at measles from rashes at Rubella? A. rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks B. Rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated in skin folds, during a day covers all the body C. Rashes are papulous, situated on shins, and then hemorrhagic elements of star-form with necrosis in a center appear D. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in several pushes E. *The rashes are maculo-papulous, bright, spread all over the body during 3-4 days, then pigmented

35. When will the catarrhal signs at measles disappear? A. At the end of catarrhal period B. At the beginning of exanthema period C. At the end of exanthema period D. *In the period of pigmentation E. In the period of recovery

36. Name the illness severity in case of diphtheria of the pharynx, localized insular form: A. severe B. moderate C. *mild D. Combined E. 0 degree

37. How differs an exacerbation of pseudotuberculosis from the relapse? Exacerbation is... A. *Growth of clinical symptoms after the period of improvement B. Appearance of clinical symptoms after normalization of clinic-laboratory indexes C. Growth of clinical symptoms without the improvement of the patient's state D. Stable severe state of the patient E. Gradual improvement of the patient's state up to the convalescence

38. What changes in the pharynx at pseudotuberculosis are different from scarlet fever, typical form? A. Absence of «strawberry» tongue B. *Absence of purulent tonsillitis C. Presence of aphthous stomatitis D. Presence of herpangina E. «blazing pharynx», necrotizing tonsillitis

39. How rashes at infectious mononucleosis differ from rashes at measles? A. Absence of concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of face, hands, feet B. *Occurs after treatment by amoxacillin. Absent stages, more frequent is localized on a trunk, less on face, extremities, is kept for 1-2 weeks C. More large elements of rashes, concentration of rashes round joints, hyperemia and edema of face, hands, feet D. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in pushes E. rashes are rose, small spots, during days covers all the body, is disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks

40. What diet (by Pevsner) is used for a patient with pseudotuberculosis, abdominal form? A. *Diet № 4 B. Diet № 5 C. Diet № 5 п D. Diet № 10 E. Diet № 15

41. What changes in the urine analysis prove the toxic damage of kidneys in case of pseudotuberculosis? A. proteinuria, leucocyturia, bacteriuria B. crystaluria, leucocyturia, epitelium (flat epithelium) in the urine C. crystaluria, erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells) D. proteinuria, leucocyturia, epitelium in the urine E. *proteinuria, casts, erythrocyturia, epitelium in the urine (kidney epithelium)

42. What is the difference in rashes at Measles from rashes at scarlet fever? A. Absence of rashes concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet B. More large elements of rashes, concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet C. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in pushes D. *Time of appearance, morphology, localization, stages, propensity to confluence, unchanged background of skin, pigmentation of rashes E. rashes are rose, as small spots, during days covers all body, is disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks

43. In what organs and systems will be the changes at Rubella? A. Skin, mucus of the upper respiratory tracts, mouth, conjunctiva B. *Skin, mucus of the throat, conjunctiva, lymph nodes C. Liver, spleen, lymph nodes D. tonsils, lymph nodes, blood E. tonsils, lymph nodes, skin

44. In what case a measles patient can be treated at home? A. mild or moderate measles in any age B. Early age of child, without complications C. severe disease at the child of senior age D. *Uncomplicated, mild illness at the child of senior age E. Child of early age from the socially protected family

45. What etiological treatment is need at moderate pseudotuberculosis? A. cefazoline B. Benzylpenicillin C. nithrofurans D. gentamicin E. *chloramphenicol

46. What etiological treatment is need at severe pseudotuberculosis? A. chloramphenicol B. *cefotaxim C. cefazoline D. nithrofurans E. cefuroxim 47. What changes in the blood analysis at pseudotuberculosis will be different from the changes at uncomplicated measles? A. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, eosynopenia, normal ESR B. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, aneosynophylia, increased ESR C. *leucocytosis, neutrophylia, eosynophylia, increased ESR D. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, normal ESR E. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR

48. What fluids of organism is it possible to select a measles virus from? A. Bile, gastric juice, blood, urine, saliva B. nasopharyngeal mucus, urine, saliva, sweat, conjunctiva secretion C. cerebral-spinal fluid, excrements, gastric content, bile D. *nasopharyngeal mucus, blood, urine, excrement, conjunctiva secretion E. cerebral-spinal fluid, excrement, nasopharyngeal mucus, sweat

49. What complication is typical for pseudotuberculosis, abdominal form? A. Perforation of the sygmoid colon B. small-large intestinal invagination C. *acute appendicitis D. Pyelonephritis E. glomerulonephritis

50. How rashes at pseudotuberculosis diffes from rashes at scarlet fever? A. *The «hood», «gloves», «socks» symptoms, concentration of rashes round joints B. Pale perinasal triangle, localization of rashes on the unbend surfaces of extremities C. The «hood», «gloves», «socks» symptoms, rashes is not predisposed to confluence D. A rashes is smaller, on the pale background of skin E. Rashes on the red background of skin, concentrated on the unbend surfaces of extremities

51. Indicate the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission: A. fecaly-oral B. Water C. *parenteral D. air-dust E. Food

52. What from this is characteristically for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis? A. stabile to the high temperatures, quickly perishes at the ultraviolet insolation, desinfection B. *stabile to the low temperatures, quickly perishes at boiling, desinfection C. stabile to the low temperatures, drying, boiling D. Термолабільний, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation, desinfection E. Термостабільний, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation, desinfection

53. Name typical forms of pseudotuberculosis. A. Catarrhal, skin, abdominal B. Catarrhal, mononucleosis like, arthralgic C. Effaced, asymptomatic, abdominal D. gastrointestinal, abdominal, catarrhal E. *scarlet fever like, abdominal, jaundice,

54. Indicate the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission: A. fecaly-oral B. Water C. air-dust D. Food E. *Sexual

55. What is the criterion of the Rubella severity? A. Localization of rashes B. severity of changes in a peripheral blood C. Presence of exanthema D. *severity of intoxication E. Presence of catarrhal signs

56. Choose the main diagnostic signs of the infectious mononucleosis: A. hepatomegaly B. Catarrhal syndrome C. exanthema D. *High prolonged fever E. toxic syndrome

57. From what complications of infectious mononucleosis children die more frequently? A. lymphadenitis B. *stenosis of the larynx C. hemolytic anemia D. thrombocytopenia E. Paresis of cranial nerves

58. What is the evolution of the skin changes at pseudotuberculosis? A. A rashes pigmented, desquamation will appear B. Spots grow into papules, vesicles, crusts C. *Rashes go out, pigmented rarely, desquamation will appear D. Formation of crusts, hyperpigmentation E. A rashes disappears without trace

59. A high incidence of whooping cough in recent years is due to all of the following reasons, except: A. *Preferential allocation of whooping cough bacilli in paroxismal period B. Low rate of routine immunization against whooping cough C. Low postvaccination immunity D. The relatively high frequency of abortive and light forms of whooping cough E. Late diagnosis of whooping cough

60. In what age does orchitis (in mumps) develop more frequent? A. *At adults, teenagers B. At teenagers C. At under-fives and junior schoolboys D. In junior and middle school age E. At schoolboys

61. What is the entrance gate (atrium) of mumps? A. *Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat B. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, conjunctiva C. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, tonsills D. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, ducts of salivary glands E. Ducts of salivary glands

62. What changes will be present in the complete blood count at mumps? A. *Leucopenia (sometimes leucocytosis in the first days), lymphocytosis B. Leucopenia, lymphocytosis, elevated or normal ESR C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, increased or normal ESR D. Leucopenia (sometimes leucocytosis in the first days), lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis E. leucocytosis, neutrophlia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR

63. A patient with chicken pox is isolated on: A. 2 days after the last element of rash has appeared B. *5 days after the last element of rash has appeared C. 7 days after the last element of rash has appeared D. 11 days after the last element of rash has appeared E. 21 day after the last element of rash has appeared

64. A rare complication of whooping cough may include: A. *All the listed B. Spontaneous pneumothorax C. Hernia D. Brain hemorrhage E. Rectal prolapse

65. A vaccine against the chicken pox is named as: A. MMR B. BCG C. DTaP D. *Varilrix E. OPV

66. Abortive forms of whooping cough are characterized by: A. *All the listed B. Mild course of disease C. The absence of the typical paroxismal cough D. Shortened duration of illness E. They occur in vaccinated

67. Acyclovir therapy at chicken pox is not given in case of: A. cytostatic therapy B. glucocorticoids therapy C. HIV-infection D. *inborn antibodies deficit E. severe course of chicken pox

68. All of the blood indicators are typical for whooping cough in 1 year old child, except: A. *Eosinophilia B. Normal ESR C. Mild leukocytosis D. Lymphocytosis E. Monocytosis

69. All statements about the serological diagnosis of whooping cough are true, except: A. *Serological investigation is the most diagnostically significant B. Used to identify postvaccinal and postinfection immunity C. Can be used for retrospective confirmation of diagnosis in unvaccinated children D. Can be used for retrospective confirmation of the diagnosis in adults E. Used in vaccinated children, in contact with whooping cough and in ill patients

70. What age groups of children has mumps more frequently? A. *Under-fives, junior schoolboys B. Toddlers. C. Children of early age and under-fives D. Teenagers and schoolboys of middle school age E. Infants.

71. What is the evidence to interrupt the pregnancy after the contact with a Rubella patient? A. Contact with a patient with Rubella in any term of pregnancy B. *Growth of titre of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term of pregnancy up to 12 weeks C. Stable title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term of pregnancy up to 12 weeks D. Growth of title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term of pregnancy over 12 weeks E. Stable title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term of pregnancy over 12 weeks

72. Antibacterial therapy at chicken pox is given: A. in case of cytostatic therapy B. in case of glucocorticoids therapy C. in case of meningoencephalitis D. *in case of bacterial complications E. in case of generalised form of chicken pox

73. Appearance of point white-grey elements on a red background of buccal mucosa, gums is a typical sign of: A. Rubella B. adenoviral infection C. Scarlet fever D. *measles E. enteroviral infection

74. Appearance of point white-grey elements on a red background of buccal mucosa, gums is a typical sign of: A. Rubella B. adenoviral infection C. Scarlet fever D. *measles E. enteroviral infection

75. What features of meningoencephalitis at measles? A. *severe duration, high lethality B. Defeat of cerebellum, convalescence without the remaining phenomena C. Defeat of cerebellum, central paralyses D. mild duration, without the remaining phenomena E. Development of purulent meningitis 76. What changes in the lymphatic system organs are typical for Rubella? A. hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy B. Catarrhal, follicle or lacunar tonsillitis C. adenoiditis, tonsillitis D. enlargement and tenderness of the anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes E. *enlargement and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes

77. What duration of rashes presence at Rubella? A. 1-2 days B. *2-3 days C. 3-4 days D. 4-5 days E. 5-6 days

78. What symptoms will differ infectious mononucleosis from Rubella? A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome B. Morphology and localization of rashes, absence of tonsillitis, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal syndrome C. *rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis D. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems E. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal signs, absence of hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis

79. What changes in complete blod test will be typical for pseudotuberculosis? A. leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynopenia, elevated ESR B. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, elevated ESR C. *leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR D. leucopenia, anaemia, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR E. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR

80. What investigation should be used for the early diagnostics of pseudotuberculosis? A. Bacteriological examination of excrements, urine, blood B. *immune-enzyme analysis, immune-fluorescent test C. aglutination reaction D. indirect hemaglutination reaction E. indirect hemaglutination reaction with paired sera

81. In what age Rubella complication by meningoencephalitis is more frequent? A. In new-born B. At infants C. At the children of early age D. In preschoolers E. *In teenagers

82. What part of the intestinum is damaged more frequent at the abdominal form of pseudotuberculosis? A. cecum, ascending and transversal colon B. cecum, appendix C. duodenum, small intestinum, cecum D. *Terminal department of small intestinum, cecum, appendix E. Descending colon, sygmoid colon

83. What changes on the tongue are typical for pseudotuberculosis? A. *«strawberry» tongue B. «nipple» tongue C. «geographical» tongue D. sour E. aphthae

84. What, except the features of rashes, will differ scarlet fever from pseudotuberculosis? A. Stages of rashes, conjunctivitis, expressed catarrhal signs B. Polymorphism of rashes, localization of it on hairy part of the head, mucus membraines C. hemorrhagic star-like rashes on shins, thighs, meningeal syndrome, nasopharyngitis D. *Presence of tonsillitis, increase of only tonsillar lymph nodes, absent: arthritis, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs

85. Which measles symptoms will be different from scarlet fever? Name them. A. *Character, localization and stages of rashes, catarrhal syndrome, presence of the Koplick's spots; absence of: tonsillitis, «strawberry» tongue, lymphadenitis B. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal signs, absence of hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis C. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis D. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs E. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems

86. What research will prove pseudotuberculosis at the patient? A. Smears from a nose and throat on diphtheria B. leucocytosis and neutrophilia, encreased ESR C. agglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnostic test, titre of antibodies 1:80 D. *indirect hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnostic test, titre of antibodies > 1: 200 E. Double growth of antibodies titre in paired sera

87. What pathognomonic sign of measles do you know? A. Filatov's sign B. Pastia's sign C. *Koplick's spots D. Murson's sign E. Presence of enanthem on a soft palate

88. What is the reason of relative bradycardia in case of pseudotuberculosis? A. *By activating of the parasympatic nervous system by toxins B. By influence of bacteria on the vegetative nervous system C. By development of myocarditis D. By activating of the sympatic nervous system by toxins E. By direct toxic influence on myocardium

89. Indicate the morphological features of Koplick's spots. A. Red point elements surrounded by the red framing, on mucus of lips, cheecks, gums B. maculo-papulous elements on a soft palate C. white-grey spots on the hard and soft palate D. *white-grey point elements surrounded by the red framing, on mucus of lips, cheecks, gums E. white-grey islets on the tongue

90. What factor of C. diphtheria causes polyneuropathy? A. exotoxin B. *neuraminidase C. hyalurinidase D. necrotising diffuse factor E. Cord-factor 91. What is the evidence to administer recombinant interferon in Rubella treatment? A. Complication by thrombocytopenic purpura B. *CNS complications C. severe typical forms of the disease D. Arthritis, synovitis E. innate Rubella without the active signs of process

92. Name complications of the acquired Rubella. A. *Meningitis, encephalitis, arthritis B. glomerulonephritis, arthritis, myocarditis C. stomatitis, enterocolitis, pyelonephritis D. Syndrome of croup, pneumonia E. purulent meningitis, meningoencephalitis

93. Indicate the main ways of the pseudotuberculosis transmission. A. fecal-oral, contact-domestic B. *by food, water C. contact, water D. by food, contact E. droplet, contact

94. At a child with mumps is exposed positive Fylatov's sign. Give its description. A. edema and hyperemia of the external opening of the Stensen's duct B. *pain behind and at the front of ear-lobes at talk, mastication C. white point stratifications on cheeks mucous D. dryness in the mouth, cracks on the tongue E. tear of the tongue bridle

95. At a child with mumps was exposed positive Murson's sign. Give its description. A. *edema and hyperemia of the external opening of the Stensen's duct B. pain behind and at the front of ear-lobes at talk, mastication C. white point stratifications on cheeks mucous D. dryness in the mouth, cracks on the tongue E. tear of the tongue bridle

96. Indicate the probable time of the rashes appearance at Rubella. A. *On 1-3rd day of disease B. On 4-5th day of disease C. On 6-7th day of disease D. On 8-10th day of disease E. More than 10th day from the beginning of illness 97. A pin-point rashes, mainly in skin folds, in the inguinal region, on the lateral surfaces of trunk are characteristic for: A. Rubella B. Pseudotuberculosis C. *Scarlet fever D. measles E. enteroviral infections

98. Name the evidence to prescribe corticosteroids at pseudotuberculosis. A. moderate degree of disease, polyartritis B. severe degree of disease, exacerbations and relapses C. *severe degree of disease, myocarditis D. Toxic damage of kidneys, polyarthritis E. Toxic damage of myocardium, arthritis

99. At what infectious exanthema rashes will have pigmentation stage, sculling of the epidermis? A. *Measles B. Rubella C. Pseudotuberculosis D. Scarlet fever E. Chicken pox

100. Enumerate clinical syndromes typical for the end of catarrhal period at measles. A. Abdominal, toxic, catarrhal B. *toxic, catarrhal, enanthem on a soft palate, Koplick's spots C. intestinal, toxic, catarrhal D. enanthem on a soft palate, toxic, catarrhal E. enanthem on a soft palate, toxic, catarrhal, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes

101. What is the average duration of catarrhal period at measles? A. 1-2 days B. 2-3 days C. *3-4 days D. 5-6 days E. 7 days

102. What type of temperature is typical for uncomplicated measles? A. remittent B. intermittent C. *two-humped type D. hectic E. subfebrile temperature 103. What is the latent period of pseudotuberculosis? A. 25-30 days B. *3-18 days C. 9-21 day D. 2-7 days E. 11-17 days

104. What is the second phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis? A. regional infection B. *entheric C. generalyzation D. Infection E. bacteremia

105. What phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis is the next after the phase of regional infection. A. parenchymal diffusion B. entheric C. Infection D. *generalyzation E. bacteremia

106. Describe morphology of the rashes at pseudotuberculosis. A. maculo-papulous, weathering, bright, sometimes hemorrhagic, on the unchanged background B. pin-point, unweathering, on a red background C. Polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles), on the unchanged background D. small macules, rose, on the unchanged background E. *pin-point, maculo-papulous, weathering round joints, on a red background

107. In what cases the patient with pseudotuberculosis can be treated at home? A. mild, moderate degree of disease, satisfactory financial and house conditions B. mild, moderatedegree of disease, child of senior age C. mild degree of disease, child of early age D. *mild degree of disease, satisfactory financial and house conditions E. Effaced, atypical, mild, moderate forms of disease

108. What fluids and environments of the organism does it follow to examine to confirm pseudotuberculosis? A. Bile, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus B. Saliva, blood, urine, excrements C. CSF, blood, urine, excrements D. *Blood, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus E. CSF, blood, urine, excrement, nasopharyngeal mucus

109. What is the rashes evolution in Rubella? A. pigmentation B. macrosculling C. *disappears without any changes D. crusts, then pigmentation E. pigmentation, then sculling

110. Indicate the typical changes in cerebro-spinal fluid in case of Rubella? A. neutrophyl pleocytosis, normal level of sugar B. neutrophyl pleocytosis, raised level of protein C. *lymphocyte pleocytosis, normal level of protein D. lymphocyte pleocytosis, raised level of sugar E. lymphocyte pleocytosis, considerably decreased level of sugar

111. What changes on oral mucosa are typical for rubella? A. enanthem on a soft palate, the Koplick's spots B. Hyperemia of the external opening of the parotid salivary gland's channel C. Catarrhal tonsillitis, rough back pharyngeal wall D. maculous enanthem on a hard palate, herpangina E. *maculous enanthem on a soft palate, hyperemia of the throat

112. Name the phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis following after entheric phase. A. parenchymal diffusion B. *regional infection C. generalyzation D. Infection E. bacteremia

113. Pseudotuberculosis belongs to the group of: A. anthroponoses B. anthropozoonoses C. ornithoses D. zooornithoses E. *zoonoses

114. What will differ pseudotuberculosis, jaundice form from a hemolytic jaundice? A. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), normal level of aminotransferases B. High level of bilirubin (due to direct), normal level of aminotransferases C. Splenomegaly, damage of other organs and systems D. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), splenomegaly, anaemia E. *Damage of other organs and systems, raised level of bilirubin (due to direct) and bilirubin

115. What will differ pseudotuberculosis, jaundice form from hepatitis A, mild severity? A. Considerably raised level of bilirubin and aminotransferases B. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), normal level of aminotransferases C. High level of bilirubin (due to direct), normal level of aminotransferases D. *Splenomegaly, damage of other organs and systems E. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), splenomegaly, anaemia

116. What are the pseudotuberculosis complications? A. Toxic damage of kidneys, arthritis, myocarditis B. Toxic damage of myocardium, arthritis, synovitis C. *Appendicitis, encephalitis, myocarditis D. Pneumonia, pharyngitis, tonsillitis E. enterocolitis, perforation of the intestinum, intestinal impassability

117. Indicate localization of the rashes on the 1st day of exanthema period in measles. A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle B. all over the body, hairy part of the head C. *On face, behind the ears, neck D. On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms E. all over the body

118. Indicate localization of the measles rashes on the 2nd day of exanthema period. A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle B. all over the body, hairy part of the head C. On face, behind the ears, shoulders D. *On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms E. all over the body

119. Indicate localization of the measles rashes on the 3rd day of exanthema period. A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle B. all over the body, hairy part of the head C. On face, behind the ears, shoulders D. On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms E. *all over the body

120. What is the most frequent reason of cardiac arrest on 3-5 day of diphtheria? A. cardiomyocytes myolisis B. parenchymatose dystrophy C. *parasympatic influence D. Fatty degeneration of myocardium E. Destruction of myofibriles

121. What way of congenital Rubella transmission? A. hemocontact B. *transplacental C. alimentary D. droplet E. Contact

122. What endotoxines products Yersinia pseudotuberculosis? A. *thermolabile, thermostabile, enterotoxin B. hemolysin, necrotoxin, cytotoxin C. hemaglutinin, neuraminidase D. hemolysin, necrotoxin, lypopolisacharidum E. thermostabile, enterotoxin, neuraminidase

123. Name the agent of rubella. A. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family B. paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family C. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family D. orthomyxovirus E. *togavirus family Rubivirus

124. At what age children can be ill with whooping cough? A. *From the first days of life B. From three months C. From six months D. From one year E. From two years

125. Blazing throat with the expressly marked off hyperemia, fever, expressed intoxication, tonsillitis, increase of submandibular lymph nodes are characteristic for: A. Initial period of pseudotuberculosis B. prodromal period of measles C. Diphtheria of the throat D. *Initial period of scarlet fever E. adenoviral infection

126. What way of the acquired Rubella transmission? A. *air-droplet B. hemocontact C. alimentary D. droplet E. Contact

127. Enumerate the criteria of the acquired Rubella, typical form, smooth course. A. isolated exanthema B. isolated damage of lymph nodes C. *mild or moderate severity of the disease D. the secondary infection E. exacerbation of chronic diseases

128. Indicate the properties of the Rubella agent. A. thermostabile, dye at drying B. thermolabile, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation C. *Quickly dye at the ultraviolet insolation, disinfection D. stabile to the low temperatures, disinfection E. thermolabile, stabile to disinfection

129. Indicate the possible terms of the Rubella incubation period. A. 7-10 days B. 11-17 days C. *11-23 days D. 2-5 days E. 21 day

130. Against what diseases the child of 12 months must be vaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Poliomyelitis, diphtheria, tetanus C. *Measles, rubella, mumps D. Measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus E. Poliomyelitis, whooping cough, diphtheria

131. What vaccine is needed for the first revaccination against diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping-cough? A. DTP B. *DTaP C. DT D. DTP-m E. D-m

132. Against what diseases the child of 18 months must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Нів-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. *Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection 133. Choose the associated vaccines among enumerated: A. BCG B. *DTP C. Hepatitis A D. Influenza (A, B) E. poliomyelitis (I, ІІ, ІІІ)

134. Against what disease the child of 5 months must be vaccinated? A. Whooping cough B. Tuberculosis C. Measles D. *Hepatitis B E. Rubella

135. Choose a correct answer about the associated vaccines: A. They contain antigens of bacteria and viruses B. They contain different serotypes of one type of microorganism C. *They contain antigens of microorganisms and toxins D. They contain antigens of bacteria and antigens of viruses, got with the help of recombined technologies E. The antigens of different viruses are contained on adsorbents

136. What symptoms will differ Rubella from scarlet fever? A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome B. *Morphology and localization of rashes, absence of tonsillitis, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal syndrome C. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems D. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis E. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal signs, absence of hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis

137. What properties are typical for Rubella virus? A. DNA-containing, contains hemagglutinin B. *RNA-containing, contains neuraminidase C. RNA-containing, contains hemagglutinin D. RNA-containing, contains hyaluronidase E. DNA-containing, contains hyaluronidase 138. What is the evidence to give immunoglobulin in uncomplicated measles? A. Syndrome of croup B. Measles pneumonia C. Early age, moderate disease D. Child from socially unprotected family E. *Early age, severe disease

139. What day of measles exanthema period will the Koplick's spots disappear? A. on the1-2th B. *on the 2-3th C. on the 3-4th D. will be absent generally E. will be remained for all period

140. What groups of lymph nodes will be enlarged in case of Rubella in compare with infectious mononucleosis? A. *Only posterior cervical and occipital B. Only posterior cervical and anterior cervical C. anterior, posterior cervical and occipital D. submandibular E. Inguinal and axillar

141. What changes on mucus membranes in Rubella at the end of catarrhal period will be different from measles? A. *Absence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate B. Presence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate C. Presence of the Koplick's spots, bright maculous enanthem on palate D. Absence of the Koplick's spots, catarrhal tonsillitis E. Absence of the Koplick's spots, herpangina

142. Indicate the duration of measles pigmentation period. A. 1-2 days B. 3-4 days C. 5-7 days D. *7-14 days E. 2-3 weeks

143. What seasonality is characteristic for pseudotuberculosis? A. Winter B. Spring C. *Winter-spring D. autmn-winter E. No

144. What symptoms will differ Rubella from pseudotuberculosis? A. Morphology and localization of rashes, presence of tonsillitis, increase of submandibular lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal syndrome B. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome C. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems D. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis E. *Morphology and localization of rashes, increased only posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, absence of the intestinal problems, damage of the other organs

145. What changes in a mouth will differ Rubella from scarlet fever? A. Presence of the Koplick's spots that smaller enanthem on palate B. *Absence of tonsillitis, «strawberry» tongue, «blazing pharynx» C. Presence of the Koplick's spots, bright maculous enanthem on palate D. Presence of herpangina, absence of «blazing pharynx» E. Catarrhal tonsillitis, absence of «strawberry» tongue

146. What immunity will be formed after diphtheria? A. Immunity is stabile, long-life B. Immunity is unsteady, unsterile C. Immunity is unsteady, typospecific D. *Immunity is unsteady E. Immunity is prolonged, typospecific

147. What is an entrance gate (atrium) for diphtheria? A. *Mucus membranes B. Middle ear C. Heart D. Liver E. Spleen

148. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission: A. air-dust B. transmissive C. Water D. Vertical E. *Food

149. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission: A. air-dust B. transmissive C. Water D. *Contact-domestic E. Vertical

150. What is the possible mechanism of the diphtheria transmission: A. hemo-contact B. fecal- oral C. *droplet D. air-dust E. Food

151. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission: A. *air-droplet B. transmissive C. water D. vertical E. air-dust

152. Choose septic complications of scarlet fever: A. encephalitis, otitis, myocarditis B. *otitis, purulent lymphadenitis, necrotizsng tonsillitis, sinusitis C. myocarditis, nephritis, arthritis, rheumatism D. synovitis, encephalitis, otitis E. myocarditis, nephritis, necrotizing tonsillitis

153. CMV has the lowest tropism for: A. *Skin B. CNS C. Liver D. Lung E. Lymphatic tissue

154. Complications of whooping cough could be: A. *All the listed B. Atelectasis C. Pneumonia D. Encephalopathy with seizures E. Massive subconjunctival hemorrhages

155. Constrictive laryngitis (croup) may be a complication of the following diseases except: A. *Mumps B. Diphtheria C. Influenza D. Measles E. Parainfluenza 156. What age groups of population have measles more frequent nowadays? A. *Teenagers, adults B. infants, toddlers C. Under-fives, junior schoolboys D. Junior schoolboys, children of middle school ages E. toddlers, under-fives

157. What is the earliest complication of diphtheria? A. *Nephrotic syndrome B. Myocarditis C. Palatoplegia D. Polyradiculitis E. Pneumonia

158. Etiology of chicken pox is: A. *Varicella-Zoster B. Herpes simplex C. Rubella D. Parvovirus E. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

159. Etiology of herpes zoster is: A. *Varicella-Zoster B. Herpes simplex C. Epstain-Barr D. Parvovirus E. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

160. Everything listed below is typical for mumps, except: A. *Koplik’s sign B. Retromandibular swelling and edema C. Pain while chewing D. Body Temperature 38,0-39,0 0C E. Abdominal pain

161. Expressed catarrhal signs, photophobia, intoxication, maculous enanthem on the palate, pinpoint white elements on the red background on buccal mucosa are typical for: A. prodromal period of measles on a 1st day B. *prodromal period of measles on a 3rd day C. enteroviral infection D. prodromal period of Rubella E. Scarlet fever 162. Fever, stomach-aches, disorders of emptying, hyperemia of the throat, pains in joints, appearance of point, maculous, maculo-papulous rashes, anymore round joints, in skin folds are characteristic for: A. Scarlet fever B. Rubella C. measles D. Infectious mononucleosis E. *Pseudotuberculosis

163. For a typical chicken pox is characteristically: A. tonsillitis precedes the rash B. Koplick's spots appear before the rashes C. rashes are provoken by the use of semisynthetic penicillins D. *appearance of new elements is accompanied by the increase of body temperature E. sculling of skin on the second week after rashes

164. For chicken pox is typical: A. presence of „strawberry" tongue B. *presence of rashes on the mucus membranes of mouth, eye, sexual organs C. presence of the expressed catarrhal sign D. increase of cervical lymphatic nodes E. presence of „goose skin" symptom

165. For what disease are characteristic pin-point, maculous, maculo-papulous rashes more in skin folds, round joints, on a hyperemied background, large elements confluence; cyanotic hyperemia of the face, hands, feet? A. Scarlet fever B. *Pseudotuberculosis C. Rubella D. measles E. Infectious mononucleosis

166. What fraction of diphtheria exotoxin in the culture of tissues causes cytotoxic effect? A. *thermolabile (toxin A) B. thermostabile (toxin B) C. Cord-factor D. Tox + phage E. Gwarnieri corpuscles

167. How many fractions of diphtheria toxin are identified now? A. 1 B. *2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

168. What is the etiology of pseudotuberculosis? A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Yersinia intermedia C. *Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D. Yersinia frederiksenia E. Yersinia pestis

169. How will differ rashes at Rubella from rashes at measles? A. *rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks B. rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated in skin folds, during a day cover all the body C. rashes are papulous, situated on shins, then hemorrhagic elements of star- form with necrosis in a center appear D. rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated in skin folds, round joints, hyperemia of the face, hands, feet E. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in several pushes

170. Enumerate the criteria of Rubella, typical form, non-smooth course. A. severe degree of disease B. *secondary infection, presence of complications C. asymptomatic form of the disease D. effaced form of the disease E. isolated damage of lymph nodes

171. What is the mechanism of the acqiured Rubella transmission? A. hemocontact B. through damaged epidermis C. alimentary D. *droplet E. Contact

172. What changes in a mouth will differ Measles from scarlet fever? A. Absence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate B. Presence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate C. *Presence of the Koplick's spots, absence of tonsillitis, «raspberry» tongue, marked hyperemia of the pharynx D. Presence of herpangina, absence of «blazing pharynx» E. Catarrhal tonsillitis, absence of «strawberry» tongue 173. Herpetic infection caused by herpes simplex virus, may be present in different clinical forms, except: A. *Kaposi Sarcoma B. Skin lesions (herpes labialis, herpes nasalis, eczema, Kaposi's) C. Encephalitis and meningoencephalitis D. Eye (keratoconjunctivitis) E. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity (stomatitis)

174. How long can be isolated Epstein-Barr virus from nasopharyngeal smear, after acute infectious mononucleosis? A. *More than 2 months B. 1-3 days C. 1-2 weeks D. 1 month E. Not isolated at all

175. How long children at scarlet fever are contagious? A. 7 days B. *10 days C. 21 day D. 30 days E. 40 days

176. How long the monitoring of contacts is recommended in the focus of infectious mononucleosis? A. *40-45 days B. 5-10 days C. 11-19 days D. 20-29 days E. 30-39 days

177. How long the symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart vagus-phase are stored? A. 2 days B. 5-6 days C. 10 days D. 2 weeks E. *3-4 weeks

178. How often the limited hyperemia and infiltration of the cheek mucosa round the salivary gland excretory duct (Moorson symptom) is present in mumps? A. *More than 50% B. Less than 1% C. 1-9% D. 10-35% E. 35-50% 179. What is the localization of swelling in parotitis? A. *Anteriorly, downward and backward from the ear lobe B. In the occipital region C. At the angle of the mandible D. On the back edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle E. On the front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

180. Indicate the morphological features of the Yersinia pseudotuberculosis. A. grampositive oval stick with a few plaits, does not form spores B. gramnegative oval stick with perytrichia, does not form spores and capsule C. gramnegative stick with dumbbells form plaits, contains the corns of volutin D. *gramnegative oval stick with a few plaits, does not form spores E. grampositive oval stick with perytrichia, does not form spores and capsule

181. What could be the factor of the pseudotuberculosis transmission? A. Meat and vegetable can foods B. Dry fish C. Fresh unboiled milk D. *Vegetables, milk products which were not boiled E. Fish can foods, mushrooms

182. In lacunary tonsillitis are observed all of the following symptoms except: A. *Membranes are difficulty removed with a spatula, and the mucosa bleeding B. Bright diffuse hyperemia of the throat C. Exedates in the gaps are yellowish-white D. Increasing the temperature to 39-40 oC for 2-3 days E. In severe cases, almost always vomiting is repeated

183. In the 40-50 years of the last century scarlet fever patients were isolated for 40 days. At the present time period of isolation was reduced to 10-12 days because of: A. *Mandatory antibiotic therapy in all patients regardless of severity B. Significant prevalence of mild forms of the disease now C. Availability of the abortive forms D. Less pronounced lamellar desquamation E. Evolution of the bacterial agent

184. What Epidemic measures should be done in the focus of whooping cough? A. *All of the above B. Isolation of coughing children C. Injection of the whooping cough immunoglobulin to contacted children D. Throat culture of contacts for B.pertussis E. Disinfection

185. What is the latent period of mumps? A. *In 11-21 day B. In 9-21 day C. In 9-17 days D. In 11-25 days E. In 14-21 day

186. Indicate the term of children medical examination in kindergarten in case of Rubella. A. 9-17 days B. 17 days C. 11-17 days D. 11-21 day E. *up to 23 days

187. In the group of preschool (kindergarten) is quarantine because of measles. When is it possible to select a measles virus at children that are infected? A. *In the end of incubation period, catarrhal period, first days of exanthema period B. In an incubation period, catarrhal period C. In a catarrhal period, period of exanthema, pigmentation D. In the period of exanthema, pigmentation E. In an incubation, catarrhal period and period of exanthema

188. Indicate the possible source of Rubella. A. Individuals which contacted with patients with the acquired Rubella B. Individuals which contacted with patients with innate Rubella C. carriers and individuals which contacted with patients with the acquired Rubella D. carriers and individuals which contacted with patients with innate Rubella E. *patients with the acquired Rubella, innate Rubella

189. How long children with Whooping cough should be isolated? A. 7 days B. 14 days; C. 21 days; D. 10 days; E. *30 days.

190. In the last decade, mumps occurs more often in adults due to: A. *Mass vaccination of children B. Environmental degradation in many countries C. The ability of mumps virus to persist in dormant form for years D. Growth in the number of adults with secondary immunodeficiency (use of cytostatics, immunosuppressants, HIV infection, etc.) E. Late diagnosis of this disease by physicians ("mumps" is a children's infection)

191. Indicate duration of the quarantine for contacts in case of Whooping cough. A. 3 days B. 5 days; C. 9 days; D. *14 days; E. 21 days.

192. Name the source of measles. A. carriers of the virus B. *sick people with typical and atypical forms of measles C. people in recovery period D. people which contacted with ill patients E. sick birds

193. Name the mechanism of measles transmission. A. air-droplet B. fecal-oral C. *droplet D. alimentary E. Contact

194. Name the way of measles transmission. A. *air-droplet B. fecal-oral C. droplet D. alimentary E. Contact

195. In what age the child should be revaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, mumps, measles and rubella (according the Ukrainian vaccination schedule)? A. *6 years B. 18 months C. 3 years D. 14 years E. 15 years 196. In what period of the disease sympatic-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart usually appear? A. in prodromal period B. *first two days of exanthema period C. after 3-4 days of exanthema period D. from the second week of the disease E. only in the recovery period

197. In what period of the disease vagus-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart usually appear? A. in prodromal period B. first two days of exanthema period C. *after 3-4 days of exanthema period D. from the second week of the disease E. only in the recovery period

198. In which of the following diseases mainly posterior neck lymph nodes are increased? A. *Infectious mononucleosis B. Adenovirus infection C. Toxic tonsillar diphtheria D. "Cat’s scratches" disease E. Rubella

199. Indicate the daily dose of amikacin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment: A. 1-2; B. 2-4; C. 6-8; D. 10-12; E. *15-20.

200. Indicate the daily dose of aminazin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment: A. *0.1-0.2; B. 0.25-0.5; C. С. 0.5-1.0; D. 1.0-3.0; E. 3.0-5.0.

201. Indicate the daily dose of ampicillin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment: A. 25; B. 50; C. *100; D. 150; E. 200. 202. Indicate the daily dose of erythromycin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment: A. 10-15; B. 15-20; C. 20-30; D. *30-50; E. 50-100.

203. Indicate the etiological therapy of chicken pox: A. benzylpenicillin B. levomycetin C. *zovirax D. human immune globulin E. vaccine „Varilrix"

204. Indicate the etiological therapy of herpes zoster. A. benzylpenicillin B. levomycetin C. *zovirax D. human immune globulin E. vaccine „Varilrix"

205. Indicate the source of infection at scarlet fever: A. Wild animals B. Insects C. *sick man D. domestic animals E. patient with an acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

206. Indicate the source of infection in case of chicken pox: A. Wild and domestic animals B. Insects C. *sick man D. carrier E. a person in the recovery period

207. Indicate the typical changes in CBC at scarlet fever: A. *Leucocytosis with neutrophilia, increased ESR, eosynophilia; B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis, increased ESR; C. Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis, normal ESR; D. Leucocytosis with lymphopenia, increased ESR; E. Leucopenia with neutropenia, eosynophilia, thrombocytopenia;

208. Who is not the source of streptococcus infection? A. patient with acute tonsillitis B. patient with streptodemia C. patient with scarlet fever D. patient with erysipelas E. *patient with an acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

209. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella? A. Microcephaly, calcinates in a brain B. granulomatous inflammation C. *Cataract, deafness, congenital heart defects D. hydrocephaly, retinopathy E. exanthema, the CNS damage

210. It is known that the same pathogen can cause scarlet fever, sore throat, lymphadenitis, otitis media, and other diseases. Which of the following is crucial for the occurrence of scarlet fever, and not other diseases the same etiology? A. Agent’s serotype B. Pathogenity of bacteria C. *Lack of antitoxic immunity D. Lack of antibacterial immunity E. Localization of the infection atrium

211. How many days the patient with mumps parotitis should be isolated? A. *9 days B. 14 days C. 21 day D. 25 days E. 30 days

212. Moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, maculous enanthem on a soft palate, increase and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes are typical for: A. measles, period of exanthema B. prodromal period of measles C. *prodromal period of Rubella D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Pseudotuberculosis

213. Mumps virus from the upper respiratory tract spreads by: A. *Hematogenous way B. Lymphogenous way C. Ascending through a Stensen’s duct D. Combination of ascending and haematogenous way E. Neither one of the above 214. Name medicine for etiological therapy of scarlet fever. A. *benzylpenicillin B. chloramphenicol C. acyclovir D. human immune globulin E. ciprofloxacin

215. Name the sympatic-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever heart": A. *tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure B. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative borders C. tachycardia, weakening of the heart tones, rough systolic murmur D. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative borders, systolic murmur E. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure

216. Name the vagus-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever heart": A. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure B. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative borders C. tachycardia, weakening of the heart tones, rough systolic murmur D. *bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative borders, systolic murmur E. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure

217. Neurological complications of chicken pox usually appear in: A. prodromal period B. period of exanthema C. *period of crusts D. period of shelling E. period of hyperpigmentation

218. Of all the nucleotide analogues, whose mechanism of action is inhibition of viral replication by competitive inhibition of DNA polymerase of the virus is only a single drug that can permanently interrupt the chain of viral DNA synthesis. What is the name of this drug? A. *Acyclovir B. Famcyclovir C. Pencyclovir D. Gancyclovir E. Foscarnet

219. Passive immunization by a high title Varicella-Zoster immune globulin is done: A. not later than 24 hours from a contact moment B. *not later than 72 hours from a contact moment C. not later than 11 day from a contact moment D. in a period with 11 for 21 day from a contact moment E. only after 11th day from a contact moment

220. What medicine is better to use to decrease the number of cough paroxysms at Whooping cough? A. *Aminazin; B. Anaprilin; C. Salbuthamol; D. Berotec; E. Libexin.

221. What antibiotic should be ineffective for the whooping cough treatment? A. Ampicillin; B. *Benzylpenicillin; C. Amoxacillin; D. Gentamicin; E. Cefotaxim.

222. What morphological changes are typical for Pseudotuberculosis unlike scarlet fever? A. serous inflammation, granulomas B. abscesses, necroses C. *granulomas, micro abscesses D. fibrinous inflammation, granulomas E. hemorrhagic inflammation, necroses

223. What clinical signs will differ Pseudotuberculosis, mononucleosis-like form from the infectious mononucleosis? A. Absence of splenomegaly, rashes B. *diarrhea, «strawberry» tongue, arthritis C. leucocytosis with lymphomonocytosis, absence of atypical mononuclear cells D. Tonsillitis, «strawberry» tongue, regional lymphadenitis E. jaundice, hepatitis, insignificant increase of aminotranspherase level

224. Relapsed scarlet fever is now possible because of: A. *Obvious antibacterial therapy in all patients with scarlet fever B. Evolution of the agent C. Shortening of isolation from 20-21 days to 10-12 D. Preferential treatment at home E. Reduce of severe forms frequency

225. What symptoms will differ rubella from infectious mononucleosis? A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome B. *Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal signs, absence of hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis C. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis D. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs

226. Scarlet fever is characterized by all except: A. *Large maculous exanthema B. "Strawberry" tongue C. Enanthema D. Pale nasolabial triangle E. Tonsillitis

227. Shingles is caused by: A. *Herpes virus type III B. Mycoplasma C. Chlamydia D. Fungi E. Herpes simplex virus

228. Specific prophylaxis of chicken pox in Ukraine (in obedience to the vaccination calendar) is: A. in 12 months with the next revaccination in 6 years B. in 5 months with next revaccination in 12 years C. in the first days after birth D. necessarily to 15-monthly age child E. *not obligatory

229. Specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever in Ukraine (in obedience to the calendar of inoculations) is: A. in 12 months with the next revaccination in 6 years B. in 5 months with next revaccination in 12 years C. in the first days after birth D. necessarily to 15-monthly age child E. *is not performed

230. The agent of chicken pox belongs to: A. Adenoviridae B. Rhinoviridae C. *Herpes virus family D. Hepadnaviridae E. Paramyxovirus family

231. Indicate the seasonality of mumps. A. *Winter-spring B. Winter C. Autumn-winter D. Summer-autumn E. Spring-summer

232. The causative agent of mumps belongs to: A. *Myxoviruses B. Adenoviruses C. Enteroviruses D. Rotaviruses E. Cytomegalovirus

233. What vaccines does it follow to give to the 1 year child? A. *MMR B. BCG, MMR C. Hepatitis B, Hib D. DTP, IPV E. IPV, Hib

234. What immunity will be formed after the acquired Rubella? A. Unsteady, short B. Unspecific, short C. Unspecific, long duration D. Specific, short E. *stabile, during all the life

235. What is duration of quarantine in a group of kindergarten in case of Chickenpox? A. From 17 to 21 day. B. From 5 to 25 day. C. For 14 day. D. For 35 day. E. *From 9 to 21 day.

236. The result of mumps could be everything except: A. *Salivary-stone disease B. Infertility C. CSF Hypertensive syndrome D. Deafness E. Epilepsy

237. The epidemiology of mumps is characterized by everything enumerated, except: A. *The high incidence among children under one year B. Contagious index 0,7 C. Most affected males D. After this illness remains a long and strong immunity E. Incidence increasing every 4-5 years

238. Indicate the etiology of measles. A. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family B. togavirus family Rubivirus C. *paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family D. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family E. orthomyxovirus

239. The generalized form of chicken pox is characterized by: A. a presence of not numerous vesicles on a skin, subfebrile temperature B. rashes on a skin does not turn to vesicles (only maculo-papulous rashes are present), normal body temperature C. *neurotoxicosis with a convulsive syndrome, hyperpyrexia, continuous vesicles, quite often with bloody content, defeat of internal organs D. plenty of rashes, on the stage of vesicles on a skin and mucus membranes, febrile temperature E. except typical rashes, appear large bubbles (up to 2-4 сm in diameter) with turbid content, which burst and abandon moist surfaces

240. The increase of which lymph nodes has the greatest diagnostic value in infectious mononucleosis? A. *Posterior neck B. Supraclavicular C. Occipital D. Tonsillar E. Axillary

241. The most common herpes virus infection are all except: A. *Herpetic encephalitis B. Herpes of the lips C. Herpes of the skin D. Ophthalmic herpes E. Genital herpes

242. What immunity develops after infectious mononucleosis? A. Immunity is unsteady, unsterile B. Immunity is unsteady, typospecific C. Immunity is unsteady D. Immunity is prolonged, typospecific E. *Immunity is stabile, long life

243. The pathogenesis of mumps is characterized by everything except: A. *The virus enters through a Stensen’s duct B. Mucous membranes of the mouth, pharynx, nose are the input gates C. Virus is trail to the glandular tissue D. Virus is trail to the nervous system E. Virusemia - one of the major pathogenetic mechanisms of the disease

244. What laboratory investigation is the best for early diagnostic of whooping cough? A. "cough plates" method; B. Serological method; C. The reaction of the complement binding; D. *Immune-enzyme method; E. DNA polymerase reaction.

245. The specific prophylaxis of chicken pox is: A. *vaccination B. isolation of patient up to 5 days since the last rashes appear C. isolation of contact person D. ventilation and moist cleaning E. acyclovir in the first 5 days after the contact

246. The Varicella-Zoster Virus belongs to: A. Adenoviridae B. Rhinoviridae C. *Herpes virus family D. Hepadnaviridae E. Paramyxovirus family

247. Which from laboratory animals can be infected and become ill with measles? A. Dogs B. *Monkeys C. Rabbits D. Mice E. Chickens

248. What is epidemiological peculiarity of infectious mononucleosis? A. Sporadic cases in summer B. *Flashes in families C. Epidemia D. Epidemia in cold time of year E. Epidemia in spring-summer time of year

249. Indicate the possible source of diphtheria. A. *carriers of toxigenic strains B. domestic animals C. carriers of nontoxigenic strains D. carriers of C.xerosis E. carriers of C.enzimaticum

250. Indicate the possible source of diphtheria. A. viral carriers B. domestic animals C. *patients with diphtheria D. rodents E. poultry

251. Indicate the possible source of infectious mononucleosis: A. Domestic animals B. Poultry C. Wild animals D. Cattle E. *viral carriers

252. What changes in blood analysis are typical for Whooping cough? A. Leucocytosis with neutrophilia; B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis; C. *Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis; D. Leucocytosis with lymphopenia; E. Leucopenia with neutropenia.

253. What age does it follow to perform the vaccination and re-vaccination against measles? A. At 3, 4, 5 months B. *In 1 year, 6 years C. In 1 year, 11 years D. In 1 year, 6, 11 years E. In 1 year, 6, 15 years

254. What titer of antibodies in Complement Binding Reaction will be diagnostic on a 2nd week of mumps? A. *1 : 40 B. 1 : 10 C. 1 : 20 D. 1 : 32 E. 1 : 16

255. When is it possible to select a virus of mumps from an organism? A. *Last 1-3 days of latent period and 3-4 days from the beginning of illness B. Last 1-3 days of latent period and 7-9 days from the beginning of illness C. 3-4 days from the beginning of illness D. 7-9 days from the beginning of illness E. Last 1-3 days of the acute period

256. What fluids of organism will contain the virus of mumps? A. *Saliva, blood, spinal fluid B. Urine, excrement, bile C. Urine, blood, spinal fluid D. Urine, excrement, blood E. Saliva, excrement, bile

257. What is the mechanism of congenital Rubella transmission? A. air-droplet B. alimentary C. *hemocontact D. droplet E. Contact

258. What agent is diphtheria caused by? A. Corynebacterium enzimaticum B. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Corynebacterium pyogenes D. Corynebacterium haemoliticus E. Corynebacterium xerosis

259. What results of complete blood analysis in pseudotuberculosis will be different from scarlet fever? A. Increased number of plasmatic cells, normal ESR B. monocytosis, normal ESR C. Appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, increased ESR D. leucocytosis, increased ESR E. *No one

260. Indicate the duration of the agent secretion in case of congenital Rubella. A. *1.5-2 years B. 1.5-2 weeks C. 1.5-2 months D. Till 5 days from the beginning of disease E. Till 5 days after appearance of exanthema 261. What age does it follow to vaccinate the child against Rubella? A. *In 1 year B. At 1.5 years C. In 3 years D. In 6 years E. In 11 years

262. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella? A. Murson's Symptom B. Filatov's Symptom C. Pastia's Symptom D. *Greg's Triad E. Koplick's Symptom

263. What with is a Rubella virus secreted to the environment in case of congenital Rubella? A. With a blood, saliva, sweat B. With a blood, urine, sweat C. With sweat, nasopharyngeal mucus D. *With excrements, urine, nasopharyngeal mucus E. With saliva, urine, blood

264. Tonsillitis may be a manifestation of any of the following diseases, except: A. *Respiratory syncitial infection B. Enteroviral infection (Coxsackie) C. Fuzospirillous infection D. Candida infection E. Infectious mononucleosis

265. Typical mechanism of chicken pox transmission is: A. *droplet B. alimentary C. parentheral D. contact E. transplacental

266. Vincent's tonsillitis is characterized by all except: A. *Violations of the general condition B. Not significant pain syndrome C. Unilateral defeat D. Ulcer-necrotic changes E. The lack of regional lymph nodes reaction

267. Viral pneumonia, as complication of chicken pox develops in: A. *first 3-4 days of exanthema period B. last 3-4 days of exanthema period C. period of crusts D. period of sculling E. period of hyperpigmentation

268. What antibacterial drug is better for 1 month infant with whooping cough? A. *Azithromycin B. Penicillin C. Streptomycin D. Bactrim E. Gentamicin

269. What antibiotic should be used for the whooping cough treatment? A. Cephasolin; B. Benzylpenicillin; C. *Ampicillin; D. Tetracyclin; E. Nifuroxasid.

270. What antibiotic should be used for the whooping cough treatment? A. Cephasolin; B. Benzylpenicillin; C. *Erythromycin; D. Ciprofloxacin; E. Nifuroxasid.

271. What antibiotic should not be used for the whooping cough treatment? A. Ampicillin; B. *Cefazoline; C. Amoxacillin; D. Gentamicin; E. Cefotaxim.

272. What are the features of whooping cough in infants? A. *All the listed B. Shortening of the incubation and catarrhal period C. The prevalence of severe forms in the course of disease D. Frequent complications E. The absence of typical coughing paroxysms

273. What changes does it follow to expect in the blood test of patients with chicken pox? A. Leucocytosis with neutrophilia; B. *Leucopenia with lymphocytosis; C. Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis; D. Leucocytosis with lymphopenia; E. Leucopenia with neutropenia

274. What changes in the peripheral blood can confirm a diagnosis of tonsillitis? A. *Neutrophilic leucocytosis with a left shift B. Leukopenia in with lymphocytosis C. Slightly elevated ESR D. Reduced hemoglobin levels and low color index E. The number of atypical mononuclear cells in a smear more than 10%

275. What complication is the most likely in the patient with perytonsillitis? A. *Lymphadenitis B. Paresis of soft palate C. Myocarditis D. Polyneuritis E. Pneumonia

276. What differs the pathogenesis of herpes zoster from varicella? A. *Reactivation of varicella zoster virus in the immune organism B. The manifestation of primary infection in the organism susceptible to varicella zoster virus C. Reactivation of herpes simplex virus in the immune organism D. Reactivation of the Epstein-Barr virus in the immune organism E. None of the above

277. What does not belong to allergic complications of scarlet fever? A. rheumatic fever B. myocarditis C. arthritis D. *myositis E. nephritis

278. What does not belong to infectious complications of scarlet fever? A. purulent lymphadenitis B. necrotizing tonsillitis C. *keratitis D. otitis E. sinusitis

279. What does not belong to specific complications of chicken pox? A. encephalitis B. croup C. keratitis D. pneumonia E. *myositis

280. What does not belong to the atypical forms of chicken pox? A. hemorrhagic B. bullous C. gangrenous D. *ulcerative E. generalized

281. What does not belong to the atypical forms of scarlet fever? A. hemorrhagic form B. hypertoxic form C. extrabuccal form D. *necrotizing form E. scarlet fever without rashes

282. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever? A. skin shelling from the second week of illness B. *pigmentation after rashes C. „strawberry" tongue D. „scarlet fever" heart E. white dermographism

283. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever? A. *conjunctivitis B. changes of the tongue C. tonsillitis D. „blazing" pharynx E. rashes

284. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever? A. intoxication B. *cold C. tonsillitis D. regional lymphadenitis E. rashes

285. What from the following is used for the treatment of uncomplicated moderate infectious mononucleosis? A. *None of the above B. Antidiphtheritic serum C. Steroid hormones D. Local antifungal treatment E. Antibiotics 286. What is characteristically for a typical form of scarlet fever? A. Prolong fever before rashes B. Koplick's spots appear before the rashes C. rashes are provoked by the use of semisynthetic penicillins D. appearance of new elements is accompanied by the increase of body temperature E. *exfoliation of epidermis on the second week after rashes

287. What is not characterized for herpes zoster? A. It is more common in elderly B. Varicella-zoster virus can not penetrate through the placental barrier C. Infectivity is low (10-20%) D. An airborne way of transmission E. *Varicella-zoster viruses have affinity for herpes simplex virus

288. What is not recommended for the secondary bacterial infection (in a mouth) prophylaxis to patient with a chicken pox: A. gargle of the mouth cavity by 5 % boric acid solution B. gargle of mouth cavity by weak potassium permanganate solution C. gargle of mouth cavity by weak furacillin solution D. gargle of mouth cavity by the boiled water E. *antibiotics (a half of the usual dose)

289. What is not typical for the blood picture in case of "Sixth disease"? A. *Eosinophilia B. Pronounced leukopenia C. Granulocytopenia D. Lymphocytosis E. Thrombocytopenia

290. What is not typical for the epidemiology of varicella? A. *It is transmitted through a third person, care facilities B. The source of infection can be patient with herpes zoster C. The infection can spread through the keyhole, door gaps D. Pathogen die when exposed to ultraviolet rays E. An airborne way of transmission

291. What is not typical for the varicella rash? A. *The formation of scars on the soles and palms B. The first elements appear on the face and scalp C. Duration of rash 2-8 days D. Polymorphism E. Itching

292. What is not typical for the varicella rash? A. *Skin sores B. Each new eruption is accompanied by a new rise in body temperature C. All stages of the rash elements can be seen simultaneously D. Rash is located superficially E. Involvement of the scalp skin and mucous membranes

293. What is the whooping cough contagiousness? A. *70-80% B. 20% C. 40% D. 95% E. 100%

294. What is the dose of erythromycin at scarlet fever? A. 10-15 mg/kg/day B. *30-50 mg/kg/day C. 50-100 mg/kg/day D. 100-150 mg/kg/day E. 20-30 mg/kg/day

295. What is the dose of penicillin at scarlet fever? A. 30-50 mg/kg/day B. 50-100 mg/kg/day C. 100-150 mg/kg/day D. *50-100 thousand IU/kg/day E. 100-200 thousand IU/kg/day

296. What is the duration of scarlet fever latent period? A. 1-2 hours B. *till 7 days C. 1-2 days D. 11-21 day E. 30 days

297. What is the etiology of scarlet fever? A. Varicella-Zoster B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Parvovirus E. *group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

298. What is the main cause of asphyxia in diphtheria croup? A. *Trachea blockage by fibrinous membrane B. The presence of a viscous secretion C. Edema of the mucous membrane D. Reflex spasm of laryngeal muscles E. Necrosis of mucosa

299. What is the main cause of low mumps virus distribution in the environment? A. *No patients with catarrhal symptoms, and virus isolation from large drops of saliva B. The virus is transmitted from person to person primarily through contaminated saliva C. The relatively high percentage (30-40) of atypical forms of mumps D. Virus is not stable to the effects of physical and chemical factors E. Lack of virus transmission via third parties

300. What is the reason of the scarlet fever antibacterial therapy? A. *Streptococcal etiology of disease B. Age of the patient C. Disease severity D. The course of angina E. The presence of complications

301. What is typical for the varicella rash? A. *Unilocular vesicle with a transparent content on the not infiltrated basis B. Nodules, towering above the surface of the skin C. Multilocular vesicle with a transparent content D. Unilocular vesicle on the infiltrated basis E. Vesicle with a yellowish pus (pustule)

302. What kind of research will verify the diagnosis of fungal tonsillitis? A. *Smear microscopy B. Throat culture C. Analysis of peripheral blood D. The agglutination reaction with horses erythrocytes E. The increased antibody titer to streptococcal antigens

303. What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of chicken pox? A. blood culture B. throat smear C. *immune-fluorescence method D. „thick drop" E. vesicles content culture

304. What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of Herpes Zoster? A. blood culture B. throat smear C. *immune-fluorescence method D. „thick drop" E. vesicles content culture

305. What laboratory method of investigation will confirm the diagnosis of scarlet fever? A. blood culture B. *throat culture C. immune-enzyme method D. „thick drop" E. nasopharyngeal swab

306. What is the latent period duration at chicken pox? A. a few hours B. 1-2 days C. 3-7 days D. *11-21 day E. 30 days

307. What is the single dose of acyclovir at chicken pox? A. *10-15 mg/kg B. 100 mg/kg C. 1000 IU/kg D. 10-30 mg/kg E. 10 mcg/kg

308. What percentage of the world's population is infected with the virus of infectious mononucleosis? A. *80-100% B. Less than 10% C. 10-30% D. 40-50% E. 60-70%

309. What prognosis is the most likely in a patient with Simanovsky Vincent tonsillitis? A. *Recovery B. The development of sepsis C. Bleeding from the tonsils D. The development of polyneuritis, myocarditis E. The development of glomerulonephritis

310. What result of pharyngeal mucus laboratory examination is the most likely in a patient with Simanovsky Vincent tonsillitis? A. *Fuzo-spirochetes B. Toxigenic diphtheria bacteria C. Diphtheroid D. Coccal bacteria E. Fungi

311. What statement is not correct for scarlet fever? A. *The rash appears on 3rd-4th days of illness B. Index of contagiousness is 0,4 C. The household route of infection is possible D. Desquamation has a lamellar character E. Complications can be bacterial and allergic

312. What statement is not correct for scarlet fever? A. *The source of infection is only patient with scarlet fever B. The incubation period is less than 7 days C. The disease occurs more often in mild form D. Complications are relatively rare E. Immunity after previous infection is now often unstable

313. What symptom is not typical for scarlet fever? A. „goose skin" symptom B. Filatov's symptom C. „strawberry" tongue D. Pastia's symptom E. *„socks" and „gloves" symptom

314. What external conditions will the virus of measles be stable? A. High temperature B. Sunlight C. Ultraviolet irradiation D. Drying E. *Freezing

315. What the radiological changes in the lungs are typical for whooping cough? A. *Emphysema, segmental or lobar atelectasis B. Emphysema, infiltrative changes C. Migratory eosinophilic infiltrates D. Increased vascular pattern E. Dilated roots

316. What swelling consistency is typical for mumps? A. *Doughy B. Cartilaginous C. Firm D. Fluctuating E. Nodular 317. What is the treatment in case of varicella keratoconjunctivitis? A. 2% chloramphenicol ointment B. 1% tetracycline ointment C. drops „Tobradex" D. *ointment „Zovirax" and 20% solution of Na sulfacilici E. 20% of Na sulfacilici solution and 1% tetracycline ointment

318. What treatment should be start to a patient with perytonsillitis first of all? A. *Surgery B. Corticosteroids C. Antibiotics penicillins D. Antidiphtheritic serum E. Local treatment

319. What treatment should be start without delay to a patient with diphtheria? A. *Antidiphtheritic serum B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Antifungal drugs D. Corticosteroids E. Surgical intervention

320. When is it possible to visit the organized child's establishment after scarlet fever? A. on 6th day from the disease beginning B. on 10th day from the from the disease beginning C. on 15th day from the disease beginning D. *on 22nd day from the disease beginning E. on 30th day from the disease beginning

321. Which of the following complications is the least possible in scarlet fever? A. *Pyelonephritis B. Sinusitis C. Otitis D. Lymphadenitis E. Arthritis

322. Which of the following determines the development of "scarlet fever heart" second phase? A. *Vagotony B. Toxic damage of cardiomyocytes C. Dysfunction of the chordal apparatus D. Inflammatory changes in the myocardium E. Sympathicotony 323. Which of the following diseases is most likely accompanied by lesions of the pancreas? A. *Mumps B. Influenza A C. Colibacteriosis D. Dysentery E. Infectious mononucleosis

324. Which of the following does not apply to the manifestation of mumps? A. *Neuritis of the auditory nerve B. Pancreatitis C. Orchitis D. Meningitis E. Meningoencephalitis

325. Which of the following is appropriate for treatment of Simanovsky Vincent tonsillitis? A. *Local treatment B. Antidiphtheritic serum C. Oral wide spectrum antibiotics D. Intramuscular penicillin E. Antifungal drugs

326. Which of the following is appropriate to a patient with tonsillar diphtheria (toxic, II degree), complicated by myocarditis? A. *Strict bed rest, corticosteroids B. Broad spectrum antibiotics C. Oral rehydration D. Surgery E. Diet № 5

327. Which of the following is best to do in a presumptive diagnosis of toxic tonsillar diphtheria? A. *Hospitalization without the prior laboratory examination B. Pharynx and nose swab bacteriologic test for the diphtheria bacillus C. Microscopy of material from the pharynx D. Serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis E. ENT-doctor consultation

328. Which of the following is not typical for chickenpox? A. Specific immunoglobulin is injected to prevent the disease for all children up to 3 months B. Possible complications are associated with the CNS lesions - Encephalitis C. Pyoderma is the most frequent complication in children D. The disease may have an adverse outcome in a child with leukemia, particularly during chemotherapy E. *Generalized form of neonatal varicella is rare

329. Which of the following is the leading in asymptomatic mumps diagnosis? A. *Immunosorbent assay (ELISA) of specific antibodies of IgM detection B. ELISA specific antibodies IgG detection C. Complete blood count D. Hemagglutination test in paired sera E. None of the above

330. Which of the following is the most expedient to appoint for a child with Lacunar tonsillitis? A. *Antibiotics penicillins B. Sulfonamide C. Antidiphtheritic serum D. Local treatment E. Antifungal medication

331. Which of the following must be done for the toxigenic diphtheria carriers? A. *antibiotic therapy (macrolides) B. antidiphtheritic serum injection C. unscheduled vaccination against diphtheria D. immunostimulants orally E. Repeat bacteriological examination in 7-10 days without any treatment

332. Which of the following should be considered first of all when choosing a method of a chicken pox patient isolation? A. *The causative agent is distributed with an air in adjacent rooms B. The patient is contagious for 8 days C. The causative agent is quickly perish in the environment D. It is not transmitted through a third person E. Infection is not transmitted through toys and care facilities

333. Which of the following is a symptom of mumps (together with increased parotid glands)? A. *Pain while chewing B. Cough C. Conjunctivitis D. Enanthema on the soft palate E. Maculopapular rash

334. Why the isolated diphtheria croup has no toxic forms? A. *Fibrinous membrane is easily separated from the mucosa that is covered with single-layered columnar epithelium B. In the development of diphtheritic croup, mainly nontoxigenic diphtheria bacilli play the role C. Diphtheria croup is more common in vaccinated children of 1-5 years, when still antitoxic immunity is high D. Croup is caused by a specific type of pathogen that does not cause toxic forms of diphtheria E. Croup, unlike tonsillar diphtheria, develops usually in children with a mature immune system

335. Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enteroviral infection: A. *Hospitalization of patients, isolation of contacts to 14 days, current disinfection B. Supervision after patients and contacts, final disinfection C. Hospitalization of sick and contacts to 10 days, current disinfection D. The supervision after patients, isolation of contacts on 7 days, final disinfection E. Supervision after patients and contacts, giving them interferon

336. What is the agent of acute poliomyelitis? A. *Virus of Poliovirus hominis B. The ECHO virus C. The Polimixovirus D. Bacteria E. Mixed infection

337. What is the most frequent form of encephalitic reaction at a child of 5 years are: A. Cramps B. *Delirium C. Violation of consciousness D. Violation of CSF dynamics E. Sopor

338. Characteristic features of head ache at meningococcal meningitis are A. *Head ache has spread character, increases at the sound and light irritations, head movements B. Head ache has local character, increases at the tactile irritations C. Head ache has spread character, increases at the turns of head D. Head ache has local character, increases at the turns of head E. Head ache has local character, does not depend on position of body

339. Characteristic features of muscle pain at epidemic myalgia (enteroviral infection) are: A. *Pain is sharp, paroxysmal, arises up by the attacks, increases at a cough, motions B. Pain is permanent, aching, is localized mainly in extremities C. Pain is periodic, paroxysmal, arise up spontaneously D. Pain is permanent, not intensive; diminish after the easy physical loading E. Pain is permanent, holding apart character, increases at the change of position

340. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. *Asymmetrical. B. Distal. C. Hypertension of muscles. D. Hyperrephlexia. E. Violation of sensitivity.

341. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. *Absence of rephlexes. B. Symmetrical C. Distal. D. Hypertension of muscles. E. Violation of sensitivity.

342. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. *Hypotonia of muscles. B. Hyperrephlexia. C. Symmetrical. D. Distal. E. Violation of sensitivity.

343. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. *Sensitivity is normal. B. Distal. C. Symmetrical. D. Hypertension muscles. E. Hyperrephlexia.

344. Clinical signs of paralytic form of enteroviral infection are: A. *The common state is satisfactory; a temperature is normal, languid monoparesis of extremities, weakness of muscles of buttocks, thigh, and mimic muscles B. The common state is broken, febrile temperature, monoparesis of extremities, weakness of mimic muscles C. The common state is satisfactory, subfebrile temperature, languid tetraparesis. Muscular tone and reflexes are increased. D. The common state is broken, subfebrile temperature, languid tetraparesis. Muscular tone and reflexes are increased. E. Common state is satisfactory, febrile temperature, languid monoparesis. Muscular tone and reflexes are reduced. 345. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. *Bulging fontanel. B. Kerning’s Symptom. C. Single vomiting. D. Paralysis. E. Confusion.

346. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. *Cramps. B. Kerning’s Symptom. C. Nausea. D. Paralysis. E. Loss of consciousness.

347. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. *Repeated vomiting. B. Kerning’s Symptom. C. Sunken fontanel. D. Paresis. E. Hallucinations.

348. Define the meningitis criteria in infants: A. *All the enumerated B. Convulsions. C. Bulging fontanel. D. Repeated vomiting. E. Tilting the head.

349. Diagnostic value for acute poliomyelitis have different methods of investigation, except: A. *Electroencephalography B. Virologic C. Serological D. CSF Investigations E. Electromyography

350. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of unknown etiology: A. *Penicillin. B. Chloramphenicol. C. Cefotaxim. D. Kanamycin. E. Azithromycin. 351. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of unknown etiology: A. *Ampicillin. B. Chloramphenicol. C. Ceftriaxon. D. Ciprofloxacin. E. Streptomycin.

352. Etiologic diagnostics of purulent meningitis is based on: A. Features of clinical picture B. *CSF culture C. CSF clinical test D. Features of clinical duration E. Computer tomogram

353. For confirmation of enteroviral infection it is needed to do: A. *Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and complement binding reaction with paired sera B. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, urine, CSF and complement binding reaction with paired sera C. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and indirect hemagglutination reaction D. Virology research of urine, feces, CSF and bacteriological research of feces E. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, urine and reaction of indirect fluorescence

354. For serous meningitis at mumps is typical all, except: A. Expressed headache B. Frequent vomit C. High CSF pressure D. *Neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF E. Raised level of protein

355. For terminal period of tubercular meningitis is typical: A. Expressed meningeal symptoms B. Marasmus C. Paralyses of extremities D. Infants have hydrocephalus E. *All enumerated is right

356. For ventriculitis at purulent meningitis is characteristically all, except for: A. Occurs in the period of convalescence B. Tonic-clonic cramps C. Unbending poses of extremities D. Nuchal rigidity E. *Hypotonia

357. For which viral infection meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. *Enteroviral infection. B. Parainfluenza. C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Rotavirus

358. For which viral infection meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. *Influenza. B. Parainfluenza. C. Reovirus infection D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Astrovirus infection

359. Give definition of poliomyelitis. A. *Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and CNS damage by the type of languid paralyses. B. Acute viral disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and the damage of the nervous system C. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the common signs and CNS damage by the type of spastic paralyses. D. Acute viral-bacterial disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and CNS damage E. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the heart and CNS damage by the type of languid paralyses.

360. Herpangina in children (agent - Coxsackie B viruses) is characterized by the appearance of small vesicles surrounded by a red circle on the mucous membranes with subsequent formation of fast healing erosions. Usually the vesicles appear in all sites, except: A. *Cheek mucosa B. Soft palate C. Uvula D. Palatal arches E. Posterior pharyngeal wall

361. In acute paralytic poliomyelitis virus mainly affects: A. *The anterior horns of the spinal cord B. Cortex C. Cerebellum D. Pia mater E. Posterior horns of the spinal cord 362. Indicate an express method of Meningococcemia diagnostics. A. *bacterioscopy of the "thick drop" of blood B. blood culture C. immune-fluorescent method D. serological investigation of paired sera E. indirect hemagglutination reaction

363. Indicate antibacterial medicine for treatment of Meningococcal nasopharyngitis. A. *rifampicin or macrolides B. semisynthetic penicillins C. gentamicin or offloading D. macrolides or azithromycin E. azithromycin or gentamicin

364. Indicate multiplicity of benzylpenicillin introduction per day to the child of 3 months with meningococcal meningitis. A. 4 times B. 6 times C. *8 times D. 10 times E. 12 times

365. Indicate multiplicity of benzylpenicillin introduction per day to the child of 10 months with meningococcal meningitis. A. 4 times B. *6 times C. 8 times D. 10 times E. 12 times

366. Indicate multiplicity of cefotaxim introduction per day to the child of 6 months with meningococcal meningitis. A. 1 time B. 2 times C. *4 times D. 6 times E. 8 times

367. Indicate multiplicity of ceftriaxon introduction per day to the child of 1 year with meningococcal meningitis. A. 1 time B. *2 times C. 3 times D. 4 times E. 5 times

368. Indicate multiplicity of chloramphenicol introduction per day to the child of 6 years with meningococcal meningitis. A. 2 times B. 3 times C. *4 times D. 5 times E. 6 times

369. Indicate the clinical diagnostic criteria of poliomyelitis: A. *Languid paralyses of especially lower extremities that had appeared after the period of hyperthermia B. Presence of hemiparesis and hyperpyrexia C. Appearance of spastic palsies after a catarrhal period D. Spontaneous appearance of languid paralyses E. Appearance of tetraparesis after the protracted fever

370. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 2 months with meningococcal meningitis: A. 100 000 IU/kg B. 150 000 IU/kg C. 300 000 IU/kg D. *500 000 IU/kg E. 600 000 IU/kg

371. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 9 months with meningococcal meningitis: A. 100 000 IU/kg B. 150 000 IU/kg C. *300 000 IU/kg D. 500 000 IU/kg E. 600 000 IU/kg

372. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 3 years with meningococcal meningitis: A. 100 000 IU/kg B. *200 000 IU/kg C. 300 000 IU/kg D. 500 000 IU/kg E. 600 000 IU/kg

373. Indicate the daily dose of cefotaxim to the child of 2 years with meningococcal meningitis: A. 50 mg/kg B. 100 mg/kg C. 150 mg/kg D. *200 mg/kg E. 250 mg/kg

374. Indicate the daily dose of ceftriaxon to the child of 5 years with meningococcal meningitis: A. 50 mg/kg B. *100 mg/kg C. 150 mg/kg D. 200 mg/kg E. 250 mg/kg

375. Indicate the daily dose of chloramphenicol to the child of 2 years with meningococcal meningitis: A. 10 mg/kg B. 20 mg/kg C. 30 mg/kg D. 50 mg/kg E. *100 mg/kg

376. Indicate the specific signs of respiratory-catarrhal form of enteroviral infection («summer flu») A. *Cold, dry cough, hyperemia of the face, pharynx, and conjunctivitis. Duration of disease is 1-3 days. B. Cold, dry cough, conjunctivitis, expressed pallor of skin. Duration of disease is 1-3 days. C. Febrile temperature, barking cough, hyperemia of pharynx, conjunctivitis. Duration of disease is 5-7 days. D. Hyperthermia to 39-40 С, paroxysmal dry cough, hyperemia of the face, pharynx. Duration of disease is 6-10 days. E. Cold, intensive moist cough, hyperemia of pharynx, otitis. Duration of disease is for 2 weeks

377. Indicate the typical features of enteroviral diarrhea. A. *Absence of considerable intoxication, diarrhea is on the background of the catarrhal phenomena, positive epidemiology data B. Intoxication, watery diarrhea with green admixtures on a background of subfebrile temperature C. Presence of the catarrhal phenomena, emptying frequent, liquid, yellow with the admixtures of mucus D. Absence of intoxication, diarrhea, stomach-aches, febrile temperature E. The displays of intoxication are not considerable, emptying of green color, is accompanied by tenesms and severe stomach-aches 378. Indicate the way of polio-vaccine introduction at the third vaccination and next revaccinations. A. *Through a mouth B. Subcutaneously C. Intracutaneously D. Intramuscularly E. Endonasaly

379. In which illness myositis could develop? A. *Enteroviral infections. B. Influenza. C. Herpetic infection. D. Salmonellosis. E. Typhoid fever.

380. Lumbar puncture is indicated in case of: A. Comma of 3rd degree B. Collapse C. *Presence of meningeal symptoms D. Hyperthermia of unknown origin

381. Medical tactic at enteroviral infection is: A. *The changes of diet are not needed. Gamma-globulin and RNA-element is specific treatment. B. Diet. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. C. Specific treatment is not present. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment. D. Diet. Purpose of antiviral and pathogenetic therapy. E. A diet is not appointed. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment.

382. More frequent entrance gate (atrium) at Enteroviral infection is: A. *Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine B. Wound surface C. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach D. Mucus membranes of the intestine E. Lymphatic and blood circulatory system

383. More frequent purulent meningitis occurs at: A. *new-born B. infants C. 1-3 years old children D. elder children E. out of dependence on age

384. Name the dose of sodium oxybutirati for treatment of convulsive syndrome: A. 40-60 mg/kg B. 50-70 mg/kg C. *50-100 mg/kg D. 70-100 mg/kg E. 100-120 mg/kg

385. Name the evidence to abolish antibiotics at purulent meningitis: A. *after decrease of pleocytosis to 50 cells B. after complete liquor sanation C. after normalization of temperature and acute phase indexes of blood D. after disappearance of meningeal symptoms E. after negative CSF culture

386. Name the incorrect assertion about the epidemiology of poliomyelitis: A. *More likely older children are infected B. The only source of infection is a sick person or a virus carrier C. The virus is excreted from the nasopharyngeal or intestinal contents D. In nasopharynx virus stay not more than 1-2 weeks E. Virus secretion with faces may take several weeks

387. Pathogenesis of Meningococcemia: A. *entering of Meningococcus with the flow of blood in different organs and tissues B. entering of Meningococcus through lymphatic vessels in different organs and tissues C. Penetration of Meningococcus in the mucus membrane of nasopharynx D. Penetration of Meningococcus over the blood-brain barrier E. Penetration of Meningococcus in the mucus membrane of respiratory tract

388. Patients by what form of Meningococcal infection are the most dangerous in the epidemiology relation? A. *Meningococcal nasopharyngitis B. Meningococcal carrying C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Meningococcemia E. Meningococcal encephalitis

389. Prescribe an antibiotic to the child with meningococcal meningitis in case of his allergy on penicillin: A. erythromycin B. cefasolin C. ampicillin D. *chloramphenicol E. gentamicin 390. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectious-toxic shock: A. *Pale skin. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Venous stasis. D. Violation of consciousness. E. Bradycardia.

391. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectious-toxic shock: A. *Excitation. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Total cyanosis. D. Bradycardia. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

392. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectious-toxic shock: A. *Hyperthermia. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Total cyanosis. D. Venous stasis. E. Violation of consciousness.

393. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectious-toxic shock: A. *Tachycardia B. Venous stasis. C. Violation of consciousness. D. Bradycardia. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

394. Select the most typical features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. *Proximal. B. Symmetrical C. Hypertension of muscles. D. Hyperrephlexia. E. Violation of sensitivity.

395. The basic difference of encephalitis from the encephalitic reaction is: A. Brief loss of consciousness B. Brief clonic-tonic cramps C. *Output without organic cerebral defect D. Instable paralysis or paresis E. Violation of consciousness 396. The children of what age most often have poliomyelitis? A. *before 7 years B. in the first months of life C. in the first year of life D. in school age E. in 15-17 years

397. The damage of the motoneurons in the spinal form of acute poliomyelitis is characterized by all, except: A. *Signs of muscle atrophy appear in the first days of illness B. Acute paralysis, roughly, the period of their growth takes from several hours to 1-2 days C. Paralysis develops asymmetrically D. Characteristic pain (spontaneous pain in the extremities and back, the positive symptoms of tension) E. Sensory disturbances, pelvic disorders, pyramidal signs are absent

398. The differential diagnosis of polio acute paralytic form must be done with the following diseases except: A. *Rabies B. Encephalitis C. Infection polyradiculoneuritis D. Myopathy E. Myelitis

399. The enterovirus genus includes various representatives, except: A. *Hepatitis E Virus B. Poliomyelitis C. Coxsackie viruses group A and B D. The ECHO viruses E. Hepatitis A Virus

400. What is the entrance gate (atrium) for poliomyelitis virus? A. *Through a mouth B. Through the mucus surfaces of eyes C. Through a wound surface D. Through mother's milk E. Through placenta

401. The most frequent form of encephalitic reaction in children of early age is: A. *Cramps B. Delirium C. Violation of consciousness D. Violation of CSF dynamics E. Sopor

402. The most frequent form of encephalitic reaction in children of senior age is: A. Cramps B. *Delirium C. Violation of consciousness D. Violation of CSF dynamics E. Sopor

403. The source of infection at Enteroviral infection is: A. *Sick man or virus carrier B. Rodents C. Flies and mosquitoes D. Food E. Articles of care

404. The source of Meningococcal infection is: A. *Sick man and healthy transmitter B. Sick people and animals C. Sick people D. Healthy transmitters of infection E. Sick animals

405. Name the way of agent transmission at Meningococcal infection. A. *Air-droplet B. orally-fecal C. Contact-domestic D. Water and domestic E. transmissive

406. What agent most often causes meningitis at the children of early age? A. *meningococcus B. pneumococcus C. Haemophilus influenza D. Staphylococcus E. Streptococcus

407. What antibiotic is applied in case of infectious-toxic shock in Meningococcal meningitis? A. *chloramphenicol B. ampicillini thryhidratis C. benzylpenicillin D. ciprofloxacin E. cefotaxim 408. What antibiotic must be applied on the prehospital stage of Meningococcal meningitis treatment without the infectious-toxic shock? A. *chloramphenicol B. ampicillini thryhidratis C. rifampicin D. ciprofloxacin E. benzylpenicillin

409. What anticonvulsive preparation has the most suppressive action on the respiratory center? A. seduxen B. *sodium oxybutirati C. hexenal D. droperydol E. magnesium sulfate

410. What are the most typical places of rash localization at meningococcemia? A. *Legs. B. Face. C. Neck. D. Chest. E. Hands.

411. What are the most typical places of rash localization at meningococcemia? A. *Buttocks. B. Face. C. Head. D. Chest. E. Hands.

412. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock? A. *Pale skin. B. Oliguria. C. Hypothermia. D. Loss of consciousness. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

413. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock? A. *Hyperthermia. B. Oliguria. C. Hypothermia. D. Loss of consciousness. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

414. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock? A. *Tachycardia. B. Oliguria. C. Hypothermia. D. Loss of consciousness. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

415. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock: A. *Excitation. B. Oliguria. C. Hypothermia. D. Unconsciousness. E. Reduction of blood pressure.

416. What are the typical clinical signs of Enteroviral infection? A. *Hyperemia the face and neck, sometimes with appearance of the maculo-papulous rashes B. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis C. Presence of papulous rashes and itch D. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication E. Meningeal signs

417. What clinical signs are not typical for ependymatitis? A. Increasing disorders of consciousness B. Violation of muscular tone by the type of decerebration rigidity C. Tonic cramps D. Marasmus, that progresses E. *stabile hyperthermia

418. What complication is characteristic for staphylococcal meningitis? A. Damage of auditory nerve B. Neuritis of facial nerve C. *Abscess of brain D. Hydrocephalus E. Paresis of soft palate

419. What complication is the most characteristic for meningococcal meningitis? A. Damage of auditory nerve B. Neuritis of facial nerve C. Abscess of brain D. *Hydrocephalus E. Paresis of soft palate

420. What does not belong to criteria of the vaccine associated paralytic polio? A. *Vaccine associated paralytic polio (after oral vaccine) is most often associated with type I polio virus B. The onset of illness later than 4th and no later than 30th day after receiving the vaccine. To contacts with vaccinated this period is extended to 60-day. C. Development of flaccid paresis and paralysis without violating sensitivity with persistent (after 2 months) residual effects D. Lack of the disease progression E. Isolation of vaccine strain polio virus and a 4-fold increase of type- specific antibodies

421. What does the decrease of sugar in CSF in case of meningococcal meningitis point on? A. The etiology of disease B. Presence of bacteria in a blood C. *Protracted course of disease D. Development of ventriculitis E. Presence of complications

422. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children? A. *300 thousand units / kg B. 50 thousand units / kg C. 100 thousand units / kg D. 1 million IU / kg E. 200 thousand units / kg

423. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children? A. *400 thousand units / kg B. 150 thousand units / kg C. 100 thousand units / kg D. 600 thousand units / kg E. 200 thousand units / kg

424. What dose of prednisolone is entered at Meningococcemia without the sings of infectious-toxic shock? A. *5 mg/kg B. 10 mg/kg C. 15 mg/ kg D. 20 mg/kg E. 25 mg/kg

425. What dose of prednisolone is entered at Meningococcemia with the sings of infectious-toxic shock? A. *10 - 20 mg/kg B. 5 - 10 mg/kg C. 15 - 20 mg/kg D. 20 - 25 mg/kg E. 2 - 5 mg/kg

426. What epidemiology information confirm the diagnosis of enteroviral infection A. *Presence of group diseases or flashes, the sick children have herpangina, myalgia, and meningitis B. Presence of group diseases, the sick children have diarrhea, fever, meningitis C. Presence of flashes, the sick children have herpangina, carditis, and diarrhea D. Presence of group diseases or flashes, the sick children have severe toxic syndrome, meningitis E. Presence of periodic flashes, the sick children have herpangina, arthritis, and diarrhea

427. What from enumerated is not characteristically for purulent meningitis at infants? A. Cramps B. Repeated vomit C. *Expressed meningeal symptoms D. Hyperesthesia E. Bulging of large fontanel

428. What from enumerated is not characteristically for subdural effusion? A. Hectic temperature B. Location behind the large fontanel C. Symptoms of intracranial hypertension D. *Worsening of CSF indexes E. All enumerated is incorrect

429. What from this indicates on the «central» origin of vomiting? A. *Vomits without nausea B. Vomits, that repeats oneself C. Vomits which brings facilitation D. Vomits on a background of a high temperature E. Vomits, that is accompanied by head ache

430. What from this is correct? A. *Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and nervous system B. Enterovirus damage lungs, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and liver C. Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and nervous system D. Enterovirus damage lungs, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and liver E. Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, bone fabric and lights 431. What from vegetative violations is not typical for tubercular meningitis? A. Increased sweating B. The Trousseau’s spots C. Stable red dermographism D. *White dermographism E. Changes of cardiac rhythm

432. What does include prophylactic orthopedic regime for a patient with poliomyelitis? A. *bed regime, thermal procedures, dosed massage of the damaged muscles B. bed regime, physical therapy procedures, massage of the damaged muscles C. half bed regime, electro- and thermal procedures, massage of the damaged muscles D. half bed regime, electro- and thermal procedures, medical physical education E. half bed regime, physical therapy procedures, medical physical education

433. What is the characteristic pose of children who has poliomyelitis? A. *A symptom of tripods B. The Lasseg symptom C. Orthopnoe D. Pose of ballet-dancer E. Pose of frog

434. What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of Meningococcal infection? A. *Selection of agent from nasopharynx, blood, CSF B. Biochemical analysis of CSF C. Immunological tests D. Express methods E. Latex agglutination of blood

435. What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of Meningococcal meningitis? A. *CSF culture B. Biochemical research of CSF C. Latex agglutination of blood D. immune-fluorescent method E. indirect hemagglutination reaction

436. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema? A. *Violation of consciousness. B. Hyperthermia. C. Oliguria. D. Increased blood pressure. E. Bulging fontanel.

437. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema? A. *Convulsions. B. Hypothermia. C. Oliguria. D. Venous stasis. E. Bulging fontanel.

438. What is the most typical version of the primary rash in meningococcemia? A. *Papulous. B. Erythematous C. Excoriated. D. Roseolous. E. Vesiculous.

439. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia? A. *Haemorrhagic. B. Excoriated. C. Roseolous. D. Vesicular. E. Pustular.

440. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia, typical form? A. *Petechial. B. Erythematous. C. Bullous. D. Vesiculous. E. Pustulous.

441. What is the specific prophylaxis of enteroviral infection? A. *A specific prophylaxis is absent B. Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 1 year. C. Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 3 and 9 years. D. Introduction of specific Ig is conducted in age of 3 months. E. Introduction of specific Ig is conducted in age 15 months.

442. What is the way of poliomyelitis virus distribution in the organism of child? A. *hematogenous B. transplacental C. transcutaneal D. descending E. ascending 443. What muscles more frequent are damaged at poliomyelitis? A. *Muscles of lower extremities B. Muscles of upper extremities C. Muscles of neck D. Muscles of face E. Muscles of thorax and abdomen

444. What parts of the nervous system are the most damaged at poliomyelitis? A. *Spinal cord B. Trunk of cerebrum C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve E. Kernels of cranial nerves

445. What medicines are given to children in the focus of enteroviral infection? A. *Gamma-globulin and interferon for 14-15 days B. Anaferon for 10 days C. Antibiotics for 5 days D. Specific Ig for 3 days E. Specific antitoxin is injected for the first 2 days

446. What sign is not characteristic for tubercular meningitis? A. *Acute beginning B. Presence of prodromal period C. Fever D. Head ache E. Meningeal symptoms

447. What system is the most sensible to the polio-virus? A. *Nervous system B. Cardio-vascular system C. Lymphatic system D. Bone-muscular system E. System of blood

448. What tissues are the most sensible to action of Meningococcal endotoxin? A. *endothelium of blood vessels B. heart C. suprarenal glands D. brain E. cerebellum

449. What type of immunity is formed after poliomyelitis? A. *stable immunity B. unsteady immunity C. typospecific immunity D. family specific immunity E. absent immunity

450. What typical features of muscles damage by the virus of poliomyelitis? A. *Atony, arephlexia, «mosaic» of damaged muscles, atrophy, shakiness of joints B. Hypotonia, hyporephlexia, atrophy, tetraparesis, osteoporosis C. Hypertonia, and hyperrephlexia, «mosaic» of damaged muscles, osteoporosis D. Hypertonia, and hyperrephlexia, joints' ankylosis E. Atony, arephlexia, hemiparesis, deformation of spine

451. What vaccination is done for the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis? A. *Specific active prophylaxis by the living loosened vaccine B. Specific active prophylaxis by antitoxin C. Unspecific active prophylaxis D. By specific Ig E. By gamma globulin

452. When vaccination against poliomyelitis is performed? A. *From 3 months triply with an interval 1 month B. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 week C. In 1 year, 3 and 6 years D. Only by an epidemic testimony E. It is not conducted

453. Which prevention is crucial in the eradication of polio? A. *Routine vaccination not less than 96 percent of inhabitants B. Observation of contact at the source of infection for three weeks C. The current and final disinfection in the focus D. Emergency vaccination of those who were not vaccinated before E. Emergency introduction of the donor immunoglobulin to all contacts

454. Which statement about the rash in enterovirus infection is wrong? A. *Leaves pigmentation and scaling B. Pink, small maculous-papulous and pin-point C. A skin background is not changed D. Appears simultaneously on the face and trunk E. It is saved for a few days

455. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. *Chloramphenicol succinate. B. Cephalosporin Antibiotics. C. Diphenhydramine. D. Dicarboxylic. E. Penicillin.

456. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. *Prednisolone. B. Diphenhydramine. C. Dicarboxylic. D. Penicillin. E. Verospiron

457. Which of the following is not characteristic for enteroviral meningitis? A. It starts badly with a severe headache, vomiting, hyperthermia B. Meningitis symptoms usually persist up to 5 days C. *In the cerebrospinal fluid: cytosis is mixed as lymphocytic, neutrophilic character; sugar and protein is not elevated D. Sanation of CSF occurs at 3-4th week of illness E. Often, meningeal syndrome is weak or incomplete

458. Which symptom is not typical for neurotoxicosis? A. *Sunken fontanel. B. Convulsions. C. Violation of consciousness. D. Hyperthermia. E. Acrocyanosis.

459. Which symptom is not typical for neurotoxicosis? A. *Sunken fontanel. B. Hyperthermia. C. Acrocyanosis. D. Oliguria. E. Hyperpnoe.

460. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. *Poliomyelitis. B. Parainfluenza. C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Respiratory syncitial infection

461. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. *Herpesvius infection. B. Respiratory syncitial infection C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rotavirus infection E. Reovirus infection

462. Who is the source of infection at poliomyelitis? A. *Patients with poliomyelitis and virus carriers B. Only patients with poliomyelitis C. Patients with poliomyelitis and virus carriers D. Polio people and animals E. Patients with poliomyelitis and reconvalescents

463. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF in case of Polio. A. *Transparent, cell count is 100 cells, 80% lymphocytes, protein is 0.45 g/l B. Turbid, milky, cell count is 1200, 92% neutrophils, protein is 1.2 g/l C. Transparent, yellowish, cell count 200, lymphocytes 72%, glucose 1.2 mmol/l D. Red, cell count is 150 (erythrocytes) E. Transparent, cell count is 5, 100% lymphocytes, protein 0.045 g/l

464. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF in case of Enterovirus infection. A. *mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation B. changes are not characteristic (indicators are standard) C. marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation D. the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation E. moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein and cell dissociation

465. Which study will confirm Enterovirus infection in its’ early stage? A. *the virusological swab from the pharynx by ELISA B. serological method of paired sera C. bacteriological smear from the oropharynx D. detection of specific antibodies (Ig G) for enterovirus E. blood smear (thick film)

466. For the specific prophylaxis of influenza is used: A. antitoxin B. *living or killed vaccines C. associated vaccines D. anti-influenza serum E. interferon

467. A typical inspection sign in a patient with lobar pneumonia is: A. *color, usually on the side of lesion B. jaundiced skin C. butterfly rash D. gray color E. everything is correct

468. A typical percussion sign of acute bronchitis is: A. *clear lung sound, often with bandbox B. clear lung sound C. shortening of pulmonary sound in the lower parts of the lungs D. shortening of the lung sound all over the lungs E. everything is correct

469. Acute stenotic laryngotracheobronchitis of the 1st degree - is: A. *compensated croup B. subcompensated croup C. decompensated croup D. asphyxia E. everything is correct

470. What antigens do the flu viruses have? A. Н- and О-antigens B. only О antigen C. S antigen D. Vi antigen E. *S- and Vi- antigens

471. What reaction is it better to use for establishment of influenza virus' type? A. hemagglutination braking reaction B. hemadsorption braking reaction C. immunofluorescense reaction D. *complement binding reaction E. neutralization reaction on the culture of cells

472. Among the viruses that cause croup, the first place has: A. *Parainfluenza virus B. Adenovirus C. Influenza virus D. RS- virus E. Everything is wrong

473. An influenza is passed by such way: A. air-dust. B. *air-droplet. C. contact. D. through a crockery. E. through the articles of common use.

474. What catarrhal sign is the most probable in respiratory-syncitial infection? A. rhinitis. B. pharyngitis. C. laryngitis. D. bronchitis. E. *bronchiolitis.

475. What environments can be used for the selection of adenovirus? A. Blood, spinal fluid, urine. B. Blood, urine, feces. C. *Nasopharyngeal smears, feces, urine. D. Saliva, urine, spinal fluid. E. Blood, nasopharyngeal smears, feces.

476. Through what time the repeated case of parainfluenza is possible in one child? A. In a year. B. *In few months. C. In few weeks. D. In few days. E. The repeated disease is impossible.

477. What investigation is used for express diagnosis of parainfluenza. A. complement binding reaction B. Passive hemagglutination reaction C. neutralization reaction D. *Immune-enzyme analysis E. Polymerase chain reaction

478. Interferon is the important factor of protection against viral infections. How does it act? A. It is present in the serum of healthy person, acting part of supervision after viruses B. It covers viral particles and blocks their attachment to the cells C. It protects the infected cells, which produce it, from death D. It lyses infected cells E. *It induces the synthesis of one or a few cellular proteins which depress the translation or transcription of virus

479. At RS-infection the maximal pathological changes are localized in: A. Nasopharynx B. Pharynx. C. Larynx. D. Trachea. E. *Small and middle bronchi.

480. The source of adenoviral infection is: A. Patients with the typical and atypical forms of adenoviral infection. B. People and birds with adenoviral infection. C. *Patients with adenoviral infection and transmitters of adenovirus. D. People and small mammals with adenoviral infection. E. People and animals with adenoviral infection.

481. Blood oxygen saturation more than 90% is typical for: A. *Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. B. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. C. Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. E. everything is wrong

482. Bradipnoe is characteristic for: A. *Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. B. Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. C. Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. E. everything is correct

483. Clinical analysis of blood in patients with acute bronchitis are: A. *leukopenia, lymphocytosis B. significant leukopenia C. moderate leucocytosis, anemia D. significant leucocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate E. everything is wrong

484. Duration of acute pneumonia is: A. *to 8 - weeks B. to 6 - weeks C. to 10 - weeks D. to 12 - weeks E. up to 3 months

485. Enumerate diseases, what are necessary to differentiate with flu first of all: A. escherichiosis; B. chicken-pox; C. *meningococcal infection; D. rhinoviral infection; E. rotaviral infection.

486. What is the source of infection at parainfluenza? A. *Patient with parainfluenza. B. Patient with parainfluenza and carrier. C. People and animals sick with parainfluenza. D. Sick animals and birds. E. Sick people and birds.

487. Etiotropic therapy of viral infection in the acute bronchitis is more effective when it is given: A. *in the first 2 days of illness B. no effective C. for 5-7 days D. throughout the disease E. everything is correct

488. For the specific prophylaxis of influenza is used: A. remantadin. B. antibiotics. C. chemotherapy. D. *vaccines. E. influenza immuneglobulin.

489. How long does immunity to the influenza A Н1N1 last? A. 14 - 21 day B. 1 - 2 months C. *1 - 2 years D. 3 - 5 years E. during all the life

490. How long does immunity to the influenza С last? A. *during all the life B. 3 - 5 years C. 1 - 2 years D. 2 - 4 weeks E. 10 - 21 day

491. How long will last the immunity to the influenza B virus? A. 14 - 21 day B. 1 - 2 months C. 1 - 2 years D. *3 - 5 years E. during all the life

492. How many times must the titre of antibodies with paired sera grow, to prove the previous result? A. 2 times B. 2.5 times C. 3 times D. 3.5 times E. *4 times and more

493. What serological method could be used for influenza diagnostic? A. *Braked hemagglutination reaction B. Binding complement reaction C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction D. Neutralization reaction E. Direct hemagglutination reaction

494. The type of influenza virus could be determined by: A. agglutination reaction B. indirect hemagglutination reaction C. precipitation reaction D. *complement binding reaction E. hemagglutination reaction

495. In acute obstructive bronchitis, auscultation reveals: A. *dry rales, medium bubbling rales on inspiration, expiration is lengthened B. weakened breathing C. prolonged expiration D. small bubbling rales diffusely E. everything is correct

496. In the treatment of acute bronchitis postural drainage is better to use: A. *after awakening B. after breakfast C. in the afternoon D. at bedtime E. everything is wrong

497. In what age group bronchitis is more frequent? A. *preschoolers B. infants C. newborns D. toddlers E. everything is correct

498. What medicine has etiological action on the flu virus: A. cocarboxylasa; B. interferon; C. ascorutin; D. *rhemantadin; E. DNA-asum. 499. Indicate the criteria of the compensated croup: A. *dyspnea occurs at the physical exertion B. aphonia; C. subnormal body temperature; D. stable tachycardia, arrhythmia; E. perioral cyanosis.

500. Indicate the criteria of the subcompensated croup: A. dyspnea at the physical exertion; B. *tachycardia, fall of pulse wave on inspiration; C. absence of intercostal spaces frictions; D. skin pallor; E. high body temperature

501. Indicate the main clinical features of flu in infants: A. subfebrile body temperature B. croup syndrome; C. *hyperthermia; D. heart damage; E. expressed catarrhal signs.

502. A community-acquired pneumonia in children from 6 months to 6 years is mostly caused by: A. *Pneumococcus B. Mycoplasma C. Chlamydia D. Staphylococcus E. E.coli

503. Viral croup is mostly developed: A. *at night B. in the afternoon C. in the evening D. in the morning E. everything is correct

504. Name a leading syndrome at patients with the RS-infection (for children of early age): A. Toxic. B. Catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract. C. *Obstructive. D. Asthenia. E. Dyspepsia.

505. Name favorable conditions for massive flu distribution: A. steady typospecific immunity; B. long latent period; C. *droplet mechanism of transmission; D. low receptivity to the flu E. electoral receptivity to the flu

506. Name indications to administer antibiotics in case of the false croup: A. concomitant catarrhal syndrome; B. *stenosis of the ІІІ-ІV degree; C. high fever; D. for the prophylaxis of bacterial complications E. antibiotic is not appointed.

507. Name the flu main signs A. *expressed intoxication syndrome with the CNS, cardio-vascular system damage; B. low fever; C. expressed catarrhal symptom; D. laryngitis; E. obstructive bronchitis.

508. Name the main route of infection penetration in pneumonia: A. *bronchogenous B. hematogenous C. lymphogenous D. mixed E. everything is correct

509. Name the most common cause of bronchitis. A. *viruses B. fungi C. bacteria D. vermin E. everything is correct

510. Neuraminidase activity is absent in: A. Virus of influenza A B. Virus of influenza B C. *Virus of influenza С D. All of these viruses E. None of these viruses

511. Instable perioral cyanosis is characteristic for: A. *Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. B. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. C. Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. E. everything is wrong

512. Obstructive respiratory failure is caused by: A. *development of the respiratory tract mucous edema B. alveolar lesion C. violation of the breathing neuromuscular control D. capillary pulmonary circulation lesion E. everything is correct

513. Parenchymatous respiratory failure is caused by: A. *lesion of the alveoli and capillary pulmonary circulation B. changes in respiratory muscle C. compression of the airway from the outside D. impairment of the respiratory center E. everything is correct

514. Pneumococcus is completely resistant to: A. *aminoglycosides B. penicillins C. macrolides D. cephalosporins E. fluoroquinolones

515. Radiological signs of acute bronchitis are: A. *symmetrical intensification of lung pattern B. symmetrical attenuation of lung pattern C. symmetrical intensification of lung pattern with small focal hilar infiltration D. symmetrical intensification of lung pattern in hilar and lower medial zones E. everything is wrong

516. Rhinoviruses belong to the family of: A. paramyxoviruses. B. *picornaviruses. C. poxviruses. D. orthomyxoviruses. E. adenoviruses.

517. Rhinoviruses cause at people: A. *common cold B. obstructive bronchitis C. bronchiolitis D. pneumonia E. tracheitis

518. RS-infection often causes bronchiolitis in: A. *infants B. preschoolers C. toddlers D. adolescents E. everything is correct

519. Shortening of the percussion sounds in infants with focal pneumonia occurs: A. *in 5 - 10 days of illness B. in 3 - 5 days of illness C. in the first day of illness D. in 10 - 15 days of illness E. in 2 - 3 day of illness

520. Staphylococcal pneumonia develops mainly in: A. *schoolchildren B. adolescents C. preschoolers D. infants E. everything is correct

521. The absence of respiratory sounds during inspiration is characteristic for: A. *Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. B. Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. C. Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. E. everything is correct

522. How long bed regimen must be prescribed in case of influenza, severe degree? A. 3 days B. 5 days C. *7 days D. 14 days E. 18 days

523. The characteristic auscultation sign of acute bronchitis is: A. *harsh breathing B. weakened vesicular breathing C. puerile breathing D. everything is wrong E. everything is correct 524. What etiothropic medicine should be used for infant that has severe influenza? A. Rhemantadine B. Amantadine C. Interferon D. Laferon E. *Influenza immune globulin

525. To what day of the disease RS-virus could be found in the organism? A. Till 5th day from the disease beginning B. Till 10th day from the disease beginning C. *Till 17th day from the disease beginning D. Till 28th day from the disease beginning E. Till 2 month from the disease beginning

526. The drugs of choice for typical community-acquired pneumonia are: A. *amino penicillins B. carbapenems C. fluoroquinolones D. aminoglycosides E. preparations of other groups

527. The effectiveness of expectorants in acute bronchitis depends on: A. *sufficient drinking B. appointment of antiviral drugs C. appointment of antihistamines D. appointment of vitamins E. everything is correct

528. The etiology of pneumonia is dominated by: A. *pneumococcus B. klebsiella C. pathogenic fungi D. staphylococci E. viruses

529. The hospital pneumonia is that pneumonia which developed: A. *within 48 hours of hospitalization B. within 12 hours of hospitalization C. within 24 hours of hospitalization D. within 6 hours of hospitalization E. everything is correct

530. The main cause of croup is: A. *viral infections B. bacterial infections C. fungal infections D. parasitic lesions E. everything is correct

531. The main symptoms of acute bronchitis are: A. *cough B. sore throat C. running nose D. dyspnea E. everything is wrong

532. What is the parainfluenza latent period? A. 1-2 days. B. *2-7 days. C. 3-4 days. D. 4-7 days. E. 7-10 days.

533. The reservoir of influenza is: A. birds. B. cattle. C. man that had influenza. D. *sick man. E. vaccinated by a living vaccine.

534. What medicine is inadvisable to use for rheoviral infection treatment? A. Laferon B. nasal drops C. Paracethamol D. *Tetracycline E. Ascorbic acid

535. The early methods of influenza diagnostic determine: A. presence of antibodies against the viruses of influenza B. growth of antibodies titre in the patient's serum C. toxins of viruses D. *presence of viruses E. All answers are correct

536. The early methods of influenza diagnostic determine: A. presence of antibodies B. *family and variety of viruses C. toxin production D. growth of antibodies titre in the patient's serum E. All answers are correct 537. To the late methods of laboratory diagnostics of influenza belongs: A. neutralization reaction, colored test B. hemagglutination reaction with paired sera C. *complement binding reaction with paired sera D. hemadsorption reaction E. indirect hemagglutination reaction, hemagglutination braking reaction

538. What living system is better to use for the influenza virus selection? A. *chicken embryos B. culture of the НеLа cells C. culture of monkey's embryo kidneys cells D. white mice E. guinea-pigs

539. What material for virology research does it follow to take for influenza confirmation? A. *smears from nasopharynx B. sputum C. Blood D. Urine E. Feces

540. For the respiratory failure treatment oxygen is used, its concentration must not exceed: A. *60% B. 80% C. 70% D. 90% E. everything is correct

541. Typical radiological sign of pneumonia is: A. *the presence of infiltrative shadows B. increased lung pattern C. emphysematous lung distension D. expansion of the lungs' roots E. everything is correct

542. Typical physical data for pneumonia are: A. weakened breathing B. *local fine moist rales C. diffuse small moist rales D. diffuse dry wheezing E. everything is correct 543. Value of pulse and respiration 2 - 1.5: 1 is characteristic to: A. Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. B. Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. C. *Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. E. everything is wrong

544. Value of pulse to the breathing 3,0 - 2,5: 1 is characteristic for: A. Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree. B. *Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree. C. Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree. D. Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree. E. everything is correct

545. Ventilator respiratory failure is caused by: A. *violation of the breathing neuromuscular control B. the presence of bronchospasm C. aspirated foreign body D. inflammatory lung diseases E. everything is correct

546. Ventilator - associated pneumonia up to four days stay on the ventilator, usually is caused by: A. *Pneumococcus B. Enterobacteria C. Streptococci D. Klebsiella E. everything is wrong

547. What age category of children is the most vulnerable to parainfluenza? A. *Children of the first two years of life. B. Under-fives. C. Children of junior school age. D. Schoolboys. E. Teenagers.

548. What are the main signs of adenoviral infection? A. laryngitis; B. *conjunctivitis; C. predominance of intoxication by the catarrhal phenomena; D. subfebrile temperature; E. bronchiolitis.

549. What are the main signs of rhinoviral infection? A. fever; B. tracheitis; C. *severe rhinitis; D. obstructive bronchitis; E. bronchiolitis.

550. When is it necessary to prescribe antibacterial therapy in case of URT viral infection? A. to the children which are bottle feed; B. to the children with the malnutrition, rickets; C. to the children of the first two years of life; D. *at presence of bacterial complications E. for the prophylaxis of bacterial complications

551. What dose of aminophylline (euphylline) is used for intraorganic electrophoresis? A. *5 - 7 mg / kg B. 3 - 5 mg / kg C. 2 - 3 mg / kg D. 10- 12 mg / kg E. 15 - 20 mg / kg

552. What from the next anti-influenza vaccines stimulate the IgA synthesis in children? A. inactivated vaccine B. *Living attenuated vaccine C. Both D. None of adopted E. All enumerated

553. What from the next medicine is possible to use for an influenza A chemoprophylaxis at children? A. *Rhemantadine B. Acyclovir C. 5-fluorocytosine D. None of them E. All enumerated

554. What immunity will be formed in most patients after the RS-infection? A. stabile antitoxic. B. stabile antimicrobial. C. long life specific. D. *unstable specific. E. extremely short.

555. What is the average duration of the flu latent period? A. *a few hours - 1-2 days; B. a few hours - 3-5 days; C. 2-6 days; D. 7-10 days; E. 10-14 days.

556. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with mild pneumonia? A. *50 - 80 mg / kg / day B. 30 - 50 mg / kg / day C. 80 - 100 mg / kg per day D. 100 - 150 mg / kg / day E. 150 - 200 mg / kg / day

557. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with moderate pneumonia? A. *80 - 100 mg / kg / day B. 50 - 80 mg / kg / day C. 30 - 50 mg / kg / day D. 100 - 150 mg / kg / day E. 150 - 200 mg / kg / day

558. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with severe pneumonia? A. *100 - 150 mg / kg / day B. 50 - 80 mg / kg / day C. 80 - 100 mg / kg / day D. 30 - 50 mg / kg / day E. 150 - 200 mg / kg / day

559. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with mild pneumonia? A. *7 - 10 days B. 3 - 5 days C. 5 - 7 days D. 10 - 14 days E. 1 - 3 days

560. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with moderate pneumonia? A. *10 - 14 days B. 7 - 10 days C. 5 - 7 days D. 14 - 20 days E. 20 - 25 days 561. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with severe pneumonia? A. *14 - 21 days B. 10- 14 days C. 7- 10 days D. 21 - 28 days E. everything is correct

562. What is the most common cause of necrotizing (destructive) pneumonia: A. *staphylococcus B. pneumococcus C. klebsiella D. proteus E. everything is correct

563. What is the most effective route of antibacterial drugs administration in patients with respiratory pathology? A. *intraorganic electrophoresis B. intravenous C. endobronchial D. intramuscular E. everything is wrong

564. What is the most often respiratory failure severity in acute bronchitis? A. *0 degree B. 1st degree C. 2nd degree D. 3rd degree E. everything is correct

565. What is the requirement to inhalator antibiotics, which are used for children with bronchopulmonary pathology? A. *good dissolving in water B. minimal sensitization of children C. wide spectrum of activity D. selective effect on Gram-positive flora E. everything is wrong

566. What is the typical X-ray sign in the necrotizing (destructive) pneumonia in case of abscess formation? A. *the appearance of a round high degree infiltration with the level of liquid on the base of the lung infiltration B. the appearance of a round air formations on the base of the lung infiltration C. parietal and sinuses infiltration near the pulmonary infiltration D. homogeneous total infiltration E. displacement of the mediastinal organs to the opposite

567. What percussion data are characteristic for the focal pneumonia? A. bandbox sound over the entire surface of the lungs B. *clear lung sounds over the entire surface of the lungs C. shortening of the percussion sounds at an angle of scapula D. shortening percussion sound in axillar region E. everything is correct

568. What protein above all things helps the influenza virus attachment to the sensible epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract? A. *hemagglutinin B. neuraminidase C. Matrix protein D. nucleoprotein E. protein of confluence

569. What syndrome is a leading one in the clinical picture of flu? A. respiratory insufficiency; B. meningeal; C. catarrhal; D. *intoxication; E. dyspepsia;

570. What body temperature is in case of mild flu? A. 36.6-37 °C ; B. *36.6-38 °C ; C. 38-39 °C; D. 39-40 °C. E. 40-41 °C

571. What body temperature is in case of moderate flu? A. 36.6-38 °C; B. *38-39 °C; C. 39-40 °C; D. 40-41 °C. E. 41-42 °C

572. What body temperature is in case of severe flu? A. 36.6-38 °C; B. 38-39 °C; C. 38.5-39 °C; D. *39-41 °C. E. 41-42 °C 573. What does the inspection reveal in patient with lobar pneumonia: A. *"sick" part of the chest lag in the breathing B. synchronous movement of both chest parts C. "healthy" part of the chest lag in the breathing D. spasmodic twitching of hands and feet E. everything is wrong

574. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for the child with Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree? A. *the flow of oxygen through the endotracheal tube B. the flow of oxygen in an oxygen tent C. flow of oxygen through the intranasal catheter D. the flow of oxygen through the oxygen bag E. everything is wrong

575. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for the child with Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree? A. *the flow of oxygen in an oxygen tent B. the flow of oxygen through the oxygen bag C. flow of oxygen through the intranasal catheter D. the flow of oxygen through the endotracheal tube E. everything is wrong

576. What type of pneumonia develops more often in infants? A. *focal B. croupose C. interstitial D. segmentary E. lobar

577. What vaccine for the influenza prophylaxis is the most effective? A. living one from high-virulent viruses B. living one from attenuated viruses C. killed with complete virion D. *sub unit E. from split virion

578. What is the duration of shigellosis incubation period? A. *a few hours -7 days; B. 1-3 days; C. 1-5 days; D. 1-10 days; E. 5-30 days. 579. What part of large intestine is damaged at shigellosis? A. blind and ascending colon B. ascending and transversal colon; C. transversal and descending colon; D. descending and sigmoid colon; E. *sigmoid colon and rectum

580. What course of dysentery if it lasts for 4 weeks? A. Protracted B. *Acute C. Chronic continuous D. Chronic relapsing E. Protracted carrying

581. What is the duration of dysentery Sonnei treatment by furazolidone? A. 3 days. B. 5 days. C. 7 days. D. *10 days. E. 14 days.

582. What type of immunity will develop after an acute dysentery? A. *Short type specific. B. Prolonged specific. C. Prolonged type specific. D. Short nonspecific. E. Prolonged nonspecific.

583. What does play the main role in pathogenesis of dysentery chronization? A. endotoxin component. B. Infectious dose of agent. C. bacteremia. D. *Lowering of immunological reactivity. E. Allergic component.

584. What course of the shigellosis is typical for the children of early age? A. *Protracted with slow reparation of intestine. B. mild with minimum expressed toxic syndrome. C. Moderate with predominance of colitis syndrome. D. Not sever, but complicated by vaginitis. E. With the brief damage of intestine.

585. When the duration of dysentery is chronic? A. The disease lasts till 3 weeks. B. The disease lasts till 1 month. C. The disease lasts from 1.5 till 3 months. D. The disease lasts till 3 months. E. *The disease lasts more than 3 months.

586. Till what time the duration of dysentery will be noted as protracted? A. Till 1 month. B. Till 3 weeks. C. *From 1.5 to 3 months. D. Till 3 months. E. More than 3 months.

587. How long the duration of dysentery is noted as an acute? A. till 3 weeks. B. *till 1 month. C. from 1.5 till 3 months. D. till 3 months. E. More than 3 months.

588. Indicate, that will influence on dysentery severity and duration of incubation period. A. Secretion of toxins. B. Presence of bacteremia. C. Infectious phase. D. *Way of infection. E. Age of the child.

589. Choose the most expedient treatment for an acute dysentery, mild degree in preschooler? A. ciprofloxacin B. ceftriaxon C. *bacteriophage D. probiotics E. intestinal enzymes

590. What phases of typhoid fever pathogenesis develop in its latent period? A. bacteremia B. septicemia C. parenchyma diffusion D. allergic E. *digestive, invasion

591. What week of illness in case of the typhoid fever intoxication appear? A. on 1st B. *on 2nd C. on 3rd D. on 4th E. on 5th

592. Where in the organism the S.typhi will store longer? A. in spleen B. in kidneys C. *in goal bladder D. in duodenum E. in liver

593. The agent of typhoid fever is: A. Salmonella enterica serovar paratyphi. B. Salmonella enterica serovar charity. C. Salmonella enterica serovar schotmuelleri. D. *Salmonella enterica serovar typhi. E. Salmonella enterica serovar anatum.

594. Indicate the terms of final negative answer at hemoculture test? A. On 2nd day B. On 5th day C. On 6th day D. On 8th day E. *On 11th day

595. What is the evidence to do hemoculture test on typhoid agent? A. *With the purpose of early diagnostics B. With the purpose of prophylaxis C. With the purpose of atypical forms of agent diagnostic D. For the serological diagnostic E. With the purpose of determination of source of infection

596. Hemoculture test is expedient for confirmation of typhoid fever because on the first week of disease is observed: A. toxemia. B. *bacteremia C. septicemia D. septicopyemia E. viremia

597. What terms does Salmonella typhi appear in the urine of patients? A. Does not present in the urine B. *In the end of the first up to the beginning of the second week C. In the end of the second up to the beginning of the third week D. on the third week of the disease E. on the fourth week of the disease 598. Choose from enumerated a virus which most often causes watery diarrhea without blood in child’s age: A. Coхakie virus B. *rotavirus C. poliovirus D. rhinovirus E. echovirus

599. The main reason of diarrhea at rotaviral infection is: A. Damage of the intestinal epithelium B. *increased concentration of sugar in the small intestine C. increased concentration of electrolytes in the small intestine D. intracellular presence of virus E. Activating of adenylatcyclase

600. Agent of viral hepatitis A belongs to: A. *enterovirus B. orthomyxovirus C. picornavirus D. adenovirus E. retrovirus

601. Name the disease that is caused by enteropathogenic E.coli? A. Intestinal yersiniosis B. Rheumatism C. *Intestinal Escherichiosis D. Scarlet fever E. Shigellosis

602. What methods of laboratory diagnostics can be used for confirmation of Rotaviral gastroenteritis? A. indirect hemagglutination reaction B. method of molecular hybridization C. method of immune electronic microscopy D. *immune enzyme analysis E. All answers are correct

603. Which early laboratory test will prove the etiology of an acute intestinal infection? A. Serological B. Biological C. Allergic D. Microscopic E. *Bacteriological 604. What test is it necessary to do for diagnostics of entheric escherichiosis? A. *Bacteriological B. Serological C. Biological D. Allergic E. Microscopic

605. Choose the optimal etiological medicine for severe acute dysentery. A. *cephalosporins of 3rd generation. B. nithrofurans. C. trimetoprim/sulfomethoxasolum. D. nalydixic acid. E. aminoglycosides of 2nd generation.

606. Indicate the leading clinical syndrome of dysentery at the children of senior age: A. atonic B. respirator C. dyspepsia D. cardio-vascular E. *distal colitis

607. Which complication is the most frequent at shigellosis? A. Meningitis. B. Encephalitis. C. Hepatitis. D. Nephrite. E. *prolapsed rectum.

608. What serovar of Shigella is the most probably cause of food toxic infection? A. Sh. Flexneri. B. *Sh. Sonnei. C. Sh. Boydii. D. Sh. Dysenteriaе. E. Аntamоeba histolytica.

609. Choose the most optimum etiologic medicine for typical form of acute dysentery, moderate degree in preschooler. A. ampicillin. B. ceftriaxon. C. *nithrofurans. D. gentamicin. E. ofloxacin. 610. Indicate the mechanism of bacterial dysentery transmission: A. by food B. by water C. *fecal-oral D. contact-domestic E. air-droplet

611. Name the Shigella dysenteriae property. A. *Immobile bacilli. B. is sensitive to low temperatures. C. Secrets exotoxin. D. gram-positive cocci. E. Forms capsule.

612. What pathogenetical changes are the first in case of shigellosis? A. Intestinal dysbiosis. B. Dysfunction of bowels. C. Formation of hemorrhages. D. *Damage of colon epiteliocytes. E. Damage of the vegetative nervous system.

613. What serovar of Shigella is the most pathogenic? A. Shtutser-Shmits; B. Larg-Sax; C. Newcastle; D. *Grigor’ev-Shiga; E. Flexner.

614. What is recommended as a basic treatment for mild Shigellosis in adolescent? A. fluoroquinolones B. pancreatic enzymes C. *probiotics D. aminoglycosides E. cephalosporins

615. Indicate the day from the disease beginning, when it is better to do bacteriological test of feces in case of escherichiosis: A. 7th day B. 5th day C. 3rd day D. 2nd day E. *1st day

616. What diseases, with the most probability, can be caused by enterotoxigenic E.coli? A. *cholera-like B. Dysentery-like C. Infections of urinary tract D. Peritonitis E. Toxic shock

617. At what form of viral hepatitis A is it need to give corticosteroids? A. Mild form B. Moderate with the signs of cholestasis C. Severe form D. *Fulminant form E. A right answer is not present

618. Atypical viral hepatitis A forms are: A. *notjaundice, effaced, subclinical B. fulminant, hypertoxic, effaced C. asymptomatic, hemorrhagic, notjaundice D. generalized, effaced, asymptomatic E. There is no right answer

619. Bed regime at viral hepatitis A lasts: A. 3-4 days B. 1 week C. *2-3 weeks D. 1 month E. Is not need

620. Clinical periods of hepatitis A: A. Catarrhal, jaundice, restoration B. Cholestatic, catarrhal, recovery C. *Pre-jaundice, jaundice, recovery D. Catarrhal, height, remaining phenomena E. There is no right answer

621. Complications of what intestinal infection are: intestinal bleeding, perforation of the rectum, and rectal prolapse, anal fissures and gaping? A. Salmonellosis B. Typhoid fever C. Yersiniosis D. *Shigellosis E. Cholera

622. Describe sensitivity of hepatitis B virus to the terms of external environment. A. *stable to boiling during 30 min, ether, formalin B. Quickly perishes at high temperatures C. Sensible to disinfectant solutions (alcohol, ether, formalin) D. stable to freezing and drying E. Quickly perishes at boiling, stable to ether, formalin

623. Protracted hepatitis B is diagnosed if its duration is: A. 2-4 months B. *3-6 months C. 6-9 months D. 6-12 months E. 9-12 months

624. For the acute hepatitis B the following clinical periods are typical: A. Incubation, prodromal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery B. *prodromal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery C. Catarrhal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery D. Incubation, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery E. Incubation, prodromal, jaundice, recovery

625. What will be the recommend dose of nithrofurans for dysentery treatment? A. *5-10 mg/kg per day. B. 2-4 mg/kg per day. C. 15-20 mg/kg per day. D. 30-50 mg/kg per day. E. 75-100 mg/kg per day.

626. What serological test will help to identify the bacillus antigen structure? A. precipitation B. complement binding C. neutralization. D. *agglutination. E. opsonization

627. Average duration of hepatitis A pre-jaundice period is: A. *3-5 days B. 10-12 days C. 14-20 days D. 20-30 days E. 1 month

628. What type of shigella more frequent is transmitted by the contact-domestic way? A. Sh. Flexneri. B. Sh. dysenteriaе Larg-Sax. C. Sh. boydiі. D. *Sh. dysenteriaе Grigor'ev-Shiga. E. Sh. Sonnei.

629. In a pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A differential diagnostic should be done with: A. salmonellosis B. food poisoning C. shigellosis D. *URT infection E. Escherichiosis

630. The source of typhoid fever is: A. sick man and animal B. *sick man, carrier C. ducks D. domestic animals E. infected food products, water.

631. In case of hepatitis B infection chronic form develops in: A. *3-5 % B. 10-20 % C. 20-50 % D. 50-70 % E. 50-100 %

632. In case of hepatitis С infection chronic form develops in: A. 2-5 % B. 10-20 % C. *20-50 % D. 50-70 % E. 50-100 %

633. What shigella most often has the water-way of transmission? A. *Sh. Flexneri. B. Sh. Sonnei C. Sh. dysenteriaе D. Sh. boydii E. Аntamоeba histolytica

634. `Indicate the disease etiology of cholera: A. DNA-containing virus B. RNA-containing virus C. Gram-negative diplococcus D. *arcuated Gram-negative sticks with a plait E. stick of a dumbbells-similar shape 635. In typical cases of dysentery at the children of early age emptying are: A. *Turbid, green, in small amount, with mucus and blood B. liquid, green with undigested oddments of meal; C. liquid, green without mucus; D. liquid, green with mucus; E. liquid, orange with mucus.

636. Incubation period at viral hepatitis A lasts: A. 3-7 days B. 8-10 days C. 7-14 days D. 7-21 days E. *10-45 days

637. Indicate a dose, number and duration of corticosteroids administration at fulminant hepatitis B. A. *Prednisolone 10-15 mg/kg daily in 4 equal doses B. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily in 2 equal doses for 3-5 days with sharp abolition C. Prednisolone 1 mg/kg daily during a month, according to organism's rhythm, with gradual abolition D. Prednisolone 5 mg/kg daily for 5 days in a 1 reception E. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily, in 4 equal doses for 7-10 days;

638. Indicate a dose, number and duration of corticosteroids administration at severe hepatitis B. A. Prednisolone 10-15 mg/kg daily in 4 equal doses B. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily in 2 equal doses for 3-5 days with sharp abolition C. Prednisolone 1 mg/kg daily during a month, according to organism's rhythm, with gradual abolition D. Prednisolone 5 mg/kg daily for 5 days in a 1 reception E. *Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily, in 4 equal doses for 7-10 days;

639. Jaundice at viral hepatitis A lasts: A. 3-5 days B. 8-10 days C. *10-12 days D. 7-14 days E. 1 month

640. Lack of body weight in malnutrition of 2nd degree is: A. Up to 5% B. 5-10% C. 11-20% D. *21-30% E. Over 30%

641. Level of bilirubin at the viral hepatitis A mild form is: A. 10-15 mcmol/l B. *Not higher 82 mcmol/l C. 100-120 mcmol/l D. 150-200 mcmol/l E. more than 200 mcmol/l

642. Most epidemiology and clinical value among serological varieties on our territory have the following types of shigella: A. Grigor'ev-Shiga; B. *Sonnei and Flexneri C. Newcastle and Larg-Sax; D. Sonnei and Grigor'ev-Shiga; E. Boydii and Shtutser-Shmits

643. Name clinical diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B jaundice period: A. hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements B. toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes, hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, presence of viral antigens in a blood C. *jaundice, hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic syndrome, splenomegaly, discoloration of excrements D. High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs, presence of viral antigens in a blood E. Rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic syndrome, splenomegaly, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes

644. Name hepatitis B markers: A. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG B. anti HCV IgМ, viral RNA C. anti HЕV IgМ, viral RNA D. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG E. *HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti НBе, anti НВс IgM, IgG, viral DNA, DNA-polymerase

645. Name hepatitis C markers: A. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG B. *anti HCV IgМ, viral RNA C. anti HЕV IgМ, viral RNA D. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG E. HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti НВс IgM, IgG 646. Name the clinical criteria of the congenital hepatitis B: A. Presence of prodromal period, unexpressed jaundice, expressed cytolysis syndrome B. jaundice increases quickly, catarrhal, dyspepsia syndrome, C. jaundice is insignificant, satisfactory state, spleen is not enlarged, quick recovery D. *jaundice from the first days of life, hepatosplenomegaly, hemorrhagic syndrome, malaise, severe disease E. hepatosplenomegaly, delay of intrauterine development

647. Name the diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B incubation period: A. *High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs, presence of viral antigens in a blood B. toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes C. hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes D. bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements E. Maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs, presence of viral antigens in a blood

648. Name the diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B prejaundice period: A. Maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs, presence of viral antigens in a blood B. High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs, presence of viral antigens in a blood C. *toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes, hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, presence of viral antigens in a blood D. Rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic syndrome, splenomegaly, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes E. hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements

649. Name the laboratory criteria of hepatitis B moderate degree: A. *bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l) , aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 %, normal sulemic test B. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 % C. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced D. bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal E. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index 60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced

650. Name the laboratory criteria of hepatitis С mild severity: A. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index 60-70 % B. *bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 % C. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced D. bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal E. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index 60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced

651. Name the laboratory criteria of severe hepatitis B: A. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 %, normal sulemic test B. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index 70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced C. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index 60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced D. bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal E. *bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l), aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index less than 60 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced

652. Name the terms of hepatitis B active prophylaxis according the Ukrainian vaccination schedule. A. First 12 hours of life, 1, 3, 5 months B. *First 12 hours of life, 1, 6 months C. First 12 hours of life, 1, 6, 12 months D. 3-5 days, 7, 14 years E. 3, 4, 5 months, revaccination in 18 months

653. Name the ways of hepatitis B virus transmission. A. parenteral, transmissive, domestic B. Food, water, domestic, sexual C. *parenteral, vertical, sexual, domestic D. parenteral, transplacental, domestic E. parenteral, transplacental, transmissive

654. Name the ways of hepatitis C virus transmission. A. Food, water, domestic, sexual B. parenteral, transmissive, domestic C. parenteral, transplacental, domestic D. *parenteral, vertical, sexual, domestic E. parenteral, transplacental, transmissive

655. The immunity against Rotaviruses is mainly conditioned by: A. Ig M and Ig G B. *Ig A and interferon C. Ig G and interferon D. Ig E and interferon E. Ig D and Ig G

656. The main value in acute intestinal infection verifying has: A. complete blood test B. coprological method C. serological test D. blood culture E. *fecal culture

657. The deficit of body weight in 3rd degree malnutrition is: A. Up to 5% B. 5-10% C. 11-20% D. 21-30% E. *Over 30%

658. The deficit of body weight in malnutrition of 1st degree is: A. Up to 5% B. 5-10% C. *11-20% D. 21-30% E. Over 30% 659. The diagnosis of chronic hepatitis С is established if the disease's duration is: A. More than 2 months B. More than 3 months C. More than 4 months D. More than 5 months E. *More than 6 months

660. The malnutrition degree in infant can be measured by the thickness of skin fold: A. *at umbilical level B. subscapularly C. on the inner surface of the thigh D. on the outer surface of the thigh E. on the outer surface of the shoulder

661. The what is typical for the unicteric form of viral hepatitis A? A. absence of changes of excrements, urine, bilirubin level B. Level of aminotranspherase is normal, increase of bilirubin level C. *the increase of aminotranspherase activity, absence of jaundice D. jaundice, increase of enzymes activity E. There is no right answer

662. The pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A is characterized by the increase of: A. Indirect bilirubin, tymol test B. Cholesterol, ALAT C. tymol test, alkaline phosphatase D. cholesterol, beta-lipoproteins, indirect bilirubin E. *ALAT, ASAT, direct bilirubin

663. Name the source of dysentery infection. A. Patients with dysentery; B. Patients and carriers; C. *Carriers; D. Small rodents. E. Insects.

664. When does it follow to expect clinical signs of disease at contacts in the focus of shigellosis (latent period course)? A. Through 1-2 hours. B. From 1 to 2 days. C. *From 1 to 7 days. D. Till 1 month. E. From 1 to 3 months. 665. The source of infection at viral hepatitis A is: A. patient and animal B. *ill person C. man, carrier and patient D. animal and carrier E. insects

666. The subclinical viral hepatitis A form is characterized by: A. Insignificant jaundice of skin, the base phosphatase increased B. subfebrile temperature, dark urine, colorless excrements C. Brief jaundice, increase of tymol test D. hemorrhagic syndrome E. *clinical displays are absent, ALAT, ASAT are raised

667. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 0,2 cm, that is typical for: A. *3rd degree malnutrition B. 2nd degree malnutrition C. 1st degree malnutrition D. eutrophya E. paratrophya

668. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 0,6 cm, that is typical for: A. 3rd degree malnutrition B. *2nd degree malnutrition C. 1st degree malnutrition D. eutrophya E. paratrophya

669. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 1 cm, that is typical for: A. 3rd degree malnutrition B. 2nd degree malnutrition C. *1st degree malnutrition D. eutrophya E. paratrophya

670. At the children of what age group dysentery occurs more frequent? A. 0-12 months B. 1-2 years C. *2-7 years D. 7-10 years E. 10-14 years

671. What from the enumerated serological tests should be done to reveal antibodies to typhoid fever? A. brake of hemagglutination B. precipitation C. complement binding D. *passive hemagglutination E. agglutination

672. To what family does Escherichia belong? A. Micrococcaceae B. *Enterobacteriaceae C. Neisseriaceae D. Vibrionaceae E. Korynebacteriaceae

673. Variants of prodromal period at viral hepatitis A: A. Convulsive, dyspepsia B. *Dyspepsia, astenic, catarrhal C. Catarrhal, hemorrhagic D. hepatolienal, convulsive E. There is no right answer

674. Virus of hepatitis A in the human organism is contained in: A. Feces B. Blood and urine C. Blood and bile D. Tears and saliva E. *Blood, feces, urine

675. Way of viral hepatitis A transmission is: A. Contact-domestic B. air-droplet C. *fecal-oral D. All answers are correct E. There is no right answer

676. What antigens does the E. coli have? A. *O-, K- and H-antigens. B. O-, Vi-antigens. C. O-, H-antigens. D. O-, K-antigens. E. O-antigens.

677. What is the average duration of hepatitis B incubation period? A. 3-6 weeks B. 2-3 months C. 6-26 weeks D. *13-16 weeks E. 20-22 weeks

678. What is the average duration of hepatitis C incubation period? A. 3-6 weeks B. 2-3 months C. 6-26 weeks D. 13-16 weeks E. *20-22 weeks

679. What is basis therapy at viral hepatitis A? A. *Regime and diet B. Regime and enterosorption C. glucocorticoids D. detoxication therapy E. vitamin therapy

680. What conditions are unfavorable for choleric vibrio: A. Drying B. Heat C. *Disinfectants D. Soil water E. Stay in the soil

681. What diet is appointed at viral hepatitis A? A. 3 B. *5-5а C. 9 D. 10 E. 15

682. What disease severity is characteristic for hepatitis С in an acute period? A. *mild, asymptomatic B. moderate C. moderate, severe D. severe, fulminant E. fulminant

683. What diseases does it follow to differentiate the congenital hepatitis С with? (1) Hepatitis A, Е, biliary dyskinesia B. *sepsis, biliary atresia, TORCH-infections, massive hemorrhages C. sepsis, pseudotuberculosis, infectious mononucleosis D. Gilbert syndrome, leptospirosis, hemolytic anemia E. hemolytic disease of new-born, hepatitis Delta, cholecystitis.

684. What does the character of hepatitis B duration depend on? A. From mechanism and way of virus transmission B. From character of genetically definite immune answer C. *From a dose and infectiousness of virus, character of the organism immune answer D. From duration of latent period E. From duration of prejaundice period

685. What dose of prednisone is appointed to the infants with unfavorable premorbid background in case of viral hepatitis A? A. *2-3 mg/kg B. 4-5 mg/kg C. 5-10 mg/kg D. 0.5-1 mg/kg E. 1-2 mg/kg

686. What is the duration of patient's dispensarization in case of severe hepatitis B? A. 6 months with examination and laboratory investigation in 7 days, 1, 3, 6 months B. 9 months with examination and laboratory investigation in1, 3, 6, 9 months C. *12 months with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9, 12 months D. 2 years with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 24 months E. 3 years with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36 months

687. What is the duration of severe hepatitis B base therapy? A. 10 days B. 14 days C. 21 day D. *30 days E. 45 days

688. What is the duration of the bed regime at moderate hepatitis B? A. *1 week B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 4 weeks E. 6 weeks

689. What features of acute dysentery are typical for infants? A. Continuously relapsed course. B. Absence of inflammation signs at sigmoscopy. C. Watery stools. D. Repeated vomits. E. *Metheorysm and absence of tenesms.

690. What from the pointed representatives of the E.coli usually cause the disease in infants? A. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine B. *enteropathogenic E.coli C. enteroaggregative E.coli D. enteroinvasive E.coli E. enterohemolytic E.coli

691. What hepatitis С typical consequences do you know? A. liver fibrosis, chronic hepatitis B. recovery with complete renewal of liver structure and function C. damage of biliary system and liver D. recovery with a defect (remaining fibrosis) E. *Chronic hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma

692. What seasonality is typical for viral hepatitis A? A. spring-summer B. *summer-autumn C. winter-spring D. autumn-winter E. seasonality is not typical

693. What features are typical for the hepatitis B virus? A. *DNA-containing virus from hepadnavirus family, 42-52 nm; B. RNA-containing virus from enterovirus family, 27-30 nm; C. Virus from flavivirus family, 22-60 nm; D. virus 35-37 nm with small RNA and shell of the HB virus; E. virus-like particle of spherical form, 27 nm.

694. What specific method of diagnostics is needed to prove viral hepatitis A? A. *presence of anti HAV ІgM and anti HAV IgG in the blood B. Increase of aminotranspherase level C. Increase of bilious pigments in the urine D. Increase of tymol test E. hyperbilirubinemia

695. What treatment is appointed at the moderate form of viral hepatitis A? A. Base therapy B. *Base therapy, detoxication therapy C. diet + enterosorption D. glucocorticoids E. hepatoprotectors 696. What is the volume of desiccation therapy at the moderate form of viral hepatitis A? A. *40-50 ml/kg per day B. 50-100 ml/kg per day C. 150-200 ml/kg per day D. 200-300 ml/kg per day E. 300-350 ml/kg per day

697. What is the volume of detoxication therapy at the severe form of viral hepatitis A? A. *50-100 ml/kg per day B. 150-200 ml/kg per day C. 200-300 ml/kg per day D. All answers are correct E. A right answer is not present

698. When does it follow to give choleretics at hepatitis B, moderate degree? A. From the 1st day of jaundice period B. From the 2nd week of jaundice period C. *From the 3rd week of jaundice period D. From the 4th week of jaundice period E. Does not need to give

699. Which state is the most convenient to measure malnutrition in infant? A. Trophic Index B. Mass-growth coefficient C. The thickness of skin folds at the navel level D. *Lack of body weight (%) E. The distribution of subcutaneous fat in body areas

700. Who is the source of the hepatitis B infection? A. patients with acute and chronic forms of disease B. transmitters of superficial antigen C. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of core antigen D. *patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of superficial antigen E. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of infectiousness antigen

701. Who is the source of the hepatitis С infection? A. patients with acute and chronic forms of disease B. transmitters of superficial antigen C. *carriers, patients with acute and chronic forms D. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of core antigen E. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of infectiousness antigen

702. With appearance of jaundice at patients with viral hepatitis A: A. their condition worsened B. *their condition becomes better C. the sizes of liver diminish D. the temperature of body rises E. hemorrhagic rash appears

703. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. *7 years D. 11 years E. 18 years

704. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 6 years D. 11 years E. *14 years

705. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made: A. 1 year, 5 years B. 2 years, 6 years C. 6 years, 14 years D. *7 years, 14 years E. 11 years, 18 years

706. According to WHO criteria vaccine associated polio is not characterized by: A. *Sensitivity violation B. The onset of illness in the period from 4 to 30 days after receiving the vaccine C. The onset of illness in the period from 4 to 60 days of contact with vaccinated against polio D. Development of flaccid paralysis E. In serological surveys presence of vaccine virus

707. Active immunization in Ukraine is used to prevent all of these infectious diseases, except: A. *Varicella B. Measles C. Polio D. Diphtheria E. Tuberculosis

708. After the introduction of which of the following vaccines are not typical severe general reaction in the form of hyperthermia, and severe local reactions in the form of hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the injection site? A. *All listed B. IPV C. MMR D. OPV E. Hepatitis B

709. Against which diseases (in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination calendar) vaccination is not obligatory? A. *All listed B. Meningococcal infection C. Varicella D. Hepatitis A E. Encephalitis

710. AIDS is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All live vaccines B. Inactivated polio vaccine C. Measles D. BCG E. Mumps vaccine

711. All provisions of live vaccines are true, except: A. *They can be used to vaccinate children together with killed vaccines B. They are obtained from the strains of microbes with a weakened virulence C. They are obtained from the strains of microbes with normal immunogenity D. Their use is contraindicated in children with immunodeficiency E. They are not applied in children aged up to 3 months

712. All provisions concerning DTP pertussis component, are true, except: A. *Represents neutralized microbes’ exotoxin B. More stable than live vaccines C. Are used to prevent whooping cough in toddlers D. Are used in children, starting from 3-month age E. Promotes the development of less persistent immunity than transferred pertussis 713. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides are medical contraindications to vaccination by: A. *Measles B. DTP C. BCG D. All vaccines and toxoids E. All live vaccines

714. Allergy to any component of the vaccine is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All vaccines and toxoids B. All live vaccines C. DTP D. OPV E. MMR

715. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *Rubella vaccine B. DTP C. BCG D. All vaccines and toxoids E. OPV

716. At what age is recommended BCG vaccination and revaccination in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. *3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months. E. 2 months, 6 years

717. At what age is recommended DPT vaccination and booster in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination schedule? A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months. D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years E. 12months, 6 years 718. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against measles, mumps, rubella, in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. *12 months, 6 years B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination E. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.

719. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against hepatitis B in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. *The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months. B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination E. 12months, 6 years

720. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against poliomyelitis in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose B. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months. E. 12 months, 6 years

721. At what age is recommended Ніb vaccination and booster vaccine in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule? A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months. D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years E. 12 months, 6 years

722. At what age does the human body begin the immunological activity (producing its own antibodies in sufficient quantity)? A. *From 6 months B. In uteri C. From birth D. From 1 month E. From 3 months

723. Indicate for what vaccination against poliomyelitis inactivated vaccine is used: A. Only for the first B. *First two C. Third D. Fourth E. For all

724. What vaccine is used for the first two vaccinations against poliomyelitis? A. *IPV B. OPV C. IPV and OPV D. DP E. P

725. Which vaccinations against polio should be done by oral polio-vaccine? A. 1st B. 2nd C. 1st-2nd D. 2nd -6th E. *3rd-6th

726. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. IPV B. *BCG C. DT D. Ніb E. Hepatitis B

727. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. *OPV B. IPV C. DT D. Ніb E. Hepatitis B

728. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. IPV B. DT C. Ніb D. *Measles E. Hepatitis B

729. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. IPV B. Hepatitis B C. DT D. Ніb E. *mumps

730. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. IPV B. Hepatitis B C. DT D. Ніb E. *Rubella

731. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. IPV B. DT C. *MMR D. Ніb E. Hepatitis B

732. What vaccines is it possible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV- status? A. *IPV B. BCG C. rubella D. MMR E. mumps

733. What vaccines or anatoxins is it possible to use for vaccination before clarification of HIV-status? A. MMR B. BCG C. rubella D. *DT E. Measles

734. Complication of BCG vaccination is everything except: A. *infiltration 8 mm in diameter at 6 weeks after vaccination B. infiltration more than 10 mm in diameter with kazeozis in 5 months after vaccination C. Kelloid scar 12 mm at the site of vaccination D. Osteomyelitis E. The increase of regional lymph nodes in 4 months

735. Complications after the previous vaccination (cold abscess, lymphadenitis, kelloid scars, osteomyelitis) are medical contraindications to vaccination by: A. *BCG B. OPV C. DTP D. Measles E. Mumps vaccine

736. Congenital combined immunodeficiency is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All live vaccines B. All vaccines and toxoids C. BCG D. OPV E. MMR

737. Cramps in the past history are a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *DTP B. BCG C. OPV D. MMR E. All live vaccines

738. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. *Haemophilus influenza infection B. Measles C. Tuberculosis D. Rubella E. Mumps infection

739. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. *Hepatitis B B. Measles C. Tuberculosis D. Rubella E. Mumps infection 740. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. *Whooping cough B. Rubella C. Measles D. Tuberculosis E. Mumps infection

741. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. *Tetanus B. Measles C. Tuberculosis D. Rubella E. Mumps infection

742. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. *Diphtheria B. Measles C. Tuberculosis D. Polio E. Mumps infection

743. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination: A. *Congenital combined immunodeficiency B. Convulsions history C. Anaphylactic reactions to egg white in history D. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides E. The introduction of blood

744. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination: A. *all listed B. cold abscess after a previous vaccine C. adenopathy after a previous vaccine D. kelloid scar after a previous vaccine E. osteomyelitis after a previous vaccine

745. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination: A. *All the enumerated B. AIDS C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency D. Malignancies E. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia 746. Name medical contraindications for DPT vaccination: A. *epilepsy B. mycobacterium tuberculosis infection C. defects in phagocytosis D. introduction of blood E. allergy to aminoglycosides

747. Name medical contraindications for DPT vaccination: A. *All the enumerated B. Convulsions history C. Severe complications (anaphylactic shock) with the previous dose injection D. Allergy to any component of the vaccine E. Progressive diseases of the nervous system

748. Name medical contraindications for OPV vaccination: A. *All the enumerated B. AIDS C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency D. Malignancies E. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia

749. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by measles vaccine: A. *All the enumerated B. Anaphylactic reactions to egg white in history C. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides D. Introduction of immunoglobulin in the previous 3 months E. Implementation of immunosuppressive therapies

750. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by mumps vaccine: A. *All the enumerated B. Progressive disease of the nervous system C. Acute infectious disease D. Chronic disease in the active phase E. Transitory hypogammaglobulinemia

751. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by rubella vaccine: A. *decompensated hydrocephalic syndrome B. birth weight less than 2000 g C. lymphadenitis after a previous vaccine D. kelloid scar after a previous vaccine E. convulsions in history

752. Name the medical contraindications for DPT vaccination: A. *Cramps in the history B. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein in history C. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides D. Malignancies E. The introduction of blood

753. Name medical contraindications for MMR vaccination: A. *All the enumerated B. AIDS C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency D. Malignancies E. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia

754. Name medical contraindications for OPV vaccination: A. *Malignancies B. Convulsions history C. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein in history D. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides E. The introduction of blood

755. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except: A. *Influenza B. Tuberculosis C. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio D. Hib E. Rubella, measles, mumps infection

756. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except: A. *Hepatitis A B. Tuberculosis C. Hepatitis B D. Hib E. Rubella, measles, mumps

757. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except: A. *Varicella B. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio C. Hepatitis B D. Hib E. Rubella, measles, mumps

758. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except: A. *Meningococcal infection B. Poliomyelitis C. Hepatitis B D. Hib E. Rubella, measles, mumps

759. Malignant neoplasms are medical contraindications to vaccination by: A. *All live vaccines B. All vaccines and toxoids C. Measles D. Rubella vaccine E. Mumps vaccine

760. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All live vaccines B. All vaccines and toxoids C. BCG D. IPV E. DTP

761. Progressive disease of the nervous system is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All vaccines B. BCG C. DTP D. OPV E. MMR

762. Anaphylactic shock at previous vaccination is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. *All vaccines and toxoids B. All live vaccines C. DTP D. OPV E. BCG

763. Name live vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. *BCG B. Against Hepatitis B C. IPV D. DTP E. Against Haemophilus influenza

764. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. *Rubella B. Against Hepatitis B C. DTP D. BCG E. Against Haemophilus influenza

765. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. *Mumps B. Against Hepatitis B C. DTP D. BCG E. Against Haemophilus influenza

766. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. *Against Polio B. Against Hepatitis B C. DTP D. BCG E. Against Haemophilus influenza

767. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. *Measles B. Against Hepatitis B C. DTP D. BCG E. Against Haemophilus influenza

768. In what minimum term after intravenous cytomegalovirus immunoglobulin infusion a patient can be vaccinated against chickenpox? A. *6 months B. 3 months C. 1 month D. 2 months E. 1 year

769. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion septic patients can be vaccinated against measles? A. *8 months B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

770. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion a patient with thrombocytopenia can be vaccinated against rubella? A. *10 months B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

771. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion a patient with Kawasaki disease patients can be vaccinated against mumps infection? A. *11 months B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 1 month E. 2 months

772. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of blood plasma a patient can be vaccinated against measles? A. *7 months B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

773. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of platelets a patient can be vaccinated against chickenpox? A. *7 months B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

774. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of erythrocytes a patient can be vaccinated against rubella? A. *6 months B. 9 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

775. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of washed red cells a patient can be vaccinated against mumps infection? A. *He can be vaccinated without interruption B. 6 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year 776. In what minimum term after the administration of tetanus immunoglobulin, the patient can be vaccinated against measles? A. *3 months B. 1 month C. 2 months D. 6 months E. 1 year

777. In what minimum term after the introduction of normal human immunoglobulin (for post-exposure prophylaxis of measles) healthy patients can receive the vaccine against mumps infection? A. *5 months B. 3 months C. 2 months D. 6 months E. 1 year

778. In what minimum term after the introduction of normal human immunoglobulin (for post-exposure prophylaxis of measles), immunocompromised patients can be vaccinated against chickenpox? A. *6 months B. 5 months C. 3 months D. 2 months E. 1 year

779. In what minimum term after the introduction to the patient blood products, which contain specific antibodies he can be vaccinated against chickenpox? A. *3 months B. 1 month C. 2 months D. 6 months E. 1 year

780. In what minimum term after passive hepatitis A immunization the patient can be vaccinated against rubella? A. *3 months B. 1 month C. 2 months D. 6 months E. 1 year

781. In what minimum term after specific passive Hepatitis B immunization patients can be vaccinated against mumps? A. *3 months B. 1 month C. 2 months D. 6 months E. 1 year

782. What is not used for active immunization? A. *Antitoxic serum B. Live vaccines C. Toxoids D. Inactivated Vaccines E. Acellular vaccine

783. What is not used for active immunization? A. *Polyvalent human immunoglobulin B. Live vaccines C. Toxoids D. Inactivated Vaccines E. Acellular vaccine

784. What is not used for active immunization? A. *Human specific immunoglobulin B. Live vaccines C. Toxoids D. Inactivated Vaccines E. Acellular vaccine

785. What is not used for passive immunization? A. *Toxoids B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Immunoglobulin

786. What is not used for passive immunization? A. *Acellular vaccine B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Immunoglobulin

787. What is not used for passive immunization? A. *Inactivated Vaccines B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Immunoglobulin

788. What is not used for passive immunoprophylaxis? A. *Live vaccines B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Immunoglobulin

789. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against hepatitis B? A. *Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth

790. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against Haemophilus influenza? A. *Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth

791. What is the recommended method to enter DPT vaccine? A. *Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth

792. What is the recommended method to enter polio vaccine (live vaccine)? A. *Intradermal B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneous E. Through mouth

793. What is the recommended method to enter the vaccine against measles? A. *Subcutaneously B. Intravenously C. Intramuscular D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth 794. What is used for active immunization? A. *Acellular vaccine B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Polyvalent bacteriophage

795. What is used for active immunization? A. *Inactivated Vaccines B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Polyvalent bacteriophage

796. What is used for active immunization? A. *Live vaccines B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Polyvalent bacteriophage

797. What is used for active immunization? A. *Toxoids B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Polyvalent bacteriophage

798. What terms must have the ideal vaccine? A. *Have all these terms B. Call lifelong immunity in 100% vaccinated by a single dose C. To be polyvalent D. Be safe E. Be oral vaccine

799. When the first revaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. *Through 1 year after finished vaccination; B. Through 1.5-2 years after finished vaccination; C. Through 2.5 years after finished vaccination; D. Through 3 years after finished vaccination E. In 4 years

800. When the first vaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. In 1 month B. In 2 months C. *In 3 months D. In 4 months E. In 5 months

801. When the second vaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. In 1 month B. In 2 months C. In 3 months D. *In 4 months E. In 5 months

802. When the third vaccination against whooping cough should be done? A. In 3 month B. In 4 months C. *In 5 months D. In 6 months E. In 7 months

803. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *All listed B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

804. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Antitoxic serum B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines

805. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Plasma B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines

806. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Whole blood B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines

807. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Immunoglobulin B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines

808. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. *All listed B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines

809. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. *Toxoid B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

810. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. *Acellular vaccine B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

811. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. *Inactivated vaccine B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

812. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. *Live vaccines B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin 813. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Toxoid B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

814. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Acellular vaccine B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

815. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Inactivated vaccine B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

816. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. *Live vaccines B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin

817. Which of the following is a direct contraindication for prophylactic vaccinations? A. *Pathologically strong reaction to the earlier introduction of this vaccine B. Acute infectious disease at the time of routine vaccination C. Local reaction to previous administration of this vaccine D. Frequent respiratory infections (more than 6 times per year) E. All of the above

818. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe general reaction in the form of hyperthermia (40 oC or higher), allergic reactions, and severe local reactions in the form of a hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the injection site? A. *DTP B. Mumps C. Measles D. IPV E. Hepatitis B

819. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe local reaction in the form of severe hyperemia with edema of the soft tissues at the injection site? A. *BCG B. MMR C. Rubella D. IPV E. Hepatitis B

820. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe general reaction in the form of hyperthermia (40 oC or higher), allergic reactions, and severe local reactions in the form of a hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the injection site? A. *Hib B. MMR C. Rubella D. IPV E. Hepatitis B

821. Why do some children vaccinated against diphtheria and having a high level of specific antibodies in the blood have localized form of the disease, but never toxic after close contact with diphtheria patient? A. *Immunity after vaccination is only antitoxic B. Active immunization of these children began after one year of life C. These children are not subjected to vaccinations in the past 3 years D. At vaccination they have post-vaccination complications E. Vaccination was performed in 2 weeks after recovery from the respiratory viral infection

822. Why is it not recommend to enter the vaccine into the buttock area for babies, but it is recommend to enter the vaccine into the frontal part of their thighs? A. *All of the above is true B. With this introduction tissue damage is rarer C. When you enter vaccine into the buttock there is the high risk of sciatic nerve damage D. Infants gluteal region consists mainly of adipose tissue E. Other injection is the most saved from vascular injury

Situation tasks 1. 2 children from family are hospitalized in the infectious department, pseudotuberculosis is suspected. What measures, does it follow to perform concerning contact persons (except for prohibition to use raw products)? A. Supervision during 2 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying B. *Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying C. Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying, urine, throat mucus D. Supervision during 3 weeks, 2 bacteriological researches of emptying E. Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying, urine

2. 5 years old boy had scarlet fever. What investigations are obvious on the 20- 21st day from the disease beginning? A. *CBC, urinanalysis, ECG B. nasopharyngeal swab C. Blood culture D. Echo-cardioscopy, ECG, ultrasound of abdomen E. nasal and pharyngeal swab for Corynebacteria diphtheriae

3. A 10 years old girl today has chickenpox. How many days she should not attend school (in the no complicated course of the disease)? A. *9-10 days B. 2-4 days C. 5-7 days D. 10-14 days E. 15-20 days

4. A 14 y.o. female presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She's lost weight for 7 kg during the last 3 months. She had irregular menses. On examination: enlargement of all lymph groups, hepatosplenomegaly. In blood: WBC — 2.2*10^9/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Infectious mononucleosis B. *HIV-infection C. Lymphogranulomathosis D. Tuberculosis E. Chroniosepsis

5. A 14 years patient complains about general weakness, dizziness, body temperature rise up to 37.5 °C, sore throat, neck edema, enlargement of sub- maxillary lymph nodes. Diphtheria was diagnosed. What is the leading mechanism of this illness' development? A. *Action of bacterial exotoxin B. Accumulation of suboxidated products C. Action of bacterial endotoxin D. Allergic E. Bacteriemia

6. A 14 years patient was admitted to a hospital with complaints on headache, weakness, high temperature, sore throat. Objectively: enlargement of all groups of lymph nodes was revealed. The liver is enlarged by 3 cm, spleen - by 1 cm. In blood: leucocytosis, atypical lymphocytes - 15%. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Angina B. Adenoviral infection C. Diphtheria D. Acute lymphoid leukemia E. *Infectious mononucleosis

7. A 15 years female complained of edema on her face and legs, rise of blood pressure up to 160/100 mm Hg and weakness. She fell ill 3 weeks after recovering from angina. Urinalysis data: protein of 0.5 g/l, erythrocytes of 17- 20/field, leukocytes of 2-3/field, erythrocyte casts. What treatment should be initiated after specifying the diagnosis? A. Ceftriaxon B. *Penicillin C. Dipyridamol D. Heparin E. Ciprofloxacin

8. A 15-year-old patient complains of pain in the right half of face, headache, and raised body temperature. He is sick for 3 days, due to being in cold. On physical exam: in the right half of forehead there is inflammatory hyperemia, edema, erosions with necrotic coating on vesicles. There are groups of vesicles with inflammatory hyperemia around them. What pathology is present in this case? A. *Herpes zoster B. Eczema C. Lichen planus erythematosus D. Dermatitis E. Erysipelas

9. A 16 y.o. female presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She's lost weight for 7 kg during the last 3 months. HIV-infection was diagnosed. What preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection? A. *Fluconazol, Orungal, Nisoral B. Cytosar, Cormyctin, Lomycitin C. Rubomycin, Bleomycin, Mytomycin С D. Captopril, Enalapril E. Isoniazid, Ftivazid, Pyrazinamid 10. A 2 years old girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low grade fever, mild catarrhal signs, pink maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital lymph nodes. What is the diagnosis? A. Measles B. Adenoviral infection C. Scarlet fever D. *Rubella E. Pseudotuberculosis

11. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever, cough, corryza, conjunctivitis for 4 days. Today he has fever up to 39 °C and maculopapular rash on his face. Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. What is your diagnosis? A. Scarlet fever B. Rubella C. Pseudotuberculosis D. *Measles E. Allergic rash

12. A 36-year-old woman is on the 12-th week of her first pregnancy. In the past history she received treatment for infertility. Recently she visited guests and contacted a child who developed rubella in 2 days after meeting. The woman doesn't remember whether she had rubella or not. What is the adequate tactics? A. *Monitoring of the specific Ig G, Ig M B. Acyclovir administration C. Immune globulin injection D. Interruption of the pregnancy E. Interferon administration

13. A 4-year-old child on the 5th day of illness complains of cough, rash on the skin. Temperature is 38.2 °C, face is puffy, photophobia, conjunctivitis. There is a bright papulomacular rash on the face, neck, upper half of the thorax. Pharynx is hyperemic. There is serous and purulent discharge from the nose, dry rales in the lungs. What is the preliminary diagnosis? A. *Measles B. German measles C. Enterovirus infection D. Adenovirus infection E. Scarlet fever

14. A 7 year old girl has mild form of varicella. Headache, weakness, vertigo, tremor of her limbs, ataxia, then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. Meningeal signs are negative. Cerebrospinal fluid examination is normal. How can you explain these signs? A. Meningitis B. Myelitis C. Neurotoxic syndrome D. Meningoencephalitis E. *Encephalitis

15. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose. The boy suffers with alimentary allergy. He applied to doctor due to purulent and bloody discharge from nose, maceration of nostrils and upper lip. Rhinoscopy results: whitish- grayish areas at nasal septum. Mucous membrane of pharynx is not changed. What is the most probable disease? A. *Diphtheria of the nose B. Allergic rhinitis C. Sinusitis (maxillar sinus) D. Rhinovirus E. Adenovirus

16. A 7-year-old girl suddenly fell ill with fever, headache, severe sore throat, vomiting. Tiny bright red rash had appeared on her reddened skin 3 hours later. It is more intensive in axillas and groins. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is hyperemied, on tonsils there are grayish patches. Submaxillary glands are enlarged and painful. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Scarlet fever B. Enteroviral infection C. Rubella D. Pseudotuberculosis E. Measles

17. A 9-year-old child is ill for 5 days. Physical examination: Conscious, inert. Puffy face. Catarrhal conjunctivitis, scleritis. Bright-red papulous middle- spotted skin rash on face and behind ears. Somewhere elements confluence. Diffuse hyperemia in pharynx. Soft palate shows enanthema. The child is not vaccinated. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Measles B. Allergic dermatitis C. Pseudotuberculosis D. Scarlet fever E. Rubella

18. A boy of 12 years is treated in the infectious department because of moderate form of scarlet fever. How many days a quarantine for his class will continue? A. 7 days B. 15 days C. 21 day D. 30 days E. *it is not needed to impose a quarantine, only to do medical inspection of schoolboys 19. A boy had the catarrhal signs, intoxication, on 5th day has appeared maculo- papulous exanthema behind the ears, on face, during a day it spreads on a neck, shoulders. Put your diagnosis. A. Rubella B. Pseudotuberculosis C. meningococcal infection D. *Measles E. Infectious mononucleosis

20. A boy has pseudotuberculosis for 3 weeks. Today, after the improvement, a temperature rose repeatedly, pain in joints and stomach appeared. Name the course of the disease in this case. A. Prolonged, unsmooth with exacerbation B. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation C. acute, unsmooth with the relapse D. *acute, unsmooth with exacerbation E. Prolonged, unsmooth with the relapse

21. A boy of 2 years is ill by infectious mononucleosis, severe form, unsmooth course, is treated in the hospital. What medicine is appointed in such case? A. *glucocorticoids B. antihistamines C. Antibiotics D. disaggregates E. cytostatics

22. A boy of 8 years is ill by infectious mononucleosis, severe form, unsmooth course, is treated in the hospital. What daily dose of prednisolone is given in such case? A. 0.5 - 0.8 mg/kg B. 0.8 - 1.0 mg/kg C. 1 - 1.5 mg/kg D. *2.0- 2.5 mg/kg E. 2.5 - 5.0 mg/kg

23. A boy, 15 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, is treated in the hospital. A mother worries from what complications children die more frequent: A. lymphadenitis B. hemolytic anemia C. *Break of spleen D. thrombocytopenia E. Paresis of cranial nerves 24. A boy, 15 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, complicated by thrombocytopenia. His mother very worries, is interested in frequency of lethal consequences. What doctor answers for her? A. Lethality is high B. *Lethality is low, only single cases C. Lethality is absent D. Lethality is high only among new-born E. Lethality is high only in preschool age

25. A boy, 15 years, is treated in the hospital because of infectious mononucleosis. A doctor diagnosed a concomitant bacterial infection. What from antibiotics is impossible to use for treatment in this case? A. azythromicin B. roxythromycin C. amikacin D. *Ampicillin E. cefasolin

26. A boy, 2 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, complicated, is treated in the hospital. A mother worries from what complications children die more frequent: A. *The CNS damage B. lymphadenitis C. hemolytic anemia D. thrombocytopenia E. Paresis of cranial nerves

27. A boy, 2 years, is in the infectious department with the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis. Indicate the possible mechanism of this disease transmission: A. Fecaly-oral B. *hemo-contact C. Water D. air-dust E. Food

28. A boy, 2years, not vaccinated, 2 weeks ago contacted with a patient with Rubella. Today his temperature rose to subfebrile. Indicate other signs of Rubella in prodromal period. A. *Moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, enanthem, increase of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes B. Moderate intoxication and catarrhal sings, rashes on a skin C. Expressed catarrhal signs, intoxication, enanthem, Koplick's spots D. Moderate catarrhal signs, enanthem, rashes on a skin E. Expressed intoxication, difficulty of the nasal breathing, increase of anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes 29. A boy, 3 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. What from the serological laboratory investigations will confirm the diagnosis in the late period? A. Determination of the Ig M against viral capsid antigen (immune enzyme analysis) B. *Determination of the Ig G against viral capsid and nuclear antigens (immune enzyme analysis) C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Reaction of hetero agglutination E. Complete blood analysis

30. A boy, 3 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. What from the serological laboratory investigations will confirm the diagnosis in the acute period? A. *Determination of the Ig M against viral capsid antigen (immune enzyme analysis) B. Determination of the Ig G against viral capsid and nuclear antigens (immune enzyme analysis) C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Reaction of hetero agglutination E. Complete blood analysis

31. A boy, 9 years, contacted with a brother, patient with Rubella. How many time after the contact a child cannot go to the rest camp? A. 11 days B. 14 days C. 17 days D. *21 day E. 25 days

32. A boy, aged of 9 years entered a clinic with a barking cough, hoarse voice, sub- febrile body temperature. During laryngoscopy the edema and hyperemia of epiglottis was noted. During latex-agglutination reaction a diphtheria toxin is exposed in serum. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx C. *localized diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period D. localized diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period E. spread diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period

33. A child of 5 years complains of pain in his throat, fever. When examined at the 2nd day of illness, a rash was revealed. A scarlet fever was suspected. What morphology of the rash will be typical for scarlet fever? A. *Pinpoint B. Hemorrhagic ("Starry") C. Vesiculous D. Maculopapular E. Nodular

34. A child of 5 years on 2-day being in the surgical hospital has chickenpox. The day before he had appendectomy. Which of the following is correct as epidemiological measures? A. *Place patient in Meltzer’s box B. Urgent discharge C. Isolate in a separate ward D. Held in a room with children who previously suffered from chickenpox E. Isolate by the glass screen up to 5 days from the onset of the last eruption

35. A child of five years two weeks ago was in contact with the patient that had shingles (herpes zoster). The child became ill yesterday acutely. The body temperature is 38.7 ˚C, weakness, headache. The body has many, slightly pruritic papular rash elements, vesicles, isolated pustules, vesicles on the oral mucosa, conjunctiva. What is the diagnosis? A. *Chickenpox B. Strophulus C. Impetigo D. The tuberculosis skin lesions E. Shingles (herpes zoster)

36. A child of seven years had sore throat, fever up to 38.6 ˚C, single vomiting. The next day the body temperature is 37.2-38.5 °C. The doctor found pinpoint rash and diagnosed scarlet fever. Which of the following has been crucial for the diagnosis of scarlet fever? A. *The prevalence of rash in the natural skin folds B. White nasolabial triangle C. Xerosis D. White dermographism E. Positive "pinch" symptom

37. A child, 14 years, is treated in the infectious department from diphtheria. With the purpose of serological diagnostics the reaction of passive hemagglutination with paired sera in 2 weeks was done. What growth of specific antibodies titre has the diagnostic importance? A. 2 times B. 3 times C. 4 times D. 6 times E. 8 times 38. A child of 2 years has measles. Name the evidence to administer antibiotics in this case. A. Viral complications, presence of concomitant pathology B. *Bacterial complications, severe disease C. severe disease, croup syndrome with 1st degree stenosis. D. severe, moderate disease E. often ill, with decreased immunity child

39. A complement binding reaction with measles diagnostic test is done to a child for confirmation of diagnosis. Indicate the diagnostic titer of antibodies. A. 1:40 B. 1:80 C. 1:160 D. There is the stable titre of antibodies in paired sera E. *Growth 4 and more times in 2 weeks

40. A child, 8 years, is treated in the infectious department from diphtheria. At examination the child is faded, adynamic. A skin is pale, gray, general cyanosis, hypotonic muscles. Consciousness is absent. Breathing is frequent, superficial, arrhythmic. Diagnose is: A. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period B. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree D. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree E. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 4th degree

41. To a child, 8 years, that for 2 weeks was treated in the hospital, pseudotuberculosis, non-smooth course, is diagnosed. What distinguishes exacerbation of the disease from the relapses? A. *Growth of clinical symptoms after the period of improvement B. Appearance of clinical symptoms after normalization of clinic-laboratory indexes C. Growth of clinical symptoms without the improvement of the patient's state D. Stable severe state of the patient E. Gradual improvement of the patient's state up to the convalescence

42. A child, aged 5, is ill with fever, vesicular rash mainly on the trunk and head skin. On the 8th day there appeared severe headache, ataxia, lethargy, movement discoordination, tremor of the extremities. On the second wave of the fever encephalitis is diagnosed. Complication of what decease can be encephalitis in this case? A. *Chicken pox B. Herpetic infection C. Enterovirus infection D. Measles E. Rubella

43. A fellow, 17 years, is treated because of pseudotuberculosis, that has acute smooth courser. Name, what is characteristically in this case? A. Duration of the disease up to 1 month, presence of exacerbations, relapses, absence of complications B. *Duration of the disease up to 1 month, absence of exacerbations, relapses, complications C. Duration of the disease up to 1.5 months, absence of exacerbations, relapses, complications D. Duration of the disease up to 1.5 months, presence of exacerbations, relapses, absence of complications E. Duration of disease up to 3 months, absence of exacerbations, relapses, complications

44. A girl 5 years is ill for 5 days. On a background of the catarrhal phenomena rashes have appeared today. Measles is suspected. What will differ rashes at this child from rashes at scarlet fever? A. Absence of rashes concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet B. More large elements of rashes, concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet C. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in pushes D. *Time of appearance, morphology, localization, stages, propensity to confluence, unchanged background of skin, pigmentation of rashes E. rashes are rose, as small spots, during days covers all body, is disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks

45. A girl aged 10 years had infectious mononucleosis, two days ago she was discharged from the hospital. Indicate how long she must be on the dispensary observation: A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 9 months E. *12 months

46. A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: febrile temperature, moderate intoxication, enteritis, stomach-ache, rash all over the body. Liver +4 cm. Indicate the severity of the disease. A. mild B. *moderate C. severe D. Septic E. Toxic

47. A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: hyperpyrexia, expressed intoxication, meningeal syndrome, stomach-ache, hemorrhagic rash all over the body, polyarthritus, hepatitis. Indicate the severity of the disease. A. mild B. moderate C. *severe D. Toxic E. Hypertoxic

48. A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: subfebrile temperature, insignificant intoxication, rashes round the joints, in skin folds. Indicate the severity of disease. A. Effaced B. Subclinical C. *mild D. moderate E. severe

49. A girl of seven years had sore throat, fever up to 38.6 ˚C, single vomiting. The next day the body temperature is 37.2-38.5 °C. The doctor found pinpoint rash and diagnosed scarlet fever. The apartment is separate. There are no more children in the family. Where this girl could be treated? A. *Treat at home B. Hospitalized for 10-12 days C. Hospitalized at least for 22 days D. Hospitalized till the negative throat culture (b-hemolytic streptococcus) E. Treat in hospital until the cessation of desquamation

50. A girl of seven years has been ill chickenpox. Indicate the most likely source of infection: A. *Grandpa, that had shingles (herpes zoster) B. A neighbor, who had chicken pox a month ago C. Mother with ARVI, herpes simplex D. Toy from the varicella focus E. A classmate, who ills chickenpox for 2 days

51. A girl, 10 months, contacted with a brother who had measles. A passive prophylaxis was not done. What is the possibility of future disease in this child? A. 50% B. 70% C. 80% D. 95% E. *100%

52. A girl, 10 years, has pseudotuberculosis, typical form, that has smooth course. What auscultative changes from the heart are possible at the patient? A. tachycardia, extrasystols B. tachycardia, dullness of tones, systolic murmur in all points, is spread outside a heart C. tachycardia, accent of ІІ tone, systolic murmur above an aorta D. *bradycardia, sinus arrhythmia, dull tones, systolic murmur of functional character E. bradycardia, systolic murmur that is conducted in all points of auscultation

53. A girl, 2 years old, for four nights has paroxysms of cough, which ended by the whoop. What probable duration of the disease: A. 4 days; B. 5 days; C. 7 days; D. 25 days; E. *14 days.

54. A girl, 2 years old, for four nights has paroxysms of cough, which ended by the whoop. The small quantity of the transparent phlegm appeared after cough; one vomiting was noted. What is the probable diagnosis in this case? A. Bronchiolitis; B. Obstructive bronchitis; C. *Whooping cough; D. Pneumonia with obstructive syndrome; E. Croup syndrome.

55. A girl, 2 years, contacted with a brother who had measles. She with the purpose of measles prophylaxis has received immunoglobulin. A child visits preschool (kindergarten). What is term of quarantine for this girl? A. 9-17 days B. 11-17 days C. 14 days D. 17 days E. *up to 21 day

56. A girl, 5 years, is treated in the hematological department, received preparations of blood, contacted with a patient who had measles. Indicate duration of measles incubation period in this case. A. Till 17 days B. *Till 21 day C. 9-17 days D. 14 days E. 11-16 days

57. A girl, aged 16 years, appealed to the policlinic for determination of the immune defense against diphtheria. What level of specific antibodies in a blood is protective? A. 0.02-0.03 IU/ml B. 0.03-0.05 IU/ml C. 0.05-0.07 IU/ml D. 0.07-0.09 IU/ml E. *0.1-0.15 IU/ml

58. A boy presents to physician with cramping pain in left side of the chest, general weakness, fever and headache that have appeared 2 days ago. In the morning skin rash on chest was noted. Physical examination: multiple aggregated vesicles filled with transparent fluid, 2-4 mm in diameter. Vesicles are situated on the erythematous and edematous base along 4-5 intercostals. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Herpes zoster varicellosus B. Pityriasis rosea C. Streptococcal (Fox's) impetigo D. Allergic dermatitis E. Herpes simplex

59. A month ago a child received second vaccination by DTP-vaccine and against poliomyelitis. When this boy should be revaccinated against whooping cough? A. *Through 1 year after finished vaccination; B. Through 1.5-2 years after finished vaccination; C. Through 2.5 years after finished vaccination; D. Through 3 years after finished vaccination E. In 4 years

60. A mother has addressed to physician with the girl, 5 years old. The mother complains of raised temperature in child and multiple vomiting. The disease has begun suddenly. During examination: dry lips, sclera injection, hyperemia of the pharynx, the tongue is covered by white coat, small point-like rash on neck, upper part of the trunk, in skin folds. The pulse is small, heart tones are deaf. The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What form of the scarlet fever has this child? A. The mild form. B. *The severe toxic form. C. The moderate form. D. The severe septic form. E. Atypical form 61. A new-born boy during examination is irresponsible to the light and sound. A skin and mucus membranes are cyanotic, rough systolic murmur in all points is spread outside the heart borders. What congenital infection is this typical for? A. herpes simplex infection B. *Rubella C. chicken pox D. mycoplasmosis E. cytomegalovirus infection

62. A patient complained about general weakness, fever, painful rash on his trunk skin. He has been suffering from this for 3 days. Objectively: lateral surface of the trunk on the left is hyperemic and edematic; there are some groups of vesicles with serous and hemorrhagic contents. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Herpes zoster B. Herpetiform Duhring's dermatosis C. Contact allergic dermatitis D. Microbial eczema E. Contact dermatitis simplex

63. A patient complains of intense pressing pain in the pharynx, mainly to the right impossibility to swallow even liquid food. The patient is sick for 5 days. His condition is severe. Body temperature is 38.9 °C, it is difficult to talk, voice is constrained, it is difficult to open the mouth. Submaxillary glands on the right are painful, enlarged. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Peritonsillar abscess B. Diphtheria C. Vincent's disease D. Pharyngeal tumor E. Phlegmonous tonsillitis

64. A schoolboy of 8 years for 25 days is treated in the hepatitis department. Today he has chicken pox. One of the patients in this ward had zoster 2 weeks before. It is also known that last month there have been cases of chickenpox in the school. Name the source of infection for varicella in this case. A. *Patient with herpes zoster B. Neighbors in the department C. Classmates D. Staff of the admission office E. Medical personnel of the hepatitis department

65. A teenager, 15 years, entered to infectious department. Diphtheria of the pharynx was diagnosed. At examination - there is the insignificant increase of tonsils with separate exudates as points, lines. Indicate the form of diphtheria: A. Spread B. Isolated C. Combined D. *Localized focal E. Localized tonsillar

66. A girl complains of high temperature to 38°C, mild pain in the throat during 3 days. On examination: lymphatic nodes of the jaw angle are 3 cm enlarged; palatial tonsils are enlarged and coated with grey plaques which spreads to the uvula and frontal palatial arches. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Agranulocytosis B. Vincent's angina C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis D. Infectious mononucleosis E. *Pharynx diphtheria

67. At a boy of 10 years Rubella was complicated by arthritis of wrists. What pathogenetic treatment does it follow to administer? A. corticosteroids B. protease inhibitors C. *NSAIDs D. Antibiotics of wide spectrum E. recombinant interferon

68. At a boy, 10 years, a scarlet fever, typical form, smooth course is diagnosed. What, except the rashes, will differ the disease at a child from pseudotuberculosis? A. Stages of rashes, conjunctivitis, expressed catarrhal signs B. Polymorphism of rashes, localization of it on hairy part of the head, mucus membranes C. hemorrhagic star-like rashes on shins, thighs, meningeal syndrome, nasopharyngitis D. *Presence of tonsillitis, increase of only tonsillar lymph nodes, absent: arthritis, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs

69. At a boy, 14 years, Rubella was complicated by encephalitis. What is the duration of neurologist supervision after the patient's convalescence? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. Not less than1 year D. 1-2 years E. *not less than 2 years 70. At a boy, 9 years, which has diphtheria for 4 days, the permanent noisy breathing has appeared. Auxiliary muscles take part in breathing. Present noted pallor of skin, perioral cyanosis, and tachycardia. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree D. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree E. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree

71. At a boy, 9 years, which has diphtheria for 4 days, has permanent very noisy breathing, which is heard in the distance, expiration is prolonged. All auxiliary muscles take part in breathing. The phenomena of oxygen insufficiency increase. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree D. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree E. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree

72. At a child of 5 months, which came for vaccination according the calendar, in anamnesis was postvaccinal complication in 4 months age. Indicate what vaccine it follows to use for vaccination: A. *DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. DT-M E. D-M

73. At a child on the background of catarrhal signs, conjunctivitis, exanthema has appeared on 4th day of the disease that spread downward during 3 days. This is characteristically for: A. Pseudotuberculosis B. Scarlet fever C. Chicken pox D. Infectious mononucleosis E. *Measles

74. At a child passive hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnosticum was done. Titre of antibodies is 1: 200. Name the first phase of the disease pathogenesis. A. entheric B. regional infection C. generalization D. *Infection E. bacteremia 75. At a child passive hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnosticum was done. Pseudotuberculosis, atypical form, is diagnosed. Indicate the probable atypical forms of the disease. A. Effaced, asymptomatic, mononucleosis like B. Catarrhal, combined, asymptomatic C. Effaced, septic, catarrhal D. Catarrhal, combined, mononucleosis like E. *Effaced, asymptomatic, catarrhal

76. At a child rashes had appeared on face, for 2 days they spread on a trunk, arms, proximal parts of thighs. This is characteristically for: A. Pseudotuberculosis B. Scarlet fever C. *measles D. Chicken pox E. Infectious mononucleosis

77. At a child with the moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, small maculous exanthema, enlargement and tenderness of posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes was revealed, that is typically for: A. measles B. Pseudotuberculosis C. *Rubella D. chicken pox E. Infectious mononucleosis

78. At a child with tonsillitis there are pin-point rashes, mainly in skin folds, in the inguinal region, on the lateral surfaces of trunk. Such localization of rashes is characteristic for: A. Rubella B. Pseudotuberculosis C. *Scarlet fever D. measles E. enteroviral infections

79. At a child, 1 month, with congenital heart-disease was revealed cataract of both eyes. A child is irresponsible to the light and sound. Indicate the probable diagnosis. A. *Rubella B. herpes simplex infection C. toxoplasmosis D. lysteriosis E. cytomegalovirus infection 80. At a child, 11 years, with exanthema, catarrhal syndrome rashes in a dynamics of pigmented staging, exfoliation of epidermis has appeared. Put your diagnosis. A. *Measles B. Rubella C. Pseudotuberculosis D. Scarlet fever E. Chicken pox

81. At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx is diagnosed. In other organs and systems the changes are absent. Diagnose is: A. *primary diphtheria of the larynx B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx C. combined diphtheria of the larynx D. nontoxic diphtheria of the larynx E. diphtheria of the larynx

82. At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx, laryngitis, dysphonia period, is diagnosed. In other organs and systems the changes are absent. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx C. combined diphtheria of the larynx D. *localized diphtheria of the larynx E. toxic diphtheria of the larynx

83. At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx, laryngotracheitis, stenotic period, the 1st degree stenosis, is diagnosed. In other organs and systems the changes are absent. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx C. combined diphtheria of the larynx D. *spread diphtheria of the larynx E. untoxic diphtheria of the larynx

84. At a child, that became ill acutely: disorders of emptying, fever; a rash on a body has appeared today. Pseudotuberculosis is suspected. Name probable duration of the disease. A. 1-2 days B. *2-4 days C. 3-6 days D. 5-7 days E. 1-1,5 weeks 85. At a child, who 2 weeks is treated because of pseudotuberculosis, leucocyturia and proteinuria is revealed in the analysis of urine. The child has chronic pyelonephritis. Name the course of the disease in this case. A. acute, unsmooth with complication (pyelonephritis) B. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation C. *acute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis D. acute, smooth E. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis

86. At a fellow, 16 years, Rubella was complicated by meningoencephalitis. What from corticosteroids follows to give an advantage in treatment of this patient? A. *dexasone B. hydrocortisone C. prednisolone D. methylprednisolone E. cortisoli

87. At a girl on a background of the catarrhal signs, conjunctivitis, subfebrile temperature rashes had appeared on face, than spread downward and for 3 days covered all the body. This is characteristically for: A. enteroviral infection B. *measles C. Rubella D. chicken pox E. meningococcal infection

88. At a girl, 15 years, Rubella was complicated by encephalitis. What specialists must perform the clinical supervision after the convalescence of child? A. Neurologist, family pediatrician B. *Neurologist, pediatrician-infectionist C. Neurologist, ophthalmologist D. Neurologist, family doctor E. Neurologist, ophthalmologist, district pediatrician

89. At a girl, 17 years, Rubella was complicated by meningitis. What preparation from diuretics follows to give an advantage in treatment of this patient? A. 40% of glucose solution B. lasix C. *mannitol D. verospiron E. diacarb

90. At a girl, 7 years, pseudotuberculosis was complicated by a pyelonephritis. What changes in the analysis of urine will be present? A. *proteinuria, leucocyturia, bacteriuria B. crystaluria, leucocyturia, epitelium (flat epithelium) in the urine C. crystaluria, erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells) D. proteinuria, leucocyturia, epitelium in the urine E. proteinuria, casts, erythrocyturia, epitelium in the urine (kidney epithelium)

91. At previous healthy child, that 2 weeks is treated because of pseudotuberculosis, leucocyturia, proteinuria is revealed in the analysis of urine. Indicate the course of the disease in this case. A. *acute, unsmooth with complication (pyelonephritis) B. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation C. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis D. acute, smooth E. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis

92. Boy 11 years, has recovered from pseudotuberculosis, moderate severity, with smooth course of disease. Indicate the evidence to discharge the patient from the hospital. A. Not early than a 14th day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery. B. Not early than a 14th day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery, normal laboratory indexes C. Not early than a 21st day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery D. *Not early than a 21st day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery, normal laboratory indexes E. Not early than a 28th day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery, normal laboratory indexes

93. Boy, 13 years, is hospitalized with previous diagnosis «pseudotuberculosis». Indicate the most meaningful natural reservoir of infection. A. *synanthrope mice-like rodents B. Wild mice-like rodents C. Wild dogs D. Wild cats E. Domestic animals

94. Boy, aged 9 years, which is ill for 4 days, entered a clinic with soundless cough, aphonia, subfebrile temperature, dyspnea only at the physical exertion. At rest breathing is free. During laryngoscopy were seen the edema and hyperemia of epiglottis, fibrinous exudates on it. During reaction of latex-agglutination a diphtheria toxin is revealed in the serum. Diagnose is: A. primary diphtheria of the larynx B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx C. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period D. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree E. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree

95. Child of 2 years old fell ill acutely: increased body temperature to 39.5 ˚C, refuses to eat. He had drunk hot milk before. At the oral mucosa have appeared thin-walled vesicles with a red rim than quickly develop characteristic surface ulcers. Oral mucosa is edematous and hyperemic. Gums are inflamed and edematous. What diagnosis is the most likely in a child? A. *Herpes of oral mucosa (thrush) B. Burn of oral mucosa C. Thrush (oral candidiasis) D. Chickenpox E. An allergic reaction to cow's milk

96. Child of 3 months comes for vaccination against whooping-cough, diphtheria, tetanus. It is known from anamnesis, that in postnatal period and in 1.5 months a child had cramps. Indicate is it possible to vaccinate this child? A. vaccination is contra-indicated B. *vaccination by DT-antitoxin C. vaccinate according to the calendar after a neurologist consultation D. vaccinate according to the calendar after an immunologist consultation E. vaccinate according to the calendar in the hospital

97. Child, 2 years, that is ill for 3 days, is hospitalized in the infectious department with diagnosis: upper respiratory tract viral infection, laryngotracheitis. Parainfluenza is suspected. What symptoms will be different from measles, prodromal period? A. Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, enanthem on a soft palate B. Absence of croup syndrome C. Presence of laryngeal stenosis of the 1st or 2nd degree D. *Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, the Koplick's spots, enanthem on a soft palate E. Presence of hyperemia of the pharynx, enanthem on a soft palate

98. Child, 2 years, was not vaccinated against measles, contacted with a patient who had measles. What is the evidence to the specific passive prophylaxis of measles in this case? A. Age of child B. *Absence of vaccination C. Term of contact more than 1 week D. Absence of vaccination and the child's age E. Age of child, term of contact up to 4-6 days

99. During inspection of the 6-year old patient on the skin in the VI intercostal space along the anterior and posterior axillary lines doctor has found closely situated vesicles of 0.3-0.5 cm, filled with transparent content, with a tendency to merge, the body temperature is 37.5 ˚C. What disease is the most likely in this situation? A. *Herpes zoster B. Measles C. Chickenpox D. Herpes simplex E. Allergic rash

100. During paroxysmal cough, which disturbs the child during 3 weeks, the paroxysm has ended by discharge of transparent phlegm and vomiting. Name the diagnosis: A. Bronchiolitis; B. Obstructive bronchitis; C. *Whooping cough; D. Allergic bronchitis; E. Bronchial asthma.

101. Examining a child of six years on the second day of illness a doctor saw multiple, very small rash predominantly on the flexor surfaces of hands and feet. The body temperature is 38.4 ˚C. The child complains of sore throat. A scarlet fever was suspected. Which form of scarlet fever is the most likely in this case? A. *Moderate B. Mild C. Severe D. Subclinical E. Rudimentary

102. For the prophylaxis of whooping-cough, diphtheria and tetanus children are vaccinated by DTP vaccine. How such vaccine is named, which contains the killed bacterial cells of one agent and antitoxins of other agents? A. *Associated B. Gene-engineering C. Chemical D. autovaccine E. antyidiotype

103. From a sick child Corynebacterium diphtheriae is selected. What fraction of diphtheria exotoxin has receptor-binding part, which helps in toxin penetration to a cell? A. thermolabile (toxin A) B. *thermostabile (toxin B) C. Cord-factor D. Tox + phage E. Gwarnieri corpuscles 104. In 12 years child on a slightly swollen skin of palms has appeared linear arrangement of separated nodules and tense vesicles filled with clear liquid. Rashes at other sites were absent. The body temperature of a child is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? A. *Herpes of the palms B. Allergic dermatitis C. Chickenpox D. Erysipelas E. Bulous impetigo

105. In a boy on the 2nd day of disease on a background of the subfebrile temperature and rhinitis, has appeared rose small maculous rashes on a body, mainly on the external surfaces of extremities, buttocks, back. Your previous diagnosis is: A. *Rubella B. Pseudotuberculosis C. Scarlet fever D. Measles E. chicken pox

106. In a boy, 8 years old, pediatrician has suspect pseudotuberculosis. For the detachment of specific antibodies on the second week of the disease was performed serologic reaction. Indicate the diagnostic titer of this reaction: A. 1:50. B. 1:80. C. 1:100. D. *1:200. E. 1:360.

107. In a child 5 years of age (on the third day of chickenpox) body temperature is 39.3 ˚C, remains a rash as macula, vesicles, crusts without a definite localization; has appeared rough barking paroxysmal cough. How to interpret the changes in the child's condition on the third day of illness? A. *Croup syndrome in varicella B. Pertussis C. Joining of ARVI with symptoms of croup D. Acute pneumonia E. Aphthous stomatitis

108. In a child, 4 years old, with polymorphic rash on skin (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), subfebrile body temperature, was diagnosed Chickenpox. What changes in complete blood analyses are most probable? A. Leucocytosis, lymphopenia. B. *Leucopenia, lymphocytosis. C. Leucocytosis, neutrophilia. D. Leucopenia, monocytosis. E. Leucocytosis, monocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells.

109. In a child, 6 years old, who has Chickenpox, on the 6 day of the disease has increased body temperature, appeared the headache, vomiting. During examination stiff neck was fined. Meningitis was diagnosed. What change in spinal fluid is the most probable? A. *Lymphocytic pleocytosis. B. Neutrophilic pleocytosis. C. Protein more than 1 g/l. D. Normocytosis. E. Glucose level is increased.

110. In a child, 9 years old, who has Chickenpox, on 7th day of the disease again has increased body temperature to 39.2 ºС, has appeared headache, vomiting, shaky gait, declaimed speech. During examination was noted remaining elements of the rash (crusts), nuchal rigidity; the child is falling in Romberg pose. What complication is possible? A. Polyneuropathy. B. Meningitis. C. *Meningoencephalitis. D. Encephalomyelitis. E. Ventriculitis.

111. In a girl, 10 years old, pediatrician has diagnosed "Pseudotuberculosis". It is known that 1.5 months ago she had maculous rash on lateral surface of the trunk, lower part of the abdominal wall, pain in the throat, increased the body temperature to 38,5 ºC. The girl was treated at home. At the moment she complains of the rash around knees and on feet, severe joint pain, with the joints' immobility. Name the severity of the disease: A. Mild. B. *Moderate. C. Severe. D. Acute. E. Prolonged.

112. In a girl, 12 years old, who has entered to infectious department with diagnosis "Pseudotuberculosis", present toxic syndrome, hyperemied and rough back pharyngeal wall, increased cervical, submandibular, axillary lymph nodes, painful during palpation. The liver is increased, painful during palpation. Name the syndrome, which is present in this case: A. Combined. B. Hepatitis. C. *Mononucleosis-like. D. Abdominal. E. Gastrointestinal.

113. In a second grade student was diagnosed chickenpox moderate form. What anti- epidemic measures are the most correct? A. *Isolate the patient at home to 5-th day after the last vesicles appear B. Hospitalize a patient in Meltzer’s boxing C. Isolate the patient at home before crusts disappear D. Isolate the patient at home to the normalization of temperature E. Hospitalize patient in a specialized department

114. In orphanage the case of measles is registered in 7 years old child. Name the first evidence of hospitalization in this case. A. severe disease B. concomitant diseases C. *child from the closed child's establishment D. viral complications E. second bacterial infection

115. To children's infectious department has entered a girl, 6 years old, with diagnosis "Pseudotuberculosis". Choose the antibacterial medicine for etiological therapy: A. Penicillin. B. Ampiox. C. Cefazoline. D. *Cefotaxim. E. Tetracycline.

116. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious mononucleosis. Indicate what cases are typical for this disease. A. Epidemics B. Sporadic only in cold time of year C. Epidemics in cold time of year D. Epidemics in autumn time of year E. *Flashes in the organized collectives

117. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious mononucleosis. Indicate at whom of children, in obedience to statistics, the disease is more frequent registered? A. *At boys B. At girls C. At new-born children D. At teenagers E. At senior children 118. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious mononucleosis. Indicate at what period of year, in obedience to statistics, more frequent is the disease registered? A. In summer B. In summer-autumn C. In autumn-winter D. *In winter-spring E. In a spring

119. In preschool in a senior group two children became ill by infectious mononucleosis. Does it follow to perform nonspecific prevention in the focus of infection? A. contacts receive normal human immune globulin B. contacts receive specific immune globulin C. in the focus of infection is performed final disinfection D. look after contacts during 7 days E. *preventive measures in the focus of infection are not performed

120. In the child, 5 years old, the disease has began sharply from high body temperature, vomiting, increased anterior neck lymphatic nodes. The cheeks are red, circumoral surface is pale. In the pharynx is present separated bright hyperemia, purulent exudates on tonsils. What disease is possible in this case? A. Infectious mononucleosis. B. Measles. C. Enteroviral infection. D. Rubella. E. *Scarlet fever.

121. In the group of preschool (kindergarten) the case of measles is registered. What term of isolation of contact children whom a specific prophylaxis was not performed? A. 11 days B. 14 days C. *17 days D. 21 day E. 11-21 day

122. In the inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria morbidity during the last 3 years with separate flashes in families. What measure can effectively influence on the diphtheria epidemic process and decrease the morbidity to single cases? A. *Immunization of the population B. Disinfection in disease focus C. Revelation of carriers D. Early diagnostics E. Hospitalization of patients

123. In the middle group of the kindergarten two children have "Whooping cough". Indicate duration of the quarantine for contacts since moment of ill children isolation. A. 3 days B. 5 days; C. 9 days; D. *14 days; E. 21 days.

124. In the ward of infectious department 3 children are hospitalized with measles, the period of exanthema, complicated by the croup syndrome, stenosis 1st degree. Can they be there together? A. Yes, patients in the identical period of disease B. Yes, patients have identical complication C. No, it follows to place them separately D. *Yes, the cultures of virus of measles are identical by the antigen properties E. No, because possible development of other complications

125. Morbidity by diphtheria in our country substantially went down due to vaccination. Since what year massive immunization of population against diphtheria is performed? A. 1917 B. 1924 C. *1940 D. 1960 E. 1965

126. Mother with the boy of 1 year visited a policlinic for taking the planned vaccination. When does a child follow to take revaccination against Rubella? A. In 1 year B. At 1.5 year C. In 3, 6 years D. *In 6 years E. In 6, 15 years

127. Teenager, 16 years, entered to infectious department, diphtheria of the pharynx was diagnosed. On 2nd day the fibrinous membrane was leaked with a blood. On the skin - hemorrhages, bleeding from a nose was noted. Indicate the form of diphtheria: A. Hypertoxic B. *Hemorrhagic C. Toxic 1st degree D. Toxic 2nd degree E. Toxic 3rd degree

128. The Boy is 6 years old. He is study at school. 2 days ago suddenly the body temperature rose to 38 ºС, the general condition become worse; the pain during swallowing has appeared. The patient was examined by family doctor. The scarlet fever was diagnosed. When the child could visit the school? A. On 10th day after the disease has begun. B. On 15th day after the disease has begun. C. On 20th day after the disease has begun. D. *on 22nd day after the disease has begun. E. on 30th day after the disease has begun.

129. The boy, 11 years old, who was treated from pseudotuberculosis in the hospital during the month, complains of the periodic pain in knees and feet. The duration of the disease is 1.5 months. Name the course of pseudotuberculosis in this case: A. Typical. B. Moderate. C. Acute. D. *Prolonged. E. Chronic.

130. The boy, 13 years old, came to pediatrician in a week after discharge from infectious department, where he was treated from pseudotuberculosis. The physician has noticed erythema of 2.5-5 cm by diameter on front surface of the legs and around the knees. During palpation painful, deeply located, limited nodes were found. Body temperature is 37.2 ºC. On palms and soles desquamation of the skin. Name the course of the pseudotuberculosis: A. Typical. B. Moderate. C. Acute. D. Prolonged. E. *Relapsed.

131. The boy, 2 years old, became ill acutely. The disease has began from increasing of the temperature to 37.9º С, skin rash. On the third day physician has noted the rash on the face, hair part of the head, trunk, hands, legs in the manner of spots, papules, vesicles with transparent contents, crusts. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Herpes simplex. B. Herpes zoster. C. Natural pox. D. *Chickenpox. E. Lyell syndrome. 132. The boy, 4 years old, became ill acutely: sub-febrile temperature, small catarrhal phenomena, rash on the skin. The rash has appeared during following 4 days, has polymorphic structure. Chickenpox was diagnosed. For what period must be isolated ill person? A. For 4 days. B. For 5 days. C. For 16 days. D. *For the whole rash period + 5 days since the last element of the rash has appeared. E. For 21 days.

133. The boy, 4 years old, is treated in infectious department because of the scarlet fever, moderate form. He complains of increasing body temperature to 39 ºС, multiple vomiting, poor sleeping, and headache. Objectively: bright point rashes on flexible surfaces of the limbs, lateral surface of the trunk, internal and back surfaces of the thighs. The regional lymphatic nodes are increased, painful. The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What etiological therapy is better to use in this case? A. Oxacillin B. *Benzylpenicillin C. Furazolidone D. Gentamicin E. Cefotaxim

134. The boy of three years awoke at night from paroxysmal convulsive cough: one for another existed the short cough pushes, which were interrupted by whoops. Name the disease period: A. Incubation; B. Prodromal; C. Catarrhal; D. *Paroxysmal; E. Permition.

135. The Child is 3 years old. He is ill for 5 days, became ill sharply: the body temperature has increased to 38.5 ºС, the general condition become worse, the pain in throat had appeared. In 2 days has appeared small point-like rash. The Scarlet fever was diagnosed. What changes in the general blood test are typical for this disease? A. *Elevation of ESR, leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophilia. B. leucopenia, neutrophilia, reduction of ESR. C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis. D. leucocytosis, aneosinophylia. E. leukopenia, neutrophilia, atypical mononuclear cells. 136. The child of 1 year has visited a policlinic for the planned vaccination by the MMR vaccine. When does it follow to do revaccination against the measles? A. In 3 years B. *In 6 years C. In 7 years D. In 11 years E. In 15 years

137. The child, 3 years old, became ill acutely. Body temperature has increased to 37.8º С. On trunk, hair part of the head, face has appeared small spots, papules. Next day has appeared fresh elements of the rash, old elements has changed in vesicles, partly in crusts. It is known that two weeks ago child contacted with sick person, who has a similar disease. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Rubella B. *Chickenpox C. Measles D. Scarlet fever E. Infectious mononucleosis

138. The child, 3 years old, has measles. He is treated in infectious department. He visits kindergarten. On what period it is necessary to impose the quarantine in the group of kindergarten, which visits this child? A. Till 5th day B. On 10 day C. *On 17 day D. For 21 days E. Not, it is unnecessary

139. The child, 3 years old, has measles. On the 5th day has appeared the rash on face, neck, and chest. On what period is necessary to isolate the sick child? A. On 17 days. B. On 10 days. C. On 7 days. D. *On 4 days. E. Does not require isolation.

140. The child, 3 years old, is ill during 3 days. His mother complains that child has high temperature (38 ºC), headache, cough. The child could not look at light (appears tearing). Objectively: child is wilted, conjunctivas hyperemia and edema are present. On cheeks and gums are present spots of gray-white color, surrounded by red bordering, sized as poppy grain. On soft palate is enanthema - in the manner of small rose-red spots. What diagnosis is most probable? A. Influenza. B. Parainfluenza. C. Rubella. D. Scarlet fever. E. *Measles.

141. The child, 3.5 years old, has Chickenpox. He visits kindergarten. What is the duration of quarantine in a group of kindergarten? A. From 17 to 21 day. B. From 5 to 25 day. C. For 14 day. D. For 35 day. E. *From 9 to 21 day.

142. The child, 4 years old, is ill for 7 days. The body temperature is 36.8 ºС, once in a while disturbs productive cough. On the face and upper half of the trunk - pigmented rashes, on lower limbs spotted-papulous rashes. Measles was diagnosed. What is period of measles is in this case? A. Catarrhal B. Exanthema C. *Pigmentation D. Complications E. Recovery

143. The child, 4 years old, is ill for the 3rd day. On skin he has polymorphic rash: spots, papules, vesicles, some of them have purulent content, crusts. Body temperature has increased. Was diagnosed Chickenpox, complicated by pyoderma. What from enumerated medicine should be prescribed to this child? A. Gentamicin. B. Nifuroxasid. C. Gancyclovir. D. *No one. E. Laevomycetin.

144. The child, 5 years old, became ill sharply, 3 days ago. The body temperature has increased to 38 ºС. He was treated by home methods. In 3 days his condition was not better. The patient was examined by family doctor. Pharyngeal and tonsillar hyperemia was found, small point-like enanthema on soft palate. In skin folds, lateral surface of the trunk and neck - small maculous rash. Increased front-cervical lymphatic nodes are palpated. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Rubella. B. Chickenpox. C. Pseudotuberculosis. D. Hemorrhagic purpura. E. *Scarlet fever. 145. The child, 5 years old, has measles, which on the 5th day has complicated by bilateral bronchopneumonia. How long must be isolated sick person? A. On 4 days after rashes have appeared. B. On 5 days after rashes have appeared. C. *On 10 days after rashes have appeared. D. On 14 days after rashes has appeared. E. On 21 days after rashes has appeared.

146. The child, 5 years old, is entering the infectious department. The complaints are: increasing of the body temperature to 39º С, headache, pain in the throat, vomiting. Objectively: in skin folds, lateral surface of the trunk and neck - small maculous rash. Circumoral pallor is noted on the background of bright colored cheeks. Anterior cervical lymphatic nodes are enlarged. The tongue is covered by white coat, pharynx is hyperemied. What is the diagnosis? A. Rubella. B. Chickenpox. C. Pseudotuberculosis. D. *Scarlet fever. E. Hemorrhagic purpura.

147. The child, 6 years old, is ill for 3 days. The disease has begun with increasing of the body temperature to 38 ºС, cough. Objectively: eyelids with edema, tearing, ocular slots are narrowed, oral mucosa is covered with white punctures, which are encircled by red bordering. On soft palate enanthema is present. Measles was diagnosed. What period of the disease has the child? A. *Catarrhal B. Exanthema C. Incubation D. Pigmentation E. Recovery

148. The child, 7 years old, complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39 ºС, pain in throat, malaise. He is ill for 4 days. At examination of the pharynx: hyperemia, small-maculous hemorrhagic rash on soft palate. Objectively: increased, painful, thickened front-cervical lymphatic nodes, on flexible surfaces of the limbs - bright point-like rash. What is the preliminary diagnosis? A. *Scarlet fever B. Diphtheria C. Lacunar angina D. Measles E. Chickenpox

149. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39 ºС, general weakness, and periodic moist cough with discharge of the mucous phlegm. Objectively: the general condition is moderate; skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of lungs – dull sound, crepitation. What complication of the measles has appeared in this child? A. Tracheobronhitis B. Bronchitis C. Bronchiolitis D. *Pneumonia E. Pharyngitis

150. The child, 7 years old, is ill for 4 days. He complains of dry cough, head ache, increasing of the body temperature to 38 ºС; is afraid of the light. At examination: conjunctivas hyperemia, on gums white spots, surrounded by red bordering, serous discharges from nose. On hard palate enanthema is present. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Enteroviral infection B. Rubella C. Stomatitis D. *Measles E. Scarlet fever

151. The child, 7 years old, is ill for 5th day. He complains of rashes that appear on the nose back. He became ill sharply, when had increased the body temperature to 38 ºС, appeared the liquid separations from nose. Objectively: The face is puffy, conjunctional hyperemia and edema are noted. The back pharyngeal wall is hyperemied. On soft palate - single small rose spots. On cheeks - white spots with red corolla. The skin of the face and neck is covered by big amount of small rose spots on no changed base. What diagnosis is the most probable? A. Measles, catarrhal period. B. *Measles, rashes period. C. Infectious mononucleosis. D. Scarlet fever. E. Meningococcemia.

152. The child, 7 years old, is ill for the second day. He complains of cough, headache; the body temperature is 38 ºС. During examination: conjunctivas hyperemia, tearing, on soft and hard palate - enanthema, on mucous membranes of the cheeks against small scolded teeth - small white spots with hyperemia around them. What disease is most probable in this case? A. Stomatitis. B. Adenoviral infection C. Enteroviral infection. D. *Measles. E. Parainfluenza. 153. The child, 9 years old, is ill for 6 days. He complains of increasing body temperature to 38 ºС, pain during swallowing, small maculous rash on neck, upper part of the trunk, skin folds. Objectively: pharyngeal and tonsillar hyperemia was founded, small point-like enanthema on soft palate. What laboratory investigation will confirm the Scarlet fever? A. Thick smear of the blood. B. Smears from the pharynx on viral parts. C. Blood culture. D. *The agglutination reaction to reveal the antigen in material. E. The swab from nose and pharynx on bacillus Lefleri.

154. The child, aged 3 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. 2 weeks B. *1 month C. 5 months D. 6 months E. 12 months

155. The child, aged 4 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. 2 weeks B. *1 month C. 5 months D. 6 months E. 12 months

156. The child, aged 5 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. Not less than 3 months B. Not less than 6 months C. Not less than 9 months D. *Not less than 12 months E. Not less than 18 months

157. The district pediatrician visited 9-month-old baby who is suffering from chicken pox, on the third day of illness. On examination were revealed vesicles on the skin of the trunk, extremities and oral mucosa, as well as crusts on his face, hyperemia of conjunctivas, and purulent discharge from the eyes. The body temperature is 38.5 ˚C. What conclusion has made the doctor? A. *Moderate form of varicella, complicated by the bacterial infection B. Typical moderate form of varicella C. Typical severe form of varicella D. Generalized form of varicella E. Hemorrhagic form of varicella

158. The girl, 7 years old, complains of pain in the throat, increasing of the body temperature to febrile, headache, and sickness. During objective examination: bright point-like rash on flexible surfaces of the limbs, lateral surface of the trunk, internal and back surfaces of the thighs, increased front-cervical lymphatic nodes, "blazing pharynx". The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What bacteria cause this disease? A. Staphylococci B. *Betha-haemolytic streptococci C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus cereus E. Gram-positive diplococci

159. The home pediatrician during examination of the 14 years old girl, has noticed maculous rash on lateral surface of the body and lower part of the abdomen on hyperemied skin. The face is hyperemied with cyanosis, edema of the hands and feet. Name the diagnosis: A. *Pseudotuberculosis. B. Scarlet fever. C. Erysipelas. D. Tularemia. E. Brucellosis.

160. The home pediatrician during examination of the 9 years old boy put the diagnosis of pseudotuberculosis. Name the method, which is used for early diagnostic of the disease: A. Bacteriological. B. *Immune-enzyme. C. Serological. D. Cytological. E. Cytochemical.

161. The Physician is called to the boy, 5 years old. Patient is ill during 4 days: increased temperature to 38.2º С, rash has appeared on skin since the first day of the disease. During examination is noted polymorphic rash (the papules, vesicles, crusts) on the whole body, there are several vesicles with purulent content and hyperemia around them. What complication is possible? A. Phlegmona B. Furunculosis C. *Pustulosis D. Paronychia E. Eczema 162. Three weeks after acute tonsillitis the patient is still weak, inert, subfebrile, his retromaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged. Tonsils are flabby, stick together with arches, there are purulent plugs in lacunae. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Acute lacunar tonsillitis B. *Chronic tonsillitis C. Chronic pharyngitis D. Tonsillar tumor E. Perytonsillitis

163. To pediatrician has addressed a boy, 10 years old, with complains of increased body temperature to 38.2 ºC, rash in the manner of red spots and papules on the skin. The physician has noticed the rash on lateral surface of the body and lower part of the abdomen. The face is hyperemied with cyanosis, edema of the neck, higher part of the thorax. Name the diagnosis: A. Chickenpox. B. *Pseudotuberculosis. C. Measles. D. Rubella. E. Scarlet fever.

164. To pediatrician has addressed a girl, 12 years old, who had increased body temperature to 38.2-39.4 ºC. In 5 days rash had appeared around knees and feet, and lower part of the abdomen, in skin folds. It looks like red spots and papules. Mild jaundice of the skin had appeared. Name the diagnosis. A. Chickenpox. B. *Pseudotuberculosis. C. Measles. D. Rubella. E. Scarlet fever.

165. To the 10 years old boy a tree-like keratitis is diagnosed. Unilateral expressed vascular injection of the eyeball is revealed, almost in the center of the cornea is fuzzy grayish turbidity, that takes the form of twigs with rough surface. What infection can cause such changes? A. *Herpetic B. Adenovirus C. Measles D. Chlamydia E. Staphylococcal

166. To the boy, patient with pseudotuberculosis, complete blood analysis is done. How will differ its results from complete blood analysis at infectious mononucleosis with the secondary tonsillitis? A. leucopenia, lymphomonocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, B. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis C. leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophilia, increased ESR D. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, absence of atypical mononuclear cells E. *neutrophilia, absence of atypical mononuclear cells

167. To the child of 18 months re-vaccination against tetanus, diphtheria, whooping- cough was done. What recommendation does it follow to give to the parents in case the credible increase of temperature? A. *paracethamol during 1 day B. paracethamol during 3 days C. Aspirin during 1 days D. analgin during 1 day E. analgin during 3 days

168. To the child with the purpose of congenital Rubella confirmation virology research is performed. What environments and liquids need to be examined for this test? A. Blood, saliva, cerebral-spinal fluid B. Blood, saliva, urine, sweat C. Blood, cerebral-spinal fluid, urine D. *Blood, nasopharyngeal mucus, excrements, urine E. Urine, excrements, saliva, sweat

169. To the child with the purpose of Rubella confirmation hemagglutination retardation reaction is done with the rubella diagnostic test. When does it follow to repeat this research? A. In 4 days B. In 7 days C. *In 10-14 days D. In 3 weeks E. In a month

170. To the child with the purpose of Rubella confirmation hemagglutination retardation reaction is done with the rubella diagnostic test. Indicate the diagnostic titer of antibodies. A. 1:20 B. 1:40 C. 1:80 D. 1:160 E. *Increase of titre in 4 and more times in paired sera 171. To the child, 10 months old, with the purpose of measles' prophylaxis (he contacted with a sick brother) was injected specific immunoglobulin. What type of immunity has developed in this case? A. *Specific, passive, with short duration B. Specific, passive, with long duration C. Specific, active, with long duration D. Unspecific, passive, with short duration E. Unspecific, passive, of long duration

172. To the girl, patient with pseudotuberculosis, moderate degree, complete blood analysis is done. What results will be different from results in complete blood analysis at scarlet fever? A. Increased number of plasmatic cells, normal ESR B. monocytosis, normal ESR C. Appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, increased ESR D. leucocytosis, increased ESR E. *No one

173. To the healthy child, 1 year old, 3 days ago Mantoux test was performed. The result is negative. Together with what vaccination should be done vaccination against Chickenpox? A. Against whooping cough, tetanus, diphtheria. B. Against poliomyelitis. C. *This vaccination is not obvious. D. Against hepatitis В. E. Against tuberculosis.

174. What medicine is better to use to decrease the number of cough paroxysms in case of Whooping cough in 5 years old child? A. *Buthamirat; B. Glauvent; C. Salbuthamol; D. Instaril; E. Libexin.

175. What treatment is necessary to a 5 years old child who is suffering with uncomplicated whooping cough for 3 weeks? A. *None of the above B. Chloramphenicol C. Glucocorticoid hormones D. Erythromycin E. Whooping cough immunoglobulin 176. Which of the following should be taken (with the purpose of the Epidemic measures) in the rheumatologic department, where one child has chicken pox, in relation to other children, that previously had not suffered from chicken pox? A. *Discharge or translocate them to an infectious "box" in 8 days B. Urgent discharge C. Urgently translocate them to Meltzer’s box D. Held in a room with children who previously suffered from chickenpox E. Do nothing

177. A 1,5 y.o. child fell ill acutely with high temperature 38 °C, headache, fatigue. The temperature declined on the fifth day, muscular pain in the right leg occurred in the morning, there were no movements and tendon reflexes, sensitivity was reserved. What is the initial diagnosis? A. Viral encephalitis B. Hip joint arthritis C. *Poliomyelitis D. Polyartropathy E. Osteomyelitis

178. A 14-year-old patient on the 5th day of acute respiratory disease with high grade temperature complained of strong headache, systemic dizziness, sensation of double vision, paresis of right mimic muscles, tickling at swallowing. Diagnosis: Acute viral encephalitis. Determine the basic direction of the emergent therapy. A. *Acyclovir B. Glucocorticoids C. Hemodesis D. Cephtriaxon E. Lasix

179. A 15 years patient fell ill a week ago: body temperature rose up to 37.6 °C, there appeared a slight swelling on his neck. His illness was diagnosed as ARVI, cervical lymphadenitis. Treatment included erythromycin, hot compress on the neck. Than body temperature raised up to 39 oC, appeared headache, repeated vomiting, meningeal syndrome. What studies are necessary for the final diagnosis? A. Complete blood count B. Puncture of cervical lymph node C. *Cerebrospinal puncture D. Sputum test for secondary flora E. Roentgenological examination of lungs

180. A 3 year old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39 oC, weakness, vomiting. Haemorrhagic rash of various size appeared on his lower limbs in 5 hours. Meningococcemia with infectious - toxic shock of the 1st degree was diagnosed. What medications should be administered? A. *Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone B. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon C. Penicillin and prednisone D. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin E. Penicillin and immunoglobulin

181. A 3 year old child fell ill acutely, body temperature rose up to 39.5 °C, the child became inert, there appeared recurrent vomiting, headache. Examination revealed positive meningeal symptoms. CSF is turbid, with high pressure, protein 1,8 g/l; Pandy reaction +++, sugar 2,2 mmole/l, chlorides - 123 mmole/l, cytosis is 2,35*10^9 (80% neutrophils, 20% lymphocytes). What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Serous tuberculosis meningitis B. Brain tumor C. Serous viral meningitis D. *Purulent meningitis E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

182. A 5-year-old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39.8 °C, recurrent vomiting, severe headache. Convulsions occur in 3 hours. Meningeal signs are positive. Pleocytosis of 2500 mainly polymorphonuclear cells, elevated protein concentration and normal glucose concentration were found in cerebrospinal fluid. What is your diagnosis? A. *Purulent meningitis B. Tuberculosis meningitis C. Serous meningitis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage E. Encephalitis

183. A boy, 7 years old became ill 3 days ago: body temperature 39.6 °С, repeated vomiting, headache, weakness. On the 3rd day he couldn't close left eye, face asymmetry during speaking has appeared. The boy wasn't vaccinated. What disease is suspected? A. *Poliomyelitis, pontine form B. Poliomyelitis, bulbar form C. Poliomyelitis, meningeal form D. Facial nerve peripheral palsy E. Facial nerve central palsy

184. A child with meningococcus meningitis has been taking penicillin for 7 days. Last 4 days a body's temperature is normal. Meningeal signs are absent. When is it possible to cancel antibiotic therapy? A. *If liquor cytosis is 50 or less, mainly due to lymphocytes B. If liquor cytosis is 150, mainly due to lymphocytes C. Right now D. If leucocytosis and left neutrophilic shift are absent E. If liquor cytosis is 100 or less, mainly due to neutrophils

185. A girl 2 years became ill acutely from raising of temperature to 38.3 °С, catarrhal phenomena. During three days cough and cold were present. Then a temperature decreased, but the child could not stay. A doctor reveals limitation of movements, lowering of muscular tone in lower extremities. Sensitiveness is normal. Name previous diagnosis. A. *Poliomyelitis B. Osteomyelitis C. Enteroviral infection D. Rotaviral infection E. Flu

186. A girl, 4.5 years old, is treated in infectious department from meningococcal infection (generalized form), meningococcemia. Name, what examination must be done to determine specific antibody. A. *Serological reaction. B. The latex-agglutination reaction C. The immune-electrophoresis reaction D. The direct bacterioscopy of the blood. E. Bacteriological examination of the blood.

187. A girl, aged 10 months, is treated from meningococcal infection (generalized form). Choose the sign, which is not unfavorable at this disease: A. Early age. B. Early appearance and quick growth of the hemorrhagic rash. C. Predominant localization of the rash on face and trunk. D. Hypothermia. E. *Presence of purulent meningitis.

188. At 14 years fellow measles was complicated by meningoencephalitis. What features of this complication? A. *Severe course, high lethality B. Defeat of cerebellum, convalescence without the remaining phenomena C. Defeat of cerebellum, central paralyses D. Mild course, without the remaining phenomena E. Development of purulent meningitis

189. At a boy Rubella was complicated by meningoencephalitis. In what age such complication is more frequent? A. In new-born B. At infants C. At the children of early age D. In preschoolers E. *In senior schoolers

190. At a child 4 years suddenly the temperature of body rose to 39.5 °C. Head ache and repeated vomit appeared. In a hour a mother noticed the plural hemorrhagic rashes on buttocks and shins, which spread quickly. What is the previous diagnosis? A. *Meningococcemia, fulminant form B. Meningococcemia, infectious-toxic shock ІІ degree C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Meningococcal meningoencephalitis E. Meningococcal meningitis and Meningococcemia

191. Child 1.5 years, not vaccinated is ill for 4 days. The disease had begun from hyperthermia to 38.5 °C, weakness, mild catarrhal phenomena and liquid emptying. On a 5th day a temperature normalized, pain appeared in the muscles of feet with acute limitation of movements, lowering of tendon reflexes. Name previous diagnosis. A. *Poliomyelitis B. Acute intestinal infection C. Acute encephalitis D. URT infection E. Osteomyelitis

192. In entrance department of the infectious diseases hospital to the child, 5 years old, physician put diagnosis of meningococcal infection, meningococcemia. Indicate the start dose of the penicillin for meningococcemia treatment. A. 100 thous. IU/kg/day. B. *200-300 thous. IU/kg/day. C. 500 thous. IU/kg/day. D. 800 thous. IU/kg/day. E. 1 mln. IU/kg/day.

193. In entrance department of the infectious hospital to the boy, at the age of 2 years, the diagnosis of meningococcal infection, mixed form with infectious- toxic shock I degree, was put. Choose the sign, which is not typical for this case: A. *Decrease of the arterial pressure below 80 mm.Hg. B. Skin pallor. C. Cool limbs. D. Central hyperthermia. E. Adequate urination. 194. In the child with meningococcal infection (typical meningococcemia) typical hemorrhagic rash is localized especially on the skin of the buttocks, lower part of the abdomen. What is the most probable time of the rash beginning? A. Simultaneously with increasing of the temperature. B. Through 2-3 hours after increasing of the temperature. C. *Through 5-15 hours after increasing of the temperature. D. At the beginning of the 2nd day. E. After 2 days.

195. In a patient the disease has started acutely, with fever to 38 — 39 °C, weakness, acute headache, nausea, vomiting, pain all over the body, sleep disorders. On physical examination: hyperemia of face, neck, thorax. Meningeal signs are positive. 12 days ago the patient returned from the Siberia, from the forest. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Tick-borne encephalitis B. Omsk hemorrhagic fever C. Pseudotuberculosis D. Epidemic typhus E. Influenza

196. The boy, aged 3 years, had meningococcemia, uncomplicated form. Before the disease vaccination was performed outside of vaccination calendar. Indicate through what time after the disease is possible to continue vaccinations. A. *1 month. B. 2 months. C. 6 months. D. 1 year. E. Vaccination is impossible.

197. The child is 3 years old. Meningococcal infection, generalized form, purulent meningitis was diagnosed. What changes in the general blood test are typical for this disease? A. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis. B. Leucopenia, neutrophilia, reduction of ESR. C. *Elevation of ESR, leucocytosis, neutrophilia. D. leucocytosis, aneosinophylia. E. leukopenia, neutrophilia, atypical mononuclear cells.

198. The child, 4 years old, is ill with meningococcal infection (meningococcemia), complicated by infectious-toxic shock. Choose the antibacterial medicine, which is reasonable to use for etiotrope therapy: A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Gentamicin. D. Karbenicillin. E. *Laevomycetin.

199. The child, 5 years old, complains of: increasing of the body temperature to 39.5 ºС, shivering, headache, poor sleeping. What single dose of paracethamol should be given? A. *0.01 g/kg B. 0.05 g/kg C. 0.1 g/kg D. 0.2 g/kg E. 0.5 g/kg

200. The Child, aged 2 years, with meningococcal infection, is examined by the group of students together with physician. Name, which sign is not present at meningococcal rash: A. Hemorrhagic nature. B. The elements are mildly increased on the level of the skin. C. The necrosis in the centre. D. *Disappears at pressure. E. In scraper is possible to find meningococcus.

201. To the boy, 4 years old, was put the diagnosis of meningococcal infection (generalized form). The child is treated in infectious department. What generalized form of meningococcal infection is the most often one? A. Meningitis. B. Meningococcemia. C. *Combined form (Meningococcemia + meningitis). D. Meningoencephalitis. E. Encephalitis.

202. To the girl, 8 months old, the physician has put the diagnosis of meningococcal infection, mixed form with infectious-toxic shock II degree. The child is treated in resuscitation department of the infectious hospital. Choose the sign, which is not typical in this case: A. Decrease of the arterial pressure. B. *Bradycardia. C. Pallor of the skin. D. Acrocyanosis. E. Small pulse.

203. Child is 1 year. What antibiotic is it necessary to give him on a hospital stage of treatment in case of Meningococcal infection without the infectious-toxic shock? A. *benzylpenicillin B. ampicillini thryhidratis C. rifampicin D. ciprofloxacin E. amoxyclav

204. The child is 3.5 years. Admitted to the infectious ward on the 5th day of the disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, the absence of active movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. On examination: lower extremities are cold, hypersensitivity, positive symptoms of tension, he sits in a «tripod" pose, passive movements in the legs are complete, the sensitivity is normal. Name a diagnosis according to the classification. A. *Polio, a typical spinal form B. Polio, a typical bulbar form C. Polio, a typical pontine form D. Polio, a typical meningeal form E. Polio, atypical abortive form

205. A child of 2 years has entered to the infectious ward on the 5th day of the disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, the absence of active movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. On examination: lower extremities are cold, hypersensitivity, positive symptoms of tension, he sits in a "tripod" pose, passive movements in the legs are complete, the sensitivity is normal. Which period of poliomyelitis does this child have? A. *Paralytic B. Preparalytic C. Recovery D. Residual E. Abortive

206. The child is 4 years old. Entered the infectious department on the 6th day of the disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, marked weakness, lack of active movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. Polio, typical spinal form, paralytic period of moderate severity was diagnosed. What changes in the complete blood analysis are typical for this case? A. *lymphocytosis, ESR acceleration B. leucocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. lymphopenia, ESR acceleration D. neutrophilia, eosynophilia, ESR acceleration E. lymphocytosis, monocytosis, the appearance of atypical mononuclear cells

207. Child is 6 years. Entered the infectious department on the 4th day of the disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, marked weakness, lack of active movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. Polio, typical spinal form was diagnosed. What changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are typical for this case? A. *mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation B. changes are not characteristic (indicators are normal) C. marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation D. the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation E. moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation

208. A boy of 7 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.6 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, distorted face during speaking. The boy is not immunized. What the family doctor has to do? A. *Obviously send the patient to the infectious ward with 40 days isolation. B. Obvious admission to the neurological department C. Home treatment up to restore lost functions D. Home treatment for 21 days E. Hospitalization to the infectious ward, the introduction of specific serum

209. A boy of 10 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.2 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is not immunized. What is the diagnosis? A. *Polio, typical pontine form B. Polio, typical spinal form C. Polio, typical bulbar form D. Polio, typical meningeal form E. Polio, atypical abortive form

210. A boy of 6 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.4 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is not immunized. What period of poliomyelitis has the child? A. *Paralytic B. Preparalytic C. Recovery D. Residual E. Abortive

211. A boy of 8 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.4 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is not immunized. Which diseases of the following it should not be differentiated? A. *meningococcal disease B. neuritis of the facial nerve C. volume processes in the brain D. viral encephalitis E. enterovirus infection, polio-like form 212. A boy of 5 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.8 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is not immunized. What is the severity of polio in this case? A. *severe B. mild C. moderate D. abortive form E. unapparent form

213. A child of 3.5 years is acutely ill: 3 days ago there was a fever 38,8 °C, and repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present. Put a preliminary diagnosis. A. *Enterovirus infection B. Adenovirus infection C. Flu D. Measles E. Rubella

214. A child of 4 years is acutely ill: 4 days ago there was a fever 38,5 °C, and repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present. Enterovirus infection is suspected. Indicate the form of the disease. A. *Combined form: rash, herpangina B. Combined form: rash, enteritis C. Typical form: herpangina D. Respiratory catarrhal form (summer flu) E. Typical form: epidemic myalgia

215. A child of 5 years is acutely ill: 4 days ago there was a fever 38,5 °C, and repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present. Enterovirus infection is suspected. Which study will confirm it in the early stages of the disease? A. *the virusological swab from the pharynx by ELISA B. serological method of paired sera C. bacteriological smear from the oropharynx D. detection of specific antibodies (Ig G) for enterovirus E. blood smear (thick film)

216. A child of 3.5 years is acutely ill: 3 days ago there was a fever 38,8 °C, and repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present. Enterovirus infection is suspected. What control measures should be undertaken if the child attended kindergarten? A. *The patient should be isolated until recovery, contact persons are not isolated, daily inspection of contacts with a thermometry. B. The patient should be isolated for 5 days, quarantine in the group for 21 days C. The patient should be isolated for 10 days, quarantine in the group for 7 days D. The patient should be isolated for 30 days, quarantine in the group for 14 days E. The patient should be isolated for 5 days from the time of the last eruption, the contacts are not isolated

217. A girl of 11 years, fell ill acutely: fever up to 39 °C, complains of the lateral chest pain attacks, and pain attacks in upper abdomen. The pain is intensified in deep breathing. On examination: conjunctivas hyperemia, vascular injection of the sclera, mild hyperemia of the soft palate and the posterior pharyngeal wall. Heart sounds are loud, heart rate is 100 per min. Percussion: clear lung sound. On auscultation - vesicular breathing, during the pain attack episode - the superficial, the breathing rate - 20 per min. Stomach is available for palpation, moderate muscular protection in the upper part, the symptoms of peritoneal irritation are negative. Put a preliminary diagnosis. A. *epidemic myalgia B. pleuropneumonia C. dry pleurisy D. syndrome of "acute abdomen" E. leptospirosis

218. Enterovirus infection was diagnosed to 10 years old patient. Objectively: general condition is satisfactory, the temperature is normal, paresis of the lower extremities, muscular weakness of buttocks, thighs, and facial muscles. Specify the form of the disease. A. *Paralytic form B. Epidemic myalgia C. Summer flu D. Serous meningitis E. Herpangina 219. Enterovirus infection was diagnosed to 6 years old patient. He complains of acute paroxysmal pain in the chest, which become worse when coughing and moving. Specify the form of the disease. A. *epidemic myalgia B. paralytic form C. encephalomyocarditis D. summer flu E. enterovirus exanthema

220. 7 years old child is sick for 2 days. He complains of fever, dry cough, red face, sore throat, and conjunctivitis. His younger sister was hospitalized with symptoms of diarrhea and herpangina a few days ago. Put a preliminary diagnosis. A. *Enterovirus infection, respiratory catarrhal form B. Enterovirus infectious, herpangina C. Measles prodrome D. Herpes virus infection (stomatitis) E. Adenovirus infection, pharyngoconjunctival fever

221. A child of 7 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.7 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is not immunized. The child was hospitalized to neuroinfections department with a preliminary diagnosis of polio. A lumbar puncture was performed. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF. A. *Transparent, cell count is 100 cells, 80% lymphocytes, protein is 0.45 g/l B. Turbid, milky, cell count is 1200, 92% neutrophils, protein is 1.2 g/l C. Transparent, yellowish, cell count 200, lymphocytes 72%, glucose 1.2 mmol/l D. Red cell count is 150 (erythrocytes) E. Transparent, cell count is 5, 100% lymphocytes, protein 0.045 g/l

222. A child of 5 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.6 °C, repeated vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. Small papules and vesicles with a clear content are situated on the soft palate and tonsils. Meningeal signs are positive. Which indicators of spinal fluid are characteristic in this case? A. *mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation B. changes are not characteristic (indicators are standard) C. marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation D. the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation E. moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein and cell dissociation 223. 1.5 years child is ill for 1 week. Objectively: body temperature is 38.5º C, often moist cough, dyspnea at rest. On X-ray: lungs’ roots are broad, infiltrated, and in both sides are little shadows. What form of an acute pneumonia is this X-ray typical for? A. Interstitial B. *Bronchopneumonia C. Monosegmental D. Polysegmental E. Croupose

224. 10-years child is ill for 4 days. He complains of subfebrile temperature, dry cough. Objectively: pallor of the skin, red cheeks, greater on right side. Percussion of lungs: on right sight dull sound in lowest part, and in axillar region. Auscultation: on right sight lower than angle of the scapula decrease of breathing, crepitating. What form of an acute pneumonia is possible in this case? A. Bronchopneumonia B. Monosegmental C. Polysegmental D. *Croupose E. Interstitial

225. 15 y.o. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to 40 °C, onset of pain in the side caused by deep breathing, cough with considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood, with bad smell. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Complication of liver echinococcosis B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. *Abscess of the lung D. Actinomycosis of lungs E. Bronchiectatic disease

226. 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5 °C. Percussion: clear pulmonary sound without dullness. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. In the peripheral blood: leucocytosis, eosynophilia, increased ESR. What disease is possible? A. Acute simple bronchitis B. *Obstructive bronchitis C. Whooping cough D. Acute pneumonia E. Bronchial asthma

227. 5-years' old child was hospitalized because of destructive pneumonia. The bacteriological investigation from pleural cavity has found staphylococci. What antibacterial medicine is better to prescribe? A. Penicillin B. Ampicillin C. *Ceftriaxon D. Erythromycin E. Gentamicin

228. A 10-years boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever [temperature — 40 °C], vomiting. On physical examination: dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a right cheek, right hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung, weakness respiration in this region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What disease has caused these symptoms and signs? A. *Pneumonia croupose B. Intestinal infection C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute cholecystitis E. Influenza

229. A 14-year-old adolescent on the second day of the disease complains of a strong headache in temples and in the area of orbits, pain in the legs, dry painful cough. His temperature is 39 °C. Adynamic. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is “flaming”, rales are not auscultated. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Influenza B. Parainfluenza C. Meningococcus infection D. Pneumonia E. Respiratory mycoplasmosis

230. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. A fever of 39 °C, chest pain which is worsened by breathing; cough, brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient? A. *Cephalosporins of the III generation B. Erythromycin C. Streptomycin D. Penicillin E. Tetracycline

231. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of left-side chest pain on inspiration and dyspnea. On exam, t – 37 °C, Ps 92/min, RR of 24/min, vesicular breath sounds. There is a dry, granting, low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the chest. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Acute fibrinous pleurisy B. Acute bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Pneumothorax E. Myocarditis

232. A 16-year-old male was discharged from the hospital after having a community acquired pneumonia. He has no complaints. On physical exam: his temperature is — 36,6 °C, RR-18/min, Ps — 78 bpm, BP — 120/80 mm Hg. During auscultation there is harsh respiration in the lower part of the right lung. Roentgenological: infiltrative changes are absent, intensification of the pulmonary picture in the right lower lobe. How long should the doctor keep the patient under observation? A. *12 months B. 1 month C. 3 months D. Permanently E. 6 months

233. A 3 month old infant is suffering from an acute segmental pneumonia. He has dyspnea (respiration rate – 80 per minute), paradoxical breathing, tachycardia, total cyanosis. Respiration / pulse ratio is 1:2. The heart dullness is of the normal size. Such signs characterize: A. Congenital heart malformation B. Myocarditis C. Respiratory failure of II degree D. Respiratory failure of I degree E. *Respiratory failure of III degree

234. A 5-year-old girl with the transitory T-system immunodeficiency has a right- sided pneumonia during 2 months. What course of pneumonia is in this case? A. *Protracted B. Acute C. Reactivating D. Chronic E. Wavelike

235. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39 °C with chills, cough, and pain on respiration in the right side of her chest. On physical examination: HR – 120/min, BP- 85/45 mm Hg, RR- 36/min. There is dullness over the right lung on percussion. On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the lung. What is the diagnosis? A. *Community-acquired lobar pneumonia of moderate severity B. Acute pleurisy C. Community-acquired bronchopneumonia D. Acute lung abscess E. Nosocomeal lobar pneumonia 236. A 7-year-old boy has body temperature 39.4 °C, productive cough, intoxication. If breathing the right side is behind, a voice fremitus is stronger, short percussion sound, depressed breathing and bronhophonia over the right lung. The X-ray: a homogeneous infiltration of the right lung lower lobe. What is the diagnosis? A. *Acute right-sided lobar pneumonia B. Acute right-sided segmental pneumonia C. Acute right-sided pleurisy D. Acute right-sided pneumothorax E. Acute right-sided interstitial pneumonia

237. To a 8-month-old child is diagnosed atypical community-acquired Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia. Select the best antibiotic. A. *Macrolides of 2nd generation B. Macrolides of 1st generation C. Aminopenicilline D. Cephalosporin of 2nd generation E. Aminoglycosides

238. A 9 month-old baby has fever, cough, dyspnea. She is sick for 5 days after contact with ARVI patient. Condition of the child is severe. Temperature 38 °C, nasolabial triangle is cyanotic. BR 54 per 1 min, nostrils flaring during breathing. Percussion – a shortening of the sound below the right scapula angle, over the other sites – tympanic sound. On auscultation – fine bubbling moist rales on both sides, more on the right. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute bronchiolitis. B. ARVI. C. Acute laryngotracheitis. D. Acute bronchitis. E. *Acute pneumonia.

239. A boy, 8 years old, has addressed to pediatrician with complains of increasing of the body temperature to 37.5 ºС, sore throat, cough, serous discharge from nose, tearing. During examination mild hyperemia and edema of the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall, conjunctives, narrowing of ocular slots were revealed. The physician suspects adenoviral infection. Which method of express- diagnostics is better to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis? A. The separation of the virus on tissue culture B. *Immunofluorescense method C. Serological investigation D. bacteriological investigation E. Bacterioscopy investigation of pharyngeal swab 240. A child of 10 months has acute bronchopneumonia with destruction of the left lung. Which agent is most likely caused this disease? A. Pneumococcus (S. pneumonia) B. *Aurococcus (S. aureus) C. Colibacillus (E. Coli) D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Proteus vulgaris

241. A patient with nosocomeal pneumonia presents signs of collapse. Which of the following pneumonia complications is most likely to be accompanied by collapse? A. Exudative pleurisy B. Bronchial obstruction C. Toxic hepatitis D. *Septic shock E. Emphysema

242. A patient, aged 16, complains of headache, mainly in the frontal and temporal areas, superciliary arch, appearing of vomiting at the peak of headache, pain during the eyeballs movement, joints pain. On examination: excited, t° — 39°C, Ps – 110/min. Tonic and clones cramps. Uncertain meningeal signs. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations B. Parainfluenza C. Adenovirus infection D. Respiratory syncitial virus E. Influenza, typical disease duration

243. Mild pneumonia characterized by a moist nonproductive cough has developed at a previously healthy 13-year–old boy. Chose the medicine for symptomatic treatment: A. *mucolytics B. cough suppressors C. euphylline D. prednisolone E. salbuthamol

244. Among patients with the adenoviral infection in children the following forms of disease are diagnosed: pneumonia, catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract, pharyngoconjunctivitis, diarrhea. What variant of adenoviral infection is absent in this list? A. Meningitis. B. Encephalitis. C. Balanopostitis. D. Carditis. E. *Mesadenitis.

245. An 6-years-old child is taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began acutely with temperature 39 °C, weakness, cough, restlessness. He is pale, has cyanosis, febrile temperature for more than 3 days. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. Percussion sound is shortened in right sub-scapular area. X-ray: inhomogeneous infiltration of 8-10 segments on the right, the increased vascular picture, unstructured roots. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bronchitis B. Bronchiolitis C. Interstitial pneumonia D. Influenza E. *Segmental pneumonia

246. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease has began acutely with temperature 39 °C, weakness, cough, restlessness. The child is pale has perioral cyanosis. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales at auscultation. Percussion sound is not changed. X-ray picture: focal infiltration bilaterally near the lung roots, the increase of vascular picture, nonstructural roots. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bronchitis B. Bronchiolitis C. Interstitial pneumonia D. Influenza E. *Focal bronchopneumonia

247. Inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice and barking cough had developed at night on the third day of common cold in infant, aged 1 year. Physical examination has revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest retractions. There is a bluish skin discoloration mostly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate is 52 per min and pulse — 122 bpm. The body temperature is 37,5°C. What disease does the infant have? A. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress B. Bronchopneumonia without complications C. Acute epiglottitis D. *Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis E. Acute laryngitis

248. Express diagnostic is performed in the focus of acute respiratory infection with the purpose of diagnosis establishment. What test is used for this purpose? A. *Reaction of immune fluorescence B. Complement binding reaction C. Reaction of agglutination D. Reaction of precipitation E. Reaction of opsonization

249. Child, 2 years, that is ill for 3 days, is hospitalized in the infectious department with diagnosis: upper respiratory tract viral infection, laryngotracheitis. Parainfluenza is suspected. What symptoms will be different from measles, prodromal period? A. Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, enanthem on a soft palate B. Absence of croup syndrome C. Presence of laryngeal stenosis of the 1st or 2nd degree D. *Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, the Koplick’s spots, enanthem on a soft palate E. Presence of hyperemia of the pharynx, enanthem on a soft palate

250. In a virology laboratory smears from nasopharynx of 4 years old boy with the “influenza” were brought. Which test will prove, what variety of virus has caused the disease in this child? A. by rynocytoscopy B. By virus CPD character C. *indirect hemagglutination reaction with typospecific anti-virus sera D. By hemagglutination reaction E. By hemadsorption reaction

251. An amount of patients with respiratory-syncitial infection grew sharply in a winter-spring period. What age-old category of children is most receptive to the this infection? A. Infants. B. *Babies aged 4-5 months till 3 years. C. Children of 3-6 years. D. Schoolboys. E. Teenagers.

252. Different variants of typical form of adenoviral infection are exposed in the focus of this infection: pneumonia, catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract, pharyngoconjunctivitis. Name another possible form of adenoviral infection. A. *Diarrhea. B. Nephritis. C. Arthritis. D. Carditis. E. Otitis.

253. 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena has admitted to the infectious hospital. The physician has suspect adenoviral infection. What method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to use to prove this diagnosis? A. *The antibody fluorescence method B. Binding complement reaction C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction D. Neutralization reaction E. Direct hemagglutination reaction

254. A patient with parainfluenza is revealed in the nursery group of orphanage. How long the patient is contagious for surrounders? A. 2-3 days. B. 3-5 days. C. 5-7 days. D. *7-10 days. E. 10-14 days.

255. A child aged 1.3 years has entered to the hospital with complaints on a dry paroxysmal cough, hoarse voice, cold with mucus excretions and increase of temperature to 38,2 ˚С. After the examination of patient a doctor has put a previous diagnosis: URT infection, acute stenotic laryngitis with larynx stenosis 2nd degree. What agent more frequent causes this disease. A. virus of flu. B. *virus of parainfluenza. C. rhinovirus. D. rheovirus. E. adenovirus.

256. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who has a subfebrile temperature, rhinitis, dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness. During auscultation: puerile breathing. Laboratory findings: leukopenia, lymphocytosis, increased ESR. What clinical form of ARVI is possible in this case? A. Acute obstructive bronchitis B. *Acute rhinopharyngitis C. Acute bronchopneumonia D. Relapsed bronchitis E. Acute bronchitis

257. The 2 years old child during feeding started to cough, become worrisome, dyspnea has appeared. Objectively: cyanosis of mucus membranes distended left half of the thorax. During percussion: on the left near top of the lung is tympanic sound, from the 3rd rib down – dull sound. What diagnosis is the most probable? A. Left side pyopneumothorax B. *Foreign body of the left bronchus C. Acute cardiac failure D. The lung abscess E. Perycarditis 258. The 4-years old child was hospitalized with interstitial pneumonia. What bacteria cause the disease? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus viridians C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. *Pneumocystis carinii E. Pneumococcus

259. The 5 years old boy complains of headache, high temperature of the body, dyspnea, nonproductive cough. During percussion: shortness of the sound paraveretebrally. During auscultation: harsh breathing. On X-ray: mediobasal pulmonary infiltration. What diagnosis is possible in this case? A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection B. Interstitial pneumonia C. Obstructive bronchitis D. Miliar tuberculosis E. *Focal bronchopneumonia

260. The 5-years child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. The clinical blood analysis is: erythrocytes 2.86 х 10¹²/l, Нb – 86 g/l, CI – 0.8, leucocytes 11,2 х 10^9/l, eosynophils – 3 %, neutrophils: band forms – 2 %, segments – 30 % lymphocytes – 58 %, monocytes – 7 %, ESR – 8 mm/hour. Name pathological changes. A. Lymphopenia, anemia, shift to the left B. *Leucocytosis, anemia, lymphocytosis C. Leucopenia, increase of ESR D. shift of the formula to the left, anemia E. Lymphocytosis, monocytosis, eosynophilia

261. The 5-months old child has subfebrile temperature, paroxysmal cough, and dyspnea. 3 days ago he contacted with sister ,who had acute upper respiratory tract viral infection. Objectively: the condition is severe, skin is cyanotic, considerable expiratory dyspnea, oral crepitation. Percussion: bandbox sound. Auscultation: a plenty of wet rales in both lungs, respiratory rate is 80 per 1 minute. What disease is possible? A. Bronchial asthma B. Aspiration of a foreign body C. Acute bronchitis D. *Bronchiolitis E. Acute pneumonia

262. The 7-months’ old child has body temperature 38.3 °C, cyanosis of perinasal triangle, breathing rate is 54 per minute. During percussion: dullness of the sound paravertebrally. During auscultation: big amount of small moist rales all over the lungs. The most possible diagnosis is: A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection B. Acute bronchitis C. Acute bronchiolitis D. *Acute bronchopneumonia E. Acute interstitial pneumonia

263. The 7-years’ old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. His condition has worsened 10 days ago. He is ill during last 4 years: viral infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by bronchitis. Objectively: cough with sputum. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound. Auscultation: rough breathing, non-constant single diffuse moist rales. X-ray: lung pattern is intensified, roots are nonstructural. What disease is possible in this case? A. Viral infection B. Acute bronchitis C. *Relapsed bronchitis. D. Acute pneumonia E. Chronic pneumonia

264. The 7-years old child was hospitalized with complaints on: high body temperature 38.5ºC, often moist cough, dyspnea at rest. What investigation will resolve the diagnosis? A. Clinical analysis of a blood B. Bacteriological investigation of sputum C. *Chest X-ray D. Spirography E. Bronchoscopy

265. The 9 months old child who has cough, dyspnea, subfebrile body temperature was examined by district pediatrician. Focal bronchopneumonia was suspected. What auscultation picture is typical for this case? A. Diffuse dry rales B. Rough breathing C. Diffuse wet rales D. Decrease breathing E. *Local wet rales

266. The child is 10 years. He has influenza for 4 days. Stenosing laryngotracheitis of the I stage was diagnosed. What from named medicine is inadvisable to use? A. Antihistamines B. *Prednisone C. Spasmolytics D. Lapheron E. Antiedematous inhalations 267. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened. Once again has increased the body temperature, has appeared: moist cough with mucous-purulent phlegm, dyspnea. Breathing – 30 in 1 min, cyanosis of perioral triangle; in lower parts of the lungs, more on the right, dullness of the lung sound, moist fine rales. Pulse – 120 in 1 min., heart tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible? A. Croup syndrome B. *Pneumonia C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis E. Obstructive bronchitis

268. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened. Once again has increased the body temperature, has appeared: moist cough with separation of mucous-purulent phlegm, expiratory dyspnea. Breathing – 40 in 1 min. cyanosis of perioral triangle, intercostal retractions, bandbox sound during percussion, coarse diffuse rales. Pulse – 120 in 1 min., heart tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible in this case? A. Croup syndrome B. Pneumonia C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis E. *Obstructive bronchitis

269. The 0.05 % Deoxyribonucleic solution is dropped into the nostrils of the 1 year child for treatment of adenoviral infection. What is the course of such treatment? A. 1 day. B. 2 days. C. 3 days. D. *5 days. E. 7 days.

270. The child, 1 year old, is treated in infectious department with diagnosis of Parainfluenza. On the 2nd day of the disease his condition became worse. The child is excited; inspiratory dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, acrocyanosis, cool perspiration has appeared. Moderate intercostal retractions are noted at breathing. What degree of larynx stenosis is present? A. 1st B. *2nd C. 3rd D. 4th E. 5th 271. The child, 2 years old, is treated from influenza. His condition suddenly became worse: the body temperature has increased to 39.8 ºС, has appeared rough barking cough, hoarseness of the voice, inspiratory dyspnea. What complication of influenza has developed? A. Pneumonia B. Bronchiolitis C. *Croup syndrome D. Obstructive bronchitis E. Pharyngitis

272. The child, 4 years old, complains of serous nasal discharge, frequent moist obtruding cough, itching in eyes. Objectively: hyperemia and edema of the nasal mucous membrane, soft palate, conjunctives. In lungs during auscultation: harsh breathing. The body temperature is 38.2 ºC. What diagnosis is most probable? A. *Adenoviral infection B. Rhinoviral infection C. Influenza D. Parainfluenza E. Respiratory-syncitial infection

273. The child, 5 years old, complains of: increasing of the body temperature to 39.5 ºС, headache, poor sleeping. What single dose of panadol should be given? A. *0.01 g/kg B. 0.05 g/kg C. 0.1 g/kg D. 0.2 g/kg E. 0.5 g/kg

274. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39 ºС, general weakness, and periodic moist cough with discharge of the mucous phlegm. Objectively: the general condition is moderate skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of both lungs – dull sound, fine rales. What complication of the measles has appeared in child? A. Tracheobronhitis B. Bronchitis C. Bronchiolitis D. *Pneumonia E. Pharyngitis

275. With approaching the influenza epidemic district epidemiologist makes a request on prophylactic preparations. What from them will help to form an active specific immunity and is the least reactogenic? A. Living vaccine. B. Killed vaccine. C. *sub-unite vaccine. D. Donor’s gamma-globulin. E. leucocytic interferon

276. «Acute or chronic liver's disease, that is caused by a DNA-containing virus, with the parenteral mechanism of transmission, that runs across in various clinical-morphological variants: from a "healthy" carrying to the malignant forms, chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis of liver and hepatocellular carcinoma», it is the determination of: A. Hepatitis A B. *Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis С D. Hepatitis Е E. Hepatitis D

277. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked activity of the process. Total bilirubin —70/mmol/L, direct - 26/mmol/L, indirect — 44 mmol/L. AST — 6,2 mmol/L, ALT — 4,8 mmol/L. What is the mechanism of the transaminase level increase in this patient? A. *Cytolysis of hepatocytes B. Failure of bilirubin conjugation C. Intrahepatic cholestasis D. Hypersplenism E. Failure of the synthetical function of the liver

278. A 12-year-old girl complains of dull right subcostal pain, nausea, decreased appetite. History: the disease has started with jaundice in 2 months after appendectomy. She was treated in an infectious hospital. 1 year later present complaints have developed. Physical examination: subicteric sclera, enlarged firm liver. What is your preliminary diagnosis? A. *Chronic viral hepatitis B. Chronic cholangitis C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Calculous cholecystitis E. Gilbert's disease

279. A 13 years old boy suffering with virus hepatitis B presents with increase of jaundice and bloody vomiting after break of diet and nervous stress. Physical examination: Ps 110 bmp, BP 80/50 mmHg. The liver is painful at palpation and is reduced in size. What complication is the most likely being observed? A. *Acute hepatic failure B. Toxico-infection shock C. Hemolytic crisis D. Acute adrenal failure E. Acute renal failure 280. A 14 y.o. patient was admitted to the gastroenterological department with skin itching, jaundice, discomfort in the right subcostal area, generalized weakness. On examination: jaundice, scratches, liver is +5 cm, spleen is 6x8 cm. In blood: alkaline phosphatase — 2, 0 mmole/(hour*L), general bilirubin — 60 mcmole/L, cholesterol — 8,0 mmol/L. What is the leading syndrome in the patient? A. Cytolytic B. Astenic C. Mesenchymal inflammation D. Liver-cells insufficiency E. *Cholestatic

281. A 15-year-old patient was hospitalized in severe condition with complaints of chills, high grade temperature, dryness in the mouth, multiple vomiting, pain in the epigastrium, frequent watery, foamy, dirty green color stool of unpleasant odor. The tongue and the skin are dry. BP — 80/40 mm Hg. What first aid is necessary for the patient? A. *Intravenous injection of sodium solutions B. Hemosorption C. Sympathomimetics D. Fresh-frozen plasma transfusion E. Poliglucin intravenously

282. A 7 years boy complains of general weakness, spastic pain in the lower parts of his abdomen, mainly in the left iliac area, frequent defecations up to 18 times a day, feces contain admixtures of mucus and blood. The illness began abruptly 3 days ago with chill, fever, headache. General condition is moderately severe, body temperature is 37.8 °C. Sigmoid colon is spastic and painful. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Salmonellosis B. Amebiasis C. *Dysentery D. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis E. Yersiniosis

283. A 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: fever, weakness, headache, abdominal pain, recurrent vomiting, then diarrhea and tenesms. Stools occur 12 times daily, are scanty, contain a lot of mucus, pus, blood. His sigmoid colon is tender and firm. What is your diagnosis? A. *Dysentery B. Escherichiosis C. Salmonellosis D. Cholera E. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis 284. A baby, aged 2 years, has a syndrome of malabsorbtion. On ECG: S-T segment depression, wave T inversion and high wave U. What is the cause of these changes? A. *decreased level of potassium B. decreased level of magnesium C. increased level of potassium D. decreased level of calcium E. decreased level of sodium

285. A boy of 10 years with complains of fever, for three days, general weakness, insomnia, worsening of appetite, appealed to the pediatrician. A doctor has suspected typhoid fever. What method of laboratory diagnostics most expediently confirm the diagnosis? A. coproculture B. urine culture C. biliculture D. *hemoculture E. mieloculture

286. A child, 1 year old, has rare vomiting after the meal, metheorism, defecation 12 times per day. Feces are yellow-orange, in a large amount, watery, with gases, and small quantity of transparent mucus. Put the most probable diagnosis. A. Shigellosis B. Salmonellosis C. Yersiniosis D. *Entheroinvasive Escherichiosis E. Paratyphoid fever B

287. A child, 5 years old, has dyspeptic syndrome, moderate intoxication syndrome, and abdominal pain. Salmonellosis was diagnosed. What changes in the general blood test are typical for this disease? A. Leucopenia, aneosinophylia, lymphocytosis. B. *Leucocytosis, neuthrophilia, ESR increasing. C. Leucocytosis, lymphocytosis. D. Leucopenia, neutrophlia, ESR decreasing. E. Leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells.

288. A girl, 7 years old, complains of periodic colicky abdominal pains, increased frequency of defecation, temperature 39.2 ºС. During objective examination is revealed painful sigmoid colon. Feces are dark-green in a small amount, with much mucus. Anus is closed. During feces bacteriological examination was found Sаlmоnеllа enteritidis. What disease must be differentiated from this form of salmonellosis? A. *Shigellosis. B. Typhoid fever. C. Escherichiosis. D. Acute appendicitis. E. Staphylococcal enterocolitis.

289. A girl, aged 12, in severe condition was delivered to the admission ward of a hospital on the 2nd day of illness. Examination revealed body temperature of 36,1 °C, acute features of face, dry skin, aphonia, convulsive twitching of some muscle groups. Acrocyanosis is present. Heart sounds are muffled, Ps is 102 bpm, AP is 50/20 mm Hg. Abdomen is soft, sealed, painless. Anuria is present. Stool is liquid in form of rice water. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Cholera B. Intestinal amebiasis C. Escherichiosis D. Acute dysentery E. Salmonellosis

290. A girl, aged 8, suddenly fell ill. There had appeared chills, sensation of heat, fever 38,5°C, intermitting pain in the left iliac area, frequent liquid stool in the form of rectal spit. On palpation: the left part of the abdomen is painful, sigmoid colon is spastic. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Acute shigellosis B. Cholera C. Escherichiosis D. Non-specific ulcerative colitis E. Malignant tumor of the large intestine

291. A male, aged 17, intravenous drug addict complains of weakness, moderate jaundice, sensation of heaviness in the right hypochondrium. The patient's condition aggravated gradually. Biochemical tests: Total bilirubin - 48,2 µmol/L; ALT - 3,0 mmol/h*L. What examination will verify the diagnosis? A. *Polymerase chain reaction (HCV -RNA) B. Determination of HB antigen C. Determination of ALAT in dynamics D. Ultrasound examination of liver E. Computer tomography

292. A patient is in a hospital. The beginning of the disease was gradual: nausea, vomiting, dark urine, clay-colored stools, jaundice of the skin and sclera. The liver was enlarged on 3 cm. Jaundice progressed on the 14th day of the disease. The liver decreased in size. What complication of viral hepatitis has developed? A. Infectious-toxic shock B. *Hepatonecrosis C. Meningitis D. Relapse of viral hepatitis E. Cholangitis

293. A patient is hospitalized in an infectious hospital on a 8th day of the disease with complaints on head ache, general weakness. For serological research a blood is taken. During Vidal's reaction it is positive in dilution 1 : 200 with О- diagnosticum of Salmonella typhi. What diagnosis can be put, basing on this test result? A. Cholera B. *Typhoid fever C. Shigellosis D. Leptospirosis E. Tuberculosis

294. A patient with suspicion on typhoid fever entered to the infectious hospital on the 3rd day of disease. What method of microbiological diagnostics does it follow to use? A. Selection of coproculture. B. *Selection of hemoculture. C. Selection of urineculture. D. Selection of biliculture. E. Selection of mieloculture.

295. A temperature rose at 2 years old child. Vomit and multiple diarrhea has appeared. After the use of fruit juices diarrhea aggravates and the patient's condition worsened. Which from the enumerated agents could be the cause of this disease? A. enteroviruses B. *rotaviruses C. Escherichia coli D. Salmonella E. staphylococcus

296. Among the children of junior group of preschool the repeated cases of intestinal infection are revealed. At fecal culture shigella revealed. Define tactic of doctor concerning contact persons. A. Contacts examination with estimation of feces character. B. Supervision during 3 days with measuring of the body temperature. C. Bacteriological inspection of feces for 3 days. D. Supervision after those children who has increased temperature for 5 days. E. *Supervision after contacts for 7 days and bacteriological inspection of emptying. 297. Among the children of the closed child's establishment the flash of acute dysentery is diagnosed. Among the children of what age category this disease is more frequent? A. Children under 1 year. B. *Children elder than 1 year. C. Junior schoolboys. D. Senior schoolboys. E. In any age.

298. Among the children of the closed child's establishment the flash of acute dysentery is diagnosed. Contact persons are subjects to the supervision during: A. 3 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of emptying B. *7 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of emptying C. 7 days and 2 bacteriological inspection of emptying D. 14 days and 2 bacteriological inspection of emptying E. 14 days and 3 bacteriological inspection of emptying

299. At a boy, 7 years, the cholera-like disease is revealed (vomits, watery diarrhea). At fecal culture same types of the colonies grew on the Endo environment: raspberry color, with metallic lustre. What microorganism is the most credible agent of this disease? A. Shigella sonnei. B. Salmonella enteritidis. C. Yersinia enterocolitica. D. *Escherichia coli, enterotoxigenic type. E. vibrio cholera

300. At a child of 1.5 year has developed the typical clinic of acute dysentery. Choose a sign which is most characteristic for the clinic of this disease at the children of early age. A. Repeated vomits and frequent regurgitation. B. Acute beginning from expressed toxic at the minimum diarrhea syndrome. C. *colitic character of emptying. D. Frequent tenesms, hollow abdomen and expressed colitic syndrome. E. mild disease's duration with predominance of local signs.

301. At a child with the acute enterocolitis escherichiosis is diagnosed. From determination of which antigen does it follow to begin serological authentication of parenteral escherichiosis? A. K-antigen B. M-antigen C. *О-antigen D. Н-antigen E. В-antigen 302. At a child with the expressed signs of toxicosis with dehydration the acute severe dysentery is clinically suspected. Give feeding recommendations to the mother of her sick 10 months old child. A. *To decrease the usual volume of meal in the first 2-3 days on 40-50 %, to conduct the rejuvenation of the food. B. Feed by the only strained breast milk. C. At feeding to give advantage to the soul-milk adapted mixtures. D. Water-tea pause during 6-12 hours, and farther usual feeding. E. Frequent feeding by small portions, as a child wants to eat.

303. At the child of 4 months an acute bacterial dysentery is diagnosed. Name antibiotics which apply in treatment of dysentery of moderate and severe degree at the children of this age: A. penicillin B. gentamicin C. cefasolin D. *cefotaxim E. ciprofloxacin

304. At the children of senior group of preschool (kindergarten) shigellosis is diagnosed. At careful collection of epidemiology anamnesis the food way of infection is proved. What from the representatives of shigella more frequent infects by such way? A. Sh. Flexneri. B. *Sh. Sonnei. C. Sh. dysenteriaе Grigor'ev-Shiga. D. Sh. dysenteriaе Larg-Sax. E. Sh. boydiі.

305. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What morphological and tinctorial properties inherent to the representatives of these bacteria? A. Gram-negative cocci B. Gram-positive cocci C. Gram-positive bacillus D. *Gram-negative bacillus E. Gram-negative spirochetes

306. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed representatives of the E.coli family cause the dysentery-like disease at children elder 1 year and adults? A. *enteroinvasive E.coli B. enteropathogenic E.coli C. enteroadhesive E.coli D. enterohemolytic E.coli E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine

307. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed representatives of the E.coli family cause the cholera-like diseases? A. enteroinvasive E.coli B. enteropathogenic E.coli C. *enterotoxigenic E.coli D. enterohemolytic E.coli E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine

308. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed O-antigen factions causes serological specificity of E.coli? A. Fats B. Protein C. Lipoproteins D. *Polysaccharides E. All answers are correct

309. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. How to differentiate relative-pathogenic E. coli from enteropathogenic ones: A. after biochemical signs B. *after the antigen structure C. after the selection of endotoxin D. after pathogenicity for animals E. after firmness to the antibiotics.

310. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. At determination of the family belonging of enterobacteria take into account: A. Breathing type B. Food necessities C. *Biochemical properties D. Morphological properties E. Cultural properties

311. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. Indicate the maximal term of delivery of selected in concervant feces, to the bacteriological laboratory: A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 6 hours D. *12 hours E. 16 hours

312. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. What correlation must be possessed between feces and concervant? A. 1:50 B. 1:25 C. 1:10 D. *1:3 E. 1:1

313. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. Indicate properties of enteropathogenic escherichia, determination of which more authentic will confirm the diagnosis: A. *Serological B. Biochemical C. Morphological D. Cultural E. Biological

314. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. What result of serologic research testifies the etiology of disease? A. Titre of specific antibodies in agglutination reaction 1: 20 B. Titre of specific antibodies in indirect hemagglutination reaction 1:40 C. Titre of antibodies in the reaction of precipitation 1:100 D. Titre of antibodies in the reaction of precipitation 1:200 E. *Fourfold growth of specific antibodies titre in paired sera selected in the dynamics of disease

315. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. Indicate its biochemical properties: A. does not decompose lactose and saccharose. B. *decomposes to acid and gas lactose, glucose, mannitol. C. does not decompose mannitol and maltose. D. rarefy gelatin. E. does not restore nitrates to nitrites. 316. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. Material for research of colienteritis at children is: A. *emptying, vomiting masses, swab from pharynx, nasopharynx. B. blood. C. spinal fluid. D. urine. E. bile.

317. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. Pathogenic serotypes of E. coli are identified: A. by the reaction of precipitation. B. by complement binding reaction. C. by hemagglutination reaction. D. by the reaction of neutralization. E. *by the reaction of agglutination with the escherichia ОК-agglutinating sera.

318. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was selected. For speed-up authentication of pathogenic E. coli is used: A. reaction of lysis. B. complement binding reaction. C. *immune fluorescence reaction. D. reaction of precipitation. E. reaction of neutralization.

319. At the inspection on S. typhi carrying in the blood serum antibodies to the Vi- antigen are revealed. What from the enumerated reactions was used in this case? A. Binding complement. B. Vidal. C. *Indirect hemagglutination. D. Immune-enzyme analysis. E. Immune fluorescence.

320. Child of 4 years during 5 days is treated because of acute dysentery, moderate degree. An effect from the received therapy is insignificant; continue to be toxic and dyspepsia syndrome. Choose the adequate treatment. A. To strengthen oral rehydration. B. To apply parenteral rehydration therapy. C. *To appoint netylmycine 5 mg/kg per day. D. To apply immune modulators therapy. E. To give enterosorbents in combined chart.

321. District doctor of rural medical department was called to a 12-year-old patient. While examining the patient, the doctor suspected the dysentery. What document must the doctor issue? A. *Urgent notification of infectious disease B. Statistical coupon of final (precise) diagnosis C. Abstract of outpatient medical card D. Infectious disease report E. Report addressed to Head of the village

322. Fecal culture of 8 years child, who had typhoid fever 1.5 years ago was positive for Salmonella typhi. How to describe the patient's status? A. *Carrying. B. Dysbiosis. C. Reinfection. D. Superinfection. E. Relapse.

323. From feces of sick 6-month child, which was on the artificial feeding, the culture of E.coli with the antigen structure O-111 is selected. What diagnosis can be put? A. *Colienteritis B. Cholera-like disease. C. Disease of urinary tract. D. Meningitis of the new-born. E. Dysentery-like disease.

324. In a boy the disease started with acute onset. Frequent watery stools has appeared 6 hours ago. The body's temperature is normal. Then vomiting has appeared. On physical examination: boy's voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply set in the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There was no urination. What is the preliminary diagnosis? A. *Cholera B. Typhoid fever C. Toxic food-borne infection D. Salmonellosis E. Dysentery

325. In a child, 2.5 years old, who was treated in pulmonological department because of double-sided bronchopneumonia, has increased body temperature on seventh day of the treatment to 39 ºС, has appeared diarrhea. Feces are fluid dirty-green. What physician has to do? A. Leave the patient in the department, perform bacteriological examination of the feces. B. Isolate the patient in separate ward in this department, prescribe the etiological treatment. C. *Transport the patient in the infectious department, send priority message in sanitary station, and perform the bacteriological examination of this child and contacts. D. Send priority message in sanitary station, perform the bacteriological examination of this child and contacts, and prescribe the etiological treatment. E. Perform the bacteriological examination of this child, discharge him home for ambulatory treatment.

326. In a child, 7 years old, dysentery reveals itself by often defecation to 20-25 times per day, skin is pale, dry, elasticity is reduced, the body temperature is 38.9 ºС, repeated vomiting, colicky pain are present. What is the disease's severity in this case? A. Mild B. Moderate C. severe D. severe degree with prevalence of toxicosis. E. *severe degree with prevalence of the local manifestations.

327. The boy, 3 months old, is treated in infectious department because of Salmonellosis, moderate degree, caused by Salmonellae typhimurium. Which etiological treatment is reasonable to use? A. Benzylpenicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Cefasolin. D. *Cefotaxim. E. Oxacillin.

328. The child, 3 years old, is treated in infectious department because of acute Shigellosis. During objective examination: the body temperature is 39.9 ºС, skin is pale, dry, periodic tonic convulsions of the muscles, limbs are cool, abdomen is sealed, sensitive in left inguinal region, anus is open. Name the diagnose according to classification. A. Shigellosis typical form, moderate degree. B. Shigellosis, atypical form. C. Shigellosis typical form, severe degree. D. *Shigellosis typical form, severe degree with prevalence of toxicosis. E. Shigellosis typical form, severe degree with prevalence of the local manifestations.

329. A boy, 14 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case? A. DTaP B. DTP C. *DT D. DT-m E. D-m

330. A boy, 14 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and tetanus, in anamnesis 2 years ago after opened trauma injection of tetanus anatoxin was done. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case? A. DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. DT-m E. *D-m

331. A boy, 18 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case? A. DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. *DT-m E. D-m

332. A boy, 6 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case? A. DTaP B. DTP C. *DT D. DT-m E. D-m

333. A boy, aged 6.5 years goes to school. Indicate how many diseases he was vaccinated from in 6-years-old age. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. *6 E. 7

334. A child is 14 years. He is not vaccinated from measles, rubella, and mumps. How many vaccinations does it follow to do, to complete vaccination? A. *2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1 335. A child of 1 year and 7 months in one-year age had whooping-cough. He is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. Indicate what vaccine should be used in this case: A. DTaP B. DTP C. *DT D. DT-m E. D-m

336. A child of 2 years 10 months, who is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping-cough. Indicate what vaccine should be used in this case: A. *DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. DT-m E. D-m

337. A child of 3 years has received treatment by glucocorticoids in the dose of 2 mg/kg daily during 10 days. He is vaccinated out of the calendar. He came to the policlinic for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. Can the doctor permit the vaccination? A. Vaccination is contra-indicated B. *Vaccination in obedience to a plan C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist E. Vaccination only by inactive vaccines

338. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. Indicate what vaccine should be used in this case: A. DTaP B. DTP C. *DT D. DT-m E. D-m

339. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, received the first vaccination by DT-anatoxin. When should be done the second vaccination? A. in 2 weeks B. *in 1 month C. in 5 months D. in 6 months E. in 12 months 340. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, received second vaccination by DT. When the third vaccination should be done? A. in 2 weeks B. in 1 -2 months C. in 3- 5 months D. *in 9-12 months E. in 12-18 months

341. A child of 5 years 2 months in one-year age had whooping-cough. He is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. What vaccine does it follow to inject in this case? A. DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. *DT-m E. D-m

342. A child of 6 months is vaccinated from hepatitis B. What age does it follow to do next vaccination against measles, rubella, mumps, according the calendar? A. 9 months B. *12 months C. 18 months D. 6 years E. 11 years

343. A child of 7 years old is invited to visit a doctor for revaccination against measles. The doctor make the conclusion that the vaccination is contraindicated. What from listed below is a compelling reason for this? A. *The presence of the measles antibodies in child’s blood B. Positive Mantoux test C. Acute viral hepatitis A 6 months ago D. An intolerance of penicillin E. Febrile convulsions in history

344. The newborn was vaccinated by BCG-M vaccine. Name the probable weight and term of his gestation: A. 4500, 40 weeks B. 3800, 42 weeks C. 3800, 40 weeks D. 3100, 42 weeks E. *2100, 35 weeks

345. A child with AIDS, clinical stage ІІ with severe immune suppression (CD4 <15%) came to policlinic, for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate such child? A. yes, according to the calendar B. *Vaccination is forbidden C. only by anatoxin D. only by inactivated vaccines E. after consultation of immunologist

346. A child, 10 months, received the vaccination against Ніb-infection for the first time. Through what time is it possible to do the second vaccination against this disease? A. *4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 12 weeks E. 18 weeks

347. A child, 12 months, comes for immunization against measles, rubella, and mumps. What vaccine will be used? A. DTP B. DTaP C. IPV D. *MMR E. OPV

348. A child, 7 years, came for vaccination against tuberculosis. It is known from anamnesis, that the vaccination against mumps is absent. Could a doctor enter a vaccine against mumps in one day with BCG? A. yes B. *couldn’t C. Enters simultaneously in different areas of body D. Enters in a day E. Enters through 2 weeks

349. A child, aged 3.5 years, has come to the family doctor for vaccination out of the terms of schedule. Indicate what test is it necessary to do before vaccination: A. Sulkowitch Test B. Shtange Test C. Thorn Test D. *Mantoux Test E. Complete blood analysis

350. A doctor examining the child of 1 year 2 months concluded that the child has temporary contraindication for routine vaccination against measles for 3 months. Which of the following was the decisive argument for such contraindication? A. *The injection of immunoglobulin to the child 1 month ago B. Lack of child's weight 8% C. Hyperemia and dry cheeks D. O-shin deformity E. Positive Mantoux test

351. A girl of 15 years came to laboratory for serological researches with the purpose of determination of immunity to the virus of rubella. What does it follow to define? A. *Ig G B. Ig M C. Ig E D. IgA E. IgD

352. A HIV-infected child came to the policlinic for vaccination against poliomyelitis. Indicate on what day of postvaccinal period patronage of the child by a medical worker should be done? A. 1-2 B. *3-4 C. 5-6 D. 7-8 E. 9-10

353. A HIV-infected child came to the policlinic for vaccination against poliomyelitis. Indicate on what day of postvaccinal period second patronage of the child by a medical worker should be done: A. 1-2 B. 3-4 C. 5-6 D. 7-8 E. *10-11

354. A preterm child was born with body weight 1800 g, 34 weeks of gestation. When does this child will be vaccinated against tuberculosis? A. On 3-5 day of life B. On 3-5 day of life in a half dose C. In the age of 1 month D. After achievement of 2000 g weight E. In the age of 2 months

355. At a child of 5 months, which came for vaccination according the calendar, in anamnesis was postvaccinal complication in 4 months age. Indicate what vaccine does it follow to use for vaccination? A. *DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. DT-m E. D-m

356. At teenager, aged 16 years, is absent information about immunization. The first DT-m vaccination is done. In what time does it follow to give second vaccination? A. 25- 30 days B. 30-35 days C. 35-40 days D. *30-45 days E. 35-50 days

357. At teenager, aged 16 years, is absent information about immunization. Third DT-m vaccination is done. In what time does it follow to give revaccination? A. 25- 30 days B. 30-35 days C. 1 year D. *3 years E. 5 years

358. At teenager, aged 17 years, is absent information about immunization. Indicate the necessary number of vaccinations by DT-m anatoxin for complete vaccination of teenager. A. 1 B. 2 C. *3 D. 4 E. 5

359. At teenager, aged 17 years, is absent information about immunization. Indicate which vaccine should be used in this case. A. DTaP B. DTP C. DT D. *DT-m E. D-m

360. A child was born at the НВs Ag negative mother. The vaccination against viral hepatitis В was not done in the first day. This vaccination is planned to combine together with DTP vaccination. Indicate the schedule of vaccination against hepatitis B in this case: A. 0, 1, 6 months B. 3, 4, 5 months C. *3, 4, 5, 18 months D. 3, 4, 8 months E. 3, 9, 18 months

361. A child was born at the НВs Ag negative mother. The vaccination against viral hepatitis В was not done in the first day. This vaccination is planned to combine together with DTP vaccination. Indicate the schedule of vaccination against hepatitis B in this case: A. 0, 1, 6 months B. 3, 4, 5, months C. *3, 4, 9 months D. 3, 4, 8, months E. 3, 9, 18 months

362. Child of 1 year 1 month received the vaccination against Ніb-infection for the first time. Through what time is it possible to do the second vaccination against this disease? A. 4 weeks B. *8 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 2 weeks E. 6 weeks

363. Child of 12 months was brought for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be vaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Poliomyelitis, diphtheria, tetanus C. *Measles, rubella, mumps D. Measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus E. Poliomyelitis, whooping cough, diphtheria

364. A child of 14 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps C. *Tuberculosis, diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection

365. Child of 15 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Tuberculosis C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. *German measles (girls) of, mumps (boys)

366. Child of 18 months came for the first revaccination against diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping-cough. Indicate what vaccine is need: A. DTP B. *DTaP C. DT D. DTP-m E. D-m

367. Child of 18 months was brought for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. *Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection

368. A patient of 18 years came for revaccination. Against what diseases the patient of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. Tuberculosis C. *Diphtheria, tetanus D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. German measles (girls) of, mumps (boys)

369. A child of 3 months came for vaccination against whooping-cough, diphtheria, tetanus. It is known from anamnesis, that in the postnatal period and in the age of 1.5 months the child had cramps. Indicate is it possible to vaccinate this child? A. vaccination is contra-indicated B. *vaccination by DT-anatoxin C. vaccinate according to the calendar after a neurologist consultation D. vaccinate according to the calendar after an immunologist consultation E. vaccinate according to the calendar in the hospital

370. Child of 3 months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases simultaneously the child in the age of 3 months should be vaccinated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. *5 E. 6 371. Child of 3 months was brought for vaccination. His mother is ill with bronchial asthma, atopic form, in childhood she had the reactions on vaccinations. What vaccine does it follow to vaccinate the child with the high risk of postvaccinal complications development? A. Hepatitis B B. DTP + OPV + Ніb C. DTaP +OPV + Ніb D. *DTaP + IPV + Ніb E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B

372. Child of 3 months was brought in a policlinic for vaccination by the associated vaccine. Choose the associated vaccine among enumerated: A. BCG B. *DTP C. Hepatitis A D. Influenza (A, B) E. poliomyelitis (I, ІІ, ІІІ)

373. Child of 4 months was brought for vaccination. His mother is ill with polynosis, in childhood had the reactions on vaccinations. What vaccine does it follow to vaccinate the child with the high risk of postvaccinal complications development? A. Hepatitis B B. DTP + OPV + Ніb C. DTaP +OPV + Ніb D. *DTaP + IPV + Ніb E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B

374. Child of 4 months was brought for vaccination. His mother in childhood had the reactions on vaccinations. What vaccine does it follow to vaccinate the child with the high risk of postvaccinal complications development? A. Hepatitis B B. DTP + OPV + Ніb C. *DTaP +OPV + Ніb D. DTaP+ IPV + Ніb E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B

375. Child of 4months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases simultaneously the child in the age 4 months is vaccinated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. *5 E. 6 376. Child of 5 months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases simultaneously the child in age of 5 months is vaccinated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. *5 E. 6

377. Child of 5 months was brought to a polyclinic for vaccination by the associated vaccine. Choose a correct answer concerning the associated vaccines: A. They contain antigens of bacteria and viruses B. They contain different serotypes of one type of microorganism C. They contain antigens of microorganisms and toxins D. They contain antigens of bacteria and antigens of viruses, got with the help of recombined technologies E. The antigens of different viruses are contained on adsorbents

378. Child of 6 months was brought for vaccination. Against what disease the child of this age must be vaccinated? A. Poliomyelitis B. Tuberculosis C. Ніb-infection D. *Hepatitis B E. Rubella

379. Child of 6 months was brought to a policlinic for vaccination by the recombined vaccine. To the recombined vaccines belong: A. *Vaccine against hepatitis B on the basis of E.coli B. antyidiotype against malaria C. against poliomyelitis Seibin's D. BCG E. DTP

380. Child of 6 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. *Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection

381. Child of 7 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this age must be revaccinated? A. Hepatitis B B. *Tuberculosis C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella, mumps E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection

382. Child of 8 months, which gets immunosuppressive therapy, comes to policlinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child? A. Vaccination only in the hospital B. *Living vaccines are contra-indicated C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist E. Vaccination by inactivated vaccines contraindicated

383. Child, aged 4 months, with hydrocephalus in the stage of decompensation, comes to policlinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child? A. *Vaccination is contra-indicated B. Vaccination only in the hospital C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist E. Vaccination only by inactivated vaccines

384. Child, aged 7 months, with the innate combined immunodeficiency come to polyclinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child? A. *Living vaccines are contra-indicated B. Vaccination only in the hospital C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist E. Vaccination by anatoxin

385. Child, aged of 4 months, was brought in a polyclinic for vaccination. Indicate what immunity is created by vaccination: A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity C. *Artificial active immunity D. Natural passive immunity E. Natural specific immunity

386. In a maternity hospital a girl was born with medical contraindications for vaccination. Indicate the dose of vaccine which it follows to apply for the subsequent vaccination of the child: A. 0.25 dose BCG B. 0.3 dose BCG C. *0.5 dose BCG D. 0.75 dose BCG E. 1 dose BCG

387. In a maternity hospital a girl was born with temporary contraindications for vaccination. Indicate the place of subsequent vaccination of the child: A. Maternity hospital B. At home C. In the hospital D. *In child's policlinic E. In regional child's polyclinic

388. A child with malignant tumor came to a polyclinic. He receives frequent transfusions of blood preparations. In anamnesis there is absent the vaccination against viral hepatitis. Could a doctor vaccinate this child? A. Vaccination is not done B. Vaccination by one dose of vaccine C. Vaccination by the half dose of vaccine D. *Vaccination by two doses of vaccine E. Vaccination according the calendar

389. In the age of 1-month and 28 days a child was brought to a polyclinic for vaccination against tuberculosis. Have a district pediatrician to do the Mantoux test before the vaccination? A. Must B. *Must not C. Must not in case of vaccination in the hospital D. must not at presence of phtysiatrist consultation E. Must not at presence of immunologist consultation

390. In the age of 2-months a child was brought to a polyclinic for vaccination against tuberculosis. Must a district pediatrician appoint the Mantoux test before the vaccination? A. *Must B. Must not C. Must not in case of vaccination in the hospital D. must not at presence of phtysiatrist consultation E. Must not at presence of immunologist consultation

391. In January the parents brought the child of 6 months in the vaccination room for routine DTP vaccination (third). The doctor recommend to parents to refrain from vaccination. Which of the following was the temporary contraindication for DPT vaccination? A. *Influenza epidemic in the city B. Insufficient weight gain of the Child (deficit 5%) C. Dentition D. An upper respiratory tract viral infection 1 month ago E. Increased body temperature to 37,6 oC after the previous vaccination

392. In the blood of new-born antibodies to the virus of measles are revealed. About the presence of what immunity can it testify? A. Artificial passive B. Natural active C. *Natural passive D. Artificial active E. Inherited

393. On the 2nd day after the DPT vaccination mother had seen at the injection site - in the upper outer quadrant of buttocks - infiltration with hyperemia of the skin 2 cm in diameter; general condition of a child is not violated. What is the most possible cause of infiltration? A. *Variant of normal vaccination process B. All of the above C. Wrong choice of injection site D. Allergic reactions to vaccine components E. Lack of vaccination sites processing (secondary infection)

394. The child of 4 years is vaccinated out of the terms of calendar. Indicate the recommended chart of vaccinations against hepatitis B for vaccination of children out of terms of calendar: A. *now, through 1, 6 months B. through 3, 4, 5 months C. through 3, 4, 9 months D. through 3, 4, 8 months E. through 3, 9, 18 months

395. The child was born in term in a maternity hospital. A mother renounced from vaccinations, however after the discharge from maternity hospital changed her mind. Indicate a vaccine and the dose which it follows to apply. A. 0.25 dose BCG B. 0.3 dose BCG C. 0.5 dose BCG D. *1 dose BCG E. 1 dose BCG-M

396. The child was born in term in a maternity hospital. A mother renounced from vaccinations, however after the discharge from maternity hospital changed her mind. Indicate till what age of child vaccination against tuberculosis is done without the previous Mantoux test: A. to 2 weeks B. to 1 month C. *to 2 months D. to 3 months E. to 6 months

397. The child was vaccinated against tuberculosis in a maternity hospital. In one- year age a district pediatrician did not find the vaccinal rib in the place of injection. Indicate what time after vaccination (in case of rib absence) does it follow to do the additional vaccination after negative Mantoux test: A. 1 year B. *2 years C. 3 years D. 6 years E. 7років

398. The child, 12 months, in three days after the Mantoux test comes for vaccination. What diseases does it follow to vaccinate a child from? A. Whooping-cough, mumps, rubella B. *Measles, mumps, rubella C. Measles, whooping-cough, rubella D. Whooping-cough, hepatitis, rubella E. Rubella, whooping-cough, measles

399. The child, aged 3 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. 2 weeks B. *1 month C. 5 months D. 6 months E. 12 months

400. The child, aged 4 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. 2 weeks B. *1 month C. 5 months D. 6 months E. 12 months

401. The child, aged 5 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before next vaccination against these diseases? A. Not less than 3 months B. Not less than 6 months C. Not less than 9 months D. *Not less than 12 months E. Not less than 18 months

402. The child, aged 6 years, a week ago was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps. In his family a patient with tuberculosis is revealed. Indicate through what term after the vaccination it is possible to do the Mantoux test: A. on the next day B. in 2 weeks C. *in 1 month D. in 2 months E. in 3 months

403. The healthy child of 6 years from the HIV-infected mother came for vaccination against poliomyelitis. What vaccine must receive this child? A. *Only IPV B. OPV C. According to the calendar of inoculations D. IPV or OPV by choice E. Vaccination is not done

404. To the child of 18 months fourth vaccination against tetanus, diphtheria, whooping-cough was done. It is known from anamnesis that after the third one he has the febrile. What recommendation does it follow to give to the parents in case of the credible increase of temperature? A. *paracethamol during 1 day B. paracethamol during 3 days C. Aspirin during 1 day D. analgin during 1 day E. analgin during 3 days

405. To the child, 12 months, the first vaccination against measles, rubella, mumps was done. What age will be done the second vaccination against this disease? A. 18 months B. 2 years C. 5 years D. *6 years E. 11 years

406. To the child, aged 6 months, which was born with temporary contraindications for vaccination, in the conditions of child's polyclinic the Mantoux test was done. In 72 hours after estimation of results, a district pediatrician permitted on vaccination by the BCG-vaccine. Indicate the most probable result of the Mantoux test: A. *negative B. hyperemia 2 mm C. papule 2 mm D. papule 3 mm E. papule 4 mm

407. To the child, aged 6 months, which was born with temporary contraindications for vaccination, in the child's polyclinic the Mantoux test was done. In 72 hours after estimation of the results, a district pediatrician find in the place of test only hyperemia of 2 mm. Is the vaccination against tuberculosis possible in this case? A. *Not to vaccinate B. to vaccinate C. to vaccinate only at presence of phtysiatrist consultation D. to vaccinate in the hospital E. to vaccinate only at presence of immunologist consultation

408. To the district pediatrician children aged from 3 months to 4 years come for vaccination. What vaccinations does it follow to do to the children of 3 months? A. Hepatitis B B. DTP + OPV + Ніb C. DTaP +OPV + Ніb D. *DTP + IPV + Ніb E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B

409. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV was done. How long does it follow to hold from injections, planned operations? A. 15 days B. 20 days C. 25 days D. 30 days E. *40 days

410. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days? A. *Injections B. Insolation C. Introduction of weaning D. Walks E. Massage

411. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days? A. *parenteral manipulations B. Insolation C. Introduction of weaning D. Walks E. Massage

823. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days? A. *Planned operations B. Insolation C. Introduction of weaning D. Walks E. Massage

824. What kind of immunity to rubella virus has the breast-fed baby of 5 months if her mother at the age of 12 years had rubella? A. *Passive natural B. Active artificial C. Active natural D. Passive artificial E. Immunity is absent

Tasks to photo 1 Fig. 6 shows how to check: A *Kernig’s sign B Lessague’s sign C Upper Brudzinsky’s sign D Middle Brudzinsky’s sign E All of them 2 Where you should place the needle at this manipulation in children (Fig. 1): A *The space between lumbar vertebrae 4-5 B The space between lumbar vertebrae 1-2 C The space between lumbar vertebrae 2-3 D The space between sacral vertebrae 4-5 E The space between sacral vertebrae 2-3 3 This manipulation (Fig. 1) is usually done for: A Diagnosis of meningitis B Differential diagnosis of serous and purulent meningitis C Differential diagnosis of meningism (neurotoxicosis) and meningitis D Diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage E *All of these 4 In purulent meningitis the cerebrospinal fluid sampling during this manipulation (Fig. 1) is done for: A *bacteriological, biochemical, clinical research B Bacteriological, biochemical research C biochemical, clinical research D virological, biochemical, clinical research E bacteriological, virological, biochemical, clinical research 5 Name a pathological symptom in this patient (Fig. 43). A *increased anterior cervical lymph nodes B increased anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes C increased submandibular lymph nodes D increased anterior cervical and submandibular lymph nodes E generalized lymphadenopathy 6 Which disease is characterized by such changes in the patient (Fig. 43)? A *Infectious mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr infection) B Parotid infection (mumps) C Influenza D Rhinovirus infection E Parainfluenza 7 Which disease is characterized by such changes in the patient (Fig. 43)? A Acute tonsillitis (angina) B Diphtheria oropharyngeal (tonsillar) C Adenovirus infection (pharyngoconjunctival fever) D Infectious mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr infection) E *All of them 8 Which disease is characterized by such cough (Fig. 3), having paroxismal character? A *pertussis B parainfluenza C obstructive bronchitis D pneumonia with obstructive syndrome E measles in the catarrhal period 9 How long should be isolated the patient (Fig. 3), who is coughing so typically? A *30 days from the disease onset B 14 days from the disease onset C 17 days from the disease onset D 21 days from the disease onset E 5 days from the attacks beginning 10 How long should be quarantine for person contacted with this patient (Fig. 3), who is coughing so typically? A 30 days B *14 days C 17 days D 21 days E 25 days 11 During a typical moderate course of the disease (Fig. 3) at the end of cough paroxism will appear: A Redness and edema of the face B Sweating C Lacrimation D Possible vomiting E *All of these 12 The complication of which infection has developed in this patient (Figure 4)? A *Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningitis) B Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningococcemia) C Parotid infection (mumps) D Infectious mononucleosis E Meningococcal infection, localized form (nazopharyngitis) 13 What symptom is presented on this picture (Figure 4)? A *Greffe B Koplik's C Filatov D Pastia E Moorson 14 The complication of which infection has developed in this patient (Fig. 5)? A *Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningitis) B Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningococcemia) C Parotid infection (mumps) D Infectious mononucleosis E Meningococcal infection, localized form (nazopharyngitis) 15 Which neurological symptom the hydrocephalus is complicated by in this patient (Fig. 5)? A *Paraplegia of the lower extremities B Paraplegia of the upper extremities C Tetraplegia D Left-sided hemiplegia E Right-sided hemiplegia 16 Fig. 6 shows how to check: A Upper Brudzinsky’s sign B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign C *Lower Brudzinsky’s sign D Lessague’s sign E All of them 17 Fig. 7 shows how to check: A *Upper Brudzinsky’s sign B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign C Lower Brudzinsky’s sign D Lessague’s sign E Kernig’s sign 18 Fig. 7 shows how to check: A *Nuchal rigidity B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign C Lower Brudzinsky’s sign D Lessague’s sign E Kernig’s sign 19 Fig. 8 presents a pose of: A *meningitis patient B encephalitis patient C patient with poliomyelitis, spinal form D patient with poliomyelitis, pontine form E healthy infant 20 Fig. 8 presents a pose of: A a patient with purulent meningitis B a patient with serous meningitis C a patient with meningism (neurotoxicosis) D a patient with meningoencephalitis E *characteristic in all these diseases 21 In (Fig. 9) is represented a pose of: A patient with purulent meningitis B patient with serous meningitis C patient with meningism (neurotoxicosis) D patient with meningoencephalitis E *is characteristic in all these diseases 22 What infectious disease is characterized by such rash (Fig. 10)? A *Meningococcal infection (meningococcemia) B Measles in the period of pigmentation C Scarlet fever, severe form D Varicella (chickenpox), bullous form E Rubella 23 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)? A Concentrated in the folds of the skin B Is accompanied by the itching C Appears by several waves D *Not disappear with pressure E Macular-papular 24 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)? A It is rough (“sand paper”) B Completely disappears without scarring or scaling C Appears gradually for 3-4 days D *Large rashes necrotizing in the center E Typically is present on the scalp 25 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)? A Further pigmentation of elements B In the period of recovery occurs scaling of the epidermis C It is polymorphic D *Large rashes will scarring E It is mainly localized on the face, upper extremities 26 Residual period of which disease you could see in this patient (Fig. 11)? A *Poliomyelitis, spinal form B Poliomyelitis, pontine form C Meningococcal infection (meningitis) D Meningococcal infection (meningococcemia) E Varicella-Zoster (cerebellitis) 27 What neurological symptom is accompanied a residual period of poliomyelitis in this patient (Fig. 1)? A *Paraplegia of the lower extremities B Paraplegia of the upper extremities C Tetraplegia D Left-sided hemiplegia E Right-sided hemiplegia 28 Name the time of primary vaccination (child's age) for the prevention of this disease (Fig. 11): A *3, 4, 5 months B 1 day, 1, 6 months C 1 year, 6 years D 3, 4, 5, 18 months E 3-7 day, 7 years, 14 years old 29 Indicate which vaccine is used for primary vaccination (first and second) to prevent this disease (Fig. 11)? A Oral poliovaccine B *Inactivated poliovaccine C MMR D DTP E Acellular DTP 30 Indicate which vaccine is used for primary vaccination (third) and booster vaccinations (revaccinations) to prevent this disease (Fig. 11)? A Oral poliovaccine B *Inactivated poliovaccine C MMR D DTP E Acellular DTP 31 Which form of poliomyelitis has this patient (Fig. 12)? A *spinal B pontine C bulbar D meningeal E inapparent 32 What disease can be assumed in this patient (Fig. 12)? A *Poliomyelitis (paralytic) B Enterovirus infection (epidemic myalgia) C Enterovirus infection (summer flu) D Meningococcal infection (meningoencephalitis) E Measles (meningoencephalitis) 33 Name the date of revaccination (child's age) for the prevention of this disease (Fig. 12): A 3, 4, 5 months B *18 months, 6, 14 years C 18 months, 6 years D 3, 4, 5, 18 months, 6, 14 years E 7 years, 14 years 34 What disease can be assumed in this patient (Fig. 13)? A *Poliomyelitis (paralytic) B Enterovirus infection (epidemic myalgia) C Enterovirus infection (summer flu) D Meningococcal infection (meningoencephalitis) E Measles (meningoencephalitis) 35 Which form of poliomyelitis has this patient (Fig. 13)? A spinal B *pontine C bulbar D meningeal E inapparent 36 To the patient was diagnosed poliomyelitis, pontine form (Fig. 13), indicate which pair of cranial nerves is damaged? A 7th on the right B *7th on the left C 5th on the right D 5th on the left E 5th and 7th on the left 37 What disease this syndrome (Fig. 15) is typical for? A *Infectious mononucleosis B Hepatitis A C Adenovirus infection D Salmonellosis (gastrointestinal form) E Shigellosis 38 What disease this syndrome (Fig. 15) is typical for? A Infectious mononucleosis B Hepatitis B C Typhoid fever D Salmonellosis (septic form) E *All of them 39 Typical complication of what disease is shown in Fig. 16? A *Shigellosis B Salmonella infection C Rotavirus infection D Cholera infection E Colibacteriosis (E. coli infection) 40 Indicate the reason for the development of this complication (Fig. 16) in shigellosis: A *Paresis of the rectal sphincter B Rectal mucosa ulceration C Separation of rectal mucosa from submucosa D Necrosis of the rectal mucosa E Spasm of the rectal sphincter 41 To which group belongs this medicine (Fig. 17)? A *Fluoroquinolones B Cephalosporins 2nd generation C Cephalosporins 3rd generation D Aminoglycosides E Nitrofurans 42 Indicate the dose of this medicineg (Fig. 17) for salmonellosis treatment in a child. A *10-15 mg / kg B 25-30 mg / kg C 50-75 mg / kg D 100-150 mg / kg E 30-50 mg / kg 43 How many times per day should be given this medicine (Fig. 17) to child with salmonellosis? A *2 times a day B 3 times a day C 1 time a day D 4 times a day E 6 times a day 44 To which group belongs this medicine (Fig. 18)? A Fluoroquinolones B Cephalosporins 2nd generation C Cephalosporins 3rd generation D Aminoglycosides E *Nitrofurans 45 How many times per day should be given this medicine (Fig. 18) to 4 years old child for treatment of intestinal infection, moderate severity? A 2 times a day B 3 times a day C 1 time per day D *4 times a day E 6 times a day 46 What changes are presented in Figure 2? A Malnutrition B Paratrophia C *Reduced skin elasticity D Reduced soft tissues turgor E Normal skin elasticity 47 Reduced skin elasticity in this child (Fig. 2) is developed due to: A *Dehydration B Malnutrition C Pylorostenosis D Protein-deficiency anemia E Reduced soft tissues turgor 48 What symptom of dehydration is shown in Fig. 2? A *Reduced skin elasticity B Sunken large fontanel C Weight loss more than 5% D Dryness of mucous membranes E Oliguria 49 What form of Meningococcal infection is represented in fig. 25? A Typical meningococcemia B *Fulminant meningococcemia C Meningitis with meningococcemia D Nasopharyngitis E Chronic meningococcemia 50 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 21) to a child with diarrhea? A 5-7 days B 1-2 weeks C 3-4 days D *Not less than 14 days E Not less than 1 month 51 Represented medicine (Fig. 21) belongs to: A Enterosorbents B Medicines for oral rehydration C *Probiotics D Medicines for parenteral rehydration E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas 52 Name changes on the radiograph (Fig. 14). A Right lower lobe pneumonia B Right medial lobe pneumonia C Right upper lobe pneumonia D *Right-sided polysegmental pneumonia E Right-sided pleuropneumonia 53 A radiograph of the chest cavity (Fig. 14) presents: A *polysegmental pneumonia B focal pneumonia C interstitial pneumonia D lobar pneumonia E lobular pneumonia 54 4. Represented medicine (Fig. 22) belongs to: A *Enterosorbents B Medicines for oral rehydration C Probiotics D Medicines for parenteral rehydration E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas 55 Name a dose of this medicine (Fig. 22) for a child with diarrhea: A *100 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses B 1000 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses C 500 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses D 10 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses E 5 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses 56 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 22) to a child with diarrhea? A *5-7 days B 1-2 weeks C 1-2 days D 10-14 days E Not less than 1 month 57 This medicine (Fig. 23) belongs to: A Enterosorbents B *Medicines for oral rehydration C Probiotics D Medicines for parenteral rehydration E Enzymes of the pancreas 58 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 23) for the first phase of rehydration? A *4-6 hours B 8-10 hours C 10-12 hours D 14-18 hours E 20-24 hours 59 What amount of boiled water should be used to prepare this solution (Fig. 23)? A 1000 ml B 500 ml C *200 ml D 400 ml E 300 ml 60 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the first degree? A *50 ml / kg body weight of the child B 100 ml / kg body weight of the child C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child 61 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the third degree? A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child B 100 ml / kg body weight of the child C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child E They need parenteral rehydration 62 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the second degree? A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child B *100 ml / kg body weight of the child C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child 63 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the second phase of oral rehydration therapy in children with dehydration? A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child B *100 ml / kg body weight of the child C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child 64 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 19) presents: A *segmental pneumonia B focal pneumonia C lobular pneumonia D lobar pneumonia E destructive pneumonia 65 This radiograph (Fig. 19) is typical for: A *segmental pneumonia B lobar pneumonia C focal bronchopneumonia D staphylococcal pneumonia E obstructive bronchitis 66 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 19) presents pneumonia, which is known as: A *bronchopneumonia B interstitial pneumonia C lobular pneumonia D lobar pneumonia E pleuropneumonia 67 Name changes on this radiograph (Fig. 20). A Left lower lobe pneumonia B Left pleuritis C Left upper lobe pneumonia D *Left polysegmental pneumonia E Left pleuropneumonia 68 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 20) presents: A *polysegmental pneumonia B focal pneumonia C interstitial pneumonia D lobar pneumonia E lobular pneumonia 69 What form of Meningococcal infection is represented in Fig. 27? A Typical meningococcemia B *Fulminant meningococcemia C Meningitis with meningococcemia D Nasopharyngitis E Chronic meningococcemia 70 What infectious disease can be diagnosed in this patient (Fig. 27)? A *Meningococcal disease B Measles C Scarlet fever D Chickenpox E Pseudotuberculosis 71 What infectious disease can be diagnosed in this patient (Fig. 25)? A *Meningococcal disease B Measles C Scarlet fever D Chickenpox E Pseudotuberculosis 72 Which form of Meningococcal infection is typical such localization of exanthem (Fig. 27)? A Typical meningococcemia B *Fulminant meningococcemia C Meningitis with meningococcemia D Nasopharyngitis E Chronic meningococcemia 73 What changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on figure 35? A Cellular-protein dissociation B Increased level of sugar C Protein-cellular dissociation D Pandy Reaction + E Significantly reduced level of sugar 74 What microbiological changes are possible in a spinal fluid, presented on figure 35? A *Presence of diplococcus B Presence of micobacteria tuberculosis C Presence of poliovirus D Presence of enterovirus E Absence of any agent 75 Represented medicine (Fig. 26) belongs to: A *Enterosorbents B Medicines for oral rehydration C Probiotics D Medicines for parenteral rehydration E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas 76 What is the course of treatment by this medicine (Fig. 26) for a child with diarrhea: A *5-7 days B 1-2 weeks C 1-2 days D 10-14 days E Not less than 1 month 77 Presented on a fig. 35 spinal fluid is characteristic for: A *Purulent meningitis B Serous meningitis C Meningism D Tubercular meningitis E Healthy child 78 What does a turbid spinal fluid testify about (fig. 35)? A * About the high level of polymorphonuclear cells B About the high level of chlorides C About the high level of lymphocites D About the high level of sugar E About the presence of viruses in it 79 What biochemical changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on figure 35? A *Protein more than 1 g/l B Increased level of sugar C Protein less than 1 g/l D Normal level of chlorides E Significantly reduced level of sugar 80 What biochemical changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on figure 35? A *Pandy Reaction +++ B Protein-cellular dissociation C Normal level of cells in it D Increased level of sugar E Significantly reduced level of sugar 81 Identify the disease in this patient (Fig. 28). A *Left-sided parotitis B Left-sided submaxillitis C Left-sided cervical lymphadenitis D Left-sided mastoiditis E Perforated left-sided otitis media 82 Indicate the form of mumps in this patient (Fig. 28). A *Isolated glandular B Glandular combined C Complicated D Glandular isolated, complicated E Glandular combined, complicated 83 Indicate what changes in the oral mucosa can be expected in this patient (Fig. 28)? A *Hyperemia and edema of the external orifice of Stensen’s duct B Hyperemia and edema of the internal orifice of Stensen’s duct C Paleness of the external orifice of Stensen’s duct D Paleness of the internal orifice of Stensen’s duct E No changes 84 What disease has the child in Fig. 29? A *Mumps B Quincke’s edema C Right-sided perytonsillar abscess D Diphtheria of the pharynx, toxic form E Cervical lymphadenitis 85 Indicate what specific symptom has the patient presented in Fig. 29 (right)? A *Moorson sign B Filatov sign C Koplik sign D Pastia sign E Belsky sign 86 Name the way that Mantoux test is done (fig. 30). A *Intracutaneously B Subcutaneously C Intramusculary D By application on the skin E By the skin scarification 87 Name the phenomen while tuberculin is injected, represented on this picture (fig. 30): A *Papule B Macule C Pustule D Vesicule E Urtica 88 What substance or vaccine is injected by this way (fig. 30)? A *Tuberculin B BCG-vaccine C MMR-vaccine D DTP-vaccine E Hib-vaccine 89 Name the way that tuberculin is injected (fig. 30). A *Intracutaneously B Subcutaneously C Intramusculary D By application on the skin E By the skin scarification 90 What amount of tuberculin should be input to the syringe for the Mantoux test (fig. 30)? A *0.2 ml B 0.5 ml C 0.4 ml D 0.1 ml E 0.3 ml 91 What amount of tuberculin should be injected to the patient for the Mantoux test (fig. 30)? A *0.1 ml B 0.2 ml C 0.5 ml D 0.4 ml E 0.3 ml 92 How many international units of tuberculin should be injected for the Mantoux test (fig. 30)? A 1 B *2 C 3 D 4 E 5 93 Name the way of this vaccine administration (fig. 31). A *Intramusculary B By the skin scarification C Orally (by the mouth) D Intracutaneously E Subcutaneously 94 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine is given according the schedule (fig. 31). A *3, 4 months B 3, 4, 5 months C 3, 4, 5, 18 months D 3, 4, 5, 18, month, 6 years E 3 months only 95 Which vaccine is given by this way (fig. 32)? A *OPV-vaccine B IPV-vaccine C Influenza-vaccine D MMR-vaccine E Hib-vaccine 96 Which vaccination (according the schedule) against poliovirus is given by this way (fig. 32)? A *3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th B 1st and 2nd C Only the 1st D 1st, 2nd and 3rd E All of them 97 Name healthy child’s age, when oral polio vaccine is given (fig. 32). A *5, 18 month, 6, 14 years B 3, 4 months C 3, 4, 5 months D 3, 4, 5, 18 months E 3 months only 98 How many components does this vaccine include (fig. 33)? A *4 B 5 C 3 D 6 E 7 99 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine (fig. 33) is given for primary vaccination according the schedule. A *3, 4, 5 months B 3, 4, 5, 18 months C 3, 4 months D 3, 4, 5, 18 months and 6 years E 18 months and 6 years 100 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine is given according the schedule (fig. 34). A *3-7th day after birth, 7, 14 years B 3-7th day after birth only C 7 years only D 14 years only E 3-7th day after birth, 7, 14, 18 years 101 What microscopic changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on a picture 35? A *the high level of polymorphonuclear cells B the high level of lymphocytes C Normal level of protein D Significantly reduced level of sugar E Erythrocytes cover all visual field 102 At a child of 2 months with congenital heart disease, deafness during the inspection such changes fig. 36) were found. Which congenital infectious disease is characterized by these changes? A *Rubella B Varicella C Herpes simplex D Cytomegalovirus E Toxoplasmosis 103 One of the Greg’s triad components is represented on fig. 36. Name other two. A *congenital heart disease, deafness B congenital heart disease, clift palate C congenital heart disease, clift upper lip D clift palate, deafness E deafness, spina bifida 104 At a child of 1 month with congenital heart disease, deafness during the inspection also such changes (fig. 36) were found. This triad is known as: A *Greg’s triad B Fallot’s triad C Filatov’s sign D Koplick’s sign E Pastia’s sign 105 Which disease is characterized by the presented symptoms (Fig. 40)? A *Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form B Mumps infection, bilateral submaxillitis C Mumps infection, bilateral parotitis D Bilateral cervical lymphadenitis E Quincke’s edema 106 Indicate the form of diphtheria in this patient (Fig. 40). A *Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form B Tonsillar diphtheria, spread form C Nasopharyngeal diphtheria, toxic form D Nasopharyngeal diphtheria, spread form E Laryngeal diphtheria, laryngotracheobronchitis 107 This multicomponent vaccine (fig. 37) is given according the schedule for healthy children predominantly in: A 3, 4 months B 3, 4, 5 months C *3, 4, 5, 18 months D 3, 4, 5, 18, month, 6 years E 3 months only 108 How many diseases this multicomponent vaccine (fig. 37) will prevent? A *5 B 6 C 7 D 3 E 4 109 What demonstrates this picture (fig. 24)? A Places for comparative percussion of lungs B Places for auscultation of lungs C Places for cardiac valves auscultation D Location of possible pleural effusion E *Location of retractions in case of croup 110 Retractions, presented on this picture, are typical for: A Bronchitis B *Croup syndrome C Uncomplicated pneumonia D Tracheobronchitis E Pleuropneumonia 111 How often children should be vaccinated by such vaccine (fig. 38)? A *Once a year in september-october B Once a year in december-february C Twice a year in autmn and spring D Twice a year in winter and spring E Once in 2-3 years 112 This monovaccine (fig. 39) predominantly is given for: A *Primary vaccination against Rubella in adolescent girls (15 years) B Primary vaccination against Rubella in 12 month C Primary vaccination against Rubella in 6 years D Primary combined vaccination against Rubella, Measles and Mumps E Primary combined vaccination against Rubella, and Mumps 113 In what age this monovaccine is usually used for primary vaccination (fig. 39)? A *For 15 years girls B For 15 years boys C In 12 months D In 6 years E In 12 months, 6 years 114 This vaccine (fig. 39) belongs to live vaccines, name another live vaccine. A *BCG B IPV C Hepatitis B D Hib E DTP 115 What means the "bull neck" symptom, presented in Fig. 40? A Nuchal rigidity B Meningitis posture C *Swelling of the neck subcutaneous tissue D Increased anterior cervical lymph nodes E Swelling of the submandibular salivary glands 116 What disease the presented symptoms (Fig. 41) are typical for? A Measles B Rubella C Mumps D Thrush E Chickenpox 117 What period of measles does this patient have(Fig. 41)? A Catarrhal B *Eruption (rashes) C Pigmentation D Scaling E Residual 118 Indicate the day of the eruption period in this patient (Figure 41). A 1st B 2nd C 3rd D 4th E 5th 119 Indicate the possible day of the disease in this patient (Fig. 41). A 1-3rd B 4-5th C 6-7ht D 8-10th E 2 weeks 120 What disease is characterized by this symptom (Fig. 42)? A *Measles B Rubella C Mumps D Thrush E Chickenpox 121 Name the pathognomonic symptom of measles (Fig. 42). A Moorson’s sign B Filatov’s sign C *Koplik’s sign D Pastia’s sign E Kernig’s sign 122 What disease is characterized by the presented symptoms (Fig. 43)? A Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form B Mumps infection, bilateral submaxillitis C *Infectious mononucleosis D Scarlet fever E Streptococcal tonsillitis 123 Describe the rash on Fig. 44: A *Polymorphic B Macular C Petechial D Papular E Erythema 124 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 44) typical for? A *Varicella B Measles C Rubella D Scarlet fever E Pseudotubercullosis 125 What complication of chickenpox is presented on this picture (Fig. 44)? A Pustullosis B Erythema C Phlegmona D Scarring E *No complications 126 Which form of chicken pox the represented rash (Fig. 44) is characteristic for? A Hemorrhagic B Bullosa C Generalized D Rudimentary E *Typical 127 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 45) typical for? A *Herpes simplex B Varicella C Herpes zoster D Erysipelas E Anthrax 128 Describe the rash on Fig. 45: A Polymorphic B Macular C Petechial D Papular E *Vesicular 129 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 46) typical for? A Herpes zoster* B Herpes simplex C Varicella D Streptoderma E Variola 130 Describe the rash on Fig. 46: A Erythema B Macular C Petechial D Papular E Vesicular * 131 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 47) typical for? A Herpes zoster * B Herpes simplex C Varicella D Rubella E Measles 132 Describe the rash on Fig. 47: A Erythema B Macular C Petechial D Papular E *Vesicular

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