Assignments 1& 2, Year-2002

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Assignments 1& 2, Year-2002

LSE-02 ASSIGNMENT BOOKLET

Bachelor’s Degree Programme in Science (B.Sc.)

Ecology (LSE-02)

ASSIGNMENTS 2002

ASSIGNMENT-1 TMA ASSIGNMENT-2 CMA

SCHOOL OF SCIENCES Indira Gandhi National Open University Maidan Garhi New Delhi – 110 068 LSE-02 Assignments 1& 2, Year-2002

Dear Student,

As explained in the Programme Guide for B.Sc., you are required to do 2 assignments for the elective course in Ecology (Course Code: LSE-02). One of the assignments is Tutor-marked (TMA), and the other is Computer-marked (CMA). The block-wise distribution of assignments is as follows:

Assignment – 1 (TMA) is based on Blocks 1 to 4 Assignment – 2 (CMA) is based on Blocks 1 to 4

The instructions for doing the assignments are given in the Programme Guide under the Section 7.1 - Assignment. Read the instructions carefully before you start to work on the assignments.

The details regarding assignment submission are given below.

Assignment No. Date of Submission Where to Send

Assignment – 1 (TMA) 12 weeks after receiving the printed The Coordinator of your Study Centre. Code: LSE-02/AST-1/TMA-1/2002 material with assignments.

Assignment – 2 (CMA) 12 weeks after receiving the printed The Director (SR&E), Code: LSE-02/AST-2/CMA-1/2002 material with assignments. Indira Gandhi National Open University, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi – 110068.

Some Suggestions:

 Submit your assignment-response well in time. Your response received after the due date shall not be accepted.  Retain a zeroxed copy of your assignment-response for your record.

Best of luck to you

2 ASSIGNMENT – 1 (Tutor-Marked Assignment)

Course Code : LSE-02 Assignment Code : LSE-02/AST-1/TMA-1/2002 Max. Marks : 100

1. Define a major and a minor community. Describe the mutual interrelations among individuals of a community. (2+3)

2. Describe the general ecological features of aquatic ecosystems with their classification. (10)

3. Briefly describe the effects of light and temperature on living organisms. (5)

4. List the greenhouse gases. Explain the mechanism by which the greenhouse gases contribute to global warming. Mention their impact on global climate change. (2+4+4)

5. Differentiate between the following: i) Gravitational water and capillary water ii) Autotrophic and heterotrophic succession iii) Food chain and food web iv) Gross primary productivity and net primary productivity v) Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification (2x5)

6. With the help of appropriate examples explain the various interspecific and intraspecific interactions. (5)

7. Discuss the ecological impacts of high wind velocity on living beings. (5)

8. Explain the nitrogen cycle with the help of diagram(s). (5)

9. a) What is a Biosphere Reserve? Give any two examples. (1+1) b) Describe the measures adopted for wildlife conservation in our country. (3)

10. a) What are the different types of soil texture? b) How does soil texture affect the water holding capacity? c) With the help of a diagram, describe the soil profile. (3½+3½+3)

11. Write explanatory notes on the following: i) The Red Data Book ii) Detritus food chain iii) Global distribution of water iv) Social forestry (2½x4)

12. Describe briefly the important qualitative characters of a community. (5)

13. Explain the relationship between growth of a population and the carrying capacity of environment. (10)

14. Describe the significance of ecological pyramids. Illustrate your answer. (4+1)

3 ASSIGNMENT – 2 (Computer-Marked Assignment)

Course Code : LSE-02 Assignment Code : LSE-02/AST-2/CMA-1/2002 Max. Marks : 100

1. What do you call the zone of lake that forms the bottom layer which is deep, cold and non- circulating? 1) Epilimnion 2) Metalimnion 3) Hypolimnion 4) Benthos

2. In which of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of the soil surface vary the most? 1) Desert 2) Grassland 3) Shrubland 4) Forest

3. Which of the following measures the intensity of light? 1) Photometer 2) Radiometer 3) Photocell 4) Solarimeter

4. Study of the ecological groups or communities in relation to their environment is termed as: 1) Synecology 2) Autecology 3) Habitat ecology 4) None of the above

5. The water content retained by the soil after the gravitational water has drained away, is referred to as: 1) Wilting coefficient 2) Permeability 3) Field capacity 4) Hygroscopic coefficient

6. Which of the following property of soil would you study to determine its texture? 1) Arrangement of soil particles into aggregates 2) pH of soil 3) Soil particle size 4) Cation exchange capacity

7. What do you call the consumers that feed on plants or animals or both? 1) macro-consumer 2) secondary consumer 3) tertiary consumer 4) micro-consumer

4 8. Which of the following constitutes the brackish water ecosystems? 1) Lakes 2) Estuaries 3) Ponds 4) Swamps

9. What bond does polar nature of water molecule lead to form between two adjacent molecules? 1) a strong hydrogen bond 2) a weak hydrogen bond 3) a strong oxygen bond 4) a weak oxygen bond

10. How much heat energy is required to be removed to convert one gram of water to ice? 1) 80 calories 2) 100 calories 3) 440 calories 4) 540 calories

11. Organisms that obtain energy from breakdown of dead organic matter and convert them into simpler substances are called as ...... … . 1) producers 2) primary consumers 3) carrion feeders 4) decomposers

12. In an ecosystem nearing climax, the P/R ratio is: 1) less than 1 2) approaches 1 3) greater than 1 4) none of the above

13. Which of the following is not the same as the rest? 1) Herbivores 2) Primary consumers 3) Carrion feeders 4) Cow

14. Species turn-over is likely to be fast on which of the following kinds of islands? 1) The ones that are far from the mainland 2) The small ones 3) Those occupied by a climax community 4) An island with recent volcanic deposits

15. Ecological pyramid of energy: 1) is always upright 2) is always inverted 3) is a double pyramid – upper one upright and lower one inverted 4) can attain all the above three forms

5 16. Which of the following contributes to carbon cycle? 1) Respiration 2) Photosynthesis 3) Fossil fuel combustion 4) All the above mentioned processes

17. Phosphorus cycle is unusual in that it is: 1) entirely gaseous 2) entirely aquatic 3) both gaseous and sedimentary 4) entirely sedimentary

18. Although soils of tropical forests are generally poor in nutrients, they are able to maintain high productivity under natural conditions because: 1) it rains constantly in tropical forests. 2) tropical forests have plant to plant cycling of nutrients. 3) tropical forests have a large biodiversity. 4) input of nutrients from the atmosphere is more than any other biome.

19. Which of the following is incorrectly paired? 1) Savanna - cool temperature, precipitation is uniform throughout the year 2) Tundra - extreme cold, permafrost, brief summer 3) Desert - meagre rainfall, hot or cold climate 4) Tropical forests - nearly consistent photoperiod and temperature

20. What do you call the forests found in cold region with high rainfall, and strongly seasonal climates having long winters and fairly short summers? 1) rain forest 2) deciduous forests 3) coniferous forest 4) evergreen forest

21. Chipko Movement is aimed at: 1) preventing poaching of wildlife 2) ensuring sustainable development 3) protecting trees from excessive logging 4) preserving cultural heritage of indigenous communities

22. The major adaptations in desert plants are: i) thick cuticle and sunken stomata ii) large air cavities in stems iii) leaves modified into spines iv) stomata covered with hairs v) leaves thin and devoid of hairs vi) shallow root system Choose the correct answer from the choices given below: 1) iv, v, vi 2) ii, iv, vi 3) v and vi 4) i, iii, iv

6 23. Aquatic organisms which remain attached or clinging to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances, emerging above the bottom mud are termed as: 1) Neuston 2) Periphyton 3) Plankton 4) Nekton

24. Gross primary production refers to: 1) the total amount of solar energy fixed by the primary producers 2) the amount of energy utilised during respiration by the producers 3) the total amount of energy available to the subsequent trophic levels 4) the net primary productivity of the whole biosphere

25. The major ecological adaptive features of hydrophytes are: (choose the correct answer from the choices given below) i) presence of well developed air cavities ii) sunken stomata covered with hair iii) poorly developed vascular tissues iv) well developed tap root system v) presence of mechanical tissues vi) poorly developed roots vii) leaves modified into spines

Choices 1) i, ii, v 2) ii, iv, vii 3) i, iii, vi 4) iii, v, vi

26. Which mammal is physiologically adapted to withstand tissue dehydration for long periods of time? 1) Desert gerbil 2) Phrynosoma 3) Camel 4) Calotes

27. A bare rock is invariably colonised by: 1) Sulphur bacteria 2) Nitrogen-fixers 3) Xerophytic plants 4) Lichens

28...... is a type of succession in dry or water stressed habitats. 1) Hydrarch 2) Mesarch 3) Polyarch 4) Xerarch

7 29. In tropical rain forest which is the most dominant life form? 1) Phanerophyte 2) Chamaephyte 3) Therophyte 4) Hemicryptophyte

30. Which of the following vegetation has only one stratum? 1) Tropical rain forest 2) Taiga 3) Mangrove 4) Glassland 5) Shrubland

31. If you are measuring the biomass of an ecosystem, you are measuring the: 1) amount of energy produced 2) amount of nutrients 3) total weight of the vegetation 4) dry weight of all the organic material

32. Amensalism is a form of species interaction in which: 1) the interaction is favourable to both 2) neither of the species is affected 3) one of the species is benefited 4) one of the species is harmed

33. An organism’s niche in an ecosystem does not include its: 1) feeding habits 2) reproductive behaviour 3) habitat 4) biomass

34. Which of the following is an example of predation? 1) Two bacteria species are allowed to grow in a medium and one of them eliminates the other totally. 2) The koel lays its eggs in the crow’s nest and on hatching, the larger chick of the koel pushes out the crow chicks leaving them to starve. 3) A strangler fig tree surrounds another tree and eventually kills it while growing its own canopy. 4) Two species of Paramecium are grown together. One species tends to feed on bacteria suspended in the liquid medium and the other feeds on yeast cells at the bottom of the tube.

35. The success of the human species on the planet is due to their: 1) ability to walk erect. 2) reproductive rates. 3) high ecological adaptability. 4) early ability to hunt.

8 36. What do you mean by emigration? 1) One way inward movement of individuals into an area. 2) One way outward movement of individuals from an area. 3) Periodic departure and return of individuals to same area. 4) None of the above is correct.

37. What do you call the level beyond which no major increase in density of a population can occur? 1) Population number 2) Innate capacity 3) Carrying capacity 4) Linear scale.

38. What does a pyramid show when it has a broad base indicating a high percentage of young individuals in a population? 1) Stable population with natality equalling mortality. 2) Population is expanding exponentially 3) Aging or declining population. 4) None of the above is correct.

39. Which one of the following is not the statistical parameter of the population? 1) Mortality 2) Immigration 3) Demography 4) Age distribution

40. Which early forest legislation was aimed at preservation of forest and ecobalancing? 1) Act of 1927 2) Act of 1957 3) Act of 1972 4) Act of 1982

41. Inversion in the atmosphere refers to a situation where: 1) warm air floats over cool air. 2) cool air floats over warm air. 3) warm air and cool air mix. 4) the air pollutants settle on the ground.

42. Bioindicators are: 1) biochemicals obtained from plants that are used in titrations. 2) substances that indicate toxins in the body. 3) plants that can be used to indicate the level of pollution in the air. 4) none of the above.

43. Chipko movement was initiated by the villagers of: 1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Rajasthan 4) Madhya Pradesh

9 44. Biosphere Reserve is an example for: 1) ex-situ conservation. 2) in-situ conservation. 3) sustainable management of living resources. 4) preservation of an endangered animal species.

45. Match the following (Items of A with those of B) in the best possible way. Pick the correct answer from the choices given below.

A B i) Elimination of habitat a) Disruption of reproduction, bioaccumulation ii) Domestication b) Deforestation, overgrazing, urbanization, agriculture iii) Introduction of new species c) Bringing under human care, modifying characters through selective breeding iv) Pesticides d) Being superior competitors, some alien species pose danger to existing species

Choices↓ i ii iii iv 1) a b c d 2) b c a d 3) d a c b 4) b c d a

46. Species most vulnerable to extinction from human activities are those with: 1) low reproductive potential 2) high population growth rates 3) broad niche 4) many predators

47. Soils which are transported by the running waters are called as ……………….. . 1) glacial 2) aeolian 3) colluvial 4) alluvial

48. Intraspecific competition can be directly determined by: 1) predation 2) parasitism 3) resources 4) biotic potential

10 49. Consider 4 human populations that differ demographically only in their age structure. The population that will grow the most in the next 30 years will be the greatest fraction of people in which age groups? 1) 10-20 years 2) 21-30 years 3) 40-50 years 4) 51-60 years

50. The capacity of a community to recover from disturbances is known as: 1) Resistance 2) Resilience 3) Global stability 4) Local stability

11 INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY RESPONSE SHEET FOR COMPUTER MARKED ASSIGNMENT

Enrolment No. Programme : B.Sc. MS- Name & Course Code : LSE-02 Address Assignment Code : LSE-02/AST-2/CMA-1/2002 (Block Letters)

Pin Code Signature ______Date : ______

Question No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Answers

Question No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Answers

Question No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 Answers

Question No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Answers

Question No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Answers

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Verified by…………………… Wrong Answers : ………………………….

Total Marks : ………………………….

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