THE MAHARAJA SAYAJIRAO UNIVERSITY OF BARODA DEPARTMENT OF ZOOLOGY FACULTY OF SCIENCE M. Sc. ZOOLOGY ENTRANCE TEST MODEL QUESTION PAPER
NOTE: 1. All questions carry equal weightage 2. Answers should be marked on the OMR sheet provided th 3. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for every wrong answer
Choose the most appropriate answer: (1 Mark each) 100 Marks
1. With respect to fossils found, ______is referred as the ‘age of reptiles’. a. Proterozoic b. Mesozoic c. Cenozoic d. Paleozoic
2. One of the following systems of breeding of laboratory animals is best for transgenic animals: a. Open b. Isolator c. Barrier d. None of these
3. The principal intracellular cation is: a. Cl- b. K+ c. Na+ d. Ca++
4. The stage of mitosis when chromosomes condense to form rod-shaped structures visible under the microscope is called: a. prophase b. interphase c. metaphase d. anaphase
5. Cells respond to external signals by turning specific genes on or off. Such control of gene activity depends on DNA binding proteins known as: a. transcription factors b. messenger RNA c. coding proteins d. zinc finger adaptors
6. The denaturation of dsDNA in the Polymerase Chain Reaction takes place at: a. 55C b. 72C c. 95C d. 4C
7. The transport of secretory protein takes place through organelles in the order: a. RER > SER > Golgi > Secretory vesicles b. SER > RER > Golgi > Secretory vesicles c. RER > SER > Secretory vesicles > Golgi d. RER > Golgi > SER > Secretory vesicles The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda. 8.In UV/Visible Spectrophotometer, the light source includes: a. Xe, D2, Xenon/Mercury b. White light, Xe, D2 c. Tungsten filament, Xenon/Mercury d. Neon light, Xenon/Mercury
9.In which of the following phyla, the digestive tract is NOT lined by mesoderm? a. Hemichordata b. Chaetognatha c. Nemertea d. Nematoda
10. Which of the following character propose that Cnidaria can be considered closer to Deuterostomes than to Protostomes? a. In Cnidaria and Protostomes blastophore forms mouth b. In Cnidaria and Deuterostomes blastophore forms anus c. Gastral pouches of Anthozoa are comparable to archenteric pouches d. Gastral pouches of Cnidaria are equivalent to Schizocoelic coelom
11. Which of the following statements on property of cancer cells is FALSE? a. They are relatively insensitive to anti-proliferative extracellular signals b. They readily undergo apoptosis as compared to normal cells c. They induce angiogenesis d. They are genetically stable
12. Select the correct match from the following: a. Protozoa – Trypanosomiasis b. Mosquito – Filariasis c. Nematode – Schistosomiasis d. Flatworm – Ascariasis
13.Mice that have DNA inserted into their genes from a different animal are termed______. a. athymic b. transgenic c. immune-compromised d. embryonic
14.Pheretima posthuma is the scientific name of ? a. Petromyzon b. Earthworm c. Hag fish d. Vampire bat
15.Animal wool cannot be extracted from: a. Lamas b. Rabbit c. Camel d. Fox
16. One of the following is NOT associated with ob/ob mutant mouse: a. Eats excessively b. Animal model of type II diabetes c. Discovery of hormone leptin d. Discovery of hormone insulin
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17. When a sample is subjected to centrifugal force, which of the following is TRUE ? a. Massive substances sediment slowly b. Particles sediment slowly in denser biological buffer c. Denser susbtances sediment slowly d. Sedimentation rate is zero
18. Mulberry silkworm is: a. Attacus atlas b. Anthraea mylitta c. Bombyx mori d. Anthreaea assamensis
19.In which of the following systems it would be very difficult to find vertebrate fossils? a. Marine b. Riverine c. Terrestrial d. Lacustrine
20.As per the hypothesis of J B S Haldane, life arose from ______. a. primitive soup b. celestial object c. ocean d. RNA
21.The largest gene in humans is______. a. titin b. insulin c. dystrophin d. phosphofructokinase
22.______is a type of post-translational modification of proteins. a. Phosphorylation b. Methylation c. Ubiquitination d. All of these
23. Resin lac is secreted by: b. Trunk of the plant a. Insect c. Fungus d. Stem of the plant
24. Recently in the month of May, infection spread at Malappuram and Kozhikode district of
Kerala was due to: a. Nipah Bacteria b. Nipah Fungus c. Nipah Protozoan d. Nipah Virus
25. ______are genetically haploid male honeybee insects, which possess weak mouthparts and cannot forage for nectar or pollen themselves. a. Drones b. Queen Bee c. Worker Bees d. Soldiers
26. One of the following is the activator of B cell: a. Antigen b. Interferon c. Interleukin 2 d. Antibody
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27. Daughter cells that are formed as a result of meiosis are not similar to the parent cell because: a. Meiosis is completed in two stages b. Prophase is longest phase c. Nucleus size increases in daughter cells d. Crossing over takes place and chromosome number is halved
28. Which of the following values is closest to the resting membrane potential of mammalian cells? a. -20mV b. -60mV c. +60mV d. +20mV
29.The diameter of most animal cells ranges from: a. 1.0 to 10 m b. 0.01 to 0.1 m c. 10 to 100 m d.100 to 1000 m
30.Limulus is referred as “living fossil”. It is also an example of: a. Parallelism b. Anagenesis c. Evolutionary convergence d. Directional selection
31. Identify which factor is not a benefit of grooming: a. Encourage bonding and trust between an animal and its handler b. Improved handling of the animal c. To monitor the general health of an animal d. Allows opportunity to see how an animal likes being bathed
32. Opal is a termination codon represented by_____ triplet codon in RNA a. UUU b. UGA c. UUG d. AGU
33. Proteins tagged with mannose 6-phosphate are transported to: a. Nucleus b. Lysosome c. Mitochondrion d. Golgi apparatus
34. The fundamental cause of sickle-cell disease is a change in the structure of: a. Blood b. Capillaries c. Haemoglobin d. Red cells
35. Dosage compensation in female mammal is known as: a. X-Chromosome inactivation b. Fragmentation of X c. Puff formation d. Ring formation
36. The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is: a. rRNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. snRNA
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37. Identify the zoonotic disease most associated with cats: a. Salmonellosis b. Roundworm c. Toxoplasmosis d. Tuberculosis
38. Patau’s syndrome occurs due to: th th a. Trisomy of 13 chromosome c. b. Trisomy of 10 chromosome th th Trisomy of 18 chromosome d. Trisomy of 6 chromosome
39. Occurrence of reproductive maturity at larval stage by virtue of normal reproductive development but retarded somatic development is referred as: a. Hypermorphosis b. Neoteny c. Progenesis d. Premorphosis
40.The proteins of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) bind and display: a. Antigen fragments b. B cell fragments c. Immunoglobin fragments d. Macrophage fragments
41.In maltose, the linkage is: a. -1-4 linkage b. -1-2 linkage c. -1-4 linkage d. -1-2 linkage
42.The slogan of the world environment day 2018 is : a. Reduce your footprint b. Beat plastics pollution c. Save water d. Save our seas
43.Which of the following have carbohydrate as prosthetic group? a. Glycoprotein b. Lipoprotein c. Nucleoprotein d. Chromoprotein
44. DNA sequences in human genes are similar to the sequence corresponding in chimpanzees genes. The most likely explanation for this statement is ______among the following: a. Humans evolved from chimpanzees b. Chimpanzees evolved from humans c. Humans and Chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor d. Convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities
45.In a family, father is having a disease and mother is normal. The disease is inherited to only daughters and not to the sons. What type of disease is this?
a. Sex linked dominant c. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive d. Sex linked recessive
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46.Night -flying insects have an eye that maximizes light intake. The eye is called: a. Ocelli b. Superposition c. Apposition d. Photomultiplier
47.Which of the following best represents Lamarck’s ideas on the evolutionary process? a. Survival of the fittest b. Neutral drift c. Inheritance of acquired characteristics d. Punctuated equilibrium
48.Species having similar characters coming from a common ancestor is ______. a. Analogous b. Homologous c. Convergent d. Both (a) and (c)
49. The wavelength of absorption is 412 nm. In which type of the electromagnetic spectrum does it lies? a. Visible range b. Microwave c. Ultraviolet d. Infrared
50.Which of the following is a steroid vitamin is: a. A b. D c. E d. K
51.Which of the following is an example of Ichnofossil? a. Teeth b. Tooth mark c. Claw d. Skin
52. Which of the following will prevent cross-contamination within an animal facility? a. Wearing protective clothing b. Separating quarantine animals from study animals c. Disinfecting the equipments d. All of the above are correct
53. Which one of the following technique is used for separation of cell organelles? a. Electrophoresis b. Ultra centrifugation c. Sublimation d. Chromatography
54. Characteristic of smooth muscle fibres are: a. Spindle shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, multinucleate and involuntary b. Spindle shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary c. Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary d. Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary
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55. RNA is genetic material in: a. some virus and prokaryotes b. some viruses only c. some viruses, prokaryotes and primitive eukaryotes d. none of these
56. The antlers of deer is composed of: a. Keratin b. Chitin c. Cartilage d. Bone
57.The effect of a reversible competitive inhibitor can be nullified by: a. Increasing the product concentration b. Increasing the substrate concentration c. Increasing the temperature d. None of these
58.Maximum biodiversity is found at: a. Coral reefs b. Mangrooves c. Tiaga d. Temperate rainforest
59. The primary agency in India which lay down the guidelines and regulations for conducting biomedical research involving animals is: a. CPCSEA b. ICMR c. UGC d. NIH
60. Which of the following indicate the basic differences among Trochophore and Tornaria larvae? a. Trochophore larva develops from determinate blastomeres while Tornaria larva develops from indeterminate blastomeres b. Trochophore larva cannot develop into metamerically segmented animals while tornaria can c. Tornaria larva has only two openings while Trochophore larva has four openings including gillpore and hydropore d. Since Tornaria larva does not have gill pore and hydro pore, the adult animals lack respiratory and excretory systems
61. The torsion stress in the replicating DNA fork is relieved by: a. Gyrase b. Primase c. Ligase d. Polymerase
62. Triploblastic, acoelomate invertebrate phylum is: a. Cnidaria b. Nematoda c. Platyhelminthes d. Mollusca
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63. One of the following microscope is used to observe living cell without staining: a. Phase contrast microscope b. Dark field microscope c. Polarizing microscope d. Bright field microscope
64. A habituated frog of 20C temperature and 60% humidity is transported to a new place where 30C temperature and 85% humidity is recorded. What would be the body temperature of frog at new place? a. Approx. 20C with relative humidity of new place b. Approx. 20C with relative humidity of habituated place c. Approx. 30C with relative humidity of new place d. Approx. 30C with relative humidity of habituated place
65. Which of the following deuterostome is exceptional for the mode of coelom formation? a. Balanoglossus b. Star fish c. Amphioxus d. Frog
66.The phenotypic dihybrid ratio is: a. 1:1 b. 9:3:2:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 9:3:2:2
67.A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list ? a. 74 b. 77 c. 76 d. 80
68.The most abundant biomolecule on the Earth is: a. Nucleic acids b. Proteins c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
69.Binomial nomenclature was given by______. a. A.P. Candolle b. J.B. Lamarck c. Carolus Linnaeus d. Darwin
70.Which of the following class has only right aortic arches? a. Reptilia b. Mammals c. Aves d. both (b) and (c)
71.Persistence of larval trait throughout the life is known as: a. Pedomorphosis b. Meogenesis c. Parthenogenesis d. Paedogenesis
72. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding Km? a. It is the measure of the stability of the ES complex b. It is the measure of the stability of the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate c. A high Km indicates weak substrate binding d. All of these
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73.The symbol of World Wide Fund (W.W.F.) is: a. Tiger b. Giant Panda c. Elephant d. Rhinoceros
74.All of this obeys Mendel’s laws except: a. Dominance b. Independent assortment c. purity of gametes d. Linkage
75.Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: a. fructose b. glucose 1-phosphate c. sucrose d. a-D-glucose
76. Chromosomal segment breaks and reattaches to another position, either within the homologous or non-homologous chromosome is known as: a. Translocation b. Inversion c. Duplication d. Deletion
77.Glycogen in animals are stored in: a. Liver and spleen b. Liver and muscles c. Liver and bile d. Liver and adipose tissue
78.An animal that sacrifices itself for its relatives is exhibiting: a. Learning b. Altruism c. Caring d. Hierarchy
79. A group of individuals of living organisms consisting of similar individual capable of exchanging genes or interbreeding is called: a. Species b. Genus c. Colony d. Community
80. Mosquito Aedes aegypti is NOT a vector of following disease: a. Zika fever b. Dengue fever c. Yellow fever d. Malaria
81. S-phase cells can be visualized in microscope by supplying them with BrdU, an artificial ______analog that are incorporated into newly synthesized DNA. a. adenine b. thymidine c. guanine d. cytosine
82. The scientific name of Indian Bison, Bison bison is an example of: a. Synonym b. Homonym c. Tautonym d. Isonym
83. Which of the following immune cell identify low expression of MHC class I molecule on cancer cells to kill them? a. TC Cells b. Natural Killer cells c. TH cells d. Plasma Cells
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84.A colonial protozoan is: a. Volvox b. Euglena c. Paramecium d. Noctiluca
85.In Grassland Ecology, which one of the following is a top consumer? a. Herbivores b. Producer c. Carnivores d. Decomposer
86.Holandric genes are: a. Genes carried on autosomes b. Genes carried on Y chromosomes c. Genes carried on X chromosomes d. Genes carried on any chromosomes
87. The harmful chemical reacts with ozone molecules when released by chloroflurocarbon and leads to ozone depletion is:
a. Chlorine b. SO2 c. Fluorine d. NO2
88.Logarithms of the odds (LOD) scores are used to predict______. a. Gene sequence b. Cross over frequency c. Gene Linkage d. Number of gene on chromosome
89.In classical condition, initially the salivation occuring by offering food alone is known as: a. Conditional stimulus b. Conditional response c. Unconditional stimulus d. Unconditional response
90.Which syndrome is the result of a structural chromosome abnormality? a. Angelman Syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Patau Syndrome d. Turner Syndrome
91.The specificity of an antibody to react with antigen is due to: a. It’s valence b. Heavy chains c. FC portion of the molecule d. Variable region of heavy and light chain
92.The maximum capacity of population to reproduce under optimal environmental condition is called: a. Acclimatization b. Biotic potential c. Fecundity d. Natality
93. ______are usually defined as a stretch of DNA containing atleast 100 codons that
begins with a start codon and ends with a stop codon. a. Contigs b. Open Reading Frames c. Motifs d. Expressed Sequence Tags
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94. Gnotobiology refers to: a. Study of germ-free animals c. b. Study of transgenic animals Study of diseased animals d. Study of healthy animals
95. The finches evolved at different islands of Galapagos differ from each other by their_____. a. Colour pattern b. Feeding habit c. Beak size d. Sound
96. The earliest direct evidence of life on Earth is ______years ago. a. 4 billion b. 3.5 billion c. 5.3 million d. 6.2 million
97. The study of amphibians and reptiles is known as______. a. Herpetology b. Batrachology c. Ichthyology d. Ornithology
98. Most of the organisms are bound to biological clocks except: a. Tundra animals b. Deep sea organisms c. Mountain dwellers d. Desert animals
99. Wobble hypothesis was proposed by? a. Watson b. Nirenberg c. Crick d. Watson and Crick
100. Normal visual acuity in humans is ______. a. 20/20 b. 15/15 c. 25/25 d. 10/10
THE END
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