Of 23 QUESTION BOOKLET Subject: AGRONOMY Post Applied

QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: AGRONOMY Book No. Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST

Name of the Candidate: …………………………... Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Roll Number: Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES 1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet before filling the Answer sheet 2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test. 3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place. 4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200 marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted. 5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the Question Booklet. 6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in the answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections made if any, will be treated as wrong answer. 7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet. 8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action. 9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator. 10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified. 11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall. ***** Page 1 of 23

Directions for questions 1-100: In each of the following questions, out of the four options given, choose the right answer 1. What is the length of growing period in semi-arid regions? a. 70 – 210 days b. 150 - 210 days c. 90 – 150 days d. More than 270 days

2. The important approach in micro watershed is a. Soil conservation b. Productivity improvement c. Storage of runoff water d. All of these

3. Surface runoff depends on a. Intensity of rain fall b. Amount of rain fall c. Duration of rain fall d. All of these

4. Area with less than 500 mm rain fall is suitable for a. Mono cropping b. Crop holding c. Fallowing d. All of these

5. Major soil type of southern Karnataka is a. Red soil b. Black soil c. Alluvial soil d. Both a & b

6. Which of the following cultural methods will reduce the weed population a. Arresting flowering b. Deep ploughing c. Puddling d. All of these

7. Phalaris minor is a crop associated weed with ………….. crop a. Wheat b. Maize c. Rice d. Cotton

8. Objectives of intercropping are a. Suppression of weeds b. Reduction of pests and diseases c. Stability in yield and income d. All of these

9. The component crops of intercropping should not be a. Competitive b. Suppressive c. Mutually inhibitive d. All the above

10. Phyllotaxy is defined as a. Arrangement of roots b. Arrangement of flowers c. Arrangement of fruits d. Arrangement of leaves

11. After thinning the number of plants per hectare at 50 cm x 20 cm is a. 50000 b. 100000 c. 75000 d. 125000

12. Sesbania rostrata is a. A root nodule plant b. A stem nodule plant c. Both a & b d. None of these

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13. The organic matter content of Indian soils lingers around a. 0.25% b. 0.5% c. 1-2% d. 3.0%

14. About …. % of world’s rice production and consumption is in Asian region a. 50 b. 75 c. 90 d. 25

15. C:N ratio of 80:1 to 100:1 is noticed in a. Legumes b. Cereals c. Oil seeds d. None of these

16. A farmer having two hectare area grows maize in two hectare during kharif and groundnut in one hectare during rabi. The cropping intensity of the farm is a. 100% b. 150% c. 200% d. 300%

17. Water erosion follows the following sequence a. Sheet, Splash, Rill and Gully b. Splash, Rill, Sheet and Gully c. Splash, Sheet, Rill and Gully d. Rill, Splash, Gully and Sheet

18. Ability of rainfall to cause soil erosion is a. Runoff b. Erosivity c. Erodability d. Soil erosion

19. TMC means a. Thousand metre cube b. Thousand million cubic feet c. Ten metre cube d. Ten million cubic feet

20. CAZRI is located at a. Lucknow b. Jodhpur c. Kasaragod d. Cuttack

21. Which part of country has more area of rain-fed rice? a. North b. East c. South d. West

22. In which of the following crops, manual harvesting is done in the early hours of morning a. Potato b. Soybean c. Safflower d. Cowpea

23. Which is a soil active herbicide a. Fluchloralin b. Paraquat c. Isoproturon d. Glyphosate

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24. Which one of the following microbial agents is being commercially exploited as biocontrol agent a. Penecillium notatum b. VAM c. Trichoderma viridae d. Rhizobium

25. Optimum temperature range for cultivation of gram is a. 15-250C b. 25-350C c. 30-350C d. 35-400C

26. Fertilizer application in maize should be completed before a. Tasseling b. Silking c. Ripening d. Knee high stage

27. In agri-horticulture system for arable land the tree component is a. Timber b. Hedge row c. Fruit d. All

28. Which portion of sugarcane stalk should normally be used for sett purpose? a. Bottom one-third to half portion b. Bottom one-fourth portion c. Top one-third to half portion d. Entire cane

29. Country which is pioneer in hybrid rice is a. China b. India c. Philippines d. Japan

30. Suitable herbicide for pigeon pea is a. Alachlor b. Fluchloralin c. Both a and b d. Atrazine

31. Glyphosate is a ------herbicide a. Selective b. Pre emergence c. Non selective d. Pre planting

32. Short duration pulses like cowpea, blackgram and green gram are ideal crops of southern Karnataka for a. Rabi season b. Early kharif c. Late kharif d. None of these

33. Which order explains the soil moisture disappearance in order of preference? a. Hygroscopic water - capillary water b. Capillary water – hygroscopic – gravitational water water– gravitational water c. Gravitational water – capillary d. Capillary water – gravitational water – hygroscopic water water – hygroscopic water

34. Field capacity of black soil is around a. 8-12% b. 12-18% c. 30-40% d. 18-25%

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35. Movement of nutrient ions from soil to plant roots by a. Diffusion b. Mass flow c. Root interception d. All of these

36. The inflorescence of safflower is a. Head b. Arrow c. Spike d. Raceme

37. Which species of sugarcane is known as noble cane? a. Saccharum sinense b. Saccharum barberi c. Saccharum officinarum d. Saccharum robustum

38. Wherever only one irrigation is available, the wheat crop should be irrigated at a. Tillering stage b. Flowering stage c. Milking stage d. CRI stage

39. Coffee belongs to the family a. Theacae b. Rubiaceae c. Poaceae d. Euphorbiaceae

40. The centre of origin of Coffee arabica is a. Brazil b. Ethiopia c. Liberia d. Columbia

41. What is that special operation which is done during tea manufacture so that the end product is green tea a. Steaming the shoots soon after b. Slowing down rolling process plucking to destroy leaf oxidase, the fermentation enzyme c. Alternate rolling & jerking d. All the operations

42. Blackgram is also known as a. Mung b. Urd c. Khesari d. None

43. Which of the following operations is associated with the process of nipping in gram a. Treating the seed with Rhizobium b. Tying the branches to avoid lodging c. Picking green leaves for vegetable d. Plucking the apical buds to purposes promote branches

44. Which of the following soil types are suited for cultivation of groundnut a. Sandy loam soils b. Loam soils c. Black soils with good drainage d. All these soils

45. The diurnal variation in temperature is less at a. Inlands b. Equator c. Coastal areas d. None of the above

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46. Planting of shade trees in coffee plantation is an example of a. Allelopathy b. Annidation in space c. Annidation in time d. None

47. Cultivation of long duration crops will result in…………in Cropping Intensity Index (CII) a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change d. None

48. The world’s most problematic weed is a. Ambrosia b. Parthenium c. Utrica sp d. Cyperus rotundus

49. Under dry land conditions most preferred herbicide for maize is a. Atrazine b. Fluchloralin c. Propanil d. Butachlor

50. If the rate of application per hectare is 3.00 kg a.i., the quantity of Simazine WP (80% a.i.,) required to be sprayed in 0.33 hectare area would be a. 0.50 kg b. 0.75 kg c. 1.25 kg d. 1.87 kg

51. The analytical method most suitable for estimation of available phosphorous in acid soils is a. Olsen’s method b. Mehlich’s method c. Bray & Kurtz’s method d. All

52. The plastic mulch helps to a. Reduce the soil moisture b. Increase the soil moisture c. Increase the soil temperature d. None of the above

53. A green manure crop would a. Increase nitrogen content b. Lower water penetration c. Decrease aeration d. None of the above

54. The ICRISAT was established in ……………. year a. 1987 b. 1972 c. 1967 d. None of these

55. What is crop rotation? a. Growing of crops one after other b. Growing more than one crop at a time c. Growing of an associate crop in d. Growing of crops together in between the rows of the main crop strips

56. The ratio between evapotranspiration of crop and potential evapotranspiration is called a. Water coefficient b. Irrigation coefficient c. Crop coefficient d. All of these

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57. The term trickle irrigation is used synonymously with a. Sprinkle irrigation b. Drip irrigation c. Micro sprinkler irrigation d. Both a and c

58. The amount of water consumed by the crop to the total volume of water delivered through irrigation is called as a. Irrigation efficiency b. Water conveyance efficiency c. Water application efficiency d. Water distribution efficiency

59. Which nutrient stimulates flowering and also aid in seed formation? a. Phosphorous b. Potassium c. Ca & Mg d. Sulphate

60. A fertilizer which supplies three essential plant nutrients is a. DAP b. MoP c. SSP d. SoP

61. The law of Minimum was given by a. Juston Von Liebig b. Spillman c. Mitcherlich d. Thomas Way

62. Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas a. Oxygen b. Ammonia c. Chlorine d. Methane

63. Ideal pH for coffee cultivation……… a. 4.0-4.5 b. 5.0-5.5 c. 6.0-6.5 d. 7.0-7.5

64. Lime requirement is calculated by a. Shoemaker & other method b. Schoonover method c. Chepil & Woodruff method d. White & Beckett method

65. Which of the following is the critical symptom of boron deficiency in Cauliflower? a. Young curds developing small b. Turning brown, necrotic & decay water-soaked areas c. Petioles developing small blisters d. All of the above

66. Which of the following nutrient is highly immobile in plants? a. B b. Mg c. K d. P

67. Inbred lines that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called a. Multi lines b. Monohybrid c. Isogenic lines d. Pure lines

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68. The most ground water polluting fertilizers are…….. a. Nitrate fertilizers b. Ammonical fertilizers c. Potassic fertilizers d. Amide fertilizers

69. Potassic fertilizer most suitable for potato & tobacco is a. Murate of Potash b. Sulphate of Potash c. Schoenite d. All

70. Which of the following mechanical soil conservation measures is more suitable for fruit trees or other plantation crops on steep slopes? a. Contour bunds b. Half-moon terraces c. Graded bunds d. Bench terraces

71. The study of relationship between soil properties and plant production is known as a. Soil science b. Agronomy c. Edaphology d. Pedology

72. The depth of the seedling in wheat depends on the length of a. Mesocotyl b. Radicle c. Coleoptile d. Plumule

73. Indian Seed Act was enacted in the year a. 1961 b. 1971 c. 1966 d. 1976

74. Blast of rice is a ….. disease a. Viral b. Bacteria c. Fungal d. Deficiency of zinc

75. Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation? a. Reduced water application b. Reduced plant density c. Increased application of chemical d. Reduced age of seedlings fertilizers

76. The Indian state, which is the largest producer of saffron is a. Maharashtra b. Rajasthan c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Tamilnadu

77. Segregation of gene occurs in a. F1 generation b. F2 generation c. Gamete formation of F1 d. F3 generation

78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of dryland crop? a. Potential for high yield b. Fertilizer responsive c. High water requirement d. Strong root system

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79. A year in which rainfall of a particular place is short by more than ------is known as drought year a. Twice the mean deviation b. Twice the standard deviation c. Twice the median d. Twice the standard error

80. The broad beds and furrows method is suitable for a. Sandy soil b. Loamy soil c. Black soil d. All of these

81. When all the pores are filled with water and the soil is said to be saturated this condition is termed as: a. Maximum water holding capacity b. Field capacity c. Water holding capacity d. None

82. Which oil contains maximum linoleic acid: a. Safflower b. Groundnut c. Cotton d. Mustard

83. The scientist who is considered as the father of Taxonomy is? a. Mendel b. Darwin c. Linnaeus d. Lamark

84. The process through which energy is released by plants? a. Transpiration b. Respiration c. Photosynthesis d. None of these

85. The crop also sown for green manuring is? a. Safflower b. Sorghum c. Green gram d. Mustard

86. First KVK of India was established at? a. Hyderabad b. Nagpur c. Chennai d. Pondicherry

87. The organization related to export of Agricultural processed produce is a. FCI b. APEDA c. NABARD d. CACP

88. Which of the following insecticide has fumigant action? a. DDVP b. Malathion c. Cypermethrin d. Dimethoate

89. If one gram of pesticide formulation containing 50 % active ingredient is mixed with 1 litre of water, then what will be concentration of the active ingredient in the spray fluid? a. 5 ppm b. 50 ppm c. 500 ppm d. 5000 ppm

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90. Following fungus is effective on root grubs a. Fusarium sp. b. Beauveria sp. c. Nomuraea rileyi d. Mettarrhizium anisopliae

91. If fertility variation in the field is in two directions at right angles, which of the experimental design is suitable. a. CRBD b. RBD c. Latin Square d. Split Plot

92. Correlation coefficient is, a. More than + 1 b. Less than – 1 c. Lies between – 1 and + 1 d. None of the above

93. Coefficient of variation is useful for comparing, a. Comparison between different b. Same population populations c. Both of the above d. None of these

94. In an experimental plot 7 rows were sown with 50 cm row spacing and 5 m length, while harvesting one row on either side of the plots were discarded. The net plot size will be; a. 2.0 x 5.0 m b. 2.5 x 5.0 m c. 4.0 x 5.0 m d. 3.5 x 5.0 m

95. In a field experiment the net plot size was 2.5 x 4.0 m and the yield were recorded in kg. What is the conversion factor for q /ha.? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 50

96. In a fertilizer trial 40 kg N / ha. has to be applied to the plot of 10.00 sq. m. area. What quantity of Urea is needed? a. 95 g b. 87 g c. 98 g d. 115 g

97. Standard deviation is, a. Expressed in the same unit of b. Free from unit of measurements measurements c. It is in percentage d. None of these

98. The randomization of treatments in the field experiment is essential: a. As statistical procedures hold good b. To average out the effects of when randomization is done environment differences c. For comparison of treatment effects d. None of the above

99. Local control helps in a. Reducing the experimental error b. Homogeneity of experimental units c. Both of the above d. None of the above

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100. Basic principles of filed experiments are a. Randomization b. Replication c. Local control d. All of these

Directions for the questions 101 to 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 101. My daughter never (a) would write to me (b) so I never know (c) what she is doing(d) 102. Nowadays, the cost of living (a) is so high that (b) people find it difficult(c) to make both ends meeting (d) 103. Nothing ever becomes real (a) till it is experienced (b) Even a proverb is no proverb to you (c) till your life has illustrated with it. (d) 104. The house where the dead man was found (a) is being guarded by police (b) to prevent it from being entered (c) and the evidence interfered with. (d)

Directions for the questions 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 105. The government has ready (a) adopted (b) many recommendations (c) of the Narasimhan Committee on banking sector reforms (d) 106. The guidelines (a) of the new scheme (b) are expected (c) to be finally (d) soon 107. In case of any land dispute (a) Panchayat officials (b) will determine (c) how the property is to be dividend (d) Directions for the questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 108. We are proud to say that today ______26 per cent of our total accounts are ______by women and senior citizens. a. approximate, held b. nearly, authorized c. over, maintain d. around, operated

109. Although religion does not ______the acquisition of wealth, the tenor of its teaching is to ______an attitude of indifference to worldly things. a. proclaim, prohibit b. inhibit, induce c. manifest, proud d. delink, develop

110. If we study the lives of great men we are ______that we too can achieve greatness and when we die, we leave behind our ______a. convinced, children c. reminded, footmarks b. conveyed, followers d. commended, belongings

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111. India’s ______over the past half century since independence has been unique and ______in many ways. a. thinking, feeling b. development, commendable c. victory, celebrating d. crash, overbearing

Directions for the questions 112 to 116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 112. CANDID a. Rude b. Impertinent c. Blunt d. Frank

113. PROGNOSIS a. Identification b. Preface c. Forecast d. Scheme

114. EFFACE a. Wipe out b. Weaken c. Insult d. Repair

115. STAID a. Depressive b. Sedate c. Backward d. Dull

116. PLACID a. Clear b. Calm c. Enjoyable d. Dull

Directions for the questions 117 to 121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 117. CULPABLE a. Irresponsible b. Careless c. Blameless d. Defendable

118. DENOUNCE a. Defend b. Gather c. Fight d. Rally

119. VILIFY a. Commend b. Pray c. Admonish d. Worship

120. MORBID a. Healthy b. Clever c. Upright d. Sickly

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121. DEFIANCE a. Dismay b. Suspicion c. Obedience d. Anxiety

Directions for the questions 122 - 125: In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

122. A person living permanently in a certain place a. Native b. Resident c. Domicile d. Subject

123. Relationship by blood or birth a. Parentage b. Affiliation c. Consanguinity d. Nepotism

124. A person who makes love without serious intentions a. Consort b. Philanderer c. Romeo d. Goon

125. One who cannot die a. Stable b. Immortal c. Perpetual d. Perennial

126. To be at loggerheads a. To have tough encounter b. To be at enmity or strife c. To face stiff opposition d. To tax one’s mind & body

127. To give up the ghost a. To die b. To make false appearance c. To terrify others by acting in d. To leave useless pursuits suspicious manner

128. To lose one’s head a. To go mad b. To become nervous c. To become confused and over d. To lose the balance excited

129. To be at daggers drawn a. To be frightened b. To be ready to face danger c. To threaten one d. To be bitter enemy

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Directions for the questions 130 to 133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130. They are building a house next door to our school. a. Next door to our school a house is b. Next door to our school is being being built by them. built a house by them. c. A house next door to our school is d. A house is being built by them being built by them. next door to our school.

131. Who is creating this mess? a. Who has created this mess? b. By whom has this mess been created? c. By whom this mess is being d. By whom is this mess being created? created?

132. A lion may be helped even by a little mouse. a. A little mouse may even help a lion. b. Even a little mouse may help a lion. c. A little mouse can even help a lion. d. Even a little mouse ought to help a lion.

133. The noise of the traffic kept me awake a. I remained awake by the noise of b. I was kept awake by the noise of the traffic the traffic c. I was kept awakened by the noise of d. The traffic kept me awake by the the traffic noise Directions for the questions 134 - 137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 134. Pinky said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?” a. Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b. Pinky questioned to Gaurav that help her in her work just then. will you help me in my work just now. c. Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d. Pinky asked to Gaurav that will help her in her work just now. he help her in her work just now.

135. Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.” a. Sarita told me that I would do it b. Sarita told me that she would do it then or never. now or never. c. Sarita told me that she will do that d. Sarita told me that she would do it now or never. then or never.

136. She said to him, “why don’t you go today? a. She said to him that why he don’t b. She asked him if he was going go today. that day. c. She asked him why he did not go d. She asked him why he did not go today. that day.

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137. He said to me, “Where is the post office? a. He wanted to know where the post b. He asked me that where the post office was. office was. c. He asked me where the post office d. He asked me where was the post was. office.

Directions for the questions 138 - 139: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. 138. a. Sacrilegeous b. Sacrilegious c. Sacriligious d. Sacreligious

139. a. Delinquescent b. Deliquecent c. Deliquescent d. Delinquesent

Directions for the questions 140 - 141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis-spelt word 140. a. Lonesome b. Lovely c. Ludicruous d. Logical

141. a. Handicraft b. Hand bar c. Handkerchef d. Handicap

Directions for the questions 142 to 145: In this type of questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination. 142. (1) After a laborious life (P) and moved to the quiet village where he was born (Q) most of which he had spent in the metropolis (R) and where he intended to spend (S) he retired in his old age (6) his remaining years a. QRPS b. QSPR c. SPQR d. SQPR

143. (1) Though the exact dimensions (P) involved in the rocket (Q) and the precise amounts (R) it is clear that such a large scale operation (S) are yet to be ascertained (6) could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels a. PSRQ b. QPSR c. RQPS d. SPRQ

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144. (1) In spite of repeated attempts, (P) in the dictionary (Q) and finally had to ask his teacher (R) he could not locate (S) the strange – looking word (6) what it meant a. PQRS b. SPQR c. QRSP d. RSPQ

145. (1) If the sovereignty (P) of the people and their elected representatives, (Q) and the unity (R) in the hands (S) of a country is not safe (6) it cannot be safe in any other hands a. PQRS b. QSRP c. RPQS d. SRPQ

Directions for the questions 146 to 150: Comprehension : Read the passage and answer the questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment

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output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four- fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.

146. Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from increased agricultural production? i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate. ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage? a. Reduction b. Index c. Inflation d. Improvement

148. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? a. Increase in labour productivity in b. Agriculture sector can provide the agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost c. Increase in food supply will d. Concentration of low-income increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher forces. in the non-agricultural sector.

149. Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India? a. Widespread import of food-grains b. Oversupply of agricultural products c. Increase in prices of industrial d. Foresight in gauging the demand- products supply of labour

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150. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as used in the passage? a. Correlated b. Dependence c. Independence d. Interrelated

151. Indian standard time is related to longitude of a. 82.58oE b. 80.00oE c. 82.00oE d. 90.00oE

152. North East Monsoon gets rainfall mainly to which states a. Assam b. Uttar Pradesh c. Tamil Nadu d. Himachal Pradesh

153. Largest Tea producing county in the world a. China b. Kenya c. India d. Sri Lanka

154. During the visit of Prime Minister of India to China, agreements were signed on establishment of sister cities between India and China. Which one of the following WAS NOT one of them a. Aurangabad and Dunhuang b. Chennai and Chongqing c. Guwahati and Kunming d. Hyderabad and Qingdao

155. Recently UNESCO has designated ……….. as members of creative city network a. Varanasi and Jaipur b. Hyderabad and Secendrabad c. Hubli and Dharwad d. None

156. Which among the water bodies separate the Andaman and Nicobar Island a. Eight Degree Channel b. Ten Degree Channel c. Palk Strait d. Strait of Malacca

157. Which one of the following is NOT true of the post-World War global trading system? a. GATT was signed in 1947 b. GATT was a forum for trade negotiations among contracting parties c. WTO replaced GATT as an interim d. The Headquarters of WTO is forum located in Geneva

158. Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog? a. Nandan Nilekani b. Bibek Debroy c. Sindhushree Khullar d. Amitabh Kant

159. Who among the following was the author of the book ‘Advantage India-From Challenge to Opportunity’? a. Amratya Sen b. Vinod Rai c. APJ Abdul Kalam d. T S Papola

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160. Soils of Western Rajasthan have a high content of: a. Aluminum b. Calcium c. Nitrogen d. Phosphorus

161. Which one of the following is not the means of enforcing responsibility upon the cabinet? a. Questioning Ministers b. Vote of censure c. Call attention motion d. No confidence motion

162. Mixed economy means: a. Co-existence of small and large b. Promoting both agriculture and industries industries in the economy c. Co-existence of public and private d. Co-existence of rich and poor sectors

163. Googly is a ball in cricket bounded by a. Fast bowler bowling outside off b. Leg spinner bowling with off spin stump action c. Fast bowler bowling outside leg d. None of these stump

164. Department of Space is located at a. Hyderabad b. Allahabad c. Bengaluru d. Delhi

165. Who designed National Flag of India a. Bankimchandra Chatterji b. Rajendra Prasad c. Pingali Venkayya d. None of these

166. The year 2016 has been declared by the UN as the a. International year of youth b. International year of pulses c. International year of Bio diversity d. International year of soil

167. During 2015, India ranks out of 188 countries with a Human Index Value a. 133 b. 130 c. 136 d. 140

168. Using which powers vested into it under article 142 of the constitution, Supreme Court of India has recently appointed the Lokayukta in which of the following state? a. Uttar Pradesh b. Bihar c. Delhi d. Gujarat

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169. During June 2015, India’s Mars Orbiter Mission ‘Mangalyaan’ had a communication break with the ISR Scientists for about a fortnight. Which of the following statements with regard to that is/are correct? 1. The communication break occurred due to the positioning of Earth, the Sun & Mars aligning themselves in one line 2. The Sun disrupts the radio transmissions between the two planets during the alignment 3. During this period the Mangalyaan could not take any decision as there was no signal from ISRO a. 1 and 3 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

170. Which of the following committees has been recently submitted its report on ‘Possible Tax rates under GST’? a. Y V Reddy Committee b. C Rangarajan Committee c. A P Shah Committee d. Arvind Subramanian Committee

171. Who became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for Women (NCW)? a. Sunil Kanoria b. Ashok Chawla c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Alok Rawat

172. Tulbul project is associated with the river: a. Beas b. Ravi c. Jhelum d. Sutlej

173. Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a. Barua Committee b. Ramaswamy Committee c. Sikri Committee d. Swarn Singh Committee

174. Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units? a. Sugar b. Cotton Textile c. Jute d. Cement

175. Mahatma Gandhi’s famous Dandi March took place in the year a. 1940 b. 1935 c. 1925 d. 1930 176. The central path of an atom is called a. Proton b. Nucleus c. Neutron d. Electron 177. The number of languages recognized by Indian constitution a. 15 b. 22 c. 30 d. 10

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178. According to IMF, the Indian economy is expected to grow at how many percentage in 2016-17 fiscal a. 7.0% b. 6.5% c. 8.0% d. 7.5%

179. Apurvi Chandela has qualified for Rio Olympic in which of the following sports? a. Badminton b. Shooting c. Boxing d. Weight Lifting

180. Who founded Aligarh Muslim University? a. Mohammad Ali Jinnah b. Abdul Kalam c. Syed Ahmed Khan d. Liaquat Ali Khan

181. Who is the general secretary of UN presently? a. Barrack Obama b. Ban Ki-moon c. B B Ghali d. Kofi Annan

182. The initiative Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF) was launched by which of the following organizations? a. Uniited Nations b. World Bank c. UNFCC d. G20

183. Where did COP (UNFCC) summit 2015 took place? a. New Delhi b. London c. Paris d. Bejing

184. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan Railway? a. Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, b. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Kerala Tamil Nadu, Kerala c. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Tamil d. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu Nadu

185. Which one of the following schedules in not directly related to the functioning of the Indian Federal system? a. First Schedule b. Second Schedule c. Fourth Schedule d. Seventh Schedule

186. Which city is known as Electronic City: a. Gurgaon b. Bengaluru c. Jaipur d. Salem (Tamil Nadu)

187. Which of the following countries has recently launched Dark Matter Particle Explorer (DAMPE) satellite to shed light on mysterious dark matter? a. Japan b. China c. USA d. India

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188. Temple of Bel , which for nearly 2,000 years has been the centre of religious life in Palmyra, was recently destroyed by the ISIS. Palmyra is a city of which of the following country? a. Turkey b. Iraq c. Syria d. Lebanon

189. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat cess on services (as of 15 November 2015)? a. 0.25% b. 0.50% c. 0.75% d. 1.00%

190. Which of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been illegally detained? a. Quo Warranto b. Mandamus c. Certiorari d. Habeas Corpus

191. CAPART is related with: a. Assisting and evaluating rural b. Computer hardware welfare programmes c. Consultant service of export d. Controlling pollution in big promotion industries

192. A rainy day as defined by the Indian Meteorological Department is a day when the rainfall at a point received is: a. 0.5 mm to 1.00 mm in 24 hours b. 1.1 mm to 1.50 mm in 24 hours c. 1.60 mm to 2.00 mm in 24 hours d. Above 2.50mm in 24 hours

193. Satyajit Ray : Film, Picasso : ? a. Painting b. Drama c. Poetry d. Literature

194. Who is the current Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh? a. Nabam Tuki b. Dorjee Khandu c. Gegong Apong d. Pema Khandu

195. Which of the following state in India has the largest area under forest? a. Himachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Assam d. Kerala

196. Which one of the following Indian state is the largest producer of natural rubber? a. Tamil Nadu b. Assam c. Kerala d. Karnataka

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197. In the early atmosphere of earth, before the origin of life, which one of the following was not present? a. Ammonia b. Free hydrogen c. Free oxygen d. Methane

198. In India which form of coal is mainly used in thermal power plants? a. Anthracite b. Lignite c. Bituminous d. Peat

199. Which one of the following is not an African country? a. Cameroon b. Gabon c. Yemen d. Mauritania

200. Which of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal? a. Written and rigid constitution b. Distribution of powers between the centre and states c. An independent judiciary d. Vesting of residuary powers with the centre

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QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: BIOCHEMISTRY Booklet No. Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST Name of the Candidate: …………………………... Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator Roll Number:

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Directions for the questions 1 – 100 : Choose the right answer from the given options

1. Xanthophylls are ...... in colour? a. Red b. Yellow c. Purple d. White

2. Urease is related to? a. Cu2+ b. Mn2+ c. Ni2+ d. Mg2+

3. The structural polysaccharide abundantly present in plant cell wall is: a. Chitin b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Inulin

4. An amino acid with imidazole “R” group is: a. L-Arginine b. Tyrosine c. L- L-Histidine d. L-Tryptophan

5. The protein component of holoenzyme is called as: a. Coenzyme b. Apoenzyme c. Proenzyme d. None of the above

6. Iodine number of an oil signifies: a. Rancidity b. Carbon chain length c. Degree of unsaturation d. None of these

7. The α-helix of proteins represents ------structure: a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary

8. The backbone structure of DNA is made up of: a. Alternate sugar-phosphate b. Purine bases c. Pyrimidine bases d. None of these

9. The RNA species which is also known as an acceptor RNA is: a. m-RNA b. r-RNA c. t-RNA d. hn-RNA

10. Coenzyme-A is derivative of the vitamin: a. Niacin b. Pantothenic acid c. Folic acid d. Ascorbic acid

11. The initiation codon in protein biosynthesis is: a. UAG b. AGU c. AUG d. GUA

12. In the cell, glycolytic pathway takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus c. Cytosol d. Chloroplast

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13. Which of the following is a nucleoside a. Adenine b. Adenosine c. Adenosine-5'-monophosphate d. None of these

14. β-oxidation of fatty acid takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus c. Cytosol d. Endoplasmic reticulum

15. Role of Lipoic acid in oxidized form in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex reaction? a. Oxidizes FADH2 b. Accepts a acetyl group from reduced lipoic acid c. Oxidizes the reduced form of d. Initial electron acceptor in oxidation lipoic acid of pyruvate

16. α-keratin is a. Fibrous protein rich in b. Transmembrane protein Cysteine residues c. A protein with a large d. A protein with large number of proportions of β-sheets and intramolecular and intermolecular almost devoid of α-helices covalent linkages

17. The amino acid that contains disulphide linkage is: a. Methionine b. Cystine c. Cysteine d. Homocysteine.

18. The shikimic acid pathway is common to bacteria, fungi and plants, but is not found in...... a. Animals b. Viruses c. Both a & b d. None of the above

19. Carotenoids are...... a. Monoterpene b. Diterpene c. Tetraterpenes d. None of the above

20. Which among the following is determinant of human blood group? a. Quinovose b. Kestose c. Fucose d. Xylitol

21. The colour of the tomato fruit is due the presence of a. Flavonols b. Anthocyanins c. Carotenoids d. None of the above

22. Which enzyme is involved in gluconeogenesis? a. Glucose-6-P-dehydrogenase b. Phosphoglucomutase c. Glyceraldehyde kinase d. Glucose-6-phosphatase

23. According to ...... law, each layer of equal thickness absorbs an equal fraction of the light that traverses it. a. Beer’s law b. Lambert’s law c. Stefan-Boltzmann law d. None of the above Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 3 of 22

24. Which of the following is a ω-3 fatty acid? a. Alpha-linolenic acid b. Gamma-linolenic acid c. Arachidonic acid d. Linoleic acid

25. The light emitting group in Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) is a derivative of following three consecutive amino acids a. Phenylalanine, tryptophan b. Serine, tyrosine and glycine and tyrosine c. Histidine, glutamic acid and d. Glycine, alanine and cysteine phenylalanine

26. DNA with alternate purine and pyrimidines exists in which form? a. A-form b. B-form c. C-form d. Z-form

27. The most rapid method to resynthesise ATP during exercise is through: a. Glycolysis b. Gluconeogenesis c. Phosphocreatine breakdown d. Tricarboxylic acid cycle

28. How many enzymes are required in Calvin cycle? a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. None of the above

29. First enzyme to be isolated in pure crystalline form is a. Invertase b. Diastase c. Zymase d. Urease

30. An excellent example of inducible enzyme in higher plant is a. Nitrate reductase b. α-amylase c. Both d. None of the above

31. The active site of enzymes is formed by some of its a. Exposed sulphur bonds b. Carboxyl groups of amino acids c. Amino groups of amino acid d. None of the above

32. The modern system of enzyme classification was introduced by International Union of Biochemistry (IUB) in a. 1961 b. 1962 c. 1963 d. None of the above

33. The unit of molar extinction coefficient is a. L.mole-1.cm-1 b. mole-1.cm-1 c. L.mole.cm-1 d. M-1.cm-1

34. Rubisco activase causes the activation of Rubisco by a. Decarbamylation of an b. Facilitating the removal of 2- active site lysine residue of carboxyarabinitol-1-phosphate Rubisco (CA1P) from Rubisco c. ADP-ribosylation of Rubisco d. Binding RuBP to the E-form of Rubisco Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 4 of 22

35. Which one of the following is a fatty acid polyester? a. Pectin b. Agar c. Lignin d. Suberin

36. Which of the following proteins is absent in H1N1 virus? a. Nucleocapsid protein b. Haemagglutinin c. Neuraminidase d. Hexosaminidase

37. Glucose and Galactose are a. Enantiomers b. Epimers c. Exomers d. Anomers

38. Which of the following is not a dietary antioxidant? a. Vitamin C b. Beta carotene c. Vitamin K d. Lipoic acid

39. Plant cell walls contain a. Proteoglycan b. Peptidoglycan c. Pectin d. Glycosaminoglycan

40. Flip-flop movement is also known as a. Lateral diffusion b. Transverse diffusion c. Both d. None of the above

41. Which of the following lipid is commonly found in biological membranes? a. Monoglycerides b. Diglycerides c. Triglycerides d. None of the above

42. A universal hydrogen acceptor in electron transport system is a. ATP b. UDP c. FMN d. NAD

43. How many water molecules will be released to make a nucleotide from a nucleoside? a. One b. Two c. Three d. None of the above

44. Most proteins bind SDS in the ratio of a. 0.6g SDS/ g protein b. 4g SDS/ g protein c. 2g SDS/ g protein d. 1.4g SDS/ g protein

45. A nucleoside consists of which of the following? a. Phosphate and pentose sugar b. Pentose sugar and organic base c. Phosphate and organic base d. Pentose, base and phosphate

46. Among the followings, which of the DNA polymerase is involved in DNA repair only? a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II c. DNA polymerase III d. None of the above

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47. One-gene-one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by a. Lederberg b. Southern c. Woodward d. Beadle and Tatum

48. t RNA is found in which of the following part of the cell? a. ER b. Cytoplasm c. Vacuole d. None of the above

49. Removal of unwanted base of hn-RNA is known as a. Restricting b. Splicing c. Both d. None of the above

50. Synthesis of new complementary polynucleotide chain over the old polynucleotide chain of mother DNA is known as a. Replication b. Translation c. Transcription d. None of the above

51. Long-lived mRNA is found in which of the following? a. Roots b. Seeds c. Leaves d. None of the above

52. Photosynthesis and respiration both requires a. Cytochromes b. Chlorophyll c. Sunlight d. Carbohydrates

53. An optically inactive amino acid is a. Valine b. Glycine c. Proline d. Alanine

54. Chemical commonly used for somatic hybridization is a. EtBr b. CTAB c. PEG d. SDS

55. What enzyme do cows have that allows digestion of cellulose? a. Alpha amylase b. Beta amylase c. Beta lactase d. Beta hydroxyl beta methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase

56. Sulphur containing amino acids which constitute proteins are a. Cysteine and methionine b. Methionine and histidine c. Cysteine and serine d. None of the above

57. Sodium hydroxide present in it’s 100 ml of 1 N solution is a. 2 g b. 40 g c. 4 g d. 20 g

58. Which of the following is the example of disaccharides? a. Sucrose b. Maltose c. Lactose d. All of the above Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 6 of 22

59. Amalgam is a mixture of a. Any non-metal and chlorine b. Any metal and mercury c. Any metal and fluorine d. Any non-metal and lead

60. Name the organic compound which undergoes simultaneous oxidative decarboxylation during Krebs cycle a. α-ketoglutarate b. Succinate c. Malate d. None of the above

61. Ubiquitin is a protein required for? a. Protein synthesis b. Protein degradation c. Amino acid degradation d. Glycoprotein degratation

62. Chromatography was first developed by a. Tswett b. Kendrew c. Cech d. Perutz

63. Phenylalanine is the precursor of a. Throxine b. Histamine c. L-DOPA d. Tyrosine

64. Galactose is a main constituent of a. Milk sugar b. Cane sugar c. Honey d. Chitin

65. Pasteur effect is a. Inhibition of glycolysis b. Oxygen is involved c. Inhibition of enzyme d. All of these phosphofructokinase

66. Iodine test is positive for starch, dextrin and a. Mucoproteins b. Agar c. Glycogen d. Cellulose

67. A cup of strong coffee would be expected to a. Interfere with the synthesis b. Decrease the effect of glucagon of prostaglandins c. Enhance the effect of d. Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid epinephrine

68. Body water is regulated by the hormone: a. Oxytocin b. ACTH c. FSH d. Epinephrine

69. The phospholipids present in cytoplasmic membrane of eubacteria are mainly: a. Phosphoglycerides b. Polyisoprenoid c. Phospholipoprotein d. None of these

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70. Yeast play an important role in the alcohol industry, converting pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol by the process of a. Glycolysis b. Respiration c. Fermentation d. Krebs cycle

71. ANOVA was defined by a. Pearson b. Howzard c. Ebberhart d. Fisher

72. The Central Agricultural University is located at a. Manipur b. Hyderabad c. Bangalore d. Chennai

73. Profit maximization is the objective of which farming system? a. Peasant farming b. State farming c. Capitalistic Co-operative d. Co-operative farming farming

74. Which of the following fertilizers are not produced in India a. Nitrogen b. Potassium c. Phosphorous d. Gypsum

75. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells of C4 plant is a. Malic enzyme b. PEP carboxylase c. PEP carboxykinase d. RuBisCO

76. Botanically pineapple fruit is a. Sorosis b. Balusta c. Berry d. Poem

77. ‘Roughing’ is performed to a. Control of disease in plants b. Control of weeds from crops c. Removal of plants other than d. None of the above the desired ones

78. CIMMYT is working mainly for a. Wheat b. Maize and wheat c. Rice d. Cotton

79. Haploids are having a. Somatic chromosome number b. Small chromosome c. Very long chromosome d. Gametic chromosome number

80. In order to supply 40:30:40 kg Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P2O5) & Potash (K2O) respectively, how many kg of Urea, DAP & Potash are required. a. 61, 66, 67 b. 87, 63, 67 c. 71, 68 , 67 d. 62, 70, 67

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81. Which one can be called as Dry land farming? a. When rainfall received is less b. When rainfall received is less then then 1000 mm 500 mm c. When rainfall received is less d. When rainfall received is less then then 750 mm 1500 mm

82. Most commonly followed method of planting of black gram in India is a. Direct seeding in rows b. Transplanting on raised seed beds c. Direct seeding in puddle beds d. Transplanting in standing water in puddle fields

83. The edible part in cauliflower is called as? a. Panicle b. Bolt c. Curd d. Caryopsis

84. In India, the most common method of irrigating crops is? a. Drip b. Sprinkler c. Check Basin d. Border strip

85. Which of the following is the biennial vegetable? a. Cucumber b. Tomato c. Carrot d. Chilli

86. The father of modern biology is? a. Aristotle b. Lamarck c. Mendel d. Darwin

87. A soil may be called as alkaline when the pH of the soil is more than a. 6.5 b. 7.0 c. 5.5 d. 5.0

88. Which insect of mango has quarantine importance? a. Hoppers b. Mealy bugs c. Fruit fly d. None of these

89. Which of these is a cultural method for controlling insects? a. Crop rotation b. Quarantine c. Window screens d. Sex pheromone traps

90. In which insect, ovipositor is modified into spine? a. Hoppers b. Thrips c. Wasp d. Termites

91. Which is not a measure of dispersion? a. Mode b. Range c. Mean deviation d. Standard deviation

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92. In null hypothesis, the chi – square is a. 1 b. 0 c. 2 d. 3

93. The coefficient of variation (C.V) is calculated by the formula a. (Mean / S.D.) x 100 b. S.D. / Mean c. (S.D./ Mean) x 100 d. Mean / S.D.

94. Correlation coefficient ‘ r ’ lies between a. 0 and 1 b. -1 and 1 c. -1 and 0 d. 0 and 2

95. The relationship between Arithmetic mean (A), Harmonic mean (H) and geometric mean (G) is a. G2 = AH b. G = A + H c. H2 = GA d. A2 = GH

96. X2 test is applied to a. Quantative observations b. Qualitative observations c. In both the cases d. None of the above

97. As a general rule, the number of classes in the frequency distribution should be about a. 30 b. 15 c. 18 d. 06

98. The best measure of Dispersion / Spread is a. Coefficientofvariation b. Standard Deviation c. Both a and b d. None of the above

99. Which is used to measure the average relationship between two or more variables? a. Regression b. Correlation c. Both a and b d. None of the above

100. Repeated application of treatments a. Randomization b. Local control c. Replication d. All of the above

Directions for question 101 - 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.

101 (a) The ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey (b) on trade unions each year (c) gathering information with all (d) labour unions as of June 30. 102 (a) He telephoned from a public call – box (b) so that the call (c) would not be traced (d) to his own address

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103 (a) We were happy that (b) the audience responded well (c) and gave all the speakers (d) a patiently listening 104 (a) The limitations and constrains with which (b) we have been managing our work (c) have been duly realized (d) by our superiors

105 In our opinion these (a) norms are not (b) applicant in this (c) kind (d) of situation. 106 As per your (a) request this is a (b) detail list of our (c) basic (d) requirements. 107 Though the government (a) initiated a large (b) sum of money in the (c) scheme, it was a (d) failure.

Directions for questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 108. A company can ______the potential of its employees ______various training programmes. a. emphasise, for b. exploit, from c. enhance, through d. appraise, by

109. A good management will decide not only the ______for equipment but also its ______for deciding priorities. a. need, urgency b. usefulness, utility c. cost, value d. requirement, necessities

110. If the system ______to yield the desired result, try to ______the whole procedure in the given sequence. a. entitles, dump b. ignores, reproduce c. fails, reoperate d. imitates, generate

111. We must _____ according to the situation as we wear _____ clothes during winter. a. observe, pretty b. plan, plain c. change, warm d. appear, attractive

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 112. FEIGN a. elaborate b. pretend c. drag d. condone

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113. AMBITION a. expectation b. desire c. aspiration d. goal 114. BROWSE a. strike b. examine c. deceive d. heal

115. AUDACIOUS a. obvious b. daring c. manifest d. venture

116. COY a. beautiful b. sweet c. talented d. shy

Directions for questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

117. BRIDGE a. divide b. bind c. release d. open

118. NADIR a. progress b. liberty c. zenith d. modernity

119. CONCEAL a. unfold b. reveal c. open d. discover

120. UNREALISTIC a. natural b. visionary c. reasonable d. actual

121. ELUDE a. pursue b. to escape c. quicken d. mock

Directions for questions122 to 125: In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

122. Custom of having many wives a. Monogamy b. Bigamy c. Polygamy d. Matrimony

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123. To cause troops etc. to spread out in readiness for battle a. Align b. Collocate c. Deploy d. Disperse

124. The policy of extending a country’s empire and influence a. Imperialism b. Capitalism c. Internationalism d. Communism

125. The short remaining end of a cigarette a. Stump b. Stub c. Rag d. Scrap

Directions for questions 126 to 129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

126.By the skin of one’s teeth a. Hardly b. In time c. Hurriedly d. Only just

127.A chip off the old block a. A piece of wood b. An old friend c. Characteristics of one’s d. A good bargain ancestors

128.Harp on a. To comment b. To criticize c. To keep on talking d. To keep on insulting

129. To hit below the belt a. To work confidently b. To harm unfairly c. To strike at the exact d. To hit the correct mark position

130. Someone gave her a bull dog a. She was given a bull dog b. A bull dog was given to her c. She has been given a bull dog d. She is being given a bull dog by someone

131. A stone struck me on the head a. I was struck by a stone on b. My head was struck by a stone the head c. I had been struck by a stone d. I was struck on the head by a stone on the head Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 13 of 22

132. You must look into this matter a. This matter has been looked b. This matter may be looked into by into by you you c. This matter should be looked d. This matter into looked by you into by you

133. Darjeeling grows tea a. Tea grows in Darjeeling b. Tea is grown in Darjeeling c. Let the tea be grown in d. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling Darjeeling

134. He said to her, “Are you coming to the party”? a. He asked her whether she b. He told her if she was coming to was coming to the party the party c. He asked her if she was d. He asked her if she will be coming coming to the party to the party

135. He said, “I clean my teeth twice a day.” a. He said that he cleaned his b. He said that he cleans his teeth teeth twice a day twice a day c. He said that he used to clean d. He said that he is used to cleaning his teeth twice a day his teeth twice a day

136. He said, “Where shall I be this time next year!” a. He asked that where should b. He wondered where he should be he be that time next year that time the next year c. He contemplated where shall d. He wondered where he would be he be that time the following that time the following year year

137. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter”? a. He asked his teacher whether b. He asked his teacher whether he there was a need to read that needed to read this chapter chapter c. He asked his teacher if it was d. He asked his teacher if he had to necessary to read this read that chapter chapter

Directions for questions 138 to 141: In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word

138. a. Exemple b. Exampel c. Example d. Exampal

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139. a. Sedantry b. Sedentery c. Sedentary d. Sedantary

140. a. Aproched b. Aproached c. Appraoched d. Approached

141. a. Scriptur b. Skripture c. Scripture d. Scripcher

142. (1) When I reached my office (P) to get home early (Q) I phoned my mother (R) that I wouldn’t be able (S) to tell her (6) as I had promised a. PQRS b. QSRP c. QSPR d. RPSQ

143. (1) The department has initiated steps (P) from the corporate sector (Q) to evolve appropriate schemes (R) and financial institutions for (S) for mobilizing investment (6) the development of wastelands. a. PRSQ b. QPSR c. QSPR d. RPSQ

144. (1) Paintings (P) have been (Q) which were submitted (R) totally ruined by rain (S) for the exhibition (6) last night. a. PQRS b. PRQS c. QRPS d. QSPR

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145. (1) Though Indian sportsmen (P) who accompanied them (Q) the large number of (R) did not set many records in Seoul Asiad (S) officials and politicians (6) did set a record of sorts. a. PRQS b. QSRP c. PRQS d. SPRQ

Directions to questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the following passage and answer the questions

In modern times Abraham Lincoln stands as the model of a compassionate statesman. He showed this quality not only in striving for the emancipation of the American blacks but in the dignity with which he conducted the American Civil War. Lincoln did not fancy himself as a liberator. He thought it would be better for all if emancipation was a gradual process spread over many years. He proposed compensation for slave-owners in US bonds and grants for the rehabilitation of blacks- ‘colonization’ as he called it. But fate was to deem otherwise. The haste with which the south wanted to break away from the Union with the North, compelled him to move faster than he expected. Perhaps more than most men of his time he had thought through the issue of slavery. ‘We must free the slaves’, he said, ‘or be ourselves subdued’. Before reading his first draft of the Proclamation of Emancipation, he told his colleagues, ‘In giving freedom to the slaves, we assure freedom to the free’. On September 22, 1862, Lincoln set his hand on the Proclamation of Emancipation declaring that on the first day of January 1863, all persons held as slaves within any state, ‘shall be then, and forever free’. Lincoln’s revulsion for the slavery left him without any moral indignation or passion against the slave-owners. The guilt of the slave-owners, he felt, should be shared by the whole country, the North and the South, for it seemed to him that everyone in the nation was an accomplice in perpetuating that system. To have whipped up any hatred against slave-owners would, to him, have been an act of malice. I shall do nothing in malice; he wrote, ‘what I deal’ with is too vast for malicious dealing; As the Civil War was coming to a successful conclusion, a Northerner demanded of Lincoln: ‘Mr President, how are you going to treat the southerners when the war is over?’ Lincoln replied, ‘As of they never went to war’. When the news came of the victory of the Northern against the confederate forces, someone suggested that the head of the confederation Administration, Jefferson Davies, really ought to be hanged. ‘Judge not, that ye be not judged’, Lincoln replied. As to the demand for the prosecution of rebels, Lincoln replied. We must extinguish our resentments if we expect harmony and union. This was his last recorded utterance.

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146. What came in Lincoln’s way of carrying out emancipation as a gradual process? a. His proposition to give grant for b. His own over-enthusiasm to complete the rehabilitation of slaves. the process fast. c. The inadequate compensation d. The haste of the south to break away given to slave-owners. from the union with the North.

147. The sentence ‘In giving freedom ...... to the free’ means: a. If we give freedom to the slaves, b. If we do not give freedom to the they will serve us better. slaves, they will free themselves. c. By freeing the slaves, we are d. By freeing the slaves, we are safe- honouring the concept of guarding our own interests. freedom.

148. The term ‘colonisation’ as used in the passage means: a. Handling over slaves to the b. Efforts made by American blacks to slave-owners. free themselves. c. Making separate dwelling d. None of the above. arrangements for slave-owners.

149. Which of the following make Abraham Lincoln a compassionate statesman? a. His hesitation in striving for b. His efforts to force the American emancipation of American blacks from slavery. blacks. c. His indifference in conducting d. None of the above. the American Civil War.

150. The incidents in the passage prove that Lincoln was: a. Not an administrator. b. Sympathetic and kind-hearted statesman. c. Afraid of the majority of slaves. d. Unduly concerned for the safety of rebels.

Directions for questions 151 – 200: Choose the right answer from the given options

151. Indian luger Shiva Keshavan won a silver medal at the Asian Championship 2015. The tournament was organized in which of the following countries?. a. Chaina b. Japan c. South Korea d. Thailand

152. Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with railways to become the first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway tickets? a. SBI b. Axis bank c. ICICI d. PNB

153. Jordan Spieth, who made headlines for his achievements in 2015, is a player of which of the following sports? a. Snooker b. Golf c. Basketball d. Pro-Boxing Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 17 of 22

154. On which of the following days, National Good Governance day is observed in India? a. 15th March b. 25th December c. 23rd January d. 1st July

155. Who among the following has been chosen for the prestigious CK Nayudu lifetime achievement award for 2015? a. Kapil Dev b. Dilip Vengsarkar c. Salim Durani d. Syed Kirmani

156. Which of the following shipyards has become India’s first licensed shipyard to make LNG ships? a. Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) b. Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) c. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and d. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) Engineers Limited (GRSE)

157.Which one of the following multi-sectoral development programmes for minorities for upgrading skills and training in preservation of traditional ancestral arts / crafts was launched recently? a. Hamari Dharohar b. Nai Manzil c. USTAAD d. Nai Umeed

158. The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals with: a. Right to Fair Compensation and b. Motor Vehicles Transparency in land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement c. Land Boundary Agreement d. Mines and Minerals between India and Bangladesh

159. Kambala and Jallikattu, the two traditional and cultural practices belong to which of the following set of states? a. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu c. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu d. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

160. A Judicial Committee to look into the implementation of One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme for the ex-Servicemen has been appointed by the government. The committee will be headed by a. A. P. Shah b. Vijay L. Kelkar c. L. Narasimha Reddy d. B. N. Srikrishna

161. Which of the following country was recently affected by the tropical cyclone “Melor”? a. Philippines b. South Korea c. Mexico d. Oman

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162. Who among the following has written the book titled –‘Flood of Fire’? a. Salman Rushdie b. Amitav Ghosh c. Arundhati Roy d. Jhumpa Lahiri

163. For what purpose, Operation Smile – II will be launched across India? a. To aware people about b. To eliminate poverty sanitation c. To track missing children d. To provide free education to SC/ST students

164. The next Commonwealth summit CHOGM 2018 will be held in which of the following countries? a. United Kingdom b. India c. Australia d. Malta

165. Name the vaccine which is being used in injectable inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) programme in India? a. Swasth IPV vaccine b. Bharat IPV vaccine c. Desh IPV vaccine d. Shan IPV vaccine

166. The first metal tool was discovered by man was used for? a. Pot-making b. Clearing jungles c. House-building d. Making wheels

167. The Indus Valley Civilization was not spread over: a. Egypt b. Greece c. Ceylon d. Mesopotamia

168. Relics of Buddha are preserved in a a. Vihara b. Stupa c. Chaitya d. Monastery

169. The Monolithic image of Jain Saint ‘Gomatiswara’ is at a. Sravanabelgola b. Mount Abu c. Kusinagara d. Kalinga

170. Kancheepuram is in which of the following state? a. Tamil Nadu b. Karnataka c. Kerala d. Andhra Pradesh

171. Who built Char Minar? a. Quli Qutb Shah b. Ibrahim Qutb Shah c. Ali Adil Shah d. Ibrahim Adil Shah

172. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British Parliament? a. Badruddin tyyabji b. Dadabhai Naoroji c. W. C. Banerjee d. Pandit Motilal Nehru

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173. Who among the following was selected as the President of All-India Khilafat Conference when it met in Delhi in 1919? a. Motilal Nehru b. Mahatama Gandhi c. M. A. Jinnah d. ShaukatAli

174. Which is considered as the oldest civilization of the world? a. Egyptian Civilization b. Harappan Civilization c. Greek Civilization d. Mesopotamia Civilization

175. When was the NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) formed for defence against Soviet Union? a. 1939 b. 1942 c. 1949 d. 1950

176. The oldest mountain in India are: a. Nilgiri hills b. Aravalis c. Vindhyas d. Satpuras

177. The length of India’s coastline is about: a. 5500 km b. 6000 km c. 7000 km d. 7500 km

178. Which state has largest coastline in India? a. Gujarat b. Tamil Nadu c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

179. The Karakoram Highway connects which of the following pairs of countries? a. India – Nepal b. India – China c. India – Pakistan d. China – Pakistan

180. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India? a. Bangladesh b. Bhutan c. China d. Pakistan

181. An Election Commission in India is creation of the: a. Constitution b. Executive order c. Statutes d. Extra-constitutional

182. The first general election in India was held in: a. 1949 b. 1950 c. 1951 d. 1953

183. The power of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles of Constitution? a. 286 b. 356 c. 324 d. 382

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184. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to: a. Make people aware of politics b. Decentralize the power of Democracy c. Educate the peasants d. None of the above

185. Which of the following is incorrect in respect to Local Government in India? a. According to the Indian b. 30% seats in local bodies are reserved Constitution local government is for women not an independent tier in the federal system c. Local government finances are d. Elections to local bodies are to be to be provided by a commission determined by a Commission

186. Which was the capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate state in 1953? a. Guntur b. Kurnool c. Nellore d. Warangal

187. The concept of Five Years Plan in India was introduced by? a. Lord Mountbatten b. Jawaharlal Nehru c. Indira Gandhi d. Lal Bahadur Shastri

188. Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is called: a. Seasonal unemployment b. Frictional unemployment c. Cyclic unemployment d. Technological unemployment

189. Which of the following groups suffer the most from inflation? a. Debtors b. Creditors c. Budiness class d. Holders of Real Estates

190. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is a. Solar energy b. Nuclear energy c. Hydropower d. Wind energy

191. Which of the following is a source of methane? a. Wetlands b. Foam Industry c. Thermal Power Plants d. Cement Industry

192. Photo bleeding means a. Photo cropping b. Photo placement c. Photo cutting d. Photo colour adjustment

193. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2? a. 100 b. 110 c. 120 d. 180

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194. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on a. Primary data only b. Secondary data only c. Both a and b d. None of the above

195. RAM stands for a. Really Accessable Memory b. Real Access Memory c. Random Available Mode d. Random Access Memory

196. Where was the first computer installed in India a. Indian Statistical Institute b. Indian Institute of Management c. Indian Institute of Science d. Indian Institute of Statistics

197. Which Indian State is the largest producer of Soyabeans? a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat c. Uttar Pradesh d. Madhya Pradesh

198. Which State is known as India’s Spice Garden..? a. Kerala b. Karnataka c. Bihar d. Uttaranchal

199. Which bird lays the world’s smallest egg? a. Hornbill b. Bee Humming bird c. Gulls d. Woodpecker

200. Which of the following types of light are majorly absorbed by plants a. Violet and orange b. Indigo and yellow c. Yellow and violet d. Blue and red

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QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: COFFEE QUALITY Booklet No.

Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST

Name of the Candidate: ………………………………….

Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 1 of 21 1. The most important mycotoxin with respect to cereals is a. Aspergillus flavus b. Aspergillus niger c. Aspergillus oryze d. All of the above

2. Ragi is a rich source of a. Iron b. Calcium c. Both a & b d. Magnesium

3...... is a hydrothermal treatment followed by drying before milling a. Steaming b. Instantization c. Paraboiling d. Wet cooking

4. Whisky is made by fermentation and distillation of fermented a. Grapes b. Potato c. Cereal d. Molasses

5. Durum wheat is suitable for the production of a. Pasta b. Biscuits and cakes c. Cakes d. Bread

6. Active dried yeast contain approximately...... percent solids and...... percent moisture a. 30 & 70 b. 92 & 8 c. 70 & 30 d. 60 & 20

7. Baking Soda is chemically known as a. NaHCO3 b. Na2CO3 c. Na2NH4CO3 d. NH4CO3

8. Rolling is done in the processing of a. Tea b. Coffee c. Cashew nut d. Cocoa

9. Dough development is measurement by a. Brabender farinograph b. Extensiograph c. Amylograph d. Mixograph

10. The colour of virgin olive oil is mainly due to the presence of a. Chlorophyll b. Pheophytin c. Xanthophyll d. Both a & b

11. pH of fresh water of lakes and streams is controlled by which one of the following physical factors a. Microbial activity b. Rate of CO2 removed by photosynthesis c. Terrestrial input d. All the above

12...... is the enzyme that finally turns the trick in dough fermentation of sugars a. Invertase b. Maltase c. Zymase d. All of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 2 of 21 13. Optimum storage moisture for wheat is less than …………. % a. 13.5 b. 12.5 c. 14.5 d. 15.5

14...... is a sprouting inhibitor in onion bulbs a. Maleic hydrazide b. Cytokinin c. Alar (B9) d. Gibberelic acid

15...... is an antibiotic commonly found in milk, curd, cheese & other fermented milk products a. Pimaracin b. Nisin c. Subtilin d. All of the above

16. Which is the inhibitory concentration of CO2 in beverages a. 14.6 g CO2/l b. 24.6 g CO2/l c. 10.6 g CO2/l d. 6 g CO2/l

17. From the packaging point of view which of the following is important for coffee a. Particle size b. Moisture c. Bulk density d. Density

18. In canning, all fruits can be processed satisfactorily at...... temperature a. 100οC b. 115οC c. 121οC d. 105οC

19. Vinegar made from apple juice is known as a. Potato Vinegar b. Spirit Vinegar c. Cider Vinegar d. None of the above

20. Fish proteins are slightly low in a. Methionine b. Cystine c. Both a & b d. None of the above

21. Fat content in human milk is a. 3.6 b. 4.6 c. 5.6 d. 3.0

22. Milk proteins are a. Casein b. ß-lactoglobulin c. α-lactalbumin d. All of the above

23. Specific sweets of pindi khoa are a. Burfi b. Peda c. Pantooa d. both a & b

24. ------is the only cereal grain other than wheat capable of forming gluten a. Rye b. Oats c. Millets d. Barley

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 3 of 21 25. What is the protein, which inhibits trypsin in egg a. Ovalbumin b. Flavoprotein c. Conalbumin d. Ovomucoid

26. Natural inhibitory compounds in allspice (pimento), cloves, cinnamon are a. Lactenin b. Benzoic acid c. Eugenol d. All of the above

27. Temperature for Ultra pasteurization is ------a. 71.7οC/15 sec b. 62.8οC/15 sec c. 137.8οC/15 sec d. None of the above

28. Which species of bacteria is used as test organism for Steam sterilization a. B. subtilis (ATCC 6653) b. B. stearothermophillus (ATCC 7953) c. Both a & b d. None of the above

29. Factors used for food preservation are called as a. Preservatives b. Antioxidants c. Hurdles d. None of the above

30. Disinfection of water during water purification is usually done with application of which of the following chemical? a. Chlorine b. Ozone c. Both a & b d. None of the above

31. In general fungi derive nutrients through a. Digesting organic substances b. Photosynthesis c. Parasitism d. None of the above

32. The traditional whipping agent used in nougat preparation is a. Egg albumin b. Milk c. Air d. None of the above

33. A flavour produced by the use of butter & brown sugar a. Butter Scotch b. Caramel c. Tutifruity d. Chocolate

34. The time during which dough rises between molding & baking is termed as a. Proofing b. Standing c. Staling d. None of the above

35. To have higher moisture content and soften bread the following ingredients is used a. Lactose b. Casein c. Milk d. Water

36. Maize is deficient in a. Niacin b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B2 d. All of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 4 of 21 37. The organism involved in production of Dosa or Idly a. Saccharomyces sake b. Leuconostoc mesenteroides c. Pediococcus spp d. None of the above

38. Meat Food Products Order is regulated by a. Directorate of Marketing and b. Ministry of Health Inspection c. Ministry of commerce d. None of the above

39. Food manufacturers use hydrogenated vegetable oils to control...... in foods a. Deodorization b. Rancidity c. Bleaching d. None of the above

40. It is also known as fruit sugar as it is found in fruits and honey a. Fructose b. Sucrose c. Maltose d. Lactose

41. The mechanism by which one or more products are released from the enzymes before all the substrate are added are known as a. Sequential reaction b. Ping pong reaction c. Random order reaction d. Compulsory order reaction

42. Streptokinase is produced by which one of the following microbe? a. Bacillus b. Streptococcus c. Salmonella d. Staphylococcus

43. Chicory is obtained from a. Leaf b. Stem c. Flower d. Root

44. Fat percent in butter a. 90 b. 80 c. 89 d. 95

45. Pink spots on egg caused by a. Sporotrichum b. Cladosporium c. Pseudomonas d. All of the above

46. Most resistant organism for irradiation a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Yeast d. Mould

47. Cells in the sense organs that receive sensory information are called as a. Stimulus b. Acceptor cells c. Receptor cells d. Lachrymal cells

48. The physical factor deteriorating the food grains during storage are a. Temperature b. Humidity c. Both a & b d. None of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 5 of 21 49. How many kinds of taste receptors are present on the tongue? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

50. Many coenzymes are a. Vitamins b. Proteins c. Metals d. Substrates

51. The smell of chemicals dissolved in mucus is detected by a. Tactile receptors b. Cutaneous receptors c. Olfactory receptors d. Photoreceptors

52. Discrimination of odd sample among three unknown is known as a. Triangle Test b. Duo Trio Test c. Paired Comparison Test d. None of the above

53. For strain improvement, which one of the following fungi was first reported to be used a. Pencillium b. Aspergillus c. Rhizoctonia d. Yeast

54. Flavour is the output of a. Taste & aroma b. Aroma only c. Mouthfeel & aftertaste d. Taste only

55. Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 enacted in the year a. 2009 b. 2010 c. 2011 d. 2006

56. ELISA test is a. Enzyme Linked Immune b. Enzyme Linked Immune assay syndrome assay c. Enzyme Linked Inhibition assay d. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent assay

57. ISO 22000 a. Food Safety Management b. Food Standards Management System System c. Laboratory Management d. None of the above System

58. NABL stands for a. National Accreditation Board b. National Assessment Board for for Laboratories Laboratories c. National Accreditation Board d. None of the above for Testing and Calibration Laboratories

59. Which system follows the principles of HACCP? a. ISO 14000 b. ISO 22000 c. ISO 9001 d. ISO 17025

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 6 of 21 60. Modified atmospheric packaging utilizes a. O2 & CO2 b. O2 & N2 c. N2 & CO2 d. O2, N2 & CO2

61. Which species of coffee contains highest caffeine content? a. Arabica b. Robusta c. Liberica d. None of the above

62. The volatile coffee essence developed in the bean during roasting is a. Coffee oil b. Decoction c. Coffee fluid d. Coffee juice

63. Arabica plantation is derived from which method? a. Wet processing b. Dry processing c. Pulped Natural process d. Monsooning.

64. The chemical name of the Caffeine is a. Trimethyl xanthine b. Trimethyl benzene c. Trimethyl amine d. Trimethyl phosphine

65. Sharp smell of onion is due to a. Ammonia b. Chlorine c. Sulphur d. Combined effect of the above

66. Expand HACCP a. Hazard Analysis and Critical b. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point Control Power c. Harmful Analysis and Critical d. Harmful Assessment and Critical Control Point Control Point

67. Decaffeinated coffees are harmful to health a. True b. False c. Partially true d. None of the above

68. Flavour is sensed through a. Nose b. Ears c. Tongue d. Nostrils 69. “Kapi Luwak” coffee is connected with a. Elephant b. Birds c. Monkeys d. Civet

70. Expand ICO a. Indian Coffee Organization b. International Coffee Organization c. Indian Coffee Office d. Internal Coffee Organization

71. Dangerous gas for depletion of ozone layer is a. Methane b. Ethane c. CFC d. Carbon-dioxide

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 7 of 21 72. The edible part of jack fruit is a. Hilum b. Peduncle c. Perianth d. Endosperm

73. Nutrient Magnesium (Mg) is found in a. Gypsum b. Dolomite c. Rock phosphate d. None of these

74. Coffee leaf rust is caused by a. Hemileia vastatrix b. Cronartium ribicola c. Colletotrichum spp d. Fusarium spp

75. Green revolution has mainly been successful in a. Maize b. Tur c. Wheat d. Gram

76. The cost of production of a crop can be minimized by using economic principle a. Law of diminishing return b. Law of opportunity cost c. Cost principle d. Principle of least cost combination

77. The concept of agro climatic zoning was developed by: a. World Bank b. U.S.A c. F.A.O d. IARI

78. Which of the following is the pest of apple? a. Sylepta lunalis b. Nodostoma subcostalum c. Cydia hemidoxa d. Eriosoma lanigerum

79. The primary objective of greenhouse cultivation of vegetables is: a. To get crop throughout the year b. To get off-season crops c. To protect crop from Pest & d. All of the above diseases

80. Which of the following is not a cross pollinated crop? a. Carrot b. Groundnut c. Muskmelon d. Lettuce

81. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is located at: a. Washington b. Moscow c. Geneva d. London

82. Sorghum is considered as camel crop because of: a. Less water potential b. Resistance to drought c. Shallow root system d. Nutrient exhaustiveness

83. Rice grain is deficient in? a. Glycine b. Lysine c. Alanine d. Isoleucine

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 8 of 21

84. Which of the following requires Silicon (Si) for its growth? a. Maize b. Groundnut c. Rice d. Green gram

85. Lichen is an association of? a. Algae & Fungus b. Fungus & Virus c. Bacteria & Fungus d. Algae & Virus

86. SRI technique of paddy has been evolved at? a. Japan b. China c. Madagascar d. Korea

87. What is upper limit of available water in soil a. Permanent wilting point b. Hygroscopic point c. Field capacity d. All

88. Honeydew is an important variety of a. Water melon b. Papaya c. Musk melon d. Guava

89. Which of the following are useful insects? a. Leaf miner b. Predators c. Vectors d. Borers

90. The mango stem borer belongs to the family a. Scolytidae b. Tenebrionidae c. Scarabaeridae d. Cerambycidae

91. Indian Agricultural Statistics Institute is located at a. Bhopal, M.P b. Kanpur, U.P c. Kolkata, W.B. d. New Delhi

92. One ha. is equivalent to a. 2.271acre b. 2.471acre c. 2.371acre d. 2.671acre

93. The simple measure of variability in a data set is a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range

94. Most suitable design for experiment involving varying number of tillage and nitrogen level is a. RBD b. Split plot c. Strip plot d. Lattice design

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 9 of 21 95. In a RBD experiment having 9 treatments and 4 replications, the error degree of freedom will be a. 36 b. 18 c. 24 d. 21

96. The ‘ t test’ is applicable when the number of treatments are a. 4 b. 10 c. 2 d. 8

97. Experimental design suitable for field having one directional fertility gradient is a. LSD b. CRD c. RBD d. SPD

98. The statistical test used to determine the goodness of fit is a. Z – test b. t – test c. F – test d. Chi – square test

99. Which is not a measure of central tendency? a. Mean b. Mode c. Median d. Range

100. The population variance can be calculated by a. t – test b. F- test c. Z – test d. None of these

Directions for the questions 101-105: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 101. This laboratory of physics is (a) not only equipped with (b) all state-of-the-art-instruments (c) but also with outstanding physicists (d)

102. I was pretty sure that (a) he would support my views (b) for changing the age-old (c) and static structure of our organisation (d)

103. No sooner did (a) we reach the station (b) than the train had (c) started moving out of the station (d)

104. I am sure about it, (a) nobody has lived (b) in that house (c) for a hundred years (d)

Directions for the questions 105-107 : In each sentence below four words that the printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer. 105. Gandhiji is known (a) for his successful (b) afforts (c) to liberate (d) India

106. The environment has a profounde (a) /influence (b) on the way a Society (c)/ develops (d)

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 10 of 21 107. Mr. Sharma refused to acknowledge (a) that he had committed (b) an error (c) while taking that desision (d)

Directions for the questions 108-111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 108. People ______to work hard if you ______certain conditions on them. a. decide, negotiate b. try, thrust c. plan, invoke d. hesitate, impose

109. The recent ______in oil prices has given an unexpected additional ______to the cost-spiral. a. slump, drawback b. cut, blow c. rise, twist d. development, out

110. ______your colleagues for important decision-making activities ensures their ______cooperation. a. counselling, whole-hearted b. Helping, occasional c. Guiding, meagre d. Neglecting, enthusiastic

111. All the performances of human art, at which we look with praise or wonder, are ______of the restless ______of perseverance. a. manifestations, pronouncement b. projections, component c. instances, force d. proofs, humanity

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word

112. TYRANNY a. Misrule b. Power c. Madness d. Cruelty

113. OSTENTATIOUS a. Pretty b. Modest c. Showy d. Flagrant

114. ABNEGATION a. Self-denial b. Self-sacrifice c. Self-praise d. Self-criticism 115. SANGUINE a. Clever b. Proud c. Hopeful d. Modest

116. DILIGENT a. Intelligent b. Energetic c. Modest d. Industrious

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 11 of 21 Directions for the questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 117. OVERT a. Deep b. Shallow c. Secret d. Unwritten 118. BLISS a. Anguish b. Sorrow c. Agony d. Suffering

119. SPREAD a. Subdue b. Repress c. Suppress d. Contract

120. PODGY a. Short b. Thin c. Weak d. Slim

121. CULPABLE a. Irresponsible b. Careless c. Blameless d. Defendable

Directions for questions 122 - 125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 122. To examine one’s own thoughts and feeling a. Meditation b. Retrospection c. Immigration d. Introspection

123. Large scale departure of people a. Migration b. Emigration c. Immigration d. Exodus

124. A government run by a dictator a. Democracy b. Autocracy c. Oligarchy d. Theocracy

125. Commencement of words with the same letter a. Rhyme b. Alliteration c. Pun d. Oxymoron Directions for questions 126 - 129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126. To turn over a new leaf a. To change completely one’s b. To shift attention to new problems course of action after having studied the old ones thoroughly c. To cover up one’s faults by d. To change the old habits and adopt wearing new marks new ones

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 12 of 21 127. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow a. To act in a foolish way b. To quarrel over trifles c. To waste time on petty things d. To do something funny

128. To stand to one’s guns a. To keep the guns close to oneself b. To persevere when hardships press even amid danger c. To maintain dignified and d. To maintain one’s position unbending attitude

129. To bring one’s eggs to a bad market a. To face a humiliating situation b. To bring one’s commodities to a market where there is no demand for them c. To show one’s talents before d. To fail in one’s plans because one audience which is incapable of goes to the wrong people for help appreciating them

130. Mona was writing a letter to her father a. A letter was written to her father b. A letter has been written to her father by Mona by Mona c. A letter was being written by d. A letter was written by Mona to her Mona to her father father

131. A stone struck me on the head a. I was struck by a stone on the b. My head was struck by a stone head c. I had been struck by a stone on d. I was struck on the head by a stone the head

132. Rain disrupted the last day’s play between India and Sri Lanka a. The last day’s play of India and b. India and Sri Lanka’s play of the last Sri Lanka was disrupted by rain day was disrupted by rain c. The last day’s play between India d. The last day’s play between India and and Sri Lanka was disrupted by Sri Lanka were disrupted by rain rain 133. My uncle promised me a present a. A present was promised by my b. I was promised a present by my uncle uncle to me c. I had been promised a present by d. I was promised by my uncle a present my uncle

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 13 of 21 Directions for question 134 - 137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech 134. The sage said, “God helps those who help themselves.” a. The sage said that God helps b. The sage said that God helped those those who help themselves whose helped themselves c. The sage said that God helps d. The sage said that God helped those those who helped themselves who help themselves

135. Rajesh said, “I bought a car yesterday” a. Rajesh said that I have bought a b. Rajesh told that he had bought a car car the previous day yesterday c. Rajesh said the he bought a car d. Rajesh said that he had bought a car the previous day the previous day

136. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter?” a. He asked his teacher whether b. He asked his teacher whether he there was a need to read that needed to read this chapter chapter c. He asked his teacher if it was d. He asked his teacher if he had to read necessary to read this chapter that chapter

137. He said, “what a beautiful scene!” a. He said that what a beautiful b. He wondered that it was a beautiful scene it was scene c. He exclaimed what a beautiful d. He exclaimed that it was a very scene it was beautiful scene

Directions for questions 138 to 141 : In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word

138. a. Mustach b. Moustach c. Mustache d. Moustache

139. a. Acquiescence b. Aquicence c. Acquisence d. Acquissence

140. a. Translucent b. Translusent c. Transluscent d. Tranclucent

141. a. Exaggerate b. Exagerate c. Exagarate d. Exaggarate

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 14 of 21 Directions for questions 142 to 145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the first or first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142. Jawaharlal Nehru (P) under the Cabinet Mission Scheme (Q) was the first to articulate (R) long before such an assembly was set up (S) the idea of a Constituent Assembly a. PQSR b. QSRP c. RPQS d. SRPQ

143. (1) There are people (P) to be able to say (Q) not because they enjoy the book (R) who read a book (S) but because they want (6) that they have read it. a. PSQR b. RQSP c. RSPQ d. SQPR

144. Sugar (P) and our average consumption of sugar (Q) provides something like (R) itself is rich in calories (S) 1/5th of our (6) total calorie intake a. PQRS b. RPQS c. QRPS d. RSPQ

Directions for questions 146 to 150 : Comprehension : Read the passage and answer the following qustions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 15 of 21 by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four- fifths of the calorie intake of the poor. 146. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural products on poverty? i. Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty. ii. Agricultural products are the main constituent of the food of the poor. iii. Agricultural output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor. a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 16 of 21 147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘sheer’ as used in the passage? a. Simple b. Undiluted c. Mere d. Outright

148. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate” as used in the passage? a. People refuse to work at the b. People still work at the minimum minimum wage rate wage rate c. People are eager to work at the d. None of these minimum wage rate

149. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the passage, creates indirect employment? a. Interlinkage of demand of food b. Interdependence of forces of labour and other sectors supply and food demand c. Income elasticity of demand for d. All of these food

150. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non- agricultural production? i. Increase in demand of non-agricultural products ii. Increase in demand of intermediate agricultural products iii. Increase in demand of final agricultural products a. Only i & ii b. Only ii & iii c. Only i & iii d. All i, ii & iii

Directions for the questions from 151 -200: Choose the right answer from the given options 151. Which of the following is not a state subject in India a. Defence b. Education c. Health d. Transport

152. Which among the following is a permanent body a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha c. None of these d. Both

153. Lira is the currency of a. Spain b. Italy c. Bulgaria d. France

154. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat Cess a. 0.25 b. 0.75 c. 1.00 d. 0.50

155. ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a. Quality Management b. Energy Management c. Social Responsibility d. Risk Management

156. Which of the following states has recently won the bid to host National Games in 2019? a. Goa b. Kerala c. Andhra Pradesh d. Meghalaya

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 17 of 21 157. Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is NOT correct? a. The yearly premium is Rs. 12 b. It is available to all savings bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 50 years c. It has accidental death and d. There is provision of payment of Rs. disability cover of Rs. 2,00,000 1,00,000 for partial permanent disability

158. Which among the following cities has hosted the first India International Science Festival (IISF) 2015? a. Hyderabad b. New Delhi c. Mumbai d. Gurgaon

159. Which among the following Northeast states is famous for Black rice; famous for its pleasant nutty flavour and rich in antioxidants? a. Nagaland b. Assam c. Manipur d. Tripura

160. Vembanad Lake is in a. Andhra Pradesh b. Kerala c. Orissa d. Tamil Nadu

161. Which one of the following is not an All India Service? a. Indian Administrative Service b. Indian Police Service c. Indian Foreign Service d. Indian Forest Service

162. The first public sector bank in India which obtained licence for Internet Banking from RBI is a. Punjab National Bank b. Oriental Bank of Commerce c. Corporation Bank d. State Bank of India

163. The percentage of water in typical plant cell is about a. 10 b. 50 c. 85 d. 20

164. Olympic 2016 is held at a. Athens b. Brazil c. Sydney d. London

165. End product of glycolysis is a. Citric Acid b. Pyruvic Acid c. Picric Acid d. Acetic Acid

166. Who won the WBO Asia Pacific Super middleweight title 2016? a. Mary Kom b. Vijender Singh c. Muhammad Ali d. Kerry Hope

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 18 of 21 167. Who became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for women a. Ashok Chawla b. Alok Rawat c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Sunil Kanoria

168. Which of the following American universities has launched APJ Abdul Kalam Fellowship worth $156, 000 (Rs 1,03,71,660) for students who wish to pursue PhD in specified fields of science & engineering at the institution? a. Columbia university b. University of Southern California c. University of South Florida d. University f Pennsylvania

169. Who among the following was conferred with the ‘Bangladesh Liberation War Honour’ recently? a. Narendra Modi b. Atal Bihari Vajpayee c. Sonia Gandhi d. Ajit Doval

170. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)? a. Brazil b. Mexico c. India d. Spain

171. The correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their distance from the sun is: a. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Saturn b. Venus, Mercury, Mars, Saturn and and Jupiter Jupiter c. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter d. Venus, Mercury, Jupiter, Mars and and Saturn Saturn

172. Which of the following states in India does not share boundary with Myanmar? a. Assam b. Manipur c. Nagaland d. Arunachal Pradesh

173. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was initiated in 1983 with the pioneering efforts of a. Justice R N Mishra b. Justice Chandrachud c. Justice P N Bhagwati d. Justice Venkatswami

174. Which state uses the maximum area for producing coffee? a. Karnataka b. Kerala c. Tamil Nadu d. Gujarat

175. In cyclone affected areas disinfection should be given against a. Enthraphalitis b. Anthrax c. TB d. Cholera

176. Which of the following is capable of rotating its head almost in complete circle? a. Snake b. Lizard c. Humming Bird d. Owl

177. Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood award for “Outstanding global leader in open innovation” from US Berkeley-Hass School a. Narendra Modi b. Pranab Mukherjee c. Sonia Gandhi d. Sashi Tharoor

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 19 of 21

178. State affected by the Hud Hud Cyclone a. Andhra Pradesh b. Telegana c. Tamil Nadu d. Maharashtra

179. Name the famous Kannada epigraphist and academician who passed away during August 2015 a. Kuvumpu b. Dr. M.M. Kalburgi c. Bendre d. U.R. Anathamoorthy

180. Migration & Remittance Fact book 2016 has recently been released by which of the following organization? a. European Union b. World Bank c. International Monetary Fund d. International Organisation for Migration

181. Indian-origin politician Pravin Gordhan has recently been appointed which of the following country’s Finance Minister? a. Canada b. South Africa c. USA d. United Kingdom

182. The year 2016 has been declared by the United Nation as the ------? a. International Year of Small b. International Year of Youth Island Developing States c. International Year of Pulses d. International Year of Biodiversity

183. Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world? a. Sao Paulo b. Santos c. Rio de Janeiro d. Buenos Aires

184. The 99th Constitutional amendment Act in Indian Constitution is related to a. Inclusion of Panchayati Raj b. Addition of four new languages in System Eighth Schedule c. Formation of National Judicial d. Anti-defection Law Appointment Commission

185. Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for degrading oil spills? a. Agrobacterium b. Clostridium c. Nitrosomonas d. Pseudomonas

186. The Indian Police Institute (IPI) has been established in which of the following cities? a. Kolkata b. New Delhi c. Hyderabad d. Chandigarh

187. Universal donor is a. O +ve b. O –ve c. AB +ve d. AB –ve

188. Which gland in the human body is called Master grand a. Liver b. Thyroid gland c. Pituitary gland d. Bulbourethral gland

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 20 of 21

189. Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen oxide c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen

190. Who won Wimbledon 2016? a. Roger Federer b. Novak Djokovic c. Rafael Nadal d. Andy Murray

191. India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red planet on a. 26th September 2015 b. 24th September 2015 c. 5th October 2015 d. 9th October 2015

192. Which India poet has written the Bangladesh Nation Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla” a. Sri Aurobindo b. Debendranath Tagore c. Sarojini Naidu d. Rabindranath Tagore

193. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin C

194. Father of local self-government in India is a. Lord Mayo b. Acharya Vinobha Bhave c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Lord Ripon

195. The International Institute for Population Science is located in a. Kolkatta b. Mumbai c. Delhi d. Thiruvanantapuram

196. ‘X-Rays’ were discovered by a. Becquerel b. Roentgen c. Marie Curie d. Van Lue

197. President is to country, as ...... is to State? a. Chief Minister b. State Minister c. Governor d. Lieutenant

198. Which day is known as International Coffee Day? a. 1st October b. 1st September c. 1st November d. 1st December

199. The instrument used for finding out wind direction is: a. Anemometer b. Wind wane c. Wind gauge d. Hygrometer

200. The most fertile region of India is a. Himalayas b. Indo-Gangetic plain c. Central highlands d. Peninsular plateau

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QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: ENTOMOLOGY Booklet No. Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST Name of the Candidate: …………………………... Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Roll Number: Signature of the Invigilator

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 1 of 23 Directions for questions 1 to 100: Choose the right answer from the given options 1. Most pheromone trap attracts a. Female moths b. Caterpillars c. Male moths d. None of the above

2. The members of this family are egg parasitoids a. Braconidae b. Bethylidae c. Chalcididae d. Richogrammatidae

3. The higher LD 50 value indicate the following a. Less toxic b. Highly toxic c. Neutral d. None of these

4. The most important excretory product in terrestrial insects is a. Uric Acid b. Ammonia c. Amino Acids d. Urea

5. Protocerebrum supplies nerves to a. Compound eyes b. Antennae c. Mouthparts d. Wings

6. The insect pest which got introduced into our country before the enforcement of quarantine measures is a. Anthonomis grandis b. Oxycaraenus laetus c. Icerya purchase d. Gnorimochema heliopa

7. Accessory glands are modified as “milk glands” in a. Glossina b. Honeybee c. Chironomid larva d. Strepsiptera

8. Which of the following anticoagulant is used for rat control a. Magnesium phosphide b. Warfarin c. Hydrogen cyanide d. Aluminium phosphide

9. Hypermetamorphosis is observed in a. Blister beetle b. June beetle c. Weevils d. Hover fly

10. The sting of a honey bee is modified ------a. Galea b. Hind leg c. Ovipositor d. Mouthparts

11. Termites have ------type of antenna a. Serrate b. Moniliform c. Setaceous d. Geniculate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 2 of 23 12. The beetle Zygogramma bicolorata, introduced for the control of congress grass weed, but it was also found feeding on a. Sunflower b. Cauliflower c. Soyabean d. Mustard

13. Atropine sulphate is an a. Antifeedant b. Antidote c. Antibiotic d. Antipheramone

14. Dengue fever is transmitted by a. Anopheles spp b. Dung beetles c. Culex spp d. Aedes spp

15. The major detoxifying enzymes involved in resistance to pyrethroids are a. Esterases b. MFOs (mixed function oxidases) c. Transferases d. Phosphatases

16. Methyl eugenol is a food attractant for a. Melon fruit fly b. Eye fly c. Banana fly d. Oriental fruit fly

17. Spinosad is the chemical derived from a. Actinomycetes b. Fungus c. Bacteria d. Virus

18. The insects which feed on living plants are called a. Herbivores b. Carnivores c. Omnivores d. Scavengers

19. Computer generated IPM models as practised in developed countries like USA have synthesised menu based IPM systems comprising of a. Input of weather data + developmental b. Pest risk analysis data models of significant pests c. IPM protocols of a single major pest d. Simulated host phenology + input of weather data + developmental models of significant pests

20. Blue triangle on insecticide container indicates a. Not poisonous b. Highly poisonous c. Medium poisonous d. Low poisonous

21. An example for systemic insecticide a. Quinolphos b. Chlorpyriphos c. Dimethoate d. Fenvelerate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 3 of 23 22. The sterile-male technique works best when a. Target population is large b. The pest species can be mass reared c. Females mate repeatedly d. All of the above

23. The transgene present in Boll guard-I cotton is ------a. Cry 1 AC b. Cry-1 Ab c. Cry-1 C d. Cry- IC

24. Lac is a a. Resinous matter b. Liquid matter c. Solid matter d. None of the above

25. Which among these is major pest of arabica coffee in India? a. Xylosandrus compactus b. Xylotrechus quadripes c. Zeuzera coffeae d. Coccus viridis

26. In which year insecticide act in India came into force? a. 1970 b. 1971 c. 1968 d. 1972

27. The sooty mould black fungal growth on leaves of Sapota is caused by secretion of sugary solution by a. Aphids & mealy bugs b. Moths & Butter flies c. Bats & birds d. Beetles & weevils

28. The larva of Latoia lepida feed on a. Leaves b. Shoots c. Capsules d. Flowers

29. The quantity of Malathion 50EC required for mixing 250 litre of water to obtain 0.05% spray solution, for one acre of paddy to control leaf webber is a. 150ml b. 250ml c. 200ml d. 300ml

30. Application of Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV) is effective against a. Early shoot borer b. American bollworm c. Pink bollworm d. Spotted bollworms

31. Study of group organisms associated as a unit is called as a. Autoeclogy b. Bioecology c. Synecology d. None of the above

32. Chilli murda complex is due to a. Aphids & mealy bugs b. Scales & white flies c. Thrips& Mites d. Leaf hoppers & borers

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 4 of 23 33. Directorate of Plant protection, Quarantine and Storage is located in a. Gurgaon b. New Delhi c. Faridabad d. Ghaziabad

34. Sucking mouth parts are not found in a. Thrips b. Aphids c. Whitefly d. Ants

35. Eri Silkworm is reared on a. Mulberry b. Coconut c. Castor d. Banana

36. In coffee ------pheremone is used for IPM of white stem borer a. Female pheromone b. Male pheromone c. Both A & B d. None of the above

37. Which of the following order comprises predaceous insects? a. Neuropteran b. Phasmida c. Isoptera d. Lepidoptera

38. In mango, the withering and shedding of inflorescence is a symptom of damage due to a. Leaf hopper b. Gall midges c. Stem borer d. Fruit fly

39. Bt cabbage is being developed against a. Cabbage borer b. Diamond back moth c. Painted bug d. None of these

40. Which of the following order has pupal stage only in males? a. Dictyptera b. Isoptera c. Orthoptera d. Strepsiptera

41. The nervous system of insects is derived from a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. None of these

42. Which of the following is a neuropteran predator? a. Chrysoperla b. Cryptolaemus c. Scymnus d. Brumus

43. First insecticide resistance in agriculturally important insect in India was observed in? a. Singhara beetle b. Chilli Thrips c. Diamond black moth d. Cotton whitefly

44. Which of the following laboratory host is used for the multiplication of egg parasitoids? a. Spodopteralitura b. Chilopartellus c. Corcyra cephalonica d. Helicoverpaarmigera

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 5 of 23 45. Semiloopers belong to the order? a. Lepidoptera b. Coleoptera c. Isoptera d. Diptera

46. Insects that become sexually mature and produce offspring before they molt in to adults are said to be? a. Embroynic b. Parthenogenic c. Paedogenic d. Viviparous

47. The eco-friendly insecticide is a. Malathion b. Nimbicidine c. Thiodan d. Permethrin

48. Use of resistant varieties in the IPM is an example of a. Legal control b. Chemical control c. Biological control d. Cultural control

49. The type of parthenogenesis where only males are produced is a. Arrhenotoky b. Amphitoky c. Thelytoky d. None of these

50. Which of the following is an example of insect hormone a. Ecdyson b. Lindane c. Chitin d. Allethrin

51. Which of the following is an example of the mammalian pest a. Rana tigris b. Rattusratus c. Bufo spp. d. Achetinafulica

52. Which of the following insect orders are exclusively herbivorous? a. Lepidoptera & Hemiptera b. Thysanoptera & N europtera c. Orthoptera & Phasmatodea d. Psocoptera & Trichoptera

53. Antidote for the insecticide group ‘pyrethroids’ is a. Diazepam b. Potassium permanganate c. Atropine d. Atropine sulphate 54. In beetle vine yellowing of leaves with grey coloured insects covering them is due to a. Mite b. Leaf hopper c. Scales d. Thrips

55. Which of the following type of mouth parts is found in honey bee? a. Chewing & biting type b. Piercing & sucking type c. Chewing & lapping type d. Rasping & sucking type

56. Which of the following insect is a gregarious pest? a. Sorghum shoot fly b. Migratory locust c. Spotted boll worm d. Rice case worm

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 6 of 23 57. The relationship between economic threshold level of pest and market value of the produce is a. Negative (Inverse) b. Positive (Direct) c. Both a & b d. None of these

58. Which of the following insecticide belongs to organophoshphate group? a. Quinolphos b. Cypermethrin c. Sulphur d. Endosulphan

59. Which one of the following is an ingredient of universal antidote? a. Acetic acid b. Charcoal c. Phenol d. Glycine

60. What is the technical name of the insecticide with trade name Pride? a. Fipronil b. Acetamiprid c. Spinosad d. Imidacloprid

61. Central Sericulture Research and training Institute is located at a. Bengaluru b. Mysuru c. Ranchi d. Bhubaneswar

62. Citrus greening bacterium is transmitted by a. Aphid, Toxoptera citrida b. White fly, Bemisia tabaci c. Aphid, Pentalonia nigronervosa d. Psyllid, Diaphorina citri

63. Any manipulation of environment intended to reduce the pest numbers is referred to as a. Ecological control b. Ecosystem control c. Bio- intensive control d. Habitat manipulation

64. Nozzle in which spray fluid is fed into the air stream within the nozzle and split into droplets by the velocity of air is called a. Disc nozzle b. Annular nozzle c. Shear nozzle d. Low volume nozzle

65. Complete metamorphosis is found in a. Cricket b. Butterfly c. Bugs d. Aphid

66. The National Bureau of Agriculturally Important insects was established by ICAR in ------was earlier known as ------a. Bengaluru; PDBC b. New Delhi; National Pusa Collection c. Ranchi; Indian Lac Research Institute d. New Delhi; NCIPM e. 67. ATP molecules required for synthesis of a glucose molecule in Calvin- Benson cycle are a. 12 b. 20 c. 18 d. 38

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 7 of 23 68. During organophosphate insecticide poisoning, the muscarinic effect results in: a. Anorexia b. Bradycardia c. Hypertension d. All of these

69. Which of the following is a vector for Banana streak disease a. Thrips b. Caterpillar c. Mealybug d. None of these

70. Isotima javensis is a parasitoid of a. Sugarcane top borer b. Sugarcane pyrilla c. Sugarcane d. Sugarcane mealy bug

71. Dangerous gas for depletion of ozone layer is a. Methane b. Ethane c. CFC d. Carbon-dioxide

72. The edible part of jack fruit is a. Hilum b. Peduncle c. Perianth d. Endosperm

73. Nutrient Magnesium (Mg) is found in a. Gypsum b. Dolomite c. Rock phosphate d. None of these

74. Coffee rust is caused by a. Hemileia vastatrix b. Cronartium ribicola c. Colletotrichum spp d. Fusarium spp

75. Green revolution has mainly been successful in a. Maize b. Tur c. Wheat d. Gram

76. The cost of production of the crop can be minimized by using economic principle a. Law of diminishing returns b. Law of opportunity cost c. Cost principle d. Principle of least cost combination 77. The concept of agro climatic zoning was developed by: a. World Bank b. U.S.A c. F.A.O d. I.C.A.R

78. Which of the following is the pest of apple? a. Sylepta lunalis b. Nodostoma subcostalum c. Cydia hemidoxa d. Eriosoma lanigerum

79. The primary objective of greenhouse cultivation of vegetables is: a. To get crop throughout the year b. To get off-season crops c. To protect crop from Pest & diseases d. All

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 8 of 23 80. Which of the following is not a cross pollinated crop? a. Carrot b. Groundnut c. Muskmelon d. Lettuce

81. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is located at: a. Washington b. Moscow c. Geneva d. London

82. Sorghum is considered as camel crop because of: a. Less water potential b. Resistance to drought c. Shallow root system d. Nutrient exhaustiveness

83. Rice grain is deficient in? a. Glycine b. Lysine c. Alanine d. Isoleucine

84. Which of the following requires Silicon (Si) for its growth? a. Chilli b. Groundnut c. Rice d. Green gram

85. Lichen is an association of? a. Algae & Fungus b. Fungus & Virus c. Bacteria & Fungus d. Algae & Virus

86. SRI technique of paddy has been evolved at? a. Japan b. China c. Madagascar d. Korea

87. What is upper limit of available water in soil a. Permanent wilting point b. Hygroscopic point c. Field capacity d. All

88. Honeydew is an important variety of a. Water melon b. Papaya c. Musk melon d. Guava

89. Which of the following are useful insects? a. Leaf miner b. Predators c. Vectors d. Borers

90. The mango stem borer belongs to the family a. Scolytidae b. Tenebrionidae c. Scarabaeridae d. Cerambycidae 91. Indian Agricultural Statistics Institute is located at a. Bhopal, M.P b. Kanpur, U.P c. Kolkata, W.B. d. New Delhi

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 9 of 23 92. One ha. is equivalent to a. 2.271acre b. 2.471 acre c. 2.371acre d. 2.671acre

93. The simple measure of variability in a data set is a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range

94. Most suitable design for experiment involving varying number of tillage and nitrogen level is a. RBD b. Split plot c. Strip plot d. Lattice design

95. In a RBD experiment having 9 treatments and 4 replications, the error degree of freedom will be a. 36 b. 18 c. 24 d. 21

96. The ‘ t test’ is applicable when the number of treatments are a. 4 b. 10 c. 2 d. 8

97. Experimental design suitable for field having one directional fertility gradient is a. LSD b. CRD c. RBD d. SPD

98. The statistical test used to determine the goodness of fit is ------a. Z – test b. t – test c. F – test d. Chi – square test

99. Which is not a measure of central tendency? a. Mean b. Mode c. Median d. Range

100. The population variance can be calculated by a. t – test b. F- test c. Z – test d. None of these

Directions for the questions 101-105: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. 101. This laboratory of physics is (a) not only equipped with (b) all state-of-the-art- instruments (c) but also with outstanding physicists (d)

102. I was pretty sure that (a) he would support my views (b) for changing the age-old (c) and static structure of our organisation (d)

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 10 of 23

103. No sooner did (a) we reach the station (b) than the train had (c) started moving out of the station (d)

104. I am sure about it, (a) nobody has lived (b) in that house (c) for a hundred years (d)

106. The environment has a profounde (a) influence (b) on the way a Society (c) develops (d)

107. Mr. Sharma refused to acknowledge (a) that he had committed (b) an error (c) while taking that desision (d)

109. The recent ______in oil prices has given an unexpected additional ______to the cost-spiral. a. slump, drawback b. cut, blow c. rise, twist d. development, out

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 11 of 23 Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 112. TYRANNY a. Misrule b. Power c. Madness d. Cruelty

113. OSTENTATIOUS a. Pretty b. Modest c. Showy d. Flagrant

114. ABNEGATION a. Self-denial b. Self-sacrifice c. Self-praise d. Self-criticism

115. SANGUINE a. Clever b. Proud c. Hopeful d. Modest

116. DILIGENT a. Intelligent b. Energetic c. Modest d. Industrious

Directions for the questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 117. OVERT a. Deep b. Shallow c. Secret d. Unwritten

118. BLISS a. Anguish b. Sorrow c. Agony d. Suffering

119. SPREAD a. Subdue b. Repress c. Suppress d. Contract

120. PODGY a. Short b. Thin c. Weak d. Slim

121. CULPABLE a. Irresponsible b. Careless c. Blameless d. Defendable

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 12 of 23 Directions for questions 122 - 125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

122. To examine one’s own thoughts and feeling a. Meditation b. Retrospection c. Immigration d. Introspection

123. Large scale departure of people a. Migration b. Emigration c. Immigration d. Exodus

124. A government run by a dictator a. Democracy b. Autocracy c. Oligarchy d. Theocracy

125. Commencement of words with the same letter a. Rhyme b. Alliteration c. Pun d. Oxymoron

Directions for questions 126 - 129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb 126. To turn over a new leaf a. To change completely one’s course of b. To shift attention to new action problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly c. To cover up one’s faults by wearing d. To change the old habits and new marks adopt new ones

127. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow a. To act in a foolish way b. To quarrel over trifles c. To waste time on petty things d. To do something funny

128. To stand to one’s guns a. To keep the guns close to oneself even b. To persevere when hardships amid danger press c. To maintain dignified and unbending d. To maintain one’s position attitude

129. To bring one’s eggs to a bad market a. To face a humiliating situation b. To bring one’s commodities to a market where there is no demand for them c. To show one’s talents before audience d. To fail in one’s plans because which is incapable of appreciating one goes to the wrong people them for help

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 13 of 23 Directions for the questions 130 - 133 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice 130. Mona was writing a letter to her father a. A letter was written to her father by b. A letter has been written to her Mona father by Mona c. A letter was being written by Mona to d. A letter was written by Mona her father to her father

131. A stone struck me on the head a. I was struck by a stone on the head b. My head was struck by a stone c. I had been struck by a stone on the d. I was struck on the head by a head stone

132. Rain disrupted the last day’s play between India and Sri Lanka a. The last day’s play of India and Sri b. India and Sri Lanka’s play of Lanka was disrupted by rain the last day was disrupted by rain c. The last day’s play between India and d. The last day’s play between Sri Lanka was disrupted by rain India and Sri Lanka were disrupted by rain

133. My uncle promised me a present a. A present was promised by my uncle b. I was promised a present by to me my uncle c. I had been promised a present by my d. I was promised by my uncle a uncle present

Directions for question 134 - 137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech

134. The sage said, “God helps those who help themselves.” a. The sage said that God helps those who b. The sage said that God helped help themselves those whose helped themselves c. The sage said that God helps those who d. The sage said that God helped helped themselves those who help themselves

135. Rajesh said, “I bought a car yesterday” a. Rajesh said that I have bought a car the b. Rajesh told that he had bought previous day a car yesterday c. Rajesh said the he bought a car the d. Rajesh said that he had bought previous day a car the previous day

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 14 of 23 136. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter?” a. He asked his teacher whether there was b. He asked his teacher whether a need to read that chapter he needed to read this chapter c. He asked his teacher if it was necessary d. He asked his teacher if he had to read this chapter to read that chapter

137. He said, “what a beautiful scene!” a. He said that what a beautiful scene it b. He wondered that it was a was beautiful scene c. He exclaimed what a beautiful scene it d. He exclaimed that it was a very was beautiful scene

Directions for questions 138 to 141 : In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 138. a. Mustach b. Moustach c. Mustache d. Moustache

139. a. Acquiescence b. Aquicence c. Acquisence d. Acquissence

140. a. Translucent b. Translusent c. Transluscent d. Tranclucent

141. a. Exaggerate b. exagerate c. exagarate d. exaggarate

Directions for questions 142 to 145 : In the following questions, you are provided with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination 142. Jawaharlal Nehru (P) under the Cabinet Mission Scheme (Q) was the first to articulate (R) long before such an assembly was set up (S) the idea of a Constituent Assembly a. PQSR b. QSRP c. RPQS d. SRPQ

143. (1) There are people (P) to be able to say (Q) not because they enjoy the book (R) who read a book (S) but because they want (6) that they have read it. a. PSQR b. RQSP c. RSPQ d. SQPR

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 15 of 23 144. Sugar (P) and our average consumption of sugar (Q) provides something like (R) itself is rich in calaries (S) 1/5th of our (6) total calary intake a. PQRS b. RPQS c. QRPS d. RSPQ

145. The administration will soon launch (P) to educate the people about their rights (Q) a consumer protection drive (R) against using fraudulent means (S) and to warn traders a. PQSR b. PSQR c. QPSR d. SPQR Directions for the questions 146-150: Comprehension : Read the passage and answer the following questions Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs. Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 16 of 23 between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand. Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four- fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.

146. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural products on poverty? i) Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty. ii) Agricultural products are the main constituent of the food of the poor. iii) Agricultural output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor. a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘sheer’ as used in the passage? a. Simple b. Undiluted c. Mere d. Outright

148. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate” as used in the passage? a. People refuse to work at the minimum b. People still work at the wage rate minimum wage rate c. People are eager to work at the d. None of these minimum wage rate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 17 of 23 149. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the passage, creates indirect employment? a. Interlinkage of demand of food and b. Interdependence of forces of other sectors labour supply and food demand c. Income elasticity of demand for food d. All of these

150. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non- agricultural production? i) Increase in demand of non-agricultural products ii) Increase in demand of intermediate agricultural products iii) Increase in demand of final agricultural products a. Only i & ii b. Only ii & iii c. Only i & iii d. All i, ii & iii

Directions for the questions 151-200: Choose the right answer from the given options 151. Which of the following is not a state subject in India a. Defence b. Education c. Health d. Transport

152. Which among the following is a permanent body a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha c. None of these d. Both

153. Lira is the currency of a. Spain b. Italy c. Bulgaria d. France

154. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat Cess a. 0.25 b. 0.75 c. 1.00 d. 0.50

155. ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for a. Quality Management b. Energy Management c. Social Responsibility d. Risk Management

156. Which of the following states has recently won the bid to host National Games in 2019? a. Goa b. Kerala c. Andhra Pradesh d. Meghalaya

157. Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is NOT correct? a. The yearly premium is Rs. 12 b. It is available to all savings bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 50 years c. It has accidental death and disability d. There is provision of payment cover of Rs. 2,00,000 of Rs. 1,00,000 for partial permanent disability

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 18 of 23 158. Which among the following cities has hosted the first India International Science Festival (IISF) 2015? a. Hyderabad b. New Delhi c. Mumbai d. Gurgaon