Chapter 3

The Living World

Solutions

SECTION - A

Objective Type Questions

(What is Living?, Diversity in the Living World) 1. Which of the following is not a result of cell division? (1) Growth (2) Repair (3) Metabolism (4) Reproduction Sol. Answer (3) Growth, repair and reproduction are the result of cell division.

2. Mark the incorrect pair. (1) Hydra – Budding (2) – Regeneration (3) Amoeba – Fragmentation (4) Yeast – Budding Sol. Answer (3) Amoeba divides by binary fission

3. Which of the following is incorrect for reproduction? (1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division (2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms (3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked together (4) Non-living objects are incapable of reproducing Sol. Answer (2) Reproduction is absent in sterile organism like mule, hinny, sterile/infertile human couples, worker bees etc.

4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. metabolism. (1) Microbes exhibit the metabolism (2) It is the property of all living forms (3) The metabolic reactions can be demonstrated in-vitro (4) It is not a defining feature of life forms Sol. Answer (4) Metabolism is a defining feature.

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5. Non-living objects exhibit/show (1) Property of self-replication (2) Evolution (3) Self-regulating interactive systems (4) Reversible growth Sol. Answer (4) Non-living objects do not show- (a) Property of self replication (b) Evolution (c) Self-regulating interactive systems

6. Which statement is false about the growth shown by non-living objects? (1) The growth occurs from outside (2) The growth is reversible (3) The growth is due to the accumulation of material on the surface (4) The growth is intrinsic Sol. Answer (4) The growth shown by non-living objects is extrinsic.

7. Local names of various plants and (1) Help in recognizing organisms worldwide (2) Are used universally (3) Are specific and distinct names (4) Vary from place to place Sol. Answer (4) Local names of various plants and animals are non-universal.

8. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Binomial nomenclature? (1) Biological names are generally in Latin (2) The first word in a biological name represents the (3) Biological names are printed in italics (4) The first word of the genus starts with a small letter Sol. Answer (4) In Binomial nomenclature, genus always starts with a capital letter.

9. What do A, B and C represent in the given scientific name respectively? Mangifera indica Linn CB A (1) Generic name, specific name and author’s name (2) Specific name, generic name and author’s name (3) Author’s name, specific name and generic name (4) Generic name, author’s name and specific name Sol. Answer (3) In binomial nomenclature, Ist name is genus, 2nd is epithet and 3rd is author's name (optional).

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10. Which of the following is incorrect regarding scientific names? (1) These are also known as common names (2) These ensure that each organism has only one name (3) These have two components – the generic name and specific epithet (4) These are universally accepted names Sol. Answer (1) Scientific names are given by biologist based upon agreed rules and criteria.

11. According to binomial nomenclature, every living organism has (1) Two scientific names with single component (2) One scientific name with two components (3) Two names, one Latin and other common (4) One common name with three components Sol. Answer (2) Every living organism has one scientific name with two components.

12. deals with (1) Development of zoological parks (2) Study of kinds and diversity of microorganisms only (3) Evolutionary relationships between organisms (4) Classification of diverse organisms in different taxa Sol. Answer (4) Taxonomy is classification of diverse organisms in different taxa.

13. Which of the following features are not shown by scientific names of various organism? (1) They consists of two components (2) They have Latin origin (3) They always have “linn” abbreviation at the end of second component (4) They are printed in italics Sol. Answer (3) In scientific names author's name is optional and written in abbreviated roman.

14. The correct sequence of taxonomic study of a newly discovered organism is (1) First classification then identification, nomenclature and characterization (2) First identification then classifying organism and then characterizations and nomenclature (3) First nomenclature then characterization, identification and classification (4) First characterisation then identification and classification and then nomenclature Sol. Answer (4) Correct sequence of taxonomic study is Characterisation → Identification → Nomenclature → Classification (First) (Last)

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15. Which one of the following statements given below is not included in universal rules of nomenclature? (1) Generic names and specific epithet should be in Latin words (2) Generic name is immediately followed by name of taxonomists who described it firstly (3) Generic name must begin with capital letter (4) All letters of the specific name must be small Sol. Answer (2) Fact based 16. Which one of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis of classical taxonomic studies? (1) Ecological information of organisms (2) Development process (3) External and internal structure (4) External structure Sol. Answer (4) Basis of modern taxonomic studies. External and internal structure Developmental process Ecological information of organisms

(Taxonomic Categories) 17. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Species? (1) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities (2) Two different species breed together to produce fertile offsprings (3) Human beings belong to the species sapiens (4) Panthera has many specific epithet as tigris, leo and pardus Sol. Answer (2) Two different species cannot breed together to produce fertile offsprings.

18. Find the correct sequence of taxonomic categories. (1) Division → Kingdom → Genus → Order (2) Species → Genus → Family → Order (3) Class → Order → Family → Division (4) Kingdom → Class → Species → Order Sol. Answer (2) Correct sequence of taxonomic categories. Species → Genus → Family→ Order 19. Which of the following is a class? (1) Mammalia (2) Sapindales (3) Primate (4) Poales Sol. Answer (1) Mammalia – Class Sapindales – Order Primata – Order Poales – Order 20. ______is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters. (1) Class (2) Genus (3) Species (4) Order Sol. Answer (4) Species → Genus → Family→ Order→ Class→ Division→ Kingdom

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21. Fill in the blanks A and B. Kingdom → Phylum → [A] → Order → [B] (1) A - Genus; B - Species (2) A - Family; B - Class (3) A - Class; B - Family (4) A - Species; B - Division Sol. Answer (3) Fact based 22. Match the following columns Column-I Column-II a. Binomial nomenclature (i) Carolus Linnaeus b. Generic name (ii) Muscidae c. Family (iii) Panthera d. Systema naturae (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(i) Sol. Answer (2) Binomial nomenclature – Carolus Linnaeus Generic name – Panthera Family – Muscidae Systema naturae – Carolus Linnaeus

23. Genus is a category which comes in between the (1) Family and Species (2) Class and Family (3) Order and Phylum (4) Kingdom and Class Sol. Answer (1) Species → Genus → Family

24. Three different genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the family (1) Poaceae (2) Anacardiaceae (3) Hominidae (4) Solanaceae Sol. Answer (4) Genera – Solanum, Petunia, Datura ↓ Family – Solanaceae

25. Cat and dog are placed in which families respectively (1) Felidae and Hominidae (2) Muscidae and Felidae (3) Poaceae and Canidae (4) Felidae and Canidae Sol. Answer (4) – Cat Dog ↓ ↓ Family – Felidae Canidae

26. In which of the following pair of category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the same level, thus the problem of classification becomes more complex? (1) Genus and species (2) Tribe and genus (3) Division and phylum (4) Species and family

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Sol. Answer (3) Division and Phylum are at very next higher rank and they have lower number of similarity

27. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group of taxa will have less number of similarities as compared to other?

(1) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae (2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales

(3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa (4) Leopard, tiger and lion Sol. Answer (2) (1) Solanaceae, Convolvulacea, Poaceae – Family (2) Polymoniales, Poales, Sapindales – Order (3) Solunum, Petunia and Atropa – Genus (4) Leopard , Tiger, Lion – Species Less number of similarity will be in order.

28. Taxonomic categories which come lower to the rank of class are (1) Order, phylum, family, species (2) Order, family, genus, species (3) Division, family, order, genus (4) Order, division, genus, species Sol. Answer (2) Class

Order

Family Lower to Class Rank

Genus

Species

29. Two animals A and B have similar morphological features and are fundamentally similar with each other, they must be treated as (1) One biological species (2) Two distinct species (3) One biological genera (4) Two distinct genera Sol. Answer (1) Morphological feature Similar One biological species Fundamentally

(Taxonomical Aids) 30. A place used for storing, preservation and exhibition of both plants and animals is known as (1) Herbaria (2) Botanical Garden (3) Museum (4) Zoos

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Sol. Answer (3) Plants Storing, preservation & Museum & exhibition Animals

31. Herbarium consists of (1) Collection of living plants (2) Collection of plant and animal specimens preserved in the containers (3) Preserved insects in boxes after collecting killing and pinning (4) Herbarium sheets carrying dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens on them Sol. Answer (4) Herbarium consists of dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.

32. National Botanical Research Institute consists of (1) Dried and preserved plant specimens only (2) Collection of preserved plant and animal specimens (3) Flora, manuals and monographs only (4) Collection of living plants for reference Sol. Answer (4) NBRI is a botanical garden, collection of living plants for reference.

33. Key is (1) A form of herbaria (2) A type of educational institute (3) A taxonomical aid used for identifying various organisms (4) Taxonomic category Sol. Answer (3) Key, a taxonomical aid, used for classification.

34. In zoological parks, animals are (1) Kept and preserved in containers or jars (2) Preserved in boxes after killing (3) Kept in protected environments under human care (4) Stuffed and then preserved Sol. Answer (3) Zoological parks, animals are kept in protected environments under human care.

35. For identifying organisms through key usually (1) Two contrasting characters are used (2) One similar character is studied (3) Two or more similar characters are used (4) Only one statement called lead is used Sol. Answer (1) Key, a taxonomical aid, has two contrasting characters.

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SECTION - B

Objective Type Questions

(What is Living?, Diversity in the Living World) 1. Select correct statement for growth as one of the characteristic of living organisms. (1) Growth by increase in mass is a defining property of prokaryotic organisms only (2) Non-living objects do not show growth by increase in mass of body (3) Intrinsic growth is a characteristic of all living organisms (4) Growth can be extrinsic or intrinsic for multicellular organisms Sol. Answer (3) Intrinsic growth is a characteristic of all living organisms while in non-living thing extrinsic growth is possible/ occurred.

2. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in (1) Most of the fungi and Planaria (2) Desmids, diatoms and protozoans (3) Cyanobacteria, fungi and mosses (4) Mosses, algae and hydra Sol. Answer (2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in unicellular organisms like- desmids, diatoms and protozoans.

3. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy because of one of his contributions (1) Genera Plantarum (2) Binomial nomenclature (3) Described nearly ten thousand plants and animal species (4) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien Sol. Answer (2) Carolus Linnaeus’s contribution in taxonomy is – Binomial nomenclature 4. Binomial epithet has (1) Two Latin names only (2) Two Italics names written in Latin (3) Two Latin names and author's name in Italics (4) Two Latin names followed by author's name in Roman Sol. Answer (4) Binomial epithet has – two Latin names followed by author's name in Roman.

5. Systematics is the study of (1) Diversity amongst groups of organisms (2) Grouping of organisms (3) Identification and grouping of organisms (4) Identification, classification and taxonomy Sol. Answer (1) Systematics, study of diversity amongst groups of organisms.

6. Which one of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis of modern taxonomic studies? (1) Ecological information of organisms (2) Development process (3) External and internal structure (4) All of these

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Sol. Answer (4) Modern taxonomic studies are • Ecological information of organisms • Development process • External and internal structure

7. Which one of the following is the first publication of Carolus Linnaeus? (1) Systema Naturae (2) Classes Plantarum (3) Hortus Cliffortianus (4) Hortus Upplandicus Sol. Answer (4) Publications of Carolus Linnaeus • Hortus Upplandicus (First) • Philosphica Botanica • Species Plantrum • Systema Nature

8. Scientific name Rattus rattus is an example of (1) Binomial nomenclature (2) Tautonyms (3) Synonyms (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (4) Rattus rattus • Binomial nomenclature • Tautonyms

(Taxonomic Categories) 9. Given organisms belongs to how many genera?

Wheat, Brinjal, Potato, Lion, Dog, Tiger

(1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) Five Sol. Answer (3) Animal Genera Wheat – Triticum Brinjal & Potato – Solanum ⇒ Four genera Lion & Tiger – Panthera Dog – Canis

10. Organisms which can freely interbreed and produce fertile offspring and have similar coded information or blue print for making these organisms are called (1) Species (2) Tribe (3) Genus (4) Sub-genus Sol. Answer (1) Species – Freely interbreed – Fertile offspring

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11. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is (1) Division—class—family—tribe—order—genus —species (2) Division—class—order—family—tribe—genus —species (3) Phylum—order—class—tribe—family—genus—species (4) Class—phylum—tribe—order—family—genus—species Sol. Answer (2) Hierarchy of taxonomic categories Kingdom → Division → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

12. Two species can be said to be reproductively isolated if they are (1) Interfertile (2) Not interfertile (3) Do not grow together in a common habitat (4) Growing together in a common habitat Sol. Answer (2) Reproductively isolated two species – Not interfertile

13. A genus having many species is known as (1) Polytypic (2) Monotypic (3) Polygamic (4) Both (1) & (3) Sol. Answer (1) Polytypic genus – A genus having many species 14. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group of taxa will have more number of similarities as compared to other? (1) Anacardiaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae (2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales (3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa (4) Leopard, tiger and lion Sol. Answer (4) Orders have less similarities than family, genus and species.

15. In which of the following pair of category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the same level, thus, the problem of classification becomes more complex? (1) Genus and species (2) Variety and genus (3) Division and phylum (4) Species and family Sol. Answer (3) Higher the categories in hierarchy will be lesser similarities and will show difficulty of determining the relationship to other.

16. Rice, cereals, monocots and plants represent (1) Different taxa at different level (2) Same taxa of different category (3) Different category of same taxa (4) Same category for different taxa Sol. Answer (1) Rice, Cereals, Monocots, Plants

Species Family Class Kingdom

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17. The equivalent rank of Carnivora in taxonomic categories of man and housefly is respectively (1) Homo and Musca (2) Hominidae and Muscidae (3) Mammalia and Insecta (4) Primata and Diptera Sol. Answer (4) Animal Order Lion – Carnivora Man – Primata Housefly – Diptera

18. All given are suffixes used for category class, except (1) -phyta (2) -opsida (3) -phyceae (4) -ae Sol. Answer (1) – phyta – Division – opsida – Class – phyceae – Class – ae – Class

19. Biological concept of species was given by ______and it is based on ______(1) Lamarck; physiological isolation (2) Linnaeus; morphological isolation (3) Ernst Mayr; mechanical isolation (4) Ernst Mayr; reproductive isolation Sol. Answer (4) Biological concept of species • Ernst Mayr • Reproductive isolation

20. Which category comes after phylum in descending order in taxonomic hierarchy? (1) Genus (2) Family (3) Class (4) Species Sol. Answer (3) Phylum → Class

21. Order primata and carnivora are placed in the same class, i.e. (1) Hominidae (2) Mammalia (3) Insecta (4) Chordata Sol. Answer (2) Order Class Primata Mammalia Carnivora

22. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles and birds are kept in the same (1) Order (2) Class (3) Genus (4) Phylum Sol. Answer (4) Animals Class Phylum Fishes Pisces Chordata Amphibians Amphibians Chordata Reptiles Reptilia Chordata Birds Aves Chordata

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23. Choose odd one out w.r.t. Panthera leo (1) Common name of tiger (2) Panthera represents generic name (3) leo represents specific epithet (4) Panthera represents higher level of taxon than leo Sol. Answer (1) Panthera leo is common name of lion.

24. Potato and brinjal belong to the genus Solanum, which reflects that (1) They belong to single species (2) They are a group of related species (3) They both are morphologically and structurally similar to each other in all respects (4) They can always produce fertile hybrid Sol. Answer (2) Potato and Brinjal are a group of related species.

25. Class mammalia consists of (1) Order carnivora only (2) Families like felidae and canidae only (3) Related orders like carnivora, primata, etc. (4) All animals belonging to various phyla Sol. Answer (3) Order Class Carnivora Mammalia Primata

26. Dicots like mango, brinjal and monocot like wheat are placed under a common taxonomic category known as (1) Phylum – Arthropoda (2) Phylum – Angiospermae (3) Division – Angiospermae (4) Class – Angiospermae Sol. Answer (3) Class Division Dicot Angiosperm Monocot Angiosperm

27. Rice and brinjal belong to the category ending with suffix (1) “aceae” (2) “ales” (3) “phyta” (4) “ae” Sol. Answer (3) Species Family Class Division Rice Poaceae Monocot Angiosperm Brinjal Solanaceae Dicot Angiosperm

28. Various taxonomic categories are (1) Mere morphological aggregates (2) Distinct biological entities (3) International codes used for nomenclature (4) Collection of organisms on structural similarities only Sol. Answer (2) Various taxonomic categories are distinct biological entities

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29. Plants belonging to different classes, with a few similar characters are assigned to a category called (1) Phylum (2) Order (3) Division (4) Genus Sol. Answer (3) Class → Division → Kingdom (Taxonomical Aids)

30. Amongst the given taxonomic aids, how many are associated with preservation of specimens?

Monograph, Flora, Key, Museums, Botanical gardens, Catalogoue, Herbarium, Manual

(1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four Sol. Answer (3) Preservation of specimens is done in taxonomic aids • Museum • Herbarium

31. Which of the following chemicals is used for poisoning the specimens in herbarium technique?

(1) Hg2Cl2 (2) AgNO3 (3) HCl (4) HgCl2 Sol. Answer (4)

Poisoning chemical for the specimens – HgCl2

32. The international size of herbarium sheet is (1) 41 × 29 cm (2) 40 × 30 inches (3) 42 × 20 cm (4) 39 × 28 cm Sol. Answer (1) International size of herbarium sheet is 41 × 29 cm

33. Find the correct sequence of various steps of herbarium technique a. Drying b. Poisoning c. Collection d. Labelling e. Mounting f. Deposition g. Stitching (1) c, a, b, e, g, d, f (2) c, b, d, e, f, g, a (3) c, a, b, e, g, f, d (4) c, a, b, g, e, f, d Sol. Answer (1) Correct sequence Collection → Drying → Poisoning → Mounting → Stitching → Labelling → Deposition

34. Select the correct match Column I Column II a. Ex-situ conservation (i) Central national Herbarium b. Quick referral system (ii) Museum c. Preserved plants and animals (iii) Flora d. Actual account of habitat and distribution (iv) Royal Botanical Gardens, Kew of plants of a given area (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

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Sol. Answer (4) Ex-situ conservation – Botanical garden Quick referral – Herbarium Preserved plants and animals – Museum Habitat & distribution – Flora of plants of a given area

35. Live specimens are used for reference in taxonomic studies in (1) Museum (2) Zoological parks (3) Botanical gardens (4) More than one option is correct Sol. Answer (4) Live specimens – Zoological parks – Botanical gardens

SECTION - C

Previous Years Questions

1. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on [NEET (Phase-2)-2016] (1) Date of collection (2) Name of collector (3) Local names (4) Height of the plant Sol. Answer (4) The herbarium sheets carry a label providing information about date and place of collection, english, local and botanical names, family, collector's name. 2. Study the four statements (A–D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them: A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr. B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants. C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker. D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth. The two correct statements are [NEET (Phase-2)-2016] (1) B and C (2) C and D (3) A and D (4) A and B Sol. Answer (3) Photoperiod affect reproduction in plants. Bionomial nomenclature system was given by Carolus Linnaeus 3. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature? [NEET-2016] (1) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined (2) Biological names can be written in any language (3) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet (4) The names are written in Latin and are italicised Sol. Answer (2) Biological names originate from latin language and printed in italics

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4. Which one of the following is not a correct statement? [NEET-2013] (1) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference (2) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals (3) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens (4) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens Sol. Answer (2) A museum has collection of speciman of plants and animals. 5. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Plantae (2) Fungi (3) Animalia (4) Monera Sol. Answer (4) 6. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory (2) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally (3) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in-vitro (4) Increase in mass from inside only Sol. Answer (4) Increase in mass from inside only is an exclusive characteristic of living things. 7. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non living things on the basis of their ability for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Growth and movement (2) Responsiveness to touch (3) Interaction with the environment and progressive evolution (4) Reproduction Sol. Answer (2) Defining features are • Metabolism • Consciousness • Cellular structure 8. ICBN stands for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (2) Indian Congress of Biological Names (3) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (4) International Congress of Biological Names Sol. Answer (3) ICBN ⇒ International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. 9. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Have same number of chromosomes (2) Can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds (3) Have more than 90 per cent similar genes (4) Look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites Sol. Answer (2) Two same species can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.

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10. Biosystematics aims at (1) The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters (2) Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships (3) The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies (4) Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics Sol. Answer (3) Biosystematics – Classification based on their ontogeny and phylogeny.

11. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their (1) Genus (2) Family (3) Order (4) Division Sol. Answer (2) Tomato and Potato will be maximum at the family level.

12. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to (1) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals (2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals (3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group (4) Classification of a species based on fossil record Sol. Answer (1) Taxonomic hierarchy, step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals. 13. ‘Taxon’ is the unit of (1) Order (2) Taxonomy (3) Species (4) Genus Sol. Answer (2) Taxon is the unit of taxonomy. 14. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated as (1) Clones (2) Sibling species (3) Clines (4) Demes Sol. Answer (2) Sibling species : • Morphologically similar sympatric populations • Reproductively isolated

15. Which of the following is least general in characters as compared to genera? (1) Species (2) Division (3) Class (4) Family Sol. Answer (1) Species is least general in characters as compared to genera. 16. Species is considered as (1) Real basic unit of classification (2) The lowest unit of biosystematics (3) Artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms (4) Real units of classification devised by taxonomists

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Sol. Answer (1) Species is real basic unit of classification.

17. Which of the following is not true for a species? (1) Members of a species can interbreed (2) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species (3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species (4) Variations occur among members of a species Sol. Answer (2) Gene flow occurs between the populations of a species.

18. One of the most important function of botanical gardens is that (1) They provide a beautiful area for recreation (2) One can observe tropical plants there (3) They allow ex-situ conservation of germplasm (4) They provide the natural habitat for wildlife Sol. Answer (3) Botanical gardens – Ex-situ conservation of germplasm.

SECTION - D

Assertion - Reason Type Questions 1. A : Members of a species are reproductively isolated from the members of other species. R : Species is the basic taxonomic category. Sol. Answer (2) Assertion & Reason both are corect but not explanation of assertion.

2. A : Panthera is a polytypic genera. R : Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris, pardus. Sol. Answer (1) Panthera is a polytypic genera because it has more than two specific epithets like – leo, tigris, pardus.

3. A : A group of closely related families form an order. R : The families of an order show close resemblance in certain fundamental features and also in evolutionary trends. Sol. Answer (1) Assertion and reason both are correct and also correct explanation.

4. A : Biological concept of species is based on reproductive isolation. R : Most accepted species concept was given by Linnaeus. Sol. Answer (3) Biological concept of species, given by Ernst Mayr.

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5. A : Synonyms are concerned with one of the most important rules of ICBN. R : Out of the two or more scientific names given to the organism, the oldest name is recognized as valid name and other names are recognised as synonyms. Sol. Answer (1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and correct explanation.

6. A : Botanical gardens are ex-situ conservation strategy of plants. R : National Botanical Garden is situated at Howrah. Sol. Answer (3) National Botanical Garden is situated at Lucknow.

7. A : Two plants A and B are treated as two taxonomic species. R : Both A and B are different in correlated characters. Sol. Answer (1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and also gives correct explanation.

8. A : Species is a genetically closed system. R : Because the reproductive isolation constitutes the most important boundary between different species. Sol. Answer (1) Species is a genetically closed system because the reproductive isolation constitutes the most important boundary between different species.

9. A : Scientific names for plants have been standarized through ICBN. R : Naming system which uses three word format was given by Linnaeus. Sol. Answer (3) Trinomial nomenclature was given by Lamark.

10. A : Dried specimens are poisoned by HgCl2. R : It protects the specimen from the moisture. Sol. Answer (3)

HgCl2 protects the specimen from the microbes.

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Biological Classification

Solutions

SECTION - A Objective Type Questions

(Kingdom Systems of Classification) 1. Statement-1 : Linnaeus classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs, on the basis of morphological characters. Statement-2 : Aristotle divided animals into group - Anaima and Enaima. (1) Only statement-1 is correct (2) Only statement-2 is correct (3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect Sol. Answer (2) Aristotle classified plants into tree, shrubs and herbs

2. In members of which kingdom, nuclear membrane is absent? (1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Plantae Sol. Answer (1) Nuclear membrane is absent in Prokaryotes (Monera)

3. In five kingdom classification, the kingdom that includes the blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria, is (1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Plantae Sol. Answer (1) Bacteria Kingdom Blue-green algae – Prokaryotes Nitrogen-fixing bacteria – Prokaryotes Methanogenic bacteria – Prokaryotes

4. Which one of the following is not the basis of five kingdom classification? (1) Cell structure (2) Body organisation (3) Reproduction (4) Reserve food material

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Sol. Answer (4) Five kingdom classification is on the basis of – Cell structure – Body organisation – Reproduction – Mode of nutrition – Phylogenetic analysis

5. Position of bacteria in the kingdom system of classification proposed by Linnaeus is (1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Plantae (4) Animalia Sol. Answer (3) Two kingdom classification, proposed by Linnaeus kept bacteria in Plantae.

6. Who was the founder of five kingdom system of classification? (1) C. Linnaeus (2) R.H. Whittaker (3) Aristotle (4) T.O. Diener Sol. Answer (2) R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification

7. According to five kingdom system, gymnosperms and angiosperms are grouped under the kingdom (1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Plantae Sol. Answer (4) Gymnosperm and Angiosperm – Kingdom-Plantae

8. Which organisms are not included in the five kingdom system of classification? (1) Protozoans (2) Viruses (3) Lichens (4) Both (2) & (3) Sol. Answer (4) Viruses and Lichens are not included in the five kingdom system.

9. Who for the first time classified organisms on the basis of scientific approach? (1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus (3) Whittaker (4) Pasteur Sol. Answer (1) Aristotle first time classified organisms on the basis of scientific approach.

10. Aristotle classified animals in two groups on the basis of presence or absence of RBC. The group which does not have RBCs is (1) Anaima (2) Enaima (3) Ovipera (4) Vivipera Sol. Answer (1) Group of animals which have RBCs – Enaima Group of animals which do not have RBCs – Anaima

11. Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking a cell wall are included in the kingdom. (1) Protista (2) Fungi (3) Plantae (4) Animalia Sol. Answer (4) Animalia includes heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organism lacking a cell wall

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(Kingdom : Monera)

12. Match the following Column-I Column-II (Group of bacteria) (Their shape) a. Coccus (i) Rod-shaped b. Bacillus (ii) Spherical c. Spirillum (iii) Spiral d. Vibrium (iv) Comma-shaped (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) Sol. Answer (2) Coccus – Spherical Bacillus – Rod shaped Spirillum – Spiral Vibrium – Comma-shaped

13. During favourable conditions bacteria mainly reproduce by (1) Budding (2) Fragmentation (3) Sporulation (4) Fission Sol. Answer (4) Reproduction in bacteria during favourable condition–fission (mainly)

14. Select the correct statement. (1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known diseases caused by viruses (2) Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds are placed under kingdom Monera (3) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily aquatic (4) Dinoflagellates are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans Sol. Answer (3) Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus – Bacterial diseases Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids & Slimemoulds – Protista Diatoms are the chief producers in the ocean.

15. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for nitrogen fixation (2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies (3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature (4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made up of chitin Sol. Answer (4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma is absent.

16. Heterocysts present in Anabaena is specialised for (1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Food storage (3) Fission (4) Sexual reproduction Sol. Answer (1) Heterocysts present in Anabaena is specialised for nitrogen fixation

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17. Mark the odd one w.r.t. cell wall. (1) Halophiles (2) Methanogens (3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Cyanobacteria Sol. Answer (4) Cell wall in Archaebacteria is pseudomurein while in eubacteria it is murein.

Halophiles Methanogens Archaebacteria Thermoacidophiles Cyanobacteria → Eubacteria

18. Primitive bacteria living in salty areas are called as (1) Methanogens (2) Thermoacidophiles (3) Heliophytes (4) Halophiles Sol. Answer (4) Archaebacteria living in salty areas-–Halophiles.

(Kingdom : Protista)

19. Select the non-protistan group. (1) Slime moulds (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Phycomycetes (4) Chrysophytes Sol. Answer (3) Slime moulds Dinoflagellates Protista Chrysophytes (diatom)

Phycomycetes → Fungi

20. Which of the following is correct? (1) All slime moulds are haploid (2) Protozoans lack cell wall (3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile (4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena Sol. Answer (2) Slime moulds are haploid and diploid Dinoflagellates are motile Pellicle is present in Euglena

21. Which is not a feature of dinoflagellates? (1) They cause red tides (2) Their cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface (3) They release toxins (4) These are mostly fresh water and non-photosynthetic Sol. Answer (4) Features of dinoflagellates. • Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface • Release toxins • Causes red tides • Mostly marine and photosynthetic

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22. ______are saprophytic protists, whose body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material. (1) Euglenoids (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Chrysophytes (4) Slime moulds Sol. Answer (4) Slime moulds saprophytic protists

23. Being photosynthetic, which organism in absence of sunlight behave like heterotrophs? (1) Slime moulds (2) Euglenoids (3) Sporozoans (4) Ciliated protozoans Sol. Answer (2) In presence of light – Photosynthetic Mixotrophic (Euglenoids) In absence of light – Heterotrophic

24. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which substance? (1) Phosphorus (2) Calcium (3) Silicon (4) Copper Sol. Answer (3) Diatomaceous earth – Silicon

(Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Plantae, Kingdom Animalia)

25. Which is the incorrect statement regarding fungi? (1) Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia (2) Penicillium is a source of antibiotic (3) The cell wall of fungi are composed of peptidoglycan (4) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places Sol. Answer (3) Cell wall of fungi are composed of Chitin and Polysaccharide

26. Statement-1 : Yeast is a multicellular fungus. Statement-2 : Penicillium is an unicellular fungus. Statement-3 : Albugo is a parasitic fungus on mustard. (1) Only statement-1 and statement-2 are correct (2) All the above statements are incorrect (3) Only statement-3 is correct (4) Both statement-1 and statement-3 are correct Sol. Answer (3) Yeast is a unicellular fungus. Penicillium is a multicellular fungus. Albugo is a parasitic fungus, causes white rust in crucifers.

27. Mark the correct statement. (1) Phycomycetes include mushrooms, bracket fungi or puff balls (2) The mycelium of basidiomycetes is branched and septate (3) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work, it belongs to group basidiomycetes (4) Morels and truffles are non-edible

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Sol. Answer (2) Basidiomycetes include mushrooms, bracket fungi or puff balls. Neurospora belongs to group ascomycetes. Morels and Truffles are edible.

28. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events. (1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis (2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy (3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis (4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy Sol. Answer (3) Sexual reproduction in fungi has three stages (a) Plasmogamy : Fusion of protoplasm of male and female gametes. (b) Karyogamy : Fusion of nucli = Diploid = Zygote (c) Meiosis : Reductional division

29. Mark the odd one w.r.t. kingdom fungi. (1) They reproduce asexually and sexually (2) They show a great diversity in structure and habitat (3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition (4) They do not reproduce by zoospores Sol. Answer (4) Fungi • Reproduce asexually and sexually • Great diversity in structure and habitat • Most of fungi are saprophytic. • Lower fungi reproduces by zoospores

30. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different genotypes. It is the feature of (1) Phycomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes (3) Ascomycetes (4) All of these Sol. Answer (2) Basidiomycetes • Sex organs absent • Fusion of two vegetative/somatic cells of different genotypes

31. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which ______division occurs, leading to formation of ______spores. (1) Mitotic, diploid (2) Reduction, haploid (3) Mitotic, haploid (4) Reduction, diploid Sol. Answer (2)

Fungi Reproductive body Haploid spores

Somatic cells Somatic cells Spores

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32. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common in (1) Agaricus (2) Saccharomyces (3) Euglena (4) Gonyaulax Sol. Answer (1) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common in fungi.

33. Select the incorrect match. Class Member (1) Phycomycetes – Albugo (2) Basidiomycetes – Claviceps (3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma Sol. Answer (2) Phycomycetes – Albugo Basidiomycetes – Agaricus Ascomycetes – Penicillium Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma

34. Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is (1) Ascospore (2) Basidiospore (3) Oospore (4) Zygospore Sol. Answer (2) Exogenous haploid sexual spore – Basidiospore Endogenous haploid sexual spore – Ascospores

35. Coenocytic mycelium is found in (1) Deuteromycetes (2) Phycomycetes (3) Ascomycetes (4) All of these Sol. Answer (2) Coenocytic mycelium – Oomycetes and Zygomycetes Septate mycelium – Deuteromycetes, Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

36. The members of which group are commonly known as sac fungi? (1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Ascomycetes Sol. Answer (4) Sac fungi – Ascomycetes Club fungi – Basidiomycetes Imperfect fungi – Deuteromycetes Or Dustbin fungi Algal fungi – Oomycetes Conjugated fungi – Zygomycetes

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37. Identify A, B and C in given diagram.

ABC

(1) A = Mucor, B = Aspergillus, C = Agaricus (2) A = Mucor, B = Agaricus, C = Aspergillus (3) A = Agaricus, B = Mucor, C = Aspergillus (4) A = Agaricus, B = Aspergillus, C = Mucor Sol. Answer (1) Mucor – Zygomycetes Aspergillus – Ascomycetes Agaricus – Basidiomycetes

38. Which one is correctly matched? (1) Agaricus - Smut (2) Ustilago - Mushroom (3) Puccinia - Insectivorous plant (4) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi Sol. Answer (4) Agaricus – Mushroom Ustilago – Smut Puccinia – Rust Deuteromycetes – Imperfect fungi

39. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant (2) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of insectivorous plants. (3) Plantae includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) The mode of nutrition in plants is holozoic Sol. Answer (4) Cuscuta (Amarbael) is parasitic plant Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are insectivorous plants Mode of nutrition in plants is autotrophic.

40. In which group of organisms, reserve food is stored in the form of glycogen and fat? (1) Man and Monkey (2) Cuscuta and Dog (3) Bladderwort and Cuscuta (4) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap Sol. Answer (1) Organism Stored food Man – Glycogen Monkey – Fat

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(Viruses, Viroids and Lichens)

41. Which of the following statement is incorrect about viruses? (1) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA (2) Viruses do not have their own metabolic system (3) Bacteriophages are usually double stranded DNA viruses (4) TMV contains both RNA and DNA as its genetic material Sol. Answer (4) TMV contains RNA as its genetic material

42. Viruses that infect the bacteria are termed as (1) Cyanophages (2) Bacteriophages (3) Mycophages (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (2) Bacteriphages – Viruses that infect the bacteria

43. Who demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants? (1) Pasteur (2) M.W. Beijerinek (3) D.J. Ivanowsky (4) W.M. Stanley Sol. Answer (2) M.W. Beijerinek demonstrated that extract of the infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants.

44. The protein coat called capsid made of small subunits called capsomeres are present in (1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Gymnosperms Sol. Answer (1) Viruses – Capsid made of small subunits, capsomeres

45. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genetic material. (1) Herpes virus – ssDNA (2) Bacteriophage – dsDNA (3) TMV – ssRNA (4) Influenza virus – ssRNA Sol. Answer (1) Herpes virus – dsDNA Bacteriophage – dsDNA TMV – ssRNA Influenza virus – ssRNA

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46. Identify A, B, C and D parts in this diagram of bacteriophage.

A

B C

D

(1) A – Head, B – Sheath, (2) A – Head, B – Collar, C – Collar, D – Tail fibres C – Sheath, D – Tail fibres (3) A – Head, B – Collar, (4) A – Head, B – Sheath, C – Tail fibres, D – Sheath C – Tail fibres, D – Collar Sol. Answer (2)

Head (A)

Sheath (B) (C) Collar

Tail fibres (D)

47. Select the correct statement. (1) Viroids have double stranded RNA (2) RNA of viroids have high molecular weight than viruses (3) Mumps and Herpes are viral diseases (4) The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky Sol. Answer (3) (i) Viroids–infectious RNA particles (ii) RNA of viroids have low molecular weight. (iii) Name virus was given by Pasteur

48. Lichens show symbiotic relationship between (1) Algae and fungi (2) Algae and bacteria (3) Fungi and bacteriophage (4) Algae and bacteriophage Sol. Answer (1) Lichen (Algae and fungi)

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49. Which is correct w.r.t. lichens? (1) Mycobiont is autotrophic component (2) Phycobiont is heterotrophic component (3) They are good pollution indicators (4) They do not grow in non-polluted areas Sol. Answer (3) Lichens – Good pollution indicators

50. The association of fungi with the roots of higher plants is called (1) Lichens (2) Mycorrhiza (3) Slime mould (4) Neurospora Sol. Answer (2) Mycorrhiza – Association of fungi with roots of higher plants

SECTION - B Objective Type Questions (Kingdom Systems of Classification) 1. Which kingdom was introduced in four kingdom classification and who proposed it ? (1) Protista and Copeland (2) Plantae and Linnaeus (3) Monera and Whittaker (4) Monera and Copeland Sol. Answer (4) Four Kingdom Classification • Monera Kingdom was introduced • Copeland introduced 2. Select correct match w.r.t. Whittaker’ system of classification (1) Monera : Unicellular, osmotrophs, producers and decomposers, true cellulosic cell wall (2) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic, photoauto-trophs and chemoautotrophs (3) Fungi : Multicellular/loose tissue, eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall (4) Animalia : Multicellular, eukaryotic, organ or organ system, holozoic, no saprobic Sol. Answer (3) Whittaker’s system of classification Fungi – Multicellular / loose tissue Eukaryotic Osmotrophs → Saprotrophs Chitinous wall

3. Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (w.r.t. six kingdom system)? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 Sol. Answer (4) Six kingdom classification Archaebacteria Prokaryotes Eubacteria Eukaryotes Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 92 Biological Classification Solutions of Assignment

(Kingdom : Monera) 4. Bacteria are considered primitive organisms because they (1) Possess incipient nucleus (2) Are small, microscopic plants, which are not seen by the naked eyes (3) Cause serious diseases to human being, domesticated animals and crop plants (4) Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions Sol. Answer (1) Bacteria • Primitive organisms • Posses incipient nucleus

5. 70S ribosomes, chromatophores and circular DNA, are found in (1) All eukaryotes (2) All prokaryotes (3) Some prokaryotes (4) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes Sol. Answer (3) Some prokaryotes • 70 S ribosomes • Chromatophores • Circular DNA

6. There is no alternation of generation in Escherichia coli because of the absence of (1) Syngamy (2) Reduction division (3) Conjugation (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (4) E.coli • No alternation of generation • No syngamy • No reduction division

7. Branched chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of (1) Methanobacterium (2) Mycoplasma (3) Actinomycetes (4) Streptomyces Sol. Answer (1) Branched chain lipids occur in the cell membrane of Archeaebacteria.

8. Cyanobacteria do not possess (1) Gene recombinations (2) Flagella (3) Plasmids (4) Pigments Sol. Answer (2) Cynobacteria • Flagella absent • Gene recombinations • Plasmids Present • Pigments

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9. Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes 15 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How much time will it take to fill the cup? (1) 30 minutes (2) 45 minutes (3) 60 minutes (4) 17 minutes Sol. Answer (4) 1 4 of cup = 15 minutes 1 2 of cup = 16 minutes Cup of bacteria = 17 minutes

10. Highly resistance nature of endospore is due to the presence of (1) Dipicolinic acid and peptidoglycan in spore coat (2) Peptidoglycan in exosporium (3) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex (4) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cell membrane Sol. Answer (3) Highly resistance nature of endosperm is due to – dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex.

11. Endospores formed by certain bacteria are actually the means for (1) Reproduction (2) Perennation (3) Bioluminescence (4) Red snow formation Sol. Answer (2) Endospores formed by certain bacteria are actually means of perennation

12. Select an incorrect statement for F+ bacteria (1) It has F plasmid (2) Only somatic pili are present (3) It is considered as donor bacterium (4) It cannot conjugate with another F+ form Sol. Answer (2) F+ bacteria • Has F plasmid • donor bacterium • cannot conjugate with another F+ form. • both fertility and somatic pili are present.

(Kingdom : Protista) 13. Sea water glows during night mainly due to occurrence of (1) Gonyaulax (2) Noctiluca (3) Euglena (4) Cyclotella Sol. Answer (2) Sea water glows during night Noctiluca

14. Rejuvenescent spore of diatom is (1) Haploid and exospore (2) Diploid and statospore (3) Haploid and statospore (4) Diploid and auxospore Sol. Answer (4) Rejuvenescent spore of diatom – Diploid and Auxospore

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15. Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate which is stored as reserve food in case of (1) Diatom (2) Euglena (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Paramoecium Sol. Answer (1) Organism Reserve food Diatom – Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) Euglena – Paramylon Dinoflagellates – Carbohydrate and oil Paramecium – Glycogen granules

16. Flagellation in Euglena is (1) Uniflagellation and stichonematic (2) Isokont and whiplash type (3) Heterokont and whiplash type (4) Heterokont and stichonematic Sol. Answer (4) Flagellation in Englena • Flagella two but different size (Heterokont) • One side mastigoneus (Stichonematic)

17. Special type of red pigment present in the eye-spot of Euglena and Crustacea is called (1) Phycoerythrin (2) Astaxanthin (3) Carotene (4) Xanthophyll Sol. Answer (2) Eye spot of Euglena and Crustacea – Red pigment (Astaxanthin)

18. Paraflagellar body of Euglena helps in (1) Locomotion (2) Photoreception (3) Reproduction (4) Osmoregulation Sol. Answer (2) Paraflagellar body of Englena – Photosensitive (Photoreception)

19. The structure formed in the life cycle of cellular slime-mould due to chemotactic movement is (1) Pseudoplasmodium (2) Swarm cells (3) Macrocyst (4) Capillitia Sol. Answer (1) Cellular slime mould

Somatic Phase Pseudoplasmodium (Primitive multicellular fungi or advanced protist) ⇓

20. Myxamoeba are formed in the life cycle of (1) Physarum (2) Amoeba (3) Entamoeba (4) Diatoms Sol. Answer (1) Acellular slime mould – Myxamoeba (eg. Physarum)

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21. Difference between a red sea and red tide is (1) Red tide takes place in red sea (2) Associated with a cyanobacteria and protist respectively (3) One is by virus and other by bacteria (4) Associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms respectively Sol. Answer (2) Red sea Red tide Cyanobacteria Dinoflagellate eg. Trichodesmium erythrum eg. Gonyaulax, Gymnodinium

22. Consider the following statements and select correct set of features w.r.t. the life cycle of acellular slime moulds a. Haploid vegetative stage as myxamoebae b. Diploid vegetative stage as plasmodium c. Capillitium d. Photosynthetic protists e. Sporic meiosis f. Isogamous sexual reproduction g. Anisogamous sexual reproduction with zygotic meiosis (1) a, c, g (2) b, c, g (3) b, d, e, f (4) b, c, e, f Sol. Answer (4) Acellular slime mould ⇒ • diploid vegetative stage as plasmodium • Capillitium ⇒ bears spores • Sporic meiosis = Meiosis leads to spore formation. • Isogamous sexual reproduction

(Kingdom : Fungi, Kingdom Plantae, Kingdom Animalia)

23. Find the correct match Column I Column II a. Gill fungi (i) Salmon disease b. Cup fungi (ii) Trama c. Black mould (iii) Penicillin d. Blue / green mould (iv) Zygophore (v) Apothecium (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i) (3) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) Sol. Answer (3) Gill fungi – Trama (central part) Cup fungi – Apothecium (Peziza & Ascobolus) Black mould – Zygophore Blue/Green mould – Penicillin

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24. Select incorrectly matched pair (1) Mucor mucedo - Coprophilous (2) Albugo candida - Facultative parasite (3) Agaricus bisporus - Edible basidiocarp (4) Puccinia graminis - Black rust fungi Sol. Answer (2) Albugo candida – Obligate parasite

25. Fungi differs from bacteria in (1) Mode of nutrition (2) Having NAG in cell wall (3) Flagella structure (4) Reserve food material as glycogen Sol. Answer (3) Fungi differs from bacteria in flagella structure

26. Fruiting body in Aspergillus (or Penicillium) is known as (1) Cleistothecium (2) Apothecium (3) Perithecium (4) Ascus Sol. Answer (1) Ascocarp in Aspergillus & Pencillium is cleistothecium

27. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as (1) Late blight of potato (2) Early blight of potato (3) Dry rot of potato (4) Potato scab Sol. Answer (1) Irish famine – Late blight of potato

28. A dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Zygomycetes Sol. Answer (3) Dolipore septum occurs in – Basidiomycetes

29. Which one of the following combination of characters is correct for the given fungal group? (1) Algal fungi : Coenocytic, cellulosic wall, zoospore, zygospore, dikaryophase present (2) Conjugating : Septate mycelium, chitinous cell wall, sporangiospore, shorter (n + n) phase (3) Sac fungi : Septate mycelium, Ascogonium, Crozier stage, meiospores as ascospores, shorter dikaryophase (4) Club fungi : Shorter primary mycelium stage, No sex organs, dominant dikaryophase, zygosporic meiosis Sol. Answer (3) Sac fungi • Septate mycellium • Ascogonium • Crozier stage

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30. Find set of edible basidiocarps. (1) Agaricus, Pleurotus (2) Agaricus, Morchella (3) Volvariella, Tuber (4) Amanita, Morchella Sol. Answer (1) Basidiocarps Ascocarp Agaricus Morchella Edible Pleurotus Edible Tuber Volvariella Amanita Non-edible (Viruses, Viroids and Lichens)

31. Read the statements carefully a. Hartig net is the network of intracellular mycelium of Boletus b. Ectomycorrhiza forms ten percent of total mycorrhiza c. Fungal partner of endomycorrhiza belongs to zygomycetes or phycomycetes (1) Only a & c are correct (2) Only b & c are correct (3) Only c is correct (4) All are correct Sol. Answer (2) Harting net is the network of intercellular mycorrhiza in Boletus, Amnita or mainly basidiomycetes.

32. Symptom not seen in plants due to viruses is (1) Mosaic formation (2) Leaf rolling and curling (3) Yellowing, vein clearing (4) Root knot Sol. Answer (4) Viral symptoms in plants • Mosaic formation • Leaf rolling and curling • Yellowing, vein clearing

33. Viruses possess all the following properties, except (1) They are non-cellular organisms (2) Possess both DNA and RNA (3) Capsid protects nucleic acid (4) Have inert crystalline structure outside living cells Sol. Answer (2) Viruses posses either DNA or RNA.

34. Identify A and B given below:

AB

(1) A - DNA virus - Cauliflower mosaic virus (2) A - RNAvirus - T.M.V

B - RNA virus - Pox virus B- DNA virus - T4 bacteriophage (3) A - RNA virus - Hepatitis B virus (4) A - Reterovirus - Hepatitis B virus

B - Reterovirus - T.M.V B- RNA virus - T4 bacterophage Sol. Answer (2) TMV — RNA Virus

T4 bacteriaphage – DNA virus

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35. Read the following statements carefully and identify correct statements w.r.t. Lichens a. The association cannot tolerate air pollution, especially due to sulphur dioxide b. Lichens are annuals and their growth is slow c. The fungal partner mostly belongs to ascomycetes. d. Soredia are most efficient means of asexual reproduction e. Orchids seldom occur without this association f. Foliose lichens are pioneers of succession in a water body. (1) c, d, f (2) a, c, d, f (3) a, b, e (4) a, c, d Sol. Answer (4) Lichens are perennial and their growth is slow.

SECTION - C Previous Years Questions 1. Viroids differ from viruses in having : [NEET-2017] (1) DNA molecules with protein coat (2) DNA molecules without protein coat (3) RNA molecules with protein coat (4) RNA molecules without protein coat Sol. Answer (4) Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA particles, without protein coat. 2. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? [NEET-2017] (1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycobacteria Sol. Answer (1) Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane which reduces fluidity of cell membrane. Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats. 3. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? [NEET-2017] (1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas (3) Mycoplasma (4) Nostoc Sol. Answer (3) Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes, pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both plants and animals. 4. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) They are eukaryotic (2) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall (3) They are heterotrophic (4) They are both unicellular and multicellular Sol. Answer (2) Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin and polysaccharides. 5. Methanogens belong to [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Eubacteria (2) Archaebacteria (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Slime moulds Sol. Answer (2) Methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophiles are archaebacteria. 6. Select the wrong statement. [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible (2) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of diatoms (3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans (4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water Sol. Answer (1) The cell walls of diatoms are embedded with silica and thus the walls are indestructible.

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7. Select the wrong statement [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (2) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells (3) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells (4) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism Sol. Answer (2) Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of the bacteria that do not play a role in motility. 8. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [NEET-2016] (1) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi (2) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae (3) Golden algae are also called desmids (4) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria Sol. Answer (4) Eubacteria are true bacteria. 9. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom [NEET-2016] (1) Animalia (2) Monera (3) Protista (4) Fungi Sol. Answer (3) All single celled eukaryotes like chrysophytes [diatoms and desmids], Euglenoids [Euglena], Dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in kingdom -Protista. 10. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is [NEET-2016] (1) Hemicellulose (2) Chitin (3) Peptidoglycan (4) Cellulose Sol. Answer (2) Cell wall of most fungi is made up of chitin. 11. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the [NEET-2016] (1) Eubacteria (2) Halophiles (3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Methanogens Sol. Answer (4) Methanogens are obligate anaerobic ancient and primitive bacteria. They are involved in methanogenesis. 12. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids? [NEET-2016] (1) Their RNA is of high molecular weight (2) They lack a protein coat (3) They are smaller than viruses (4) They causes infections Sol. Answer (1) Viroids have RNA of low molecular weight. 13. Choose the wrong statement [Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation (2) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics (3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics (4) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms Sol. Answer (4) Morels and truffles are edible fungi belong to class ascomycetes.

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14. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together? [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Slime moulds (2) Chrysophytes (3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates

Sol. Answer (2)

Chrysophytes are photosynthetic protists. They have overlapping cell wall like soap box. 15. Choose the wrong statement [Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses (2) The viroids were discovered by D.I. Ivanowski (3) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized (4) The term Contagium vivum fluidum was coined by M.W. Beijerinek Sol. Answer (2) The viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener. 16. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to: [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Ascomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Phycomycetes

Sol. Answer (2)

Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.

17. Pick up the wrong statement [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera

(2) Cell wall is absent in Animalia

(3) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition

(4) Some fungi are edible

Sol. Answer (1)

The members of kingdom-Monera are prokaryotes they lack nuclear membrane.

18. Which one of the following matches is correct? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes (2) Phyto- Aseptate Basidiomycetes phthora mycelium (3) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes reproduction absent (4) Mucor Reproduction by Ascomycetes conjugation

Sol. Answer (3)

19. The guts of cow and buffalo possess [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Fucus spp. (3) Chlorella spp. (4) Methanogens

Sol. Answer (4)

20. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus (2) Mode of reproduction

(3) Mode of nutrition (4) Complexity of body organisation

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Sol. Answer (2) Five kingdom system was not based on presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus 21. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in [AIPMT-2014] (1) Cell membrane structure (2) Mode of nutrition (3) Cell shape (4) Mode of reproduction Sol. Answer (1) Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in cell membrane structure. 22. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? [AIPMT-2014] (1) Polio virus (2) Tobacco mosaic virus (3) Measles virus (4) Retrovirus Sol. Answer (2) TMV – Coiled RNA strand and capsomeres 23. Viruses have [AIPMT-2014] (1) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (2) Prokaryotic nucleus (3) Single chromosome (4) Both DNA and RNA Sol. Answer (1) Viruses – DNA enclosed in a protein coat 24. The motile bacteria are able to move by: [AIPMT-2014] (1) Fimbriae (2) Flagella (3) Cilia (4) Pili Sol. Answer (2) 25. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are [NEET-2013] (1) Basal bodies (2) Pneumatophores (3) Chromatophores (4) Heterocysts Sol. Answer (3) Chromatophores : – Cynaobacteria – Pigment-containing membranous extensions 26. Which statement is wrong for viruses? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins (2) Antibiotics have no effect on them (3) All are parasites (4) All of them have helical symmetry Sol. Answer (4) All viruses do not have helical symmetry 27. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Slime moulds (2) Blue green algae (3) Protists (4) Golden algae Sol. Answer (2) Cynobacteria = Blue green algae 28. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus (2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista (3) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillum (4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan

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Sol. Answer (1) Correct statement 29. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia [AIPMT (Mains)-2012] (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three Sol. Answer (3) Autotrophs – Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Porphyra & Wolffia 30. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in [AIPMT (Mains)-2012] (1) Protista (2) Algae (3) Plantae (4) Monera Sol. Answer (1) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella – Protista 31. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Amoeba proteus (2) Paramecium caudatum (3) Escherichia coli (4) Euglena viridis Sol. Answer (3) 32. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Plasmodium (2) Saccharomyces (3) Streptococcus (4) Chlamydomonas

Sol. Answer (3) Membrane-bound organelles are absent in Prokaryotes. 33. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Archaea Sol. Answer (2) Protista – Single celled eukaryotes 34. Virus envelope is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Core (2) Capsid (3) Virion (4) Nucleoprotein Sol. Answer (2) 35. Algae have cell wall made up of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans (3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins Sol. Answer (2) 36. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH = 2) habitats belong to the two groups [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Liverworts and yeasts (2) Eubacteria and archaea (3) Cyanobacteria and diatoms (4) Protists and mosses Sol. Answer (2) Eubacteria and Archaea – Hyperthermophilic – Can grow in highly acidic pH.

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37. Infectious proteins are present in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Satellite viruses (2) Gemini viruses (3) Prions (4) Viroids Sol. Answer (3)

38. Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by : [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Alternaria solani (2) Ustilago nuda (3) Puccinia graminis (4) Xanthomonas oryzae

Sol. Answer (3)

39. Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four parts A, B,C and D are correct?

A

C B

D

Options :

A B C D (1) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar (2) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres (3) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres (4) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

Sol. Answer (3) Bacteriophage has Head, Sheath, Collar, Tail fibres 40. Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms (a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas. (b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen. (c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose. (d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen. The correct statement are [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) (b), (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) (3) (b), (c), (d) (4) (a), (b), (d) Sol. Answer (4)

Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize glucose from CO2.

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41. T.O. Diener discovered a [AIPMT (Prelims-2009) & (Mains-2010)] (1) Free infectious DNA (2) Infectious protein (3) Bacteriophage (4) Free infectious RNA Sol. Answer (4) Free infectious RNA (Viroids) – T.O. Diener 42. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis (2) Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda (3) Root-knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne (4) Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani Sol. Answer (4) 43. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Azotobacter (2) Frankia (3) Azolla (4) Glomus Sol. Answer (2) 44. Thermococcus,Methanococcus and Methano--bacterium exemplify [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes (2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones (3) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled (4) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria Sol. Answer (3) Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium – Archaebacteria 45. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Saccharomyces (2) Pythium (3) Xanthomonas (4) Pseudomonas Sol. Answer (2) Pythium is oomycetes and having cellulosic cell wall. 46. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes (2) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects (3) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes (4) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes Sol. Answer (3) Archaebacteria have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes. 47. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Erwinia (2) Xanthomonas (3) Pseudomonas (4) Alternaria Sol. Answer (2) 48. Biological organisation starts with: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Atomic level (2) Submicroscopic molecular level (3) Cellular level (4) Organismic level Sol. Answer (2)

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49. Which one of the following is a slime mould? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Anabaena (2) Rhizopus (3) Physarum (4) Thiobacillus Sol. Answer (3) Physarum – Slime mould 50. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) They cause disease in plants (2) They are also called PPLO (3) They are pleomorphic (4) They are sensitive to penicillin Sol. Answer (4) Mycoplasma is insensitive to penicillin 51. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Morchella and Mushrooms (2) Birds’ nest fungi and Puffballs (3) Puffballs and Claviceps (4) Peziza and Stink horns Sol. Answer (2) Basidiomycetes Ascomycetes Puffballs Claviceps Stink horns Peziza Mushrooms Morchella Birds nest fungi (Cyathus) 52. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Claviceps (2) Phytophthora (3) Uncinula (4) Ustilago Sol. Answer (1) Ergot of rye – Clavicep purperia 53. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Protonema (2) Plasmodium (3) Fruiting body (4) Mycelium Sol. Answer (2) Plasmodium • Thalloid body of slime mould • Myxomycetes 54. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) A facultative anaerobe (2) An obligate anaerobe (3) A facultative aerobe (4) An obligate aerobe Sol. Answer (2) Clostridium botulinum is an obligate anaerobe. 55. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ? A. Temperature of about 25°C B. Temperature of about 5°C C. Relative humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about 95%

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E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the answer from the following options : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) A, C and E only (2) A, D and E only (3) B, D and E only (4) B, C and F only Sol. Answer (2) Essential environmental conditions for Mucor. • 25°C • Relative humidity – 95 % • Shady place

56. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Bacteria (2) Mycorrhiza (3) Viruses (4) Fungi Sol. Answer (1) To improve the flavour and taste in tea by bacteria called curing of tea leaves. 57. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) These are all unicellular protists (2) They have flagella (3) They produce spores (4) These are all parasites Sol. Answer (1) 58. Barophilic prokaryotes [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes (2) Occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide (3) Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments (4) Readily grown and divides in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium Sol. Answer (3) Barophilic prokaryotes grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments.

59. Auxospores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria (2) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms (3) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria (4) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms Sol. Answer (1) Auxospores – Diatoms Hormocysts – Cyanobacteria

60. All of the following statements concerning the actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Can induce root nodules on many plant species (2) Can fix nitrogen in the free-living state (3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex (4) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids Sol. Answer (2) Frankia is free living bacteria but can fix nitrogen in free living as well as symbiotic state. Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Biological Classification 107

61. Which of the following unicellular organism has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Euglena (2) Amoeba (3) Paramoecium (4) Trypanosoma Sol. Answer (3) 62. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Helicobacter pylori (2) Methophilic bacteria (3) Streptococcus lactin (4) Butyric acid bacteria Sol. Answer (4) Retting of jute – Butyric acid bacteria 63. In the five kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria? (1) Plantae (2) Protista (3) Monera (4) Fungi Sol. Answer (3) Cyanobacteria, Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and Archaebacteria–Monera 64. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is (1) Structure of nucleus (2) Mode of nutrition (3) Structure of cell wall (4) Asexual reproduction Sol. Answer (2) Main basis of five-kingdom system is – mode of nutrition. 65. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used ? (1) Plantae (2) Fungi (3) Protista (4) Monera Sol. Answer (4) Archaebacteria and Nitrogen-fixing bacteria–Monera. 66. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group (1) Monera (2) Plantae (3) Fungi (4) Animalia Sol. Answer (1) Maximum nutritional diversity–Monera. 67. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are (1) Akinetes (2) Heterocysts (3) Hormogonia (4) Nodules Sol. Answer (2) Heterocystes – Specialised cells for Nitrogen-fixation in Nostoc. 68. Nuclear membrane is absent in (1) Volvox (2) Nostoc (3) Penicillium (4) Agaricus Sol. Answer (2) Nostoc – Prokaryotes (Nuclear membrane absent) 69. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorised as (1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs (2) Heterotrophic bacteria (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Archaebacteria

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Sol. Answer (2) Heterotrophic bacteria – Making curd and antibiotics 70. Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a (1) Hot spring (2) Sulphur rock (3) Cattle yard (4) Polluted stream Sol. Answer (3) Cattle yard – Methanogens are most abundant 71. Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage? (1) Marsh gas (2) Laughing gas (3) Propane (4) Mustard gas Sol. Answer (1) Marsh gas is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage. 72. A peculiar odour that prevails in marshy areas and cow-sheds is on account of a gas produced by (1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria (3) Slime moulds (4) Cyanobacteria Sol. Answer (2) Methane is produced by Methanogens. 73. Organisms, which fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil, fall under the category of (1) Bacteria (2) Green algae (3) Soil fungi (4) Mosses Sol. Answer (1) Nitrogen-fixing organisms are bacteria. 74. Transduction in bacteria is mediated by (1) Plasmid vector (2) Phage vector (3) Cosmid (4) F-factor Sol. Answer (2) Transduction in bacteria is mediated by virus. (Phage vector) 75. Many blue-green algae occur in thermal springs (hot water springs). The temperature tolerance of these algae have been attributed to their (1) Mitochondrial structure (2) Importance of homopolar bonds in their proteins (3) Cell wall structure (4) Modern cell organization Sol. Answer (2) Temperature tolerance of BGA is due to homopolymer bonds in their protein. 76. For the first time, the bacteria were observed by (1) Robert Koch (2) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (3) W.H. Stanley (4) Louis Pasteur Sol. Answer (2) A.V. Leeuwenhoek, first time observed the bacteria. 77. A large number of organic compounds can be decomposed by (1) Photoheterotorphs (2) Pseudomonas (3) Photolithotrophs (4) Chemoheterotrophs Sol. Answer (2) Pseudomonas decomposes a large number of organic compounds.

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78. What are the sex organs provided in some bacteria? (1) Sex pili (2) Plasmid (3) Circular DNA (4) Gametes Sol. Answer (1) Sex pilli are the sex organs in some bacteria. 79. BGA (blue green algae) are included in which of the following groups? (1) Bryophytes (2) Prokaryotes (3) Protista (4) Fungi Sol. Answer (2) BGA, (cyanobacteria) belong to prokaryotes. 80. Which type of DNA is found in bacteria? (1) Circular DNA (2) Membrane bound DNA (3) Straight DNA (4) Helical DNA Sol. Answer (1) Bacterial DNA is circular DNA. 81. A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at temperatures of 100-105°C. They belong to (1) Thermophilic sulphur bacteria (2) Hot spring blue-green algae (3) Thermophilic subaerial fungi (4) Marine archaebacteria Sol. Answer (2) Bacteria grow and multiply at temperature of 100–105°C are hot spring blue-green algae. 82. The DNA of E.coli is (1) Double stranded and linear (2) Double stranded and circular (3) Single stranded and linear (4) Single stranded and circular Sol. Answer (2) DNA of E.coli. – Double stranded and circular 83. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in (1) Chromoplasts (2) Chromatophores (3) Leucoplasts (4) Chloroplasts Sol. Answer (2) Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in chromatophores

84. What is true for Archaebacteria? (1) All are halophiles (2) All are photosynthetic (3) All are fossils (4) Oldest living beings Sol. Answer (4) Archaebacteria is oldest living beings.

85. What is true for cyanobacteria? (1) Oxygenic with nitrogenase (2) Oxygenic without nitrogenase (3) Non oxygenic with nitrogenase (4) Non oxygenic without nitrogenase Sol. Answer (1) Cynobacteria is oxygenic with nitrogenase (Nitrogen-fixation)

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86. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called (1) Photoautotrophs (2) Chemoautotrophs (3) Saprozoic (4) Coproheterotrophs Sol. Answer (2) Chemoautotrophs – Energy source is from oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds.

87. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction? (1) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus (2) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by establishing contact (3) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly from mother cell (4) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external source Sol. Answer (1) Bacterial transduction – Transfer of some genes from one bacterium to another bacterium through virus.

88. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 in number and (1) Are always circular with more G ≡ C content (2) Are always linear with more G ≡ C content (3) Can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell (4) Can be circular as well as linear within the same cell Sol. Answer (1) Bacteria • Can be one chromosome • Except Mycoplasma bacterial DNA is circular.

89. Viruses that infect bacteria and cause their lysis, are called (1) Lysozymes (2) Lipolytic (3) Lytic (4) Lysogenic Sol. Answer (3) Bacteriophage causes lysis of bacteria – Lytic bacteriophage. 90. The most thoroughly studied bacteria plant interactions is the (1) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns (2) Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium (3) Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria (4) Plant growth stimulation by phosphate-solubilising bacteria Sol. Answer (2) Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium is thoroughly studied. 91. What is true for photolithotrops? (1) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds (2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds (3) Obtain energy from organic compounds (4) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds

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Sol. Answer (2) Photolithotrophs Energy from – Radiations Hydrogen from – Inorganic compounds 92. The protists have (1) Only free nucleic acid aggregates (2) Membrane bound nucleoproteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm (3) Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass (4) Nucleoprotein in direct contact with the rest of the cell substance Sol. Answer (2) Protists are eukaryotes and they have membrane-bound nucleoproteins in cytoplasm. 93. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of a plant and an animal? (1) Euglena (2) Paramoecium (3) Bacteria (4) Mycoplasma Sol. Answer (1) Euglena possesses characteristics of plant and animal. 94. Capillitium is present in the sporangium of (1) Dictyostelium (2) Polysphondylium (3) Physarum (4) Navicula Sol. Answer (3) Capillitium Present in slime mould. eg., Physarum 95. Which one of the following is true for fungi? (1) They are phagotrophs (2) They lack a rigid cell wall (3) They are heterotrophs (4) They lack nuclear membrane Sol. Answer (3) Fungi are heterotrophic. 96. When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some fungi before the formation of diploid, this stage is called (1) Diplotene (2) Diplophase (3) Dikaryophase (4) Dikaryote Sol. Answer (3) Two haploid nuclei per cell in some fungi – Dikaryophase. 97. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide? (1) Black rust of wheat (2) Bacterial leaf blight of rice (3) Downy mildew of grapes (4) Loose smut of wheat Sol. Answer (3) Bordeaux mixture – Fungicide – Discovered by R.M.A. Millardet – Control of Downy mildew

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98. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by (1) Albugo candida (2) Puccinia graminis tritici (3) Ustilago nuda (4) Cleviceps purpurea Sol. Answer (2) Black rust of wheat White rust in crucifer • Puccinia graminis tritici • Albugo candida or Cystopus candidus – Ergot of rye – Loose smut • Clavicep purpurea • Ustilago nuda 99. The smut of maize is caused by (1) Ustilago avenae (2) Ustilago nuda (3) Ustilago hordei (4) Ustilago maydis Sol. Answer (4) Smut of maize – Ustilago maydis 100. Puccinia forms uredia and (1) Telia on wheat leaves (2) Aecia on barberry leaves (3) Pycnia on barberry leaves (4) Aecia on wheat leaves. Sol. Answer (1) Puccinia forms spores Wheat Leaves – Uredia & Telia (n + n) Barberry leaves – Aecia & Pycnia Soil – Basidiospore 101. Columella is a specialized structure found in the sporangium of (1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix (3) Rhizopus (4) Penicillium Sol. Answer (3) Sporangiospore – Collumella present e.g., Rhizopus Mucor Dung mould 102. Dikaryotisation occurs in Puccinia on (1) Upper surface of Barberry leaf (2) Lower surface of Barberry leaf (3) Upper surface of wheat leaf (4) Lower surface of wheat leaf Sol. Answer (1) Dikaryotisation in Puccinia – Upper surface of Barbery leaf

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103. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrate the host with the help of (1) Mechanical pressure and enzymes (2) Hooks and suckers (3) Softening by enzymes only (4) Only by mechanical pressure Sol. Answer (1) Adhesive pad of fungi penetrate in the host with the help of – Mechanical pressure and enzymes 104. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers? (1) Loose smut of wheat (2) Corn smut (3) Covered smut of barley (4) Soft rot of potato Sol. Answer (1) Fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers – Loose smut of wheat. 105. Which of the following secrete toxins during storage conditions of crop plants? (1) Aspergillus (2) Penicillium (3) Fusarium (4) Colletotrichum Sol. Answer (1) Aspergillus secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants. 106. Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of (1) Parasitism (2) Symbiosis (3) Antagonism (4) Endemism Sol. Answer (2) Mycorrhiza – Symbiotic relation 107. Mycorrhiza is correctly described as (1) Parasitic association between roots and some fungi (2) Symbiotic relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants (3) Symbiosis of algae and fungi (4) Relation of ants with the stem of some trees Sol. Answer (2) Mycorrhiza – Fungi and roots of higher plants 108. VAM is an example of (1) Endomycorrhiza (2) Ectoparasitism (3) Endoparasitism (4) Ectomycorrhiza Sol. Answer (1) VAM – Endomycorrhiza e.g., Glomus 109. An example of endomycorrhiza is (1) Nostoc (2) Glomus (3) Agaricus (4) Rhizobium Sol. Answer (2) Endomycorrhiza e.g., Glomus → Orchids 110. Satellite RNAs are present in some (1) Plant viruses (2) Viroids (3) Prions (4) Bacteriophages Sol. Answer (1) Satellite RNAs (Plant viruses)

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111. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses, is called (1) Histone (2) Antibody (3) Interferon (4) Antigen Sol. Answer (3) Interferon – Cell-coded protein – In response to infection with animal viruses 112. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are associated with (1) Single stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA (3) Single stranded DNA (4) Double stranded RNA Sol. Answer (1) TMV – Single stranded RNA 113. The tailed bacteriophages are (1) Motile on surface of bacteria (2) Non-motile (3) Motile on surface of plant leaves (4) Actively motile in water Sol. Answer (2) The tailed bacteriophages – Non-motile 114. Viruses posses (1) Ribosomes to synthesize protein (2) Organelles for its vital mechanisms (3) Either DNA or RNA (4) None of these Sol. Answer (3) Viruses – Either RNA or DNA 115. Enzymes are generally not found in (1) Fungi (2) Algae (3) Virus (4) Cyanobacteria Sol. Answer (3) Enzymes are generally absent in viruses.

116. Viruses are living, because they (1) Multiply in host cells (2) Carry anaerobic respiration (3) Carry metabolic activities (4) Cause infection Sol. Answer (1) Viruses are living because they multiply in host cells. 117. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because (1) They require both RNA and DNA (2) They both need food molecules (3) They both require oxygen for respiration (4) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate Sol. Answer (4) Viruses and isolated chromosomes require the environment of a cell to replicate. 118. Tobacco mosaic virus is elongated rod like with size (1) 300 × 10 nm (2) 300 × 5 nm (3) 300 × 18 nm (4) 700 × 30 nm Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Biological Classification 115

Sol. Answer (3) TMV • Elongated rod-like • 300 × 18 nm size 119. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct ? (1) Viruses possess their own metabolic system (2) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA (3) Viruses are obligate parasites (4) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid Sol. Answer (3) Viruses – Obligate parasites 120. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? (1) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses (2) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (3) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA (4) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man Sol. Answer (1) Reterovirus Reverse transcriptase RNA DNA 121. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a (1) Virus (2) Bacterium (3) Prion (4) Worm Sol. Answer (3) Prion ( = Proteins) Mad cow disease Kuru disease Only in animals Creutz Feldt Jakob disease 122. Which one of the following statement about lichens is wrong? (1) These grow very rapidly (2 cm per day) (2) They show fungal and algal symbiotic relationships (3) Some of its species are eaten by reindeers (4) These are pollution indicators Sol. Answer (1) Lichens grow very slowly

123. Most of the lichens consist of (1) Green algae and ascomycetes (2) Brown algae and higher plant (3) Blue green algae and basidiomycetes (4) Red algae and ascomycetes Sol. Answer (1) Lichens – Green algae + Ascomycetes (Algae) (Fungi)

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124. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution? (1) They promote pollution (2) Lichens are not related with pollution (3) They treat the polluted water (4) They act as bioindicators of pollution Sol. Answer (4) Lichens – Bioindicator of air pollution

125. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has (1) A saprophytic relationship with the alga (2) An epiphytic relations1hip with the alga (3) A parasitic relationship with alga (4) A symbiotic relationship with alga Sol. Answer (4) Lichen – Symbiotic relation of fungi with algae

126. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus (1) Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the algae (2) Provides food for the alga (3) Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga (4) Releases oxygen for the alga Sol. Answer (1) Lichen

Fungus Algae (Protection, anchorage (Food for fungi) & absorption)

127. What is the genetic material in Influenza virus? (1) Double helical DNA (2) RNA (3) Single helix DNA (4) None of these Sol. Answer (2) Influenza virus – Genetric material – RNA

128. The sexual reproduction is absent in (1) Spirogyra (2) Nostoc (3) Ulothrix (4) Volvox Sol. Answer (2) Sexual reproduction is absent in prokaryotes e.g., Nostoc 129. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? (1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp. Sol. Answer (2) Hallucinogen – Amanita muscaria

130. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of (1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Ulva Sol. Answer (1) Anoxygenic phototrophs – Rhodospirillum

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131. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the (1) Trees are very healthy (2) Trees are heavily infested (3) Location is highly polluted (4) Location is not polluted Sol. Answer (4) Lichens – Bioindicator of pollution – Pollutant free environment (luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees)

SECTION - D Assertion-Reason Type Questions 1. A : Slime moulds have the characters of both plants and animals. R : Reproductive phase is animal like and vegetative phase is plant-like. Sol. Answer (3) Slime moulds – Reproductive phase is plant-like (Cell wall present in spore) – Vegetative phase is animal-like (Cell wall absent)

2. A : Methanogens can show symbiotic association with eukaryotic organisms. R : They are used for the production of biogas. Sol. Answer (2) Both statements are correct but reason is not correct explanation.

3. A : Lichens do not grow in polluted area having SO2. R : Lichens secrete carbonic acid and oxalic acid on barren rocks. Sol. Answer (2) Both (A) & (R) are correct

4. A : Secondary mycelium of Agaricus is binucleated. R : Secondary mycelium is formed by somatogamy of primary mycelium. Sol. Answer (1)

5. A : Phycobiont is dominant parent in lichens. R : Algal component in the dual organisms can be eukaryotic only. Sol. Answer (4) Mycobiont is dominant parent in lichens. Fungi is eukaryote but algae can be prokaryote or eukaryote.

6. A : Unicellular eukaryotes are included in Monera. R : Unicellular eukaryotes have 70S cytoribosomes. Sol. Answer (4) Unicellular eukaryotes are in protista.

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7. A : Slime moulds form fruiting bodies under unfavourable conditions. R : Naked plasmodium is formed during favourable conditions. Sol. Answer (2) Both (A) & (R) are correct

8. A : DNase can inhibit the process of transformation. R : Transformation is absorption of DNA segment from the surrounding medium by a living bacterium. Sol. Answer (2) Both (A) & (R) are correct

9. A : MLOs are pleomorphic and non-motile monerans. R : They are insensitive to antibiotics like penicillin. Sol. Answer (2) Both (A) & (R) are correct

10. A : Majority of bacteria are autotrophs. R : Chemoheterotrophic nutrition is absent in bacteria. Sol. Answer (4) Majority of bacteria are heterotrophs.

11. A : Holophytic protistans are important phytoplanktons and they contribute 80% of the total photosynthesis. R : They lack chemosynthetic nutrition and utilize non sulphur organic compound as the source of electron and proton in carbon assimilation. Sol. Answer (3) Holophytic protistans – 80% of total photosynthesis

– Source of electron is H2O

12. A : Sexual spores in pink mould are meiospores produced endogenously. R : They develop flask shaped fruiting body in sexual life cycle. Sol. Answer (2)

13. A : Azotodesmic lichens are biofertilisers enriching nitrogen contents in soil. R : This ability is due to the presence of heterocystous blue-green algae as phycobiont component. Sol. Answer (1)

14. A : Viroids are not included in five kingdom system. R : They are non-cellular. Sol. Answer (1)

15. A : Viruses which infect animals generally possess ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA. R : Phytophagineae generally contain dsDNA. Sol. Answer (3) Phytophginae generally contain ssRNA.

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Morphology of Flowering Plants

Solutions

SECTION - A Objective Type Questions (The Root) 1. Primary root is the direct elongation of the (1) Pedicel (2) Radicle (3) Plumule (4) Stamen Sol. Answer (2) Primary root is the direct elongation of the radicle. 2. The type of roots present in mustard plant is (1) Fibrous roots (2) Adventitious roots (3) Tap roots (4) Nodulated roots Sol. Answer (3) The type of roots present in mustard plant is tap roots. 3. Which of the following is not the lateral branches of the roots? (1) Tertiary roots (2) Secondary roots (3) Primary root (4) More than one option is correct Sol. Answer (3) Primary root is not the lateral branches of the roots. 4. In wheat plant ______root system is present. (1) Nodulated (2) Tap (3) Fibrous (4) Prop Sol. Answer (3) In wheat plant fibrous root system is present. 5. Which of the following is not the main function of the root system? (1) Provide anchorage to the plant parts (2) Synthesis of PGRs (3) Absorption of water and minerals from soil (4) Photosynthesis Sol. Answer (4) Photosynthesis is not the main function of the root system.

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6. A root grows in length, which region of the root is responsible for this growth? (1) Root cap (2) Region of meristematic activity (3) Region of elongation (4) Region of maturation Sol. Answer (3) Region of elongation of the root is responsible for the root growth. 7. Root hairs are present in/on (1) Region of elongation (2) Region of maturation (3) Region of meristematic activity (4) Root cap Sol. Answer (2) Root hairs are present in region of maturation 8. The region or part of root that increases the surface area for water absorption is (1) Root cap (2) Zone of elongation (3) Meristematic zone (4) Root hair Sol. Answer (4) Root hair increases the surface area of water absorption. 9. The tap roots of ______gets modified to store food. (1) Carrot (2) Onion (3) Ginger (4) Sweet potato Sol. Answer (1) The tap roots of carrot get modified to store food. 10. Adventitious roots of ______get swollen and store food. (1) Carrot (2) Turnip (3) Radish (4) Sweet potato Sol. Answer (4) Adventitious roots of sweet potato get swollen. 11. Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of the sugarcane stem are called (1) Prop roots (2) Stilt roots (3) Pneumatophores (4) Fusiform roots Sol. Answer (2) Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of sugarcane stem is called stilt roots. 12. In Rhizophora, roots are modified to form (1) Tuberous roots (2) Pneumatophores (3) Stilt roots (4) Storage roots Sol. Answer (2) In Rhizophora, roots are modified to form pneumatophores. 13. The hanging structures that support banyan tree are called (1) Prop roots (2) Stilt roots (3) Pneumatophores (4) Root hair Sol. Answer (1) The hanging structures that support banyan tree are called prop roots.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 3 (The Stem) 14. Stem develops from ______of the embryo of a germinating seed.

(1) Radicle (2) Plumule (3) Pedicel (4) Pneumatophore

Sol. Answer (2)

Stem develops from plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed.

15. ______are the regions of the stem that bear leaves.

(1) Internode (2) Nodes (3) Foliar bud (4) Radical bud

Sol. Answer (2)

Nodes are the regions of the stem that bear leaves.

16. Stems of potato, ginger and turmeric are modified to

(1) Respiration (2) Perform photosynthesis

(3) Store food (4) Provide support

Sol. Answer (3)

Stems of potato, ginger and turmeric are modified to store food.

17. In gourds, axillary buds develop spirally coiled structures called

(1) Thorns (2) Tendril (3) Offsets (4) Suckers

Sol. Answer (2)

In gourds, axillary buds develop spirally coiled structures called tendril.

18. ______protect Bougainvillea from grazing animals.

(1) Tendrils (2) Suckers (3) Offsets (4) Thorns

Sol. Answer (4)

Thorns protect Bougainvillea from grazing animals.

19. Stems are modified into flattened structures, which carryout photosynthesis in

(1) Euphorbia (2) Opuntia (3) Bougainvillea (4) Colocasia

Sol. Answer (2)

In Opuntia, stems are modified into flattened structures which carryout photosynthesis.

20. Chlorophyll containing fleshy cylindrical structures found in Euphorbia are modified

(1) Roots (2) Fruit (3) Leaves (4) Stem

Sol. Answer (4)

Phylloclade is stem modification in Euphorbia.

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(1) Offsets (2) Tendrils (3) Stolons (4) Suckers

Sol. Answer (1)

In Pistia and Eichhornia, stems are modified to form offsets.

(The Leaf)

22. Leaves originate from ______and are arranged in an ______order.

(1) Root apical meristem, acropetal (2) Floral meristem, basipetal

(3) Shoot apical meristem, acropetal (4) Internodes, basipetal

Sol. Answer (3)

Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an acropetal order.

23. Which of the following is not a part of a leaf?

(1) Pedicel (2) Leaf base (3) Petiole (4) Lamina

Sol. Answer (1)

Pedicel is not a part of leaf.

24. Leaf base may bear two lateral small leaf like structures called

(1) Lamina (2) Pulvinus (3) Stipules (4) Sepals

Sol. Answer (3)

Leaf base may bear two lateral small stipules.

25. Swollen leaf base found in leguminous plants is called

(1) Leaf blade (2) Petiole (3) Stipules (4) Pulvinus

Sol. Answer (4)

Swollen leaf base found in leguminous plants is called pulvinus.

26. Which one of the following plants shows alternate phyllotaxy?

(1) Sunflower (2) Guava (3) Nerium (4) Calotropis

Sol. Answer (1)

Sunflower shows alternate phyllotaxy.

27. The petiole expand and become green to synthesize food in

(1) Solanum (2) Pisum sativum (3) Venus-fly trap (4) Australian Acacia

Sol. Answer (4)

Petiole expand and become green, structure called phyllode to synthesize food.

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(The Inflorescence and The Flower) 28. Mark the incorrect statement (1) Flower is a modified shoot (2) In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower (3) Flowers are borne on successive internodes on the stems and roots (4) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, the flower is always solitary Sol. Answer (3)

Flowers are borne on successive nodes on the stems.

29. The four whorls of a flower are arranged on the

(1) Thalamus (2) Petiole (3) Corolla (4) Stamens

Sol. Answer (1)

Four whorls of a flower are arranged on the thalamus.

30. Radial symmetry is found in flowers of

(1) Cassia (2) Chilli (3) Gulmohur (4) Canna

Sol. Answer (2)

Radial symmetry is found in flowers of chilli.

31. The flower of which of the following plant is zygomorphic?

(1) Bean (2) Datura (3) Mustard (4) Canna

Sol. Answer (1)

The flower of bean is zygomorphic.

32. Which of the following plant has a superior ovary?

(1) Peach (2) Guava (3) China rose (4) Rose

Sol. Answer (3)

Guava - Inferior ovary

Peach & Rose - Perigynous

China rose - Superior ovary

33. Which of the following plant has epigynous flower?

(1) Cucumber (2) Brinjal (3) Mustard (4) Peach

Sol. Answer (1)

Cucumber has epigynous flower

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34. The ray florets of sunflower has

(1) Superior ovary (2) Half inferior ovary (3) Half superior ovary (4) Inferior ovary

Sol. Answer (4)

The ray florets of sunflower have inferior ovary.

35. Mark the incorrect match

(1) Calotropis – Valvate (2) Lady’s finger – Twisted

(3) Cassia – Valvate (4) Gulmohur – Imbricate

Sol. Answer (3)

Cassia shows imbricate aestivation

36. Match the column-I with column-II w.r.t. aestivation. Column-I Column-II

a. (i) Valvate

b. (ii) Vexillary

c. (iii) Twisted

d. (iv) Imbricate

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) Sol. Answer (4) Correct match. (a) Valvate (b) Twisted (c) Imbricate (d) Vexillary

37. Carpels are fused in the flowers of (1) Lotus (2) Tomato (3) Rose (4) Both (1) & (3) Sol. Answer (2) Carpels are fused in the flowers of tomato.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 7 38. Ovary containing the false septum occurs in

(1) Primrose (2) Dianthus (3) Argemone (4) Pisum sativum

Sol. Answer (3)

Ovary containing the false septum occurs in Argemone .

39. In ______placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary.

(1) Axile (2) Basal (3) Free central (4) Marginal

Sol. Answer (4)

In marginal placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary.

(The Fruit and The Seed)

40. The stony hard part of the mango represents

(1) Mesocarp (2) Epicarp (3) Endosperm (4) Endocarp

Sol. Answer (4)

The stony hard part of the mango represents endocarp.

41. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Mango and coconut

(1) They develop from monocarpellary superior ovaries (2) They develop from monocarpellary inferior ovaries

(3) They have fibrous epicarp (4) They have fleshy edible mesocarp

Sol. Answer (1)

Mango and coconut develop from monocarpellary superior ovaries.

42. The inner layer of the seed coat is called

(1) Testa (2) Hilum (3) Micropyle (4) Tegmen

Sol. Answer (4)

The inner layer of the seed coat is tegmen.

43. Which of the following parts of the embryo contains radicle and plumule?

(1) Cotyledon (2) Seed coat (3) Embryonal axis (4) Endosperm

Sol. Answer (3)

Embryonal axis contains radicle and plumule.

44. Which of the following plant has endospermic seed?

(1) Bean (2) Gram (3) Pea (4) Castor

Sol. Answer (4)

Castor has endospermic seed.

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(Semi-technical description of a typical flowering plant)

45. While representing a floral formula, G stands for

(1) Epigynous flower (2) Superior ovary (3) Inferior ovary (4) Androecium

Sol. Answer (2)

In floral formula, G stands for superior ovary.

46. Select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Br (i) Corolla

b. K (ii) Perianth

c. C (iii) Calyx

d. P (iv) Bracteate

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Sol. Answer (3)

Br - Bracteate

K - Calyx

C - Corolla

P - Parianth

47. Actinomorphic nature of flower is represented by which of the following symbols?

(1) A (2) % (3) ⊕ (4)

Sol. Answer (3)

Actinomorphic symbol – ⊕

(Description of some important families)

48. The floral formula of the plants belonging to the family Fabaceae is

K C A G % (1) (5) 1+2+(2) (9)+1 1 (2) K(5) C 1+2+(2) A (9)+1 G 1

(3) K5 C 1+2+2 A 9+1 G 1 (4) % K(5) C 1+2+(2) A (9)+1 G 1

Sol. Answer (4)

Floral formula of fabaceae

% K(5) C 1+2+(2) A (9)+1 G 1

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 9 49. The plants belonging to the family Solanaceae is represented by the floral formula

K C A G (1) K5552 C A G (2) (5) (5) (5) (2) (3) K(5) C (5) A 5 G (2) (4) K5 C (5) A (5) G (2)

Sol. Answer (3) Floral formula of Solanaceae

K(5) C (5) A( 5) G (2)

50. Which of the following plants is used to extract the blue dye? (1) Trifolium (2) Lupin (3) Indigofera (4) Cassia Sol. Answer (3) Indigofera is used to extract the blue dye.

SECTION - B Objective Type Questions (The Root) 1. The origin of root hairs and lateral roots is (1) Exogenous and endogenous respectively (2) Endogenous and exogenous respectively (3) Both endogenously (4) Both exogenously Sol. Answer (1) The origin of root hairs and lateral roots is exogenous and endogenous respectively. 2. Find odd one w.r.t radicle leaves (1) Maize (2) Radish (3) Carrot (4) Turnip Sol. Answer (1) Radicle leaves primary root which is present in radish, carrot and turnip except maize. 3. Cuscuta, Viscum and Orobanche are similar in having (1) Hygroscopic roots (2) Assimilatory roots (3) Epiphyllous roots (4) Haustorial roots Sol. Answer (4) Cuscuta, Viscum and Orobanche have haustorial roots to suck food and water from host. 4. Match the following Column I Column II a. Cuscuta (i) Hygroscopic root b. Rhizophora (ii) Stilt root c. Vanda (iii) Haustorial root d. Pandanus (iv) Respiratory root (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) Sol. Answer (2) Cuscuta - Haustorial root Rhizophora - Respiratory root Vanda - Hygroscopic root Pandanus - Stilt root Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 10 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment (The Stem) 5. Stem modified into green, flattened branches of unlimited growth for assimilatory function is

(1) Phyllode (2) Phylloclade (3) Cladode (4) Bulbil

Sol. Answer (2)

Phylloclade, stem modified into green, flattened branches of unlimited growth for assimilatory function.

6. Leafless stem of onion which produces cluster of terminal flowers is called as

(1) Peduncle (2) Floral axis (3) Scape (4) Rachis

Sol. Answer (3)

Leafless stem of onion which produces cluster of terminal flowers is called scape.

7. Which is not a modification of stem?

(1) Tuber of potato (2) Pitcher of Nepenthes (3) Corm of Colocasia (4) Rhizome of ginger

Sol. Answer (2)

Modification

Tuber of potato - Stem

Corm of Colocasia - Stem

Rhizome of Ginger - Stem

Pitcher of Nepenthes - Leaf

(The Leaf)

8. Reticulate venation is the feature of dicots but some monocots also exhibit this venation, like

(1) Calophyllum (2) Smilax (3) Eryngium (4) Corymbium

Sol. Answer (2)

Smilax is a monocot which exhibits reticulate venation

9. Thorns, spines and prickles work as _____ in plants.

(1) Respiratory organs (2) Excretory organs (3) Organs of offense (4) Defensive organs

Sol. Answer (4)

Thorns, spines and prickles work as defensive organs in plants

10. Leaflet tendril and entire leaf tendril are found in respectively

(1) Cucurbita, Smilax (2) Pisum, Lathyrus sativus

(3) Passiflora, Vitis (4) Luffa, Pisum

Sol. Answer (2)

Leaflet tendril and entire leaf tendril are found in Pisum and Lathyrus sativus.

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11. Select an incorrect match

(1) Whorled phyllotaxy – Alstonia, Nerium

(2) Decussate phyllotaxy – Quisqualis, Psidium, Syzygium

(3) Alternate phyllotaxy – Mustard, China rose, Sunflower

(4) Opposite phyllotaxy – Zinnia, Calotropis

Sol. Answer (2)

Decussate phyllotaxy is an opposite phyllotaxy.

eg. Zinnia, Calotropis etc.

12. Which of the following is not the modification of leaf?

(1) Tendril in Antigonon (2) Tendril in Clematis (3) Tendril in Gloriosa (4) Tendril in Nepenthes

Sol. Answer (1)

Tendril in Antigonon is modification of inflorescence.

13. Select a correct set.

Plant Organ Function

(1) Vanda Tap root Moisture absorption

(2) Jasmine Offset Photosynthesis

(3) Pineapple Sucker Propagation

(4) Nepenthes Leaf tip Photosynthesis

Sol. Answer (3)

Pineapple has modified stem as sucker which helps its propagation in parallel to the beneath of surface of the ground.

(The Inflorescence and The Flower)

14. Inflorescence with thick, fleshy axis and large coloured bracts is

(1) Spathe (2) Spadix (3) Spikelet (4) Hypanthodium

Sol. Answer (2)

Inflorescence with thick fleshy axis and large coloured bracts is spadix.

15. Bisexual, sessile and bracteate flowers develop acropetally in

(1) Raceme (2) Panicle (3) Spike (4) Corymb

Sol. Answer (3)

Bisexual, sessile and bracteate flowers develop acropetally in spike.

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16. Which kind of inflorescence is shown in the figure given below?

Flowers

(1) Simple dichasial cymose (2) Verticillaster (3) Simple monochasial cymose (4) Polychasial cymose Sol. Answer (2) Dichasial cyme ending in monochasial cyme – Verticillaster

17. Find the odd one (w.r.t. inflorescence axis elongation) (1) Umbel (2) Spike (3) Raceme (4) Catkin Sol. Answer (1) Spike, raceme and catkin have long floral axis but umbel floral axis is reduced and flowers are borne from a single point.

18. The type of inflorescence characterized by having dimorphic flower is (1) Catkin (2) Umbel (3) Corymb (4) Capitulum Sol. Answer (4) In capitulum, ray florets are zygomorphic and disc florets are actinomorphic.

19. In Head or Capitulum inflorescence (1) Ray florets : pistillate and neuter; actinomorphic (2) Disc florets : bisexual; zygomorphic (3) Ray florets : pistillate or neuter; zygomorphic (4) Disc florets : pistillate; actinomorphic Sol. Answer (3) Ray florets Disc florets Pistillate and neuter Bisexual Zygomorphic Actinomorphic

20. A. Citrus and Ricinus have synandrous condition. B. In epitepalous condition, the cohesion occurs bewteen tepal and filament of stamen. C. Tetradynamous condition consists of two long and four short stamen filaments. (1) All are incorrect (2) Only A is incorrect (3) Only C is incorrect (4) Only B is incorrect Sol. Answer (1) Citrus - Polyadelphous Epiteplous - Tepals are free and filament of statement is attached to tepals. Tetradynamous - 6 stamen 4 long stamen 2 short stamen Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 13 (The Fruit and The Seed) 21. Match the following: Column I Column II a. Amphisarca (i) Aegle b. Pepo (ii) Cucumis c. Drupe (iii) Ananas d. Sorosis (iv) Juglans (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) Sol. Answer (1) Amphisarca - Aegle Pepo - Cucumis Drupe - Juglans Sorosis - Ananas 22. Find incorrect matching (1) Pome – Fleshy thalamus (2) Schizocarp – Mericarp (3) Balausta – Aril (4) Syconus – Hypanthodium Sol. Answer (3) Litchi is a type of nut fruit which has aril as an edible part. 23. Most common fruits of fabaceae and brassicaceae are respectively (1) Lomentum and Siliqua (2) Legume and Samara (3) Lomentum and Silicula (4) Legume and Siliqua Sol. Answer (4) Family Fruits Fabaceae - Legume Siliqua - Brassicaceae 24. In Coriandrum, the prolongation of thalamus beyond the carpel is called as (1) Gynophore (2) Gynandrophore (3) Androphore (4) Carpophore Sol. Answer (4) Prolongation of thalamus beyond the carpel - Carpophore. 25. A dry dehiscent fruit which develops from multicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary with axile placentation, is (1) Capsule (2) Siliqua (3) Achene (4) Lomentum Sol. Answer (1) Capsule – Dry dehiscent fruit – Multicarpellary – Syncarpous superior ovary – Axile placentation

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26. Scutellum is a (1) Food storing haploid structure in grass embryo (2) Remnant of cotyledon in maize (3) Shield shaped and large cotyledon of grasses (4) Protective covering of plumule in grasses Sol. Answer (3) Scutellum – Shield shaped and large cotyledon of grasses. (Description of some important families) 27. Flowers with monadelphous condition and pentacarpellary ovary are present in (1) China rose family (2) Pea family (3) Potato family (4) Yucca family Sol. Answer (1) Malvaceae family – Monadelphous – Pentacarpellary e.g., China rose 28. Presence of staminode is characteristic feature of (1) Caesalpinoideae (2) Mimosoideae (3) Arecaceae (4) Euphorbiaceae Sol. Answer (1) Cytoplasmic male sterility gene affects staminode, sterile stamen which is a characteristic feature of caesalpiniaceae. 29. There are given some plants below, select among the options that, to how many families they belong? Plants are - Crotolaria, Atropa, Solanum, Arachis, Bambusa and Chrysanthemum (1) 4 families (2) 6 families (3) 2 families (4) 3 families Sol. Answer (1) Solanaceae - Solanum, Atropa Leguminaceae - Crotolaria, Arachis Poaceae - Bambusa Asteraceae - Chrysanthemum

Br. PAG 30. Floral formula + (3+3) 3+3 (3) represents the family with one of the following group of plants?

(1) Crotolaria and Astragalus (2) Lepidium and Iberis (3) Allium and Asparagus (4) Vetiveria and Cymbopogon Sol. Answer (3)

Br. PAG + 3+3 3+3 (3)

eg. Allium & Asparagus ⇒ Liliaceae

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 15 31. Find correct match Column I Column II a. Sinigrin (i) Liliaceae b. Carthamin (ii) Brassicaceae c. Atropine (iii) Solanaceae d. Aloin (iv) Asteraceae (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) Sol. Answer (1) Sinigrin - Brassicaceae Carthamin - Asteraceae Atropine - Solanacea Aloin - Liliaceae

32. Find out a set of common N2 fixing fodder plants (1) Trifolium, Atropa (2) Withania, Abrus (3) Sesbania, Trifolium (4) Aloe, Gloriosa Sol. Answer (3) Sesbania, Trifolium – Nitrogen-fixing fodder plants 33. Family fabaceae is concerned with (1) Diadelphous stamen, marginal placentation, obliquely placed ovary and vexillary corolla (2) Diadelphous stamen, marginal placenta and large posterior petal (3) Basal placentation, versatile stamens, spikelet inflorescence (4) Axile placentation, non-endospermic seed, legume fruit Sol. Answer (2) Fabaceae – Diadelphous stamen – Marginal placentation – Large posterior petal 34. Butterfly shaped corolla, monocarpellary ovary and zygomorphic flowers are found in family (1) Caesalpinoideae (2) Solanaceae (3) Papilionaceae (4) Graminae Sol. Answer (3) Papilionaceae / Fabaceae – Butterfly shaped corolla – Monocarpellary ovary – Zygomorphic 35. Most primitive and advanced families of dicots are respectively (1) Solanaceae and Asteraceae (2) Leguminosae and Poaceae (3) Ranunculaceae and Asteraceae (4) Asteraceae and Cucurbitaceae Sol. Answer (3) Primitive families (dicot) - Ranunculaceae Advanced dicot families - Asteraceae Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 16 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment

SECTION - C Previous Years Questions

1. Pneumatophores occur in [NEET- 2018] (1) Halophytes (2) Free-floating hydrophytes (3) Submerged hydrophytes (4) Carnivorous plants Sol. Answer (1) • Halophytes like mangrooves have pneumatophores. • Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots having lenticels called pneumathodes to uptake O2.

2. Sweet potato is a modified [NEET- 2018] (1) Stem (2) Adventitious root (3) Rhizome (4) Tap root Sol. Answer (2) Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root for storage of food • Rhizomes are underground modified stem • Tap root is primary root directly elongated from the redicle

3. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of [NEET- 2017] (1) Stipules (2) Adventitious root (3) Stem (4) Leaf Sol. Answer (3) Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for protection. These are modified stem

4. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is [NEET- 2017] (1) Perisperm (2) Cotyledon (3) Endosperm (4) Pericarp Sol. Answer (3) Coconut has double endosperm with liquid endosperm and cellular endosperm.

5. Root hairs develop from the region of [NEET- 2017] (1) Maturation (2) Elongation (3) Root cap (4) Meristematic activity Sol. Answer (1) In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation. This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root hairs.

6. Coconut fruit is a [NEET- 2017] (1) Drupe (2) Berry (3) Nut (4) Capsule Sol. Answer (1) Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded.

7. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Gynoecium (2) Androecium (3) Corolla (4) Calyx Sol. Answer (2) The stamens may be united into one bundle (monoadelphous), or two bundles (diadelphous) or into more than two bundles (polyadelphous). Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 17 8. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six Sol. Answer (2) → Brassicaceae, A2+4 Mustard, Radish, Turnip → Lamiaceae, A2+2 Salvia 9. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Brassica (2) Trifolium (3) Pisum (4) Cassia Sol. Answer (1) Radial or actinomorphic symmetry is found in flowers like mustard, Datura, Chilli.

10. Free-central placentation is found in [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Dianthus (2) Argemone (3) Brassica (4) Citrus Sol. Answer (1) Dianthus, Primrose – Free central placentation. Argemone – Parietal placentation. Citrus – Axile placentation.

11. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] Column-I Column-II a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis b. Formation of gametes (ii)Pistillate c. Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes (iii) Syncarpous d. Unisexual female flower (iv) Dikaryotic (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) Sol. Answer (4) • Syncarpous – Pistils fused together. • Gametogenesis – Formation of gamete. • Dikaryotic hyphae – Hyphae of ascomycetes • Pistillate flower – Unisexual female flower.

12. Cotyledon of maize gain is called [NEET-2016] (1) Scutellum (2) Plumule (3) Coleorhiza (4) Coleoptile Sol. Answer (1) Large, shield shaped cotyledon of grass family is called scutellum.

13. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of [NEET-2016] (1) Poaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Fabaceae Sol. Answer (2) Liliaceae represents G(3).

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14. Which of the following is not a stem modification? [NEET-2016] (1) Flattened structures of Opuntia (2) Pitcher of Nepenthes (3) Thorns of citrus (4) Tendrils of cucumber Sol. Answer (2) Pitcher of Nepenthes is modified leaf.

15. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as [NEET-2016] (1) Scales (2) Cladodes (3) Phyllodes (4) Phylloclades Sol. Answer (4) Phylloclades are modified stem, i.e., green flat structure as in Opuntia.

16. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called [NEET-2016] (1) Corona (2) Carina (3) Pappus (4) Vexillum Sol. Answer (4) The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called vexillum.

17. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have superior ovary? [Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three Sol. Answer (3) Superior ovary is found in plants i.e. china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, onion and tulip.

18. Flowers are unisexual in [Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) Onion (2) Pea (3) Cucumber (4) China rose Sol. Answer (3) Flowers are unisexual in cucumber. [Family - Cucurbitaceae]

19. Leaves become modified into spines in [AIPMT-2015] (1) Silk Cotton (2) Opuntia (3) Pea (4) Onion Sol. Answer (2)

20. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of [AIPMT-2015] (1) Tomato (2) Tulip (3) Indigofera (4) Aloe Sol. Answer (3)

21. Perigynous flowers are found in [AIPMT-2015] (1) Rose (2) Guava (3) Cucumber (4) China rose Sol. Answer (1)

22. KG(5)CA(5) 5 (2) is the floral formula of [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Brassica (2) Allium (3) Sesbania (4) Petunia Sol. Answer (4)

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 19 23. Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT-2014] (1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic (2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit (3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain (4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode Sol. Answer (3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

24. An example of edible underground stem is [AIPMT-2014] (1) Carrot (2) Groundnut (3) Sweet potato (4) Potato Sol. Answer (4) Potato is edible underground stem.

25. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in : [AIPMT-2014] (1) Apple (2) Banana (3) Tomato (4) Potato Sol. Answer (3) In tomato, placenta and pericarp both are edible portions.

26. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as [AIPMT-2014] (1) Vexillary (2) Imbricate (3) Twisted (4) Valvate Sol. Answer (2) Imbricate aestivation – One internal, one external and others margin overlapping.

27. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from [AIPMT-2014] (1) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium (2) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium (3) Complete inflorescence (4) Multicarpellary superior ovary Sol. Answer (2) Aggregate fruit – Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

28. Non-albuminous seed is produced in [AIPMT-2014] (1) Maize (2) Castor (3) Wheat (4) Pea Sol. Answer (4) Non-albuminous seed – Dicot (exception caster) e.g., Pea

29. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in [NEET-2013] (1) Coconut (2) Groundnut (3) Gram (4) Maize Sol. Answer (1) In coconut, seed coat is membranous.

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30. Among bittter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe, and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower? NEET-2013] (1) Ten (2) Fifteen (3) Eighteen (4) Six Sol. Answer (2) Plants have hypogynous flower. – Mustard, Brinjal, China rose, Sunnhemp, Bean, Gram, Lupin, Chilli, Petunia, Tomato, Withania, Potato, Onion, Aloe, Tulip 31. In china rose the flower are [NEET-2013] (1) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation (2) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation (3) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation (4) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation Sol. Answer (4) China rose flowers are – Actinomorphic – Hypogynous – Twisted aestivation 32. Placentation in tomato and lemon is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Marginal (2) Axile (3) Parietal (4) Free central Sol. Answer (2) Axile placentation. e.g., Tomato & Lemon 33. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Solanaceae (2) Brassicaceae (3) Fabaceae (4) Asteraceae Sol. Answer (3) Fabaceae family – Vexillary aestivation 34. Phyllode is present in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Australian Acacia (2) Opuntia (3) Asparagus (4) Euphorbia

Sol. Answer (1)

Phyllode is present in Australian Acacia.

35. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence? Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

Sol. Answer (2)

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 21 36. Cymose inflorescence is present in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Trifolium (2) Brassica (3) Solanum (4) Sesbania

Sol. Answer (3)

Solanum shows cymose inflorescence

37. Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics ?

[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation (2) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry

(3) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

(4) Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum Sol. Answer (4)

38. How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation ?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco. Lupin

[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three

Sol. Answer (3)

39. The 'Eyes' of the potato tuber are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Axillary buds (2) Root buds (3) Flower buds (4) Shoot buds

Sol. Answer (1)

40. Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot (2) In tomato, fruit is a capsule

(3) Seeds of orchids have oil - rich endosperm (4) Placentation in Primose is basal

Sol. Answer (1)

Flower of tulip is a modified shoot. 41. The correct floral formula of chilli is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

K C A G K C A G KCAG K C AG (1) + 5 5 (5) 2 (2) + (5) 5 (5)(2) (3) (5)(5) 5 (2) (4) + (5) (5) (5) 2 Sol. Answer (3)

Floral formula of soyabean ⊕ K CAG + ((5)()5) 5 2 42. A drupe develops in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Tomato (2) Mango (3) Wheat (4) Pea Sol. Answer (2) A drupe develops in mango.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 22 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment 43. Flowers are Zygomorphic in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Datura (2) Mustard (3) Gulmohur (4) Tomato Sol. Answer (3) Flowers in Gulmohur are zygomorphic. 44. Whorled simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) China Rose (2) Alstonia (3) Calotropis (4) Neem Sol. Answer (2) Alstonia (Dicot) – Whorled simple leaves – Reticulate venation 45. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds (2) Agave – Bulbils (3) Penicillium – Conidia (4) Water hyacinth – Runner Sol. Answer (4) 46. Sweet potato is homologous to [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) Ginger (2) Turnip (3) Potato (4) Colocasia Sol. Answer (2) Sweet potato, a modified root is homologous to Turnip. 47. Which one of the following diagrams represent the placentation in Dianthus? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol. Answer (4) Free central placentation is present in Dianthus. 48. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Guava (2) Peach (3) Cucumber (4) Cotton Sol. Answer (2) Perigynous – Ovary is half inferior e.g., Peach, Rose, Plum etc 49. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Polyadelphous (2) Monadelphous (3) Diadelphous (4) Polyandrous Sol. Answer (2) Androecium in a flower of China rose is Monadelphous Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 23 50. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Plumule (2) Cotyledon (3) Endosperm (4) Aleurone layer Sol. Answer (2) Single cotyledon in monocot seed is scutellum. 51. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Bean (2) Gulmohur (3) Cassia (4) Calotropis Sol. Answer (1) Keel is characteristic of the flower of fabaceae family. e.g., Bean 52. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Axile (2) Marginal (3) Basal (4) Free central Sol. Answer (3) In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is basal. eg. Poaceae, Asteraceae. 53. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Cucumber (2) Guava (3) Plum (4) Brinjal Sol. Answer (3) Flowers of half inferior ovary – Plum, Rose, Peach 54. Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat, green and succulent structure? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) Opuntia (2) Casuarina (3) Hydrilla (4) Acacia Sol. Answer (1) Phylloclade – Stem modification – Flat green and succulent structure – Photosynthetic e.g., Opuntia 55. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol. Answer (4) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is twisted. 56. The correct floral formula of soyabean is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

%KCAG % KC A G % KC A G % KC A G (1) + (5) 1+(2)+2 (9)+1 1 (2) + 5 1+(2)+2 (9)+1 1 (3) + (5) 1+2+(2) (9)+1 1 (4) + (5) 1+2+(2) 1+(9) 1

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 24 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment Sol. Answer (3)

Floral formula of Chilli, % K C A G + (5) 1+ 2 + (2) (9) + 1 1-

57. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the four structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly Structures :

[AIPMT (Mains)-2010] Options :

A B C D

(1) Rhizome Sporangiophore Polar cell Globule (2) Runner Archegoniophore Synergid Antheridium (3) Offset Antheridiophore Antipodals Oogonium (4) Sucker Seta Megaspore Gemma cup mother cell Sol. Answer (3) 58. Consider the following four statements A, B, C and and select the right option for two correct statements Statements (A) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is called - standard, two lateral ones are wings and two small anterior petals are termed keel

(B) The floral formula for Liliaceae is + + . PA(3+3) 3+3G(3) (C) In pea flower the stamens are monadelphous

(D) The floral formula for Solanaceae is + + . KCA+G(3) (3) (4) (2)

The correct statements are [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) (A) and (C) (2) (A) and (B) (3) (B) and (C) (4) (C) and (D) Sol. Answer (2)

In pea flower the stamens are diadelphous floral formula of Solanaceae - ⊕ K CAG + ((5)()5) 5 2 Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 25 59. Vegetative propagation is Pistia occurs by [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) Stolen (2) Offset (3) Runner (4) Sucker Sol. Answer (2)

60. The floral formula + KC5(5)5 AG(2) is that of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Soybean (2) Sunnhemp (3) Tobacco (4) Tulip Sol. Answer (3)

⊕ K C AG (5) (5) (5) (2) floral formula of Solanaceae family.

61. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Sorosis (2) Syconus (3) Caryopsis (4) Hesperidium Sol. Answer (2) Syconus fruit develops from hypanthodium inflorescence. 62. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Offset (2) Rhizome (3) Sucker (4) Runner Sol. Answer (3) 63. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Walnut and tamarind (2) French bean and coconut (3) Cashew nut and litchi (4) Groundnut and pomegranate Sol. Answer (4) Plant Edible parts Groundnut - Cotyledons Pomegranate - testa 64. An example of axile placentation is : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Dianthus (2) Lemon (3) Marigold (4) Argemone Sol. Answer (2) Axile placentation is found in Lemon. 65. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are example of AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Retrogressive evolution (2) Analogous organs (3) Homologous organs (4) Vestigial organs Sol. Answer (3) 66. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Cucumber (2) Pomegranate (3) Orange (4) Guava Sol. Answer (2) Balausta

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 26 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment

– Fruit is chambered – Inferior ovary – Succulent testa e.g., Pomegranate

67. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Cremocarp (2) Caryopsis (3) Cypsela (4) Berry Sol. Answer (3) Cypsela fruit – Dry and indehiscent – Single seeded fruit – Bicarpellary syncarpous – Inferior ovary

68. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Maize (2) Coconut (3) Castor (4) Pea Sol. Answer (4)

69. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Pea (2) Lemon (3) Mustard (4) Sunflower Sol. Answer (3) Replum, a false septum is present in the ovary of flower of mustard.

70. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Mericarps (2) Achenes (3) Samaras (4) Berries Sol. Answer (2) The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of Achenes

71. Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) A unilocular polycarpellary flower (2) A multipistillate syncarpous flower (3) A cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis (4) A multilocular monocarpellary flower Sol. Answer (3) Pineapple is a composite fruit.

72. In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Custard apple (2) Pomegranate (3) Orange (4) Litchi Sol. Answer (4)

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 27 73. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Asteraceae (2) Brassicaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae Sol. Answer (3) Solanaceae family – Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers – Bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa. – Fruit (Capsule/berry)

74. What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Basal (2) Axile (3) Free central (4) Marginal Sol. Answer (4) Marginal placentation is seen in sweet pea

75. Which of the following represents the edible part of the fruit of litchi ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Pericarp (2) Mesocarp (3) Juicy aril (4) Endocarp Sol. Answer (3)

76. Angiosperm, to which the largest flowers belong, is (1) Total root parasite (2) Partial root parasite (3) Total stem parasite (4) Partial stem parasite Sol. Answer (1) Rafflesia is largest flowering plant, a total root parasite.

77. The plant, which bears clinging roots, is (1) Screw pine (2) Podostemon (3) Trapa (4) Orchid Sol. Answer (4) Orchid is an epiphytes so for support it bears clinging roots / climbing roots.

78. Pneumatophores are found in (1) The vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake (2) The vegetation which is found in acidic soil (3) Xerophytes (4) Epiphytes Sol. Answer (1) Pneumatophores are found in plant which is found in marshy and saline lake.

79. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur in the following order (1) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation (2) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement (3) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap (4) Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap Sol. Answer (1) Order of zones of root (from tip upward) Root cap → Cell division → Cell enlargement → Cell maturation

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 28 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment 80. A plant bears fruit, has a column of vascular tissue and a tap root system. This plant is a/an (1) Angiosperm and dicot (2) Gymnosperm and dicot (3) Angiosperm and monocot (4) Gymnosperm and monocot Sol. Answer (1) Dicot plant – Bears fruit – Vascular tissue – Tap root system 81. What is the eye of potato? (1) Axillary bud (2) Accessory bud (3) Adventitious bud (4) Apical bud Sol. Answer (1) Eye of potato is axillary bud. 82. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five Sol. Answer (2) Opposite phyllotaxy – Guava – Calotropis – Ocimum 83. The lid of pitcher in pitcher plant, is the modification of (1) Leaf apex (2) Leaf base (3) Petiole (4) Lamina Sol. Answer (1) Lid of pitcher in pitcher plant is modification of leaf apex. 84. A pair of insectivorous plants is (1) Dionaea and Viscum (2) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia (3) Drosera and Rafflesia (4) Nepenthes and bladderwort Sol. Answer (4) Nepenthes and Bladderwort – Insectivorous plants 85. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to (1) Specialized “muscle-like” cells (2) Chemical stimulation by the prey (3) A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant (4) Rapid turgor pressure changes Sol. Answer (4) Venus flytrap captures insects due to rapid turgor pressure changes. Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 29 86. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis (1) Terminates in a flower (2) Has unlimited growth (3) Bears a solitary flower (4) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers Sol. Answer (1) The main axis terminates in a flower – Cymose inflorescence 87. Inflorescence is racemose in (1) Soyabean (2) Brinjal (3) Tulip (4) Aloe Sol. Answer (1) Soyabean (fabaceae) shows Racemose inflorescence. 88. Hypanthodium is a specialized type of (1) Fruit (2) Inflorescence (3) Thalamus (4) Ovary Sol. Answer (2) Hypanthodium is a specialised type of inflorescence 89. Hairs found in the inflorescence of Zea mays are the modification of (1) Style (2) Stigma (3) Spathe (4) Filaments Sol. Answer (1) Hairs found in the Zea mays are the modification of style. 90. Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms, identification, because (1) Flowers can be safely pressed (2) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts (3) Flowers are nice to work with (4) Flowers are of various colours Sol. Answer (2) In angiosperms, floral features are chiefly used because reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts. 91. Tetradyanamous condition occurs in (1) Cruciferae (2) Malvaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae Sol. Answer (1) Tetradynamous condition occurs in cruciferae.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 30 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment 92. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to (1) Reception of pollen by stigma (2) Formation of pollen (3) Development of anther (4) Opening of flower bud Sol. Answer (4) Anthesis – Opening of flower bud. 93. Pappus in sunflower family is the modification of (1) Hairs (2) Anthers (3) Calyx (4) Corolla Sol. Answer (3) Pappus in sunflower family is the modification of calyx. 94. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence? Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry. (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five Sol. Answer (2) Composite fruits are – fig, pineapple, mulberry etc. 95. Which of the following is a ‘true fruit’? (1) Banana (2) Pineapple (3) Apple (4) Pear Sol. Answer (1) True fruit – Banana False fruit – Pineapple, apple, pear 96. Coir is the commercial product of coconut’s (1) Endocarp (2) Endosperm (3) Pericarp (4) Mesocarp Sol. Answer (4) Coir is the commercial product of coconut's mesocarp 97. Aril represents the edible part of (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Banana (4) Litchi Sol. Answer (4) Aril represents the edible part of litchi. 98. Which plant will lose its economic value, if its fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy? (1) Orange (2) Banana (3) Grape (4) Pomegranate Sol. Answer (4) Pomegranate will lose its economic value if its fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy. 99. Edible part in coconut is (1) Endosperm (2) Pericarp (3) Mesocarp (4) Fleshy aril Sol. Answer (1) Edible part in coconut is endosperm.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 31 100. Geocarpic fruit is

(1) Carrot (2) Radish (3) Ground nut (4) Turnip

Sol. Answer (3)

Ground nut is geocarpic fruit.

101. Which is correct pair for edible part?

(1) Tomato-thalamus (2) Maize-cotyledons (3) Guava-mesocarp (4) Date palm-mesocarp

Sol. Answer (4)

Mesocarp is edible part in date palm.

102. Edible part of banana is

(1) Epicarp (2) Mesocarp and less developed endocarp

(3) Endocarp and less developed mesocarp (4) Epicarp and mesocarp

Sol. Answer (3)

Edible part of banana is endocarp and less developed mesocarp.

103. Edible part in mango is

(1) Mesocarp (2) Epicarp (3) Endocarp (4) Epidermis

Sol. Answer (1)

Edible part of mango is mesocarp.

104. Geocarpic fruit is

(1) Potato (2) Peanut (3) Onion (4) Garlic

Sol. Answer (2)

Peanut is geocarpic fruit. 105. Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from (1) Exocarp (2) Mesocarp (3) Endocarp (4) Mesocarp and endocarp Sol. Answer (3) Juicy hair-like edible structure in lemon is endocarp. 106. Select correct statement w.r.t. hard walled berry. (1) Multiseeded fruit developing from superior ovary (2) Edible part is juicy unicellular hairs

(3) Develops from G(3) (4) Develops from G(3)

Sol. Answer (3)

Hard walled berry develops from G(3) .

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 32 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment

107. Scutellum in a caryopsis represents (1) Outermost layer of endosperm (2) A sheath that protects the radicle (3) The place where the seed is attached to raphe (4) A cotyledon Sol. Answer (4) Single cotyledon in monocot is scutellum. 108. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm and caruncle is (1) Castor (2) Cotton (3) Coffee (4) Lily Sol. Answer (1) Caster seed – Endospermic – Perispermic – Bears caruncle 109. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, Mustard, Soybean, Tobacco and groundnut how many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation? (1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Eight Sol. Answer (3) 110. Which is expressing right appropriate pairing? (1) Brassicaceae - Sunflower (2) Malvaceae - Cotton (3) Papilionaceae - Catechu (4) Liliaceae – Wheat Sol. Answer (2) Collon plants belong to Malvaceae family. 111. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occur in (1) Mustard (2) Banana (3) Pisum (4) Brinjal Sol. Answer (4)

Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occur in brinjal.

SECTION - D Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : In head inflorescence florets are arranged centrifugally.

R : There always occurs two types of florets in a head.

Sol. Answer (4)

In head inflorescence florets are arranged centripetally.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Morphology of Flowering Plants 33

2. A : Staminal tube is present in Malvaceae.

R : It is due to monadelphous condition.

Sol. Answer (1)

Fact based and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

3. A : Prop roots are rope like showing oblique growth.

R : Prop roots are adventitious roots for extra-support and assimilation.

Sol. Answer (4)

Prop roots are rope-like showing vertical growth.

4. A : The storage region of maize grain is whitish or yellow.

R : It is rich in protein granules.

Sol. Answer (3)

The storage region of maize grain is rich in starch granules.

5. A : There are two alae in Pisum sativum flower.

R : Both alae are covered by largest petal.

Sol. Answer (2)

Fact based question.

6. A : Corm grows vertically beneath soil surface.

R : It bears nodes, internodes, buds & green leaves.

Sol. Answer (3)

Corm bears nodes, internodes, buds and scaly leaves

7. A : In Smilax, stipule changes into tendril & helps in climbing.

R : Parallel venation is found in this plant.

Sol. Answer (3)

Smilax is monocot but shows reticulate venation.

8. A : Androecium of Cucurbita is synandrous. R : Anthers as well as filaments of stamens are united throughout their whole length. Sol. Answer (1) Fact based question.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 34 Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment 9. A : Nucellus remains persistent in the seeds of black pepper R : It is haploid parenchymatous tissue. Sol. Answer (3) Nucellus is diploid parenchymatous tissue.

10. A : Epiphyllous roots arise from the margins of leaf lamina. R : Epiphyllous roots help in vegetative reproduction. Sol. Answer (2) Fact based question.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Chapter 7

Plant Kingdom

Solutions

SECTION - A

Objective Type Questions (Classification systems and Branches of Taxonomy) 1. Which of the following systems of classification involves usage of one or few morphological characters for grouping of organisms? (1) Artificial system (2) Natural system (3) Phylogenetic system (4) Bentham and Hooker’s system Sol. Answer (1) Artificial system of classification involves usage of one or few morphological characters. 2. Classification of organisms on the basis of fossils record that play important role in elucidation of evolutionary relationships is (1) Earliest systems (2) Phylogenetic systems (3) Morphotaxonomy (4) Artificial system Sol. Answer (2) Phylogenetic system plays important role in elucidation of evolutionary relationships. 3. DNA sequence is the basis of grouping organisms in (1) Karyotaxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy (3) Phenetics (4) Chemotaxonomy Sol. Answer (4) Chemotaxonomy involves grouping of organisms on the basis of : • DNA sequence • RNA sequence • Chemical nature of protein etc. (Algae) 4. Plants which are not differentiated into roots, stems and leaves are (1) Algae (2) Gymnosperms (3) Pteridophytes (4) Angiosperms Sol. Answer (1) Algae are thallophytes.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 66 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 5. Cell wall of Spirogyra is composed of (1) Peptidoglycan (2) Pectin (3) Cellulose (4) Both (2) & (3) Sol. Answer (4) Cell wall of Spirogyra is composed of pectin and cellulose. 6. Kelps are massive (1) Brown algae (2) Amphibious plants (3) Flowering plants (4) Plants with naked seeds Sol. Answer (1) Kelps are massive brown algae. 7. Laminarin is the stored food in (1) Dictyota (2) Volvox (3) Polysiphonia (4) Chlamydomonas Sol. Answer (1) Laminarin is the stored food in brown algae e.g., Dictyota. 8. In Gracilaria, sexual reproduction is (1) Isogamous (2) Anisogamous (3) Oogamous (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (3) Sexual reproduction in red algae is oogamous e.g., Gracilaria, Gelidium 9. Ectocarpus is (1) Unicellular green algae (2) Filamentous brown algae (3) Branched red algae (4) Colonial green algae Sol. Answer (2) Ectocarpus is branched filamentous brown algae 10. Find out the mismatch pair (1) Carrageen – Red algae (2) Algin – Brown algae (3) Agar – Chlorella (4) Single celled protein – Spirullina Sol. Answer (3) Agar – Red algae 11. In algae, the photosynthetic pigments are present in (1) Pyrenoids (2) Cell wall (3) Chloroplast (4) Vacuole Sol. Answer (3) Photosynthetic pigments in algae are present in chloroplast. (Bryophytes) 12. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding bryophytes? (1) They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction (2) The main plant body is diploid (3) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities (4) They play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks Sol. Answer (2) The main plant body in bryophytes is haploid.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 67 13. Peat is obtained from (1) Sphagnum (2) Funaria (3) Riccia (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (1) Peat is obtained from Sphagnum. 14. Liverworts reproduce asexually by (1) Gemmae (2) Fragmentation (3) Mitospores (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (4) Liverworts reproduce asexually by gemmae and fragmentation. 15. ______is used by gardeners to keep cut plants moist during transportation and propagation. (1) Marchantia (2) Sphagnum (3) Equisetum (4) Funaria Sol. Answer (2) Sphagnum is used for seedling of cut plants. 16. In mosses the sex organs are present in the (1) Protonema stage (2) Sporophytic stage (3) Leafy stage (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (3) In mosses the sex organs are present in the leafy stage. 17. Antherozoids represent (1) Male gametophyte (2) Photosynthetic sporophyte (3) Female gametophyte (4) Motile male gametes Sol. Answer (4) Antherozoids represent male motile gametes. (Pteridophytes) 18. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to (1) Prothallus (2) Protonema (3) Leafy stage (4) Strobili Sol. Answer (1) In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to prothallus. 19. In Selaginella the embryo develops into (1) Gametophyte (2) Sporophyte (3) Archegonium (4) Antheridium Sol. Answer (2) In Selaginella the embryo develops into sporophyte. 20. In pteridophytes, the megaspore germinates to form (1) Pollen grain (2) Embryo (3) Seed (4) Female gametophyte Sol. Answer (4) In pteridophytes, the megaspore germinates to form female gametophytes.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 68 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 21. The development of young embryos of pteridophytes within the female gametophytes is a precursor to the (1) Aquatic habit (2) Autotrophic habit (3) Seed habit (4) Parasitic habit Sol. Answer (3) Young embryos of pteridophytes within the female gametophyte – precursor to the seed habit. 22. Which of the following possess vascular tissues but lacks seeds? (1) Mosses (2) Volvox (3) Ferns (4) Liverworts Sol. Answer (3) Pteridophytes possess vascular tissues but lacks seeds. e.g., Ferns 23. The main plant body is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves in (1) Green algae (2) Bryophytes (3) Blue green algae (4) Pteridophytes Sol. Answer (4) The main plant body is corprophytes differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. They are pteridophytes, gymnosperm and angiosperm. 24. Evolutionarily, the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues are (1) Green algae (2) Pteridophytes (3) Brown algae (4) Bryophytes Sol. Answer (2) Pteridophytes, first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues. 25. In pteridophytes, fusion of gametes takes place in (1) External medium (2) Antheridium (3) Sporangium (4) Archegonium Sol. Answer (4) In pteridophytes, fusion of gametes takes place in archegonium. (Gymnosperms) 26. The first seeded plants are the (1) Bryophytes (2) Gymnosperms (3) Algae (4) Pteridophytes Sol. Answer (2) Gymnosperms are first seeded plants. 27. Gymnosperms have (1) Tap root system (2) Seeds enclosed within the fruit (3) Rhizoids (4) Branched stems always Sol. Answer (1) Gymnosperms have tap root system. 28. Which of the following has both the male and female cones on same plant body? (1) Cycas (2) Ginkgo (3) Eucalyptus (4) Pinus Sol. Answer (4) Pinus is monoecious.

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29. Which of the following plants possess naked seeds? (1) Bryophytes (2) Gymnosperms (3) Pteridophytes (4) Angiosperms Sol. Answer (2) Gymnosperms (Naked seeds)

30. The megaspore mother cell is differentiated from one of the cells of the (1) Nucellus (2) Pollen grain (3) Microsporangia (4) Both (2) & (3) Sol. Answer (1) Source of megaspore mother cell is nucellus.

31. Coralloid roots have a symbiotic association with (1) Photosynthetic green algae (2) Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (3) Fungus (4) Photosynthetic brown algae Sol. Answer (2) Coralloid roots have a symbiotic association with Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.

32. The cones bearing microsporophylls are known as (1) Male strobili (2) Macrosporangiate (3) Female strobili (4) Both (2) & (3) Sol. Answer (1) The cones bearing microsporophylls are male strobili.

33. Pollen grains are released from (1) Macrosporangium (2) Microsporangium (3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Archegonium Sol. Answer (2) Pollen grains are released from microsporangium.

(Angiosperms) 34. In angiosperms the sporophylls are organised into (1) Seeds (2) Fruits (3) Flowers (4) Seed coats Sol. Answer (3) In angiosperms the sporophylls are organised into flowers.

35. Which of the following angiosperm is almost microscopic? (1) Eucalyptus (2) Wolfia (3) Acacia (4) Colocasia Sol. Answer (2) Wolfia is a microscopic angiosperm.

36. Endosperm of angiosperm is (1) Triploid (2) Diploid (3) Haploid (4) Tetraploid Sol. Answer (1) Endosperm of angiosperm is triploid (3n).

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 70 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 37. Fusion of a male gamete with the secondary nucleus forms the (1) Zygote (2) Embryo (3) Seed (4) Endosperm Sol. Answer (4) Triple fusion – Fusion of a male gamete with secondary nucleus, forms the endosperm. 38. In angiosperms the female gametophyte is also known as (1) Nucellus (2) Embryo sac (3) Endosperm (4) Stigma Sol. Answer (2) In angiosperms, female gametophyte is also known as embryo sac. 39. An event unique to angiosperms is (1) Double fertilisation (2) Sexual reproduction (3) Pollination (4) Spore formation Sol. Answer (1) Double fertilization is an event unique to angiosperms. 40. ______functions as landing platform for the pollen grains in flowering plants. (1) Style (2) Stigma (3) Ovary (4) Ovules Sol. Answer (2) Stigma – Landing platform for the pollen grains. 41. Which of the following cells of embryo sac degenerate after fertilisation in angiosperms? (1) Synergids (2) Polar nuclei (3) Antipodal cells (4) Both (1) & (3) Sol. Answer (4) Cells of embryo sac degenerate after fertilisation in angiosperms are Synergids and Antipodal cells. 42. In angiosperms, the megaspore develops into (1) Pollen grain (2) Embryo sac (3) Stigma (4) Ovary Sol. Answer (2) In angiosperms, the megasopre develops into embryo sac. 43. The germination of pollen grain results in the formation of (1) Primary endosperm nucleus (2) Embryo (3) Pollen tube (4) Polar nuclei Sol. Answer (3) The germination of pollen grain results in the formation of pollen tube. 44. Eucalyptus is different from Cedrus in the presence of (1) Syngamy (2) Seeds (3) Archegonia (4) Triple fusion Sol. Answer (4) Eucalyptus is angiosperm, have triple fusion.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 71 45. Cotyledons are (1) Modified roots (2) Embryonic leaves (3) Known as primary endosperm nucleus] (4) Present in gymnospermic seeds only Sol. Answer (2) Cotyledons are embryonic leaves. 46. Which of the following is not a dicot? (1) Eucalyptus (2) Sunflower (3) Acacia (4) Banana Sol. Answer (4) Banana – Monocot

(Plant life cycles and Alternation of generations)

47. The diploid sporophyte is dominant in life cycle of (1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Eucalyptus Sol. Answer (4) Eucalyptus : • Angiosperm • Diploid sporophyte dominant 48. Haplo-diplontic condition is exhibited by (1) Most algae (2) Bryophytes (3) Angiosperms (4) Gymnosperms Sol. Answer (2) Bryophytes – Haplo-diplontic 49. Haplontic life cycle is represented by (1) Volvox (2) Cycas (3) Selaginella (4) Salvinia Sol. Answer (1) Volvox – Haplontic life cycle 50. An alga which exhibits diplontic life cycle is (1) Spirogyra (2) Fucus (3) Polysiphonia (4) Ulothrix Sol. Answer (2) Fucus – Algae – Diplontic life cycle

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SECTION - B Objective Type Questions (Classification systems and Branches of Taxonomy) 1. Sexual system of classification is (1) Artificial system (2) Based on stamens characters (3) Based on corolla and carpels characters (4) Both (1) & (2) Sol. Answer (4) Sexual system of classification is – Artificial system – Based on stamens characters 2. The Bentham and Hooker’s classification is (1) Classification of taxa based on actual examination (2) Artificial system of classification (3) Phylogenetic system of classification (4) Based on evolution Sol. Answer (1) Bentham and Hooker's classification is based on actual examination (Algae) 3. The thallus organisation of Volvox is (1) Multicellular and coccoid (2) Colonial and nonflagellate (3) Unicellular (4) Colonial and motile Sol. Answer (4) Thallus organisation of Volvox is colonial and motile. 4. Brown algae are quite common in (1) Fresh water habitats (2) Tropical sea water (3) Temperate sea water (4) Both (2) & (3) Sol. Answer (3) Brown algae are quite common in temperate sea water. 5. Algae with floridean starch as reserve food material is also characterised by (1) Presence of chlorophyll b (2) Stacked thylakoids (3) Nonsulphated phycocolloids (4) Nonflagellate nature Sol. Answer (4) Red algae has floridean starch as reserve food and they are nonflagellate in nature. 6. 100 zygospores, alternate with empty cells in Spirogyra are under ______conjugation and the total number of daughter filaments formed will be ______(1) Scalariform, 400 (2) Lateral, 100 (3) Lateral, 400 (4) Scalariform, 100 Sol. Answer (2) Meiosis 1 zygospore 4 nuclei 3 degenerate One new individual 1 germ tube i.e., 100 zygospores = 100 new daughter filaments

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 73 7. Algin is a phycocolloid, obtained from the cell wall of (1) Macrocystis and Porphyridium (2) Mastigocladus and Laminaria (3) Microcystis and Nereocystis (4) Macrocystis and Fucus Sol. Answer (4) Algin is obtained from cell wall of brown algae. e.g., Macrocystic & Fucus 8. Which of the following is a red alga that is not red? (1) Nemalion (2) Polysiphonia (3) Gelidium (4) Batrachospermum Sol. Answer (4)

Red Algae

Red in colour Non-red in colour e.g., Nemalion e.g., Batrachospermum Gelidium Polysiphonia

9. In chlorophyceae, the flagella are (1) Tinsel type (2) Whiplash type (3) Whiplash and tinsel type (4) Basal tinsel, apical whiplash type Sol. Answer (2) In chlorophyceae, the flagella are whiplash type. 10. Which of the following are useful for curing goitre? (1) Sea kelps (2) Diatoms (3) Red algae (4) Porphyra Sol. Answer (1)

Sea kelps are sources of I2 & Br2 which are useful for curing goiter. 11. Non-motile gametes are characteristically found in (1) Cyanophyta (2) Rhodophyta (3) Phaeophyta (4) Chlorophyta Sol. Answer (2) Rhodophyta – Non-motile gametes 12. The female sex organ in red algae is flask-shaped and is known as (1) Trichogyne (2) Carpogonium (3) Spermatium (4) Archegonium Sol. Answer (2) The female sex organ in red algae is flask-shaped and is known as carpogonium. 13. Some characters of algae are given below a. Floridean starch b. Sulphated phycocolloids in cell wall c. Alginic acid d. Trumpet hypha e. Haplodiplontic life cycle f. Isomorphic alternation of generation g. Fucoxanthin

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 74 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment h. Phycoerythrin i. Zygotic meiosis j. Two anterior flagella Which of the given set of characters belongs to Laminaria? (1) a, b, e, f, h (2) c, d, e, g (3) b, c, d, e, f, g, i (4) c, d, e, f, g, i Sol. Answer (2) Characters belong to brown algae are – Alginic acid – Trumpet hyphae – Haplodiplontic life cycle – Fucoxanthin (Bryophytes) 14. Bryophytes are not characterised by (1) Sporophyte parasitic over gametophyte (2) Independent gametophyte (3) Absence of vascular tissues (4) Independent sporophyte Sol. Answer (4) Bryophytes – Independent sporophytes absent 15. Stems and leaves of bryophytes are (1) Analogous to vascular plants (2) Homologous to vascular plants (3) Analogous to algae & fungal thallus (4) None of these Sol. Answer (1) Stem and leaves of bryophytes are analogous to vascular plants 16. Non-vascular embryophyte with leaves is (1) Riccia (2) Porella (3) Selaginella (4) Macrocystis Sol. Answer (2) Non-vascular embryophyte with leaves is Porella. 17. Find set of features related to Funaria a. Protonema b. Prothallus c. Gametophore d. Prostate thallus body e. NCC in antheridium f. Haplodiplontic g. True plant organs in sporophyte h. Fragmentation (1) b, d, e, g (2) a, d, f, g (3) a, c, f, g, h (4) a, c, f, h Sol. Answer (4) Features of Funaria – Protonema – Gametophore – Haplodiplontic – Fragmentation Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 75 18. In Funaria, 20 chromosomes are present in rhizoids, then the number of chromosome in calyptra, theca and foot will be (1) 20, 40, 40 respectively (2) 40, 20, 20 respectively (3) 20, 40, 20 respectively (4) 40, 10, 20 respectively Sol. Answer (1) In Funaria,rhizoids (n) = 20 Calyptra (n) = 20 Theca (2n) = 40 Foot (2n) = 40 19. Identify the plants A and B in the figures given below

(1) A - Female Marchantia, B - Sphagnum (2) A - Riccia, B - Marchantia (3) A - Marchantia, B - Funaria (4) A - Male Marchantia, B - Sphagnum Sol. Answer (4) Plant 'A' – Male Marchantia Plant 'B' – Sphagnum (Pteridophytes) 20. Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes resemble with each other in which one of the following feature? (1) Gametophytic plant body (2) Dependence on water for fertilisation (3) Haplontic alternation of generation (4) Presence of embryo Sol. Answer (2) Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes resemble in dependence on water for fertilisation. 21. Find correct statement for the prothallus of fern (1) Monoecious, protandrous with multicellular rhizoides (2) Monoecious, protandrous with unicellular rhizoides (3) Dioecious, with unicellular rhizoides (4) Monoecious, protandrous with apical antheredia and basal archegonia on ventral surface Sol. Answer (2) Prothallus of fern is monoecious and protandrous with unicellular rhizoids.

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22. The dominant photosynthetic phase in the life cycle of pteridophyta is equivalent to the (1) Gametophytic phase of bryophyta (2) Sporophytic phase of bryophyta (3) Gametophytic phase of pteridophytes (4) Gametophytic phase of gymnosperm Sol. Answer (1) The dominant photosynthetic phase in the life cycle of pteridophyta is equivalent to the gametic phase of bryophyta. 23. In Pteridophytes, reduction division occurs when (1) Prothallus is formed (2) Sex organs are formed (3) Spores are formed (4) Gametes are formed Sol. Answer (3) In pteridophytes, sporogenic meiosis occurs. 24. The evolutionary advanced features of Selaginella are (a) Heterospory (b) Endosporic development of gametophyte (c) Reduced gametophyte (d) Localization of sporangium bearing appendages in strobili (e) Unisexual gametophytes (f) Fertilization with the help of water (1) All are correct (2) All except (f) is correct (3) All except (e) and (f) are correct (4) All except (c) is correct Sol. Answer (2) Fertilization with the help of water is not the evolutionary advanced features of Selaginella. 25. How many structures listed below are diploid for a typical fern member? a. Indusium cell b. Stomium cell c. NCC d. Rhizome cell e. Sporophyll cell f. Prothallus cell g. SMC h. Spore i. Antherozoid mother cell (1) Nine (2) Six (3) Five (4) Seven Sol. Answer (3) Diploid structures of fern (typical)

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A

(1) The structure labelled A is male cone (2) It is member of sphenopsida (3) Nodes are hollow while internodes are solid (4) This is commonly called as stonewort Sol. Answer (2) Equisetum (horse tail) is member of sphenopsida (Gymnosperms) 27. Member of plantae having endospermic, perispermic, polycotyledonous and winged seeds is also related to (1) Sulphur shower (2) Largest ovule (3) Double fertilization (4) Placentation Sol. Answer (1) Pinus seeds are – Endospermic – Perispermic – Polycotyledonous – Winged seeds – Pollen dispersal (sulpher shower) 28. Which one constitutes the dominant vegetation in colder regions? (1) Monocots (2) Dicots (3) Legumes (4) Gymnosperms Sol. Answer (4) Gymnosperm – Dominant vegetation in colder regions 29. Which of the given sets are matched correctly? a. Chondrus - Algin b. Gracilaria - Agar c. Cycas - Coralloid root d. Pinus - Canada balsam e. Adiantum - Walking fern f. Lycopodium - Cord moss g. Cedrus - Independent gametophyte h. Sequoia - Tallest gymnosperm (1) b, c, e, h (2) a, b, c, e, f (3) b, c, e, g, h (4) b, c, d, e, g, h

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Sol. Answer (1) Gracilaria – Agar Cycas – Coralloid root Adiantum – Walking fern Sequoia – Gymnosperm

30. How many generations are present in the seed of gymnosperm? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 Sol. Answer (2) Generations in the seed of gymnosperm (a) Parental sporophyte = Seed coat = 2n (b) Female gametophyte = Endosperm = n (c) New plant = Embryo = 2n 31. Gametophytic plant body is nonvascular in (1) Algae and liverworts (2) Mosses and ferns (3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) All of these Sol. Answer (4) Gametophytic plant body is nonvascular in all plants. 32. Endosperm of gymnosperm is ontogenetically similar to angiospermic (1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac (3) Archegonium (4) Megasporangia Sol. Answer (2) Endosperm of gymnosperm is ontogenetically similar to angiospermic embryo sac.

(Angiosperms) 33. Flowering plants are more successful than other members of the plant world because (1) They are large and have a good vascular tissue system (2) They carry out variety of pollination mechanism (3) The protected plant embryo can survive in the period of unfavourable conditions (4) All of these Sol. Answer (4) Flowering plants are more successful • Large and have a good vascular system • Variety of pollination • Embryo can survive in the period of unfavourable conditions

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(Plant life cycles and Alternation of generations) 34. A. Heterospory is found in all members of pteropsida B. Selaginella is advance among pteridophytes as it produces seeds C. Pinus leaves are monomorphic, pinnate compound and have sunken stomata as adaptation against transpiration D. Sporic meiosis is characteristic of life cycle in many organisms like Volvox, Chlamydomonas and Ulothrix. (1) All are incorrect (2) Both B and C are correct (3) Only B is correct (4) Only D is incorrect Sol. Answer (1) 35. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the figure given below

A (2n) D ) (2n B Syn gamy

Haplo-diplontic C Spores (n)

Gametophyte (n)

(1) A - Sporophyte; B - Meiosis (2) A - Sporophyte; B - Mitosis C - Gametogenesis; D - Endosperm C - Gametogenesis; D - Zygote (3) A - Gametophyte; B - Meiosis (4) A - Sporophyte; B - Meiosis C - Gametogenesis; D -Zygote C - Gametogenesis; D - Zygote Sol. Answer (4) A = Sporophyte B = Meiosis C = Gametogenesis D = Zygote SECTION - C Previous Years Questions

1. Which one is wrongly matched? [NEET-2018] (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae (3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (4) Gemma cups – Marchantia Sol. Answer (1) • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, where asexual spores and gametes are non-motile or non-flagellated. • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly matched

2. Winged pollen grains are present in [NEET-2018] (1) Mustard (2) Cycas (3) Pinus (4) Mango

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 80 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment Sol. Answer (3) In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to form the wings of pollen. It is the characteristic feature, only in Pinus. Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are not winged shaped.

3. Which of the following statements is correct? [NEET-2018] (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms (2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms Sol. Answer (1) • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. • Called phanerogams without womb/ovary

4. Select the mismatch [NEET - 2017] (1) Pinus – Dioecious (2) Cycas – Dioecious (3) Salvinia – Heterosporous (4) Equisetum – Homosporous Sol. Answer (1) Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and female cones on same plant.

5. An example of colonial alga is [NEET - 2017] (1) Chlorella (2) Volvox (3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra Sol. Answer (2) Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite number of vegetative cells.

6. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are [NEET - 2017] (1) Haplontic, Diplontic (2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic (3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic (4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic Sol. Answer (3) Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus has diplontic life cycle. 7. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Broad hardy leaves (2) Superficial stomata (3) Thick cuticle (4) Presence of vessels Sol. Answer (3) In conifers, the needle like leaves, thick cuticle and sunken stomata help to reduce water loss. 8. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016] (1) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment (2) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae (3) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria (4) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 81 Sol. Answer (2) Algin is obtained from brown algae, and carrageenin from red algae.

9. Select the correct statement [NEET-2016] (1) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate (2) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous (3) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms (4) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees Sol. Answer (4) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species, known as red wood tree.

10. Which one is a wrong statement? [Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c, and fucoxanthin (2) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms (3) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores (4) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of gymnosperms Sol. Answer (3) Mucor has non-motile spore i.e. sporangiospores.

11. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock. (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM. (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic. (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte. [AIPMT-2015] (1) (B), (C) and (E) (2) (A), (C) and (D) (3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (D) and (E) Sol. Answer (4)

12. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living? [AIPMT-2015] (1) Pinus (2) Funaria (3) Marchantia (4) Pteris Sol. Answer (1)

13. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [AIPMT-2015] (1) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae (2) Algin and Carrageen are products of algae (3) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria (4) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food Sol. Answer (1) 14. Male gametes are flagellated in [AIPMT-2015] (1) Spirogyra (2) Polysiphonia (3) Anabaena (4) Ectocarpus Sol. Answer (4)

15. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ? [AIPMT-2014] (1) Marchantia (2) Riccia (3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 82 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment Sol. Answer (4) Sphagnum is responsible for peat formation.

16. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in [AIPMT-2014] (1) Pteris (2) Funaria (3) Lilium (4) Pinus Sol. Answer (3) Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in angiosperm e.g., Lilium

17. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes? [AIPMT-2014] (1) Sargassum (2) Ectocarpus (3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra Sol. Answer (4) Spirogyra shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes.

18. Select the wrong statement: [NEET-2013] (1) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour (2) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile (3) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy (4) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour Sol. Answer (2)

19. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of [NEET-2013] (1) Stamen and carpel on the same plant (2) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant (3) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant (4) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant Sol. Answer (3)

20. Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the question which follows them (A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living. (B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous. . (C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous. (D) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses. (E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious. How many of the above statements are correct? [NEET-2013] (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One Sol. Answer (2) Pinus is monoecious Sporophyte in mosses is partial parasite.

21. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012] (1) Ginkgo – Archegonia (2) Salvinia – Prothallus (3) Viroids – RNA (4) Mustard – Synergids Sol. Answer (2) Salvinia is heterosporous [ Prothallus ⇒ homosporous ]

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 83 22. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Thick-walled tracheids (2) Xylem fibres (3) Cambium (4) Phloem fibres Sol. Answer (2)

23. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Multiplication by fragmentation (2) Diplontic life cycle (3) Members of kingdom Plantae (4) Mode of Nutrition Sol. Answer (1)

24. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Cambium (2) Vessels (3) Seeds (4) Motile Sperms Sol. Answer (4) Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having motile sperms

25. Which one of the following is a correct statement? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes (2) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes (3) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage (4) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living Sol. Answer (2) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.

26. Read the following five statements (A-E) and answer as asked next to them (A) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte (B) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous (E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls

How many of the above statements are correct ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012] (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One Sol. Answer (4) In Selaginella, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte. 27. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat (2) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte (3) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds (4) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia Sol. Answer (2) Evolution of seed habit in pteridophytes – embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 84 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 28. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d) correctly identified [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

a

b c

d

(1) a – Seta (2) a – Antheridiophore b – Sporophyte b – Male thallus c – Protonema c – Globule d – Rhizoids d – Roots (3) a – Archegoniophore (4) a – Archegoniophore b – Female thallus b – Female thallus c – Gemmacup c – Bud d – Rhizoids d – Foot Sol. Answer (3)

29. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong? (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses (B) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) The life–cycle in all seed bearing plants is diplontic (D) In Pinus, male and female cones are borne on different trees The two wrong statements together are [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (B) (3) (A) and (C) (4) (A) and (D) Sol. Answer (4) Sporophyte in liverwort is less elaborate than mosses Pinus is monoecious, male and female cones are borne on same tree. 30. Archegoniophore is present in : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Funaria (2) Marchantia (3) Chara (4) Adiantum Sol. Answer (2) Archegoniophore is present in Marchantia 31. The gametophyte is not an independent, free - living generation in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Pinus (2) Polytrichum (3) Adiantum (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (1) Gametophyte is not independent and free living. – Gymnosperms & Angiosperms

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 85 32. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011] (1) Smaller and to have smaller sex organs (2) Smaller but to have larger sex organs (3) Larger but to have smaller sex organs (4) Larger and to have larger sex organs Sol. Answer (1) Gametophytes of vascular plants – Smaller and have smaller sex organs

33. Which one of the following is monoecious? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) Marchantia (2) Cycas (3) Pinus (4) Date palm Sol. Answer (3)

34. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Sphagnum (2) Mustard (3) Castor (4) Pinus Sol. Answer (1) Sphagnum – Bryophytes – Male and female gametophytes are independent and free living.

35. Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and D are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

A. B. C. D.

A B C D

(1) Chara Marchantia Fucus Pinus

(2) Equisetum Ginkgo Selaginella Lycopodium

(3) Selaginella Equisetum Salvinia Ginkgo

(4) Funaria Adiantum Salvinia Riccia Sol. Answer (3) Correct match A-Selaginella B-Equisetum C-Salvinia D-Ginkgo Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 86 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 36. Which one of the following plants is monoecious? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Papaya (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (1)

37. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Polytrichum (2) Ustilago (3) Wheat (4) Funaria Sol. Answer (2) Wheat - Diplontic Funaria - Haplo-diplontic Polytrichum - Haplodiplontic Ustilago - Haplontic

38. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Morphological features (2) Chemical constituents (3) Floral characters (4) Evolutionary relationships Sol. Answer (4)

39. Mannitol is the stored food in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Porphyra (2) Fucus (3) Gracillaria (4) Chara Sol. Answer (2) Mannitol is the stored food in brown algae. e.g., Fucus

40. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Heterospory (2) Haplontic life cycle (3) Free-living gametophyte (4) Dependent sporophyte Sol. Answer (1) Heterospory – important in the development of seed habit.

41. Select one of the following of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Embryo development and apical meristem (2) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation (3) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia (4) Perianth and two integuments Sol. Answer (3) Gnetum is advanced gymnosperm and resembles angiosperm – Vessel present – Archegonia absent

42. Which one of the following is heterosporous? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Equisetum (2) Dryopteris (3) Salvinia (4) Adiantum Sol. Answer (3)

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(a) Homosporous (b) Heterosporous e.g., Dryopteris e.g., Salvinia Adiantum Selaginella Equisetum Azolla 43. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] (1) Cedrus (2) Pteris (3) Funaria (4) Polytrichum Sol. Answer (1) Gametophytes do not have free living independent existence – Gymnosperms & Angiosperms

44. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result: [AIPMT (Prelims-2007)] (1) Self fertilization is prevented (2) There is no change in success rate of fertilization (3) There is high degree of sterility (4) One can conclude that the plant is apomictic Sol. Answer (1) Antherozoids and eggs mature at different times – Self fertilization is prevented

45. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Chemical composition of the cell wall (2) Types of pigments present in the cell (3) Nature of stored food materials in the cell (4) Structural organization of thallus Sol. Answer (2) Types of pigments present in the algal cell is the basis of algal classification.

46. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas (2) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra (3) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla (4) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis Sol. Answer (1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas – Flagellated male gametes

47. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) The microsporangium in which pollen grains develop (2) A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed (3) A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination (4) An opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg Sol. Answer (3) In gymnosperms, pollen chamber represents a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination. Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 88 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment

48. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] (1) Peristome teeth (2) Elaters (3) Indusium (4) Calyptra Sol. Answer (2) Spore dispersal (a) Elater - Liverwort e.g., Marchantia (b) Peristome teeth - Moss e.g., Funaria (c) Pseudoelaters - Hornworts e.g., Anthoceros

49. Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) It is easily available (2) It is hygroscopic (3) It reduces transpiration (4) It serves as a disinfectant Sol. Answer (2) Moss peat Sphagnum and Hygroscopic

50. Conifers differ from grasses in the [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Production of seeds from ovules (2) Lack of xylem tracheids (3) Absence of pollen tubes (4) Formation of endosperm before fertilization Sol. Answer (4) Conifers differ from grasses in the formation of endosperm before fertilization

51. In a moss, the sporophyte [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] (1) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte (2) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte (3) Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte (4) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte Sol. Answer (1)

52. Match items in column-I with those in column-II Column-I Column-II a. Peritrichous flagellation (i) Ginkgo b. Living fossil (ii) Macrocystes c. Rhizophore (iii) Escherichia coli d. Smallest flowering plant (iv) Selaginella e. Largest perennial alga (v) Wolffia Select the correct answer from the following : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) a(ii),b(i), c(iii), d(iv), e(v) (2) a(v), b(iii), c(ii), d(v), e(i) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(v), d(iii), e(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v), e(ii) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 89 Sol. Answer (4) (a) Peritrichous flagella - E.coli (b) Living fossils - Ginkgo (c) Rhizophore - Selaginella (d) Smallest flowering plant - Wolfia (e) Largest perenial algae - Macrocystis (Brown algae kelp)

53. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae (2) Osmunda and Equisetum (3) Marsilea and Botrychium (4) Dicksonia and maiden hair fern Sol. Answer (2) Ectophloic siphonostele – Osmunda & Equisetum

54. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005] (1) Polypetalous angiosperms (2) Gamopetalous angiosperms (3) Conifers (4) Cycads Sol. Answer (4)

55. A system of classification, in which a large number of traits are considered, is (1) Natural system (2) Phylogenetic system (3) Artificial system (4) Synthetic system Sol. Answer (1) Natural system – A large number of traits are considered. 56. The book ‘Genera plantarum’ was written by (1) Engler & Prantl (2) Bentham & Hooker (3) Bessey (4) Hutchinson Sol. Answer (2) Genera Plantarum written by Bentham & Hooker 57. Phylogenetic classification is one which is based on (1) Overall similarities (2) Utilitarian system (3) Habits of plants (4) Common evolutionary descent Sol. Answer (4) Phylogenetic classification – Evolutionary descent 58. According to which phylogenetic system, dicots are advanced with sympetalae conditions? (1) Bentham & Hooker’s (2) Engler & Prantl (3) Hutchinson (4) Takhtajan Sol. Answer (2) Engler & Prantl • Phylogenetic system • Dicots are advanced with sympetalae conditions

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 90 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 59. Phenetic classification is based on (1) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms (2) Observable characteristics of existing organisms (3) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics (4) Sexual characteristics Sol. Answer (2) Phenetics – Observable characteristics of existing organisms 60. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (1) Nostoc-Water blooms (2) Spirogyra-Motile gametes (3) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c (4) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs Sol. Answer (2) Spirogyra – Non-motile gametes 61. In chlorophyceae, the mode of sexual reproduction is (1) Isogamy (2) Anisogamy (3) Oogamy (4) All of these Sol. Answer (4) Green algae Isogamy Anisogamy All are present Oogamy 62. An alga as the source of protein is (1) Chlorella (2) Nostoc (3) Spirogyra (4) Ulothrix Sol. Answer (1) Chlorella is the source of protein. 63. Ulothrix can be described as a (1) Filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages (2) Coenobial alga producing zoospores (3) Filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages (4) Non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores Sol. Answer (3) Ulothrix – Filamentous alga – Flagellated reproductive stages 64. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows (1) Different sizes of motile sex organs (2) Same size of motile sex organs (3) Morphologically different sex organs (4) Physiologically differentiated sex organs Sol. Answer (4) Physiologically differentiated sex organs is an advanced feature of sexual reproduction in Spirogyra. Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 91 65. The pyrenoids are made up of (1) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath (2) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath (3) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath (4) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein Sol. Answer (1) The pyrenoids are made up of proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath. 66. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of (1) Fucoxanthin (2) Haematochrome (3) Phycocyanin (4) Phycoerythrin Sol. Answer (1) Brown algae – Fucoxanthin present 67. Ulothrix filaments produce (1) Heterogametes (2) Basidiospores (3) Isogametes (4) Anisogametes Sol. Answer (3) Ulothrix filaments produce isogametes. 68. The plant body is thalloid in (1) Funaria (2) Sphagnum (3) Salvinia (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (4) Plant body of Marchantia is thalloid 69. In bryophytes (1) Both generations are independent (2) Gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte (3) Sporophyte is free living (4) Sporophyte is dependent upon gametophyte Sol. Answer (4) Bryophytes – Sporophyte is dependent upon gametophytes. 70. Which of the following in plant kingdom is called ‘amphibians’? (1) Gymnosperm (2) Thallophyta (3) Tracheophyta (4) Bryophyta Sol. Answer (4) Amphibians of plant kingdom – Bryophyta 71. Bryophytes can be separated from algae, because they (1) Possess archegonia (2) Contain chloroplast (3) Are thalloid forms (4) Have no conducting tissue Sol. Answer (1) Bryophytes differ from algae because it possesses archegonia. 72. Bryophytes are dependent on water, because (1) Water is essential for their vegetative propagation (2) The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium (3) Archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilization (4) Water is essential for fertilization for their - homosporous nature Sol. Answer (2) Bryophytes are dependent on water because sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonia.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 92 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 73. Bryophytes comprise (1) Dominant phase of gametophyte which produces spores (2) Small sporophyte phase and generally parasitic on gametophyte (3) Sporophyte is of longer duration (4) Dominant phase of sporophyte which is parasitic Sol. Answer (2) Bryophytes – Small sporophytic phase – Generally parasitic on gametophyte 74. The antherozoids of Funaria are (1) Multiciliated (2) Monociliated (3) Aciliated (4) Biciliated Sol. Answer (4) The antherozoids of Funaria are biciliated 75. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is (1) Completely sporophyte (2) Predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte (3) Completely gametophyte (4) Predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte Sol. Answer (2) Funaria – Sporophyte is partial parasitic on gametophytes 76. Which of the following is true about bryophytes? (1) They are thalloid (2) They possess archegonia (3) They contain chloroplast (4) All of these Sol. Answer (4) Bryophytes – Thalloid – Posses archegonia – Contain chloroplast 77. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are the characteristics of (1) Some bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (3) All bryophytes (4) Gymnosperms Sol. Answer (1) Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy. 78. Elater for spore dispersal mechanism is exhibited by (1) Liverworts (2) Marchantia (3) Riccia (4) Funaria Sol. Answer (2) Spore dispersal in Marchantia – Elater 79. Dichotomous branching is found in (1) Liverworts (2) Pteridophytes (3) Fern (4) Funaria Sol. Answer (1) Liverworts have dichotomous branching

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 93 80. The walking fern is so named because (1) It propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips (2) It knows how to walk by itself (3) Its spores are able to walk (4) It is dispersed through the agency of walking animals Sol. Answer (1) Walking fern (Adiantum) – Propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips. 81. In which of the following would you place the plants having vascular tissue lacking seeds? (1) Pteridophytes (2) Gymnosperms (3) Algae (4) Bryophytes Sol. Answer (1) Pteridophytes – Vascular tissue lacking seeds. 82. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation? (1) Azolla (2) Nostoc (3) Salvia (4) Salvinia Sol. Answer (1) Azolla – Aquatic fern – Performs nitrogen fixation 83. A well developed archegonium with neck consisting of 4-6 rows and neck canal cells, characterises (1) Gymnosperms and flowering plants (2) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms (3) Gymnosperms only (4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes Sol. Answer (4) Archegonium with 4-6 rows of neck and neck canal cells. – Bryophytes – Pteridophytes (generally one neck canal cell). 84. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term (1) Cryptogams (2) Bryophytes (3) Sporophytes (4) Thallophytes Sol. Answer (1) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes – Cryptogams 85. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam? (1) Cedrus (2) Equisetum (3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia Sol. Answer (2) Vascular cryptogam – Pteridophytes e.g., Equisetum 86. Heterospory and seed habit are often exhibited by a plant possessing (1) Petiole (2) Ligule (3) Bract (4) Spathe Sol. Answer (2) Heterospory and seed habit plants also possess - Ligule. 87. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo? (1) Independent sporophyte (2) Presence of archegonia (3) Well developed vascular tissues (4) Independent gametophyte

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 94 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment Sol. Answer (2) Funaria - Bryophytes - Archegonia Drypteris - Pteridophytes - Archegonia Ginkgo - Gymnosperm (Primitive) - Archegonia 88. In Pinus, the wing of the seed develops from (1) Ovuliferous scale (2) Integument (3) Nucellus (4) Bract Sol. Answer (1) In Pinus, the wing of the seed develops from ovuliferous scale. 89. The smallest plant group gymnosperm has how many species? (1) 640 (2) 300 (3) 1000 (4) 900 Sol. Answer (4) Gymnosperms have 900 species. 90. Which one of the following statements about Cycas is incorrect? (1) It has circinate vernation (2) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessel (3) Its roots contain blue-green algae (4) It does not have a well organized female flower Sol. Answer (2) Vessel element is absent in Cycas. 91. Largest sperms in the plants world are found in (1) Banyan (2) Cycas (3) Thuja (4) Pinus Sol. Answer (2) Largest sperms in the plants world – Cycas 92. Transfusion tissue is present in the leaves of (1) Pinus (2) Dryopteris (3) Cycas (4) Both (1) & (3) Sol. Answer (4) Transfusion tissue is present in gymnosperms, e.g., Pinus & Cycas 93. The endosperm of gymnosperm is (1) Diploid (2) Polyploid (3) Triploid (4) Haploid Sol. Answer (4) Endosperm of gymnosperm is haploid 94. Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree, and largest gametes is (1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta Sol. Answer (1) Gymnosperm – Largest ovule, Largest gametes 95. Which of the following plants produce seeds but not flowers? (1) Maize (2) Mint (3) Peepal (4) Pinus Sol. Answer (4) Gymnosperm produces seeds but not flowers.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 Solutions of Assignment Plant Kingdom 95 96. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of (1) Naked ovules (2) Seeds like monocot (3) Circinate ptyxis (4) Compound leaves Sol. Answer (1) Cycas – Two cotyledons – Naked ovules 97. Which one of the following is a living fossil? (1) Cycas (2) Moss (3) Saccharomyces (4) Spirogyra Sol. Answer (1) Cycas – Living fossil 98. Which of the following is without exception in angiosperms? (1) Presence of vessels (2) Syngamy (3) Secondary growth (4) Autotrophic nutrition Sol. Answer (2) Syngamy is without exception in angiosperm 99. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers ? (1) Fern and Funaria (2) Funaria and Ficus (3) Ficus and Chlamydomonas (4) Punica and Pinus Sol. Answer (1) Non-seed producing plants are – Fern and Funaria. 100. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their (1) Power of adaptability in diverse habitat (2) Property of producing large number of seeds (3) Nature of self pollination (4) Domestication by man Sol. Answer (1) Angiosperms are dominated due to power of adaptability in diverse habitat. 101. Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through (1) Companion cells (2) Transfusion tissue (3) Tracheids (4) Sieve elements Sol. Answer (4) Transport of food material – Sieve elements 102. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is (1) Ulothrix (2) Chlorella (3) Spirogyra (4) Polysiphonia Sol. Answer (2) Chlorella is the rich source of protein. SECTION - D Assertion - Reason Type Questions 1. A : Thallophytes are non-vascular, non-archegoniate and non-cormophytic plants. R : Thallophytes lack vascular bundles, archegonia and differentiated plant body. Sol. Answer (1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason has correct explanation.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456 96 Plant Kingdom Solutions of Assignment 2. A : Funaria archegonium has maximum concentration of sucrose at the tip of neck. R : Male gametes show chemotropic movement. Sol. Answer (3) Male gametes show chemotactic movement 3. A : Pyrenoids may or may not be surrounded by a sheath of starch plates in algae. R : In higher plants, these are replaced by amyloplasts. Sol. Answer (2) Assertion and Reason both are correct. 4. A : Seeds are formed by some species of spike moss. R : All conditions for seed habit are fulfilled by these species of spike moss. Sol. Answer (4) Seeds are not formed in pteridophytes 5. A : Endosperm in Cycas is haploid in nature. R : Cycas roots shows association with oxyphoto -bacteria. Sol. Answer (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct. 6. A : Sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and formation of sex cells in members of chlorophyceae. R : It may be isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous. Sol. Answer (1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason has correct explanation. 7. A : In mosses, second stage of gametophyte consist of upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. R : This stage of gametophyte consists of sex organs. Sol. Answer (2) Assertion & Reason both are correct. 8. A : Events precursor to the seed habit is seen in some members of pteridophytes. R : Development of the zygotes into young embryo take place within the female gametophyte. Sol. Answer (1) Reason has correct explanation of assertion. 9. A : Different plant groups show different patterns of life cycles. R : During life cycle there is alternation of generation between diploid gametophyte and haploid sporophyte. Sol. Answer (3) Cycle of alternation of generation between haploid gametophyte & diploid sporophyte. 10. A : Microspores and megaspores are produced in same lax in gymnosperms. R : Lax represents compact strobilus which bear microsporophyll and megasporophyll. Sol. Answer (4) Gymnosperms are mostly monoecious. Exception - Cycas

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