Question Starts. 5. Under the Arms Act, 1969, a person 1. Under the Arms Act, a person may who does not hold a license may, with a acquire, have in his possession or carry written authority of the holder of the any firearm or ammunition license, carry any firearm or ammunition a) If he completes the age of 18 for the purpose of: b) If he completes the age of 19 a) Repair c) If he completes the age of 20 b) Renewal of license d) If he completes the age of 21. c) Use by the holder of license d) All the above 2. “Firearms” under the Arms Act includes a) Hand-grenades b) Platforms and appliances for 6. “Arms” under the Arms Act, 1959, does mounting not include: c) Only (a) a) Weapons for defense d) Both (a) and (b). b) Deadly weapons c) Firearms 3. A person may acquire, possess or carry d) Lathi any prohibited arms or ammunitions if specifically authorized by: 7. In which of the following matters the a) The Central Government Central Government may make rules for b) The State Government carrying out the purposes of the Arms c) The concerned Deputy Act, 1959? Commissioner a) The appointment, jurisdiction, d) The concerned License Officer control and functions of licensing with approval of the State authorities including the areas Government and the categories of arms and ammunition for which they may 4. Whoever shortens the barrel of a grant licenses firearm or converts an imitation firearm b) The procedure for the test or into a firearm in contravention of the proof of any firearms Arms Act, 1959: c) The form in which and the a) Shall be punishable with conditions subject to which any imprisonment for a term which license may be granted or shall not be less than three years refused, renewed, varied, but may extend to seven years suspended or revoked and shall not be liable to fine d) All the above. b) Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which 8. The Arms Act, 1959 extends to: shall not be less than five years a) The whole of India but may extend to seven years b) The whole of India, except the and shall also be liable to fine state of Jammu & Kashmir c) Shall be punishable with c) The whole of India, except Part A imprisonment for a term which States shall not be less than three years d) The whole of India, except Part B but may extend to seven years States and shall also be liable to fine d) Shall be punishable with 9. Under the Arms Rules, 1962, collection imprisonment for a term which of fees is dealt under shall not be less than three years a) Rule 40 but may extend to five years and b) Rule 55 shall also be liable to fine. c) Rule 60 d) Rule 65.

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10. What is the age limit for training and 13. Under the Punjab Security of the State target practice of any person under the Act, 1953, the Advisory Council Arms Rules, 1962? constituted by the State Government a) Less than sixteen years but not shall consist of below the age of twelve years a) A Chairman b) Less than 16 years but not below b) Two members who are or have the age of 11 years been, or are qualified to be c) Less than 15 years but not below appointed as Judges of a High the age of 12 years Court d) None of the above. c) Only (b) d) Both (a) and (b). 11. The State Government or the District Magistrate may impose a collective fine 14. All offences punishable under the on the inhabitants of the dangerously Punjab Security of the State Act, 1953 disturbed area under the Punjab shall be: Security of the State Act, 1953: a) Bailable a) When the inhabitants are b) Non-cognizable concerned in the commission of c) Cognizable and non-bailable offences or other acts which are d) Non-cognizable and bailable.. prejudicial to the security of the State 15. If anyone makes a speech which b) When the inhabitants are undermines the security of the State or concerned in the commission of friendly relations with foreign States, the offences or other acts which are person shall be: prejudicial to the maintenance of a) Issued a warning but no law and order punishment c) When the inhabitants are b) Punishable with imprisonment harboring persons concerned in only but no fine the commission of such offences c) Punishable with imprisonment or acts which may extend to three years d) All the above. or with fine or with both 12. If any person contravenes the d) Punishable with imprisonment provisions that no person shall take part which may extend to five years in the organization, control, or with fine or with both. management or training of, or be a member of, any body of persons 16. Under section 5 of the Punjab Security organized or trained or equipped for the of the State Act, 1953, no person shall purpose of enabling them to be have in his possession, or wear, carry employed in usurping the function of the or display, any uniform or flag or banner Police or for the unauthorized use or etc. which has been declared: display of force, then he shall be a) Unjust by the Government a) Punishable with imprisonment for b) Unreasonable by the a term which may extend to one Government year, or with fine, or with both c) Unlawful by the Government b) Punishable with imprisonment for d) None of the above a term which may extend to two year, or with fine, or with both 17. Which among the following sections has c) Punishable with imprisonment for been inserted by the Punjab Security of a term which may extend to three the State (Amendment) Act, 1954? year, or with fine, or with both a) Section 7-A d) Punishable with imprisonment for b) Section 8-A a term which may extend to one c) Section 9-A year but no fine. d) Section 10-A.

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18. No restriction under the Punjab Security 23. No person shall drive a motor of the State Act, 1953 shall be operative vehicle or cause or allow a motor for more than one year if made by vehicle to be driven in any public a) A District Magistrate place at a speed: b) The State Government a) Exceeding the maximum limit c) The Central Government fixed under the Act d) None of the above. b) Below the minimum limit fixed under the Act c) Both 19. Who among the following has the power d) None of the above. to prohibit meetings and processions in any public places under the Punjab Security of the State Act, 1953? 24. Which of the following cases observed a) The Residents of the concerned that the principle of ‘first come first places serve’ is not applicable? b) The District Magistrate a) A. Viswanathan v. State c) The State Government Transport Appellate Tribunal, d) The Commissioner of Police. Pondicherry b) Hira Ram Toofani v. State Transport Authority, Bihar 20. When a representation is placed, the c) Shamin Haider v. R.T.A. Meerut Advisory Council have to submit its d) Shamin Haider V. R.T.A. report to the State Government: Ludhiana. a) Within 15 days from the date on which a representation is placed 25. The registration certificates and the b) Within 20 days from the date on special registration marks to be which a representation is placed assigned to the motor vehicles c) Within 30 days from the date on belonging to diplomatic and consular which a representation is placed officers, are to prescribed by the d) Within 60 days from the date on a) Concerned State Government which a representation is placed. b) Central government c) Only (b) is true d) Only (a) is true. 21. In order to drive a motor vehicle in a public place, a person must attain the age of: 26. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, a a) Sixteen years learner’s license is valid for: b) Eighteen years a) Four months c) Twenty one years b) Six months d) None of the above. c) One year d) None of the above.

27. Driving a motor vehicle, not registered 22. Under section 21(1) of the Motor under Chapter IV the Motor Vehicles Vehicles Act, 1988, the period of Act, 1988, in a public place is: suspension from the date on which a) Permitted if the Transport a case of dangerous driving is Commissioner agrees registered is b) Permitted if the Deputy a) 1 year Commissioner agrees b) 6 months c) Not permitted c) 3 months d) Not permitted unless the owner d) 2 months. intends to register it under Chapter IV the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

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32. Which of the following state(s) in India 28. ‘Protective headgear’ means a helmet legalized gambling in casinos? which by virtue of its a) Goa and Sikkim a) Shape b) Mumbai and Sikkim b) Material c) Goa and Mumbai c) Construction d) Kerala and Goa. d) All the above. 33. Who among the following shall be liable 29. In which of the following matters the to a fine not exceeding two hundreds Central Government may make rules rupees, or to imprisonment of either relating to the construction, equipment description for a term not exceeding and maintenance of motor vehicles three months? a) The width, the height, length and a) Whoever advances or furnishes overhang of vehicles and of the money for the purpose of gaming loads carried with persons frequenting such b) The manner in which objections house, walled enclosure, room or may be filed under sub-section place; (1) of section 100 of the Motor b) Whoever, being the owner or Vehicles Act, 1988 occupier of any such house, c) The period within which the walled enclosure, room or place owner may claim any article as aforesaid, knowingly or wilfully found left in any transport vehicle permits the same to be opened, under section 106 of the Motor occupied, used or kept by any Vehicles Act, 1988 and the other person as a common manner of sale of such article gaming house; and d) All the above. c) Whoever, being the owner or occupier, or having the use, of any house, walled enclosure, 30. When death or permanent room or place, situated within the dismemberment of any person is limits to which the Public caused from an accident arising out of Gambling Act applies, opens, the use of a motor vehicle, the owner or keeps or uses the same as a owners is / are bound to pay common gaming house; compensation: d) All of the above. a) On the principle of equity b) On the principle of equality 34. Penalty for being found in gaming- c) On the principle of fault liability house under the Public Gambling Act, d) On the principle of no fault 1867 is: liability. a) A fine not exceeding one hundred rupees, or to imprisonment for any term not 31. Which of the following persons are not exceeding one month liable to penalty in relation to a gaming b) A fine not exceeding one house? hundred rupees, or to a) Owner who uses the place as a imprisonment for any term not gaming house exceeding two months b) Occupier who allows the place to c) A fine not exceeding one be used as a gaming house hundred rupees, or to c) Person who advances money for imprisonment for any term not the purpose of gaming with exceeding three months persons frequenting gaming d) A fine not exceeding one houses hundred rupees, or to d) None of the above. imprisonment for any term not exceeding one year.

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40. Under the Public Gambling Act, 1867, 35. All fines imposed under the Public the District Magistrate, the Officer Gambling Act, 1867, may be recovered having the full powers of a Magistrate or in the manner prescribed by the District Superintendent of Police a) Section 61 of Indian Evidence may enter or authorize police to enter Act and search a place used as gaming b) Section 61 of Indian Penal Code house: c) Section 61 Code of Criminal a) By day Procedure b) By night d) The Public Gambling Act. c) By force d) All the above.

36. On conviction for keeping a gaming 41. If the cattle is not claimed within seven house, all instruments of gaming, days from the date of their being money and articles seized, not being impounded, the pound-keeper instruments of gaming, may be: a) shall report the fact to the officer a) Destroyed in charge of the nearest police- b) Forfeited station c) Converted into money b) shall report the fact to the d) All the above Magistrate of the District c) shall report the fact to the Village 37. Under the Public Gambling Act, 1867, Authority who has the power to enter and d) any of the above. authorize police to enter and search any house, walled enclosure, room or place, used as a common gaming-house? 42. The officers and pound-keepers under a) The District Magistrate the Cattle Trespass Act: b) The District Superintendent of a) Can purchase any cattle directly Police b) Can purchase any cattle c) Other officer invested with the full indirectly powers of a Magistrate c) Cannot purchase any cattle d) Any of the above. directly d) Cannot purchase any cattle 38. A person found in gaming-house is directly or indirectly. liable to penalty If he was found: a) For the purpose of gaming under 43. Under the provision of the Cattle section 13 Trespass Act,1871, the pounds shall be b) For the purpose of searching the under the control of gaming house under section 5 a) The village authority c) For the purpose of gaming under b) The Magistrate of the District section 4 c) Both (a) and (b) are true d) None of the above. d) Both (a) and (b) are false. 39. Who can apprehend a person found setting any birds or animals to fight, in 44. For damage caused to land or crops or any public street, place, or thoroughfare public roads by pigs, the following situated within the limits to which the persons will be penalized: Public Gambling Act applies? a) The owner, if damage is caused a) A Police Officer by his neglect b) A Magistrate b) The keeper if damage is caused c) A Police Constable by his neglect d) None of the above. c) The owner if damage is caused not by his neglect d) All the above

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51. A Collector has power to investigate 45. Complaint under the provision of the any offence punishable under the Cattle Trespass Act, shall be made Eastern Bengal and Assam Excise Act, a) In writing 1910 which a court in the Collector’s b) Verbally jurisdiction would have power to inquire c) Either in writing or verbal into or try under Chapter XV of the CPC d) None of the above. relating to the place of enquiry or trial, a) Only with the order of the Magistrate 46. Under the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871, b) Without the order of the any cattle damaging land or its produce Magistrate may be impounded and sent to the : c) Only with the order of the District a) Office of the District Cattle Officer Judge b) Office of the District Magistrate d) None of the above c) Office of the Superintendent of Police 52. Which of the following of form of charas d) Pound of the village is liable to excise duty under the Eastern Bengal and Assam Excise Act, 1910? 47. Under the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871, a) Charas in any form which of the following takes charge of b) Charas which have been subject and feeds the cattle? to any manipulations including a) The State Government those necessary for packing and b) The Village Authority transport c) The Pound-Keeper c) Charas which have not been d) None of the above. subject to any manipulations except those necessary for 48. Under the Cattle Trespass Act, 1871, packing and transport the State Government may transfer d) Charas which are ready for sale certain functions to local authority and or transport direct credit of surplus receipts to local fund, from time to time, by notification in 53. The maximum period of detention in the custody under the Eastern Bengal and a) Local newspaper Assam Excise Act, 1910, shall not b) National newspaper exceed c) Official Gazette a) 24 hours d) Any one of the above. b) 48 hours c) 3 days 49. Every pound-keeper shall be deemed to d) 7 days be a public servant within the meaning of 54. Which of the following official(s) is/are a) The Cattle Trespass Act responsible for the administration of the b) The Indian Penal Code Excise Department and the collection of c) The Code of Criminal Procedure excise revenue in a district? d) The General Clauses Act. a) The District Collector b) The Revenue Commissioner 50. Excisable article under the Eastern c) The Excise Commissioner Bengal and Assam Excise Act, 1910, d) Both (a) and (b) includes a) Any intoxicating contraband b) Any intoxicating drugs c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or (b)

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55. Section 43 of the Eastern Bengal and 60. An improperly stamped instrument, Assam Excise Act, 1910, grants an when certified as duly stamped on investigating officer the powers payment of duty, shall be deemed to be exercisable by a police officer: duly stamped as from the date of: a) In all circumstances a) Execution b) Under certain circumstances b) Rectification c) Only when the Excise c) Both (a) and (b) Commissioner directs d) None of the above. d) Only when the Excise Commissioner directs 61. According to the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, any person who, being required 56. Any kind of intoxicant prohibited from under section 30 to give a receipt, import unless: refuses or neglects to give the same a) Conditions imposed by the State shall be Government is fulfilled a) Punishable with fine which may b) Permission is obtained from the extend to one hundred rupees State Government b) Punishable with fine which may c) Any duty, if payable, has been extend to five hundred rupees. paid c) Punishable with fine which may d) All of the above. extend to one thousand rupees d) Punishable with fine which may 57. Under the Eastern Bengal and Assam extend to ten thousand rupees Excise Act, 1910, passes for import, export or transport of intoxicants can be granted by: 62. Any instrument which is not duly a) The Collector alone stamped is: b) The Collector or especially a) Illegal to hold authorized officer b) Inadmissible in evidence c) The Excise Commissioner alone c) Partly admissible in evidence d) The Excise Commissioner or d) Admissible in cross examination especially authorized officer

58. Under the provision of the Eastern Bengal and Assam Excise Act, 1910, 63. The provision relating to ‘policies of the term ‘board’ means sea-insurance’ is provided under which a) The State Government of Assam section of Indian Stamp Act, 1899? and Bengal a) Section 7 b) The State Government of Assam b) Section 10 c) The Excise Board of Eastern c) Section 17 Bengal d) Section 20. d) The Provincial Government of Assam 64. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, ‘promissory note’ means a promissory 59. Bottling of liquor for sale is not note as defined by prohibited if: a) The Transfer of Property Act a) Permitted by the concerned b) The Negotiable Instruments Act authority c) The Sale of Goods Act b) Conditions on the license are d) The Indian Evidence Act. fulfilled c) Either (a) or (b) is fulfilled d) Both (a) and (b) are fulfilled.

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65. Which of the following instruments shall 68. The admission of an instrument, that not be chargeable with duty under the has been admitted in evidence, cannot Indian Stamps Act, 1899? be questioned at any stage of the same a) Every instrument mentioned in suit: Schedule I which, not having a) Can be questioned at any stage been previously executed by any b) Can be questioned only for the person, is executed in India on or limited purpose of finding if the after the first day of July, 1899 instrument is duly stamped b) Every bill of exchange payable c) Can be questioned only for the otherwise than on demand or limited purpose of finding if the promissory note drawn or made instrument is sufficiently stamped out of India on or after that day d) Except as provided in section 61 and accepted or paid , or of the Act presented for acceptance or payment, or endorsed, transferred or otherwise 69. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, the negotiated, in India following can be stamped with adhesive c) Any instrument executed, by, or, stamps: on behalf of, or, in favour of, the a) Entry as an advocate, vakil or Developer, or Unit or in attorney on the roll of a High connection with the carrying out Court of purposes of the Special b) Notarial acts Economic Zone c) Transfers by endorsement of d) Every instrument or promissory shares in any incorporated note mentioned in Schedule I company or other body corporate which, not having been d) All the above. previously executed by any person, is executed out of India 70. In an appeal against order relating to on or after the first day of July, compensation for acquisition of land for 1899. public purposes, the amount of fees 66. Under Section 29 of the Indian Stamp payable shall be computed on the basis Act, 1899, the expenses for providing of the: proper stamps in case of a conveyance, a) Amount awarded in the absence of any agreement to the b) Amount claimed contrary, shall be borne by: c) The difference of the above two a) Grantor d) None of the above. b) Grantee c) Vendor d) Vendee. 71. In an investigation into the annual net 67. An instrument inadvertently misused or profits or the market value of any land, if rendered useless may get cancelled the Court finds that the valuation is and allowed as spoiled stamp on an wrongly estimated, the Court may: application made to: a) Refund the excess amount on a) The Stamp Commissioner six demand by the owner months after the date of b) Refund the excess amount at its instrument discretion b) The Collector six months after c) Not refund the excess amount the date of instrument since stamps are already c) The Stamp commissioner three cancelled months after the date of d) Not refund the excess amount instrument since it is the fault of the owner d) The Collector three months after the date of instrument

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72. The Court Fees Act, 1870 came into 77. Consider the following statements on force the Court Fees Act, 1870. a) 11th February, 1870 I. The enactment of the Act was b) 11th March, 1870 intended only to enhance the c) 1st April, 1870 functioning of judiciary d) 11th April, 1870. II. Decision by the Court in which plaint or memorandum is filed 73. Before any document requiring a stamp shall be final and hence there is is filed or acted upon in any no scope for appeal proceedings before the court, the stamp III. Refund of fees where Court should be: reverses or modifies its former a) Signed decision is provided under b) Cancelled section 14 c) Refunded d) Endorsed. Select the correct code a) I, II and III are correct b) I and III are correct 74. As per the Court Fees Act, 1870, tables c) Only I is correct of process fees shall be printed in: d) None of the above. a) English b) Vernacular language 78. All fees referred to in section 3 of the c) Both (a) and (b) Court Fees Act, 1870 shall be collected d) Neither (a) nor (b). by: a) Cheques 75. If a judgement is reversed or modified in b) Demand Drafts a review application, the applicant is c) Stamps entitled to a refund of the excess fee d) Money order. paid on the application. However, such reversal or modification should be: a) On the ground of mistake of fact b) On the ground of mistake of law c) Either (a) or (b) 79. The provision of ‘recovery of penalties’ d) At the discretion of the Court. under the Court Fees Act, 1870 was inserted in the year: a) 1869 76. Which of the following statement b) 1879 regarding the Court Fees Act, 1870 is c) 1889 not correct? d) 1899. a) The order or judgment under section 5, by the Taxing Judge is final and no appeal is 80. The liability amongst joint borrowers as maintainable amongst themselves for agricultural loans b) The Judges of High Court shall under the Agriculturists’ Loan Act, 1884, declare persons to be taxing- where there is a statement signed by each officer. of them or their agents as regards their c) The definition of Chief Controlling share of contribution on repayment, is Authority was repealed twice in determined as per: 1870 and 1937 a) The principle of equal share d) Appropriate Government means b) The principle of equity either the Central or State c) The principle of ability to Government contribute d) The Statement.

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81. The power to make rules as to loans under 86. X, a defaulter, has an arrear of land revenue the Agriculturists’ Loan Act, 1884, lies with: payable to a Collector of District A and he has a) The State Government property in another District B. The Collector of b) The Central Government District A may issue a certificate for recovery of c) The Revenue Commissioner of a the arrears and the Collector of District B: State a) May not proceed to recover the d) None of the above. arrears from X since the arrears accrue in District A 82. The extension of the Agriculturists’ Loan b) May not proceed to recover the Act, 1884, in the first instance, includes the arrears from X since he does not state(s) of: have concurrent jurisdiction in a) Uttar Pradesh District A b) Assam c) May proceed to recover the arrears c) Delhi from X as if the arrears accrue in d) All the above. District B d) May proceed to recover the arrears 83. Recovery of loans made under the from X since a defaulter is a Agriculturists’ Loan Act, 1884, may be defaulter in all districts. made, in the event of non-availability of the borrower, from: a) The witnesses to the loan 87. Under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890, who agreement may issue a proclamation prohibiting the b) The drafter of the loan agreement transfer of or charging of any immovable c) The surety of the loan property belonging to the defaulter in the d) None of the above. district? a) The Collector of a District 84. A proclamation issued by the Collector of the b) Any Public Officer of a District district prohibiting the transfer of or charging of c) Any Public Authority of a District any immovable property belonging to the d) None of the above. defaulter in the district shall be made by: a) Pasting a copy of the proclamation in a conspicuous place b) The beating of the drum 88. The term “defaulter” under the Revenue c) Any customary method Recovery Act, 1890 includes: d) Any of the above. a) A person who acts as a surety for repayment of the arrear 85. Suit for the recovery of an amount stated in a b) A person from whom an arrear of certificate under the Revenue Recovery Act, land revenue is due 1890 must be instituted in a Civil Court having c) Both (a) and (b) the jurisdiction of: d) Neither (a) nor (b) a) The office of the collector who made the certificate b) The office of the collector who received the certificate 89. Who gave the assent for the Revenue c) The office of the revenue Recovery Act, on 14th February 1890? commissioner who made the a) The Governor-General of India certificate b) The British Parliament d) The office of the revenue c) Both (a) and (b) commissioner who received the d) Neither (a) nor (b). certificate

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90. Which of the following offences under the Army 95. In the course of trial by a court-marshal, if Act, 1950, is not punishable with death? the court finds that the accused person is a) Directly or indirectly assists the by reason of unsoundness of mind enemy with money, arms, incapable of making hs defense, the court ammunition, stores or supplies shall: b) Knowingly harbours or protects an a) Record a finding accordingly enemy not being a prisoner b) Call for a report of his mental status c) Shamefully cast away his arms, accordingly ammunition , tools or equipment or c) Proceed as if the accused is a misbehaves in such a manner as to normal person show cowardice to his commanding d) None of the above. officer d) Treacherously or through cowardice sends a flag of truce to the enemy. 96. The presiding officer at every general courts-marshal under the Army Act, 1950, 91. Any person subject to the Army Act, 1950, shall be: is not liable to punishment for committing a) The Commander-in-Chief of the any of the following offences: Army a) Uses criminal force to a sentry b) The Senior Member b) Leaves post or patrol without c) The Commanding Officer of the authorization Regular army c) Being a sentry sleeps upon his post d) The Central Government. d) Drinking and talking loudly

97. No person subject to the Army Act, 1950, 92. Right of accused to prepare defense is shall: provided under a) Attend, address or take part in any a) Rule 36 of the Army Rules, 1954 political meeting b) Rule 35 of the Army Rules, 1954 b) Belong to any political association c) Rule 34 of the Army Rules, 1954 c) Join or subscribe in the aid of any d) Rule 33 of the Army Rules, 1954. political movement d) All the above. 93. A courts-marshal under the Army Act, 1950 may be: a) A general courts-marshal 98. Any trial by a court-martial under the b) A district courts-marshal provisions of the Army Act, 1950, shall be c) A summary courts-marshal deemed to be a judicial proceeding within d) All the above. the meaning of sections 193 and 228 of: a) The Indian Penal Code 94. The power to convene a summary court- b) The Code of Criminal Procedure martial under the Army Act, 1950, is given c) The Code of Civil Procedure to: d) The Indian Evidence Act. a) Commanding officer of any corps of the regular army 99. A person who is not a citizen of India can b) Commanding officer of any be enrolled in the regular Indian, department of the regular army a) If the Central Government consents c) Commanding officer of any in writing detachment of the regular army b) If the person is a subject of Nepal d) All the above. c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of the above. e) 100. Which section of the Army Act, 1950, deals with the provision of capture of deserters? a) Section 45 b) Section 75 c) Section 85 d) Section 105. Question Ends.

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