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Indian Polity Group 2 Free Test Series No: 03

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Indian Polity Group 2 Free Test Series No: 03 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 INDIAN POLITY GROUP 2 FREE TEST SERIES NO: 03 UNIT-V: INDIAN POLITY (i) Constitution of India - Preamble to the Constitution - Salient features of the Constitution - Union, State and Union Territory. (ii) Citizenship, Fundamental rights, Fundamental duties, Directive Principles of State Policy. 1. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar D. J.B. Kripalani Ans: B The constituent assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee. 2. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? A. 25th B. 42nd C. 59th D. 44th Ans: B 42nd Amendment gave primacy to the Directive Principles, by stating that “no law implementing any of the Directive Principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights”. 3. Which among the following provisions of Indian Constitution have been taken from the Weimar Constitution of Germany? A. Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights B. The concurrent list C. Constitutional Amendments D. Preamble Ans: A Provisions regarding suspension of Fundamental Rights during the emergency have been borrowed from Weimar Constitution of Germany. 1 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 4. Which among the following acts provided for a High Commissioner who resided in London, representing India in Great Britain? A. Government of India Act 1858 B. Government of India Act 1909 C. Government of India Act 1919 D. Government of India Act 1935 Ans: C The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a high commissioner, who resided in London and represented India in Great Britain. 5. The “Bill of Rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of which of the following countries constitution? A. USA B. UK C. Germany D. Australia Ans: A The “Bill of rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of constitution of United States. 6. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme? A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1,2 & 3 Ans: B The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995 represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to Work, to Education and to Public Assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution. 7. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as A. Fundamental Rights B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Extent of executive power of State D. Conduct of business of the Government of India Ans: B 2 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 8. Consider the following: 1. Right to education. 2. Right to equal access to public service. 3. Right to food. Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: D 9. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? A. Second Schedule B. Fifth Schedule C. Eighth Schedule D. Tenth Schedule Ans: D Eleventh Schedule- Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of the parliament & State Legislatures on the ground of Defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd amendment act of 1985, also known as Anti-Defection law. 10. Which article safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? A. Article 19 B. Article 21 C. Article 25 D. Article 29 Ans: B Article 21: “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” According to Bhagwati, J., Article 21 “embodies a constitutional value of supreme importance in a democratic society.” Iyer, J., has characterized Article 21 as “the procedural magna carta protective of life and liberty. This right has been held to be the heart of the Constitution, the most organic and progressive provision in our living constitution, the foundation of our laws. 11. In the federation established by the Government of India Act 1935, Residuary power were given to the A. Federal Legislature B. Governor General C. Provincial Legislature D. Provincial Governors Ans: B 12. Consider the following statements: 3 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of Citizenship or Domicile 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated/omitted by the Issuing Authority Which of the following are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: D Calcutta High Court on 26th Dec 2016 ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto”. So, statement 1 is wrong. An individual’s Aadhaar card can be omitted/Deactivated only by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). Hence, Statement 2 is also Wrong. 13. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? A. Third Schedule B. Fifth Schedule C. Ninth Schedule D. Twelfth Schedule Ans: B Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas. The Governor can make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes. So, B is the right answer. 14. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Lal Bahadur Shastri C. Indira Gandhi D. Morarji Desai Ans: A Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to reduce the scope of Judicial review in the matters of land reforms and Zamindari-Abolition. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2016) their number is 282.” 15. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is A. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect B. Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either C. A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part D. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts 4 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 Ans: D A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Union (1960): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973): Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is not enforceable in a court of law. 16. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by A. The Preamble of the Constitution B. A Directive Principle of state policy C. The Seventh schedule D. The conventional practice Ans: B Not written in Preamble so A is wrong. 7th Schedule deals with separation of legislative powers between Union vs State so C is wrong. Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive. So, B is right. 17. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only Ans: D Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51) Article 37: Provisions of Part-IV shall not be enforceable by any court. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country. So, statement 3 is also correct. 18. Consider the following statements: 5 TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03 The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: B Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’.
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