Indian Polity Group 2 Free Test Series No: 03

TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03

INDIAN POLITY GROUP 2 FREE TEST SERIES NO: 03

UNIT-V: INDIAN POLITY (i) Constitution of India - Preamble to the Constitution - Salient features of the Constitution - Union, State and Union Territory. (ii) Citizenship, Fundamental rights, Fundamental duties, Directive Principles of State Policy.

1. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar D. J.B. Kripalani

Ans: B The constituent assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee.

2. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? A. 25th B. 42nd C. 59th D. 44th

Ans: B 42nd Amendment gave primacy to the Directive Principles, by stating that “no law implementing any of the Directive Principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights”.

3. Which among the following provisions of Indian Constitution have been taken from the Weimar Constitution of Germany? A. Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights B. The concurrent list C. Constitutional Amendments D. Preamble

Ans: A Provisions regarding suspension of Fundamental Rights during the emergency have been borrowed from Weimar Constitution of Germany.

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4. Which among the following acts provided for a High Commissioner who resided in London, representing India in Great Britain? A. Government of India Act 1858 B. Government of India Act 1909 C. Government of India Act 1919 D. Government of India Act 1935

Ans: C The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a high commissioner, who resided in London and represented India in Great Britain.

5. The “Bill of Rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of which of the following countries constitution? A. USA B. UK C. Germany D. Australia

Ans: A The “Bill of rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of constitution of United States.

6. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme? A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1,2 & 3

Ans: B The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995 represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to Work, to Education and to Public Assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution.

7. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as A. Fundamental Rights B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Extent of executive power of State D. Conduct of business of the Government of India

Ans: B

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8. Consider the following: 1. Right to education. 2. Right to equal access to public service. 3. Right to food. Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

9. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? A. Second Schedule B. Fifth Schedule C. Eighth Schedule D. Tenth Schedule

Ans: D Eleventh Schedule- Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of the parliament & State Legislatures on the ground of Defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd amendment act of 1985, also known as Anti-Defection law.

10. Which article safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? A. Article 19 B. Article 21 C. Article 25 D. Article 29

Ans: B Article 21: “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” According to Bhagwati, J., Article 21 “embodies a constitutional value of supreme importance in a democratic society.” Iyer, J., has characterized Article 21 as “the procedural magna carta protective of life and liberty. This right has been held to be the heart of the Constitution, the most organic and progressive provision in our living constitution, the foundation of our laws.

11. In the federation established by the Government of India Act 1935, Residuary power were given to the A. Federal Legislature B. Governor General C. Provincial Legislature D. Provincial Governors

Ans: B

12. Consider the following statements:

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1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of Citizenship or Domicile 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated/omitted by the Issuing Authority Which of the following are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D Calcutta High Court on 26th Dec 2016 ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto”. So, statement 1 is wrong. An individual’s Aadhaar card can be omitted/Deactivated only by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). Hence, Statement 2 is also Wrong.

13. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? A. Third Schedule B. Fifth Schedule C. Ninth Schedule D. Twelfth Schedule

Ans: B Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas. The Governor can make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes. So, B is the right answer.

14. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Lal Bahadur Shastri C. Indira Gandhi D. Morarji Desai

Ans: A Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to reduce the scope of Judicial review in the matters of land reforms and Zamindari-Abolition. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2016) their number is 282.”

15. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is A. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect B. Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either C. A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part D. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

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Ans: D A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Union (1960): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973): Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is not enforceable in a court of law.

16. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by A. The Preamble of the Constitution B. A Directive Principle of state policy C. The Seventh schedule D. The conventional practice

Ans: B Not written in Preamble so A is wrong. 7th Schedule deals with separation of legislative powers between Union vs State so C is wrong. Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive. So, B is right.

17. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

Ans: D Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51) Article 37: Provisions of Part-IV shall not be enforceable by any court. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country. So, statement 3 is also correct.

18. Consider the following statements:

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The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: B Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was invented by the Supreme Court of India in the Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgment. Even though, the Supreme Court invented the concept of Basic Structure in the aforementioned judgment, it did not define the same. However, it is only in the later judgments that the court has added various elements to the list of the basic structure of the Constitution. So, 1st statement is incorrect. While Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘CONCEPT’ of Judicial Review however, it does not explicitly mention the term judicial review.

19. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare state? A. Directive principles of state policy B. Fundamental rights C. Preamble D. Seventh schedule

Ans: A Directive principles of state policy are given in the Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Article 36 to 51). Article 38 mentioned about State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.

20. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? A. Liberty of thought B. Economic liberty C. Liberty of expression D. Liberty of belief

Ans: B The preamble reads as: “We, the people of India,….LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship…”

21. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties.

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Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D There is no “a single” or multiple legislative processes provided for enforcement of (all) of these duties. Statement 1 is wrong. M.Laxmikanth Page 9.2: The list of duties is not exhaustive as it does not cover other important duties like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning and so on. In fact, duty to pay taxes was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee [That means it remains only a legal duty. So, Statement 2 is also wrong.

22. According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may by law: 1. Declare war on any country 2. Alter the boundaries of any State 3. Increase the area of any State 4. Establish an Autonomous Council within any State Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

23. Which of the following are provided in India by the Right to Education Act ? 1. Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school. 2. Prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational works, other than decennial census, elections to local authority like State Legislatures, Parliament, and disaster relief. 3. Right of minorities to establish and administer education institution. 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 only D. 1 and 2 only

Ans: D

24. According to Granville Austin, which of the following was / were the most significant contributions of India to constitution-making? A. Majority rule and minority rights B. Consensus and Accommodation C. Social revolution and Political Freedom D. Asymmetrical Federal structure

TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03

Ans: C

25. The proposals of the Cabinet Mission did NOT include: 1. A three-tier structure for the Union of India, with both the Provinces and the Princely States 2. Formation of a Constituent Assembly 3. Creation of a sovereign Pakistan with six Muslim-majority provinces Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 B. 3 only C. 3 only D. 2 only

Ans: B

26. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in A. 1970 B. 1971 C. 1972 D. 1973

Ans: D

27. The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Ans: C Writs that can be prayed & issued by SC & HC are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari & Quo Warranto under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.

28. The preamble says that the state in India will assure the dignity of the individual. The constitution seeks to achieve this object by guaranteeing A. equal fundamental rights to each citizen B. the right to adequate means of livelihood to each individual C. just and humane conditions of work to each individual D. equal wages for equal work to each individual irrespective of sex

Ans: A

29. Reservation was provided to women in Government services by: A. Jayalalitha B. M.G. Ramachandran C. Rajaji D. M. Karunanidhi

Ans: D

30. Which guarantees right to freedom of religion to all persons in all its aspects? A. Articles 25 to 28 B. Article 29

TNPSC AURA www.tnpscaura.com FREE GROUP 2 TEST NO: 03

C. Article 30 D. Article 34

Ans: A

31. The pre-requisite for the enforcement of directive principles of the state policy is A. an effective, hones government B. socialist government C. active opposition D. adequate resources

Ans: D

32. Match the following: a. Part II 1. Directive Principles of State Policy b. Part IV 2. State Government c. Part VI 3. Amendment d. Part XX 4. Citizenship Codes: A. 4,1,2,3 B. 4,1,3,2 C. 1,4,2,3 D. 2,1,4,3

Ans: A

33. Which of the following subject is included in the concurrent list of the Constitution of India? A. Citizenship B. Interstate rivers C. Trade Unions D. All India Services

Ans: C

34. The Constitution of India recognises: A. Religious & Linguistic minorties B. Religious, Linguistic & Ethnic minorities C. Only Religious minorities D. Only Linguistic minorities

Ans: A

35. The salient features of the Government of India Act 1935, are: 1. All India Federation 2. Provincial Autonomy 3. Dyarchy at the Centre. 4. Abolition of dyarchy in the states A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2,3 & 4 D. All the above

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Ans: D

36. Which of the following acts introduced the Principle of Elections in India? A. Indian Councils Act 1861 B. Indian Councils Act 1892 C. Indian Councils Act 1909 D. Indian Councils Act 1919

Ans: B

37. Who said the “Indian Constituition esatblished a unitary state with subsidary federal features rather than federal state with subsidary unitary features”? A. Granville Austin B. Ivor Jennings C. B.R.Ambedkar D. K.C.Wheare

Ans: D

38. The words “Socialist”& “Secular”were added to the Preamble by: A. 41st Amendment B. 44th Amendment C. 46th Amendment D. 42nd Amendment

Ans: D

39. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration? A. Charter Act of 1833 B. Regulating Act of 1773 C. Charter Act of 1853 D. Pitts India Act 1784

Ans: B

40. Match the following: a. Equality in Public Employment 1. Article 29 b. Minorities rights 2. Article 21 c. Right to Personal Liberty 3. Article 23 d. Right against Exploitation 4. Article 16 5. Article 25 A. 4,3,1,2 B. 3,4,2,1 C. 4,2,1,3 D. 4,1,2,3

Ans: D

41. Which of the following statements is true with respect to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act? 1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment

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3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

42. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? 1. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India 2. To exercise our Universal Adult Franchise at the time of general elections 3. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

43. With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements: 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) has been taken from the constitution of Ireland 2. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 has included Art. 43-B, the state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of Co-operative societies Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of these

Ans: C

44. Which Article under DPSP proposes for the separation of the Judiciary from executive ? A. Art. 51 B. Art. 50 C. Art. 49 D. Art. 48

Ans: B

45. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

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A. The 25th Constitutional Act came to be challenged before the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharti case (1973). B. Art. 31-c was introduced by the 25th Constitutional Act which gave Art. 39(b) and 39(c) precedence over fundamental Rights. C. Art. 40, to organize village Panchayats as units of self government. D. Art. 44, to protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

Ans: D

46. Consider the following statements. 1. The constitution of India provided single citizenship for the entire country. 2. Since 2003, dual citizenship is allowed by Indian law that is called Overseas Citizens of India. 3. Those born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1967 are citizens of India by birth, irrespective of the nationality of their parents. Which of the above statement is/are correct. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

Ans: B A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.

47. Consider the following statements: 1. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955), also provided for Commonwealth Citizenship. 2. The provision for Commonwealth Citizenship was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005. Which of the above statement is/are correct. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A The Citizenship Act, 1955 provided for the Commonwealth citizenship according to which every person who is a citizen of a Commonwealth country, shall by virtue of that citizenship, have the status of commonwealth citizenship in India. But, this provision was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.

48. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Origin Tamils: 1. IOTs were shipped to Sri Lanka to Sri Lanka in the mid 19th century to work on tea estates. 2. The Citizenship Amendment Bill in its current form does not provide for the possibility of Indian-Origin Tamil refugees living in India obtaining citizenship. Which of the above statement is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Ans: C The Indian-Origin Tamils are the descendants of Tamil labourers who were brought to Sri Lanka from different parts of Tamil Nadu by the British to work in plantations. They are mostly Hindus and belong to the Most Backward Class and Dalit communities. Soon after Independence, Sri Lanka rendered them stateless by enacting the Ceylon Citizenship Act of 1948 and the Indian and Pakistani Residents Act of 1949. Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019 in its current form does not provide for the possibility of Indian-Origin Tamil refugees living in India obtaining citizenship.

49. Which of the following state/UT is not exempted (entirely or in parts) from the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill (CAB)? A. Meghalaya B. Manipur C. Jammu & Kashmir D. Nagaland

Ans: C In effect, it exempts the whole of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram, almost the whole of Meghalaya, and parts of Assam and Tripura, but keeps all of Manipur under its ambit.

50. Which of the following are the conditions for acquiring Indian Citizenship? A. Domicile and Descent B. Domicile and Naturalisation C. Domicile, Registration and Descent D. Domicile, Descent, Naturalisation and Registration

Ans: D Indian citizenship is acquired by birth, descent, registration, and naturalization. The power to grant citizenship lies with the Home Ministry.