26th May 2019 Live Test conducted by Vajiram & Ravi Based On Complete Syllabus of UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1
Q1. With reference to the Pradhan MantriAwasYojana-Housing for All (Urban) scheme, consider the following statements: (1) Its objective is to achieve the goal of Housing for All in Urban areas by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence. (2) Credit linked subsidy component will be implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) while other three components will be implemented as Central Sector Scheme. (3) All statutory towns as per Census 2011 and towns notified subsequently would be eligible for coverage under the Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 only
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Pradhan Mantri AwasYojana-Housing for All (Urban) scheme is an initiative provided by the Government of India which aims at providing affordable housing to the urban poor. The Mission will be implemented during 2015-2022. Its objective is to achieve the goal of Housing for All in Urban areas by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence. Statement (2) is incorrect: Under it, central assistance will be provided to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and other implementing agencies through States/UTs for In-situ Rehabilitation of existing slum dwellers using land as a resource through private participation, Credit Linked Subsidy, Affordable Housing in Partnership and Subsidy for Beneficiary-led individual house construction/enhancement. Credit linked subsidy component will be implemented as a Central Sector Scheme while other three components will be implemented as Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Statement (3) is correct: All statutory towns as per Census 2011 and towns notified subsequently would be eligible for coverage under the Mission. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/pradhan-mantri-awas-yojana- urban/5c53de2c1d5def7a862618ba/
Q2. When a judge recuses himself and declines to hear a case brought before his court he does so under which of the following doctrine/principle? A. Doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution B. Doctrine of procedure established by law C. Principle of Natural Justice
D. Doctrine of due process of law
Answer: C Explanation: Natural Justice is nowhere used in Indian Constitution although the Constitution has passed the golden thread of natural justice. The base of principle of natural justice is to ensure fairness in social and economical activities of the people and also shield individual liberty against arbitrary action. Natural Justice is firmly grounded to Article 14 and 21 of Indian Constitution. Since violation of natural justice leads to arbitrariness, so violation of justice is violation of equality. The principle of natural justice encompasses the following rules: 1. No one shall be a judge of his/her own cause. 2. No man shall be punished without being heard. 3. An authority shall act bona fide without any bias.
Q3. Who among the following organized a march to Chowpatty, Mumbai to break the Salt Law in April 1930? A. Annie Besant B. AurobindoGhose C. Veer Savarkar D. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
Answer: D Explanation: During Gandhi’s salt Satyagraha in 1930, many locations in Mumbai witnessed the civil disobedience movement, but the Satyagraha at Wadala salt pan was the most prominent. Thousands of satyagrahis gathered at the Wadala salt pans and often faced brutal lathi charge. On 6th April 1930, a group of women led by Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, a noted freedom fighter, marched to Chowpatty and started making salt from sea water on makeshift stoves or chulhas. Hence, option D. is the correct answer. In Mumbai, recently a group of enthusiasts participated in a salt pan walk at Wadala organized by the Asiatic Society of Mumbai to commemorate the Wadala Satyagraha. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/salt-pan/5ca1dd901d5def 05ffdf78a0/
Q4. Madrid Protocol on Environment Protection in 1991 is related to which of the following? A. To Phase-out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) B. Prohibits mining in Antarctica indefinitely C. Global clean sea campaign D. Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals
Answer: B Explanation: The Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty (also known as the Madrid Protocol) provides for comprehensive protection of Antarctica.
The Protocol designates Antarctica as a ‘natural reserve, devoted to peace and science’, establishes environmental principles that must be a fundamental consideration in the planning and conduct of all activities, prohibits mining indefinitely, requires that all proposed activities must be subject to a prior assessment of their environmental impacts, establishes the Committee for Environmental Protection, to develop advice and formulate recommendations to the Antarctic Treaty Parties on implementation of the Protocol, requires the development of contingency plans to respond to environmental emergencies. Hence, option B. is the correct answer. The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve countries whose scientists had been active in and around Antarctica during the International Geophysical Year (IGY) of 1957-58. It entered into force in 1961 and has since been acceded to by many other nations. The total number of Parties to the Treaty is now 53. India is expanding its infrastructure development in Antarctica. The government is rebuilding its station, Maitri, to make it bigger and last for at least 30 years. DakshinGangotri, the first Indian base established in 1984, has weakened and become just a supply base. Recently a MoU on Antarctic Co-operation was inked between the Ministry of Foreign Affairs (Argentina) and the Ministry of Earth Sciences (India). Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/india-argentina- relations/5c6bc3801d5def6c246f7eb3/
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Labour Organization (ILO): (1) It is the only tripartite United Nation (U.N) agency that brings together governments, employers and workers’ representatives of 187 member States. (2) It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: The International Labour Organization (ILO) is the United Nations agency for the world of work. It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP). It sets international labour standards, promotes rights at work and encourages decent employment opportunities, the enhancement of social protection and the strengthening of dialogue on work-related issues. It is the only tripartite U.N. agency that brings together governments, employers and workers’ representatives of 187 member States.
Statement (2) is correct: It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I, to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished only if it is based on social justice. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/international-labour-organization- ilo/5c5e8d101d5def7a89827398/
Q6. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the agricultural subsidies under the ‘Agreement on Agriculture (AoA)’ of WTO? (1) All Non-Trade Distorting agricultural subsidies are put under the Green Box. (2) All countries need to reduce the Amber Box subsidies. (3) Minimum Support Price (MSP) given by the Indian Government to the farmers is one of the Green Box subsidies. (4) Blue Box Subsidies given under certain upper limits are exempted from any reduction commitments. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B Explanation: Only those countries giving subsidies beyond the De-minimis level are supposed to decrease the Amber-Box subsidies. MSP is an Amber Box subsidy. The subsidies regime included in the AoA has three forms of subsidies ranging from those that were considered non-distorting or minimally distorting (the Green Box and Blue Box subsidies) to those that seriously distorted markets (the Amber Box subsidies). The only thing that differentiates the subsidies is that, while there is no limit on the spending on the former set of subsidies spending on the latter form of subsidies has to be limited to 10% of the value of agricultural production for the developing countries, and 5% for the developed countries.Only those countries giving subsidies beyond the De-minimis level are supposed to decrease the Amber-Box subsidies. MSP is an Amber Box subsidy. Value Addition: Deminimis: Minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing.
Q7. With reference to the ‘Echidnas’, consider the following statements: (1) They are found only in Australia and New Guinea. (2) Echidnas and the platypus are the only egg-laying mammals, known as monotremes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Echidnas are found only in Australia and New Guinea. Echidnas do not tolerate extreme temperatures. They are found in forests and woodlands, hiding under vegetation or piles of debris. Statement (2) is correct: Echidnas and the platypus are the only egg-laying mammals, known as monotremes. They are covered with coarse hair and spines. The echidnas are named after Echidna, a creature from Greek mythology who was half- woman, half-snake, as the animal was perceived to have qualities of both mammals and reptiles. Scientists at the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research - Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CSIR-CCMB) have recently isolated an anti-microbial protein found in the milk of Echidnas, an egg- laying mammal. The protein promises to serve as an alternative to antibiotics used on livestock. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/echidna/5cc191d71d5def68 f9274aed/
Q8. Which of the following statements related to the Speaker Pro-tem of the Lok Sabha is correct? A. He is a member of the newly constituted Lok Sabha and is elected by the House as Speaker Pro-tem. B. He is appointed by the President on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. C. The senior-most member in terms of age of the newly elected Lok Sabha is appointed by the President as the Speaker Pro-tem. D. He is appointed by the President on the basis of a convention.
Answer: D Explanation: Pro-tem is a Latin phrase which translates to ‘for the time being’ in English and so the Pro-tem Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a limited period of time to conduct the works in Lok Sabha or in state legislatures. Pro-tem speaker is chosen for
the conduct of the house when the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place. A Pro-tem speaker is chosen with the agreement of the members of the Lok Sabha and legislative assembly. Usually, the senior-most member of the house is selected for the post who then carries on the activities till the permanent speaker is chosen.Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Q9. Based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee-II, Government of India now hold(s) 100% stake in which of the financial institution(s)? (1) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) (2) National Housing Bank (NHB) (3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) (4) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B Explanation: Based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee-II, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) divested its entire stake in NABARD and NHB for ₹20 crore and ₹1,450 crore recently. Now Government of India holds 100% stake in both the financial institutions. Hence option B. is the correct answer. National Housing Bank (NHB) is an apex financial institution for housing. It was established in 1988 under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987. Its key objectives are: Registering, regulating and supervising Housing Finance Company (HFCs) at regional and local level; providing financial and other support to such institutions and coordinating with other Regulators. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in 1982 on the recommendations of B. Sivaraman Committee to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. Its objective is to promote agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non- financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development for securing prosperity. It provides refinancing facilities to Commercial banks, State co-operative banks, Central Co-operative banks, Regional rural banks and Land Development banks. It provides refinance assistance for agriculture, promoting rural development activities. It also provides all necessary finance and assistance to small scale industries. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is a development financial institution in India, headquartered at Lucknow and having its offices all over the country. Its purpose is to provide refinance facilities and short term lending to industries, and serves as the principal financial institution in the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. It was established on April 2, 1990, through an Act of Parliament. It operates
under the Department of Financial Services; Government of India. State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest individual shareholder of SIDBI with holding of 16.73% shares, followed by Government of India and Life Insurance Corporation of India. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is a specialized financial institution, wholly owned by Government of India, set up in 1982, for financing, facilitating and promoting foreign trade of India. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/nabard-and-nhb/5cc15fd11d5def 68f49cc301/
Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to “Stressed Assets”: (1) Non-Performing Assets are assets on which Interest/ Principle overdue for a period of 180 days. (2) Sub-standard assets are assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months. (3) An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled that the RBI’s February 12, 2018 circular by which it promulgated a revised framework for resolution of stressed assets was ultra vires of Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. To apply a 180-day limit to all sectors of the economy without going into the special problems faced by each sector would treat unequals equally and would be violative of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. RBI classified stressed assets on the basis of time period such as: Statement (1) is incorrect: Non-Performing Asset: The assets on which Interest/ Principle overdue for period of 90 days (not applicable for agricultural loans). An agricultural loan granted for short duration crops will be treated as NPA if the instalment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for two crop seasons. For longer duration crops, it is one crop season. Statement (2) is correct: Sub-standard assets: Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months. Statement (3) is correct: Doubtful assets: An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months. Loss assets: As per RBI, Loss asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value. Hence, option B. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/february-12-circular-on-stressed- assets/5ca48e2e1d5def51862cf314/
Q11. Which of the following component(s) is/are included in the Gross Fiscal Deficit? (1) Revenue Expenditure (2) Capital Expenditure (3) Recoveries of Loans by the Government (4) Loans taken by the Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D Explanation: Gross Fiscal Deficit represents the Loan requirements of the government adjusting for recoveries of loans made by it. The gross fiscal deficit (GFD) is the excess of total expenditure including loans net of recovery over revenue receipts (including external grants) and non-debt capital receipts. The net fiscal deficit is the gross fiscal deficit less net lending of the Central government. Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Q12. With reference to the Dark matter, consider the following statements: (1) It is a hypothetical invisible mass thought to be responsible for adding gravity to galaxies and other bodies. (2) It does not interact with the electromagnetic force. (3) Its gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Dark matter is a hypothetical invisible mass thought to be responsible for adding gravity to galaxies and other bodies. Statement (2) is correct: According to NASA, Dark matter seems to outweigh visible matter roughly six to one, making up about 27% of the universe. Roughly 68% of the universe is dark energy. Dark matter makes up about 27%. The rest visible matter is 5% of the universe. It is called so because unlike normal matter (i.e. stars and galaxies), dark matter does not interact with the electromagnetic force. Statement (3) is correct: Its gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/dark-matter/5ca5e9431d5def 51890ec584/
Q13. Consider the following statements: (1) The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the National Flag and National Anthem before India became independent. (2) The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the National Song after India became independent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect:The National Anthem of India Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950. It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947. Statement (2) is correct:On January 24, 1950, the President, Dr.Rajendra Prasad came up with a statement in the Constituent Assembly, “the song VandeMataram, which has played a historic part in the struggle for Indian freedom, shall be honoured equally with Jana Gana Mana and shall have equal status with it”. The first political occasion when it was sung was the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress. The song was a part of Bankimchandra’s most famous novel Anand Math (1882).
Q14. Which of the following are the important aspects of Fiscal Policy? (1) Increase in government borrowings through higher Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). (2) Increase in Service Tax revenues by bringing more services under the Service tax net. (3) Sale of government securities through the Market Stabilisation Scheme. (4) Decrease in government expenditure by regulating the salaries of the government employees. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: B Explanation:
Fiscal Policy is associated with Revenue and Expenditure of the government. SLR and MSS instruments are used by the RBI to affect total government borrowings or to adjust liquidity situation. Monetary policy and fiscal policy refers to the two most widely recognized tools used to influence a nation’s economic activity. Monetary policy is primarily concerned with the management of interest rates and the total supply of money in circulation and is generally carried out by the central banks. Fiscal policy is a collective term for the taxing and spending actions of governments. In India, monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India is aimed at managing the quantity of money in order to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy and to increase the pace of economic growth.Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) are used by the RBI to affect total government borrowings or to adjust liquidity situation. Hence, option B. is the correct answer.
Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to the Rakhigarhi: (1) It is located between the Bhogavo and Sabarmati rivers near the Gulf of Khambat, Gujarat. (2) It is the largest ‘Indus Valley Civilization site’, known yet. (3) The Global Heritage Fund declared Rakhigarhi as one of the 10 most endangered heritage sites in Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect: Rakhigarhi is a village in Hisar District of Haryana. The site is located in the Ghaggar-Hakra river plain, some 27 km from the seasonal Ghaggar River. Lothal is located between the Bhogavo and Sabarmati rivers near the Gulf of Khambat. Statement (2) is correct: In January 2014, the discovery of additional settlements resulted it in becoming the largest ‘Indus Valley Civilization site’, known yet with an area up to 550 hectares, more than twice the size of Mohenjodaro. Statement (3) is correct: In May 2012, the Global Heritage Fund, declared Rakhigarhi one of the 10 most endangered heritage sites in Asia.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/rakhigarhi/5c4d5a9420993 7434681a3d8/
Q16. Which of the following concepts is NOT a part of the Jaina doctrine? A. Kaivalya B. Sunyavada C. Triratna D. Aparigraha
Answer: B Explanation: Sunyavada (the concept of ‘void’/‘emptiness’) is a feature of Mahayana Buddhism, and is ascribed to the Buddhist philosopher Nagarjuna, the author of the text ‘Madhyamika- Karika’.
Q17. Consider the following statements about the Black hole: (1) It is a region of space from which nothing, not even light, can escape. (2) Event horizon is a space which exists beyond the black hole. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: A black hole is a region of space from which nothing, not even light, can escape. Despite the name, they are not empty but instead consist of a huge amount of matter packed densely into a small area, giving it an immense gravitational pull.
Statement (2) is correct: There is a region of space beyond the black hole called the event horizon. This is a ‘point of no return’ beyond which it is impossible to escape the gravitational effects of the black hole. Recently the first image of the black hole inside galaxy Messier 87 was published. The black hole was given the name Pōwehi, meaning “embellished dark source of unending creation” in Hawaiian. The image shows an intensely bright ‘ring of fire’ surrounding a perfectly circular dark hole. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/p%C5%8Dwehi/5caef5ea1d5def 4bd54b01a9/
Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to the recent achievements of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO): (1) It is for the first time, ISRO placed a satellite “Kalamsat” in a lower orbit, which is an imaging satellite meant for military purposes. (2) Microsat-R is the lightest satellite for studying the communication system of nano satellites. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the PSLV C 44 carrying kalamsat and Microsat R from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. The PSLV-C44 was the first mission of a new variant of the PSLV, called the PSLV-DL, as it was equipped with two strap-on configurations. Statement (1) is incorrect: Microsat-R, an imaging satellite weighing 740-kg, is meant for military purposes. For the first time, the ISRO placed a satellite—Microsat-R—in a lower orbit, at around 274kms from earth. Statement (2) is incorrect: Kalamsat is an experimental satellite for studying the communication system of nano satellites. It was the lightest ever satellite to be launched by India. It is the first to use PS4 (the fourth stage of the vehicle) as a platform to orbit around the earth. With this launch, India became the first country to use the fourth stage of a space rocket as an orbital platform for micro-gravity experiments.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/pslv-c-44/5c4aa7ef2099374347cf6be8/
Q19. Consider the following statements with reference to the Trade Unions Act, 1926: (1) The Act was extended to the whole of India. (2) It provided for the registration and recognition of trade unions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: In India, the first organised trade union was formed in 1918 and since then they have spread in almost all the industrial centres of the country. The legislation regulating these trade unions is the Indian Trade Unions Act, 1926. The Act deals with the registration of trade unions, their rights, their liabilities and responsibilities as well as ensures that their funds are utilised properly. It gives legal and corporate status to the registered trade unions. It also seeks to protect them from civil or criminal prosecution so that they could carry on their legitimate activities for the benefit of the working class. The Act is applicable not only to the union of workers but also to the association of employers. It extends to the whole of India. Statement (2) is incorrect: The present Act provides for only registration of trade unions and there is no provision for recognition. To address this recently the Union Cabinet
approved an amendment to the Trade Unions Act, 1926 (Trade Unions (Amendment) Bill 2019) to make provisions over recognition of trade unions. The recognition of trade union so far is governed by guidelines in the ‘Code of Discipline’ evolved in 1958, voluntarily accepted by employers and employees. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/trade-unions-act-1926/ 5c352bd32099376f1ece9b94/
Q20. In which of the following case(s), the deadlock over the passage of a Bill between both the Houses of the Parliament cannot be resolved through their joint sitting? (1) Money Bill (2) Constitutional Amendment Bill (3) Finance Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C Explanation: A requirement to summon a joint session can never arise in the case of Money Bill. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution requires that Constitution of India can be amended by both Houses of Parliament by 2/3rd majority. In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon the joint session of Parliament. Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House: 1. if the bill is rejected by the other House; 2. if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made inthe bill; or 3. if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it. In the above three situations, the president can summon both the Houses tomeet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. Itmust be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinarybills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutionalamendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overridingpowers, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each Houseseparately.
Q21. Who among the following is the author of ‘Khooni Vaisakhi’, a 100-year-old classic Punjabi poem about JallianwalaBagh massacre? A. Nanak Singh B. Mahatma Gandhi C. KuldipNayar
D. Amrita Pritam
Answer: A Explanation: A book containing English translation of ‘Khooni Vaisakhi’ has been released in UAE. ‘Khooni Vaisakhi’ is a 100-year-old classic Punjabi poem about JallianwalaBagh massacre. Revolutionary poet and novelist Nanak Singh, a JallianwalaBagh survivor, wrote it after witnessing first-hand the events of April 13, 1919. Hence option A. is the correct answer. Recently on the occasion of 100 years of that event the poem was translated by India’s Ambassador to the UAE Navdeep Singh Suri, grandson of Nanak Singh. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/khooni-vaisakhi/5cbab32d1d5de f05e9b7d f5a/
Q22. With reference to forest conservation in India, consider the following statements: (1) In India, first nationwide forest conservation policy was adopted in 1952. (2) The forest policy of India aimed at bringing 33 percent of the total geographical area under forest cover. (3) Farm forestry is also included in forest conservation. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D Explanation: The Government of India adopted a forest policy in 1952, which was further modified in 1988. The forest policy aimed at bringing 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Based on the forest conservation policy the farm forestry was initiated.
Q23. Which of the following sites are listed as the Geo-Heritage sites/ National Geological Monuments by the Geological Survey of India (GSI)? (1) Charnockite, St. Thomas Mount, Chennai (2) Peninsular Gneiss, Lalbagh, Bangalore (3) Lonar Lake, Buldhana District (4) The ancient mining and smelting site at Zawar, Udaipur district (5) PandavulaGutta, Warangal District Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: A
Explanation: Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. There are around 32 such sites in India. To name a few, many major archaeological sites such as Hampi have not been included. Similarly, rock art sites in Telangana such as Pandavulagutta [Warangal district] and in Rajasthan,the ancient mining and smelting site (>2000 year old) at Zawar is also not included. However, ancient mining and smelting site at Zawar has been recognized by the British Museum London (1983) and American Society of Metals (ASM International, 1988) as a site of international significance. State-wise details of the geological heritage sites/ national geological monuments Andhra Pradesh 1. Natural Arch, Tirumala Hills, Chittoor District, 2. Eparchaean Unconformity, Tirumala-Tirupati road, Chittoor District, 3. Volcanogenic Bedded Barytes, Mangampeta, Cuddapah District, 4.ErraMattiDibbalu- the dissected and stabilized coastal red sediment mounds located between Vishakhapatnam and Bhimunipatnam. Chhattisgarh 5. Marine Gondwana Fossil Park, Manendragarh, Sarguja District Gujarat 6. Eddy Current Markings, Panchmahal District Himachal Pradesh 7. Siwalik Fossil Park, Saketi, Sirmur District Karnataka 8. Peninsular Gneiss, Lalbagh, Bangalore, 9. Columnar Basaltic Lava, Coconut Island (St. Mary’s island), Udupi District, 10.Pillow Lavas, Maradihalli, Chitradurga District, 11. Pyroclastic Rocks, Peddapalli, Kolar District Kerala 12. Laterite, Angadipuram, Malappuram District, 13. Varkala Cliff Section, Thiruvananthapuram District Maharashtra 14. Lonar Lake, Buldhana District Orissa 15. Pillow Lava, Iron Ore Belt, Nomira, Keonjhar District Rajasthan 16. Nepheline Syenite, Kishangarh, Ajmer District, 17. Sendra Granite, Pali District,18. Bar Conglomerate, Pali District, 19. Jodhpur Group- Malani Igneous Suite Contact, Jodhpur District, 20.Welded Tuff, Jodhpur District, 21.Akal Fossil Wood Park, Jaisalmer District, 22.Great Boundary Fault at Satur, Bundi District, 23.Stromatolite Park, Bhojunda, Chittaurgarh District, 24.Gossan, Rajpura- Dariba, Rajsamand District, 25. Stromatolite Park, Jhamarkotra, Udaipur District Tamil Nadu 26. Charnockite, St. Thomas Mount, Chennai, 27. National Fossil Wood Park, Thiruvakkarai, Villupuram District, 28.National Fossil Wood Park, Sathanur, Perambalur District, 29. Badlands of Karai Formation with Cretaceous fossils along Karai – Kulakkalnattam Section, Perambalur District.
JHARKHAND 30. Plant Fossil bearing Inter-trappean beds of Rajmahal Formation, upper Gondwana sequence around Mandro, Sahibganj dist. NAGALAND 31. Nagahill Ophiolite Site near Pungro SIKKIM 32. Stromatolite bearing Dolomite / Limestone of Buxa Formation at Mamley, near Namchi, South district. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/global- geoparknetwork/5c19b4b22099377306691418/
Q24. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘9 - Degree Channel’?
A. Kalpeni and Minicoy Island B. Minicoy Island and Maldives C. Sumatra and Java D. Andaman and Nicobar Answer: A Explanation: Lakshadweep is an archipelago of 36 islands in the Laccadive Sea, scattered over approximately 78,000 square km of the Arabian Sea, 200-440 kms off the south- western coast of India. The islands are the northernmost of the Lakshadweep-Maldives- Chagos group of islands, which are the tops of a vast undersea mountain range, the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge. The main islands are Kavaratti, Agatti, Minicoy, and Amini. The Nine Degree Channel: It is a channel in the Indian Ocean between the Laccadive Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and Maliku Atoll. It is so named as it lies on the 9-degree line of Latitude, north of the equator. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/barn- owls/5cd5461f1d5def7c9e45c8bd/ http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/lakshadweep- islands/5cd15cd71d5def2635a10a7f/
Q25. Golden Langur, one of the “World’s 25 Most Endangered Primates” is endemic to which of the following states in India? A. Assam B. Kerala C. Himachal Pradesh D. Nagaland
Answer: A Explanation: Recently Assam government announced the success of the Golden Langur Conservation Breeding Programme in the State. The golden langur conservation project was undertaken at the Assam State Zoo in Guwahati during the 2011-12 fiscal. The golden langur (Trachypithecusgeei), discovered in 1953, is distributed over 2,500sqkm bound by the Manas river in the east, the Sankosh in the west and the Brahmaputra in the south. In Bhutan, it is distributed over 4,782 sqkm. Golden langurs primarily inhabit wet evergreen and tropical semi- evergreen forests. It is endemic to the north-western Assam and small populations are found in Bhutan and Tripura. It has been listed as endangered species in the IUCN Red
List and Schedule-I species in Indian Wildlife Protection Act (1972). It has been listed in the “World’s 25 Most Endangered Primates”. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/golden-langur-breeding- project/5c5134e31d5def7a89816255/
Q26. Which of the following dance forms uses Martial arts movements? (1) Chhau (2) Taakala (3) Padayani Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: C Explanation: Point (1) is correct: Chhau is a form of mask dance that uses vigorous martial movements to narrate mythological stories. There are three main styles of Chhau dance- Saraikellachhau in Jharkhand,MayurbhanjChhau in Odisha and PuruliaChhau in West Bengal. In 2010, UNESCO included Chhau in the Representatives List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Point (2) is incorrect: Taakala Folk Dance is related to the exchange of the ‘takla’ vegetable among local tribal groups in Maharashtra. Point (3) is correct: Pandayaniis a martial dance performed in the temples of southern Kerala. It is mainly performed at Bhadrakali temples located on the banks of river Pampa. A ceremonial dance involving masks, it is an ancient ritual performed in Bhagavati temples. The dance is performed in honor of Bhadrakaali. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/amar-pal/5cbc09a61d5def 54ad347ce1/
Q27. When a Money Bill is passed by the Parliament and presented to the President for his assent, which one or more of the following options are available to him? (1) He declares that he gives assent to the Bill. (2) He declares that he withholds assent to the Bill. (3) He sends it for the reconsideration of the Parliament. (4) He allows it to lie on his table for an indefinite period. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 or 2 only B. 1 or 3 only C. 1 or 4 only D. 1 only
Answer: A Explanation:
Money bill cannot be returned by the President to the Parliament for its reconsideration, as it is presented in the Lok Sabha with his permission. The President may either give or withhold assent to a Money Bill. Under the Constitution, a Money Bill cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration. There is no question of joint sitting in case of money bills because opinion of the Rajya Sabha is immaterial in their case.
Q28. With reference to the Pench Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements: (1) It is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. (2) It is among the sites notified as IMPORTANT BIRD AREAS of India. (3) It has the highest density of herbivore population in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is correct:Pench Tiger Reserve is one of the major Protected Areas of Satpura-Maikal ranges of the Central Highlands, which is among the most important tiger habitats of the world. It is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh and named after the Pench River that flows through the National Park. Statement (2) is correct: Pench Tiger is among the sites notified as IMPORTANT BIRD AREAS of India. Statement (3) is correct: Pench National Park has the highest density of herbivore population like spotted deer, sambar deer, nilgai, four horned antelope and mouse deer. To the south of the tiger reserve lies the Pench Tiger Reserve of Maharashtra, the first inter-state project tiger area of the country. Pench Tiger Reserve comprises the Indira PriyadarshiniPench National Park, the Pench Mowgli Sanctuary and a buffer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/pench-tiger-reserve/5c5003431d5de f6d7fab5e89/
Q29. Which of the following wetlands are protected under the Conservation of Wetlands of international importance? (1) Chilika Lake (2) Bhojtal (3) Tso Moriri Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D Explanation: All the given wetlands are protected under the Conservation of Wetlands of international importance. The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
Q30. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Gini Co- efficient? (1) It is a measure of Relative Poverty. (2) It is a quantitative measure that can be derived from the graphical measure of Lorenz Curve. (3) Higher value of Gini Coefficient implies greater income equality in the society. (4) Two societies can have the same value of Gini Coefficient.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Explanation: In economics, the Gini coefficient, sometimes called Gini index, or Gini ratio, is a measure of statistical dispersion intended to represent the income or wealth distribution of a nation’s residents, and is the most commonly used measurement of inequality. Higher Gini value implies more income inequality. The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality. Values over 1 are theoretically possible due to negative income or wealth.
Q31. Consider the following statements with reference to the mineral formations in caves: (1) A stalactite is an upward-growing mound of mineral deposits that have precipitated from water dripping onto the floor of a cave. (2) A stalagmite is an icicle-shaped formation that hangs from the ceiling of a cave, and is produced by precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the cave ceiling. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation: Recently Israeli researchers have discovered the world’s longest salt cave called Malham in Mount Sodom, overlooking the Dead Sea. The cave is adorned with stalactites and stalagmites formed from salt crystals. Statement (1) is incorrect: A stalactite is an icicle-shaped formation that hangs from the ceiling of a cave, and is produced by precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the cave ceiling. Most stalactites have pointed tips. Statement (2) is incorrect: A stalagmite is an upward-growing mound of mineral deposits that have precipitated from water dripping onto the floor of a cave. Most stalagmites have rounded or flattened tips. Remember: stalactites (with a ‘C’) come from the ceiling, and stalagmites (with a ‘G’) come from the ground. Value Addition There are many other types of mineral formations found in caves. For example, flowstones are deposits of minerals from water flowing over the floor or walls of a cave.
As layers of flowstone become thicker, their shape becomes rounded. Well-defined crystals growing underwater in cave pools are known as pool spar. Some deposits are named based on their appearance, such as a showerhead, which is a hollow cone-shaped formation, narrow above and broad below. Showerheads are generally only found in tropical caves. A conulite is a “splash cup” that forms when water dripping rapidly through the cave ceiling flings aside loose particles on the cave floor.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/malham/5c9de05f1d5def3440761949/
Q32. In July 1944, Mahatma Gandhi proposed talks with Jinnah on the basis of the “Rajaji Formula”. Which of the following observations about the “Rajaji Formula” is not correct? A. The formula wanted the Muslim League to endorse the Indian demand for Independence. B. The formula expected the League to cooperate with the Congress in the formation of a provisional national government for the transition period. C. The formula rejected the principle of Pakistan. D. The formula conceded that Jinnah was the sole spokesman of the League.
Answer: C Explanation: The objective of the C R Formula was to solve the political deadlock between the All India Muslim League and Indian National Congress. The League’s position was that the Muslims and Hindus of British India were of two separate nations and hence the Muslims had the right to their own nation. The Congress was opposed to the idea of partitioning India. The core principle of the CR Formula was a proposal for the Congress to offer the League the Muslim Pakistan based on plebiscite of all the peoples in the regions where Muslims made a majority.
Q33. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B Explanation: Natural Lakes are of several kinds: 1. Deltaic Lake:In deltaic region, some small or large lakes develop between several distributaries. Example- Kolleru. Hence, point (1) is not correct. 2. Tectonic Lake: It is formed by the sinking or raising of a large portion of earth’s surface. Example - Wular Lake. Hence, point (2) is correct. 3. Wind-made lake: In deserts where wind erodes the surface soil continuously at a place, a lake is formed there. Example- Didwana. Hence, point (3) is correct. 4. Lagoon: When some part of the coastal sea water gets separated from the main sea by sand, rock or coral reefs, the lake like shape formed by it is called as lagoon. Example- Chilika, Pulicat. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/chilika-lake/5c1b64dc2099370 b77a895a3/ http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/bellandur-lake/5c1a000420993773071c 4341/
Q34. In the context of ‘Antimicrobial Resistance’ consider the following statements: (1) Antimicrobial resistance is resistance of a microorganism to an antimicrobial medicine to which it was originally not sensitive. (2) The evolution of resistant strains is not a natural phenomenon but happens when microorganisms are exposed to antimicrobial drugs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation:
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) or drug resistance, which is resistance of a microorganism to an antimicrobial medicine to which it was previously sensitive. Antimicrobial resistance happens when microorganisms (such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites) change when they are exposed to antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antimalarials, and anthelmintics). Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”. As a result, the medicines become ineffective and infections persist in the body, increasing the risk of spread to others.
Q35. ‘Coral Reef Rescue Initiative’ is an initiative launched by which of the following Organisations? A. UNESCO B. UNEP C. Global Coral Reef Alliance D. World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
Answer: D Explanation: The Coral Reef Rescue Initiative is an initiative of World Wildlife Fund (WWF). It is a major partnership with other leading coral reef conservation and development organisations, is identifying the most resilient coral reefs (‘regeneration’ reefs) and dependent communities. By working with local communities and major partners to protect the most climate change-resilient reefs from the impacts of overfishing, pollution and unsustainable development, we can also increase the chances that the larvae they produce can benefit nearby reefs, enhancing their recovery. Hence, option D. is the correct answer. Coral Reef Rescue comprises the following partners so far: Blue Ventures, Care, Rare, The University of Queensland (Global Change Institute) and WCS (Wildlife Conservation Society). Coral Reef Rescue will focus on building the resilience of coral reefs and the communities dependent on them by securing reefs in 7 main countries (Fiji, Solomon Islands, Indonesia, Philippines, Madagascar, Tanzania and Kenya) which account for 70% of the regeneration capacity of coral reefs globally. Value Addition (i) The Global Coral Reef Alliance is a small, 501©(3) non-profit organization dedicated to scientific research and sustainable management of the most valuable and threatened of all ecosystems—coral reefs. (ii) The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. The Initiative was founded in 1994 by eight governments: Australia, France, Japan, Jamaica, the Philippines, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States of America. (iii) In 2014 UNEP and Regional Seas Conventions and Action Plans (‘Regional Seas’) initiated a Global Coral Reef Partnership to support countries deliver internationally agreed coral reef commitments through ecosystem-based management of coral reefs.
The overall goal of the partnership is to promote and demonstrate ecosystem-based marine management in coral reef areas, in line with UNEP Governing Council and UNEA decisions, and as a contribution towards international targets such as Sustainable Development Goal 14 and Aichi Target 10.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/sunscreen-banned-to-save-coral- reefs/5c1c 88720993712583edd9b/
Q36. Under which of the following circumstances, a Bill pending before the Parliament does notlapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha? A. A Bill introduced in and pending before the Lok Sabha B. A Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha but pending before the Lok Sabha C. A Bill referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament to resolve the deadlock over the passage of the Bill, before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha D. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha, but pending before the Rajya Sabha
Answer: C Explanation: Cases when a bill does not lapse: (1) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. (2) If the President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse. (3) A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse. (4) A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha does not lapse. (5) Some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Q37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to “Mugger Crocodile”? (1) It is a species native to saltwater habitats from southern Iran and Pakistan to the Indian subcontinent and Myanmar. (2) It has been listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
(3) Vadodara is the only city in the country where crocodiles live in their natural habitat amidst human population. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect: Mugger Crocodile is a species native to freshwater habitats from southern Iran and Pakistan to the Indian subcontinent and Sri Lanka. Statement (2) is incorrect: It is one of three crocodilians in India, apart from saltwater crocodile (C. porosus) and gharial (Gavialisgangeticus). Already extinct in Bhutan and Myanmar, the mugger has been listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Statement (3) is correct: Vadodara, 90 km from the Narmada dam, is the only city in the country where crocodiles live in their natural habitat amidst human population. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/mugger-crocodile/5c4aaa0a20993743 46817eaf/
Q38. Which one of the following statements best describes the “Section 7 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act”, recently in news? A. It empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. B. It empowers the central government to appoint the members of the central Board of RBI. C. It is mandatory that every Non-Banking Financial Institutions (NBFC) should be registered with RBI to commence or carry on any business. D. None of the above
Answer: A Explanation: Section 7 of the RBI Act empowers the central government to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. Section 7 has two parts — consultation and then issuing a direction to the RBI for taking some action in public interest. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. This section has, however, never been invoked by the government so far. Recently Union government has issued three letters to the central bank in the month of November for consultation under Section 7 of the RBI Act on the issue of Non- Performing assets (NPA). Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/section-7-of-the-rbi-act/ 5c1c45a9209937125 ac4ca36/
Q39. Which of the following situation(s) exist(s) during a recession? (1) Growth of Effective Demand is declining
(2) Level of Effective Demand is declining (3) Investment Rate in the economy is declining (4) Inflation Rate in the economy is declining Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Explanation: Recession is the situation of consistent period (minimum-6 months) of negative GDP growth rate i.e. level of effective demand declining. But this also implies fall in growth of effective demand as well as decline in Investment (due to decline in firms’ profitability). Inflation rate can continue to remain at higher levels due to supply side factors.
Q40. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indus river dolphin: (1) Recently, Punjab Government has declared the Indus river dolphin as Punjab’s state aquatic animal. (2) They are one of the only four river dolphin species and subspecies in the world that spend all of their lives in freshwater. (3) They are listed as Vulnerable on IUCN Red list of threatened species. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 3 only
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Punjab Government has declared the Indus river dolphin as Punjab’s state aquatic animal. Statement (2) is correct: They are one of the only four river dolphin species and subspecies in the world that spend all of their lives in freshwater. The Indus river dolphin is the second most endangered freshwater river dolphin. At present, there are only around 1,800 of these in the Indus in Pakistan. Their population in the Beas River is between 8 to 10. They are functionally blind and rely on echolocation to navigate, communicate and hunt prey including prawns, catfish and carp. Statement (3) is incorrect: They are listed as Endangered on IUCN Red list of threatened species. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/indus-river-dolphin/5c555e1e1d 5def7a85171 fe5/
Q41. Which of the following events led Gandhiji to establish the All India Anti- untouchability League and HarijanSevakSangh in 1932? A. Failure of the second Round Table Conference due to obstructionist tendencies by the minorities. B. Low participation of Harijans in Civil Disobedience Movement C. Communal Award by the British PM Ramsay McDonald. D. None of the above
Answer: C Explanation: The Communal Award provided for separate electorates to depressed classes. Muslims, Sikhs and Christians were already recognized as minorities and were provided with separate electorates. Gandhi saw this move as another expression of British policy of divide and rule. He went on an indefinite fast and in September 1932, he finally negotiated with Ambedkar for providing reservations to depressed classes in return for abandonment of separate electorates. This came to be known as Poona Pact. Gandhi gave up all the other pre-occupations and immediately launched a campaign against untouchability (from jail). He founded All India Anti-Untouchability League in September 1932.Hence, option © is the correct answer.
Q42. What is ‘Mrinal’ which was recently seen in the news? A. It was Indian space programme’s first composite solid propellant for launch vehicles. B. It is a multi-layered ballistic missile defence system to protect the country against rouge attacks. C. It was India’s first indigenous Long Range Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile. D. It is the largest Buddhist monastery in eastern India.
Answer: A Explanation: Scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) celebrated the 50th anniversary of the successful flight-test of ‘Mrinal. Mrinal was the Indian space programme’s first composite solid propellant for launch vehicles. The propellant was launched from Thumba aboard an RH-75 sounding rocket on February 21, 1969 by members of the Propellant Engineering Division (PED) of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC). It was named after Mrinalini Sarabhai (an Indian classical dancer and wife of the Indian physicist Vikram Sarabhai). Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/mrinal/5c77c6be1d5def14e 56564d5/
Q43. With reference to Monsoon trough, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) It is a zone where air tends to ascend. (2) It encourages the development of thermal low over North and Northwest India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: ITCZ, is often called as the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and northwest India. Monsoon trough is an imaginary line connecting the points of low-pressure across the breadth of the country during the monsoon and monsoon rainfall normally hinges along it.
Q44. With reference to the High courts, consider the following statements: (1) Andhra Pradesh High Court in Amaravati is to be the 25th High Court (HC) in the country. (2) The institution of high court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Andhra Pradesh High Court is to be the 25th High Court (HC) in the country. The principal seat of the Andhra Pradesh High Court is Amaravati, the capital of the State. According to The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, both States were to have a common high court, till separate ones were formed. Statement (2) is correct: The institution of high court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. In 1866, a fourth high court was established at Allahabad. Value Addition The Constitution of India (Article 214) provides for a high court for each state, but the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory. The territorial jurisdiction of a high court is co-terminus with the territory of a state. Similarly, the territorial jurisdiction of a common high court is co-terminus with the territories of the concerned states and union territory. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966). Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/justice-city/5c57f58e1d5def 7a85174b8e/
Q45. Consider the following statements:
(1) International Monetary Fund (IMF) is responsible for ensuring macroeconomic stability in the member countries. (2) World Bank is responsible for assisting commercial banks in the member countries in the provisioning of credit to the weaker sections of the society. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A Explanation: World Bank is responsible for providing credit for infrastructure development. Earlier it was done for developed countries but from 1960 onwards it has done this mainly for the poorer countries. Q46. Consider the following statements: (1) The active ingredient in alcoholic beverages is Methyl alcohol. (2) The active ingredient in Hooch or Illicit liquor is Ethyl alcohol or ethanol. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect: Alcoholic beverages are made by fermentation of sugary and starchy substances, followed by distillation to increase alcohol concentration. The active ingredient in them is ethyl alcohol or ethanol. Statement (2) is incorrect: Any alcoholic beverage made under unlicensed conditions is called illicit liquor. Usually sub-standard raw material is used; often this is spiked with other chemicals. Sometimes, industrial methyl alcohol or denatured spirit (mixture of ethanol and methanol) is added by illicit brewers to save costs and in mistaken belief that it’ll increase potency. Methyl alcohol is extremely toxic — 10 ml can cause blindness and 30 ml can cause death within 10 to 30 hours. It is like ethyl alcohol in taste and smell. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/hooch/5c5fddbb1d5def79206a 3736/
Q47. The Nehru Report fell short of meeting the expectations of various sections of national freedom movement. What was the reason that younger section comprising Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhash Bose was dissatisfied with it? A. It failed to raise the demand for Poorna Swaraj or complete independence and instead adopted the demand for dominion status.
B. It adopted the demand for joint electorates with the reservation of seats for Muslims at the centre and in provinces where they were in minority. C. It failed to incorporate the demand for unitary structure instead of federal. D. None of the above
Answer: A Explanation: The younger section of the Congress (Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhash Bose, Satyamurtyetc) considered the idea of Dominion status as a step backward. They demanded that the Congress should adopt Poorna Swaraj as its goal. However, Motilal Nehru wished that dominion status demand not be dropped in haste, as consensus over it had been developed over the years. They suggested that a two year grace period be given to the government to accept the demand for a dominion status. Later, under pressure, this period was reduced to one year.
Q48. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding National Commission for Minorities (NCM)? A. The Minorities Commission became a statutory body with the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. B. Its functions are to evaluate the progress of the developmental programs and legal & constitutional safeguards for the welfare of minorities. C. It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and ten Members to be appointed by the President of India from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity. D. Under section 2 © of the National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992, the Centre has notified only six communities – Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Parsis as “minority”.
Answer: C Explanation: Statement A. is correct: The Minorities Commission became a statutory body with the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 and was renamed as the ‘National Commission for Minorities’. Statement B. is correct: Its functions are to evaluate the progress of the developmental programs and legal & constitutional safeguards for the welfare of minorities and to look into specific complaints regarding deprivation of the rights of minorities and to undertake studies/research on the issues relating to socio economic development of minorities. Statement © is incorrect: It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five Members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity. Statement D. is correct: Under section 2 © of the National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992, the Centre has notified only six communities – Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Parsis as “minority”. Hence, option © is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/national-commission-for-minorities- ncm/5c627aa01d5def791f2df2e5/
Q49. Which of the following statements regarding the “Vote-on-Account” is correct? A. Since it is a money matter it is introduced and passed in the Parliament like a Money Bill B. It is passed in the Parliament only in an election year C. It is considered to have been passed when it is approved by the Lok Sabha in the form of a resolution by simple majority D. The President shall give his assent when it is presented to him
Answer: C Explanation: As a convention, a vote-on-account is treated as a formal matter and passed by Lok Sabha without discussion. But passing for budget happens only after discussions and voting on demand for grants. The constitution says that no money can be withdrawn by the government from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. For that an appropriation bill is passed during the Budget process. However, the appropriation bill may take time to pass through the Parliament and become a law. Meanwhile, the government would need permission to spend even a single penny from April 1 when the new financial year starts. Vote on account is the permission to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India in that period, usually two months. Vote on account is a formality and requires no debate. Hence, option © is the correct answer.
Q50. With reference to “Pangolin”, consider the following statements: (1) It is the only animal in recorded history to become extinct from India due to unnatural causes. (2) According to the latest report released by TRAFFIC in March 2018, Pangolin is the most trafficked mammal in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B Explanation: The third Saturday of February is observed as the World Pangolin Day. Statement (1) is incorrect: The Chinese Pangolin was officially categorised as critically endangered in 2014, but it is believed to be extinct today. The Indian Pangolin, marked endangered that year, is now critically endangered and disappearing fast. Statement (2) is correct: According to the latest report released by TRAFFIC in March 2018, Pangolin is the most trafficked mammal in the world.
Pangolins or scaly anteaters are mammals of the order Pholidota. They have large, protective keratin scales covering their skin, and they are the only known mammals with this feature. Their diet consists of mainly ants and termites which they capture using their long tongues (A pangolin’s tongue is longer than its body). It can consume 70 million ants a year. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/pangolins/5c69199c1d5def3d 3e0e7b3d/
Q51. With reference to “Kisan Urja Suraksha evamUtthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM)” scheme, consider the following statements: (1) Under the scheme, the government has planned to develop decentralized solar energy and other renewable energy generation plants of capacity up to 2 Megawatt (MW). (2) It provides for installation of standalone off-grid solar water pumps to fulfil irrigation needs of farmers not connected to grid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: KUSUM stands for KisanUrja Suraksha evamUtthaanMahabhiyan. It aims to promote use of solar energy among farmers. Statement (1) is correct: Under the scheme, the government has planned to develop decentralized solar energy and other renewable energy generation plants of capacity up to 2 Megawatt (MW). This would enable savings in transmission system requirement and also bring down T&D losses. The government will continue to implement large scale solar power projects in order to achieve its target of 100 Gigawatt (GW) from solar energy by 2022. Statement (2) is correct: The proposed scheme provides for installation of standalone off-grid solar water pumps to fulfil irrigation needs of farmers not connected to grid; and solarization of existing grid-connected agriculture pumps to make farmers independent of grid supply and also sell surplus solar power generated to Discom and get extra income. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/kusum-scheme/5c63cf331d5def791 f2e133f/
Q52. Consider the following statements: (1) Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for food grains is estimated by the Food Corporation of India (FCI). (2) MSP for food grains is always greater than the market price of the grains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only
B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation: MSP is calculated by the Commission on Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP may be higher or lower than market prices depending upon the market situation at a particular time.Statement (1) is incorrect: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Statement (2) is incorrect: MSP may be higher or lower than market prices depending upon the market situation at a particular time. Q53. Which one of the following tribes worshiped the ‘Niyamraja’ deity during a three- day festival of ‘NiyamrajaParab’? A. Bhils B. DongriaKondh C. Angami D. Khasi
Answer: B Explanation: Niyamraja, the deity of Jharania and DonriaKondh tribal communities, is worshipped grandly every year during the three-day festival NiyamrajaParab. DongriaKondh people are members of the Kondhs, of the Munda ethnic group. They are located in the Niyamgiri hills.Niyamgiri is a hill range spread over 250 sq.km which falls under the Rayagada and Kalahandi District in Odisha. The people of Niyamgiri use Kui language. Kui language is not written, but it is spoken among the people of Kondh community. Hence, option B. is the correct answer. Source:http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/dongria-kondh/5c721a6e1d5def712b ba40b7/
Q54. Which of the following statements correctly describe the reason for the rise of cotton production in India during the British Rule? A. The Princely States wanted to trade in cotton as Indian cotton was in huge demand and therefore they encouraged its cultivation which was later emulated by British India. B. The Indians were introduced to cotton cultivation by the Chinese who encouraged its production to trade with India. C. The Indian Capitalists wanted to set up cotton mills to compete with Manchester and Lancashire cotton industry.
D. The cotton supply from America dried up due to the outbreak of American civil war in 1861. Answer: D Explanation: Before the 1860s, 75% of raw cotton imports to Britain came from America. British cotton manufacturers had long been worried about this dependence on American supplies. Thus in 1857 and in 1859, the cotton supply association and Manchester cotton company were founded with the objective to encourage cotton production in every part of the world. India was seen as a country which could supply cotton to Lancashire if the American supply dried up. It possessed suitable soil, a climate favourable to cotton cultivation and cheap labour. Thus when the American civil war broke out in 1861, a wave of panic spread though the cotton circles in Britain. The cotton supply fell and prices soared. The merchants in Bombay wanted to take advantage of the situation to secure as much cotton as possible to meet the British demands. They turned to money lenders who in turn gave credit to farmers with a promise to purchase the cotton produced by them. Thus the ryots in Deccan found access to seemingly endless credit. Thus expanded the cotton production in India.Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Q55. With reference to “Remove DEBRIS spacecraft”, consider the following statements: (1) It is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate natural and artificial particles removal technologies. (2) It was launched aboard as part of the CRS-14 mission by European Space Agency (ESA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: Remove DEBRIS is a satellite research project intending to demonstrate various space debris removal technologies. Space debris encompasses both natural (meteoroid) and artificial (man-made) particles. Artificial debris (also referred as orbital debris) includes non-functional spacecraft, abandoned launch vehicle stages, mission-related debris and fragmentation debris. Statement (2) is incorrect: The satellite’s platform was manufactured by Surrey Satellite Technology Ltd (SSTL), United Kingdom. It was launched aboard the SpaceX Dragon refill spacecraft in April 2018 as part of the CRS-14 mission. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/space-junk/5c6918631d5def3d 3e0e7b2c/
Q56. Which of the following is currently the benchmark for all loan rates in India?
A. Repo rate B. Reverse Repo rate C. Benchmark Prime Lending Rate D. Marginal cost of fund based lending rate
Answer: D Explanation: The marginal cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually describes the method by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank - on the basis of marginal cost or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower. Currently, all new loans are linked to MCLR since 1 April 2016. Hence, option D. is the correct answer. In the December monetary policy meet, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had proposed that all banks should link floating rate loans to external benchmark rate from 1 April 2019, and do away with marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) to provide transparency. The central bank had given three options—policy repo rate, 91 days treasury bill yield, 182 days treasury bill yield or any other benchmark market interest rate produced by the Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. However, recently RBI defers linking loan interest rates to external benchmark. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/external-benchmark-for-loan- pricing/5c7501c21d5def0eb646cd3d/
Q57. Which of the following factors indicate that the concept of “Parliamentary Sovereignty” does notexist in India? (1) Written Constitution (2) Republican form of Government (3) Judicial Review (4) Independence of Judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B Explanation: Any law passed by the Parliament or by legislatures of India can be declared ultra-vires and null and void by courts in India. Judicial review is a strong tool to keep a check on public bodies and rendering their accountability if their decisions or policies go outside the powers that have been specified in the Constitution. It maintains effective checks and balances by controlling unriddled, arbitrary or unjust acts taken on behalf of the Executive and the Legislature. In India, we have the supremacy of the Constitution where the powers of the Parliament are circumscribed within the four walls set by the Constitution.
Q58. The permissible feed-stock for ethanol production in India includes: (1) Sorghum (2) Sugar-beet (3) Cassava (4) Decaying potatoes (5) Damaged grain including maize, wheat and rice (6) Crop residue such as wheat and rice stubble Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 , 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only C. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: D Explanation: In India, sugarcane molasses are the major resource for bio-ethanol production. The Ethanol Blended Petrol programme, made it mandatory for oil companies to sell petrol blended with at least 5 per cent of ethanol. The National Bio- fuels Policy, 2018, seeks to widen the range of feed-stock for ethanol production from the present sugar-molasses to other waste such as rural-urban garbage and cellulosic and lingo-cellulosic biomass, in line with the “waste-to-wealth” concept. The permissible feed-stock includes sorghum, sugar-beet, cassava, decaying potatoes, damaged grain including maize, wheat, rice, and most importantly, crop residue such as wheat and rice stubble. This allows farmers to sell their surplus output to ethanol manufacturers when prices slump.Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Q59. In the context of Ocean floors, consider the following statements: (1) Fossil fuel in the ocean floors can be found in continental shelves. (2) Canyons and trenches can be observed in continental shelf region. (3) Ocean deeps and trenches are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C Explanation: Canyons and trenches can be observed in continental slope. The part of the continent that is submerged in shallow sea is referred to as the continental shelf. It extends from the seashore or coastline all the way to the continental slope. The region where the continental shelf ends and the continental slope begins is known as the shelf break. Even though it is submerged underwater, the
continental shelf is a part of the continent (continental crust) and not the ocean (oceanic crust). Continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of oil and gas. The estimated amount of oil in continental shelves around the world is about 86 billion barrels.
Q60. Which of the following languages have been given the status of classical languages in India? (1) Tamil (2) Sanskrit (3) Marathi (4) Malayalam Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Explanation: Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of classical languages. The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under: (i) High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years; (ii) A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers; (iii) The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community; (iv) The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Proposal for grant of classical status to Marathi language is under active consideration of the Government.
Himachal Pradesh Assembly recently passed the Himachal Pradesh Official Language (Amendment) Bill 2019 to make Sanskrit as the second official language of the state. The first official language of Himachal is Hindi. Hence, option © is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/the-himachal-pradesh-official-language- amendment-bill-2019/5c691ffb1d5def3d4298c6f5/
Q61. Consider the following statements about Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements(DTAA): (1) These agreements prevent taxation of income of non-residents both in the country of their origin and in the country they are living in. (2) These agreements encourage inflow of foreign investment. (3) These agreements have attracted global attention due to the role of tax heavens. (4) The first such agreement by India was entered into with Mauritius. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A Explanation: Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements(DTAAs) have been in the news after global financial meltdown of 2008, mainly due to the role of tax heavens as many of the countries with which such agreements exist are low tax countries. The G-20 meet in April 2009 in London proposed sanctions on tax heavens because it was felt that they promote round tripping as well as do not share source of income and wealth parked in these countries as lot of this wealth may have been responsible for causing global financial crisis.
Q62. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sarus crane: (1) The population of Sarus crane in Uttar Pradesh has steadily decreased since 2013, due to rampant poaching. (2) It is the world’s tallest flying bird and distinguishable by its red upper neck and white collar. (3) It is India’s only resident breeding crane and listed as Endangered on IUCN Red list of threatened species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect: The population of Sarus crane in Uttar Pradesh has steadily grown since 2013, owing to conservation efforts in recent years. Their population in U.P. has climbed to 15,938 as per the 2018 census (summer) from 12,000 in 2013. Since 2013, the Sarus Crane Conservation Project has been running across Purvanchal by Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) in collaboration with the U.P. Forest Department. Statement (2) is correct: It is the world’s tallest flying bird and distinguishable by its red upper neck and white collar. Statement (3) is incorrect: The Sarus habitat is outside protected areas, in natural wetlands with low water depth, marshy and fallow areas and agricultural fields. It is India’s only resident breeding crane and official State bird of Uttar Pradesh and listed as Vulnerable on IUCN Red list of threatened species.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/sarus-crane/5c4d527f20993743 443bf91b/
Q63. In the context of the Medieval Indian history, the term ‘Sulh-i-kul’ refers to A. the Tughluq traditions of succession B. the idea of Universal peace C. the Mughal traditions of succession D. the idea of Universal Sovereignty
Answer: B Explanation: Sulh-ikul is an Arabic term literally meaning “peace with all,” “universal peace,” or “absolute peace,” drawn from a Sufi mystic principle. As applied by the third Mughal Emperor of India, Akbar (who reigned 1556-1605), it described a peaceful and harmonious relationship among different religions. In keeping with efforts to mesh the diverse populations of his realm, Akbar proposed unity and peace among all human beings – sulh-ikul. The concept implies not just tolerance, but also the sorts of balance,
civility, respect, and compromise required to maintain harmony among a diverse population.
Q64. Which of the following ancient harbours/seaports are located on the Western Coast of India? (1) Barygaza (2) Maisolia (3) Muziris (4) Poduca Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A Explanation: Some of the ancient harbours/seaports are: Barygaza — Bharuch (Gujarat); Syrastrene — Saurashtra; Suppara — Soppara; Muziris — Pattanam (kerala); Colchi — Korkai; Camera – Puhar (Poompuhar); Poduca — Puducherry; Sopatama — Marakkanam; Maisolia — Masulipatnam (Andhra Pradesh); and Dasarna — Orissa. The traders from Rome and Greece monopolised trade with the West coast of India, especially in the Gujarat region with its ports of Bharuch and others in Saurashtra, and Musiris (Pattanam near Cranganore) in Kerala, considered part of Damarica (Tamizhagam). Muziris was an ancient harbour & seaport on the Malabar Coast (modern-day Kerala) that dates back to 1st century BC.Muziris was a key to the interactions between south India and Persia, the Middle East, North Africa, and the Mediterranean region. The exact location of Muziris is unknown to historians and archaeologists. It was generally speculated to be situated around present day Kodungallur, a town near Kochi. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/kochi-muziris- biennale/5c9618161d5def2fda4d1c3d/
Q65. Which of the following bodies of India have a quasi-judicial function? (1) Comptroller and Auditor General (2) Finance Commission (3) Election Commission of India (4) Central Information Commission (5) National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 3, 4 and 5 only C. 2, 3 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D Explanation: Quasi-judicial bodies are institutions which have powers analogous to that of the law imposing bodies but these are not courts. They primarily oversee the administrative zones. The courts have the power to supervise over all types of disputes but the quasi- judicial bodies are the ones with the powers of imposing laws on administrative agencies. All the above are quasi-judicial bodies.
Q66. In the context of the election of the President of India, who among the following can participates in this election? (1) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (2) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (3) Prime Minister of India (4) Lieutenant Governor of Delhi Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B Explanation: The President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the Constitution of India]. As Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President of India is not the member of either of the houses, so he cannot participate in the election of President of India.The Speaker is an elected member of the Lok Sabha. Hence he has the right to vote in the Presidential election. Lieutenant Governor of Delhi does not participate in election of President.
Q67. Climate Vulnerability Index for India is prepared by: A. UNFCCC B. World Meteorological Organization C. UNESCO D. None of the above
Answer: D Explanation: Indian scientists have developed a common framework for assessment of climate change vulnerability in all the states in the Himalayan region — Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Jammu and Kashmir and hilly districts of West Bengal. It is based on socio- economic factors, demographic and health status, sensitivity of agricultural production, forest-dependent livelihoods and access to information, services and infrastructure. The
vulnerability index is the highest for Assam (0.72) and Mizoram (0.71), followed by Jammu & Kashmir (0.62). Sikkim is the least vulnerable state with the index being 0.42. The assessment has been done jointly by experts from Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) at Guwahati and Mandi, in collaboration with Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore with support from the Department of Science and Technology and the Swiss Development Corporation (SDC) which is implementing the Indian Himalayas Climate Adaptation Program (IHCAP). Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/climate-vulnerability- index/5c8b840c1d5def56cb25c7d7/
Q68. Which of the following types ofsoil is developed after the process of leaching? A. Arid Soil B. Red and Yellow Soil C. Laterite Soil D. Peaty Soil
Answer: C Explanation: Leaching is the loss of mineral and organic solutes due to very heavy rainfall, high temperature and percolation. Laterite soils are developed after the process of leaching.Laterite, soil layer that is rich in iron oxide and derived from a wide variety of rocks weathering under strongly oxidizing and leaching conditions. It forms in tropical and subtropical regions where the climate is humid.
Q69. Consider the following statements: (1) It is a narrow passage of the west-central Pacific Ocean. (2) It is located between the Borneo and Sulawesi islands in Indonesia. (3) There are several ports found along the Strait, including Palu in Sulawesi and Balikpapan in Borneo. Above statements describes which of the following straits? A. Strait of Makassar B. Strait of Malacca
C. Strait of Formosa D. Strait of Hormuz
Answer: A Explanation: Sulawesi is an island in Indonesia. It is one of the four Greater Sunda Islands. It is situated east of Borneo, west of the Maluku Islands, and south of Mindanao and the Sulu Archipelago. The Strait of Makassar runs along the western side of the island and separates the island from Borneo. Within Indonesia, it is smaller than Sumatra and larger than Java Island. Hence, option A. is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/sulawesi/5c98aba51d5def136e928b93/
Q70. With reference to the‘Tropical Cyclones’, consider the following statements: (1) The eye of the storm is the most disturbed part of a tropical cyclone. (2) High-pressure gradient is a general phenomenon of a tropical cyclone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B Explanation: Eye of the storm is mostly a warm and low pressure, cloudless core.
Statement (1) is incorrect: A characteristic feature of tropical cyclones is the eye, a central region of clear skies, warm temperatures, and low atmospheric pressure. The eye is a region of mostly calm weather at the center of strong tropical cyclones. It is
surrounded by the eyewall, a ring of towering thunderstorms where the most severe weather and highest winds occur. Statement (2) is correct: Typically, atmospheric pressure at the surface of Earth is about 1,000 millibars. At the centre of a tropical cyclone, however, it is typically around 960 millibars, and in a very intense “super typhoon” of the western Pacific it may be as low as 880 millibars. In addition to low pressure at the centre, there is also a rapid variation of pressure across the storm, with most of the variation occurring near the centre. This rapid variation results in a large pressure gradient force, which is responsible for the strong winds present in the eyewall
Q71. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: A Explanation: Tharu tribes are found in West Tarai region of Himalaya (Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar). Buksaare found in Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. Kharwar is a community and caste found in the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Orissa, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Delhi and Chhattisgarh.Hence, option A. is the correct answer.
Q72. Which of the following are the freshwater fishes in India? (1) Tuna (2) Humpback Mahseer (3) Indian Glassy fish (4) Longcomb sawfish Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Explanation: Point (1) is incorrect: World Tuna Day was observed on 2 May to raise awareness about the importance of tuna and to promote more sustainable fishing practices. 2 May 2017
was the first internationally recognized World Tuna Day. In December 2016 the United Nations General Assembly voted to officially observe the Day in its resolution 71/124. The move underlined the importance of conservation management to ensure that we have systems in place to prevent tuna stocks from crashing. A tuna is a saltwater fish that belongs to the tribe Thunnini, a subgrouping of the Scombridae family. Point (2) is correct: The humpback mahseer is a species of freshwater ray-finned fish from the Indian endemic genus Hypselobarbus in the carp and minnow family Cyprinidae. The hump-backed mahseer, found in the waters of the Cauvery, has been added to the Red List as Critically Endangered. In the Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises two varieties—a “blue-finned” fish and an “orange-finned, hump-backed” one. The Humpback Mahseer is only found in the Cauvery basin. Point (3) is correct: Parambassisranga, commonly known as the Indian glassy fish, Indian glassy perch or Indian X-ray fish, is a species of freshwater fish in the Asiatic glassfish familyAmbassidae of order Perciformes. It is native to an area of South Asia from Pakistan to Malaysia. It is listed as least concern on IUCN Red List. Point (4) is incorrect: The longcomb sawfish, narrowsnout sawfish or green sawfish is a species of sawfish in the family Pristidae, found in tropical and subtropical waters of the Indo-West Pacific. It has declined drastically and is now considered a critically endangered species. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/world-tuna-day/5ccc257f1d5def2630c ac336/
Q73. With reference to Man and Biosphere Program, consider the following statements: (1) This program had been started by World Wildlife Fund. (2) This program aims to achieve three objectives namely conservation, development and logistics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B Explanation: A Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognised within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme. The Biosphere Reserve aims at achieving the three objectives. Statement (1) is incorrect:Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an intergovernmental scientific programme, launched in 1971 by UNESCO, that aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
Statement (2) is correct: This program aims to achieve three objectives namely conservation, development and logistics.
Q74. Which of the following Central Asian country is not a member of the Shanghai Co- operation Organization (SCO)? A. Kazakhstan B. Turkmenistan C. Kyrgyzstan D. Uzbekistan
Answer: B Explanation: The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization. It is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance and has been the primary security pillar of the region. India became a full member of the SCO in 2017. It was established in 2001. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism. The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organization. The organization has two permanent bodies: the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing. The Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent. Membership: Eight member states: India, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Four observer states: Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia. Hence option B. is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/shanghai-co-operation-organisation- sco/5cc802a11d5def07c362c5a1/
Q75. Perform-Achieve-Trade (PAT) mechanism is associated with: A. Encouraging the exports performance of the economy by encouraging competition between exporters. B. An Infrastructure model which links the ability to determine usage charges on the basis of performance. C. An incentive mechanism for the farmers to get higher prices for better quality food grains.
D. Trading energy-efficiency certificates in large energy-intensive industries.
Answer: D Explanation: PAT is one of the mechanisms under Cap and Trade market mechanisms to Green House Gas emissions. It is implemented under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency. Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a flagship progarmme of Bureau of Energy Efficiency under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). NMEEE is one of the eight national missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) launched by the Government of India in the year 2008. The scheme aimed at improving the energy efficiency of large-scale industries and creating a market-based mechanism to incentivise energy savings by converting these savings to a tradable instrument. Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
Q76. Which of the following are the powers of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to The Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996? (1) It shall approve all plans for social and economic development for implementation (2) It shall have the power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors (3) It shall identify/select the beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation programmes (4) It shall have the power to reject grant of license for carrying arms to any resident of the village Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D Explanation: Important powers provided only to Gram Sabha under PESA are: (i) Safeguard and preserve the- A- traditions and customs of the people, and their cultural identity, B- community resources, and C- customary mode of dispute resolution (ii) carry out executive functions to- A- approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development; B- identify persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes; and C- issue a certificate of utilisation of funds by the Panchayat for the plans; programmes and projects.
Q77. ‘Kunming Initiative’ which was in news recently is related to: A. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Corridor (BCIM) B. China–Pakistan Economic Corridor C. ‘Pivot to Asia’ policy by USA D. Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC)
Answer: A Explanation: ‘Kunming Initiative’, a part of Belt and Road Initiative, was originally developed by Chinese scholars. It is a modern version of the Silk Road. The ‘Kunming Initiative’ came under focus during the first meeting of Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM)Forum for Regional Cooperation held in 1999. It will connect India’s Northeast, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and the Chinese province of Yunnan through a network of roads, railways, waterways, and airways under a proper regulatory framework. Hence, option A. is the correct answer.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/bcim-corridor/5cc6c1511d5de f079b88a0fb/
Q78. Which of the following are responsible for large size and thick atmosphere of Jovian planets? (1) Less intense solar wind (2) Distance from the sun (3) Lower gravity Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A Explanation:
Due to quite a distant location from the Sun, Jovian planets were not that warm for gases to condense into solid particles. The solar winds were not intense at the distance where Jovian planets lay, therefore atmosphere of Jovian planets is so thick. The higher gravity of Jovian planetswithhold the gases in their atmosphere. Hence, option A. is the correct answer.
Q79. Which of the following animal(s)/bird(s) is/are extinct from India? (1) Asiatic Cheetah (2) Pygmy Hog (3) Pink-headed Duck Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A Explanation: Point (1) is correct: The Asiatic Cheetah was declared extinct in India over 60 years ago. The cheetah, the fastest land animal in the world, went extinct in India following extensive hunting and habitat loss. The cheetah is now found only in the arid regions of eastern Iran in Asia and in Botswana, Namibia and South Africa. For the past few years, the Indian government has been trying to work on an ambitious project to reintroduce the cheetah in India. The project includes trans-locating cheetahs from Namibia to reserves in India. Point (2) is not correct: The pygmy hog is a critically endangered suid, previously spread across Bhutan, India and Nepal, but now only found in India. The current world population is about 150 individuals or fewer. Recent conservation measures have improved the prospects of survival in the wild of this critically endangered species. Point (3) is not correct: The pink-headed duck was a large diving duck that was once found in parts of the Gangetic plains of India, Bangladesh and in the riverine swamps of Myanmar but feared extinct since the 1950s. Numerous searches have failed to provide any proof of continued existence. It is listed as Critically Endangered on IUCN Red List. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/species-extinction-un-prediction/ 5cc3fe601d5def7e1fd6f0e6/
Q80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2-A 1-B 4-C 3-D B. 3-A 4-B 1-C 2-D C. 2-A 4-B 1-C 3-D D. 3-A 1-B 4-C 2-D Answer: D Explanation: Indian Councils Act 1891 introduced an element of election for the first time. Some of the additional members of Imperial Legislative council and Provincial Legislative Councils could be indirectly elected. Indian Councils Act 1909 enlarged the size of the Provincial Councils by including elected non-official members so that the official majority was gone. An element of election was introduced in the Legislative Council at the Centre but the official majority was maintained. Government of India Act 1919 – It made Indian legislature more representative and bi- cameral for the first time. It was to have an Upper House – Council of States – composed of 60 members (of whom 34 were elected) and a Lower House – Legislative Assembly – composed of 144 members (of whom 104 were elected). Government of India Act 1935 – It introduced diarchy at the centre. Governor General’s functions were divided into two groups – (1)Administration of defence, external affairs, ecclesiastical affairs and of tribal affairs was to be done by governor general in his discretion with the help of ‘counsellors’, appointed by him, who were not responsible to the legislature. (2)Regarding matters other than the above reserved subjects, the governor general was to act on the advice of ‘council of ministers’ who were responsible to the legislature.
Q81. Which of the following animals/birds are endemic to Antarctica? (1) Emperor Penguin. (2) Polar Bear (3) Leopard seal (4) Adélie penguin Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Explanation: According to a study by the British Antarctic Survey (BAS), Halley Bay colony in the Weddell Sea (Antarctica) – the second largest Emperor penguin colony in the world – has suffered a “catastrophic” breeding failure due to the destruction of sea-ice in severe weather. Point (1) is correct: The emperor penguin is the tallest and heaviest of all living penguin species and is endemic to Antarctica. They have a circumpolar distribution in the Antarctic almost exclusively between the 66° and 77° south latitudes. IUCN Status is Near threatened. They breed during the Antarctic winter. For breeding they trek 50–120 km over the ice to breeding colonies located at Cape Washington, Coulman Island in Victoria Land, Halley, Cape Colbeck, and Dibble Glacier. Point (2) is incorrect: The polar bear is a hypercarnivorous bear whose native range lies largely within the Arctic Circle, encompassing the Arctic Ocean, its surrounding seas and surrounding land masses. Polar bears live in the Arctic, near the North Pole. Penguins live on Antarctica and the neighbouring continents, near the South Pole. They are poles apart. Point (3) is correct: The leopard seal, also referred to as the sea leopard, is the second largest species of seal in the Antarctic. Leopard seals are true seals and get their name from the spots that cover their fur. This species is well known as one of the top predators at the Antarctic ice edge. It is of mammal species found exclusively in Antarctica. Point (4) is correct: The Adélie penguin is a species of penguin common along the entire coast of the Antarctic continent, which is their only residence. They are the most widely spread penguin species, as well as the most southerly distributed of all penguins, along with the emperor penguin.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/emperor-penguin/5cc2c7371d5def7e21f 57ad1/
Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the labour movement in India: (1) The Swadeshi upsurge of 1903-1908 was a distinct landmark in the history of the labour movement. (2) The manifesto of All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) urged the labourers not only to organise but also to intervene in nationalist politics. (3) Gandhiji was also involved in forming a labour union in 1918. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C Explanation: Swadeshi Movement saw – A. Industrial Strikes for Nationalist causes; B. Shift from agitation on purely economic questions to the political issues of the time; and C. Socialist tinge. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was given the manifesto of economic-cum-political freedom. Gandhiji formed Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association in 1918. Hence all the statements are correct.
Q83. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C Explanation: Pair (1) is not correctly matched: Raqqa is also called Raqa, Rakka and Al-Raqqah. It is a city in Syria located on the bank of the Euphrates River. Recently Raqqa is in news due to the civilian casualties. Pair (2) is correctly matched: Negombo is a city on the west coast of Sri Lanka, north of the capital, Colombo. Recently there was a series of bomb blasts in Negombo, killing over a hundred people praying at the St. Sebastian’s Church. Pair (3) is correctly matched: Vladivostok is a major Pacific port city in Russia overlooking Golden Horn Bay, near the borders with China and North Korea. Recently Russian President Vladimir Putin and North Korean leader Kim Jongun held talks on an island off the Russian Pacific city of Vladivostok two months after Mr. Kim’s summit with U.S. President Donald Trump ended in disagreement.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/raqqa/5cc2e18e1d5def7e21f57d6b/
Q84. “An area notified under the provisions of Indian Forest Act or the State Forest Act having limited degree of protection” is called as: A. Reserved Forest B. Protected Forest C. Wildlife Sanctuary D. Sacred Forest
Answer: B Explanation: The given description is correct for Protected Area. Protected Forests are looked after by the government, but the local people are allowed to collect fuel-wood/timber and graze their cattle without causing serious damage. Reserve Forests are under the direct supervision of the government and no public entry is allowed for collection of timber or grazing of cattle.
Q85. What is ‘Pinaka guided weapons system’, recently seen in the news? A. A multiple rocket launcher produced in India. B. Guidance and manoeuvring kit manufactured by Israel. C. Air-to-surface missiles developed anduse by USA. D. None of the above.
Answer: A Explanation: Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket System to supplement the existing artillery gun at ranges beyond 30 kilometres to make precision hits. The guided weapon system is equipped with state-of-the-art guidance kit comprising of an advanced navigation and control system. It is produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. SPICE, which stands for Smart, Precise Impact and Cost-Effective, is a guidance and manoeuvring kit manufactured by Israel’s Rafael. The SPICE turns a conventional ‘gravity’ bomb into a sophisticated long-range munition. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/pinaka/5c87893a1d5def18d99f140e/
Q86. With reference to the UDAN 3.0, consider the following statements: (1) UDAN is a Regional Air Connectivity Scheme (RCS) which attempts to connect smaller towns with bigger cities to develop the regional aviation market. (2) The Key features of UDAN 3 are inclusion of Seaplanes for connecting Water Aerodromes and inclusion of Tourism Routes suggested by the Ministry of Tourism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (1) is correct: UDAN is an acronym for “UdeDeshKaAamNagrik”. It is a Regional Air Connectivity Scheme (RCS) which attempts to connect smaller towns with bigger cities to develop the regional aviation market. The scheme provides VGF for operators who cap fares on regional flights at ₹2,500 for one hour of flying. Under UDAN-III, 13 airports to get air connectivity for first time. These include Kalaburagi, Amravati, Car Nicobar and Kalaikunda. The Airports Authority of India is the implementing authority. Statement (2) is correct: Key Features of UDAN 3 included –Inclusion of Seaplanes for connecting Water Aerodromes, Inclusion of Tourism Routes suggested by the Ministry of Tourism and Bringing in a number of routes in the North-East Region under the ambit of UDAN.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/udan-30/5c4bfe992099374347cf8153/
Q87. Who among the following freedom fighters was the author of ‘Gita Rahasya’? A. Mahatma Gandhi B. Rabindranath Tagore C. Bal GangadharTilak D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer: C Explanation: ShrimadhBhagvad Gita Rahasya, popularly also known as Gita Rahasya or KarmayogShashtra, is a 1915 Marathi language book authored by Indian social reformer and independence activist Bal GangadharTilak while he was in prison at Mandalay, Burma. Hence, option © is the correct answer. Recently, the Prime Minister recalled that LokmanyaTilak had written the “Gita Rahasya,” while in jail, in which he explained in a simple way, Lord Krishna’s message of Nishkam Karma. He also mentioned that Mahatma Gandhi wrote “Bhagwad Gita according to Gandhi”. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/gita-rahasya/5c7661091d5def14e 56539d5/
Q88. Consider the following species in India: (1) Indian wild ass (2) Lion-tailed macaque (3) Nicobar pigeon
Which of the above species in India is/are endangered species? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B Explanation: Point (1) is incorrect:The Indian wild ass is a subspecies of the onager native to Southern Asia. It is mainly found in the Little Rann of Kutch and its surrounding areas in Gujarat.It is currently listed as Near Threatened by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN’s) Red Data List. Point (2) is correct:Lion-tailed macaque can be found exclusively in the Western Ghats of southwestern India. Being primarily arboreal, they can be found in the upper canopy of the tropical evergreen rain forests, as well as in the monsoon forest. As per IUCN’s Red Data List, it is an endangered species. Point (3) is incorrect:Nicobar pigeon is an endemic species of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. As per the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN’s) Red Data List, it is a near threatened species.
Q89. Which of the following ideals in the Preamble to the Constitution of India have been borrowed from the French Constitution? (1) Justice (2) Liberty (3) Equality (4) Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: C Explanation: The ideals of Liberty, Equality and fraternity and the ideal of Republic have been brought from French Constitution. The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignityof the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The ideal of justice—social, economic and political—has been taken fromthe Russian Revolution (1917). The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms— social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.Hence, option © is the correct answer.
Q90. Consider the following statements: (1) Lower layers of the Earth’s atmosphere are heated by conduction. (2) The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called convection. (3) The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as advection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. None of the above
Answer: A Explanation: The vertical transmission of heat in atmosphere is called convection and horizontal transfer of heat in atmosphere is called advection.
Q91. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to JallianwalaBagh massacre? A. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood after the JalianwalaBagh massacre. B. Only the British members were included in the 7 members Hunter Committee which was set up to investigate the JallianwalaBagh Tragedy. C. Mahatma Gandhi returned the Kaiser-i-Hind Gold medal given to him for his work during Boer war. D. The Indemnity act was passed after the Jalianwala Bagh tragedy.
Answer: B Explanation: April 13, 2019 marks 100 years since the Jallianwala Bagh massacre that took place in Amritsar. On this day, British troops fired upon crowds of protesters celebrating Vaisakhi and peacefully demonstrating against the Rowlatt Act of the British Raj, leading to the loss of well over a thousand lives. On May 30, 1919 Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood. Mahatma Gandhi returned the Kaiser-i-Hind Gold medal given to him for his work during Boer war.
The Indemnity act was also passed. Dyer was removed from the job and sent to London, but he was never charged of any offence. A parallel nonofficial enquiry committee was set up by the congress and Government also set up a committee of enquiry with 4 British and 3 Indian members. Hence statement © is not correct. Government established a committee headed by Lord Hunter a Senator of the “College of justice of Scotland”. This committee had 7 members viz. 4 British and 3 Indians. The Indian Members were in this committee included Sir ChimanlalSetalvad, PanditJagat Narayan and Sardar Sultan Ahmed Khan. The secretary of this committee was H G Stokes, secretary to the government of Madras. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/jallianwala-bagh-massacre-amritsar- massacre/ 5ca9cf8d1d5def51862df4d9/
Q92. With reference to the history of Modern India, which of the following statements is not correct? A. D. K. Karve founded the first women’s university in Bombay in 1916. B. The famous nationalist leader Bal GangadharTilak actively campaigned for the passage of the Age of Consent Bill of 1891. C. The Sarda Act of 1929 is also known as Child Marriage Restraint Act. D. Sister Subbalakshmi was the first Hindu widow in the Madras Presidency to study for her graduation.
Answer: B Explanation: Bal GangadharTilak opposed the Age of Consent Bill of 1891. The Age of Consent Act, 1891, was a legislation enacted in British India on 1891 which raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for all girls, married or unmarried, from ten to twelve years in all jurisdictions, its violation subject to criminal prosecution as rape. Many leaders such as Bal GangadharTilak opposed this bill saying on the grounds that this was not an issue for the British but Hindus to decide. However leaders such as Behramji Malabari from Bombay advocated for this legislation.Hence, option B. is the correct answer.
Q93. Operation Smile, sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to: A. Rescue or rehabilitation of missing children B. Prevent gender biased sex selective elimination C. Indian Army’s major rescue and relief operation in flood-hit Kerala. D. Create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university and industry levels.
Answer: A Explanation: Operation Smile also called as Operation MUSKAAN is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to rescue/rehabilitate missing children. It is a dedicated campaign
for a month where several activities are taken up by the State Police personnel to trace and rescue the missing children and reunite them with their families. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Earlier all States/UTs were advised to take up a one month campaign titled ‘Operation Smile’ in the month of January, 2015 to rescue/rehabilitate the missing children. Similarly, another dedicated campaign titled ‘Operation Muskaan’ was launched in the month of July, 2015 throughout the country. As part of the campaign, a large number of missing children has been reunited with their families which is a remarkable achievement made by the field offices. Recently more than 2,000 missing and destitute children have been rescued during the fifth phase of “Operation Muskan” (Smile) across Telangana. The unique feature of the “Operation Smile V” has been extensive use of technology by the rescue teams in the form of facial recognition softwareon “TS Cop”, a comprehensive mobile app. Value Addition The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. BetiBachaoBetiPadhao (BBBP) scheme was started in 2015 as a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human Resource Development under coordinated and convergent efforts to empower the girl child. It is a Pan India Scheme. The objectives of the scheme are to prevent gender biased sex selective elimination, ensure survival & protection of the girl child and ensure education of the girl child. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/23-million-missing- girls/5cbc11751d5def54a72cf90f/
Q94. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in the process of nutrition? A. B. C. D.
Answer: A Explanation: Nutrition is the process of obtaining food and then using it for obtaining energy, growth and repair of the body. Animals are divided in to three groups on the basis of their food habits. Herbivores, Carnivores and Omnivores. There are five main processes concerned with the use of food by animals these are: Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation and Egestion.
Q95. With reference to the Seagrass, consider the following statements:
(1) They have spores and do not flower or produce fruit. (2) They maintain the water quality by effectively removing nutrients from marine waters and surface sediments in the coastal areas. (3) Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay harbour the maximum number of Seagrass species in India. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B Explanation: Seagrasses are marine flowering plants capable of completing their life cycle when they are submerged in sea water. Seagrass ecosystem is one of the most widespread coastal vegetation types when compared to coral and mangrove ecosystems. Statement (1) is incorrect: Seaweeds (Algae), the plants that also colonise the sea are often confused with seagrasses; however, they are more primitive than seagrasses. In contrast to seagrasses, algae do not have a true root system (they have holdfasts) and do not have veins that carry molecules around the plant. Algae have spores and do not flower or produce fruit, while seagrasses have seeds and fruit. Statement (2) is correct: They are considered to be critical aquatic plants as they maintain the water quality by effectively removing nutrients from marine waters and surface sediments in the coastal areas. They can act as carbon sink, sequestering carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. The natural threats to seagrass in India are cyclones, waves, intensive grazing and infestation of fungi and epiphytes, as well as “die-back” disease. Statement (3) is correct: Seagrasses are assigned mainly to six families encompassing 14 genera of Angiosperms and are often separated into tropical and temperate genera, with 7 genera each. Seagrass flora of India is represented by 6 genera and 13 species, out of which the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay harbour the maximum number of species followed by Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands. The rich growth of seagrasses along the Tamil Nadu coast and Lakshadweep can be attributed mainly to high salinity, clarity of the water and sandy substratum. The presence of seagrass meadows is global (except the polar regions because of ice scouring), unlike mangroves, corals or salt marsh plants, which have a more limited spatial distribution. The longest known seagrass (Zosteracaulescens Miki) is about 7 m found in Japan and deepest growing seagrass is H. decipiens (86m) in the Mauritius waters.
Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/impact-of-global-warming-on-marine- ecosystem/5cc3e9761d5def7e1cd913b9/
Q96. With reference to the Maratha power, which of the following statements is/are Correct? 1. The greatest expansion of the Maratha power was took place under Balaji Vishwanath. 2. In 1761 the Third Battle of Panipat took place between Maratha and Nadir Shah. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D Explanation: The greatest expansion of the Maratha power was took place under Balaji Baji Rao. In 1761 the Third Battle of Panipat took place between Maratha and Ahmad Shah Abdali. There have been three Battles of Panipat: The First Battle of Panipat (1526), between Babur (Mughal dynasty) and Ibrahim Lodi (Lodhi dynasty), resulting in a Victory of Mughal and establishing the Mughal empire in India. The Second Battle of Panipat (1556), between the Mughal Ruler Akbar (Bairam Khan represented him) and Hemu, resulting in a Mughal victory. The Third Battle of Panipat (1761), between the Durrani Empire of Ahmad Shah Abdali of Afghanistan with the help of the Rohilla Afghans of the Doab and shuja-ud-Daulah of Awadh against the Maratha Empire led by prime minister Balaji baji Rao, resulting with decisive Afghan victory.
Q97. Which of the following best describes the term “Cobweb phenomenon”, sometimes seen in the news? A. It refers to a phenomenon where the prices of certain goods witness fluctuations that are cyclical in nature. B. It refers to a security mechanism in computer security for separating running programs, usually in an effort to mitigate system failures. C. It is the observed tendency of equity market volatility to be higher in declining markets than in rising markets. D. None of the above
Answer: A Explanation: Cobweb phenomenon refers to a phenomenon where the prices of certain goods witness fluctuations that are cyclical in nature. It happens due to faulty producer expectations. The producers of agricultural goods, for instance, might decide to increase their output one year because their product commanded a very high price the previous year. This, however, might lead to overproduction and cause prices to slump that year, thus leading to losses. Such cyclical price fluctuations are more severe in markets where speculators are banned from hoarding goods to sell them later at a higher price. The idea was proposed by Hungarian economist Nicholas Kaldor. Hence, option A. is the correct answer. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/global-report-on-food-crises- 2019/5ca438b81d5def5184e67e92/ http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/priority-sector-lending- agriculture/5cc6d8511d5def07c362a3c7/ Q98. Due to improper disposal of old and used electronic appliances or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (1) Beryllium (2) Cadmium (3) Chromium (4) Heptachlor (5) Mercury (6) Lead (7) Plutonium Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only B. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: B Explanation: E-waste-connected health risks may result from direct contact with harmful materials such as lead, cadmium, chromium, brominated flame retardants or polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), from inhalation of toxic fumes, as well as from accumulation of chemicals in soil, water and food. In addition to its hazardous components, being
processed, e-waste can give rise to a number of toxic by-products likely to affect human health. Plutonium is a radioactive chemical element with symbol Pu and atomic number 94. Plutonium is a radioactive metal and hence not used in computers. Plutonium wastes come from the nuclear power plants and dismantled nuclear weapons built during the Cold War. Q99. With respect to the “Periodic Table of Elements”, consider the following statements: (1) The elements are arranged by Proton structure and each element is listed by its mass number and chemical symbol. (2) Non-metals reside on the left side of the table, while Metals reside on the right. (3) The United Nations General Assembly and the UNESCO is celebrating 2019 as the “International Year of the Periodic Table of Chemical Elements (IYPT2019)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C Explanation: Statement (3) is correct: The ‘Periodic Table of Elements’ has turned 150 years old in 2019. And thus The United Nations General Assembly and the UNESCO is celebrating 2019 as the “International Year of the Periodic Table of Chemical Elements (IYPT2019)”. Statement (1) is incorrect: The periodic table of the chemical elements is a tabular display of the known chemical elements. The elements are arranged by electron structure so that many chemical properties vary regularly across the table. Each element is listed by its atomic number and chemical symbol. Statement (2) is incorrect: Metals reside on the left side of the table, while non-metals reside on the right.The ‘Periodic Table of Elements’ was written by a Russian chemist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev in 1869. The elements from atomic numbers 1 (hydrogen) through 118 (oganesson) have been discovered or synthesized; completing seven full rows of the periodic table. The first 94 elements all occur naturally. Elements 95 to 118 have only been synthesized in laboratories or nuclear reactors. Source: http://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/the-periodic-table-of- elements/5c5fdc941d5def791f2db78a/
Q100. Consider the following statements regarding the Election commission of India (ECI): (1) The Constitution provided for a three-member ECI, with Chief Election Commissioner as its head. (2) In case of differences between members on any issue, the decision of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) prevails. (3) The retiring age of the CEC is fixed at 65 years and of other ECs at 62 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None of the above
Answer: D Explanation: There should be an Election commission for the “superintendence, direction and control of elections” according to Article 324 of the Constitution. The Election Commission should consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and any such number of other Election Commissioners, as the President may from time to time fix. Statement 1 is incorrect: From 1950 until 1989, the ECI was a single-member body, with only a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Since 1991, it has continuously been a three member body. Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Transaction of Business provisions of the EC Act, if there is any difference in the opinion, the decision shall be taken based on the majority view. Statement 3 is incorrect: From 1991 to 1993, the retiring age for CEC was fixed at 65 years and for other ECs at 62 years but according to the amendment in the Election Commission (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991, the retiring age for all the members of ECI has been fixed at 65 years since 1993. Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/an-expert-explains-how-election- commission-evolved-what-rules-it-follows-in-case-of-disagreement-5720029/