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FCI tips and trick to crack aptitude questions,Aptitude questions tips and tricks ,Important formulaes,FCI general awareness general anility questions with answers for practice,FCI model question and answers for practice,FCI free solved sample placement papers Finding number of Factors
To find the number of factors of a given number, express the number as a product of powers of prime numbers.
In this case, 48 can be written as 16 * 3 = (24 * 3) Now, increment the power of each of the prime numbers by 1 and multiply the result. In this case it will be (4 + 1)*(1 + 1) = 5 * 2 = 10 (the power of 2 is 4 and the power of 3 is 1) Therefore, there will 10 factors including 1 and 48. Excluding, these two numbers, you will have 10 – 2 = 8 factors.
Sum of n natural numbers
-> The sum of first n natural numbers = n (n+1)/2
-> The sum of squares of first n natural numbers is n (n+1)(2n+1)/6
-> The sum of first n even numbers= n (n+1)
-> The sum of first n odd numbers= n^2
Finding Squares of numbers
To find the squares of numbers near numbers of which squares are known To find 41^2 , Add 40+41 to 1600 =1681 To find 59^2 , Subtract 60^2-(60+59) =3481
Finding number of Positive Roots
If an equation (i:e f(x)=0 ) contains all positive co-efficient of any powers of x , it has no positive roots then. Eg: x^4+3x^2+2x+6=0 has no positive roots .
Finding number of Imaginary Roots
For an equation f(x)=0 , the maximum number of positive roots it can have is the number of sign changes in f(x) ; and the maximum number of negative roots it can have is the number of sign changes in f(-x) .
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Hence the remaining are the minimum number of imaginary roots of the equation(Since we also know that the index of the maximum power of x is the number of roots of an equation.)
Reciprocal Roots The equation whose roots are the reciprocal of the roots of the equation ax^2+bx+c is cx^2+bx+a Roots Roots of x^2+x+1=0 are 1,w,w^2 where 1+w+w^2=0 and w^3=1 Finding Sum of the rootsFor a cubic equation ax^3+bx^2+cx+d=o sum of the roots = - b/a sum of the product of the roots taken two at a time = c/a product of the roots = -d/a For a biquadratic equation ax^4+bx^3+cx^2+dx+e = 0 sum of the roots = - b/a sum of the product of the roots taken three at a time = c/a sum of the product of the roots taken two at a time = -d/a product of the roots = e/a Maximum/Minimum -> If for two numbers x+y=k(=constant), then their PRODUCT is MAXIMUM if x=y(=k/2). The maximum product is then (k^2)/4 -> If for two numbers x*y=k(=constant), then their SUM is MINIMUM if x=y(=root(k)). The minimum sum is then 2*root(k) .
Inequalties
-> x + y >= x+y ( stands for absolute value or modulus ) (Useful in solving some inequations) -> a+b=a+b if a*b>=0 else a+b >= a+b -> 2<= (1+1/n)^n <=3 -> (1+x)^n ~ (1+nx) if x<<<1> When you multiply each side of the inequality by -1, you have to reverse the direction of the inequality.
Product Vs HCF-LCM
Product of any two numbers = Product of their HCF and LCM . Hence product of two numbers = LCM of the numbers if they are prime to each other
AM GM HM
For any 2 numbers a>b a>AM>GM>HM>b (where AM, GM ,HM stand for arithmetic, geometric , harmonic menasa respectively) (GM)^2 = AM * HM
Sum of Exterior Angles For any regular polygon , the sum of the exterior angles is equal to 360 degrees hence measure of any external angle is equal to 360/n. ( where n is the number of sides) For any regular polygon , the sum of interior angles =(n-2)180 degrees
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So measure of one angle in Square-----=90 Pentagon--=108 Hexagon---=120 Heptagon--=128.5 Octagon---=135 Nonagon--=140 Decagon--=144
Problems on clocks Problems on clocks can be tackled as assuming two runners going round a circle , one 12 times as fast as the other . That is , the minute hand describes 6 degrees /minute the hour hand describes 1/2 degrees /minute . Thus the minute hand describes 5(1/2) degrees more than the hour hand per minute .
The hour and the minute hand meet each other after every 65(5/11) minutes after being together at midnight. (This can be derived from the above) .
Co-ordinates Given the coordinates (a,b) (c,d) (e,f) (g,h) of a parallelogram , the coordinates of the meeting point of the diagonals can be found out by solving for [(a+e)/2,(b+f)/2] =[ (c+g)/2 , (d+h)/2]
Ratio If a1/b1 = a2/b2 = a3/b3 = ...... , then each ratio is equal to (k1*a1+ k2*a2+k3*a3+...... ) / (k1*b1+ k2*b2+k3*b3+...... ) , which is also equal to (a1+a2+a3+...... /b1+b2+b3+...... ) Finding multiples x^n -a^n = (x-a)(x^(n-1) + x^(n-2) + ...... + a^(n-1) ) ...... Very useful for finding multiples .For example (17-14=3 will be a multiple of 17^3 - 14^3)
Exponents e^x = 1 + (x)/1! + (x^2)/2! + (x^3)/3! + ...... to infinity 2 <>GP -> In a GP the product of any two terms equidistant from a term is always constant . -> The sum of an infinite GP = a/(1-r) , where a and r are resp. the first term and common ratio of the GP . Mixtures If Q be the volume of a vessel q qty of a mixture of water and wine be removed each time from a mixture n be the number of times this operation be done and A be the final qty of wine in the mixture then , A/Q = (1-q/Q)^n
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Some Pythagorean triplets:
3,4,5------(3^2=4+5) 5,12,13------(5^2=12+13) 7,24,25------(7^2=24+25) 8,15,17------(8^2 / 2 = 15+17 ) 9,40,41------(9^2=40+41) 11,60,61------(11^2=60+61) 12,35,37------(12^2 / 2 = 35+37) 16,63,65------(16^2 /2 = 63+65) 20,21,29------(EXCEPTION)
Appolonius theorem
Appolonius theorem could be applied to the 4 triangles formed in a parallelogram.
Function
Any function of the type y=f(x)=(ax-b)/(bx-a) is always of the form x=f(y) .
Finding Squares
To find the squares of numbers from 50 to 59 For 5X^2 , use the formulae (5X)^2 = 5^2 +X / X^2 Eg ; (55^2) = 25+5 /25 =3025 (56)^2 = 25+6/36 =3136 (59)^2 = 25+9/81 =3481
Successive Discounts Formula for successive discounts a+b+(ab/100) This is used for succesive discounts types of sums.like 1999 population increses by 10% and then in 2000 by 5% so the population in 2000 now is 10+5+(50/100)=+15.5% more that was in 1999 and if there is a decrease then it will be preceeded by a -ve sign and likewise.
Rules of Logarithms: -> loga(M)=y if and only if M=ay
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-> loga(MN)=loga(M)+loga(N) -> loga(M/N)=loga(M)-loga(N) -> loga(Mp)=p*loga(M) -> loga(1)=0-> loga(ap)=p -> log(1+x) = x - (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/3 - (x^4)/4 ...... to infinity [ Note the alternating sign . .Also note that the ogarithm is with respect to base e ]
1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
2. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is 1. to promote institutional deliveries 2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery 3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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ANSWER: (d)
3. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment (a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the" Houses within six months (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months (c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament (d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
ANSWER: (a)
4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements : 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: (c)
5. Consider the following: 1. Hotels and restaurants 2. Motor transport undertakings 3. Newspaper establishments 4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (d)
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6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
8. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India? 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country. 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures. 3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes. 4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
9. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (a)
11. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what
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advantage does thorium hold over uranium? 1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat (b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation (c) all the solar radiations (d) the infrared part of the solar radiation
ANSWER: (d)
13. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth? (a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen (c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus (d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
ANSWER: (b)
14. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India? 1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome. 2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies. 3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health. 4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
15. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 1. To enable them to withstand drought 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations 4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
16. Consider the following statements : The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he 1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
17. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
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2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. 3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above is correct
ANSWER: (b)
18. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances? 1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam. 2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: (c)
19. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices? 1. Meditation and control of breath 2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place 3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
20. The Rowlatt Act aimed at (a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
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(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial (c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement (d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
ANSWER: (b)
21. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because
1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence 2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session 3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)
22. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes (a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation (b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara (c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory (d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context
ANSWER: (b)
23. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of (a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas (c) worship of nature and Yajnas (d) worship of nature and Bhakti
ANSWER: (c)
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24. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj? 1. It opposed idolatry. 2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts. 3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following? 1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI. 2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need. 3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ANSWER: (d)
26. Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise? 1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product 2. When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned 3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
27. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the
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economy? 1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank 2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public 3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank 4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India? 1. Subsidiaries of companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies 4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER: (d)
29. Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in international market is decided by the 1. World Bank 2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned 3. stability of the government of the concerned country 4. economic potential of the country in question
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
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ANSWER: (b)
30. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that (a) big banks should try to open offices in each district (b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks (c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development (d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
ANSWER: (c)
31. Consider the following : 1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops 2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare 3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None
ANSWER: (d)
32. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct? 1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them. 2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild. 3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the (a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
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(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
ANSWER: (c)
34. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal? 1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use. 2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. 3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
35. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the (a) direction facing the polestar (b) direction opposite to the polestar (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left (d) direction keeping the polestar to his right
ANSWER: (c)
36. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why? 1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (c)
37. Consider the following areas: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are Tiger Reserves? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) l, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
38. Consider the following statements : 1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India. 2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: (c)
39. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region? (a) Rainfall throughout the year (b) Rainfall in winter only (c) An extremely short dry season (d) A definite dry and wet season
ANSWER: (d)
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40. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass? (a) Biosphere Reserves (b) National Parks (c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
ANSWER: (b)
41. Consider the following kinds of organisms :
1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
42. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species? (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane) (d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
ANSWER: (a)
43. Consider the following statements : If there were no phenomenon of capillarity 1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp 2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink 3. the blotting paper would fail to function 4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
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(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
44. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service? (a) Production of food and water (b) Control of climate and disease (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination (d) Maintenance of diversity
ANSWER: (d)
45. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru? (a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains (b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk (c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
ANSWER: (a)
46. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area? 1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitat 3. Invasion of alien species 4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (a)
47. Consider the following : 1. Black-necked crane
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2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
48. Consider the following agricultural practices : 1. Contour bunding 2. Relay cropping 3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques- tration/storage in the soil? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them
ANSWER: (c)
49. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? 1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. 2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. 3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
50. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
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(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle (c) scarcity of food available to them (d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
ANSWER: (b)
51. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
52. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance (b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
ANSWER: (a)
53. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 -only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d)
54. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
55. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country? 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater. 2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water. 3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India, 4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump- sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ANSWER: (a)
56. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India : 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organizing village Panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
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Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
57. Consider the following statements: 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None
ANSWER: (d)
58. With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (c)
59. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
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1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
ANSWER: (b)
60. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
61. Consider the following kinds of organisms :
1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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ANSWER: (d)
62. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. 2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 onlly (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
63. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? 1. It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water. 2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water. 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
64. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
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(b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
65. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? 1. Smelting units 2. Pens and pencils 3. Paints 4. Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b)
66. With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only. 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
67. Consider the following statements : Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used 1. in the production of plastic foam 2. in the production of tubeless tyres 3. in cleaning certain electronic components 4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
68. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter? 1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper. 2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter. 3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
69. Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe? 1. Detection of microwaves in space 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space 3. Movement of asteroids in space 4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above can be cited as evidence
ANSWER: (b)
70. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from
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reaching the surface of the Earth? (a) The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles (b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space (c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
ANSWER: (a)
71. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct? 1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD. 2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD. 3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD. 4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (d)
72. With reference to the history. of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism? 1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment 2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas 3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
73. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance? 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
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2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts 3. Increasing the government spending on public health 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a)1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
74. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the (a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent (b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified (c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture (d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
ANSWER: (c)
75. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because (a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces(b) emergence of a left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible (c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
ANSWER: (d)
76. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker? 1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup 2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy 3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization 4. Conducting the delivery of baby Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 Only (b) 2 and 4 Only (c) 1 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ANSWER: (c)
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77. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (c) 78. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation? (a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government. (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose (c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
ANSWER: (d)
79. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar? 1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation 3. The Independent Labour Party Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
80. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India? (a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create
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one or more All India Services (c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement (d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
ANSWER: (b)
81. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas 2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development 3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (b)
82. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? 1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level 2. Purchasing power parity at national level 3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
83. Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
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1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (a)
84. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector? 1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones 2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance' 3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (d) 85. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
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(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER: (a)
86. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations (b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion (c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
ANSWER: (c)
87. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements : 1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government. 2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots. 3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
ANSWER: (c)
88. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development : 1. Low birthrate with low death rate 2. High birthrate with high death rate 3. High birthrate with low death rate
Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1
ANSWER: (c)
89. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries
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have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? 1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER: (c)
90. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ANSWER: (c)
91. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant? 1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (c)
92. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'? (a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together (d) None of the above
ANSWER: (c)
93. A particular State in India has the following characteristics : 1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan. 2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State. Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand
ANSWER: (a)
94. Consider the following crops of India : 1. Cowpea 2. Green gram 3. Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (c)
95. Consider the following factors: 1. Rotation of the Earth
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2. Air pressure and wind 3. Density of ocean water 4. Revolution of the Earth Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b) 96. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements : 1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States. 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER: (a)
97. Consider the following crops of India : 1. Groundnut 2. Sesamum 3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ANSWER: (d)
98. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following : 1. Deep gorges 2. U-turn river courses 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
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Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (b) 99. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because 1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface 2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere 3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (c)
100. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (a)
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Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below. (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north. (ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. (iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. (iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false? (a) A is the 3rd to the left of F (b) D is 3rd to the left of E (c) F is 3rd the right of A (d) B is 3rd to the left of C (e) None of these Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true? (a) C and E are neighbors (b) E is to the immediate left of F (c) C is to the immediate left of D (d) A is to the immediate left of D (e) None of these Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right? (a) Data inadequate (b) G (c) B (d) E (e) None of these Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors? (a) A, C and D, C (b) A, B and E, G (c) D, C and E, F (d) C, F and C, E (e) None of these Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F? (a) Immediate to the right of E. (b) Third to the left of G (c) Immediate to the left of C (d) 5th to the right of B
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(e) None of these Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different. (a) ISLOJ (b) LUOQM (c) AKDGB (d) FPILG (e) NXQTO Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there? 5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) None of these Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number? 19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet. 9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language? (a) EDVDRJSI (b) EFUFRHSI (c) EFUFRJSI (d) EDUFRJSI (e) None of these Ans (c)
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10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language? (a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO (b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO (c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO (d) CONFFDERATION (e) None of these Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) W (e) none of these Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet? (a) five (b) one (c) four (d) Two (e) Three Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? (a) BROTHER : DORVEHT (b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ (c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT (d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP (e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters? (a) IB (b) LF (c) IE (d) FL (e) TL Ans (c)
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15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR? (a) RWLGPF (b) EOFKUQ (c) EOFMXS (d) RWLEPD (e) RWLEND Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India. (a) ANUMAY (b) IHSOK (c) TABROC (d) ADAMRAN (e)None of these Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first. (a) Night (b) Negative (c) Neighbour (d) Near (e) None of these Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office. (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50 (e) None of these Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been. (a) one day (b) two days (c) three days (d) four days (e) None of these Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point. (a) 4 feet
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(b) 5 feet (c) 24 feet (d) 25 feet (e) None of these Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word. 21. ENCOURAGE (a) ANGER (b) GREEN (c) USAGE (d) COURAGE (d) None of these Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE (a) CENTRE (b) CONCERN (c) TREAT (d) REASON (e) None of these Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT (a) STAIN (b) TRAIN (c) RESIGN (d) TRACE (e) None of these Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC (a) MENACE (b) GAIN (c) NAME (d) GAME (e) None of these Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM (a) MITE (b) ASSIST (c) ATHENS (d) SENT (e) None of these
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Ans (b)
Directions (questions 26 to30 ):Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north. (ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them. (iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E. (iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
26. Which of the following statements may be false? (a) A is the 3rd to the left of F (b) D is 3rd to the left of E (c) F is 3rd the right of A (d) B is 3rd to the left of C (e) None of these Ans (d)
27. Which of the following statements is true? (a) C and E are neighbors (b) E is to the immediate left of F (c) C is to the immediate left of D (d) A is to the immediate left of D (e) None of these Ans (d)
28. Who is at the extreme right? (a) Data inadequate (b) G (c) B (d) E (e) None of these Ans (a)
29. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors? (a) A, C and D, C (b) A, B and E, G (c) D, C and E, F (d) C, F and C, E (e) None of these Ans (c)
30. What is the position of F? (a) Immediate to the right of E. (b) Third to the left of G
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(c) Immediate to the left of C (d) 5th to the right of B (e) None of these Ans (e)
31 Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different. (a) ISLOJ (b) LUOQM (c) AKDGB (d) FPILG (e) NXQTO Ans (b)
32 . In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there? 5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) None of these Ans (a)
33. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number? 19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these Ans (e)
Directions (Q.34 & 35): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
34 . How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language? (a) EDVDRJSI (b) EFUFRHSI (c) EFUFRJSI
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(d) EDUFRJSI (e) None of these Ans (c)
35 . How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language? (a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO (b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO (c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO (d) CONFFDERATION (e) None of these Ans (b)
36 . If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (a) G (b) H (c) J (d) W (e) none of these Ans (a)
37 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet? (a) five (b) one (c) four (d) Two (e) Three Ans (a)
38 . Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? (a) BROTHER : DORVEHT (b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ (c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT (d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP (e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF Ans (d)
39 . Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters? (a) IB (b) LF (c) IE
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(d) FL (e) TL Ans (c)
40 . Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR? (a) RWLGPF (b) EOFKUQ (c) EOFMXS (d) RWLEPD (e) RWLEND Ans (e)
41 . If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India. (a) ANUMAY (b) IHSOK (c) TABROC (d) ADAMRAN (e)None of these Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
42 . If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first. (a) Night (b) Negative (c) Neighbour (d) Near (e) None of these Ans (d)
43. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are working in that office. (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50 (e) None of these Ans (b)
44. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been. (a) one day (b) two days (c) three days (d) four days (e) None of these Ans (c)
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45 . Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point. (a) 4 feet (b) 5 feet (c) 24 feet (d) 25 feet (e) None of these Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 46 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
46 ENCOURAGE (a) ANGER (b) GREEN (c) USAGE (d) COURAGE (d) None of these Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
47. CONCENTRATE (a) CENTRE (b) CONCERN (c) TREAT (d) REASON (e) None of these Ans (d)
48. INTRANSIGENT (a) STAIN (b) TRAIN (c) RESIGN (d) TRACE (e) None of these Ans (d)
49. MAGNETIC (a) MENACE (b) GAIN (c) NAME (d) GAME (e) None of these Ans (a)
50 ENTHUSIASM (a) MITE
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(b) ASSIST (c) ATHENS (d) SENT (e) None of these Ans (b)
FCI current affairs questions and answer
1. This Sikkim high court Chief facing impeachment on charges of corruption and judicial misconduct resigned on 29 July 2011. Identify him. a. Justice PD Dinakaran b. Justice V Ramaswamy c. Justice Soumitra Sen d. Justice P C Joshi Answer: (a)
2. US credit rating was downgraded to__ from AAA by Standard & Poor’s. a) AA+ b) A c) A+ d) B+ Answer: (a)
3. Which Indian state on 11 August 2011 flagged off the first-ever consignment of certified organic food to be exported to the United States? a. Andhra Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu c. Rajasthan d. Arunachal Pradesh Answer: (c)
4. Tory Tan won the presidential election in Singapore to become the country’s___ President. a) Sixth b) Seventh c) Fifth d) Eighth Answer: (a)
5. The European Union on 2 September 2011 announced a ban on oil imports from Syria. The European Union is an economic and political union of __member states. a) 27 b) 22 c) 20 d) 16 Answer:(a)
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6. Leila Lopes became the first woman from her country to be crowned Miss Universe on 12 September 2011 in Sau Paulo, Brazil. Which country does she belong to? a. Ethupia b. Angola c. Ghana d. Nigeria Answer: (b)
7. Which one of the following nations declared the Indian Mujahideen terror group as a global terrorist organization? a) USA b) Pakistan c) China d) Australia Answer: (a)
8. Wangari Maathai an environmentalist & first African woman to win a Nobel Peace Prize died on 25 September 2011 in Nairobi. Which African country did she belong to? a. Ghana b. Kenya c. Euthopia d. South Africa Answer: (b)
9. World Tourism Day (WTD) is observed anually on 27 September. What was the theme for WTD 2011? a. Tourism – Linking Cultures b. Tourism & Biodiversity c. Tourism opens doors for women d. Sport and tourism Answer: (a)
10. IBSA summit concluded in Pretoria, South Africa. What is the full form of IBSA? a) India Brazil South America b) India Brazil South Africa c) India Brazil Saudi Arabia d) India Bangladesh South Africa Answer: (b)
11. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending? a. Carol Birch b. Patrick deWitt c. Julian Barnes d. AD Miller Answer: (c)
12. Name the Irish poet and human rights activist who was named Ireland’s ninth president on 30 October
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2011 after winning 57% of votes in the final count of the presidential election held on 27 October 2011. a. Michael D Higgins b. Mary McAleese c. Douglas Hyde d. Mary Robinson Answer: (a)
13. IAEA Report stated that Iran carried out Nuclear Weapons-Related Activities. Where the report was released? a) New Delhi b) New York c) London d) Vienna Answer: (d)
14. Recently, which one of the following nations was suspended by the Arab league? a) Syria b) Lebanon c) Saudi Arabia d) Jordan Answer: (a)
15. The Arab League on 27 November 2011 imposed a set of sanctions against Syria for its failure to comply with the League mediated peace plan to end violence in the country. When was Arab league set up? a) 22 March 1945 b) 21 august 1945 c) 22 March 1946 d) 22 September 1950 Answer: (a)
16. Memogate scandal is related to which one of the following countries? a) Pakistan b) Sri Lanka c) China d) India Answer: (a)
17. India and Pakistan on 25 January 2012 agreed to transit fee formula for Tapi gas pipeline project in New Delhi. Tasi gas pipeline project comprises a) India, Pakistan and Tajikistan b) India, Pakistan and Russia c) India, Pakistan and Iran d) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan Answer: (a)
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18. A massive avalanche claimed the life of more than hundred Pakistani soldiers on 9 April 2012. The incident occurred at which of the following places? a. Eastern Karakoram mountain range b. Southern Karakoram mountain range c. Northern Karakoram mountain range d. Southern Karakoram mountain range Answer: (a)
19. Who did the World Bank appoint as its new president on 16 April 2012? a. Jim Yong Kim b. Robert Zoellick c. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala d. Lumen Darcy Answer: (a)
20. Amadou Toumani Toure, who was ousted from his position following a military coup, was the president of ______a. Tunisia b. Azerbaijan c. Mali d. Maldives Answer: (c)
21. A team of Scientists led by Takehiko at Yokohama City University grew sperms in a test-tube. Consider the following statements regarding the scientific break through. (i) Sperms were grown in a Test-tube for the first time. (ii) The Scientific breakthrough could help millions of infertile men to attain parenthood. Now choose the right option: (a) Both i and ii statements are correct (b) Only i is correct (c) Only ii is correct (d) Both I and ii statements are wrong Answer: (a) Both i and ii statements are correct
22. Scientists, at the Wellcome Trust Sanger Institute UK, for the first time identified genetic mutations that lead to the development of acute myeloid leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is a cancer of the__. (a) White Blood Cells (WBC) (b) Red blood Cells (RBC) (c) Liver Cells (d) Stem Cells Answer: (a) White Blood Cells (WBC)
23. Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used to develop this kind
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of computer? (a) electrocortiography (b) symbian C++ (c) java (d) flash lite Answer: (a) electrocartiography
24. British Scientists at Edinburgh University, in the second week of April 2011, created human kidneys from stem cells in a break through which could lead to transplant patients growing their organs. Consider the following statements regarding Kidneys in human body. (i) A person’s kidneys process about 200 quarts of blood to sift out about 2 quarts of waste products and extra water. (ii) The word ‘’renal’ refers to the Lungs in Human Body. Choose the right option: (a) Both i and ii statements are correct. (b) Only i is correct. (c) Only ii is correct. (d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (b) Only i is correct. The word renal refers to the Lungs in Human body.
25. GSAT-8 was launched on 21 May 2011 by Ariane-5 from Kourou, French Guiana. Consider the following statements on GSAT-8. (i) Its weight is 3100 kg. (ii) It is the largest and heaviest satellite built by the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). Choose the right option. (a) Both i and ii are correct. (b) Only i is correct. (c) Only ii is correct. (d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct
26. India registered a __ per cent increase in tiger population in 2010, according to a report, Status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India-2010, released on 28 July 2011. (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 12 Answer: (a) 20
27. The world’s first double-leg transplant was performed by doctors in which one of the following countries? (a) Spain (b) UK (c) USA (d) India Answer: (a) Spain
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28. The WHO (World Health Organisation)’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) stated in its study that radiation from cellphone handsets is possibly carcinogenic to humans and can cause glioma. Glioma is a type of brain cancer. (a) Brain Cancer (b) Blood Cancer (c) Lung Cancer (d) Liver Cancer Answer: (a) Brain Cancer
29. China Successfully launched its first unmanned space laboratory. What is the name of this space laboratory? (a) Tiangong-1 (b) MEASAT-1 (c) ZY-2 (d) CH 726 Answer: (a) Tiangong-1
30. What is the name of the gene that can reduce the length of time people sleep? (a) ABCC9 (b) ACCB9 (c) ABCC 6 (d) ABBB9 Answer: (a) ABCC9
31. In Japan, rice with radiation levels exceeding the country’s safety levels was discovered for the first time since the nuclear disaster at Fukushima in early 2011. The acronym LASER stands for____. (a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation (b) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Rays (c) Light Amplified by Stimulated Emission of Radiation (d) Light and Sound emitted by Radiation Answer: (a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
32. Union Environment Ministry approved the Lavasa township project in Pune. Consider the following statements: (i) Lavasa is a private, planned city being built near Pune. (ii) The project is being developed by HCC ( Hindustan Construction Company). Choose the right option: (a) Both i and ii are correct. (b) Only i is correct. (c) Only ii is correct. (d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct
33. Arctic ozone hole was detected at record level. The journal nature reported. The ozone layer blocks _____from the Sun.
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(a) Infra-Red rays (b) Ultraviolet-B rays (c) Ultraviolet-C rays (d) X-rays Answer: (b) Ultraviolet-B rays
34. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____. (a) Pigeon Pea (b) Black-eyed Pea (c) Sweet Pea (d) Split Pea Answer: (a) Pigeon Pea
35. NASA's Kepler mission discovered the first Earth-size planets orbiting a sun-like star outside our solar system. These planets are called ___ and____. (a) Kepler-20e; Kepler-20f (b) Kepler-20a; Kepler-20b (c) Kepler-20c; Kepler-20d (d) Kepler-20m; Kepler-20n Answer: (a) Kepler-20e; Kepler-20f
36. Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory. (a) Mpas4 (b) Npas4 (c) Npas3 (d) Mpas2 Answer: (b) Npas4
37. As per the report compiled by British-based firm Maplecroft, which one of the following countries is top greenhouse gas emitter? (a) India (b) USA (c) China (d) Japan Answer: (c) China
38. Scientists produced artificial human semen to help infertile men. Consider the following statements: (i) The scientists grew the sperm by enveloping the germ cells in a special compound called agar jelly. (ii) The artificial human semen could help infertile men father their own children. Choose the right option: (a) Both i and ii are correct. (b) Only i is correct. (c) Only ii is correct. (d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct
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39. India registered a __ per cent increase in tiger population in 2010, according to a report, Status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India-2010, released on 28 July 2011. (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 12 Answer: (a) 20
40. A Japanese supercomputer, K Computer built by Fujitsu Co. grabbed the title of world's best-performing machine thereby returning Japan to the top of the computer arms race for the first time in seven years. Which is the other name by which K Computer is known? (a) Earth Simulator (b) Riken (c) Jaguar (d) Tianhe-1A
.41 A new strain of rice developed by the scientists, which can enhance the productivity in the soil that lacks a nutrient content. Name the nutrient, lack of which effects crop yield. (a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen (c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon Answer: (c) Phosphorous
42. Name the two planets that came together in the Western sky on 15 August 2012 after sunset. (a) Mars and Saturn (b) Earth and Mars (c) Jupiter and Saturn (d) Venus and Earth Answer: (a) Mars and Saturn
43. The identified singing mice that use songs to communicate are found in which region? (a) The Himalayan terrain (b) The tropical cloud forests in the mountains of Costa Rica (c) On the volcanic plates of Pacific (d) Greenland Answer: (b) The tropical cloud forests in the mountains of Costa Rica
44. Name the NASA’s Robert that has recently touched the surface of Mars (a) Rover Curiosity (b) Gale Crater (c) Martian home (d) Calif Answer: (a) Rover Curiosity
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45. Name the process that will be applied for transferring the gene of the newly developed Stained Rice to the modern variety of rice (a) Cross-Breeding (b) Genetic Engineering (c) Hybridization (d) None of these Answer: (a) Cross-Breeding
The Government has appointed ______as the next Chief of the Naval Staff. Ans: D. K. Joshi.
Major producer of mulberry silk in India is ______. Ans: Karnataka.
What does “PPP” represents? Ans: Private Public Partnership.
World Day against Child Labour is celebrated on _____ June every year. Ans: 12th.
Who has been appointed as Chairman of National Highways Authority of India? Ans: Rajinder Pal Singh.
2012 marks the _____ anniversary of the United Nations Environment programme and World Environment Day. Ans: 40th.
In _____, Independent India conducted its first elections. Ans: 1952.
When is National energy Conservation Day celebrated? Ans: 14th December.
In which year Dadasaheb Phalke Award was instituted? Ans: 1969.
Who has been appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner of India? Ans: V.S. Sampath.
World Telecommunication and Information Day, celebrated each year on _____ May. Ans: 17th.
French Open 2012 was the _____ edition of French Open. Ans: 111th.
Anti-Terrorism Day was observed on ______May.
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Ans: 21st.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit 2012 concluded in ______on 7 June 2012. Ans: Beijing.
Which country successfully test-fired the indigenously developed Hatf-VII (Babur) cruise missile on 5 June 2012? Ans: Pakistan.
Who assumed the charge as Chairman of the Competition Appellate Tribunal of India? Ans: Justice V.S. Sirpurkar.
The second BRICS Health Ministers meeting will be hosted by India in ______. Ans: November, 2012.
Who has elected as the President of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD)? Ans: Suma Chakrabarti.
Who has elected as the new Director General of International Labour Organization? Ans: Briton Guy Ryder.
Who took over as the 25th Chief of the Indian Army? Ans: Bikram Singh.
Who has been re-elected to the commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf for a five year term from 2012-17? Ans: Dr. S. Rajan.
Who has been conferred with an honorary degree by New York University’s Polytechnic Institute? Ans: Sam Pitroda.
Who is the President of Myanmar? Ans: Thein Sein.
Donna Summer has died at the age of 63 in Florida. Who was she? Ans: Singer.
At present who is the chief minister of Uttar Pradesh? Ans: Akhilesh Yadav.
Which country has own the 21st Sultan Azlan Shah Cup hockey tournament in Malaysia? Ans: New Zealand.
Dipika Kumari is a famous ______player. Ans: Archery.
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Who won the prestigious Ondaatje Prize 2012 for his book “The Sly Company of People Who Care”? Ans: Rahul Bhattacharya.
Who took over as France’s new Prime Minister on 16th May, 2012? Ans: Jean-Marc Ayrault.
Indian Grand Master Vishwanathan Anand retained the World Chess Title for the record fifth time by defeating ______. Ans: Boris Gelfand.
The Kabir Puraskar Scheme was introduced in _____. Ans: 1990.
International Level Crossing Awareness Day is observed on ______. Ans: 7th June.
India and which other country together accounted for a third of the deaths of pregnant women globally in 2010, as per latest UN data? Ans: Nigeria.
The Union Cabinet approved allowance at the rate of ______per month per head to the non-gazetted personnel of Andaman and Nicobar Police, recently. Ans: Rs 1697.
India test fired successfully its indigenously-developed surface-to-air missile from the integrated Test Range. Name it. Ans: Akash.
Which state government recently announced a ban on the manufacture and sale of gutka and pan masala, containing tobacco in the state with immediate effect? Ans: Kerala.
India and Myanmar signed how many agreements, including a $ 500 million credit line for border area development and air services? Ans: 12.
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has announced a new scheme under the MPLADS. Name the scheme. Ans: One MP-One Idea.
Which State Government’s plan to boost coastal tourism has received a shot in the arm as the Planning Commission has approved a 1,200-crore special grant for the project. Ans: Gujarat.
The ______meeting of the India-Kazakhstan Joint Working Group on Textiles took place on the 7-8th June, 2012 at Gurgaon.
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Ans: Third.
A MoU has been signed between India and which other country during the visit of Dr. C.P. Joshi to that country? Ans: Canada.
India and ______have unveiled the Open Government Platform to foster transparency by making government data, documents, tools and processes publicly available. Ans: United States.
Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports has approved the proposal worth how much for financial assistance under the scheme of Urban Sports Infrastructure, recently? Ans: Rs 23 Crore.
The Union Cabinet approved the proposal of the Ministry of Defence for mutual exchange of ______of land between UT of Chandigarh and IAF for expansion of Civil Air Terminal at Chandigarh Airport. Ans: 2.50 acres.
Which country has been ranked as the seventh top polluter mainly due to carbon emissions? Ans: Australia.
What is the amount that German government has approved as contribution for Afghan Army, recently? Ans: USD 190 million.
US President Barack Obama nominated ______as the country’s first ambassador to Myanmar in 22 years. Ans: Derek Mitchell.
NATO and Northrop Grumman Corporation signed a contract of what amount to set up a ground surveillance system? Ans: $ 1.7 billion.
Which is India’s rank in the World Bank’s latest survey on global trade logistics? Ans: 46th.
Which two Indian companies have been included in the ‘BrandZ list’ of the top 100 most valuable global brands 2012? Ans: ICICI Bank & Bharti Airtel.
Which country has been voted the worst place for women among 19 economies? Ans: India.
The Power Ministry has set a target of adding ______capacity in the current financial year. Ans: 18,000 MW.
IVRCL Ltd has bagged orders worth Rs 652.65 crore from the government of which state? Ans: Andhra Pradesh.
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Bharti Airtel’s customers will now be able to open no-frills savings account in which bank through their mobiles? Ans: Axis Bank.
CCI has approved the proposal of Nippon Life to acquire how much percentage of stakes in RCAML? Ans: 26 percent.
Demand of Gold in India has declined by how much percent during the first quarter of the current year? Ans: 29 percent.
Etihad Airways signed a code-share agreement with Safi Airways of _____ for seat booking in each other airlines. Ans: Afghanistan.
India’s food grain production is projected to grow by what percent in 2012-13. Ans: 0.8 percent.
Beni Prasad Verma has released a report entitled ‘A Roadmap for Research & Development and Technology’ for Indian Industry. Who is he? Ans: Union Minister for Steel.
India’s economic growth is likely to rise to _____ in 2013, according to the OECD. Ans: 7.7%.
IT spending by Indian Enterprises is expected to grow to ______according to research firm Gartner. Ans: Rs 1.91 lakh crore.
Growth in developing East Asia and Pacific is slowing and the region is expected to post how much percent expansion this year, according to the World Bank report? Ans: 7.6 percent.
The government has increased interest rates on SDS and State Provident Funds for the year 2012-13 to ______from ______recently. Ans: 8.8 percent, 8.6 percent.
Bharti Airtel has acquired stakes of how much percent in Qualcomm’s broadband wireless access (BWA) business in India for USD 165 million? Ans: 49 percent.
Which country has remained the world’s biggest producer of Magnesium since 1999? Ans: China.
Which company has bagged a $6 million order to supply 50 vestibule busses to Bangladesh Road Transport Corporation? Ans: Ashok Leyland Ltd.
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The UN has predicted a growth rate of ______rather than a ______for India in 2012. Ans: 6.7%, 7.7%.
Which company has supplied 100 ‘Falcon” busses to Ghana for $7.6 million? Ans: Ashok Leyland.
The government announced ______hike in support price of paddy to farmers at Rs 1,250 for the 2012-13 crop year (July-June). Ans: Rs 170/quintal.
Maruti Suzuki India Ltd decided to get into a merger with which company? Ans: Suzuki Power-train India Ltd.
The Union Government of India suspended VRS Natarajan. He was the head of which state-run defence enterprises? Ans: Bharat Earth Movers Limited.
According to the figures released by CGA, India’s fiscal deficit eased to how much percent of GDP? Ans: 5.7 percent.
For continuous technological up-gradation of export sectors, EPCG scheme has now been extended up to ______. Ans: 31st March, 2013.
What is the full form of ‘ECB’? Ans: External Commercial Borrowing.
How many new items are being added to Market Linked Focus Product Scheme? Ans: 46.
How many new items are being added to Focus Product Scheme (FPS) list? Ans: 110.
Who is the regulatory authority for Insurance business in India? Ans: IRDA.
The erstwhile UTI bank is presently known as ______. Ans: Axis Bank.
The term ‘deficit financing’ means the Government borrows the money from the _____. Ans: RBI.
What does the letter “F” denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in Banking world these days? Ans: Financial.
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What is the abbreviated name of the body/agency set up to boost foreign investments in India? Ans: FEMA.
What is the full form of FDI? Ans: Foreign Direct Investment.
FCI question for practice,FCI sample questions with answers,FCI questions with answers 1. Approximately how much HCN dose is harmful for animal feeding (A) 0-25 gm (B) 050 gm (C) 2•50 gm (D) 3-50 gm Answer:B
2. Due to which reason is the Napier Grass mixed with Cluster bean or Cowpea for feeding ? (A) Due to high crude fibre (B) Due to oxalic acid (C) Due to more carbohydrates (D) Due to more HCN content Answer:A
3. Which is the perennial variety of Elephant Grass (Napier Grass) ? (A) Pusa Giant (B) NB-21 ` (C) Pusa Giant Napier (D) Napier-1 Answer:C
4. More than how much percentage of loss of urea should not be during silage fermentation ? (A) 20% — 22% (B) 15% — 18% (C) 10% — 12% (D) 8% — 10% Answer:D
5. From where is Krishak Bharati magazine published ? (A) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pant Nagar (B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur (C) Narendra Dev University of Agriculture and Technology, Fajzabad (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology, Meerut Answer:B
6. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germination and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree Celsius ?
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(A) 3•5°C-5•5°C and 20°C—22°C (B) 5•6°C—7•5°C and 16°C—18°C (C) 8°C—10°C and 30°C—35°C (D) 10°C—12?C and 25°C—30°C Answer:D
7. In case of availability of two irrigations for wheat, at which critical stage crop should be irrigated ? (A) Tillering and Flowering
(B) Crown Root Initiation and Milking stage (C) Crown Root Initiation and Flowering (D) Late joint and Dough stage Answer:C
8. Which is not the symptom of Khuim disease (A) Dark grey colour spots on leaves (B) Adverse effect on root growth (C) More diseases stop the crop growth (D) Stem of plants tum and fall 1 down Answer:A
9. What is the suitable Rabi maize variety ? (A) Sharadmani (B) Azad Uttam (C) Naveen (D) Ganga — 5 Answer:A
10. Which disease is not related to Bajra ? (A) Green Ear (B) Ergot (C) Wilt (D) Rust Answer:C
11. A person of which of the following blood group can receive blood of any group? (A)A (B)AB (C)B (D)0
12. Evergreen type of forests are found in? (A) Equatorial climate (B) Monsoon climatic region (C) Desert regions (D) Mediterranean region
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13. What is the other name for River Gangas? (A) Sapthanadi (B) Bhageerathi (C) Savitri (D) Bhadravati
14. The earth is? (A)Spherical (B)Elliptical (C)Oblate spheroid (D) Pralate spheroid
15. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units? (A) Length, mass and velocity (B) Length, time and velocity (C) Mass, time and velocity (D) Length, time and mass
16 Which of the following is / are the main agents of soil erosion? (A) Wind and water (B) Rocks (C) Sand (D) High temperature and humidity
17. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of India? (A) Sharad Pawar (B) Ran Vilas Paswan (C) Shiv Raj Patil (D) None of these
18. Monsoon is caused by? (A) Revolution of Earth (B) Movement of Clouds (C) Seasonal reversal of the winds (D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land temperature
19. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet? (A) Omega (B) Sigma (C) Zeta (D) Chi
20. Which is the birth place of Hitler? (A) Germany (B) Hungary
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(C) Austria (D) France
21. Who elects President of India? (A) Lock Sabha (B) Rajya Sahha (C) People of India (D) Parliament and State Assemblies
22. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’? (A)Britain (B) Spain (C)France (D) Scotland
23. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas? (A) Kathasaritsagar (B) Meghdutam (C) Raghuvansham (D) Pushpavan Vikasam
24. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in thePresidential elections if? (A) he himself is a candidate (B) he is yet to prove his majority in the State legislature (C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature (D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
25. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house? (A) Whenever he desires (B) Whenever the house desires (C) In the event of equality of votes (D) Whenever his party directs
26. which of the following is not a cash crop? (A)Jute (B) Paddy (C)Cashew-nut (D) Rubber
27. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of theBin Laden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia? (A) Star Asia (B) B. B. C. Asia (C) Al Jazeera (D) Khaleed Times
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28. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of? (A) Nepal (B) U. K. (C) Spain (D) Japan
29. Who was Karl Marx’s main collaborator on his famous works? (A) V.I. Lenin (B) Max Weber (C) Fredrick Engels (D) Joseph Stalin
30. Which is the first Asian country to host the CommonwealthGames? (A) South Korea (B) Japan (C)Malaysia (D) China 31. How many factors are identified for influencing plant growth till now ? (A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 52 (D) 50 Answer:C
32, How does the moisture stress affect the cell (A) Affect cell division (B) Affect cell expansion (C) Cell mortality rate is affected (D) No effect on cell Answer:A
33. At the vegetative growth stage, flowering is stopped in food-grain crops, known as- (A) sigmoid growth curve (B) determinate growth (C) indeterminate growth (D) grand growth period Answer:B
34. Which one of the following can be assessed by using the following equation ? A= Economic Production / Biomass Production (A) Panicle emergence rate (B) Rate of flowering (C) Harvest Index (D) Leaf production rate Answer:C
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35. How much radiation energy percentage radiating on plant is used in photosynthesis ? (A) 0-50%-210% (B) 0-42%-1•66% (C) 0-25%-0-30% (D) 0-16%-0-24% Answer:B
36. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in- (A) 12-15 weeks (B) 15-17 weeks (C) 10-12 weeks (D) 8-10 weeks Answer:A
37. Which is not an inorganic matter in the following ? (A) Magnesium (B) Iron (C) Fat (D) Iodine Answer:C
38. Which is the highest digestible protein non-leguminous crop among the following (A) Napier (B) Maize silage (C) Maize (D) Iowar Answer:D
39. Which disease occurs, when more sorghum is consumed ? (A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Nightblindness (D) Pellagra Answer:D
40. Which Sorghum variety is not multicut ? (A) Pusa Chari-2 (B) M.P. Chari-2 (C) M.P. Chari (D) U.P. Chari-1 Answer:D
41. Which is not true in relation to Bajra ? ‘ (A) Penniseturn typhoides (B) Graminae family
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(C) Chromosome No. – 20 (D) OriginAfrica Answer:D
42. Which variety of Barley is husk-less (A) Pragati (K 508) (B) Ritambhara (K 551) (C) Geetamjali (K 1149) (D) Karan-3 Answer:D
43. Which is not true in relation to Gram ? (A) Subfamily——Papilionaceae (B) Chromosome No.—22 (C) Acid——Ma.lic and Oxalic (D) Origin—North America Answer:D
44. Which does not match in relation to Cotton ? (A) C-520 —— Diploid (B) G-27 — Diploid (C) Vikas — American (D) Ranivan — American Answer:D
45. Which is not matched in relation to sugarcane ? (A) Seed treatment—-Aglol 3% (B) For seed—6-7 month old crop (C) Sowing—Upper portion is more used (D) After flowering—Used for sowing Answer:D
46. Which is not basic principle of Agronomy ? (A) To select appropriate materials for seed & sowing (B) Management of soil and climate (C) Appropriate intercropping activities management for crop (D) Livestock management for Agriculture Answer:D
47. Where and when was World Meteorological Organization established ? (A) New York – 1980 (B) Washington-1978 (C) Geneva—1978 (D) Rome- 1976 Answer:C
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48. Effective cause of atmospheric pressure is not- (A) temperature (B) altitude from the sea level (C) rotation of earth (D) soil erosion Answer:D
49. Which is not correct in the following ? (A) X-rays and Gamma rays — 9% of energy (B) Visible lighting rays -41% of energy (C) Infrared rays -50% of Y energy (D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% of energy Answer:A
50. Match List-I with List•II and select the correct answer using the codes given below- List-I (a) Paddy (b) Wheat (c) Maize (d) Groundnut List-II ’ 1. 20°C 2. 22°C 3. 25°C 4. 26°C Codes (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 Answer:B
Directions (Q. 1-5) In a certain code the symbol for 0 (zero) is • and that for 1 is *. There are no other symbols for numbers and all numbers greater than 1 are written using these two symbols only, the value of the symbol for 1 doubling itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Thus 0 is written • 1 is written * 2 is written * • 3 is written * * 4 is written *•• and so on
1. If *** is multiplied by **, the product will be (1) * • * • * (Ans) (2) * * • • *
(3) * • • * * (4) • * * * * (5) * • • • *
2. Which of the following will represent 20% of 45 in that code ? (1) * * * *
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(2) * * * (3) * • • * (Ans) (4) * * • * (5) * * * •
3. Which of the following stands for 7 in that code ? (1) * * * * * * * (2) * • * • * • * (3) * * • (4) * • • * (5) * * * (Ans)
4. If * * • is added to * • * *, the sum will be (1) * * * * * (2) * • • • * (Ans) (3) * * • • * (4) * • • * * (5) * * * • * 5. Which of the following numbers is written as * •* • in that code? (1) 8080 (2) 202 (3) 42 (4) 10 (Ans) (5) 9 6. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) Jasmine (2) Rose (3) Dahlia (4) Marigold (5) Lotus (Ans) 7. ‘Jackal’ is related to ‘Carnivorous’ in the same way as ‘Goat is related to (1) Omnivorous (2) Carnivorous (3) Herbivorous (Ans) (4) Multivorous (5) None of these 8. If blue is called red, red is called green ,green is called black and black is called white, what is he colour of grass ? (1) red (2) black (Ans) (3) white (4) green (5) None of these 9. In a certain code RAID is written as % # * $, RIPE is written as % * @ ©. How is DEAR written in the code (1) @©#% (2) $@#% (3) @$#% (4) $©#% (Ans) (5) None of these 10. ‘Radish’ is related to ‘Root’ in the same way as ‘Brinjal’ is related to (1) Fruit (Ans) (2) Stem (3) Flower (4) Root (5) None of these Directions (Q. 11-19) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
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Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data even in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and Ii together are necessary to answer the question. 15. How many children are there in the group?
I. Sangita has scored more marks than 12 children in the group. II. Reena has scored less than Sangita. (Ans. (4) Both the statements are not sufficient to give answer.) 16. What is the value of 36$4*8 ? I. P$Q means divide P by Q. II. A*B means multiply A by B. (Ans. (5) From statements I and II,) 17. What is Samir’s rank form the top in the class of 30 students? I. Sudhir, who is four ranks above Samir, is fifteenth in rank from the bottom. II. Samir is three ranks below Neeta who is eighteenth form the bottom. (Ans. (3) From statements I,) 18. Who among L, N, F, G and Q was the first to reach the college ? I. F reached before L and G but not before Q who was not the first to reach. II. N reached before F and G and L reached after F. (Ans. (1) From statements I,) 19. In the code language what is the code for ‘fat’ ? I. In the code language ‘she is fat’ is written as ‘he ra ca.’ II. In the same code language ‘fat boy’ is written as ‘ra ka’. (Ans. (5) From statements I,) Directions (Q. 20-170) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer (1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect. Mark answer (2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect. Mark answer (3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes. Mark answer (4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes. Mark answer (5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common causes. 20. A. Large numbers of primary schools in the villages in the district are closed down this year. B. Severe draught situation gripped the state resulting into acute shortage of drinking water. (Ans. (4)) 21. A. Govt. has imposed a strict ban on use of plastic products are on the verge of closure. B. All the small scale units producing plastic products products are on the verge of closure. (Ans. (1)) 22. A. Police had launched a crackdown on all the criminal activities in the locality last month. B. There has been a significant decline in the cases of criminal activities in the locality. (Ans. (1))
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23. A. Large number of devotees visited the shrine on Saturday. B. Every Saturday special prayers are offered. (Ans. (2)) 24 A. The Village Panchayats in the state are empowered by the Gov.to settle cases of land disputes in the villages. B. There has been significant reduction in the number of criminal cases in the district court. (Ans. (4)) Directions (Q. 25-29) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Digit : 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9 Code: F K R L D T G H B Following conditions are to be applied: (i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as X. (ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, both are to be coded as A (iii) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as the code for last digit. (iv) If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as the code for the first digit. Applying above conditions you have to find out the correct code for the number in each question and indicate your answer accordingly. If none of the codes is correct, (5) ie. None of these is your answer. 25. 364289 (1) BTDLHB (2) FTDLHB (3) FTDLHF (Ans) (4) BTDLHF (5) None of these 26. 521437 (1) KLGDFK (Ans) (2) RLGDFR
(3) KLGDFR (4) KLDGFK
(5) None of these
27. 392648 (1) ALBTDA (2) XBLTDA
(3) XBLTDX (4) ABLTDA (Ans)
(5) None of these 28. 279654
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(1) LRBTKD (2) LRBTKL (3) DRBTKL (4) DRTBKD (5) None of these 29. 725638 (1) ALKTFH (2) ALKTFA (3) XLKTFX (4) XLKTFH (5) None of these
Directions (Q. 30-1) In the following questions the symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with different meanings as follows: ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’. ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. Give answer (5) it both conclusions I and II are true. 30. Statements G # H, H $ K, K @ M Conclusions I. M # G II. G & M 31. Statements F $ D, H # M, M % D Conclusions I. F $ H II. F @ H 32. Statements R & M, M # L, L $ Q Conclusions I. M % Q II. M @ Q 33. Statements F # R, Q $ R, Q & M Conclusions I. F # Q II. R & M 34. Statements D & T, R # T, R $ M Conclusions I. M & T II. M % T 35. Statements E % H, H $ M, M # Q Conclusions I. H $ Q II. E $ M 36. Statements S # A, S @ T, L & T Conclusions I. L & A II. S @ L
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37. Statements G $ J, J @ K, K % N Conclusions I. G @ N II. G % N Directions (Q. 38-) These questions are based on the following arrangement of numerals, symbols and letters. W T D I 5 M K % L $ 3 7 F E B # 1 G H A © @ J U V 2 4 38. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately precede by a letter ? (1) BTDLHB (2) FTDLHB (3) FTDLHF (Ans) (4) BTDLHF (5) None of these 39. If KL : $7, then B1 : ? (1) GA (2) H © (3) GH (4) © J (5) None of these 40. If all the vowels are dropped from the arrangement, which element will be fifth to the right of the thirteenth element form the right? (1) H (2) G (3) A
(4) 1 (5) None of these In each of the following questions a number series is given which has only one wrong number. You have to find out the wrong number.
41. 7.5 47.5 87.5 157.5 247.5 357.5 487.5
(1) 357.5 (2) 87.5 (3) 157.5 (4) 7.5 (5) 47.5 (Ans)
42. 1500 1581 1664 1749 1833 1925 2016
(1) 1581 (2) 1664 (3) 1833 (Ans) (4) 1925 (5) 1749
43. 1331 2197 3375 4914 6859 9261 12167
(1) 4914 (Ans) (2) 6859 (3) 9261 (4) 2197 (5) 12167
44. 13 16 21 27 39 52 69
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(1) 21 (2) 39 (3) 27 (Ans) (4) 52 (5) 16
45. 66 91 120 153 190 233 276
(1) 120 (2) 233 (Ans) (3) 153 (4) 276 (5) 190 What will come in place of the question marks (?) in the following questions?
46. 22.5 Χ 0.05 = ?
(1) 11.25 (2) 1.125 (Ans) (3) 22.55 (4) 112.5 (5) None of these
47. 999 + 111 Χ 0.5 = ?
(1) 555 (2) 500 (3) 1054.5 (Ans) (4) 1110.5 (5) None of these
48. 40% of 250 = 50% of ?
(1) 200 (Ans) (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 400 (5) None of these
49. (4)? = 1024
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these (Ans)
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50. ½ +¼ + ¾ + 2/3 = ?
(1) 2 1/5 (2) 1/16 (3) 2 1/16 (4) 2 1/6 (Ans) (5) None of these
FCI aptitude reasoning general studies history gk current affairs questions with answers, FCI previous years solved questions papers, FCI free solved sample placement papers, FCI model question papers, FCI these question are only sample placement papers not correct matching or original papers.FCI practice papers only,FCI reasoning general studies general ability questions FCI practice papers 1. Which of the following countries is not a member of the elite league of six nations that have nuclear- powered submarines? a. China b. India c. Germany d. UK
2. Who amongst the following has been awarded the prestigious 'Dadasaheb Phalke award' for the year 2012? a. Manna Dey b. Soumitra Chatterjee c. VK Murthy d. K Balachander
3. Tiger Woods' former swing coach, Hank Haney, has written a book about his time working with the golfer. The name of the book is: a. The Lord of the Rings b. Rules of Attraction c. Strong Motion d. The Big Miss
4. The Titanic, with 2,200 people on board, departed from which of the following British ports on 10 April 1912, for its fateful voyage from Europe to the US? a. Port of Southampton b. Port of Barrow c. Port of Swansea d. Port of Immingham
5. According to a report from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), which country is the secondlargest weapons importer? a. Pakistan b. India c. China d. South Korea
6. The Para Athletics National Championship 2012 was held in: a. Hyderabad b. Gurgaon c. Bhopal d. Bengaluru
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7. Who among the following politicians has been declared the winner of the prestigious ‘International Jurists Award-2012’? a. Sheila Dixit b. Nitish Kumar c. Narendra Modi d. Mulayam Singh Yadav
8. Oil has been discovered for the first time in which East African nation recently? a. Kenya b. Tanzania c. Burundi d. Uganda
9. Who among the following is the surprise choice of US President Barack Obama for the post of World Bank president? a. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala b. Jim Yong Kim c. Jose Antonio Ocampo d. Robert Zoellick
10. After WWE wrestler Great Khali, who is the second sportsperson keen on opening a cricket academy in Himachal Pradesh? a. Suresh Raina b. Yuvraj Singh c. Mahendra Singh Dhoni d. Harbhajan Singh
11. To promote institutional deliveries, create awareness and ‘responsibility towards health’ in pregnant women, which of the following states has recently introduced the ‘Surakshit Maa' and ‘Swasth Maa' awards? a. Bihar b. Haryana c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi
12. The Prime Minister has appointed a panel on the feasibility of executing the controversial Sethusamudram project through Dhanuskodi instead of routing it through Rama Sethu. The committee is headed by: a. Vandana Shiva b. Ashok Khosla c. T Srinivasa Rao d. RK Pachauri
13. The Ladakh International Film Festival (LIFF), the fi rst international fi lm festival in Ladakh and the highest-altitude fi lm festival at 13,500 feet above sea level, will begin from: a. 15 June 2012 b. 29 March 2012 c. 15 April 2012 d. 29 May 2012
14. Ms Tawakul Karman, titled the ‘Mother of the Revolution’, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2011. She belongs to: a. Kenya b. Liberia c. Yemen d. Morocco
15. The first World Sparrow Day was celebrated (in 2010) across the globe to celebrate the beauty of the house sparrow. The World Sparrow Day is observed on: a. 21 March b. 20 March c. 5 January d. 27 January
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16. The ‘Pudhu Vazvu Thittam' scheme has been launched in which of the following states with the aim of improving livelihood activities of the poorest of the poor, differently abled, destitute widows, and orphaned women? a. Tamil Nadu b. Kerala c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh
17. Who has been chosen for the Chameli Devi Jain award? a. Shailaja Bajpai b. Aruna Sharma c. Tusha Mittal d. Shahina K.K
18. Which Indian NGO was selected for the US' fi rst ‘Innovation Award for the Empowerment of Women and Girls’ for training and organising wastepickers and eliminating child labour from recycling? a. Pahal b. Smile foundation c. HelpAge India d. Chintan
19. Who among the following is the current Director-General of the United Nations Educational Scientifi c and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)? a. Irina Bokova b. Luther Evans c. Koïchiro Matsuura d. Federico Mayor Zaragoza
20. Tihar Prison became the fi rst jail in the country to attain near total literacy among inmates. Which of the following programmes has been launched in Tihar jail in collaboration with the National Literacy Mission? a. 'Aao Padhein' b. 'Padho aur Padhao’ c. 'Padhana Likhana Sikho' d. 'Aao Sakshar Bane'
21. Which of the following social activists recently became a part of the ‘Global March to Jerusalem' to uphold secularism in the region? a. Swami Agnivesh b. Sri Sri Ravi Shankar c. Anna Hazare d. Medha Patkar
22. Recently, which of the following countries qualified for the silver medal in the women's 4x400m relay of the last Asian athletics championships due to the disqualifi cation of athletes from Kazakhstan and Iraq? a. Sri Lanka b. Pakistan c. India d. China
23. 'Malabar 2012' is an annual naval exercise between India and: a. Japan b. Russia c. France d. USA
24. Which of the following countries has topped the list of 27 MDR-TB high-burden countries worldwide? a. India b. Bangladesh c. China d. Pakistan
25. The Union Minister for Rural Development, Drinking Water and Sanitation, Jairam Ramesh, has
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announced a national award for sanitation and water - in the name of: a. Sant Gadge Baba b. Sant Vadiraja Tirtha c. Sant Variyar Swamigal d. Swami Yogaswami
1. (c) Germany 2. (b) Soumitra Chatterjee 3. (d) The Big Miss 4. (a) Port of Southampton 5. (c) China 6. (d) Bengaluru 7. (d) Mulayam Singh Yadav 8. (a) Kenya 9. (b) Jim Yong Kim 10. (c) Mahendra Singh Dhoni 11. (b) aryana 12. (d) RK Pachauri 13. (a) 15 June 2012 14. (c) Yemen 15. (a) 21 March 16. (a) Tamil Nadu 17. (c) Tusha Mittal 18. (d) Chintan 19. (a) Irina Bokova 20. (b) 'Padho aur Padhao' 21. (a) Swami Agnivesh 22. (c) India 23. (d) USA 24. (c) China 25. (a) Sant Gadge Baba
BUSINESS & INDUSTRY
1. 'Phaeton' is a full-size luxury sedan launched by: a. Audi b. Volkswagen c. BMW d. Daimler
2. Global private equity major Warburg Pincus has sold its 3.6% stake in which bank for about Rs.1,400 crore? a. HDFC Bank b. Kotak Mahindra Bank c. ICICI Bank d. Yes Bank
3. Tatra is a. A vehicle manufacturer from the Czech Republic b. A drug that increases the life expectancy of the elderly c. A new variety of Bt Cotton developed by Monsanto d. A new operating system developed by Samsung
4. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established to facilitate development of countries in Asia. It is headquartered in: a. Singapore b. Philippines c. Japan d. Malaysia
5. Recently, the state-owned Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd (KIOCL), signed a contract for exploration, development, and mining in the Akjoujt Iron Ore project at Mauritania in West Africa, with which of the following companies? a. Curve Capital Ventures b. South African Mining c. Talvivaara Mining Company Plc d. North Bay Resources Inc
6. Which of the following server chips has recently been launched by Intel Corp? a. 64-bit ARM server chip b. Opteron 6200 c. Opteron 4200 d. Xeon E5-2600
7. Which of the following countries is India’s second largest supplier of crude oil - against which western
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countries have imposed sanctions? a. Iraq b. Iran b. Russia d. Saudi Arabia
8. Who is the current chairman and chief executive offi cer of Pepsico? a. John Compton b. Pamela Culpepper c. Indira K Nooyi d. Josh Luis Parado
9. Which IT company has launched the 'MyEdu tablet' in India? a. HCL b. Wipro c. Dell d. Samsung
10. Which of the following California-based companies has recently been acquired by chipmaker AMD for $334 million? a. Antec b. SeaMicro c. Intel d. Memorex
11. Which motorcycle company has launched its gearless scooter portfolio with the launch of the Swish 125? a. Suzuki Motors b. Hero MotoCorp c. Bajaj Motorcycles d. Honda Motorcycles
12. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) recently launched a single premium plan called: a. Jeevan Chhaya b. Jeevan Nidhi c. Jeevan Vriddhi d. Jeevan Saathi
13. Kobelco Cranes India Pvt. Ltd (KCI), which is a part of the Kobelco Cranes Company, has commenced production at its hydraulic crane manufacturing in Andhra Pradesh. This company belongs to: a. South Korea b. Germany c. Japan d. Sweden
14. AP Choudhary is the current Chairman-cum-Managing Director of: a. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) b. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) c. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) d. Gas Authority of India Ltd. (GAIL)
15. Which of the following state governments has decided to give cycles to the girls studying in Classes XI and XII under the 'Mai Bhago Vidya scheme'? a. Punjab b. Haryana c. West Bengal d. Himachal Pradesh
16. To improve corporate governance, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has constituted a committee headed by: a. Kiran Majumdar Shaw b. Adi Godrej c. Sidharth Birla d. MK Chanu
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17. The Indian Government has imposed anti-dumping duty for fi ve years on imports of phosphoric acid from Israel and: a. China b. Canada c. South Korea d. Taiwan
18. A unique scheme, titled ‘Master Health Card', of the Rahbar Group of Companies, was launched in: a. Andhra Pradesh b. Uttar Pradesh c. Karnataka d. New Delhi
19. According to the International Air Transport Association (IATA), India recently experienced the second- strongest domestic air traffi c growth (at 12.3%) among the major domestic markets in the world after: a. USA b. Brazil c. Saudi Arabia d. Russia
20. Who is the current Director General of the World Trade Organisation? a. Pascal Lamy b. Supachai Panitchpakdi c. Mike Moore d. Renato Ruggiero
21. Which telecom company has selected ZTE Corporation to plan, design, supply, and deploy its 4G network in Kolkata? a. Idea b. Bharti Airtel c. Reliance d. BSNL
22. The GSM Association has said that 3G mobile connections in India are expected to grow to more than 10 crore by 2014 - the highest in the world - while India would become the second largest mobile broadband market globally within the next four years after: a. USA b. South Korea c. UK d. China
23. 'Mini Countryman' is a SUV car launched by: a. Hyundai b. BMW c. Volkswagen d. Toyota
24. Which of the following countries is the world's most nuclear-dependent country, deriving 75% of its electricity needs from 58 reactors and has been a leading international proponent of atomic energy? a. France b. Canada c. Sweden d. Japan
25. Pratt & Whitney is an aerospace manufacturer and leading supplier of aerospace engines, space propulsion systems, and industrial gas turbines. Its headquarters are located in: a. France b. UK c. Canada d. USA
26. Which of the following railway stations has bagged the ‘Best Tourist Friendly Railway Station' award for 2010-11? a. Madgaon railway station b. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Mumbai c. New Delhi Railway Station d.
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Mangalore railway station
27. Who among the following is the current Chairman and CEO of General Motors? a. Daniel F Akerson b. Edward Whitacre c. Frederick Henderson d. Stephen J Girsky
28. Cochin International Airport Limited (CIAL) has a joint venture with which of the following country's aeronautical manufacturing company, 'Aerostar'? a. Italy b. Germany c. Romania d. South Africa
29. Which of the following motor companies will launch a new bike in 250cc categories under Korean brand 'Hyosung'? a. Garware Motors b. TVS Motors c. LML d. Honda Motors
30. US-based New York Life has recently sold its 26% stake in Max New York Life Insurance to which of the following insurance companies for Rs.2,731 crore? a. Aviva b. Mitsui Sumitomo Insurance (MSI) c. MetLife d. American International Group (AIG)
1. (b) Volkswagen 2. (b) Kotak Mahindra Bank 3. (a) A vehicle manufacturer from the Czech Republic 4. (b) Philippines 5. (a) Curve Capital Ventures 6. (d) Xeon E5-2600 7. (b) Iran 8. (c) Indira K Nooyi 9. (a) HCL 10. (b) SeaMicro 11. (a) Suzuki Motors 12. (c) Jeevan Vriddhi 13. (a) Japan 14. (b) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) 15. (a) Punjab 16. (b) Adi Godrej 17. (d) Taiwan 18. (a) Andhra Pradesh 19. (b) Brazil20. (a) Pascal Lamy 21. (b) Bharti Airtel 22. (d) China 23. (a) BMW 24. (a) France 25. (d) USA 26. (c) New Delhi Railway Station 27. (a) Daniel F Akerson 28. (c) Romania 29. (a) Garware Motors 30. (b) Mitsui Sumitomo Insurance (MSI)
Indian Hisotry questions 1The father of the history: Herodotus
2In which year Alexander invaded India In 326 B.C
3The period of unrecorded history is known as: Pre Historic Age
4Which Indian king put up tough residence and fights against Alexander? Porus of Panjab
5The thing Neanderthal man accidentally discovered: Fire
6The superior type of human being compared top the Neanderthal:
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The Co-Magnon
7The greatest king of Mesopotamia who gave his subject a code of laws: Hammurabi
The ancient people who invented the writing of Cuneiform: The Sumerians
What was the king of ancient Egypt? The Pharaoh
The preserved dead body of the ancient Egyptians is called: Mummies
The greatest pyramid: Khufu
The great temple of ancient Egyptians which was dedicated to the Sun God: The temple of Abu Simbel
The ancient Egyptians script which means”Scared Writing “: Hieroglyphic
Which was the major Chinese states exit in third centuries BC? Chin, Chu, Ehi
The Chinese ruler who built the Great Wall of China: Shih-Hwang-Ti
The dynasty which ruled china for nearly 400 years? Han
A religious leader and philosopher who lived in china about 500 BC Confucius
The ancient people who invented Seismograph The Chinese
The most powerful leader in Persia in the 6th century B.C: Cyrus
The founder of the religion, Zoroastrianism: Zoroaster
The god of Parsees was called: Ahura Mazda
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The most famous Greek poet: Homer
The important Epics of the Greeks: Iliad and odyssey
What were the most important city states in ancient Greece? Athens and Sparta
What is meant by oligarchy? The rule by a few rich men
The most famous ruler of the ancient Athens: Pericles
The great Greek women who sang on the beauty of love and nature: Sappho
The great lyric poet who wrote poem to honors the victorious Greek athletes? Pindar
The founder of tragedy drams: Aeschylus
The greatest of Greek tragedians: Sophocles’
The most famous philosophers of ancient Greece: Socrates, Plato and Aristotle
The most famous student of Socrates: Plato
Name of the civilization that become most advanced in the middle age: Arab
When did the barbarian conquer Rome? A.D 455
Where did the feudalism first originate? Europe
The language of learning the middle ages: Latin
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The Frist University is started at: Paris
•Which subject is called the queen of science in the middle ages? Theology
• What was the source of power in feudal society? Land
• In the mid-level times there were three different kinds of guilds-craftsmen and religious were two what was third? Merchants
• The Dark Age is supposed to have ended in: AD 1453
• What marked end of ancient age and beginning of modern age? The destruction of Roman Empire
• The city remained a Christian center of civilization: Constantinople
• Constantinople was captured by the: Turks
• In feudalism, the persons who held the land was called: Vassal
• Who formed the base of feudal society? The serfs
• The growth of christen organization was one of the most significant development of the: The Middle age
• Who conducted a crusade against luxury and idleness of monks? St.Bernard
• Who gave a set of rules for government of monastic order? St Basil
• What are the best specimens of architecture in the middle ages? The Churches
• The year which Prophet Muhammad died: AD 632
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• Who expanded Muslim dominion to Syria, Egypt Mesopotamia and Persia? Umar
• Who was the first caliph? Abu-Bakr
• Kufa is in modern: Iraq
The great temple of ancient Egyptians which was dedicated to the Sun God: The temple of Abu Simbel
The ancient Egyptians script which means”Scared Writing “: Hieroglyphic
Which was the major Chinese states exit in third centuries BC? Chin, Chu, Ehi
The Chinese ruler who built the Great Wall of China: Shih-Hwang-Ti
The dynasty which ruled china for nearly 400 years? Han
A religious leader and philosopher who lived in china about 500 BC Confucius
The ancient people who invented Seismograph The Chinese
The most powerful leader in Persia in the 6th century B.C: Cyrus
The founder of the religion, Zoroastrianism: Zoroaster
The god of Parsees was called: Ahura Mazda
The most famous Greek poet: Homer
The important Epics of the Greeks: Iliad and odyssey
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What were the most important city states in ancient Greece? Athens and Sparta
What is meant by oligarchy? The rule by a few rich men
The most famous ruler of the ancient Athens: Pericles
The great Greek women who sang on the beauty of love and nature: Sappho
The great lyric poet who wrote poem to honors the victorious Greek athletes? Pindar
The founder of tragedy drams: Aeschylus
The greatest of Greek tragedians: Sophocles’
The most famous philosophers of ancient Greece: Socrates, Plato and Aristotle
The most famous student of Socrates: Plato
1. The statue of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola was built by— Chandragupta Maurya Kharvela Amoghavarsha Chamundaraya Ans : (D)
2. ‘Live well, as long as you live. Live well even by borrowings, for once cremated, there is no return’. The rejection of after life is an aphorism of the— Kapalika sect Sunyavada of Nagarjun Ajivikas Charvakas Ans : (D)
3. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development ? Dharma-Artha-Kama-Moksha Brahmana-Kshatriya-Vaishya-Shudra Brahmacharya-Grihasthashrama-Vanaprastha-Sanyasa
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Indra-Surya-Rudra-Marut Ans : (C)
4. The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was— Amritsar Patiala Lahore Kapurthala Ans : (C)
5. In the Gandhara sculptures the preaching mudra associated with the Buddha's First Sermon at Sarnath is— Abhaya Dhyana Dharmachakra Bhumisparsa Ans : (C)
6. The name of the poet Kalidas is mentioned in the— Allahabad pillar inscription Aihole inscription Alapadu grant Hanumakonda inscription Ans : (B)
7. Zero was invented by— Aryabhatta Varahamihira Bhaskara I An unknown Indian Ans : (D)
8. Which one of the following important trade centres of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi ? Tagara Sripura Tripuri Tamralipti Ans : (A)
9. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary Alliance was— The Nawab of Oudh The Nizam of Hyderabad Peshwa Baji Rao II The king of Travancore Ans : (B)
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10. Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama is invariably a— Brahmana Kshatriya Vaishya Shudra Ans : (A)
11. Toramana belonged to the ethnic horde of the— Scythians Hunas Yue-chis Sakas Ans : (B)
12. Who among the following is said to have witnessed the reigns of eight Delhi Sultans ? Ziauddin Barani Shams-i-siraj Afif Minhaj-us-siraj Amir Khusrau Ans : (D)
13. The first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state was— Alauddin Khilji Feroz Tughlaq Akbar Aurangzeb Ans : (C)
14. Who among the following ladies wrote a historical account during the Mughal period ? Gulbadan Begum Noorjahan Begum Jahanara Begum Zebun-nissah Begum Ans : (A)
15. The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the— Portuguese Dutch French Danish Ans : (B)
16. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are— Buddhist Buddhist and Jain
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Hindu and Jain Hindu, Buddhist and Jain Ans : (D)
17. The significance of the Bengal Regulation of 1793 lies in the fact that— It provided for the establishment of the Supreme court It restricted the application of English law to Englishmen only It accommodated the personal laws of Hindus and Muslims It provided for the appointment of the Indian Law Commission Ans : (C)
18. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in— Afghanistan Turkey Mongolia Persia Ans : (C)
19. Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world ? Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram Jama Masjid, Delhi Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tuglaq, Delhi Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur Ans : (D)
20. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers— In the Gupta administration In the Chola administration In the Vijaynagar administration In the Maratha administration Ans : (D)
21. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by— Mahayana Buddhism Hinayana Buddhism Jainism The Lokayata School Ans : (C)
22. Which one of the following territories was not affected by the revolt of 1857 ? Jhansi Jagdishpur Lucknow Chittor Ans : (D)
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23. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Battle of Buxar— Mir Jafar Vs Clive Battle of Wandiwash—French Vs East India Company Battle of Chelianwala—Dalhousie Vs Marathas Battle of Kharda—Nizam Vs East India Company Ans : (B)
24. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by— The Greeks The Romans The Chinese The Arabs Ans : (A)
25. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by— The Portuguese The French The Danish The British Ans : (A)
Current affairs 2012 August 1 August, 2012 • Union government notified a law permitting investments by Pakistan citizens and companies in India in sectors/activities other than defence, space and atomic energy
• US administration announced to impose sanctions on any institution that his administration suspected of engaging in trade with Iran including Chinese banks
• Somalia’s Constituent Assembly endorsed a draft constitution billed as a key step to ending decades of civil war
2 August, 2012 • Deputy Attorney General of Pakistan, Khurshid Khan was sacked after earning the ire of lawyers for performing voluntary service at Hindu and Sikh shrines in India
• Russian President Vladimir Putin met British Prime Minister David Cameron on the sidelines of the London Olympics. The two leaders agreed that they have differing point of views over Syria
• Egypt’s President Mohamed Morsi swore in Cabinet that retained military chief Field Marshal Mohamed Hussein Tantawi as Defence Minister
3 August, 2012 • Pakistan’s Supreme Court scrapped the government’s new contempt law, which seek immunity for the legislators from contempt law
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• Russia regretted resignation of United Nations-Arab League envoy for Syria Kofi Annan’s and pledged continued support to his plan for ending violence in that country.
• The UN General Assembly adopted a Saudi-drafted resolution on Syria that expressed grave concern at the rising violence in the country
4 August, 2012 • The Afghan Parliament voted to dismiss two top Security Ministers
• A grandson of ex-US President Harry Truman, who ordered the atomic bombings of Japan during World War II, visited Hiroshima to attend a memorial service for the victims
• Sudan and South Sudan inked a deal over oil
5 August, 2012 • At least six persons were killed and several injured by one or more gunmen, at the Sikh Temple of Wisconsin in US
• Saudi King Abdullah invited Iranian President Mahmoud Ahmadinejad for an extraordinary summit of Muslim leaders to be held in August 2012 in Makkah
• Hundreds of archaeological treasures looted from Afghanistan were returned to the country’s National Museum
• At least 45 people were killed in a suicide bombing in south Yemen
6 August 2012 • Seven persons including the attacker killed and twenty injured in a shoot out at a Gurudwara in Wisconsin in the United States.
• Haryana Minister of State for Home Gopal Kanda resigns after being booked for abetment to suicide
7 August 2012 • Voting today to elect the next Vice President of India
• Finance Ministry to review tax provisions with retrospective effect to boost investment
8 August 2012 • Monsoon Session of Parliament begins today; About 36 pending bills likely to be passed.
9 August 2012 • Lok Sabha takes up for discussion BJP Adjournment Motion on Assam violence
10 August 2012 • Raghuram Rajan, former chief economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF) was appointed as the
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Chief Economic Advisor in the Finance Ministry. The Appointments Committee of Cabinet cleared the appointment of Rajan as the new CEA on 10 August 2012
11 August 2012 • Hamid Ansari sworn in as the Vice President of India
12 August 2012 • Mumbai situation returns to normal after yesterday's violence in a protest rally against Assam violence; 20 people taken into custody; crime branch starts probe to ascertain any conspiracy angle.
13 August 2012 • 30th Olympic Games conclude in London; India finishes with a record haul of six medals.
• Abu Jundal, Key Handler of 26/11 Mumbai terror attack makes confessional statement before a magistrate
14 August 2012 • Pune Police arrest 11 persons for attacks on the North-East students
15 August 2012 • In his Independence Day address, Dr. Manmohan Singh, stresses on efforts to bring transparency and accountability to end corruption
• Announces new schemes for skill development for jobs, urban housing and improved health services
16 August 2012 • About 10 terrorists storm Pakistan Air Force base at Kamra in Punjab province in an early morning attack; gun battle with security forces continues
• Prime Minister asks Karnataka Chief Minster to ensure safety of students from the North-East
17 August 2012 • Karnataka government initiates measures to build confidence among people from North East, living in the state
18 August 2012 • Government bans bulk SMS and MMS for 15 days throughout the country to check spread of rumours; Six arrested in Karnataka for sending threatening text messages to people from the North-East
19 August 2012 • Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore, the silver medallist of Athens Olympics 2004, was named the head of the 15-member committee, set up to select the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee and Arjun Award winners. Aslam Sher Khan, the former hockey team skipper, was named the head of the 15-member committee that will select the Dronacharya Awardees Question. Recent G20 summit was held in which country recently? Answer. Mexico
Question. Rio+20 the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development was held in which country
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recently? Answer. Brazil
Question. Who in the list won the 2012 Amnesty International Ambassador of Conscience award? Answer. Aung San Suu Kyi
Question. Which country won the Euro Cup 2012? Answer. Spain
Question. Recently Parliament of which country was dissolved for failing to deliver new constitution? Answer. Nepal
Question. Which Oil giant has recently bought 80% stake in RIL’s 2 Oil Blocks in Iraq’a Kurdistan region? Answer. Chevron
Question. Which metal is the best conductor of electric current? Answer. Silver
Question. Who was the first person to address the United Nations in Hindi? Answer. Atal Behari Vajpayee
Question. Which imaginary line, located at zero degrees latitude, divides the earth into Northern and Southern hemispheres? Answer. Equator
Question. Which city did Sikandar Lodi found in 1504 on the banks of Yamuna River? Answer. Agra
Question. Who coined the name `Pakistan’? Answer. Choudhary Rahmat Ali
Question. Vishvambhar Mishra was the original name of which spiritual guru? Answer. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Reasoning Question Paper with Answer 1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’. (A) I (B) B (C) L (D) X (E) Y Ans : (B) 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (A) Stem
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(B) Tree (C) Root (D) Branch (E) Leaf Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) Four Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.How is SLIT written in that code ? (A) UTGR (B) UTKR (C) TUGR (D) RUGT (E) None of these Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ? (A) Potato (B) Guava (C) Apple (D) Banana (E) None of these Ans : (D) 6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ? (A) None (B) One
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(C) Two (D) Three (E) None of these Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ? (A) 7&8* (B) &7*8 (C) 7*&8 (D) 7&*8 (E) None of these Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ? (A) na (B) ka (C) bo (D) so (E) None of these Ans : (A) Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer— (A) if only conclusion I is true. (B) if only conclusion II is true. (C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true (E) if both conclusions I and II are true.11. Statements : All stars are suns. Some suns are planets. All planets are satellites. Conclusions :
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I. Some satellites are stars. II. No star is a satellite. Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds. All birds are rats. All rats are cows. Conclusions : I. All birds are cows II. All rats are fishes Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods. Some rods are sheets. Some sheets are pillows. Conclusions : I. Some pillows are rods. II. Some rods are curtains. Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows. Some windows are doors. All doors are roofs. Conclusions : I. Some doors are walls. II. No roof is a window. Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs. Some plugs are bulbs. All bulbs are sockets. Conclusions : I. Some sockets are plugs. II. Some plugs are switches. Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow : 489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 98316. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783 Ans : (C)
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17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783 Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ? (A) Zero (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4 (E) 2 Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ? (A) 489 (B) 541 (C) 654 (D) 953 (E) 783 Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow : ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ? (A) P + Q – S (B) P ÷ Q × S (C) P ÷ Q + S (D) P × Q ÷ S
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(E) None of these Ans : (C) 22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ? (A) Sister (B) Wife (C) Son (D) Daughter (E) None of these Ans : (A) 23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ? (A) Mother (B) Father (C) Son (D) Brother (E) None of these Ans : (B) 24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ? (A) P × S ÷ T (B) P ÷ S × T (C) P – S ÷ T (D) P + T ÷ S (E) None of these Ans : (E) 25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Mother (D) Can’t be determined (E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3 Conditions : (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. (ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged. (iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©. 26. BKGQJN (A) 9©$7©% (B) ©9$7%© (C) 91$78% (D) %1$789
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(E) None of these Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG (A) #89*£$ (B) #89*£# (C) $89*£# (D) $89*£$ (E) None of these Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS (A) 92*#%4 (B) 924#*% (C) 92*#%9 (D) 42*#%4 (E) None of these Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL (A) #£$21* (B) £$21*3 (C) £$21*# (D) #£$21# (E) None of these Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA (A) 6@9%#2 (B) 2@9%#6 (C) 2@9%#2 (D) 2©9%#2 (E) None of these Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
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(A) Y (B) X (C) Z (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ? (A) D and C (B) A and B (C) A and E (D) H and F (E) None of these Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ? (A) C–Z-Engineer (B) E–X–Doctor (C) H–X–HR (D) C–Y–Engineer (E) None of these Ans : (D) 34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ? (A) H (B) E (C) C (D) Either E or C (E) None of these Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ? (A) A and D (B) B and D (C) D and G (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these Ans : (C)
General Awareness : Solved Paper 1. Which of the following is/are the major objectives of the Union Budget 2009-10 presented by Sri Pranab Mukherjee ? Emphasis on/to— 1. Faster and more inclusive growth. 2. Equitable development. 3. Improve the delivery mechanism. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
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(C) Only 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 2. As per the budget 2009-10, the Govt. has made an allocation of Rs. 1542 crores to purchase the shares held by the RBI in which of the following organizations ? (A) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) (B) State Bank of India (SBI) (C) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) (D) Life Insurance Corporation of India (E) All the above Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following apex body and regulators has asked banks to swap customer related information so that the frauds and defaults may be prevented in future ? (A) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) (B) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) (C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (E) None of these Ans : (D) 4. The SBI has signed an agreement with which of the following agencies to obtain a guarantee cover to its loans to Micro and Small Enterprises ? (A) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (B) Credit Guarantee Trust (C) Small Industrial Development Bank of India (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (E) None of these Ans : (B)
5. Which of the following is the short form of the name of the Indian Space Shuttle which puts various satellites into orbit ? (A) RISAT (B) PSLV (C) ANUSAT (D) ISRO (E) INTESSAT Ans : (B)
6. ‘Astra’ which was in news in recent in the name of a newly developed— (A) Air to Air Missile (B) Battle Tank (C) Spy Rocket (D) Submarine (E) Air to surface missile
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Ans : (A) 7. The telecom industry of which of the following countries made a world record by adding about 16 million new subscribers in just one month (March 2009) ? (A) China (B) Iran (C) India (D) South Africa (E) None of these Ans : (C)
8. The President of India recently signed three key trade agreements with a country whose Prime Minister is Mr. J. L. R. Zapatero belongs to which of the following countries ? (A) Spain (B) Mexico (C) Italy (D) Greece (E) Ghana Ans : (A)
9. Who amongst the following has taken over as the New Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India recently ? (A) Mr. Ashwani Kumar (B) Mr. N. Gopalaswami (C) Mr. V. S. Sampath (D) Mr. Naveen Chawla (E) None of these Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the Reverse Repo Rate at present ? (A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 5•5% (E) None of these Ans : (E) 11. Which of the following is true about the exports from India during March 2009 ? 1. Exports went down by 33% percent in terms of US dollars during the period. 2. It was the highest drop in exports in more than a decade. 3. This drop was because Indian Tea has lost its demand in the global market. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) All 1, 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (D)
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12. As per the reports of the National Saving Institute (NSI) which of the following has shown an improvement in last few months by registering a 10% growth in it across the country ? (A) Bank Deposits (B) Investments in commodity exchanges (C) Investments in infrastructure bonds (D) Small savings (E) None of these Ans : (D)
13. The President of Maldives was awarded the Anna Lindh Prize-2009 for his efforts in which of the following areas ? Efforts to— 1. Combat climatic changes 2. Bringing democracy in country in a peaceful manner 3. Save his country from financial crisis (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 2 (E) All 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (D) 14. Who amongst the following is the author of the book (released recently) “India and Global Financial Crisis : Managing Money and finance” ? (A) Dr. Bimal Jalan (B) Dr. C. Rangarajan (C) Dr. Manmohan Singh (D) Mr. Pranab Mukherjee (E) Dr. Y. V. Reddy Ans : (E) 15. Who amongst the following is the winner of the prestigious ‘Dadasaheb Pahlke Award’ given in April 2009 ? (A) Manoj Kumar (B) Rajesh Khanna (C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Jaya Bachchan (E) Jitendra Ans : (A) 16. India recently finalized its National Solar Mission. The mission envisages an installed solar energy generation capacity of about— (A) 5000 MW (by 2030) (B) 1000000 MW (by 2030) (C) 15000 MW (by 2030) (D) 20000 MW (by 2030) (E) 25000 MW (by 2030) Ans : (B)
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17. As per the news published in major newspapers / magazines four Central Public Sector Undertakings, NTPC, NHPC, PGCIL and DVC signed an agreement for a joint venture. All these four PSUs are working in which of the following areas/sectors ? (A) Textile Sector (B) Power Sector (C) Coal Sector (D) Transport Sector (E) Telecome Sector Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following countries wanted to come back again as an active member of the Organisation of American States after its expulsion from there several years back ? (The summit of the same was organized in April 2009) (A) Cuba (B) Brazil (C) Argentina (D) Turkey (E) None of these Ans : (A)
19. Who amongst the following was the first elected President of the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal ? (A) Mr. Ram Baran Yadav (B) Mr. B.P. Koirala (C) Mr. Madhav Kumar Nepal (D) Mr. Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’ (E) None of these Ans : (A) 20. As per news in major newspapers Sri Lankan Govt. has offered conditional Amnesty to which of the following groups with a view to end internal conflict in the country going on since last several years ? (A) Association of Civilians Trapped in War Area (B) Janmukti Morcha (C) Naxalite Group of Sri Lanka (D) Madhesi Janadhikar Forum (E) LTTE Ans : (E)
21. As per the reports the Indo-Pak Trade reached at about which of the following levels during 2008-09 ? About— (A) Rs. 200 crores (B) Rs. 300 crores (C) Rs. 400 crores (D) Rs. 500 crores (E) Rs. 600 crores Ans : (C)
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22. Which of the following States is amongst the top five power selling States in India ? (A) Meghalaya (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Maharashtra (D) Kerala (E) Rajasthan Ans : (B)
23. India and Russia recently signed an agreement so that India can get a supply of Uranium fuel from Russia. Uranium is used in which of the following sectors ? (A) Pharma Sector (B) Transport Sector (C) Agro Industry (D) Telecom Sector (E) Energy Sector Ans : (E)
24. The Govt. of India recently decided to finalize a big defence deal of Rs. 45000 crore for which finally five contenders are shortlisted. This deal is to purchase— (A) Fighter jets (B) Radar system (C) Spy rockets (D) Battle tanks (E) Warships Ans : (A) 25. Who amongst the following is not a Padma Awards Winner of 2009 given in 2009 ? (A) Dr. G. Madhavan Nair (B) Mr. Sundarlal Bahuguna (C) Mr. Abhinav Bindra (D) Ms. Aruna Sairam (E) Mr. Manoj Kumar Ans : (E)
26. As per the news in all major newspapers, the African National Congress (ANC) got an overwhelming victory in the general elections held recently in— (A) Ghana (B) Uganda (C) South Africa (D) Kenya (E) None of these Ans : (C) 27. After a long cold war of several decades Taiwan recently signed an agreement to expand air links and accept main land investment with which of the following countries in its neighbourhood ? (A) India (B) China
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(C) Malaysia (D) Indonesia (E) Japan Ans : (B)
28. As per the news in major newspapers Iran has agreed to welcome talks with world powers after a deadlock of several months. Which of the following is the major issue over which Iran has a difference with the most of the world powers ? Its— (A) Nuclear Programme (B) Dispute with Iraq on several oil fields (C) Views on subsidy on agro products in the meetings of the WTO (D) Claim to have permanent seat in UN Security Council (E) None of these Ans : (A) 29. Union Govt. provides subsidy on which of the following commodities in India ? 1. Fertilizers 2. Seeds 3. Tractors (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 and 3 (E) None of these Ans : (A)
30. World famous Tennis Star Rafael Nadal is from which of the following countries ? (A) USA (B) Spain (C) Germany (D) Italy (E) France Ans : (B)
31. ‘Azlan Shah Cup’ is associated with the game of— (A) Cricket (B) Hockey (C) Badminton (D) Table Tennis (E) Golf Ans : (B) 32. What is the full form of NFSM an initiative of the National Development Council of India ? (A) New Food Security Mechanism (B) National Food Security Management (C) National Farmer’s Service Manch (D) New Fastest Space Missile
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(E) None of these Ans : (E) 33. Financial year in Banks is a period between— (A) January to December (B) May to June (C) April to March (D) January to April (E) None of these Ans : (C) 34. The cooperative movement in which of the following fields has achieved a great visible success in India ? (A) Milk production (B) Banking sector (C) Textile sector (D) Cotton production (E) None of these Ans : (A)
35. The Reserve Bank of India does not print currency notes of the denomination of Rs. — (A) 20 (B) 50 (C) 3000 (D) 1000 (E) 500 Ans : (C) 36. Which of the following is considered as the financial capital of India ? (A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Bangalore (D) Ahmedabad (E) None of these Ans : (E)
37. Olympic Games are Organized after a gap of every— (A) Two years (B) Three years (C) Four years (D) Five years (E) Six months Ans : (C) 38. Which of the following is a very well known name in the field of Banking in India ? (A) Ms. Meira Kumar (B) Ms. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw (C) Mr. Arun Jaitley (D) Dr. D. Subbarao
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(E) All of above Ans : (E)
39. Which of the following is the currency of Spain ? (A) Dollar (B) Pound (C) Yen (D) Krona (E) None of these Ans : (E)
40. FIFA is an organization working in the field of— (A) Banking (B) Textiles (C) Power Generation (D) Social Service (E) Sports Ans : (E)
FCI general awareness questions with answers FCI question for practice FCI free solved sample placement papers
August 2012 Multiple choice questions with answers
1. According to the data provided by the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) in August 2012, India's marine exports are expected to grow by what per cent year-on-year to USD 4.5 billion in 2012-13 fiscal? a. 28% b. 17.2% c. 13% d. 23% Answer: (a)
2. In a move aimed at encouraging investment sentiment in the country, the Union Finance Ministry approved what per cent of foreign direct investment in insurance and pension sector in August 2012? a. 29% b. 49% c. 39% d. 19% Answer: (b)
3. Extending the guidelines of securitisation of loan from banks to non-banking finance companies (NBFC), India’s Central Bank Reserve Bank of India on 21 August 2012 tightened the securitisation norms for NBFCs. Which of the following facts are not true with regards to the statement? 1. RBI instructed that a non-banking finance company will have to retain at least 5 per cent of the loan being sold to another entity.
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2. RBI in its revised guidelines also stipulated that NBFC cannot sell or securitise a loan unless five monthly installments have been paid by the borrower 3. The latest directives from the RBI are aimed at checking unhealthy practices and distributing risk to a wide spectrum of investors 4. These guidelines have to implemented by NBFCs in two phases by the end of October 2012. a. 1 & 3 b. Only 1 c. Only 2 d. Only 4 Answer: (c)
4. As per the data revealed by the Union Aviation Ministry in the Parliament in August 2012, the loss incurred by Air India following its merger with Indian Airlines between 2007-08 and 2011-12 has been pegged at what amount? a. 21146 crore rupees b. 23535 crore rupees c. 32971 crore rupees d. 28046 crore rupees Answer: (d)
5. The high-level committee on external commercial borrowings (ECB),chaired by secretary, department of economic affairs Arvind Mayaram decided to further liberalise the foreign borrowing norms. Which of the following with respect to the liberalization norms are not true? 1. It was decided to permitted non-resident entities to provide rating enhancement facility to Indian borrower 2. The government permitted foreign entities to provide credit enhancement to rupee bonds of Indian companies. The minimum maturity period of such rupee bonds was reduced from seven years to three years. 3. The panel also decided to increase the maturity of such buyers credit to maximum seven years thereby allowing companies flexibility in payment 4. Infrastructure and manufacturing companies can re-finance a higher proportion of their rupee borrowings via cheaper overseas debt. These infrastructure and manufacturing companies can now tap overseas loans up to 75% of their average forex earnings a. Only 2 b. Only 1 c. Only 3 d. 2 & 3 Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not true in relation to United Nations General Assembly adopted Resolution on Syria (a). Those who opposed the UN resolution including China, Iran, North Korea, Belarus, Cuba argued that putting pressure only on one party would not help resolve the Syrian issue and would instead derail the issue from the track of a political settlement. (b). The United Nations General Assembly on 5 August 2012 adopted a non-binding resolution that condemns Syria's use of heavy weapons in the fight against rebel forces (c). The resolution got 133 votes in favour in the 193-member body, while 12 voted against the resolution. (d). India abstained from voting after it found some of the provisions of the resolution contrary to its long held stance on the Syrian crisis. Answer: (b)
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7. Which two countries signed Agreement for the Modernisation of Indian Railways (a) United States and India (b) India and Belgium (c) India and Afghanistan (d) Russia and China Answer. (b) India and Belgium
8. PRI Leader Enrique Peña Nieto elected the New President of ……………………… (a) Britain (b) Iran (c) Mexico (d) Russia Answer: (c)
9. Which are the two countries signed an signed Collaborative Academic Research Programme Agreement a. China and United Kingdom b. India and Israel c. France and United States d. China and France Answer: (b)
10. Romania’s President ……….. survived the impeachment a) Traian Basescu b) Ion Iliescu c) Nicolae Văcăroiu d) Crin Antonescu Answer: (a) Traian Basescu
April-2012
1. Name the yesteryear actress who featured in the popular song ‘Ae Meri Zohra Jabeen’ from the film ‘Waqt’who passed away recently.
Achala Sachdev passed away at a Pune hospital on April 30, 2012. Achala was 91 year old. Read More
2. Where in India, largest solar power plant with an installed capacity of 40 MW started producing electricity? Pokhran in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan
3. Which department in India plans to set up 1000 ATM’s across 6 states? Postal department
4. Who created history by becoming the first Indian female wrestler to have qualified for the London Olympics 2012? Geeta
5. Who has been appointed next Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission?
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Ratan Kumar Sinha
6. In which part of India, Indo Tibetan Border Police headquarters is to be opened? Bihar
7. Which state’s High Court has insisted that banks cannot freeze accounts nor stop services of issuing cheque book or ATM facility where the account holder has not supplied KYC (Know Your Customers) documents? Gujarat
8. Name the former Haryana chief secretary who took oath as state information commissioner ? Urvashi Gulati
9. Which State becames the 3rd state in India to launch State Portal (SP) and State Service Delivery Gateway (SSDG) project? Nagaland
10. Who won the World Series Hockey 2012 title? Sher-E-Punjab
11. In which state Urdu medium Government schools would be setup as announced by Chief Minister Akhilesh Yadav? Uttar Pradesh
12. Where is the World’s first Virtual shopping store opened? Korea
13. Who is named as HSBC’s India CEO? Stuart Milne
14. Which Indian state bans guthka from 1st of April 2012 to curb the increasing number of mouth cancer cases? Madhya Pradesh
15. Which Indian state chief minister has urged union Finance Minister to bail it out of its huge burden? West Bengal
16. Name the Jammu and Kashmir High Court Chief Justice who was sworn in as Supreme court judge ? F.M.Ibrahim Kalifulla
17. Name the Gujarati techie whose name has emerged for India’s President as the nation has to elect 16th President in July 2012 ? Sam Pitroda
18. At what value Air India’s restructuring plan was approved by a group of 19 banks led by SBI? 18,000 crore
19. Which services Airtel is planning to launch in Kolkata in April 2012? 4G services
20. Name the nuclear submarine which joined Indian Navy.
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INS Chakra
21. Which education company bagged Rs.209 crore order from Assam Government? Educomp
22. Which 2 north Indian states will have pipeline connected oil terminals for supply of diesel, petrol and kerosene? Jammu and Himachal Pradesh
23. Which Asian country has issued tender to buy minimum of 30,000 tonnes of basmati rice from India and Pakistan? Iraq
24. NSE founder who passes away Recently? RH Patil Dr R H Patil, chairman, Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL) and founder-managing director of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) passed away in Mumbai. Read More
25. Who donated 1 million Singapore Dollars to Indian Heritage Centre? Founder of Singapore-based IT company Si2i Mobility B.K.Modi
26. Name the world’s highest and longest bridge that was officially opened to motorists in China. Anzhaite Long-span Suspension Bridge in Jishou
27. Which bank has opened 16 Ultra Small branches in 16 locations in villages to cater to financial needs of the rural populace? IDBI Bank
28. Who has been conferred with Sir Jehangir Ghandy Medal? Narayana Murthy
29. In which city in Kerala will Infosys setup its 2nd campus? Thiruvananthapuram
30. Which bank will set up 1-person micro branches to serve remote areas of the northeastern region financially? Indian Overseas Bank
31. Which act does not allow to prosecute (no wife can claim compensation or maintenance) husband’s girlfriend? Protection of Women from Domestic Vilonce Act, 2005
32. Name the 3 Indian hockey players after whom tube stations in London has been renamed. Dhyan Chand, Roop Singh and Leslie Claudius
33. Who has been signed up as brand ambassador of Toyota Kirloskar Motors? Virat Kohli
34. When was 63rd Rajasthan Day celebrated? 30th March 2012
35. Where in Rajasthan Spices Board’s first Spices Park is setup? Jodhpur
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36. Which Asian country recently became member of Consultative Group to Assist the Poor (CGAP)? India
37. Who won her 6th world sprint title at the world track cycling championships 2012? Victoria Pendleton
38. Name the Malawi President who died after heart attack. Bingu wa Mutharika
39. Who was sworn in as Malawi’s President following the death of Bingu wa Mutharika? Joyce Banda
40. Which Asian country made Hindu marriage registration a must by bringing the law in lines with India? Bangladesh
41. Israel has decided to setup its consulate office in which part of India? Bangalore
42. Which Indian city is likely to get water taxis and air-conditioned trams? Kolkata
43. Name the young doctor who is set to become the first foreign national of Indian origin to walk across Antarctica carrying the Indian Flag. Dr.Alexander Kumar
44. Name the youngest Indian boxer who qualified for London Olympics 2012. Shiva Thapa
45. What percentage hike was allocated for Karnataka by Planning Commission for current fiscal 2012-13 in the 12th Plan? 10%
46. Who will be the sports ambassador for the state of Haryana? Leander Paes
47. Which category of women will be allowed to participate in the Miss Universe beauty pageant from next year? Transgender women
48. Which rank does Bangalore hold as preferred entrepreneurial locations worldwide? 9th rank
49. Which TV has become the first Indian television channel to enter the Chinese market? Zee TV
50. Which act was amended to include compulsory registration of marriages in India? Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969
51. Where in Himachal Pradesh Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) would be opened? Una district
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52. What denominations of currency note will RBI introduce bearing rupee symbol? Rs.20 and Rs.50 currency notes
53. Name the index on which NSE is set to launch derivative trade. FTSE 100 index
54. What percentage and value of US based Max New York Life Insurance was sold to Mitsui Sumitomo Insurance (MSI)? 26% and Rs.2,731 crore
55. Which country replaced China as Iran’s top oil client? India
56. India has recently decided to allow Foreign Direct Investment from which Asian country? Pakistan
57. What value of equity infusion did Air India get spread over a period of 9 years? Rs. 30,000 crore
58. Where in India Integrated Check Post was inaugurated on the occasion of Baisakhi to enhance trade between India-Pakistan? Attari
59. Which education council in India would have its own job portal for the students of technical and professional institutions? All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
60. Which 2 countries have agreed to resume dialogue on disarmament and non-proliferation after a gap of 9 years? India and China
61. Which repayment transaction is now allowed by RBI electronically i.e. NEFT? Repayment of Loan EMI’s
62. How many co-sponsors are against the Bill of outsourcing call centers in USA? 106 co-sponsors
63. How much basis point did RBI cut key rates after 3 years? 50 basis points
64. Name the Master Card’s President and CEO who has been elected next chairman of the US- India Business Council? Ajay Banga
65. Which Indian FMCG company crossed $1 billion mark in 2011-12? Dabur India
66. Which 14 year old ICC cricket tournament would end after 2013? ICC Champions Trophy
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67. Which state has included services of the petroleum industry, including that provided by tanker operations as essential services under the state’s Essential Services Maintenance Act 1971, (Act 20 of 1971)? Andhra Pradesh
68. Which Indian state’s 100th anniversary was celebrated recently? Bihar
69. Who replaces Simon Leung chief executive of the greater China region of Microsoft? Ralph Haupter
70. Bill to include children with disabilities under which Act was recently passed by Rajya Sabha recently? Right to Education Act
71. Name the spy satellite launched by ISRO recently. RISAT-1
72. Which cricket player and lady actor were recommended for Rajya Sabha membership in India? Sachin Tendulkar and Rekha
73. Name the Indian origin entrepreneur and educator who is named as the Goodwill Ambassador for Education Partnerships for UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). Sunny-Varkey
74. Who has been appointed as Governor of Goa, Rajasthan and Uttarkhand? B.V.Wanchoo, Margaret Alva and Aziz Qureshi
75. Who were given fresh terms as Governor of Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra? E.S.L.Narasimhan and K.Sankaranarayanan
76. Which Indian state will be showcased at the Cannes Film Festival? Gujarat
77. Which 2 Asian countries will hold 1st ever economic dialogue on 30th April 2012? India and Japan
78. Name the first of the four Dreamliner aircraft that Air India got from Nikki Haley’s state. Boeing 787
79. Who won the Asian Snooker Championship 2012? Aditya Mehta
80. Who retained the crown as Britain’s richest man? Lakshmi Mittal
81. Where was the India Investrade 2012 organised by Indian Chamber of Commerce, Kolkata held? Colombo, Sri Lanka
82. Name the mango variety named after the youngest Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. ‘Akhilesh aam’, named after Akhilesh Yadav
83. Which Indian state is planning to make 100 the common number to dial in any emergency?
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Tamil Nadu
84. Who became the 1st player to cross 2000 runs in cricket tournament IPL? Suresh Raina
85. Which country is keen to boost trade ties with Kerala? Singapore
86. Who became the 1st player to win Barcelona title for 7 times? Rafael Nadal
87. Name the former BCCI president who passed away recently after whom the challenger trophy was named. N.K.P.Salve
May-2012
1. Who won her first World Cup individual recurve gold medal in Archery? Deepika Kumari
2. Who took over as 28th chief secretary of Madhya Pradesh succeeding Avani Vaish? R.Parasuram
3. Which state’s Chief Minister has demanded law to deal with cases of discrimination against northeastern students? Meghalaya CM Mukul Sangma
4. ISRO recently gave clearance for using which frequency band from satellite for internet on trains? KU band
5. Which company bagged the contract for deploying Bharti Airtel’s 4G network in Karnataka? Huawei
6. Who became the first cricketer to hit 5 consecutive T20 fifties? Virender Sehwag
7. Who won the award in the best Actress category at the London Asian Film Festival (LAFF) 2012 for her film ‘Bol’? Humaima Malick
8. Which type of SIM cards are Switzerland based Geo Communications AG, launching in India? International Mobile Subscriber Identity(IMSI) SIM cards which will allow multiple mobile numbers from different operators on a single SIM card
9. To help clear cane arrears of over Rs.10,000 crore which commodities exports has been let free by Government of India recently? Sugar
10. Which industry in India will celebrate 100 years of its existence in May 2013? Indian Film Industry (May 3rd 1913 to May 3rd 2013)
11. When is Facebook (IPO) set to go public?
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May 18th 2012
12. When will the phased Basel III capital regulation in India be implemented as per RBI guidelines? January 1st, 2013 (to be fully implemented by March 31st, 2018)
13. Name the multifaceted personality (a poet, an author or a painter) whose 150th birth anniversary would be celebrated on May 8th 2012. Rabindranath Tagore
14. Which sport in Goa will benefit from the Government’s decision as it will be declared state sport? Football
15. Where in India Archeological Survey of India is planning gallery on Harappan civilization? Vadodara, Gujarat
16. Where in India the 49th Raising Day of the Central Command was celebrated on 3rd May 2012? Cantonment, Lucknow
17. Where in Tamil Nadu, Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation (Tidco) is planning to establish aerospace park? Chennai
18. Where in Coimbatore, Government has planned to setup cold storage facility for tomatoes? Kinnathukkadavu
19. Which German sportswear maker has planned to shut down 1/3rd of its 900 Reebok stores in India? Adidas
20. Which Kolhapur-based bank is looking at an IPO in 2 years? Ratnakar bank
21. Which resource in nuclear reactors will be used for power generation as the Government has decided to start construction of 300MW reactor by 2016-17? Thorium
22. As Indian Parliament holds special sitting on Sunday to celebrate 60th anniversary, when was India’s first Parliament session held? May 13th, 1952
23. Which country slapped a fine of $80,000 fine on Air India recently? US Transportation Department
24. Which Finance company recently deferred its Rs.1,665 crore IPO, which opened on May 2nd 2012? Samvardhana Motherson
25. Name the firm which is planning to build mud cottages in Gir area of Junagadh district.
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Swati Infratech Pvt. Ltd.
26. In which glacier have geologists discovered hot water from geothermal sources which is nearly 15 degrees arm in plunging -40 degree Celsius weather? Siachen
27. Name the Indian who became first Asian-origin UK councilor. Philip Abraham
28. Name the ‘Big Bang’ scientist whom France jailed for terror plot. Adlene Hicheur
29. What value of fund will Asian Development Bank provide to India for 2012-2014 for the development of various projects? $6.25 billion
30. Name the West Indian cricketer who has set an eye on bollywood after IPL. Chris Gayle
31. Who is elected as Chair of the ADB’s Board of Governors? Pranab Mukherjee
32. Which country will host the 46th annual meeting of the Asian Development Bank in 2013? India in New Delhi
33. Name the Indian-origin doctor who won the London Assembly (Ealing and Hillingdon) seat? Dr.Onkar Singh Sahota
34. Who is elected as President of France? Francois Hollande
35. Which mobile operator is the biggest gainer of mobile number portability (MPN) service in India? Idea Cellular
36. Which 2 Indian women won the 16th Asian Team Squash Championship? Joshna Chinnappa and Dipika Pallikal
37. Name the US secretary who is India on a 3-day visit asking to reduce oil imports from Iran on the agenda. Hillary Clinton
38. Which series of bollywood actor’s TV debut got a thumbs up from the Hindi film industry? Satyamev Jayate
40. Which popular comic is featuring members of Delhi Daredevils players like Virender Sehwag, Irfan Pathan and Kevin Pietersen? Chacha Chaudhary in Sabu new comic series
41. Who was sworn in as Russian president for 2nd time? Vladimir Putin
42. Who won the silver medal at the 3rd International ‘Republic of Kazakhstan President’s Cup’ held in Almaty, kazakhstan?
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Devendro Singh
43. Name the hockey player who died after being hit in the head by the ball during a game in Perth recently. Elizabeth Watkins
44. Which movie team is set to open 4-day Children’s Film Festival to be held in Goa from May 11th 2012? Gattu
45. Which state’s first marine training institute will be operational from August 2012? Gujarat
46. Which state of Jaipur will host first edition of 3-day Fashion Week from May 24th 2012? Rajasthan
47. After completing a year post acquisition of Patni Computer which company dropped Patni from its brand name? iGate Corporation
48. India’s Finance minister recently scrapped a ‘draconian’ clause under which law? Customs law
49. Red Hat recently setup its R&D centres in which locality outside North America? Pune and Bangalore in India
50. Which PSU acquired 51% stake in Bharti Axa Mutual Fund? Bank of India
51. Who created national record by winning silver medal at the Altius Track Crew Threwdown meet in maui Island, Hawaii? Krishna Poonia
52. Who is appointed as Russian Prime Minister? Dmitry Medvedev
53. Name the aircraft carrier and nuclear submarine India is set to get in 2013. Admiral Gorshkov and INS Arihant
54. What was rolled back on realty as excise on gold jewellery? Tax Deducted at Source
55. Where in London a centre dedicated to the life and work of Rabindranath Tagore has been launched? Edinburgh
56. Name the former chairman of ICICI bank and billionaire investor who are re-appointed to the Arcelor Mittal board? N.Vaghul and Wilbur Ross
57. When was the World Red Cross day celebrated? May 8th
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58. Which street is renamed after Roger Federer in Germany? Weststrasse renamed as Roger-Federer-Allee
59. Which cricketer is likely to make an appearance in filmmaker Vidhu Vinod Chopra’s ‘Ferrari Ki Sawari’? Sachin Tendulkar
60. Lahore based Ajoka has planned for 4-day theatre festival to pay tribute to which birth centenarian as on May 2012? Saadat Hassan Manto
61. NSG base will be setup in which part of India? Gujarat
Which Oscar-winning musician has been conferred with his first American Honorary Doctorate by the Miami University? A.R.Rahman
62. Name the Russian plane which went missing on a demonstration over Indonesia in the area of Mount Salak recently. Sukhoi Superjet 100
63. Name the former Ukraine Prime Minister who ended her 20-day hunger strike after claiming that her guards handled her roughly while in prison. Yulia Tymoshenko
64. Which sector is likely to get electronic development fund to promote its R&D activities? Information Development sector
65. Denominations above what value should now be machine processed for authenticity by bank branches as per RBI notification? Rs.100 and above
66. Which singer is awarded America’s highest civilian honour “The Medal of Freedom”? Bob Dylan
67. Who won the Google Photography Prize 2012? Viktor Johansson (A Swedish Student)
68. What is the name of the Carrie Underwood’s album released on May 1st 2012? Blown away
69. Which singers were awarded 2012′s Sweden highest music honour “The Polar Music Prize”? Paul Simon and Yo-Yo Ma
70.Which bollywood actor is starring in the Hollywood movie “The Amazing Spider-man”? Irrfan Khan
71. Name the bill passed by Rajya Sabha in India to protect children against sexual abuse. Protection of Children Against Sexual Offences Bill
72. Name the bill approved by the Union Cabinet in India to regulate the micro finance industry and bring the micro lenders under the purview of RBI.
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Micro Finance Sector Development and Regulation Bill, 2011
73. Which city in India leads household penetration of the internet as per Census 2011? Gurgaon
74. Which sporting tournament will be held in Orissa from 11th May to 28th May 2012? 66th National Football Championship for Santosh Trophy 2012
75. How many districts of the border state of Punjab will get clusters of food processing industry post United Nation’s Industrial Development Organisation’s survey? 2 districts
76. AICTE has allowed private engineering colleges to run dual degree programme for bachelor of engineering and master of technology courses in which state recently? Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
77. In which year MotoGP set to make its debut in India? 2013
78. WHO in its ‘International Travel and Health Bulletin 2012′ issued a malaria alert to which country recently? India
79. Which society in Goa is organising children’s film festival from May 11th to 13th 2012 at Maquinez Palace, Panaji? Entertainment Society of Goa
80. Which state in India has made ID proof mandatory for pregnant women who undergo ultrasound? Haryana
81. WHO has urged which country to act on Palestinian hunger-strike? Israel
82. Which state announced 500MW gas-fired power plant in its budget session recently? Tamil Nadu
83. Who has been named EPL manager of the year? Alan Pardew
84. Which country recently honoured over 150 peacekeepers? Haiti
85. Which football sporting event will India bid to host at the FIFA Congress in Budapest scheduled for May 24th and 25th 2012? Under-17 World Cup in 2017
86. Punjab has recently achieved a record wheat crop produce of what value? 120 lakh tones
87. Which 3 northeastern Indian states will have its own high courts? Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya
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88. Jammu and Kashmir Government will set up Development and Management Authority to promote which sport in the state? Golf
89. Where in Kozhikode UL Cyber Park with Special Economic Zone status is built? Malabar
90. Which airline will become first to provide in-flight mobile access in UK? Virgin Atlantic
91. Which country has BCCI allowed to play in Champions League T20 in India? Pakistan
92. Which country’s president visited India recently? Maldivian President, Mohammed Waheed
93. Where and at what cost was The Arcelor Mittal Orbit has been built? London, amounting to 22.7million pounds
94. Name the Indian American who has been named as Chancellor of California. Pradeep Khosla
95. Where in India “Veer Bharat Premises”, a unique museum dedicated to Indian heroes will be setup? Bhopal
96. Name the Venezuelan who won his maiden Formula One Spanish Grand Prix 2012. Pastor Maldonado
97. Who won the woman single’s Madrid Masters title 2012? Serena Williams
98. Who won the men single’s Madrid Masters title 2012? Roger Federer
99. Name the companies that Nigeria’s telecom authority fined a total of 7.3 million dollars for providing poor services to customers. Bharti Airtel, MTN, Etisalat and Globacom
100. Which bank has is ranked 2nd most profitable public sector bank in terms of annual profit for the fiscal year ended March, 2012? Bank of Baroda
101. Who has been appointed as TRAI chairman for a 3 year term? Rahul Khullar
102. Where in India first 2MW solar power plant started functioning? Uttar Pradesh
103. Where was the British World War II fighter plan found recently? Egypt desert
104. Which 3 countries have warned North Korea on further Nuclear tests?
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China, Japan and South Korea
105. Who will temporarily replace Yahoo Chief Executive Scott Thompson? Ross Levinsohn
106. Which 3 India’s bank and Insurance Company did Credit ratings agency Moody’s downgrade recently? ICICI bank, HDFC Bank, Axis Bank and Life Insurance Corporation
107. Which automobile maker is planning Rs.1,500 crore plant in Tamil Nadu? Yamaha
108. Which Chennai-based hospital became the first in India to receive the ‘halal’ certification from the Halal Development Authority? Global Health City
109. Which company signed a deed with the National Apprenticeship Scheme of Britain to impart software skills training for about 100 youths in Britain? Infosys
110. What is the theme of World Economic Forum which is to be held in India between 6th and 8th November 2012? From Deliberation to Transformation
111. Name the Indian who became the youngest to win Asian Chess Championship. Primarjan Negi
112. Which Asian country was invited by NATO to Chicago summit 2nd day of which will focus on Afghanistan? Pakistan
113. Name the child actor who acted in movie ‘Paa’ died in the Nepal plane crash recently. Taruni Sachdev
114. Name the mass segment vehicle launched by Honda targeting Indian market. Dream Yuga
115. Who won the top player in the English Premier League’s history? Ryan Giggs
116. Who won the top manager award for the past 20 years in EPL? Alex Ferguson
117. Which 3 North Eastern states will have planetarium by 2013? Nagaland, Manipur and Jorhat in Assam
118. Which state will introduce a bill to protect heritage buildings which are not protected by the Archaeological Survey of India or the state archeological department? Tamil Nadu (Tamil Nadu Heritage Commission Bill 2012)
119. Which country’s President has been fined $17,000 by its electoral authorities for urging his Facebook followers on polling day to vote for him? Taiwan (President Ma Ying-jeou)
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120. In which Junior Asia Cup tournament did India bag Bronze medal recently? Hockey
121. Who will help bring the Olympic flame to Britain along with 5 young Britons as a formal handover ceremony in Athens, London 2012 on 18th May 2012? David Beckham
122. Which company is planning to open ‘Motherwood Maternity’, ‘A pea in the Pod’ and ‘Destination Maternity’ brands in India? Mahindra Retail
123. Where in India the first store of ‘Destination Maternity’ is opened by Mahindra Retail? Gurgaon
124. Which town in Odisha touched 45 degree Celsius on 16th May 2012? Sambalpur, Hirakud, Titilagarh, Jharsuguda and Sonepur
125. Which company was allowed by Indian cabinet to sign a gas purchase agreement with Turkmenistan national oil firm? GAIL India Ltd.
126. Bharti Airtel tied-up for mobile banking services with which bank recently? Axis Bank
127. Nomura downgraded which company from ‘buy’ to ‘reduce’? Larsen and Toubro
128. Nomura downgraded which company from ‘buy’ to ‘neutral’? Ashok Leyland
129. What did Rajya Sabha approve in the Copyright Amendment Bill seeking to remove operational difficulties? Address newer issues related to the digital world and worldwide web
130. Demand for which language in the 8th Schedule of Indian constitution could be accepted soon? Bhojpuri
131. Expand LAAR Bill. Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill
132. Name the Grammy-winning, nicknamed the Queen of Disco who passed away after a battle with cancer. Donna Summer
133. What value of swap facility has RBI set up for SAARC nations? $2 billion
134. At what value did Facebook IPO open at Nasdaq? $42.05
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135. Who rang the opening bell remotely of Nasdaq as Facebook made its public debut on 18th May 2012? Facebook founder and CEO Mark Zuckerberg
136. Name the NRI who became the first Lord Mayor of Leicester town in UK. Abdul Razak Osman
137. Name the Indian-American who was elected to Sugar Land City of Texas in US. Himesh Gandhi
138. Death due to which insect is an accident and is covered under accidental death insurance as per the North District Consumer Forum in India? Mosquito
139. Kerala investor meet was held as a part of build-up towards which event in September 2012? Emerging Kerala Conclave
140. Which rating agency has downgraded Greek banks ratings from B- to CCC? Fitch rating agency
141. How many Spanish banks debt ratings have been cut by Moody’s, citing the effects of recession? 16 Spanish banks
142. Name the 73 year old Japanese oldest woman to scale Mt.Everest. Tamae Watanabe
143. Which Mobile E-commerce App was acquired by Facebook recently? Karma
144. What is the name of the new version of Android Operating System called? Android 5 “Jelly bean”
145. What is the name of new tool launched by yahoo for online advertisers for their data analytics? Genome
146. Who won the Football Champions League 2012 final match against Bayern Munich? Chelesa
147. Which state Government in the west of India completed 1 year at office? West Bengal
148. Which state Government in South India completed 1 year at office? Tamil Nadu
149. Which Indian state is now center of spiritual tourism? Gujarat
150. Cyber Defence Research Centre came into operation recently in which Indian state? Jharkhand
151. Name the 1st Bangladeshi woman who scaled Mt.Everest. Nishat Majumder
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152. Name the Indian origin British civil servant who was chosen as president of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development. Suma Chakrabarti
153. Which country will become biggest IT consumer in Asia-Pacific surpassing Japan? China
154. Name the 12 years and 9 months old child prodigy from Bhojpur district in Bihar who created history by cracking IIT-JEE 2012. Satyam Kumar of Bakhorapur
155. Who won the French MotoGP 2012? Jorge Lorenzo
156. One-year of rural posting is made compulsory for which medical course in India? MMBS
157. Name the Indian player who won his first ever ATP Challenger singles title 2012. Yuki Bhambri
158. Name the asteroid which could come near to earth on 15 February 2013 leading to disruption of geosynchronous satellites. DA14
159. Name the 12 year old who has lectured at harvard and co-written a book in America. Blake Kernen
160. Name the card that would popularise after Chief General Manager D.V.Deshpande for NABARD urged commercial banks to promote it in Bihar. Kisan Credit Card
161. Name the former Prime Minister who’s 21st death anniversary was observed in India on 21st May 2012. Rajiv Gandhi
162. Which browser over took Internet Explorer to become top browser in the world? Google Chrome
163. Which country is pressing for global internet governance to the UN committee? India
164. As per the Delhi Registration of Marriages Bill 2012, marriage registration is made compulsory in Delhi within how many days of tying the knot? 60 days. If exceeds, one has to pay a fine of Rs.10,000
165. Which Indian state with over 6 lakh unemployed youths could get an Information and Technology park? Jammu and Kashmir
66. Name the tower in Dubai, UAE which is 413.4 metres (1,356 feet) high and has 101 storeys, the world’s tallest residential building. Princess Tower
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167. Who won the men’s Rome Masters 2012 for a record 6th time? Rafael Nadal
168. Which act was passed for Sikh organisations recently? Anand Marriage Act
169. What is the changed brand name of West Assam Milk Producer’s Cooperative Union Ltd. (Wamul) milk in the market? Purabi Smart
170. Name one among the Bee Gees who died recently fighting against cancer. Robin Gibb
171. Which city in Rajasthan will be made smoking free? Jaipur
172. Expand ADaRSH. Association for Development and Research of Sustainable
173. Expand GRIHA. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
174. Name the former chief minister of Meghalaya who passed away recently. Flinder Anderson Khonglam
175. Which state Government in India announced a pension of Rs.1,000 per month post retirement and housing scheme for homeless journalists? Tripura
176. Name the deputy Prime Minister who quit from Nepal cabinet recently. Krishna Sitaula
177. Expand PAC. Public Accounts Committee
178. Name the Indian who became the first Prime Minister to visit Myanmar after 25 years. Dr.Manmohan Singh
179. Who won the 66th Santosh Trophy? Services against Tamil Nadu (3-2)
180. Which company has warned of internet blackout on July 9th 2012? Google
181. Which company has invested Rs.21,000 crore to setup railway wagon and component factory in West Bengal? SAIL
182. Name the tennis player who played his 50th Grand Slam tournament at the French Open 2012. Roger Federer
183. Who won the Monaco Grand Prix 2012?
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Mark Webber
184. Who won the Chennai Open 2012 at the Indian Squash Academy? Joshna Chinappa (6th title of her career)
185. Who won the Thomas Cup 2012 title? Lin Dan
186. Which countries recently signed 12 agreements, including a $500 million credit line, border area development and air services? India and Mayanmar
187. Where in India 3-day international student’s film festival will be held from 1st June 2012? Kolkata
188. Which film of Raj Kapoor has been added to All-Time 100 list of the greatest films made since 1923 by Time magazine? Awaara
189. Who has been appointed as commerce secretary in India? S.R.Rao
190. Who has been appointed as director general of Jammu and Kashmir police? Ashok Prasad
191. Which football team has been identified as the world’s most popular football club by a survey carried out by market research agency, Kantar? Manchester United
192. Expand SFIO. Serious Fraud Investigation Office
193. Which Northeast state got Software Technology Park recently? Tripura
194. Ritesh Idnani was Chief Operating Officer of which BPO company? Infosys
June-2012
1. Who took over as Vice-Chief of Indian Air Force? Air Marshal D.C. Kumaria
2. Who took charge of command of the Western Air Command (WAC)? Air Marshal Arup Raha
3. Name the Indian American girl who won the 2012 Scripps National Spelling Bee crown. Snigdha Nandipati
4. Name the spacecraft which returned to earth to end historic trip. SpaceX Dragon
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5. Global rating agency Fitch downgraded which banks credit rating outlook to negative from stable? Indian Bank
6. Which 2 countries signed a Tax Information Exchange Agreement to promote economic cooperation and joint investment to boost bilateral trade? India and Bahrain
7. Name the Taiwanese bank which is set to open its 2nd branch in India at Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu. Chinatrust Commercial Bank
8. To save which ailing company, proposal is being made by 2 oil sector PSU's IOC and MRPL to take charge of running it? Haldia Petrochemicals Ltd. (HPL)
9. Name the Sikh leader from BJP, who won his 2nd term as MLA from Dasuya in Punjab assembly elections and died recently. Amarjit Singh Sahi
10. Which country celebrated Queen's 60 year reign recently? United Kingdom
11. Irish voters recently backed which pact by large majority by exhibiting final memorandum results? European Union fiscal pact
12. Who won the 73rd PGA Tour Title 2012? Tiger Woods
13. Who won the Catalunya MotoGP 2012? Jorge Lorenzo
14. Who won the Copenhagen International sand sculpture championship 2012 held in Denmark? Sudarsan Patnaik for "Save the Ocean" sand sculpture of 20-feet high
15. Name the Australia's largest beef producer. Australia Agriculture Co. (AAco)
16. Name the Indian cricketer who took oath as Rajya Sabha MP. Sachin Tendulkar
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17. Which electronic giant's stock dipped below 1,000 yen for first time since 1980? Sony
18. Name the oldest American men's clothier chain Reliance inked pact with to hold 49% stake in it. Brooks Brothers
19. Which Asian stock market hit 28-year low on 4th June 2012? Tokyo
20. Name the Pakistan Interior Minister who was suspended for dual nationality. Rehman Malik
21. Who won the 21st Sultan Azlan Shah Cup hockey tournament 2012? New Zealand
22. Which medal did India bag at the 21st Sultan Azlan Shah Cup hockey tournament 2012? Bronze
23. What is the importance of June 5th? World Environment Day
24. Which shrubs are turning into trees as Arctic region warms? Tundra shrubs
25. Music Academy in Chennai has been granted the status of research centre by which Karnataka- based University? Tumkur University
26. For which summit Russian President Vladimir Putin is in Beijing, China? Regional Security summit
27. Where did the Boeing Phanton Eye drone made its ground? Edwards Air Force Base
28. Which scam-hit bank's license was cancelled by Reserve Bank of India recently? Madhavpura Mercantile Cooperative Bank (MMCB)
29. Who is named as Navy chief as Admiral Nirmal Verma retires on August 31st 2012? D.K.Joshi
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30. Which country has approved world's first 'healthy cola' for being beneficial to health? Japan
31. Which country marked 23rd anniversary of the military crackdown in Tiananmen Square? China
32. Which cricketer was recalled by West Indies Cricket Board into One-day squad after 14 month long stand-off? Chris Gayle
33. Name the psychiatrist and balloonist who took off on the world's first intercontinental flight in solar-powered plane. Bertrand Piccard
34. Name the India's London bound discus thrower who bagged silver medal at the Post Pre Elite Women's event at Portland, US. Krishna Poonia
35. Who was named captain of 18-member Indian hockey team for the 6th Junior Women's Asia Cup to be held in Thailand from June 27th 2012? Mid-fielder, Ritu Rani
36. Which planet crossed the sun on 5th June 2012 making one complete orbiter rotation? Venus
37. Name the Wisconsin governor in USA who survived recall. Scott Walker
38. How many gold did India win on 1st day of Commonwealth Weightlifting? 11 gold
39. Name the author of 'The Twilight Zone' who passed away recently. Ray Bradbury
40. Where in India talking ATM is launched by Union Bank of India? Ahmedabad
41. Name the boxer who ended his 19 year boxing career which earned him 5 world titles and 3 weight classes. Shane Mosley
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42. Which 2 cricketer of India's World Cup winning squad were conferred with Eklavya award by Gujarat Government recently? Yusuf Pathan and Munaf Patel
43. Who has been appointed as Chief Election Commissioner to take over S.Y.Quraishi from June 10th 2012?
V.S.Sampath
44. International Olympic Committee has announced to live stream free London Olympic Games on which medium to fans in 64 territories across Asia and Africa including India? Youtube
45. Which state's rice exporters demand abolition of cess on paddy? Punjab
46.How many positive list services will be taxed from July 1st 2012? 119
47. Name the company which has developed a vaccine for dengue. Paris-based Sanofi
48. What value is the allocated by Planning Commission for sanitation in the 12th Five Year Plan? 36,000 crore
49. Who won the South African Cricketer, Test Cricketer and CSA Fan's Cricketer of the Year award? Vernon Philander
50. Name the writer who has been felicitated with an Assamese Japi. Chetan Bhagat
51. What value of investment proposal did Karnataka get across 14 sectors on the 1st day of 2nd Global Investors Meet (GIM 2012)? Rs.5 trillion (Rs.5 lakh crore)
52. What rate of interest did European Central Bank retain? 1%
53. Based on which film has Titan's children watch brand ZOOP launched new watch collection? Madagascar 3 : Europe's Most Wanted
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54. Who won the mixed doubles title at the French Open 2012? Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza
55. Which section of Income Tax Act lets Assesses minor children eligible for separate tax exemption? Section 54 EC
56. Who is named as CEO of Samsung? Kwon Oh-hyun
57. Which social bookmarking site unveiled new logo, 6 years since its launch? Twitter
58. What value of compensation has Nasdaq offered for clients who were hit by technical problems that arose during the Facebook IPO on May 18th 2012? $40 million
59. Which Asian country's central bank cut its interest rates by 25 basis points, being its first cut since the 2008-09 financial crisis? China
60. Who is named as Event Ambassador for 2012 World Twenty20? Malinga
61. Name the 250 MW unit thermal power project commissioned by BHEL recently. Harduaganj thermal power project in Uttar Pradesh
62. Name the Lebanese journalist who headed Arab's newspaper An-Nahar and died recently. Ghassan Tueni
63. Name the football tournament kick started at Warsaw on 8th June 2012. UEFA Euro 2012
64. What value of money will be pumped in the market on June 12th 2012 by buying Government securities to ease the liquidity situation by RBI? 12,000 crore
65. Quote the reason why RBI recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Central Bank of Bahrain? To promote greater co-operation and sharing of supervisory information between the 2 regulators
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67. Which Indian company's Rs.1,000 IPO in 1977 is now worth Rs.7.7lakh? Reliance Industries Limited
68. What value of capital infusion was made in Regional Rural Bank's to improve their capital adequacy and lending capacity to the agriculture sector? Rs.632 crore
69. Expand FLCC (Hint: Credit). Financial Literacy and Credit Counselling
70. Expand FLC (Hint: Literacy). Financial Literacy Centres
71. What is the jobless rate in Greece as of March 2012? 21.9%
72. What material is used by Israeli scientists to develop strong plastic to replace steel and other materials used in pipelines and machinery? Polypropylene
73. Which 2 models of smartphones launched by Motorola are water-resistant, scratchresistant and dust-proof? Motorola DEFY XT and DEFY MINI
74. Name the south Indian filmmaker-editor who passed away recently. K.S.R.Doss
75. Where in the world forced marriage is set to become crime? Britain
76. Which 2 disease has been identified as top killers around the world by UNICEF? Pneumonia and Diarrhea
77. Who was sworn in as cabinet minister in the Vijay Bahuguna Government in Uttarakhand? Harak Singh Rawat
78. Who won the Dutch MotoGP?Casey Stoner
79. Who became the 10th woman in tennis history to win all 4 Grand Slam titles after defeating Italy's Sara Errani in the French Open 2012?
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Maria Sharapova
80. From which country India is set to buy 8 warships? South Korea
81. Which country is set to launch manned spacecraft in June 2012? China
82. To which Eurogroup the Eurozone finance ministers were willing to respond favourably to the need of 100 billion euros to a bailout request from its troubled banks? Spain
83. How many medals did India bag at the Commonwealth Weightlifting Championships? 45 medals, including 29 gold
84. Where in Chennai first phase of 50 acre 'Logistics Park', a facility comprising warehouses and commercial complex has been completed by Shri Kailash Logistics Ltd.? Oragadam
85. Who won the Thailand Open 2012?
Saina Nehwal
86. Who won the Canadian Grand Prix 2012? Lewis Hamilton
87. What value of bailout did Spain receive recently from European finance ministers? $125 billion
88. Which housing arm of India launched its first low-cost housing project targeting 366 Tier-II and Tier-III cities and costing between Rs.5.5 lakh and Rs.12 lakh? Sahara Infrastructure and Housing
89. Name the Ex-industry secretary who is to be appointed as NHAI chief. R.P.Singh
90. Name the Indian actor who is set to make hollywood debut with 'The Lord of the Rings' producer Barrie Osborne. Kamal Haasan
91. Who won the French Open 2012 men's title?
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Rafael Nadal
92. Who was presented with Wisden India Outstanding Achievement award? Sachin Tendulkar for completing a century of 100 international hundreds
93. Who will lead Indian hockey team in Olympics 2012? Bharat Chetri
94. Which university signed MoU with Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) to establish a Hindi Chair in South China? Guangdong University of Foreign Studies (GDUFS)
95. Where have scientists discovered the largest ever under-ice bloom of phytoplankton? Under the Arctic ice
96. USA exempted India from which country's sanctions? Iran
97. Name the 5-day film festival that is to be organised by Entertainment Society of Goa in collaboration with Directorate of Film Festivals and National Film Archive of India. Cinema Out of the Box
98. Name the Operating system and mobile Operating system version that Apple announced at the 23rd annual developers conference WWDC (World Wide Developers Conference). Mountain Lion and iOS6
99. Which Qatar-based bank is expected to start India operations? Doha Bank
100. Which search engine has signed a deal with Encyclopedia Britannica to bring richer content to its search results? Microsoft search engine Bing
101. Who is appointed as Brand Ambassador of TVS Motor?
Anushka Sharma
102. Which company exported 100 'Falcon' buses to Ghana? Ashok Leyland
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103. Name the SVB Financial Group's banking unit which is set to open its first international branch in London. Silicon Valley Bank
104. Which Indian company is set to enter dairy business from 2013? Sahara India
105. Where does inflation stand as of May 2012? 7.55%
106. In which movie actor Sridevi is set to make a comeback? English Vinglish
107. Which state Government recently awarded Indian hockey team for qualifying to London Olympics 2012? Haryana
108. Which states will 'Gandhi Peace Bus' tour, to conclude at Mangalore in July 2012? Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
109. What is the importance of June 14th? World Blood Donor Day
110. In which year Government of Orissa declared filmmaking as an industry? 1974
111.Which traditional sport of Sikkim is set to get an academy? Archery
112. Name the first Northeast state to have IIIT (Indian Institute of Information Technology). Tripura
113. Which global financial services firm has termed Indian economy is facing stagflation? Moody's
114. Name the Tagore literary awardees for the different genres of novels, poetry, short stories and drama between 2007-2009. Sheel Kolambkar for Geera (Konkani) Jagdish Prasad Mandal for Gaamak Jingi (Maithili) Akkitham Achyutham Nambudiri for Anthimahakaalam (Malayalam)N.Kunjamohan Singh for Eina Kenge Kenba Natte (Manipuri) Indramani Darnal for Krishna Krishna (Nepali) and
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Arjan Hasid for Na Ien Na (Sindhi) Amitav Ghosh for Sea of Poppies (English)
115. Where in Madhya Pradesh first tissue culture lab has been set up and developed 25 lakh saplings mainly of G - 9 variety of banana by a farmer, Subhas Mohan Pandey? Hamalapur Somvari, near to Betul district
116. Name the former McKinsey chief and Goldman Sachs director who is convicted of insider trading. Rajat Gupta
117. Name the feature that Facebook is set to launch which will allow advertisers to participate in real-time bidding to show ads on its website. Facebook Exchange
118. Which country is set to create world's largest marine park network? Australia
119. Which country expects 5.5% growth in tourist arrivals from India? Hong Kong
120. Name the China's space mission whose crew included its first woman astronaut, Liu Yang. Shenzhou-9 spacecraft
121. Which state got India's 4th Buddhist centre? Arunachal Pradesh
122. Who becomes 4th Prime Minister of Greece in 8 months time? Antonis Samaras
123. Which 2 country's home ministers are set to meet on yearly basis? India and Bangladesh
124. Which payment mode a must for public sector banks from July 1st 2012? e-Payment
125. Who will take on Spain in Euro 2012 finals? Italy
126. What is the importance of June 30th 2012? The last minute of 30th June 2012 will be 1 second longer and will be known as 'leap second'
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127. What percentage of additional service tax would be levied on all bollywood actors and those perform on television serials? 12%
128. Who took over as the director of ISRO Satellite Centre? S.K.Shivakumar replaces T.K.Alex
129. T.P.Sudhindra was recently in news, which sport did he play? Cricket
130. Name the list of 6 states which will raise 32.8 billion rupees via 10 year loans according to RBI. Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Punjab and Rajasthan
131. Which agricultural arm would setup over 20 rural gurukuls across Indian states including Jharkhand? NABARD
132. Who is appointed as Andhra Pradesh chief secretary?
Minnie Mathew
133. Which state will setup film promotion board to promote its films and culture? Haryana
134. Which country is to setup auto component and Engineering Park in Gujarat? Japan
135. Which application of Microsoft is available for educational institutes free of cost? Microsoft Office 365
March -2012 1. Who is crowned Miss India World 2012? - Vanya Mishra Chandigarh girl Vanya Mishra is crowned the Pantaloons Femina Miss India World 2012 in a glittering grand finale of the 49th edition of the beauty pageant. The Miss India Earth title went to 24- year-old Prachi Mishra of Pune, while Chennai girl Rochelle Maria Rao, 23, is crowned as the Miss India International. Read More
2. Name the cricket personality called ‘The Wall’ who retired from International cricket recently.
- Rahul Dravid
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The 39-year-old Batting great Rahul Dravid, the second most prolific batsman in the game’s history and India’s middle order bulwark for years, on Friday bid adieu to Test cricket, bringing down the curtain on a glorious 16-year career. Read More
3. Which country has India agreed ‘in-principle’ to the participation in hydro power-projects in the North-East?
Bangladesh
4. Name the Tech-savvy state which set a record by winning the National Tourism Award for its website for 5th time in last 10 years.
Kerala
5. Which Malayalam language daily has tied up with Yahoo India to deliver premium digital content in Malayalam?
Malayala Manorama
6. Name the Delhi-based group which has been nominated in the best international brand/group award at the British Reggae Industry Awards.
Reggar Rajahs
7. Which movie of Indian filmmaker Mani Ratnam is now part of the permanent collection at the Austrian Film Museum?
Raavanan
8. Who has been awarded the Pritzker Architecture Prize considered as Nobel prize in Architecture?
Wang Shu
9. Which railway station became the first railway network to offer BluFi, a combination of Bluetooth and WiFi to provide information to passengers?
Bangalore City Railway Station
10. Which state bagged the second best national award in the Comprehensive Development Of Tourism category?
Rajasthan
11. Name the Kerala-based UAE business magnate who was awarded with Interfaith Harmony Award at Kuala Lumpur.
M.A.Yusuf Ali
12. Name the men’s mixed doubles winner of the ATP Dubai Open 2012.
Mahesh Bhupathi and Rohan Bopanna
13. When was the World’s oldest post office opened as it celebrates its 300th anniversary?
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1712 in Sanquhar, London
14. Name the Indian American filmmaker who won the ’2012 Rising Star Award’ for his feature film ’9 Eleven’ at the Canada International Film Festival.
Manan Singh Katohora
15. Who won the women’s Kabaddi World Cup championship?
India
16. Who is expected to visit India with export of gas and investment on agenda?
Qatar’s Emir Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa al Thani
17. Who has been elected as Russian President?
Vladimir Putin
18. Name the West Indian cricketer who died in a car accident recently.
- Runako Morton aged 33 Read More
19. Name India’s first 3D dance film.
ABCD (Any Body Can Dance)
20. Which 4 financial institutions have agreed to form country’s first $2 billion (about Rs.10,000 crore) Infrastructure Development Fund to finance infrastructure projects in India?
Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, LIC and Citi Financial
21. Who has been appointed as MD of Hyundai Motor India Ltd.?
Bo Shin Seo
22. Which Chinese Electric company has started office in India?
Shangai Electric
23. Which university conferred honoris causa(as honorary academic degree) during its 12th convocation to the finance minister Pranab Mukherjee?
Assam University
24. Which India’s leading commodity exchange would be listed on the BSE making it India’s first exchange to be listed?
Multi Commodity Exchange
25. Which western India university will start the Institute of International Studies?
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M S University
26. HSBC will sell its general insurance for US $914 million to which 2 companies?
AXA Group and QBE Insurance Group
27. Against which team India will play one-off Twenty20 International cricket on March 30th 2012 to commemorate the 150 years of settlement of Indians in that country?
South Africa
28. Who retained his title of being the world’s richest Indian in Forbes magazine’s annual list of the world’s richest people?
Mukesh Ambani
29. Name the music director – king of soft melodies who passed away recently.
Ravi Shankar Sharma
30. Who has been appointed as head coach of the Pakistan cricket team?
Dav Whatmore
31. Name the bank that has entered into a partnership with Remit2home to offer Sri Lankans to transfer money back home.
Nations Trust Bank
32. Where is Kerala a film city is to be built?
Varikkassery Mana at Ottapalam
33. Who will be appointed as CEO of L&T?
K Venkataraman
34. Name the chocolate boy of Hindi cinema during 1960′s who passed away recently.
Joy Mukherjee
35. Who is appointed as ISI chief of Pakistan Government?
Lt. Gen. Zaheerul Islam
36. Which Indian NGO has been chosen for America’s first Innovation Award for the Empowerment of Women and Girls, for training and organising wastepickers and eliminating child labour from recycling?
Chintan
37. What is the reduced CRR of scheduled banks as revised by RBI at 75 basis points?
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4.75%
38. At what value did Euro zone finance ministers release 2nd bailout package for debt-hit Greece?
$46.9 billion
39. Where was the International Financial Hub inaugurated in India recently?
New Town, Kolkata
40. What is the extended number of days for advance reservation of Indian railway tickets?
120
41. Which state has recorded an increase in foodgrains production that touched 50.22 lakh tonnes during Kharif 2011 season?
Haryana
42. Name the ambulance launched for farmers in Andhra Pradesh by Srihari Kotela, a Charterted Accountant.
Rythu Ratham (Tollfree – 18002666208)
43. Which non-banking finance arm of Tata Sons have decided to ramp up its travel business and focus on the retail segment?
Tata Capital
44. Which financial service will Nokia close in India?
Nokia Money
45. Which rank does India hold as per U5MR rates by UNICEF?
46th rank
46. Who will take over the rein of Deutsche Bank CEO at the end of May 2012?
Anshu Jain
47. Who was sworn in as Uttarkhand’s Chief Minister?
- Vijay Bahuguna
48. Name the Indian railway minister who will present Railway Budget 2012-13.
Dinesh Trivedi
49. Who has been appointed as Director General of Police for Punjab?
Sumedh Singh Saini
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50. Who and at what age became 5th time Chief Minister of Punjab?
Parkash Singh Badal
51. Where was FICCI FRAMES 2012 – Asia’s largest global convention on film media and entertainment inaugurated?
Kolhapur, Maharashtra
52. Who is sworn as youngest Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh?
- Akhilesh Yadav at the age of 38 years.
53. What is the proposed capital support to be infused to PSU’s and financial institutions during the next fiscal year as per Budget 2012-13?
Rs.15,888 crore
54. Who has been appointed as Additional Advocate General of Tamil Nadu?
P.H.Arvindh Pandian
55. From which tax will RBI be spared?
Wealth Tax
56. Who won the Australian Grand Prix 2012?
Jenson Button
57. Who won the Swiss Open 2012 title against China’s Shixian Wang?
Saina Nehwal
58. Who will replace Dinesh Trivedi as Railway Minister?
Mukul Roy
59. The indoor hall built at Orissa Cricket Association is named of which cricket personality?
Sachin Tendulkar Indoor Hall
60. Who has been elected as German President?
Joachim Gauck
61. Which bank recently celebrated its 75th anniversary?
Indian Overseas Bank
62. As Jet Airways discontinues JetLite, which company it is set to merge?
JetKonnect
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63. Name the hockey player who was declared the winner of ‘Survivor India’.
Raj Rani
64. Expand – NPCI
National Payment Corporation of India
65. Which Indian city has been selected as city of focus at the Toronto International Film Festival 2012?
Mumbai
66. Who has been named for Dada Saheb Phalke award?
Soumitra Chatterjee
67. Which European nation has tied up with the Indian Railways to renovate 14 railway stations in India?
Belgium
68. Name the Goa Tourism minister who died of heart attack recently?
Matanhy Saldanha
69. Which team won the cricket Asia Cup 2012?
Pakistan
70. Expand – NBFC
Non-Banking Finance Companies
71. Which British newspaper won the annual Press Awards – the Oscars of British Journalism?
Daily Mail (Newspaper and Website of the year)
72. What amount of loan for education has been offered to India by World Bank?
$500 million
73. 64 years after Independence which Indian state saw a locomotive train for the first time?
Manipur (12km from Jiribam to Dholakhal)
74. Longding became the 17th district of which Indian state?
Arunachal Pradesh
75. Israeli Government is planning to setup 3 agricultural excellence centres in which Indian state?
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Gujarat
76. Who has been nominated for World bank President post by US President?
Korean-American Physician-Anthropologist Jim Yong Kim
77. Who will be appointed as Army chief to succeed Gen.V.K.Singh?
- Lt. Gen. Bikram Singh
78. Who won 2nd silver medal in the men’s 50m rifle three position at the Amir of Kuwait International Shooting Grand Prix?
Gagan Narang
79. Name the new tax norms which will come into effect from April 1st 2012.
GAAR – General Anti-Avoidance Rules
80. Which 2 banking facilities would not require signature attestation instead only thumb impression as per RBI?
Fixed deposits and Opening a bank locker
81. Which state will get its first commercial dairy for processing of camel milk into various products in Kutch district once the provision is made in its 2012-13 budget?
Gujarat
82. Who is appointed as chairman of Haldia Petrochemicals?
Kolkata’s industry minister Partha Chatterjee
83. Who is named as Peace ambassador of world religious Parliament?
Pt.Arjun Prasad Bastola
84. Who is appointed as Wipro’s banking head?
Rajan Kohli
85. Who was named as the winner of the Templeton Prize 2012 for his contribution to affirming life’s spiritual dimension?
Dalai Lama
86. Name the bill passed against conduct of any constitutional authority in India.
Judicial Accountability Bill
87. Where in India Guru Gobind Singh refinery will be inaugurated in April 2012?
Bathinda, Southwest Punjab
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88. Where in Chennai is the 2nd airport is to be setup?
Sriperumbudur
89. Where in Arunachal Pradesh Reserve Bank of India is planning to open its office?
Itanagar
90. Which Indian state passed Rs.201.05 crore deficit budget for the financial year 2012-13?
Arunachal Pradesh
91. Which IPL cricket team signed up with UNICEF in a bid to support the adolescent girls in India?
Delhi Daredevils
92. Who has replaced Shankar Bidari as DGP and IG in Karnataka?
A.R.Infant
93. Which Indian state would celebrate 77th foundation day on 1st April 2012?
Odisha or Orissa
94. Name the 26/11 Mumbai terror survivor who has been selected as a flag bearer at the London 2012 Olympics.
Harnish Patel
95. Name the PSU bank whose 108 branches were inaugurated electronically by Union Minister of State for Finance Namo Narain Meena.
Syndicate Bank
FCI aptitude questions for practice,FCI general ability questions FCI questions and answers for practice not the original questions this is only for practice to attend the real exam,FCI general ability questions and answers Directions : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? 1. 832.456-539.982-123.321=? (1) 196.153 (2) 149.153 (3) 169.153-Answer (4) 176.135 (5) None of these
2. ? x 19 = 7828 (1) 411
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(2) 412-Answer (3) 413 (4) 414 (5) 415
3. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ? (1) 200.04-Answer (2) 201.04 (3) 200.14 (4) 202.14 (5) 203.04
4. 734 / ? = 91.75 (1) 8-Answer (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 10 (5) None of these
5. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ? (1) 105-Answer (2) 115 (3) 70 (4) 35 (5) None of these
6. 5938+4456+2891 = ? (1) 15255 (2) 14285 (3) 13285-Answer (4) 12385 (5) None of these
7. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=? (1) 1585.91 (2) 1286.94 (3) 1950.02 (4) 1950.11-Answer (5) 1951.01
8. 434 x 645=? (1) 27840 (2) 297930 (3) 279903 (4) 279930-Answer (5) None of these
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9. 7 x ? =29.05 (1) 4.05 (2) 4.15-Answer (3) 3.95 (4) 4.28 (5) None of these
10. 725 / 25 - 13 = ? (1) 16-Answer (2) 29 (3) 12 (4) 18 (5) None of these
11. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ? (1) 314 (2) 313 (3) 312 (4) 311 (5) None of these-Answer
12. 806 / 26 =? (1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 36 (5) None of these-Answer
13. 559 + 995 = ? x 16 (1) 92.05 (2) 95.25-Answer (3) 93.15 (4) 94.35 (5) None of these
14. ((337 +146) x 8)=? (1) 3884 (2) 1515 (3) 3864-Answer (4) 1505 (5) 3846
15. 4758-2782-1430=? (1) 356 (2) 396
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(3) 486 (4) 546-Answer (5) None of these
16. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =? (1) 423.25-Answer (2) 68.25 (3) 593.775 (4) 472.5 (5) None of these
17. 248 of +110 of 20% = ? (1) 192 (2) 202 (3) 212 (4) 239-Answer (5) 242
18. 484 of + 366 of = ? (1) 663 (2) 844 (3) 668-Answer (4) 848 (5) 666
19. 280% of 460 =? (1) 1188 (2) 1284 (3) 1288-Answer (4) 1280 (5) None of these
20 Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246? (1) 118 x 13+209 x 42 (2) 174 x 10+222 x 19 (3) 173 x 12+221 x 24-Answer (4) 169 x 16+167 x 50 (5) None of these
21 The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar? (1) Rs. 3.377 (2) Rs. 4.473 (3) Rs. 4.377 (4) Rs. 4.743-Answer (5) Rs. 4.347
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22 A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus? (1) 343 km-Answer (2) 283 km (3) 353 km (4) 245 km (5) 340 km
23. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number? (1) 410 (2) 820-Answer (3) 420 (4) 220 (5) None of these
24. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square? (1) 20 (2) 21-Answer (3) 22 (4) 23 (5) None of these
25. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three? (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 13 (4) 16 (5) None of these-Answer
26. Find the average of the following set of scores: 118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229 (1) 148 (2) 152 (3) 156 (4) 160 (5) 175-Answer
27. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples? (1) Rs. 216-Answer (2) Rs.108 (3) Rs. 189 (4) Rs. 225 (5) Rs. 162
28. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
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(1) 43 (2) 48 (3) 55 (4) 53-Answer (5) 62
29. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number? (1) 59 (2) 58 (3) 57 (4) 56-Answer (5) None of these
30. What is 184 times 156? (1) 28704-Answer (2) 29704 (3) 30604 (4) 27604 (5) None of these
31. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 5989 48 11=? (1) 1375 (2) 1370 (3) 1372-Answer (4) 1368 (5) 1365
32 If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get? (1) Rs. 206 (2) Rs. 210 (3) Rs. 204-Answer (4) Rs. 218 (5) Rs. 212
33. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ? (1) 2408 (2) 2426 (3) 7310 (4) 7130 (5) 2139-Answer
34 Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?
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(1) Rs. 1,530 (2) Rs. 1,540 (3) Rs. 1,200 (4) Rs. 1,180 (5) None of these-Answer
35. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot? (1) Rs. 2,091 (2) Rs. 1,981 (3) Rs. 1,991 (4) Rs. 1,891-Answer (5) None of these
36. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number? (1) 95 (2) 100 (3) 105-Answer (4) 108 (5) 112
37. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly? (1) 45 years (2) 40 years-Answer (3) 35 years (4) 30 years (5) 25 years
38. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers? (1) 120 (2) 124 (3) 140 (4) 144-Answer (5) 150
39. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy? (1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 29 (3) Rs. 30 (4) Rs. 15 (5) Rs. 20-Answer
40. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
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(1) 7 (2) 3-Answer (3) 5.5 (4) 6.5 (5) None of these
41. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?
42. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set? (1) Rs. 9,200-Answer (2) Rs. 7,200 (3) Rs. 8,600 (4) Rs. 9,800 (5) Rs. 10,000
43. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination? (1) 86 (2) 88-Answer (3) 84 (4) 90 (5) None of these
44. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
FCI general awareness questions and answers,FCI sample questions for practice FCI general ability general questions
1. How many languages and dialects are spoken by people all over the world? A. 6,000 B. 9,000-Answer C. 4,000 D. 1,000
2. Approximately, how many people speak Chinese language? A. 1 billion-Answer B. 1 million C. 1 lakh D. 1 thousand
3. The language with the richest vocabulary is: A. Hindi
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B. French C. English-Answer D. German
4. English Language have more than ?? words: A. 4,50,000-Answer B. 45,000 C. 4,500 D. 450
5. The oldest Indian language is: A. Telugu B. Hindu C. Tamil-Answer D. Punjabi
6. Which book has been printed in the maximum number of languages and these scripts? A. The Bible-Answer B. Hiraka Sutra C. The Super Book D. None of these
7. The only religious book ever printed in a shorthand scripts is: A. The Ramayana B. The Mahabharata C. The bible-Answer D. Guru Granth Sahib
8. The oldest printed work in the world, which dates back to AD 868 is: A. The Bible B. The Hirake Sutra-Answer C. The Ramayana D. The Mahabharata
9. The largest book, the super book, is ?? and weight is ?? A. 270 cm, 300 cm, 252 kg.-Answer B. 100 cm, 110 cm, 100 kg. C. 200 cm, 100 cm, 60 kg. D. None of these
10. Les Hommes de bonne volonté is the: A. Longest novel ever published-Answer B. Shortest novel every published C. The oldest novel D. None of these
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11. The author of the play/book ?Ratnawali? is: A. Tulsidas B. Kalidas C. Harsha Vardhan-Answer D. Prem Chand
12. Which of the following in the book/play written by Maithili Sharan Gupt? A. Saket-Answer B. Satyartha Prakash C. Shakuntala D. Savitri
13. The book ?Satyartha Prakash? was written by: A. Swami Dayanand-Answer B. Swami Vivekanand C. Sarojini Naidu D. Kalidas
14. The play/book ?Shakuntala? was written by: A. Maithili Sharan gupt B. Swami Dayanand C. Kalidas-Answer D. Tulsidas
15. Which of the following is the author of ?Song of India, The?: A. Firdausi B. Sarojini Naidu-Answer C. Lala Lajpat Rai D. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
16. The author of the book ?Time machine? is: A. Lewis Carroll B. Robert Louis Stevenson C. Charles Lamb D. H.G. Wells-Answer
17. Which of the following book was written by Tulsidas: A. Vinay Patrika B. Ramcharitmanas C. Both (a) and (b)-Answer D. Yashodhara
18. The book ?Vish Vriksha? was written by: A. Bankimchandra Chatterjee-Answer B. Annie Basant C. Tulsidas
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D. Kalidas
19. The book ?We Indians? was written by: A. H.G. Wells B. Khushwant Singh-Answer C. James Jeans D. Thomas Moore
20. Which of he following is he author of play/book ?Yashodhara?: A. Maithili Sharan Gupt-Answer B. Khushwant Singh C. Bankimchandra Chatterjee D. Sarojini Naidu
21. Dhyan Chand was: A. A great hockey player B. Captained he Indian hockey team which won a gold medal in 1936 Berlin Olympics C. Scored 101 goals at the Olympic games and 300 goals in the international matches. D. All the statements are correct-Answer
22. Who developed the small pox vaccination? A. Eduard Jenner-Answer B. Alexander Fleming C. Albert Einstein D. None of these
23. Euclid was: A. Greek mathematician B. Contributor to the use of deductive principles of logic as the basis of geometry C. Propounded the geometrical theosems D. All the statements are correct-Answer
24. Fa-hien was: A. The first Buddhist pilgrim of China to visit India during the reign of Chandragupta Vikramaditya-Answer B. The discover of Puerto Rico and Jamaica C. The first Buddhist pilgrim of India to visit China D. None of these
25. Firdausi was: A. A person poet B. Well known for his epic ?Sharnama? C. Both are correct-Answer D. None of these
26. Who is also known as the ?Lady with the Lamp?? A. Florence Nightingale
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B. Sarojini Naidu-Answer C. Rani Laxmibai D. Bachendri Pal
27. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit was: A. A German Physicist B. Developed the mercury thermometer in 1714 C. Devised temperature scale D. All are correct-Answer
28. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who: A. Developed the telescope B. Discovered 4 satellites of Jupiter C. Discovered that the movement of the pendulum produces a regular time measurement.-Answer D. All are correct
29. Who is known as the father of English poetry? A. Geoffrey Chaucer-Answer B. John Milton C. John Keats D. None of these
30. The American General who led the revolt against the British & declared American independence was: A. George Washington-Answer B. Bill Clinton C. George Bush D. None of these
31. Marco Polo A. Discovered Greenland B. Traveled three China, India and other parts of Asia-Answer C. Traveled round the cape of Good Hope D. Discovered Canada
32. Who landed on the mainland of South America for the First time? A. Discovered Greenland B. Landed on the mainland of south America-Answer C. Discovered the sea route from Europe to India. D. None of these
33. Who was first to sail sound the strait, reached the Philippines and named the Pacific Ocean? A. Ferdinand Magelion-Answer B. Jacques Carter C. William Janszoom D. Vasco da Gama
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34. Who discovered Australia? A. Eric the Red B. Leif Ericsson C. William Janszoom-Answer D. None of these
35. Who located the magnetic pole? A. Sir James Clark B. Rear Admiral C. Sir John Ross D. All the above-Answer
36. Who was first to reach the South Pole? A. Rear Admiral B. Capt. Amundsen-Answer C. Capt. R. E. Scett D. Sir Edmund Hillary
37. Who was the first to cross the Antarctic? A. Sir Vivian Fuchs & sir Edmund Hillary-Answer B. Maj. Yuri Gagarin and Maj. Gherman Titor C. Capt. R. E. Scott D. All of these
38. Who were the first to journey into space? A. Maj. Yori Gagarin and maj. Gherman Titor from Russia B. Comm. Grissom and Col john Glenn from America C. Both are correct-Answer D. None of these
39. Who was the first man to ?Walk? in space? A. Col. Leonor from Russia B. Major White from America C. Both of these-Answer D. None of these
40. Who were the first to circle the moon? A. Frank boreman, Bill Anders and Jim Lovell-Answer B. Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin C. Charles Conrad and Alan Bean D. None of these
41. ?Arena? is the special name for playground of: A. Cricket B. Lawn Tennis C. Wrestling-Answer
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D. Skating
42. The national sport of Canada is: A. Tennis and cricket B. Lacrosse-Answer C. Judo D. Rugby and Football
43. Badminton is the national sport at: A. Malaysia-Answer B. Scotland C. China D. Former soviet Union
44. Where is the Vallabhbhai Patel stadium located? A. Kolkata B. Mumbai-Answer C. Chennai D. Delhi
45. Where is the sports stadium, Green Park, located? A. Kanpur-Answer B. Jamshedpur C. Cuttack D. Patiala
46. For which of the following disciplines in Nobel Prize awarded? A. Physics and chemistry B. Physiology or Medicine C. Literature, Peace and Economics D. All the above-Answer
47. On which date is Nobel Prize awarded? A. December 10-Answer B. January 10 C. April 10 D. July 10
48. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, awarded the Noble Prize in: A. Physics B. Economics C. Chemistry D. (a) and (c)-Answer
49. The committee of the Norwegian Parliament awards the prize for: A. Economics
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B. Peace-Answer C. Medicine D. Literature
50. Dr. Linus Carl Pauling is the only person to have won two Nobel Prizes individually for: A. Chemistry in 1954, peace prize in 1962-Answer B. Peace prize in 1954, Chemistry in 1962 C. Physics in 154, Medicine in 1962 D. Medicine in 1954, Physics in 1962
1. How many languages and dialects are spoken by people all over the world? ANS. 9,000
2. Approximately, how many people speak Chinese language? ANS. 1 billion
3. The language with the richest vocabulary is: ANS. English
4. English Language have more than ?? words: ANS. 4,50,000
5. The oldest Indian language is: ANS Tamil
6. The only religious book ever printed in a shorthand scripts is: ANS. The bible
7 The oldest printed work in the world, which dates back to AD 868 is: ANS. The Hirake Sutra
8. Which of the following in the book/play written by Maithili Sharan Gupt? ANS. Saket
9. Dhyan Chand was: A. A great hockey player B. Captained he Indian hockey team which won a gold medal in 1936 Berlin Olympics C. Scored 101 goals at the Olympic games and 300 goals in the international matches. D. All the statements are correct ANS:D
10. Who developed the small pox vaccination? ANS. Eduard Jenner
11. Euclid was: A. Greek mathematician
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B. Contributor to the use of deductive principles of logic as the basis of geometry C. Propounded the geometrical theosems D. All the statements are correct ANS D
12. Who is also known as the ?Lady with the Lamp?? ANS. Florence Nightingale
13. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit was: A. A German Physicist B. Developed the mercury thermometer in 1714 C. Devised temperature scale D. All are correct ANS: D
14. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who: A. Developed the telescope B. Discovered 4 satellites of Jupiter C. Discovered that the movement of the pendulum produces a regular time measurement. D. All are correct ANS: D
15. The American General who led the revolt against the British & declared American independence was: ANS. George Washington
16. Marco Polo ANS. Traveled three China, India and other parts of Asia
17. Who was first to reach the South Pole? ANS. Capt. Amundsen
18. Who were the first to circle the moon? ANS. Frank boreman, Bill Anders and Jim Lovell
19. Badminton is the national sport at: ANS. Malaysia
20 Agmark act ------1937
21 Go back to vedas------SWAMI DAYANAD SARASWATI
22 Signature on 10 Rs. Note------Governer of RBI
23 Banker of Banks------RBI
24 Japan Tsunami------March 2011
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25 Stock market and mutual funds------SEBI
26 Imperial bank of india------State bank of India
27 first ECONOMIC census in india ------1977
28 Minimum age for president------35
29 Who developed green revolution in india------Dr M S Swaminathan
30 Which state has longest coastline in india------Gujrat
31 first women president of INC------Annie Basent
32 Decimal system was invented by------Bhaskra
33 12.1212-17.0002+9.1105)/0.8 = WRONG QUESTION
34 A is the father of D.C is the daughter of B.D is the sister of C.E is brother of A.how is E related to B
35 Planet nearest to earth------VENUS
36 EQuator is the longest lattitude
37 MOTOR Industary------USA & RUSSIA
38 BIggest Island------MEDAGASKER
39 MI-5------Detective zAgency of UK
40 Previous name of WTO------General aggremant on traffic & trade (GATT)
41 KHILAFAT MOVEMENT------ALI BROTHERS (Muhammd & Shaukat ali)
42 First time CEnsus in INdia During------LORD MAYO
43 Go BACK TO VEDAS------Swami Dayanad saraswati
44 8Y=3X-11 find X ------X=(8Y+11)/3)
45 A & B's age are in the ratio 3:1. after 15 year the age will bi 2: 1 find present age ANS: 45 & 15 tear
46 Find odd one liter meter yard inch
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47 4 X 10 ^-5 ans: 0.00004
48 find next KPA,LQB,MRC, NSD, ? ANS: OTE
49 The width of rectengle is 5 inch . if the length is three times of width, find area of rectengle ANS: 75
50 seven friends...... takes 3/4 ...... Minimum Pizza required ANS: 6
51 oath & affirmation to president------Chief Justice of india
52 panchaayti raj------73th amendment act
53 major source of constitution------Uk
54 Jasmine Revolution may refer to: the 1987 transition of power in Tunisia
55 ARTICLE 25------freedom of propagation of Religion
56 65th amendment act------national commission for SC/ST
57 Optical fiber------communication
58 Official english language state------nagaland
59 Octroi tax------local body tax
60 Banaras university------madan mohan malviy
61 Panchtatr---vishnu sharma
62 Lohgarh fort- banda bahadur
63 Mandal commision-1992
64 First cotton mill set up------ahmdabad
65 Who was aryabhatt------ans: all of these
66 Operation black board
67 . The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is Ans: Carbon dioxide
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1.best conductor of electricity--> Salt water
2. Nuclear reactor,electricity developed by --> nuclear fission
3.slab of ice kept in room-->(doubt) does not radiate heat
4.inert gas not active in atmosphere--> argon
5. Global warming--> Co2
5.Globalisation--> indian bussiness abroad
6.Central excise-->product commodities
7.hampi is situated on northern bank of river--> tungabhadra
8.find missing box-->some numbers in box,one is empty-->12
9.A is greaetr than b..cis less than d like that..which has lowest-->B
10.X2-7=0 how many solution?--> 2
11.series of number and asked which number repeated many times-->4
12.Day after tomorrow is friday...then third day of tomorrow-->Sunday
13.1 november monday then 25 november--> thursday
FCI reasoning question and answers FCI previous years question papers,FCI free solved sample placement papers,FCI free practice papers for reasoning aptitude,general awareness Reasoning Questions and Answers : go through these 35 questions and increase your chance to clear the exam.
Q - 1. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(A) DIBJS (C) SHBGD (B) SBJID (D) SJBID -Answer
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Q - 2. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two -Answer (D) Three
Q - 3. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(A) 14 (B) 48-Answer (C) 98 (D) 194
Q -4. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(A) 9 (B) 23 (C) 11 -Answer (D) 12
Q - 5. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
(A) Brother -Answer (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law
Q - 6. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two
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(D) Three-Answer
Q - 7. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the color of turmeric?
(A) green (B) yellow (C) red -Answer (D) pink
Q - 8. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
(A) 35 -Answer (B) 38 (C) 39 (D) 40
Q - 9. Mara runs faster than Gail. Lily runs faster than Mara. Gail runs faster than Lily. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true-Answer B. false-Answer C. uncertain
Q - 10. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago?
(A) 71 years -Answer (B) 72 years (C) 74 years (D) 77 years
1. Rajesh started from point A and Travelled 8kms towards the north to point B, he then turned right and
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travelled 7 kms to point C, from point C he took the first right and drove 5 kms to point D, he took another right and travelled 7 kms to point E, and finally turned right and travelled for another 3 kms to point F. What is the distance between point F and B?
a.1km
b.2kms-Answer
c.3 kms
d. 4 kms
e. none of these
2. Among R, L, T and J each having different weights, T is heavier than only L. R is not heavy as J. who is the heaviest?
a. R
b. J
c. T
d. can’t be determined-Answer
e. none of these
3. How many meaning full English words can be formed with the letters STIF starting with F, using each letter only once in each word?
a. None
b. 1-Answer
c.2
d.3
e. more than 3
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RELUCTANCE each of which has many letters between them in the word(in both forward and backward) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
a. none
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b. 1
c. 2
d. 3-Answer
e. 4
5. In a certain code FIGHT is coded as GJFIU and WRITE is coded as XSHUF. then how will JUDGE be coded in the same code?
a. KVCHF-Answer
b. HFEKV
c. KVEHF
d. VKCFH
e. KVDHF
6. Four of the following 5 are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
a. sugar-Answer
b. sand
c. stone
d. lave
5. Rock
7. which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
AC BE DH ? KQ
GL-Answer FK GK HL HM
8. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, seventh and eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, then the second letter from the left is your answer. If no such word can be formed then
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your answer is x and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is y
a. X
b.T
c. E-Answer
d. S
e. Y
9. if 2 is subtracted from each even digit and 1 is added to each odd digit in the number 8567284. Which of the following will be the sum of the third digit from the left and second digit from the right of the new number thus formed?
a.10-Answer
b. 8
c. 4
d.6
e.16
10. Smita correctly remembers that last year Diwali was celebrated before November but after May. Sanjay correctly remembers that last year he had Diwali holidays after July. Mohan correctly remembers that the month in which Diwali was celebrated had only 30 days. In which month of the year was Diwali definitely celebrated?
a. July
b. August
c. September-Answer
d. October
e. November
11. directions 11-15
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
A E C B % 7 D $ E B 5 C ? 3 D E 9 @ 2 #
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11. How many digits are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol?
a.1
b. 2
c. 3-Answer
4. 4
e. 5
12. how many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series highlighted in BOLD in the above arrangement each of which has as many letters between them(in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
a.none
b. 1
c. 2-Answer
d.3
e. more than 3
13. If all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangements, which of the following end of the twelfth from the left end of the above arrangement?
a. 3
b. @
c.E
d.9
e.D-Answer
14. Which of the following is second to the left of fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
a. A
b.E
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c. D
e.B
e.C-Answer
15.if all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, while the other elements in the arrangement remain unchanged, which of the following will be fourteenth from the left end of the arrangement?
a. 2
b.5-Answer
c.3
d.7
e. none of the above
SSC FCI Grade II Exam (Paper I): Solved Question Paper,FCI 2010,2011,2012 solved question paper,FCI General English, Aptitude Reasoning,general ability,questions with answers,FCI free solved sample placement papers,FCI GRDE-II Examination model questions with answers SSC FCI EXAM ASSISTANT GRADE II EXAM PAPER - I GENERAL ENGLISH Directions (1-5) : In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from errors, then your answer is (4) i.e. No error. 1. You have been doing (1)-Answer/your homework (2)/regularly? (3)/ No error (4)- 2. The same procedure (1)/ also should (2)-Answer/ for the final assessment (3)/ No error (4) 3. I must find out (1)/ some means to balance (2)-Answer/ my budget (3)/ No error (4) 4. Thank you, (1)/ I am fine (2)/ completely. (3)-Answer/ No error (4) 5. He asked me (1)/ When could I finish (2)-Answer/ the work. (3)/ No error (4) Directions (6-10) : In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer. 6. He slipped ______the train 1) off 2) from-Answer
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3) of 4) through 7. How did these things come ______? 1) about-Answer 2) into 3) at 4) down 8. The cricket was lazy ______the ant was busy 1) yet 2) and 3) but-Answer 4) so 9. Nadira ______little difficulty in finding a job after her graduation 1) feigned 2) faced-Answer 3) managed 4) suffered 10. The children suddenly stopped ______when they saw Grandapa coming in 1) angue 2) argued 3) arguing-Answer 4) to argue Directions (11-15) : In the following questions out of the four alternative, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
11. Regard-Answer 1) respect 2) liking 3) love 4) suspicion
12. Swap 1) snap 2) exchange-Answer 3) break 4) exclude
13. Prudent 1) wise-Answer 2) cunning 3) frank 4) severe
14. Gentus 1) a generous person 2) a foreigner
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3) a person with uncommon intellect-Answer 4) an athlete
15. Culmination 1) conclusion 2) climax-Answer 3) abyss 4) cultivation
Directions (16-20) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 16. Evident 1) suspected 2) disagreed 3) doubtful-Answer 4) unimportant
17. Adamant 1) yielding-Answer 2) permissive 3) liberal 4) tolerant
18. Professional 1) novice 2) amateur-Answer 3) dabbler 4) apprentice
19. Callous 1) persuasive 2) caring 3) gentle 4) sensitive-Answer
20. Incredible 1) credulous 2) probable 3) possible-Answer 4) creditable
Directions (21-25) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase
21. A little gush of gratitude
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1) gradual recovery 2) friendly feeling-Answer 3) excessive labour 4) excessive enthusiasm
22. To lose ground 1) to become less powerful-Answer 2) to become less popular 3) to lose foundation 4) to be without a leader
23. To make both ends meet 1) to buy costly articles 2) to live a luxurious life 3) to live within one's income-Answer 4) to please all people
24. To fall back on 1) to oppose something important 2) to suffer an injury on the back in an accident 3) to fall to do something important in time 4) to seek support out of necessity-Answer
25. To make one's blood boil 1) to make somebody furious-Answer 2) to develop fever 3) to get excited 4) to make someone nervous
Directions (26-30) : In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (1) (2) and which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (4)
26. Officials were asked to examine the likelihood of providing banking facilities in the area 1) probability 2) possibility 3) profit-Answer 4) no improvement
27. The shortage of fuel has obstacle interstate transportation 1) facilitated 2) hampered-Answer 3) burdened 4) no improvement
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28. Being a rainy day, we had to abandon the match 1) Having been a rainy day 2) It being a rainy day-Answer 3) It been a rainy day 4) no improvement
29. Rahul gave me an old scissor 1) An old scissor 2) A pair of old scissors-Answer 3) A Pair of old scissor 4) No improvement
30. The teacher was angry with Paul as he had not done the homework 1) At 2) On 3) From 4) No improvement-Answer
Directions (31-35) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence
31. The process of deciding the nature of a disease by examination 1) Test 2) Perusal 3) Diagnosis-Answer 4) Operation
32. That which cannot be easily read 1) Illegible-Answer 2) Incomprehensible 3) Unreadable 4) Unintelligible
33. One who finds nothing good in anything 1) Critic-Answer 2) Satirist 3) Cynic 4) Slanderer
34. A person who pretends to be what he is not 1) Explorer 2) Prompter 3) Imposter-Answer 4) Diviner
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35. In a threatening manner 1) Ominously 2) Springhtly 3) Ghastly-Answer 4) Terribly
Directions (36-40) : In the following questions, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word
36. 1) correspondant 2) corraspondent 3) corraspondant 4) correspondent-Answer
37. 1) decett-Answer 2) deceipt 3) decept 4) deciept
38. 1) psuedonm 2) pseudonym-Answer 3) pseudonym 4) pseudonym
39. 1) jellousey 2) jealousy-Answer 3) jelousey 4) jealousey
40. 1) mischevious 2) mischievous 3) mischievous-Answer 4) mischiviuos
Directions (41-50) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Broadly speaking letters may be said to 41 into two classes, the formal and 42. Formal letters 43 of official or business matters and are 44 to an employer, officials of a department or institutions. Letters to the 45 of a newspaper also belong to this class. In fact, all 46 using formal pattern is of this category. The 47 has to be precisely stated. It must be 48 in style and quite 49. No 50 element has any place in it.
41. 1) fall-Answer 2) rise 3) escape
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4) describe
42. 1) affectionate 2) personal-Answer 3) foreign 4) official
43. 1) deal 2) contain 3) apprise-Answer 4) consist
44. 1) respected 2) addressed-Answer 3) prayed 4) typed
45. 1) publisher 2) salesman 3) editor-Answer 4) printer
46. 1) correspondence-Answer 2) writing 3) columns 4) articles
47. 1) objection 2) criticism 3) essay-Answer 4) language
48. 1) lucid-Answer 2) high 3) florid 4) descriptive
49. 1) critical 2) creative 3) subjective 4) objective-Answer
50. 1) divisive 2) wicked 3) personal 4) unitidy-Answer
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General Intelligence Directions (51-59) : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number form the given alternatives.
51. ABZ : BDX : : CFV : ? 1) HIT 2) DHI 3) DHO 4) DHT-Answer
52. BCDE : VWXY :: FGHI : ? 1) JKLM 2) KLIJ 3) NOPQ 4) RSTU-Answer
53. tide : edit :: spit : ? 1) tpis 2) tips-Answer 3) tsip 4) tpsi
54. 72 : 40 :: ? : 30 1) 64 2) 54 3) 66-Answer 4) 48
55. 6 : 12 :: 20 : ? 1) 50 2) 30-Answer 3) 42 4) 38
56. 5 : 135 :: 7 : ? 1) 353-Answer 2) 245 3) 273 4) 293
57. Poet : Imagination : : Historian : ? 1) Statistics 2) Commerce 3) Facts-Answer 4) Science
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58. Gifted : Intelligent : : Creative : ? 1) Artistic 2) Scientific 3) Productive-Answer 4) Repetitive
59. Triangle : Hexagon : : ? 1) Cone : Sphere 2) Rectangle : Octagon-Answer 3) Pentagon : Heptagon 4) Angle : wuadrilateral
Directions (60-65) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other responses.
60. 1) 275 2) 324-Answer 3) 325 4) 381
61. 1) 2016 2) 3006 3) 3016 4) 3303-Answer
62. 1) 31-64-Answer 2) 26-48 3) 43-65 4) 34-56
63. 1) NML 2) QPO 3) HGE-Answer 4) XWV
64. 1) ABBC 2) HIIJ 3) PQQR 4) WYYZ-Answer
65. 1) MDPS 2) CNGH 3) FJILQ 4) OAUE-Answer
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66. 1) Watch 2) Clock-Answer 3) Bangle 4) Bracelet
67. 1) Brotherhood-Answer 2) Babyhood 3) Adulthood 4) Childhood
68. 1) Pen - Ink-Answer 2) Pot - Water 3) Bottle - Tonic 4) Cylinder - Air
Directions (69-70) : In each of the following questions, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order ?
69. 1) Mother 2) Infant-Answer 3) Milk 4) Crying 5) Smiling (1) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (2) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (3) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 (4) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
70. 1) Salary-Answer 2) Child 3) Employment 4) School 5) College (1) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 (2) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 (3) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 (4) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
71. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letters series shall complete it? _ sr _ tr _ srs _ r _ srst _ 1) tissrr 2) tsrtsr 3) strtrs 4) tsttir-Answer
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72. Which of the following words will come fourth if arranged according to the English Dictionary 1) Elect 2) Electric-Answer 3) Elector 4) Elastic
Directions (73-76) : In each of the following questions choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
73. 206, 221, 251, 296, 356, ? 1) 416 2) 426 3) 431-Answer 4) 430
74. 5, 17, 37, 65, ?, 145 1) 95 2) 97 3) 99 4) 101-Answer
75. KEC, LFD, MGE, NHF, ? 1) OIF 2) OIG 3) PHG-Answer 4) NIG
76. ABCD, GHJI, MNPO,? 1) RSQP 2) STRQ 3) RSUT 4) STVU-Answer
77. Kusuma is the wife of Ravi. Govind and Prabhu are brothers. Govind is the brother of Ravi. Prabhu is Kusuma's 1) Cousin 2) Brother 3) Brother-in-law-Answer 4) Uncle
78. 20 years ago, Antony's age was 1/2 of what his age now is. What is his age now? 1) 20 years 2) 40 years-Answer 3) 35 years 4) 30 years
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79. Find the wrong number in the given number series 3, 9, 27, 81, 243, 730 1) 27 2) 81 3) 243 4) 730-Answer
80. If in a certain code language INSTITUTION is coded as NOITUTITSNI, then how will PERFECTION be coded in that code language? 1) NOITEERPFC 2) NOITCEEREP-Answer 3) NOITCFERPE 4) NOTICEFRPE
81. If L denotes x, M denotes ÷, P denotes + and Q denotes -, then find the value of 16 P 25 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ? 1) 6 2) 8 3) 10-Answer 4) 12
82. Some equation are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis If 8 + 8 = 72, 5 + 5 = 30 and 7 + 7 = 56, what is 6 + 6 = ? 1) 40 2) 42-Answer 3) 30 4) 36
83. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation 1) *, <, ÷ 2) *, >, ÷-Answer 3) ÷, >, * 4) *, >, +
84. From the following alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word CORRSPONDENT 1) SPEED 2) ORDER 3) SPOON 4) ARREST-Answer
85. From the following alternatives, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word CONTROVERSY 1) RIVER
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2) STORY 3) OTHER 4) YOURS
86. If B-2, A-1, M-3, R = 5, E = 6, O = 7, the sum of the letters of which of the following words will give the highest number? 1) BORE 2) ROOM-Answer 3) MORE 4) RARE
Directions (87-88) : In each of the following questions, find the missing number from the given responses.
87. 4 8 10 320 2 ? 3 180 9 6 4 216 1) 22 2) 30-Answer 3) 28 4) 20
88. 18 11 19 12 13 16 36 4 ? 1) 36 2) 9-Answer 3) 35 4) 7
89. Lalit is elder than Prakash and Kishore, Mukesh is elder than Rakesh but not as old as Lalit. Prakash is younger than Rakesh but is not the youngest. Who is the eldest? 1) Lalit-Answer 2) Mukesh 3) Rakesh 4) Kishore
90. John's house is 100 meter north of his uncle office. His uncle's house is located 200 meters west of his (uncle's) office. Kabir is the friend of John and he stays 100 meters east of John's house. The office of Kabir is located 100 meters south of his house. Then how far is his uncle's house from Kabir's office? 1) West -Answer 2) East-Answer 3) South 4) North
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92. A house faces north. A man coming out of his house walked turned left and walked 25 meters. He then turned right and walked 5 meters and again turned right an walked 25 meters. How far is he from his house? 1) 15 meters-Answer 2) 55 meters 3) 60 meters 4) 65 meters
Directions (93-94) : In each of the following questions, one or two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions definitely follows from the given statements.
93. Statements : A from with flowers looks beautiful Conclusions : I. Flowers are grown for decoration of rooms II. Room without flowers looks ugly 1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows 3) Both conclusion I and II follow 4) Neither conclusions I nor conclusion II follows-Answer
94. Statements : All students are boys No boy is dull Conclusions : I. There are no girls in the class II. No student is dull 1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows-Answer 3) Both conclusion I and II follow 4) Neither conclusions I nor conclusion II follows
95. A piece of paper is folder and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened-Answer-1
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96. Which of the answer figure exactly the mirror image given figure, when the n held on the line AB?-Answer-3
97. Which answer figure complete the pattern question figure?-Answer3
98. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded-Answer- 4
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99. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Tiger, Lions and Animals?-Answer-3
100. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternative. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. 'H' can be represented by 14, 20, 42, etc. and 'D' can be represented by 59, 65, 86, etc. Identify the set for the word NAIL.
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1) 57, 87, 01, 43 2) 59, 58, 10, 12 3) 89, 57, 04, 41 4) 95, 87, 32, 21-Answer
GENERAL AWARENESS 101. The preamble to our constitution makes no mention of 1) Justice 2) Fraternity 3) Equality of status 4) Adult franchise-Answer
102. Which one of the following is the popularity elected house of the Indian Parliament ? 1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha-Answer 3) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha 4) None of the above
103. Which part of the constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy? 1) Part-III 2) Part-IV-Answer 3) Part-I 4) Part-II
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104. Gandhiji was influenced by the writing of 1) Karl Marx 2) Thomas Hobbes 3) Charles Darwin 4) Leo Tolstoy-Answer
105. The methods of democrate socialism are 1) Revolution 2) General strike 3) Sabotage 4) Persuasion and propaganda-Answer
106. The number of oil refineries working in the State of Assam is 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four-Answer
107. Per capita income is equal to National income 1) ______Total population of the country-Answer 2) National income + Population 3) National income - population 4) National income * population
108. Who appoints the Finance Commission ? 1) Finance Minister 2) Prime Minister 3) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 4) President-Answer
109. The Annpurna Scheme v implemented in the year 1) 1998 2) 1996 3) 1999 4) 2000-Answer
110. A favourable balance of of a country implies that 1) Imports are greater than exports 2) Exports are greater than imports-Answer 3) Both imports an exports are equal 4) Rising imports falling exports
111. Major iron and steel industry are located in the platear 1) Deccan 2) Malwa 3) Telangana
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4) Chota Nagpur-Answer
112. The talles and thickest ty grass is 1) Alfalfa 2) Fodder 3) Bamboo-Answer 4) Lichens
113. Which of the following has its source outside In 1) Brahmaputra-Answer 2) Beas 3) Ravi 4) Jhclum
114. Majuli, the largest river land in the world, lies in the state of 1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Assam-Answer 3) Tripura 4) Mizoram
115. Desertification can be checked by 1) Plugging gulties 2) Checking over grazing-Answer 3) Contour ploughing 4) Forming shelter belts
116. Worship of Mother Goddess was associated with 1) Aryan Civilization 2) Mediterranean Civilization 3) Indus Valley Civilization-Answer 4) Later Vedic Civilization
117. Alexander and Porus fought a battle at 1) Hydaspes-Answer 2) Jhelum 3) Panipat 4) Tarain
118. The Battle of Haldighati was fought between 1) Akbar and Rana Sangram Singh 2) Akbar and Medini Rai 3) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh-Answer 4) Akbar and Uday Singh
119. The famous Peacock Throne of Shah Jahan was taken away in 1739 by 1) Afghan Invader Ahmed Shah Abdali
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2) Persian Invader Nadir Shah-Answer 3) Mongol Invader Chengiz Khan 4) British East India Company
120. Identify the Buddhist Literature from the following : 1) Tripitakas-Answer 2) Upanishads 3) Angas 4) Aranyakas
121. The process of preventing the birds from flying is called 1) Brailing-Answer 2) Debeaking 3) Dubbing 4) Pecking
122. The Vikram Sarabhi Space Centre is located at 1) Sriharikota 2) Trivandrum-Answer 3) Tombay 4) Bangalore
123. The time period of a seconds pendulum is 1) 1 second 2) 2 second-Answer 3) 0.5 second 4) 1.5 second
124. Lakes freeze in cold countries in winter, leaving the water underneath at 1) 00 C 2) 00 F 3) 40 C-Answer 4) 40 F
125. Which one of the following determines the sharpness of image in a camera? 1) The aperture-Answer 2) The exposure time 3) The focal length of the lens 4) Size of the camera
126. Stainless steel is an alloy of 1) Chromium and carbon-Answer 2) Chromium, carbon and iron 3) Chromium and iron 4) Carbon and iron
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127. Veins seen in the leaves, serve the function of 1) Photosynthesis 2) Transpiration-Answer 3) Storage 4) Conduction
128. The edible part of cabbage is 1) Fruit 2) Condensed flower 3) Vegetative bud-Answer 4) Inflorescence
129. Which of the following processes are associated with plants during dark period? 1) Photosynthesis and respiration 2) Respiration and transpiration 3) Transpiration and conduction 4) Conduction and respiration-Answer
130. In MRI machine, which one of the following is used? 1) Sound wave 2) 'X'-ray 3) Ultra-sound wave 4) Magnetic wave-Answer
131. For a person having hypermetropia, the near point is 1) Greater than 25 cm 2) Greater than 50 cm 3) Less than 25 cm 4) Infinity-Answer
132. Amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is measured in terms of 1) Humidity-Answer 2) Droplets 3) Smog 4) All of the above
133. For generation of biogas, the materials commonly used are 1) Animal wastes-Answer 2) Crop residues 3) Aquatic plants 4) Forest residues
134. The symbols used in an assembly language are 1) Codes 2) Mnemonics-Answer 3) Assembler
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4) Macine codes
135. The NOSHADE' attributed in HTML 1) Defines the thickness of the line 2) Displays the lines in red 3) Displays the line in dark grey -Answer 4) Displays the example in red
136. Who invented vaccination ? 1) James Simpson 2) Edward Jenner-Answer 3) Alexander Fleming 4) Christian Barnard
137. Raw materials used for the manufacture of glass are 1) Sand, soda, limestone 2) Sand, charcoal, soda 3) Limestone, charcoal, sulphur 4) Sand, sulphur, soda-Answer
138. Goiter is caused by the deficiency of 1) Iodine-Answer 2) Chlorine 3) Sodium 4) Calcium
139. Which of the following is used in welding broken pieces of iron rails and machine parts? 1) Aluminum sulphate 2) Solder 3) Aluminum powder-Answer 4) None of the above
140. The total number of biosphere reserves present in India are 1) Eleven 2) Ten 3) Fifteen-Answer 4) Twelve
141. The BOD values of water indicate the 1) Amount of organic debris-Answer 2) Amount of oxygen used for biochemical oxidation 3) Amount of oxygen used for biochemical reduction 4) Amount of ozone used for biochemical oxidation
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142. According to the census data released in July 2011, the fall in child sex ratio in rural areas as compared to urban areas is 1) Five times 2) Four times-Answer 3) Three times 4) Two times
143. The objective of 'Jawahar Rojgar Yojna' is to 1) Provide employment to youth in rural areas 2) Create employment opportunities for unemployed persons 3) Strengthen the rural economic and social structure 4) All of the above-Answer
144. Tummalapalle, where huge reserves of uranium have been found as announced by the Atomic Energy Commission in July, 2011, lies in the state of 1) Jharkhand 2) Andhra Pradesh-Answer 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Gujarat
145. Surat is situated on the banks of the river 1) Tapti-Answer 2) Mahanadi 3) Bhima 4) Godavari
146. The most densely populated State in India is 1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Bihar-Answer 3) West Bengal 4) Haryana
147. The formula 1 Indian Grand Prix was held on October 30, 2011 at 1) Delhi proper 2) Greater Noida-Answer 3) Gurgaon 4) Hyderabad
148. Out of which of the following States is Nautanki, a folk dance? 1) Haryana 2) Uttar Pradesh-Answer 3) Rajastan 4) Gujarat
149. Guru Gopinath was an exponent of 1) Kathak
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2) Kathakali-Answer 3) Kuchipudi 4) Bharatnatyam
150. The Noble Prize for Physics for the year 2011 has been awarded to 1) Saul Perimutter, Brian P. Schmidt and Adam G. Riess-Answer 2) Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann and Ralph M. Steinman 3) Christopher A. Sims and Thomas J. Sargent 4) Dan Schechtman
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1In which year did Gandhiji start Satyagraha Movement ? A) 1919-Answer B) 1927 C) 1934 D) 1942 2. An ecosystem consists of
A) producers, consumers and decomposers in a particular area.-Answer B) all the plants and animals of an area. C) a living community and its environment. D) carnivorous and herbivorous of an area
3. The telephone was invented by A) G. Marconi B) Alexander Graham Bell-Answer C) J.L Baird D) Thomas Barrow
4. The crop mainly grown in hills is A) Sweet corn B) Sweet jowar C) Sweet potato
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D) Sweet pea
5. Who is called as the 'Prophet of New India ' A) Dayanand Saraswati B) Sri Ramakrishna-Answer D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) Swami Vivekananda
6. Ethnic group Mongoloids are found in India in A) Southern region B) South-central region C) North-western region D) North-eastern region-Answer
7. When a vibrating tuning fork is placed on table, a loud sound is heard. This is due to A) reflection B) refraction C) forced vibrations D) damped vibrations-Answer
8. An insect-catching plant is A) Australian Acacia B) Smilax C) Nepenthes-Answer D) Nerium
9. The method not used as a Biological control is A) Use of predators of a pest. B) Pheromone traps C) Use of pesticides D) Use of neem extracts
10. The States in India are demanding greater autonomy from the centre in the ___ field , A) Legislative B) Administrative C) Financial D) All the above-Answer
11. Light houses are places with powerful lights to A) guide and resolve traffic jams in crowded metro-cities during nights B) guide and help large crowds at religious gatherings during nights C) indicate to the incoming war-ships, the location of a harbour during night D) guide and warn the ships coming from different directions in the oceans.-Answer
12. In a Capitalistic Economy, the Prices are determined by A) Demand and Supply-Answer
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B) Government Authorities C) Buyers in the Market D) Sellers in the Market
13. Who of the following has not been an interlocutor on Jammu & Kashmir ? A) M.M. Ansari B) Radha Kumar C) Shujaat Bukhari-Answer D) Dilop Padgaonkar
14. The Zone of Earth's atmosphere immediately above its surface up to a height of about 16 kms above equator and 8 Kms over the poles is known as A) Mesosphere B) Thermosphere C) Troposphere-Answer D) Stratosphere
15. The term 'Pitcher' is associated with A) Wrestling B) Boxing C) Baseball-Answer D) Basketball
16. The filament of electric bulb is made up of A) Copper B) Nichrome C) Lead D) Tungsten-Answer
17. Which of the following is called ' Brown paper " A) Jute B) Cotton-Answer C) Rubber D) Tea
18. A Secular State is one which : A) has no religion of its own-Answer B) is irreligious C) is anti- religion D) takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people
19. What does Jahangir means ? A) National Monarch B) The Grand Monarch C) Conqueror of the world-Answer D) Hero of hundred battles
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20. Gol Gumbaz is in A) Konark B) Hyderabad C) Puri D) Bijapur-Answer
21. The early Buddhist scriptures were composed in A) Prakrit texts B) Pali texts-Answer C) Sanskrit texts D) Pictographical text
22. In Mohanjadaro, the Largest building is A) the great bath-Answer B) a granary C) the Pillared hall D) a two storeyed house
23. Where was the Royal Durbar held on November 1st 1858 to issue the Queen's proclamation ? A) Lucknow B) Kanpur D) Delhi-Answer D) Allahabad
24. Male(Anopheles) mosquito feeds on: A) Blood of man-Answer B) Nectar of flower C) Blood of Culex D) Blood of leech
25. Tooth paste is a product sold under : A) Monopolistic Competition-Answer B) Perfect Competition C) Monopoly D) Duopoly
26. The National Development Council includes : A) all central Cabinet Ministers-Answer B) Chief Ministers of all the States-Answer C) Cabinet Ministers of all the States and the Centre D) Members of the Estimates Committee of the Parliament
27. Which of the following is not a cause of low productivity in Indian agriculture A) Co-operative farming-Answer B) Inadequate inputs availability
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C) Sub-division and fragmentation of Land D) Poor finance and marketing facilities.
28. The gas that is used in the manufacture of vanaspati ghee is A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Hydrogen-Answer D) Nitrogen
29. Cement is usually a mixture of A) Calcium silicate and calcium aluminate-Answer B) Calcium silicate and calcium ferrate C) Calcium aluminate and calcium ferrate D) Lime stone and silicon dioxide
30. Which of the following is not a Hardware ? A) Processor chip B) Printer C) Mouse D) Java-Answer
31. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of : A) Vitamin- D B) Vitamin - K C) Vitamin - E D) Vitamin - C-Answer
32. According to a study conducted by Hyderabad's National Institute of Nutrition, The healthiest of 14 fresh fruits commonly consumed in India with maximum' Goodness Index' is A) Indian Plum B) Mango C) Guava-Answer D) Custard apple
33. The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union List only in consultation with the State Government for the State of : A) Assam B) Rajasthan C) Jammu & Kashmir-Answer D) Kerala
34. Tsunamis are waves generated by A) Earthquakes beneath the Sea-Answer B) Moon's pull C) High tides of the oceans D) Cyclones
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35. Which is the largest State of India ? A) Madhya Pradesh B) Andhra Pradesh C) Rajasthan-Answer D) Maharashtra
36. Which one of the following is a system software A) Database programs B) Word processors-Answer C) Spreadsheets D) Compilers
37. A piece of wood is held under water. The upthrust on it will be : A) Equal to the weight of the wood-Answer B) less than weight of the wood C) more than weight of the wood D) zero
38. Kamakhya temple is an important place of tourism in the State of A) Tamil Nadu B) Assam-Answer C) Himachal Pradesh D) Manipur
39. Electric bulbs are filled with A) Nitrogen B) Carbon dioxide C) Argon-Answer D) Oxygen
40. The atmospheric gas that is mainly responsible for Green House effect: A) Ozone B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Cabondioxide-Answer
41. Wisdom teeth is the A) 1st molar teeth B) 2nd molar teeth C) 3rd molar teeth-Answer D) 4th molar teeth
42. Who of the following pairs of Nobel Laureates in Physics was awarded 2010 Nobel Prize ? A) John C Mather, George F. Smoot B) Albert fert, Peter Grunberg
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C) David J Gross, Frank. Wilczek D) Andre Geim, Konstantin Novoselov-Answer
43. "Tabal Chongli" is a form of folk dance associate with the State of A) West Bengal B) Assam-Answer C) Andhra Pradesh D) Maharashtra
44. Who is the supreme Commander-in-Chief of armed forces of the country ? A) Defence Minister B) Prime Minister C) Senior-most among the three service Chiefs. D) President-Answer
45. Which of the following is correctly matched ? A) Assam-Itanagar B) Arunachal Pradesh-Guwahati C) Tripura-Agartala-Answer D) Nagaland-Shillong
46. The purest form of Iron is A) Cast iron B) Steel B) Pig iron D) Wrought iron-Answer
47. The caste system of India was created for : A) Immobility of labour B) recognition of the dignity of labour C) economic uplift D) occupational division of labour-Answer
48. The iron ore which contains 72 % of iron is A) Magnetite-Answer B) Limonite C) Haematite D) Siderite
49. Surat is located on the banks of the river : A) Narmada B) Sharavathi C) Mahi D) Tapti-Answer
50. The tusk of elephant is an enormously enlarged:
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A) Upper incisor-Answer B) Upper canine C) lower canine D) lower incisor
51. Megasthenes lived for many years at the court of the : a) Magadha kings b) Nanda kings c) Mauryas-Answer d) Guptas
52. As per the provisional data of the 2011 census of India, the gap in literacy between men and women stands reduced to percentage points: a) 10.8 b) 16.5-Answer c) 18.4 d) 20.3
53. The people of the Indus Valley worshiped : a) Brahma b) Vishnu c) Pashupathi-Answer d) Vayu
54. Haemoglobin of the blood forms carbonyl haemoglobin with: a) Carbon dioxide b) Carbon monoxide-Answer c) Sulphur dioxide d) Nitrogen dioxide
55. What should be the minimum size of a plane mirror to have the full image of a person, when he stands at a distance? a) same size as the person b) double the size of the person c) half the size of the person-Answer d) 1/4th of the size of the person
56. Banana leaf tears easily because : a) leaf blade is thin b) leaf blade has no veins c) leaf blade has veins arranged in parallel manner-Answer d) leaf blade has undeveloped veins
57. Who was the Judge against whom the Parliament initiated impeachment proceedings, but failed ultimately? a) Justice Bhagawati-Answer
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b) Justice Ajit Ray c) Justice Sikri d) Justice Ramaswami
58. A heavy and a lighter body of same size are dropped from a height. Which one of them will reach a) Lighter body b) Heavier body-Answer c) Both of them together d) Cannot be predicted
59. The Atomic Energy Commission was set up in : a) 1948-Answer b) 1950 c) 1952 d) 1960
60. The humidity of air is measured by the instrument called a) Hydrometer b) Hygrometer-Answer c) Seismometer d) Barometer
61. The term ‘Gambit’ is associated with: a) Chess-Answer b) Tennis c) Basketball d) Baseball
62. The most common indicator organism that indicates level of water pollution is : a) E.coli b) P.typhi c) C.vibrio d) Entamoeba-Answer
63. Which of the following States of India has the largest length of surface roads? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh c) Maharashtra-Answer d) Tamilnadu
64. Chhatrapati Shivaji’s Court was adorned by the Ministers called: a) Nayanmars b) Ashtadiggajas c) Navaratnas d) Ashtapradhans-Answer
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65. Hot water bag is used for fomentation because: a) Water is a cheap liquid b) Water has high specific heat capacity-Answer c) Water has high latent heat d) Water is easily available
66. ‘Tappatikkali’ is a folk dance associated with the State of : a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala-Answer c) Andhra Pradesh d) Gujarat
67. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 due to the initiative of : a) Gopal Krishna -Answer b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) W.C. Banerjee d) Allan Octavian Hume
68. From where are the words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India taken? a) Rigveda b) Mundaka Upanishad-Answer c) Padam Purana d) Ramayana
69. Real National Income is equal to the size of Population multiplied by : a) Per Capita Real Income-Answer b) Personal Income c) Personal Disposable Income d) Market Prices
70. The tree which releases oxygen even during night is : a) Neem b) Banyan c) Mango d) Pipal-Answer
71. Quagga is an extinct species of : a) Cat b) Horse c) Zebra-Answer d) Antelope
72. Martyr’s day is observed on the death anniversary of : a) Mahatma Gandhi-Answer
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b) Smt. Indira Gandhi c) Lal Bahadur Shastri d) Rajiv Gandhi
73. The expansion of the term HTML is: a) Higher Text Markup Language b) Higher Text Machine Language c) Hyper Text Machine Language d) Hyper Text Markup Language-Answer
74. The blood group that lacks antigen is : a) A b) B c) AB-Answer d) O
75. Lightning conductor is made of : a) Copper-Answer b) Glass c) Ebonite d) Plastic
76. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is : a) calcium b) aluminium-Answer c) iron d) magnesium
77. When Indian leaders stress upon making with indigenous resources, they advocate : a) stopping imports-Answer b) promoting exports c) self-reliance d) national pride
78. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is ______. a) 543 b) 555 c) 553 d) 552-Answer
79. The golden fibre of India is a) Cotton b) Hemp c) Jute-Answer d) Silk
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80. Which one of the following is known as ‘Brown Coal’? a) Bituminous b) Anthracite c) Peat d) Lignite-Answer
81. The new agricultural strategy called ‘Green Revolution’ was initiated in : a) 1947 b) 1951 c) 1965-Answer d) 1972
82. The State of Assam has : a) five National Parks and eleven wildlife sanctuaries-Answer b) three National Parks and nine wildlife sanctuaries c) three National Parks and eight wildlife sanctuaries d) two National Parks and six wildlife sanctuaries
83. The decision of how much to produce is determined by the individuals in a : a) Socialistic Economy b) Mixed Economy c) Capitalistic Economy-Answer d) All the above
84. The famous ‘Dilwara Temples’ are situated in : a) Rajasthan-Answer b) Maharashtra c) Madhya Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh
85. To edit text read by an optical scanner, one needs ______to translate the image into ASCII characters a) an OMR b) an OCR-Answer c) a MICR d) a digitizer
86. In mammals, the cheek teeth are : a) Incisors-Answer b) Premolar c) Molar d) Premolar and Molar
87. Who discovered Insulin? a) William Harvey b) Louis Pasteur
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c) F.G. Banting-Answer d) Alexander Fleming
88. The term ‘operation flood’ refers to : a) Flood Control b) Milk Production-Answer c) Food grain Production d) Population Control
89. PVC is obtained by the polymerisation of : a) Propene b) Vinyl Chloride-Answer c) Styren d) Acetylene
90. The fundamental rights have : a) moral force behind them. b) force of public opinion behind them. c) legal force behind them.-Answer d) no force behind them.
91. Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Assam – Itanagar b) Arunachal Pradesh – Guwahati c) Manipur – Imphal-Answer d) Nagaland – Shilong
92. A candidate contesting for Lok Sabha must have attained the age of : a) 21 years b) 18 years c) 25 years-Answer d) 30 years
93. The second session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by : a) W.C. Banerjee b) Badruddin Tyabji c) Dadabhai Naoroji-Answer d. Surendra Nath Banerjee
94. For controlling pollution, dust escaping from factory chimneys is to be prevented. For this : a) metal grid or wire-mesh is placed over it. b) a metal grid coated with an insulator is placed on it. c) a wire-mesh coated with grease is placed on it d) an electrically charged wire-mesh is placed on it to attract dust.-Answer
95. Which of the following is the worst flood affected area in India?
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a) Assam-Answer b) Nagaland c) Manipur d) Tripura
96. Which of the following is correct about Socialism? a) State is a necessary evil. b) State is a march of God on earth. c) State is an unnecessary evil. d) State promotes common goods.-Answer
97. Full form of BCG is : a) Bacillus Cholera Germ b) Bacillus Calmette Guerin-Answer c) Bacillus Curative Gene d) Bacillus Cholera Guerin
98. The organic compounds present in petroleum are separated by : a) Distillation b) Fractional crystallisation c) Frractional distillation-Answer d) Sublimation
99. Who of the following is NOT a recepient of 2011 Nobel Peace Prize? a) Hu Jintao-Answer b) Leymah Gbowee c) Ellen Jhonson-Sirleaf d) Tawakkol Karman
100. The pH of human blood is : a) 2 b) 10 c) 5.5 d) 7.3-Answer
FCI free solved placement papers,FCI previous years questions with answers,FCI reasoning,Aptitude,General Knowledge computer questions with answers,FCI recruitment detials selection procedure and test 1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at— (A) Cost price (B) Market price (C) Cost or market price which ever is higher (D) Cost or market price which ever is lower Ans. (D)
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2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of— (A) Over statement of assets (B) Understatement of assets (C) Understatement of liabilities (D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts Ans. (B) 3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to— (A) Accrual concept (B) Entity concept (C) Dual aspect concept (D) Money measurement concept Ans. (D) 4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in— (A) Landlords a/c (B) P&L a/c (C) Balance sheet assets side (D) Balance sheet liabilities side Ans. (C) 5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on— (A) Cash price of the asset (B) Hire purchase price of the asset (C) Higher of the two (D) Lower of the two Ans. (A) 6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under— (A) Asset accrued method (B) Total cash price method (C) Any of the two methods (D) None of these Ans. (C) 7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-— (A) Rs. 16667 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 33333 Ans. (B) 8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at— (A) Opening rate of exchange (B) Closing rate of exchange (C) Average rate of exchange (D) Rate applicable to debtors Ans. (B) 9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be— (A) Rs. 4000
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(B) Rs. 5000 (C) Rs. 6000 (D) Rs. 3333 Ans. (A) 10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of— (A) Rs. 10000 (B) Rs.6000 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of the above Ans. (C) 11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum— (A) 5 partners (B) 10 partners (C) 20 partners (D) Any number of partners Ans. (B) 12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be— (A) Debited to his capital a/c (B) Credited to his drawing a/c (C) Credited to his current a/c (D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c Ans. (A) 13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm— (A) Interest at 6% p.a. (B) Interest at 12% p.a. (C) Interest at 15% p.a. (D) No interest Ans. (A) 14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be— (A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2 (B) 4: 3 : 2: 1 (C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2 (D) None of the above Ans. (B) 15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be— (A) 10:6:4 (B) 6:10:4 (C) 8:8:4 (D) 9:7:4 Ans. (D) 16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is
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admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill— (A) Rs.21000 (B) Rs.9000 (C) Rs. 15000 (D) Rs. 6000 Ans. (D) 17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of— (A) Rs. 500000 (C) Rs. 800000 (B) Rs.600000 (D) Rs. 375000 Ans. (A) 18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c— (A) Passage money (B) Freight (C) Primage (D) Address commission Ans. (D) 19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.— (A) 1st April 1949 (B) 1st April 1991 (C) 1st April 1992 (D) 1st April 1956 Ans. (C) 20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in— (A) Revenue Account (B) Balance Sheet (C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet (D) None of the above Ans. (B) 21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of — (A) Realisation (B) Consistency (C) Conservatism (D) None of the above Ans. (A) 22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in— (A) Lowering the profit (B) Raising the profit (C) Raising the tax liability (D) None of the above Ans. (B)
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23. Given, Total assets turnover 4 Net Profits 10% Total Assets Rs. 50000 Net profit will be— (A) Rs. 15000 (B) Rs. 10000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs.20000 Ans. (D) 24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to- (A) Board of directors (B) Members (C) Managing director (D) Company secretary Ans. (B) 25. Bonus shares means shares issued to— (A) Workers (B) Existing equity shareholders (C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend (D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest Ans. (B) 26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification? (A) Stock (B) Plant (C) Loose tools (D) Goodwill Ans. (D) 27. Cash from operations is equal to— (A) Net profit + increase in current assets (B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities (C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities (D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities Ans. (C) 28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be- (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 40000 Ans. (A) 29. Which of the following is not a current liability? (A) Bank overdraft (B) Redeemable debentures (C) Account payable (D) Provision for bad debts
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Ans. (B) 30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to— (A) 2% (B) 2.5% (C) 3% (D) 5% Ans. (B) 31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory? (A) 2: 1 (C) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (D) None of these Ans. (C) 32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by— (A) Peter Drucker (B) Herzberg (C) McGregor (D) Maslow Ans. (B) 33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day? (A) Autocratic (B) Democratic (C) Free rein (D) Participative Ans. (B) 34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called— (A) Management (B) Coordination (C) Planning (D) Decision-making Ans. (C) 35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called— (A) Line organisation (B) Chain organisation (C) Command organisation (D) All the above Ans. (D) 36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called— (A) Management by objective (B) Management by exception (C) Management by crisis (D) Management by choice Ans. (B) 37. Under delegation of authority— (A) Authority is given to subordinates
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(B) Authority flows from top to bottom (C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability (D) All the above happens Ans. (D) 38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called— (A) Job specification (B) Job evaluation (C) Job analysis (D) Job description Ans. (C) 39. In case of a private company— (A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares (B) The number of members is restricted (C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited (D) All of the above Ans. (D) 40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than— (A) 1 Company (B) 7 Companies (C) 15 Companies (D) 20 Companies Ans. (C) 41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a— (A) Public company (B) Any type of company (C) Private company (D) Private company subsidiary to a public company Ans. (C) 42. Henry Fayol is known for— (A) Scientific management (B) Rationalisation (C) Industrial psychology (D) Principles of managements Ans. (D) 43. The principle of unity of command’ implies— (A) Unity of thought and action (B) Unity amongst subordinates (C) Instructions from staff authority (D) Instructions from line authority Ans. (D) 44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be— (A) 1:1 (B) 0.5: 1 (C) 0.4: 1
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(D) None of the above Ans. (C) 45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called— (A) Net working capital (B) Gross working capital (C) Deferred liabilities (D) Net worth Ans. (D) 46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be— (A) Rs. 39000 (B) Rs. 40000 (C) Rs.41000 (D) Rs. 44000 Ans. (A) 47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as— (A) An asset (B) A liability (C) An expense (D) A revenue Ans. (B) 48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’? (A) Verification of assets (B) Internal check (C) Vouching (D) Internal audit Ans. (C) 49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be— (A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs.200 (C) Rs. 250 (D) Rs. 100 Ans. (D) 50. Sale of long term investments indicates— (A) A change in current assets (B) Application of funds (C) Increase in working capital (D) Source of funds Ans. (D) 51. Net working capital refers to— (A) Current assets (B) Current assets minus current liabilities (C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets (D) Retired earnings.
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Ans. (B) 52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be— (A) Rs.400 (B) Rs.500 (C) Rs. 1100 (D) Rs. 2000 Ans. (B) 53. The primary objective of audit is— (A) Detection and prevention of frauds (B) Detection and prevention of errors (C) Detection of frauds and errors (D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business Ans. (D) 54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company (B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited (C) London General Bank (D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd. Ans. (B) 55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known— (A) Horizontal combination (B) Vertical combination (C) Lateral combination (D) None of the above Ans. (A) 56. Surrender value is related to— (A) Marine insurance (B) General insurance (C) Life insurance (D) Fire insurance Ans. (C) 57. Over capitalisation refer to— (A) Excess of capital (B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares (C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation (D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power Ans. (D) 58. Motivation refers to— (A) Coordinate the people (B) Guide the working people (C) Terrorise the people (D) Inducing people to work willing by Ans. (D) 59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication— (A) Fear and distrust
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(B) Affection (C) Perception (D) Noise Ans. (B) 60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by— (A) Peter Drucker (B) Henry Fayol (C) Harod Koontz (D) F. W. Taylor Ans. (C) 61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by— (A) Exim Bank (B) Reserve Bank of India (C) State Bank (D) Ministry of commerce Ans. (B) 62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be— (A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1800 (C) Rs. 2000 (D) Rs. 3000 Ans. (D) 63. Given: Gross profit Rs. 60000 Gross profit ratio: 20% Debtor’s velocity 2 months The amount of debtors will be— (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 50000 (C) Rs. 120000 (D) Rs.200000 Ans. (B) 64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for— (A) Issue of Bonus shares (B) Payment of Dividends (C) Payment of operating expenses (D) Redemption of debentures Ans. (A) 65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be — (A) Rs. 10000 (B) Rs. 15000 (C) Rs. 37500 (D) Rs. 52500
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Ans. (A) 66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading— (A) Revenue and surplus (B) Provisions (C) Current liabilities (D) Miscellaneous items Ans. (C) 67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by— (A) Company Law Board (B) Institute of charted accountants of India (C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India (D) Indian standard Board Ans. (B) 68. Which of the following is not correct— (A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock (B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold (C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock (D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock Ans. (D) 69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be— (A) 3000 (B) 3600 (C) 3960 (D) 400 Ans. (D) 70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim— (A) Rs. 8000 (B) Rs. 9000 (C) Rs. 10000 (D) Rs. 7200 Ans. (D) 71. The data obtained from a newspaper are— (A) Primary data (B) Secondary data (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Ans. (B) 72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets— (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs90000 (C) Rs. 120000 (D) Rs. 180000 Ans. (B)
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73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”. (A) The assessee has ownership on that house (B) The assessee uses that house for his business (C) The assessee himself lives in that house (D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence Ans. (A) 74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property— (A) 25% of Annual Value (B) 30% of Net Annual Value (C) 1/5 of Annual Value (D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value Ans. (B) 75. Single entry system can not be maintained by— (A) Sole proprietorship (B) Partnership concerns (C) Joint stock company (D) All of these Ans. (D) 76. Cash account will not be affected by— (A) Cash paid to creditors (B) Discount received (C) Cash sales (D) Cash received from debtors Ans. (B) 77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs. 100000 is allowed— (A) Rs. 20000 (B) Rs. 25000 (C) Rs. 30000 (D) Rs. 33000 Ans. (C) 78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds— (A) Rs. 50 Lakhs (B) Rs. 40 Lakhs (C) Rs. l0 Lakhs (D) Rs. 25 Lakhs Ans. (B) 79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as— (A) Preferential Creditor (B) Partly Secured Creditor (C) Fully Secured Creditor (D) Unsecured Creditor Ans. (A) 80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
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(A) Amalgamation (B) Absorption (C) Reconstruction (D) Purchase of Business Ans. (A) 81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner— (A) Old firm has to be dissolved (B) Old partnership has to be dissolved (C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved (D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership Ans. (D) 82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under— On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000 On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700 On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600 On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300 On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100 Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to- (A) Rs.2100 (B) Rs. 1950 (C) Rs. 1800 (D) Rs. 1700 Ans. (B) 83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be— (A) Rs.3100 (C) Rs. 3290 (B) Rs.3140 (D) Rs. 3350 Ans. (C) 84. EXIM Bank was established on— (A) 1st Dec 1984 (B) 1st June 1985 (C) 1st Jan 1982 (D) 1st July 1980 Ans. (C) 85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of— (A) 40 months (B) 36 months (C) More than 36 months (D) Less than 36 months Ans. (C) 86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
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(A) Exempt from Tax (B) Taxable under the head of salary (C) Taxable under the head of other sources (D) Taxable under the lead of business Ans. (C) 87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that— (A) Land should be used for agricultural activities (B) Land should be used for godown (C) Land should be used for irrigation (D) None of above Ans. (A) 88. Depreciation is allowed on— (A) Tangible Assets (B) Current Assets (C) Fixed Assets (D) Intangible Assets Ans. (C) 89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by— (A) Nominal value of forfeited shares (B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares (C) Called up amount on forfeited shares (D) Forfeited amount of shares Ans. (C) 90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.— (A) F.W. Taylor (B) Harold Smiddy (C) Tanon Brown (D) Peter F. Drucker Ans. (B) 1. Kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy in (A) Electric Motor (B) Dynamo (C) Electromagnet (D) Ammeter B 2. Floppy disk is an example of (A) Read Only Memory (B) Random Access Memory (C) Cache Memory (D) Secondary Storage Memory D 3. Which of the following compounds are sprayed over clouds to cause artificial rain? (A)Ice (B) NaOH (C)AgI
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(D) NH4CL C 4. Iodine deficiency in diet is know to cause (A)rickets (B) obesity (C)scurvy (D) goitre D 5. The refrigeration of the food articles keeps them fresh because (A) water forms crystals (B) chemical reaction is slowed down (C) chemical reaction take place faster (D) bacteria are killed D 6. Which substance is called the ‘liquid gold’? (A) Gold as a liquid form (B) Sodium as a liquid form (C) Mustard oil (D) Petroleum oil D 7. Percentage of silver in German silver is (A)25°/o (B) 0% (C)75°/o (D) 80% There is no Silver 8. Which type of compounds are sugar and common salt? (A) Both are organic compounds (B) Both are inorganic compounds (C) Sugar is an organic compound and common salt is an inorganic compound (D) Sugar is inorganic compound and common salt is an organic compound C 9. The chemical name of Vitamin ‘E’ is (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Retinol (C) Tocopherol (D) Thiamine C 10. Which of the following gases has bleaching property (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon Monoxide (C) Chlorine (D) Hydrogen C
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11. The heaviest body of our Solar system is (A)Sun (B) Uranus (C)Jupiter (D) Saturn A 12. From amongst the following; Name famous Indian ornithologist (A) Dr. Salim Ali (B) Dr. Gopalasamudram N. Ramachandran (C) Dr. J.B.S. Haldane (D) Dt H.G. Khorana a 13. Who performed the longest space journey in the year 2007 (A). Venus Williams (B) Serena Willlams (C) Sunita William (D) Sir John William C 14. ‘The Lost Child’ was written by (A) Nirad C. Chowdlltiury (B) Mulk Raj Anand (C) Khushwant Singh (D) Annie Besant B 15. Dr. MS. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields ? (A) Nuclear Physics (B) Agriculture (C) Astrophysics (D) Medicine B 16. The Headquarters of UNESCO at (A)Rome (B) Geneva (C)Paris (D) New York C 17. January 15 is celebrated as the (A) Army Day (B) Martyr’s Day (C) Independence Day (D)) Ugadhi A 18. Bijapur is known for its (A) Heavy rainfall
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(B) Rock Temple (C) Gol Gumbaj (D) Statue of Gomateshwara C 19. The Americans are also known as (A) Kiwis (B) Yankees (C) Tories (D) None of the above B 20. India lifted the ONGC Nehru Cup, 2009, after defeating in the final (A)Syria (B) Pakistan (C)Sri Lanka (D) Bangladesh A 21. An element which does not react with oxygen is (A)Chlorine (B) Iodine (C)Helium (D) Nitrogen C 22. During sleep, man’s blood pressure (A) increases (B) decreases (C) fluctuates (D) remains constant B 23. Which Indian fllrnstar was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University (U.K.) ? (A) Amitabh Bachchan (B) Shah Rukh Khan (C) Orn Puri (D) Aamir Khan B 24. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final (A) Leizal Huber and Cara Black (B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova (C) Caroline Woaniacki and Dinara Safina (D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza A 25. Which one of the following is a military alliance ? (A) ASEAN (B) SAARC (C)NATO (D) NAFTA
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C 26. The recipient of the 42nd Jnanpeeth Award is (A) Manohar Shastri (B) Harish Pandya (C) Satya Vrat Shastri (D) K Kamal Kumar C 27. World Development Report is an annual publication of (A)UNICEF (B) UNDP (C)WTO (D) World Bank D 28. Which one of the following is correct ? Player Sport (A) Jeev Milkha — Tennis Singh (B) Jhulan — Cricket Goswami (C) Baichung Bhutia — Hockey (D) Pankaj Advani — Badminton B 29. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the Year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ? (A) Anil Ambani (B) Rahul Bajaj (C) Ratan Tata (D) Gautam Adani C 30. Naina Devi peak forms a part of (A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim (B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region (C) Himalayan range located in Nepal (D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir B ------51.The Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2008 came into effect on December 31, 2009. It incorporates the recommendations of_to prevent overcrowding of jails with undertrials. a. The Law Commission b. The Justice Mallmath Committee's report c. The guidelines issued by the Supreme Court Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) All of the above -Answer (2) Only a (3) Only b (4) Both b and c
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(5) Both a and b
52.__on December 31, 2009, became the first Indian woman to ski to the South Pole when she crossed a 900 km Antarctic ice trek to reach the South Pole to mark the 60th anniversary of the founding of the Commonwealth. (1) AvaniMathur (2) Deepika Sharma (3) Amita Chauhan (4) Reena Kaushal -Answer (5) MadhumitaSolanki
53. The Indian Science Award, instituted by the Department of Science and Technology of the Union government, was given by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to C. R Rao, statistician, at the 97th Indian Science Congress in_on January 3, 2010. (1) Kochi (2) Chennai (3) Thiruvananthapuram -Answer (4) Pune (5) Kolkata
54. New Year began on a bloody note in Pakistan as seventyfive people were killed and over 50 injured in Shah Hasan Khan, near Lakki Marwat in the _ district of the NorthWestern Frontier Province. (1) Chitral (2) Dera Ismail (3) Bannu -Answer (4) Peshawar (5) Hamirpur
55. Russia and the United States, on _, 2009, missed the deadline to sign a replacement to the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) which expired at midnight. (1) December 1 (2) December 5 -Answer (3) December 25 (4) December 31 (5) December 14
56. The Mojave Desert, on December 7,2009, played host to a very modern spectacle when Sir Richard Branson unveiled Virgin Galactic's SpaceShipTwo for carrying passengers to the brink of space. The Mojave Desert is covered the most in_. (1) Utah (2) California -Answer (3) Nevada (4) Arizona (5) None of the above
57. The Supreme Court of which of the following countries, on January 3. 2010, ratified a 25year prison
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sentence for the former President, Alberto Fujimori? (1) Peru -Answer (2) Chile (3) South Korea (4) Taiwan ^ (5) Cambodia
58. The Rajya Sabha on December 1, 2009, unanimously approved, by voice vote, the Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Bill, 2009. Which of the following s/ i are correct regarding the Bill? a. It seeks to give higher compensation to workers and their families in the event of injury or death. b. It empowers the Centre to enhance the compensation and funeral expenses, by notification, from time to time. c. It empowers the government to specify, by notification, monthly wages for an employee. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (1) Only a (2) Only b (3) Only c (4) All of the above -Answer (5) None of these
59. Multilateral funding agency of the Asian Development Bank, on December 3, 2009, approved 200million dollar loan to finance a road project in_. (1) Orissa (2) Jharkhand -Answer (3) Bihar (4) West Bengal (5) Chhattisgarh
60. Consider the following statements related to the selection of Vihaan Networks Ltd., a Shyam Group company, as "Technology Pioneers2010." a. It was selected by the World Economic Forum as a pioneer. b. It was chosen for its innovative and pioneering work in developing solarpowered mobile phone base stations WorldGSM — foi use in rural areas. c. Vihaan Networks is the only company to have found a way ol building sustainable phone networks for 3 billion people in rural areas. Which of the statements giver above is/are not correct? Selecl the correct answer using th< codes given below: (1) Only a (2) Both b and c (3) Both a and b (4) All of the above (5) None of these -Answer
61. The Union Cabinet on Decembei 10, 2009, approved amendments to the Energy Conservation Act ______, to introduce the system o issuing energy saving certificate! to be traded in the domestic mar ket. (1) 2008
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(2) 2006 (3) 2004 (4) 2002 (5) 2001
62. The Haryana Power Generation Corporation, on December 24, 2009, became the first State sector power generation utility in the country to get certified for_for its power stations at Yamunanagar and Panipat and corporate office at Panchkula. a. ISO: 9001 b. ISO: 14001 c.OHSAS: 18001 Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) All of the above -Answer (2) Both a and c (3) Both a and b (4) Both b and c (5) None of these
63. ONGC. on December 1, 2009, signed agreements to pick up____per cent interest in Phase 12 of the gigantic South Pars gas field and get_per cent of Iran LNG's project that will convert the gas into liquefied natural gas for exports. (1)20,40 (2)30,30 (3) 40. 20 -Answer (4) 50. JP (5) 15. 45
64. Reliance Exploration and Production DMCC a wholly owned subsidiary of Reliance Industries Ltd. (RIL), and Ecopetrol, on December 4, 2009. signed the Farmout Agreements, for Borojo_in Colombia. (1) North Block 42 (2) South Block 43 (3) West Block 44 (4) Only 1 and 2 -Answer (5) None of these
65. Japan's government, on December 8, 2009, unveiled $81 billion of new stimulus spending to keep the world's_biggest economy from lurching back into recession. (1) Second -Answer (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth (5) Sixth
66. Reliance Communications, on December 12, 2009, bagged mGovernance infrastructure development contracts
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in_circles to offer integration of mobile technology to seamlessly link various government departments to generate information systems. (1) Kerala (2) Maharashtra (3) Mumbai (4) All of the above -Answer (5) Only 2 and 3
67. The Central Government, on December 18. 2009, pegged the country's GDP (gross domestic product) growth for the current fiscal at over_per cent. (1) 7.25 (2) 7.45 (3) 7.55 (4) 7.75 -Answer (5) 8.25
68. Which of the following major economy related development(s) took place on December 22, 2009? a. An agreement was reached between the oil marketing companies and millers on the price of ethanol. b. RIL announce a third successive gas discovery in the D3 deepsea block in the KrishnaGodavari basin. c. Central Government inks two loan agreements with the Asian Development Bank for funding the country's infrastructure projects. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) Both a and b (2) Both a and c (3) All of the above -Answer (4) Both b and c (5) None of these
69. On which recent date did the Bombay Stock Exchange sensitive index, Sensex, the barometer of domestic stock market, enter its Silver Jubilee year? (1) December 31, 2009 (2) December 1, 2009 (3) January 2, 2010 -Answer (4) January 1, 2010 (5) January 4, 2010
70. India, on January 1, 2010, liberalised its trade with_by slashing duties on several products like seafood, chemicals and apparel among others. (1) South Korea (2) Singapore (3) Thailand (4) Malaysia (5) All of the above -Answer
71. As per the data released by the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade on January 1, 2010, after a gap of 13
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months, exports turned positive in November 2009. registering _ per cent growth at $13.19 billion against $11.16billion in November 200809. (1) 11.5 (2) 18.2 -Answer (3) 16.6 (4) 17.5 (5) 19.4
72. SEBI. on December 31. 2009, allowed _to accept application supported blocked amount (ASBAs) to enable better participation by corporate investors and high networth individuals (HINs) in initial public offerings or rights issues. (1) State Bank of India (2) ICICI Bank (3) 14 banks (4) All of the above -Answer (5) None of these
73. Popular Assamese storyteller, novelist, lyricist and playwright, _, was chosen for the 20th Assam Valley Literary Award for the year 2009 for his literary excellence on December 31, 2009. (1) IqbalHusain (2) ImranShah -Answer (3) Abhijit Ghosal (4) Tapan Bhattacharjee (5) MrinalSanyal
74. Who among the following Britons of Indian origin were conferred with knighthood by Queen Elizabeth of England on December 31, 2009? a. Mota Singh b. Paramjit Singh Bassi c. Gumain Singh Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) All of the above (2) Both a and b -Answer (3) Both a and c . (4) Both b and c (5) Only b
75. Who among the following was/ were conferred the 2009 Karmaveer Puraskar on December 2, 2009? (1) K. Srinath Reddy (2) Manju Bharat Ram (3) RohiniNilekaniandTarunTejpal (4) Gregory Roberts (5) All of the above -Answer
76. Scientist Yash Pal and Project Director of Chandrayaan1 M. Annadurai were conferred with the H.K. Firodia awards for 2009 in Pune on December 23, 2009. Who among the following was/ were the early
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recipients? (1) APJ Abdul Kalam & Vijay Bhatkar (2) Anil Kakodkar and Raghunath Mashelkar (3) M.S. Swaminathan, KKasturirangan and R. Chidambaram (4) CNR Rao, Obaid Siddiqi and P N Tandon (5) All of the above -Answer
77. The Union Government, on December 30, 2009, decided to come up with a National Consumer Policy to_. a. Ensure uniform national and international standards in the various arms of the Central and State governments b. Ensure uniform national and in . temational standards in the regulatory bodies and on consumer fora c.To lay down the guiding principles of complaint resolution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (1) Both a and b (2) Only b (3) Only c (4) All of the above -Answer (5) None of these
78. Which state Government, on January 1, 2010, imposed a ban on holding strike in all power corporations under energy department for six months in public interest? (1) Delhi (2) Uttar Pradesh -Answer (3) West Bengal (4) Andhra Pradesh (5) Bihar
79. A work by Edgar Degas, called Les Choristes (The Chorus), was stolen from Musee Cantini, an exhibition in_, by thieves on December 31, 2009 (1) Marseille -Answer (2) Vienna (3) Lyon (4) Paris (5) Clipperton Island
80. Britain, on January 2, 2010, called a summit of world leaders in London later in January 2010 to discuss the terror threat posed by _, seen as new breeding ground(s) for alQaeda linked extremists. (1) Nigeria (2) Yemen -Answer (3) Syria (4) Lebanon (5) All of the above
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81. Valueadded services means (1) giving full value for money (2) better value for better price (3) costlier service (4) additional service -Answer (5) All of these
82. "POS" means (in marketing) (1) Preparation for Sales (2) Point of Superiority (3) Point of Sales -Answer (4) Primary Outlook of Salesman (5) Position of Sales
83. Effective Marketing helps in (1) boosting the purchases (2) boosting the sales -Answer f (3) diversified business' (4) realisation of dreams (5) All of these
84. A 'Buyer's Market' means (1) buyers are also sellers (2) sellers are also buyers (3) there are not sellers (4) demand exceeds supply (5) supply exceeds demand -Answer
85. The sequence of a sales process is (1) a call, a lead, presentation and sale (2) a lead, a call, presentation and sale -Answer (3) presentation, sale, lead and call (4) presentation, lead, sale and call (5) sale, call, lead and presentation
86. A presentation means (1) display of products (2) explaining the utility of products -Answer (3) a gift (4) display of communication skills (5) All of these
87. A 'lead' means (1) a buyer (2) a seller
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(3) a company intending to sell its products (4) a prospective buyer -Answer (5) a disinterested buyer
88. 'Benchmark'means (1) products line up on bench (2) salesmen sitting on a bench (3) set standards^ -Answer (4) marks on a bench (5) None of these
89. 'Customisation' means (1) customers'personal accounts (2) customers selling goods (3) special products for each customer -Answer (4) better relations' (5) All of these
90. Customer Retention means (1) retaining the customers at the Bank for the full day (2) quick disposal (3) customers dealing with the same bank for a long time -Answer (4) better standards (5) All of these
91. This component is required to process data into information and consists of integrated circuits. (1) Hard disk (2) RAM (3) CPU -Answer 4) ROM (5) None of these
92. One advantage of dialup Internet access is (1) it utilizes broadband technology (2) it utilizes existing telephone service (3) it uses a router for security -Answer (4) modem speeds are very fast (5) None of these
93. What is backup ? (1) Adding more components to your network (2) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination -Answer (3) Filtering old data from the new data (4) Accessing data on tape (5) None of these
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94. Network components are connected to the same cable in the— — topology. (l)star -Answer (2) ring (3) bus (4) mesh (5) mixed
95. Two or more computers connected to each other for sharing information form a (1) network -Answer (2) router (3) server (4) tunnel (5) pipeline
96. A computer checks the of user names and passwords for a match before granting access. (1) website (2) network (3) backup file (4) database (5) None of these -Answer
97. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as (1) supercomputers (2) Laptops -Answer (3) mini computers (4) file servers (5) None of these
98. What is the term for unsolicited email ? (1) newsgroup (2) usenet (3) backbone (4) flaming (5) spam -Answer
99. What type of program controls the various computer parts and allows the user to interact with the computer ? (1) Utility software -Answer (2) Operating system (3) Word processing software (4) Database program (5) None of these
100. Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel document is referred to by its cell address, which is the —. (1) cell's column label -Answer (2) cell's column label and worksheet tab name
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(3) cell's row label (4) cell's row and column labels (5) None of these
FCI ARITHMETIC REASONING questions for practice,FCI these questions are just for exercise,This FCI model aptitude questions will help your preparation for FCI Written test examination 1. If Jean's weekly income doubled she would be making $120 a week more than Barbara. Jean's weekly income is $80 more than half of Betty's . Betty makes $200 a week. How much does Barbara make? a.$180 c.$240 b.$200 d.$360 The answer is C. This kind of question is difficult unless you break it down into parts, and solve it step by step. It's only in the next to last sentence that we're actually given someone's salary . We're told that Betty makes $200 a week. The question asks for Barbara's salary, but it becomes clear after careful reading that we can't find Barbara's salary unless we find Jean's . Jean's weekly income is $80 more than half of Betty's. Jean's salary is $80 more than half of $200, so Jean's salary is $80 more than $100, or$180 . The first sentence tells us that if Jean's weekly income doubled she would bemaking $120 a week more than Barbara. Two times Jean's salary of $180 would be $120 a week more than Barbara's salary . So, two times $180, which equals $360, would be $120 a week more than arbara's salary . $360 is $120 more than what number? $360 - $120 - $240, Choice C.
2 A conference with 3600 participants gathers in Albany. One of every twelve people attending the conference who have ordered meals has special dietary needs. Half of those attending the conference signed up for meals. How many have special dietary needs? a.266 c .150 b.133 d.300 Choice (C) is the answer: It's important in a question like this to identify and break down the information you are given. From the question, we know: 3 . 3600 people are attending the conference 1/2 of the 3600 people have ordered meals One out of 12 (or 1112) of those who ordered meals has special dietary needs It's important to remember that in order to solve this we must keep in mind that only half of the attendees have ordered meals. So half of the 3600 people, or 1800, ave ordered meals. Of these, one out of every twelve has special dietary needs, so 1/12 of the 1800 people who signed up for meals have special dietary needs. There are many ways to solve this problem from this point on. "One way is to simply multiply 1800 by 1/12 to find the answer. (To multiply fractions, multiplythe numerators by each other, and the denominators by each other.) 1/12x1800= 1/12x1800/1=1800/12=150 So, 150 of those who have ordered meals have special ietary needs, Choice (C). Or you could have used decimals. 1/12 is expressed in decimal form as .0833 (to find the decimal form of a fraction, divide the numerator, the top number, by the denominator, the bottom number). 1800 x 1 / 12 = 1800 x .0833 = 149.94 or 150 people . (It comes out a little unevenly because the decimal has been rounded off) You also could have set up a ratio, comparing those with special needs who ordered
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meals to all who ordered meals. A Review of Ratios Ratios are intimidating for many people in an exam setting . Yet, we use ratios in "real life" - inches to miles on a map, or the ratio of ingredients in recipes in cooking. A ratio shows the relationship between two numbers. In this case, it shows the relationship between hose who have dietary restrictions and ordered meals to all those who ordered meals. One out of every twelve people who have ordered meals has special dietary needs, so we need to examine the relationship between the numbers one and twelve, and apply it to the 1800 people who have ordered meals. Special die needs as 1 as what number All who ordered meals 12 1800 One way to do this is to cross multiply. To cross multiply, we multiply the top of one number y the bottom of the other . 1 = ? 1 12 1800 12 1800 1- 1 2 Ix 1800 12 x ? =1800 12 x what number ? = ? = 1800 /150 = 150 (You have to divide the 1800 by he 12, because you want to "isolate" the ? on one side, since that will give you the answer. Since the 12 and the ? were being multiplied by each other, the only way you could "free" the ? was to move the12 over to the other side of the equal sign by dividing the 1800 by the 12. If you get as far as 12 x ? = 1800 but still can't member whether ould'multiply or divide, you can still get the correct answer, because the difference between multiplying add dividing is so large that commonsense will tell you which is right . In this case, dividing gives you 150 people, and multiplying gives you 270,000 (obviously too big a number).So, in a ratio problem, as long as you set up the relationship between the numbers involved correctly (part is to whole as part is to whole), you should be able to solve it .) Another way some people do ratios is by remembering that "the product of the means equals the product of the extremes" . This means that when you multiply the Inside' numbers in a ratio problem together, and then multiply the "outside" numbers together, they will always equal each other. In this case, we would set it up his- 1 is to 12 as ? is to 1800 The "inside" numbers, 12 and ?, would be multiplied together, 12 x ?, and would equal then "outside" numbers that have been ultiplied together, 1800 and l . So 12x?=1800x1 12 x ?'=1800 -1800/ 12=150 All of this may have seemed totally unnecessary, but it's important to keep these ethods in ind for other questions, when using them may be very helpful . Again, there are many ways to solve math problems. If you use different methodsthan those in this booklet, and your results are consistently correct, there's no need to change what you're doing.
3 It costs $360 for Office X's service contract with a typewriter company to service 18 typewriters for six months. At this same rate, how much would it cost Office X to service six typewriters for three months? c. $90 b. $75 a. $80 d. $60 3. The answer is D. This problem is actually easier than it may look at first, and there are a number of ways to do it. One way would be to first determine how much he office is per typewriter. We're told that it costs $360 to service 18 typewriters for six months. So, for a six month period, it would cost,per typewriter, the total ount, $360, divided by the total number of typewriters, 18. $360 _ 18 = $ 20 per typewriter. So it costs $20 to service each typewriter for a six month period. We need to find out how much it would cost to service six typewriters for a three month period. We know the service cost of each typewriter is $20 for six months. For three months, it would be half that amount, or $10 per typewriter. Since we are consideringsix typewriters, the cost I-13
4 In December, an office spent $480, or 15% of its non-personnel expenses that month, for postage. What were its total non-personnel expenses for December?
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a.$'3200 c.$5520 b.$552 d.$7200 4. would be six typewriters at $10 each. for a total of 6 x $10 = $60. Or we could have said that we're being asked to find the cost of one third of the ewriters (6is 1/3 of 18), for half the time (3 months is half of six months). One third iters would cost 1/3 as much: 1/3 x $360 = $120, and since the time olved is 1/2 of the total time, 1/2 of $120 equals $60_ or we could have set it up using fractions : 360 x 1/2 x 1/3 = 360/6 = 60. The answer is A. Many people miss this question, because hey aren't quite sure what to do with the 15% figure they're given. We are told that $480 is 15% of the office's nonpersonnel expenses for December. So in order to find the answer we need to know what number 480 is 15% of . So, we are asking "480 is 15% of what number?" . To find this, we divide 480 by 15%. 480 - 15% 480 - .15 = 3200 It's always a good idea to go back to the problem and check our answer to see if it makes sense. Is 480 15% of 3200? If we divide 480 by 3200, we get .15 = 15%. So 480 is 15% of 3200, and if we multiply 3200 by .15, we get 480. Some people aren't sure whether to multiply or divide. Again, common ense should tell you which, in this case, if you had multiplied, you would have gotten $72 as an answer,which doesn't make much sense. It's important in these exams to step back and evaluate the reasonableness of your solutions , yet people often fail to do this . It was also possible in this question to work backwards rom the answers given to get the right answer. If you weren't sure how to do it, you could have multiplied each choice by 15%, to see which one was equal to $480. Choice A, 3200 x .15 = 480, would have become the obvious choice. This is a legitimate way to solve these types of problemsSome people select Choice D, because they incorrectly ultiply, and then aren't sure where to put the decimal points . If you get confused, we suggest you use the sales tax to help you remember. For example, a 7% sales tax reflects a tax of $ .07 on every dollar . in the corner of your scrap paper you could write, 7% = .07; .07 = 7% or 8.25% = .0825 ; .0825 = 8 .25%. (If you do this, when a percent like .0035% comes along on a word problem, you'll be able to convert it to decimal from more asily, especially if you're nervous. Consulting the sales tax example, we'd notice that 7% = .07 meant the decimal was moved two places to the left when going from percents to decimals, so .0035% would equal .000035 . Or, if we had to convert a decimal like . 00046 to a percent, onsulting the sale tax, we'd see that in the ase of .07 = 7%, the decimal was moved two places to the right, so we'd do the same here. .00046 would then equal .046%. Sorry if this was unnecessary, but many people get confused when dealing with decimals and percents on an exam). I- 1 4
5 Catherine bought an equal number of $11 .00, $9.00, and $8.00 tickets for a concert . She spent $196 for all of the tickets . How many of each did she buy? a.6 c.8 b. 7 d. Cannot be determined from information given
6. Agency Y employs 13,800 people . Of these, 42% are male, and 50% of the males are age 30 or younger. How many males are there in Agency Y who are older than 30? a.5796 c.3471 b.2898 d.2910
7. A machine can collate 126 books, each with 400 page, in 14 days. If it continues to collate at this same rate, how many 400 page books could it collate in 30 days? a.256 c.248 b.290 d.270
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8. A typewriter and a dictation machine cost a total of $840. If the typewriter cost $360 more than the dictation machine, how much did the dictation machine cost? a.$480 c.$240 b.$440 d.$280
9.A cabinet maker has a round piece of wood 1/2" in diameter and 3/4 yards long. She needs half the length for the back of a chair and the remaining piece for 3/4" pegs. How many pegs will she have? c. 10 b. 9 a. 18 d. 8/9
10 Robin can wallpaper a room in four hours. Susan can wallpaper the same room in seven hours. How long will it take them to wallpaper the room if they work together? c. 5.5 hours b. 3.5 hours a. 4.5 hours d. 2.5 hours
11 Mary and Alice jog 3 miles each evening . If they run at a constant rate and it takes Mary 40 minutes while Alice finishes in half an hour, how much distance does Mary have left when Alice finishes? c . 2/3 mile b. 3/4 mile a. 1 mile d.1 .33 miles
12 As a fund raiser , a community organization buys tickets to the theater to resell 25% above cost. They buy 50 eight dollar tickets, 25 tendollar tickets and 25 fifteen dollar tickets . If they sell all but three of the ten dollar tickets, how much money have they made? a. $218.75 c . $248 .75 b. $1273 d. $1243.75
13 If a couch cost $640 after a 20% discount, what was its original price? a.$769 c,$800 b.$512 d.$780
14 A salesperson traveled 145 miles Monday, 72 miles Tuesday, and 98 miles Wednesday for $2300 worth of sales . If the business pays 210 a mile for gas and vehicle maintenance, approximately what percent of sales for the three days went to gas and vehicle maintenance? c. 6% b. 8% a. 3% d. 1%
15 If one of every eight junior year students at a high school takes Latin, approximately what percent of a
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junior year class of 650 took Latin? c . 81 b. 14 a. 6 d. 13
16 The proposed budget for a new social service program is $102,000. The budget states that the project has secured $14,500 worth of transportation services and $1,200 worth of office equipment as in kind contributions . What percent of the budget has been secured in kind? a. 21 .4 c . 20.9 b. 15 .4 d. 13 .1
17 The purpose of the program in Question 16 is to distribute 250,000 pounds of food to disadvantaged persons . Approximately how many pounds of food will be distributed for each dollar budgeted for the program? a. 3.73 c. 2.45 b. 2.15 d. 2 .95
18 A community cannery charges 15¢ per quart and 25¢ for 2 pints for processing. People using the cannery can purchase jars there at 15% discount off the regular price of $4 .25 per case of a dozen quart or pint jars. How much will it cost to can 76 quarts of tomatoes and 20 pints of jelly if the jars are bought at the cannery? (Jars are not sold individually) . a. $46.39 c. $32.49 b. $37.14 d $13.90
19 A pharmacist combines ingredients x, y and z in a ratio of 1 :2 :7 to produce cough medicine. How many ounces of the second ingredient, ingredient y, is needed to make a 12 ounce bottle of the medicine? a. 2.4 c . 1 .2 b.8.4 d. 3 .6
20 Agency Y served 187,565 people in 1981 . If the agency served 210,515 people in 1982, this reflected an increase of c. 12.2% b. 15 .6% a. 19 .10% d. 10
21 The number of people attending a weekly training program in the month of January averaged 116 people . If there were 105 people attending the first week, 106 the second, and 125 the third, how many
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people attended the fourth week? a. 118 c. 130 b .128 d. 124
22 It takes 16 typists 11 days to complete a project . How long would it take 10 typists, if they worked at the same rate to complete the same project? a.17 6 days c . 6.9 days b.6.8 days d.18.4 days
23 If the sum of two numbers is 280, and their ratio is 7:3 . then the smaller number is a. 28 c. 56 b. 84 d. 196
24 The population of Metropolis county in 1982 is 130% of its population in 1972- The population in 1972 was 145,000. What was the population in 1982? a.196,425 c.111,539 b.174,612 d.188,500
25 A car travels 50 miles an hour, and a plane travels 10 miles a minute. How far will the car travel when the plane travels 500 miles? a.50.4 miles c. 41 .6 miles b. 37.5 miles d. 39.7 miles . 26 In a university with 2000 students the student-faculty ratio is 16 :1 . If 18% of the faculty have completed some of their own study at the university, approximately how many have not? a. 119 c . 23 b. 127 d. 103
27 A discount house advertises that they sell all merchandise at cost plus 10%. If Jane buys a TV set for $300, approximately what is the stores profit? a. $30.00 C. $27.27 b. $27.00 d. $32.26
28 From 6 p.m. until midnight, the temperature dropped at a constant rate . From midnight until 1 a.m., it
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dropped 8° . If at 6 p.m., the temperature was 54° and by 1 a.m., it was37°, what was the temperature at 10 p.m.? a. 46' b.48 0 c.45' d.49 0
29 One eighth of a half gallon carton of ice cream has been eaten. The remainder is divided among three people . Approximately what percentage of a gallon does each person get? a.14.6% c.29.2% b. 11 .3% d. 18.1%
30 On a promotional exam a woman scored 143 on a scale of 0-160. Her score converted to a scale of 0- 100 is approximately : a. 89 c. 91 b. 70 d. 84
31A woman paid a tax of $88.00 on property assessed at $28,000. Her neighbor, assessed at the same rate . paid a tax of $110 . What was the assessed value of the neighbor's house? a. $22,400 c.$35,000 b. $32,400 d. $31,000
32 If Janet can build 22 tables in 14 days, and Anne can build 22 tables in 16 days, approximately how long will it take them to build 22 tables together? a.9.5days c. 15 days b. 7 .5 days d. 8 days
33 Cynthia loaned $35 to Mary. But Cynthia borrowed $14 from Jean, and $16 from Emily Emily owes $17 to Jean and $9 to Mary. One day they got together to settle their accounts. Who left with $10 less than she came with? a. Cynthia b.Jean d. Emily
34 How many square tiles, each 12 inches on a side, will Ozzie need to cover a floor that is I1 feet wide and 18 feet long? a. 99 c . 163 b. 150 d. 198
35 A car has depreciated to 72% of its original cost. If the car is presently valued at $3245, approximately
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what was its original cost? a.$5219 b.$5582 c .$4507 d. $2336
36 The sales tax on a typewriter is $13.41 and the sales tax rate is 4%. The purchase price, before the tax was added, was: a. $335.25 c.$279.10 b. $536.40 d. $317.50 37 The sales tax on a typewriter is $13.41 and the sales tax rate is 4%. The purchase price, before the tax was added, was: a. $335.25 c.$279.10 b. $536.40 d. $317.50
38 What is the interest on $600 at 8% for 30 days? a. $4.00 c. $7.50 b. $11 .52 d . $4 80
39 A tax analyst eams four times as much in April as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year's earnings does she earn in April? a.4/11 c .4/15 b.1/3 d.4/13
40 A train travels 70 miles when a bus travels 50 miles. How many miles will the train travel when the bus travels 60 miles? a.40 c . 90 b. 78 d. 84
FCI questions for practice,this is not an original question paper only for practice for upcoming FCI written exam,These questions based on memory FCI Assistant Grade -III written test examination syllabus,FCI date of written test examination last date for applying posts, procedure for the recruitment, FCI previous years questions with
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answers,FCI general depot and technical cadre free solved sample placement papers,FCI previous years questions with answers
1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=? (a)15 (b)12 (c)18 (d)10
Ans. (b) 2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
(a)12 (b)8 (c)16 (d)6
Ans. (b)
3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ? (a) 99/1020 (b) 99/10 (c) 0.9 (d) none of these Ans. (a)
4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank (a) 17 1/7 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 8 mins (d) none of these Ans. (a)
5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job? (a) 8 hrs (b) 7 1/2 hrs (c) 7 hrs (d) 9 hrs Ans. (b)
6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728 (a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 8
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(d) none of these Ans. (c)
7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current? (a) 1/2 kmph (b) 7/12 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) none of these Ans. (b)
8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze? (a) 38.5 sq.m (b) 155 sq.m (c) 144 sq.m (d) 19.25 sq.m Ans. (a)
9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps? Ans.46 steps.
10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ? Ans.40 years.
11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container Bwhich becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE? Ans. AE = 10.
13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC? Ans. BC = 4 cm.
15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace. Ans. 64/2210.
16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal
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number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ? Ans. 991.
17. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be? Ans. x = e2 or e3.
18. The square of a two digit number is divided byhalf the number.After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2.The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number? Ans. 46
19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.? Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.
20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top? Ans.18 hours . 21. What is the missing number in this series? 8 214 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12 Ans. 9
22. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture? Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.
23. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo? Ans. 360 years old.
24. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they? Ans. Three.
25. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each dayeating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day? Ans. Eight.
26. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs? Ans. Five minutes.
27. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour handat intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does theclock gain or lose?
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Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
28. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2= 5/9. Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
29. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During lastmonth its ratewas Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed? Ans. 20 %.
30. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6. Ans. 10.
31. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979? Ans. Friday.
32. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days,when given at arate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head.How, many more men can it feed? Ans. 1700 men.
33. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball? Ans. 3720.
34. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill itin 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled? Ans. 167 minutes . 35. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What ishis usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
36.For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. Byway of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
1. Which is the shortest route from B to C
(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C (b) The bridge (c) The Tunnel (d) The bridge or the tunnel (e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
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Ans. (a)
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms oftoll and distance is to use the
(a) tunnel (b) bridge (c) bridge or tunnel (d) toll free highway (e) bridge and highway
Ans. (a)
3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City Aevery working day.His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay forlateness. Whichfactor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?
(a) Whether his wife goes with him (b) scenic beauty on the route (c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel (d) saving $0.25 in tolls (e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge
Ans. (a)
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be: I. Traffic and road conditions II. Number of passengers in the car III. Location of one's homes in the center oroutskirts of one of the cities IV. Desire to save $0.25
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only (e) I and II only
Ans. (a)
37.The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarilyin that order,stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10D is 3 less than A B is the middle term F is as much less than B as C is greater than D G is greater than F
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1. The fifth integer is (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F
Ans. (a)
2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Ans. (a)
3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16
Ans. (a)
4. A - F = ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a)
5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) Cannot be determined
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Ans. (a)
6. The greatest possible value of C is how muchgreater than the smallest possible value of D? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6
Ans. (a)
38. 1. All G's are H's 2. All G's are J's or K's 3. All J's and K's are G's 4. All L's are K's 5. All N's are M's 6. No M's are G's
1. If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true?
(a) All P's are J's (b) No P is a G (c) No P is an H (d) If any P is an H it is a G (e) If any P is a G it is a J
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?
(a) No M's are H's (b) No M's that are not N's are H's (c) No H's are M's (d) Some M's are H's (e) All M's are H's
Ans. (a)
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3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?
(a) All H's are G's (b) All H's that are not G's are M's (c) Some H's are both M's and G's (d) No M's are H's (e) All M's are H's
Ans. (a)
4. The statement "No L's are J's" is I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's"
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only (e) Neither I, II nor III
Ans. (a)
39.In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.
1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true
(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members (b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members (c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members (d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members (e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.
Ans. (a)
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2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed I. One-fourth of democratic party members II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservativeparty members III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II or III but not both (d) I and II or I and III (e) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rulesas stated: (a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party (b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party (c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior (d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party (e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.
Ans. (a)
4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired. (a) The democratic deputy and all staff membersbelonging to Justice party (b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members (c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office (d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or herstaff members belonging to Conservative party (e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.
Ans. (a)
40.In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before". If the president's statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given: I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs. II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases. III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases. (a) I only
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(b) II only (c) I or II but not both (d) I, II and III (e) None
Ans. (a)
41. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don't function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and sholdn't go together IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn't be a team
1.If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.
A.ABDEH B.ABDGH C.ABEFH D.ABEGH
Ans.B
2.If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4
Ans.A
3.If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C A.B B.D C.F D.G
Ans.B
4.Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office
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A.B B.D C.E D.G
Ans.A
5.If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true
I.C cannot go II.A cannot go III.H must also go
A.I only B.II only C.I and II only D.I and III only
Ans.D
42.After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure
I.The interviews will be held once a week II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session III.Each candidate will appear at least once IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present. VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview. 1.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.
A.BCD B.CDE C.ABE D.ABC
Ans.B
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2.Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks
A.ABC;BDE B.ABD;ABE C.ADE;ABC D.BDE;ACD
Ans.C
3.If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A II B III.C IV.E A.I and II B.I and III only C.II and III only D.III and IV only
Ans.D
4.Which of the following correctly state(s) theprocedure followed bythe search committee I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once II.The committee sees each applicant a second time III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice A.I only B.II only C.III only D.Both I and II
Ans.A
43. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2and 3 When it snows , morning service on B is delayed When it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line, but not both. When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the3 line but not both. When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed. When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line whichconnects the 3 line is delayed. Q1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degreefarenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon.
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(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. D
Q2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degreesfarenheit it beginsto rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans. C
Q3. On which of the following occasions would servicebe on the greatest number of lines disrupted. (A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit (B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit (C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit (D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit Ans. B
44. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden Q1. A brown female could have had I. A grandfather born Red II. A grandmother born Red III Two grandfathers born Brown (A) I only (B) III only (C) I, II and III (D) I and II only Ans. D
Q2. A male born into the brown group may have (A) An uncle in either group (B) A brown daughter (C) A brown son (D) A son-in-law born into red group Ans. A
Q3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated. (A) A brown male marrying his father's sister (B) A red female marrying her mother's brother (C) A widower marrying his wife's sister (D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband Ans. B
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Q4. If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had uponmarrying which of the following would be permissible (Assume that noprevious marriage occurred) (A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband (B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter'sex-husband (C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter (D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a widower. Ans. D
Q5. I. All G's are H's II. All G's are J's or K's III All J's and K's are G's IV All L's are K's V All N's are M's VI No M's are G's
45. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc. 1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true? (a) Mr. B is on the second step (b) Mr. C is on the fourth step. (c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step (d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C. Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant (a) step 1 (b) step 2 (c) step 4 (d) step 5 (e) step 6 Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on? (a) 2&e only (b) 3&5 only (c) 3&4 only (d) 4&5 only (e) 2&4 only Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step (a) 2
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(b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following is falsei. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configurationii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step. (a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) both i and iii Ans: (c)
46. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race.The outcome is as follows.i. B does not win. ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D iii. A is behind D & E iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening v. F is a head of D 1. Who stood fifth in the race ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Ans: (e) 2. How many swimmers seperate A and F ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) cannot be determined Ans: (d) 3. The swimmer between C & E is (a) none (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) A Ans: (a)
4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
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(e) 5 Ans: (b)
47. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in arow next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows. i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow. ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black,or red. iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof. iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses. v. House E has a green roof. vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney 1. Which of the following is true ? (a) At least two houses have black chimney. (b) At least two houses have red roofs. (c) At least two houses have white chimneys (d) At least two houses have green roofs (e) At least two houses have yellow roofs Ans: (c) 2. Which must be false ? (a) House A has a yellow roof (b) House A & C have different color chimney (c) House D has a black chimney (d) House E has a white chimney (e) House B&D have the same color roof. Ans: (b) 3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true. (a) House E has a white chimney (b) House E has a black chimney (c) House E has a red chimney (d) House D has a red chimney (e) House C has a black chimney Ans: (a) 4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house I. A red roof 7 a black chimney II. A yellow roof & a red chimney III. A yellow roof & a black chimney
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only (e) I&II&III Ans: (e)
48. Find x+2y
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(i). x+y=10 (ii). 2x+4y=20 Ans: (b)
49. Is angle BAC is a right angle (i) AB=2BC (2) BC=1.5AC Ans: (e) 50. Is x greater than y (i) x=2k (ii) k=2y Ans: (e)
FCI AGRICULTURE Solved objective Question 1. How many factors are identified influencing plant growth tillnow ? (A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 52 (D) 50 Answer:C 2, How does the moisture stress affect the cell (A) Affect cell division (B) Affect cell expansion (C) Cell mortality rate is affected (D) No effect on cell Answer:A 3. At the vegetative growth stage, flowering is stopped in food-grain crops, known as- (A) sigmoid growth curve (B) determinate growth (C) indeterminate growth (D) grand growth period Answer:B 4. Which one of the following canbe assessed by using the follow-ing equation ? A= Economic Production / Biomass Production (A) Panicle emergence rate (B) Rate of flowering (C) Harvest Index (D) Leaf production rate Answer:C
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5. How much radiation energy percentage radiating on plant is used in photosynthesis ? (A) 0-50%-210% (B) 0-42%-1•66% (C) 0-25%-0-30% (D) 0-16%-0-24% Answer:B 6. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in- (A) 12-15 weeks (B) 15-17 weeks (C) 10-12 weeks (D) 8-10 weeks Answer:A 7. Which is not an inorganic matter in the following ? (A) Magnesium (B) Iron (C) Fat (D) Iodine Answer:C 8. Which is the highest digestible protein non-leguminous crop among the following (A) Napier (B) Maize silage (C) Maize (D) Iowar Answer:D 9. Which disease occurs, when more sorghum is consumed ? (A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Nightblindness (D) Pellagra Answer:D 10. Which Sorghum variety is not multicut ? (A) Pusa Chari-2 (B) M.P. Chari-2 (C) M.P. Chari (D) U.P. Chari-1 Answer:D 11. Which is not true in relation to Bajra ? ‘ (A) Penniseturn typhoides (B) Graminae family (C) Chromosome No. – 20 (D) OriginAfrica Answer:D 12. Which variety of Barley is husk- less (A) Pragati (K 508) (B) Ritambhara (K 551)
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(C) Geetamjali (K 1149) (D) Karan-3 Answer:D 13. Which is not true in relation to Gram ? (A) Subfamily——Papilionaceae (B) Chromosome No.—22 (C) Acid——Ma.lic and Oxalic (D) Origin—North America Answer:D 14. Which does not match in relation to Cotton ? (A) C-520 —— Diploid (B) G-27 — Diploid (C) Vikas — American (D) Ranivan — American Answer:D 15. Which is not matched in relation to sugarcane ? (A) Seed treatment—-Aglol 3% (B) For seed—6-7 month old crop (C) Sowing—Upper portion is more used (D) After flowering—Used for sowing Answer:D 16. Which is not basic principle of Agronomy ? (A) To select appropriate mate-for seed & sowing (B) Management of soil andclimate (C) Appropriate intercropping activities management for crop (D) Livestock management forAgriculture Answer:D 17. Where and when was World Meteorological Organization established ? (A) New York – 1980 (B) Washington-1978 (C) Geneva—1978 (D) Rome- 1976 Answer:C 18. Effective cause of atmospheric pressure is not- (A) temperature (B) altitude from the sea level (C) rotation of earth (D) soil erosion Answer:D 19. Which is not correct in the following ? (A) X-rays and Gamma rays— 9% of energy (B) Visible lighting rays -41%of energy (C) Infrared rays -50% ofY energy (D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% ofenergy Answer:A 20. Match List-I with List•II andselect the correct answer usingthe codes given below-List-I
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(a) Paddy (b) Wheat(c) Maize (d) Groundnut List-II ’ 1. 20°C 2. 22°C3. 25°C 4. 26°C Codes (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 Answer:B 21, Which states are the highest 8:lowest producers of Potato crop ? (A) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand (B) Gujarat and Assam (C) Uttar Pradesh & Himachalpradesh (D) Bihar & Kashmir Answer:A 22. Which elements are useful inenergy storage, transfer andbonding ? (A) N P K (B) N S P (C) N K S (D) None of these Answer:C 23. Which of the following elementsplay an important role in nitro-gen metabolism ? (A) Magnesium (B) Manganese (C) Molybdenum (D) Iron Answer:C 24. How much Brinjal seed may beobtained from one hectare area 7 (A) 150-200 kg (B) 100-150 kg (C) 200-300 kg (D) 75-125 kg Answer:D 25. Which species of honeybee is notIndian ? (A) Apis florea (B) Apis dorsata (C) Apis cerana (D) Apis mellifera Answer:D 26. Which of the following is thecross of Karan Swiss ? (A) Sahiwal x Brown Swiss (B) Sahiwal x Holstein (C) Hariyana x Brovsm Swiss (D) Hariyana >< ]ersey Answer:A
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27. For how many years is Sheepable to breed ? (A) 10 years (B) 7years (C) 5 years (D) 12 years Answer:A 28, l-low much area mz is requiredfor a Goat ? (A) 0-9 ~ 1•O m2 (B) 1-1-5 m2 (C) 0-75 — 090 mz (D) 1-5 – 1-75 mz Answer:C 29. Goal of extension education is- (A) To promote income of thefarmers (B) To promote production ofthe crops (C) To promote new crops (D) To promote scientific out-look Answer:D 30. The major fungi that effect food-grains in storage are-— (A) Mucor (B) Rhizopus (C) Candida (D) Aspergillus Answer:A 31. The leaching loss of Nitrogen (N)is more in the form of– (A) Ammonia (B) Nitrate (C) Nitrogen (D) Water solution Answer:B 32. Which is not a natural factoraffecting soil fertility ? (A) Topography (B) Soil age (C) Air (D) Parent material Answer:C 33. Approximately how much areain lakh hectares of saline andalkali soils are there in Uttar Pradesh ? (A) 15-00 lakh hectares (B) 12-4 lakhhectares (C) 10-4 lakh hectares (D) 14-4 lakh hectares Answer:B 34. How much percentage of solublesalts are present in Alkali soils ? (A) 1% • 2% (B) 0-1% — 0-2%
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(C) 1-5% — 2-5% (D) 2% ~ 3% Answer:B 35, How much is the cropped area inUttar Pradesh ? (A) 9% (B) 11% (C) 12% (D) 8% Answer:C 36. The monsoon airs in the countryreaches at which bank first ofall ? (A) Coastal region of Orissa (B) Bay of Bengal region (C) Coastal region of Kerala of South Indian region (D) Kachchh region of Gujarat Answer:C 37. A.D.P. to A.T.P. change is called (A) Photosymthesis (B) Phosphorylation (C) Transpiration (D) Oxidation Answer:B 38. What is the order of C 4 plants 7 (A) Sugarcane — Maize — Sudangrass — Bajra (B) Sugarcane — Cotton – Paddy- Maize (C) Sudan grass – Sugarcane -Paddy •- Bajra (D) Cotton — Maize ~ Bajra —Sugarcane Answer:A 39. At what stage are more nutrientsessentially required in cerealcrops ? (A) Growth stage of plants (B)` Formation of leaves (C) Particle initiation (D) Maturity of crops Answer:A 40. At which stage of crop, there isno compehtion for light, moistureand nutrients 7 (A) Node formation stage (B) Seedling stage (C) Grain formation stage (D) Before maturity stage Answer:D 41. Approximately how much HCNdose is harmful for animal feeding (A) 0-25 gm (B) 050 gm (C) 2•50 gm (D) 3-50 gm Answer:B
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42. Due to which reason is theNapier Grass mixed with Clusterbean or Cowpea for feeding ? (A) Due to high crude fibre (B) Due to oxalic acid (C) Due to more carbohydrates (D) Due to more HCN content Answer:A 43. Which is the perennial variety ofElephant Grass (Napier Grass) ? (A) Pusa Giant (B) NB-21 ` (C) Pusa Giant Napier (D) Napier-1 Answer:C 44. More than how much percentageof loss of urea should not beduring silage fermentation ? (A) 20% — 22% (B) 15% — 18% (C) 10% — 12% (D) 8% — 10% Answer:D 45. From where is Krishak Bharatimagazine published ? (A) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pant Nagar (B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur (C) Narendra Dev University ofAgriculture and Technology,Fajzabad (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai PatelUniversity of Agriculture andTechnology, Meerut Answer:B 46. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germi-nation and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree Celsius ? (A) 3•5°C-5•5°C and 20°C—22°C (B) 5•6°C—7•5°C and 16°C—18°C (C) 8°C—10°C and 30°C—35°C (D) 10°C—12″C and 25°C—30°C Answer:D 47. In case of availability of two irrigations for wheat, at which critical stage crop should beirrigated ? (A) Tillering and Flowering (B) Crown Root Initiation andMilking stage p (C) Crown Root Initiation andFlowering (D) Late joint and Dough stage Answer:C 48. Which is not the symptom ofKhuim disease (A) Dark grey colour spots onleaves (B) Adverse effect on rootgrowth (C) More diseases stop the cropgrowth (D) Stem of plants tum and fall 1down Answer:A
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49. What is the suitable Rabi maize variety ? (A) Sharadmani (B) Azad Uttam (C) Naveen (D) Ganga — 5 Answer:A 50. Which disease is not related to Bajra ? (A) Green Ear (B) Ergot (C) Wilt (D) Rust Answer:C FCI Assistant Grade III Exam Paper 1. Total cropped area in India is: (a) 137 mha (b) 142 mha (c) 147 mha (d) 152 mha 2. The average agricultural production from irrigated area is: (a) 1/8 tonnes/ha (b) 2.0 tonnes/ha (c) 2.4 tonnes/ha (d) 2-8 tonnes/ha 3. Indian agriculture is facing the following major problems. Which is NOT CORRECT? (a) Land degradation (b) Rising population (c) Lack of bullock power (d) Stagnant cultivable area 4. The area occupied by legume in India is (a) 24 mha (b) 29 mha (c) 34 mha (d) 39 mha 5. The principle oil seed crop of India is (a) Sesame (b) Mustard (c) Linseed (d) Groundnut 6. Which fiber crop occupies largest area in India? (a) Jute (b) Flax (c) Cotton (d) Sunnhemp 7. First agricultural university was established (a) Ludmana (b) Pusa
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(c) Kanpur (d) Pant Nagar 8. Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to Dr. Norman Borlaug in (a) 1969 (b) 1970 (c) 1971 (d) 1972 9. Dr Rajendra Singh Paroda has been felicitated with the award (a) Padam Shri (b) Padam Bhushan (c) Padam Vibhushan (d) Bharat Ratna 10. To be self reliant in agriculture the following growth rate per year is necessary (a) 3.0% (b) 3.5% (c) 4.0% (d) 4.5% 11. On the basis of agro climatic conditions Pali,Jalore, Sirohi and Jodhpur are included in Zone (a) II-B (b) II-A (c) I-B (d)I-A 12. Which state is devoid of arid zone? (a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh 13. Indian Institute of Soil Science is located at (a) Ludhiana (b) Hisar (c) New Delhi (d) Bhopal 14. The irrigation water requirement of onion is (a) 60 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm 15. Sowing of second crop in between the standard rows of the first crop before its removal is called (a) Inter cropping (b) Multi copping (c) Intensive cropping (d) Relay cropping 16. The cropping system beneficial to prevent soil erosion due to winds is (a) Mixed cropping
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(b) Strip cropping (c) Relay cropping (d) Multi cropping 17. The optimum temperature for sugarcane is (a) 21-27 °C (b) 14-29 °C (c) 25-30 °C (d) 28-34 °C 18. Per hectare seed rate of guar is (a) 3 kg (b) 6 kg (c) 9 kg (d)12 kg 19. The production of oil seeds in. India during 1996-97 was (a) 22 million tonnes (b) 25 million tonnes (c) 24 million tonnes (d) 26 million tonnes 20. The layer in the soil profile where material removed from the two overlaying horizons is deposited is called (a) A-horizon (b) B-horizon (c) C-horizon (d) D-horizon 21. The diameter of very fine sand particles is- (a) Below 0.002 mm (b) 0.05-0.002mm (c) 0.01-0.05 mm (d) 0.05-0.10mm 22. The mineral weathering and clay formation are rapid where the climate is- (a) Warm and moist (b) Warm and dry (c) Cold and moist (d) Cold and dry 23. Alkali soils are treated with gypsum to correct the deficiency of- (a) Sulphur (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Zinc 24. Which micro-nutrient is most deficient in Indo-Gangatic alluvium soils? (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Manganese 25. Which fertilizer is most beneficial for alkali soils? (a) Urea
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(b) Ammonium sulphate (c) Calcium ammonium nitrate (d) Ammonium nitrate Answers: 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b
1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule by an official proclamation? (A) Lord Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis (C) Lord Minto (D) Lord Dalhousie Ans. (D)
2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three? (A) Bauxite (B) Copper (C) Iron (D) Manganese Ans. (B)
3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991- 2001? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Manipur (C) Nagaland (D) Sikkim Ans. (C)
4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate? (A) Laddakh (B) Lahaul (C) Nepal (D) Tibet Ans. (A)
5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
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(A) Condensation point (B) Dew point (C) Sublimation point (D) Saturation point Ans. (D)
6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following? (A) Cropland (B) Forest area (C) Sand desert (D) Snow area Ans. (D)
7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus? (A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Devendranath Tagore (C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar (D) Keshab Chandra Sen Ans. (A)
8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself? (A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Robert Hooke (D) Robert Virchow Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration? (A) Dictyosomes (B) Endoplasmic reticula (C) Lysosomes (D) Mitochondria Ans. (D)
10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ? (A) Dolphins and Whales (B) Frogs and Toads (C) Prawns and Crabs (D) Seals and Walruses Ans. (B)
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11. Which one of the following statements is correct? A seed is a ripened — (A) ovary (B) flower (C) gynoecium (D) ovule Ans. (D)
12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ? (A) Capitalism (B) Liberalism (C) Fascism (D) Marxism Ans. (D)
13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news? (A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States (B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline (C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas (D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries Ans. (D)
14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ? (A) Thomas Jefferson (B) Thomas Paine (C) John Locke (D) Jean Jacques Rousseau Ans. (B)
15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand? (A) Eli Whitney (B) George Stephenson (C) McAdam (D) James Watt Ans. (A)
16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ? (A) Planning Commission (B) National Development Council
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(C) Union Ministry of Finance (D) Finance Commission Ans. (D) 17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat? (A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (B) The President of India (C) The Prime Minister of India (D) The Union Home Minister Ans. (C) 18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”? (A) First (C) Third (B) Second (D) Fourth Ans. (B)
19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India? (A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda (B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka (C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka (D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka Ans. (C) 20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus? (A) Bird-flu (B) Chickenpox (C) Cholera (D) Dengue Ans. (C) 21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced? (A) Bat (C) Shark (B) Pigeon (D) Vulture Ans. (A)
22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder? (A) Colour blindness (B) Down’s syndrome (C) Hemophilia (D) Xerophthalmia
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Ans. (D)
23. Which one of the following is an enzyme? (A) Gastrin (B) Keratin (C) Trypsin (D) Vasopressin Ans. (C)
24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ? (A) Oesophagus (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Large intestine Ans. (B)
25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when shortages occur? (A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Spleen (D) Lymph nodes Ans. (C) 26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds? (A) Conservation of angular momentum (B) Conservation of kinetic energy (C) Conservation of linear momentum (D) Conservation of velocity Ans. (C) 27. Which one of the following is correct? A negatively charged glass rod has always— (A) less electrons than protons (B) less electrons than neutrons (C) less protons than electrons (D) less neutrons than protons Ans. (C)
28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi? (A) B. G. Tilak (B) G. K. Gokhale
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(C) M. G. Ranade (D) Motilal Nehru Ans. (B)
29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean? (A) Falkland Current (B) Canary Current (C) Labrador Current (D) Gulf Stream Ans. (A) 30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ? (A) Chattisgarh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (B)
31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow? (A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only (B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only (C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only (D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa Ans. (C) 32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India? (A) Dutch (B) English (C) French (D) Portuguese Ans. (D) 33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) M. G. Ranade (C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee (D) Mulbari Ans. (D) 34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress? (A) Congress Socialist Party (B) Forward Bloc (C) Indian National Conference (D) Swaraj Party Ans. (B)
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35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Vallabhbhai Patel Ans. (B) 36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un- British Rule in India? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt Ans. (A) 37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following? (A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district (B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha (C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission (D) Dandi March Ans. (D)
38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is— (A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon dioxide Ans. (B)
39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for? (A) Kathak (B) Chhau (C) Kathakali (D) Odissi Ans. (A)
401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep? (A) Tamil (B) Marathi (C) Malayalam (D) Konkani Ans. (C)
41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
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(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (B) R. Santhanam (C) Raja Ramanna (D) Homi Bhabha Ans. (A)
42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day? (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) PT. Usha (C) Prakash Padukone (D) Dhyan Chand Ans. (D)
43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler? (A) Erapalli Prasanna (B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar (C) Bishan Singh Bedi (D) Kapil Dev Ans. (D)
44 In which city were the first Asian Games held? (A) Bangkok (B) Kuala Lumpur (C) New Delhi (D) Moscow Ans. (C)
45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period— (A) 1951-56 (B) 1952-57 (C) 1947-52 (D) 1950-55 Ans. (A)
46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately— (A) 1.67m (B) 1.33m (C) 2.00m (D) 1.83m Ans. (A)
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47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is— (A) PSK (B) BPSK (C) MSK (D) GMSK Ans. (D)
48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to— (A) Refraction (B) Diffraction (C) Total internal reflection (D) Interference Ans. (C)
49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ? (A) Video bandwidth is large (B) Video signal takes longer to arrive (C) Electron emission takes time (D) All of the above. Ans. (C)
50. Seismograph is used in the study of— (A) Moon (B) Earthquake (C) Floods (D) Tides Ans. (B)
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series? ACE, FGH, ?, PON (A) KKK (B) JKI (C) HJH (D) IKL Ans. (A)
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ? (A) Script (B) Pen (C) Paper (D) Book Ans. (B)
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3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ? (A) Furniture (B) Forest (C) Fire (D) Carpenter Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ? (A) glaa (B) gaal (C) laga (D) gala Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:? (A) UTOPTU (B) UOTUPT (C) TUOUTP (D) TUOTUP Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to— (A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series— S, V, Y, B, ? (A) C (B) D (C) E (D)G Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8
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(D) 9 Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark. AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? (A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? (A) 48 (C) 52 (B) 49 (D) 56 Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three. 11. (A) Bokaro (B) Jamshedpur (C) Bhilai (D) Agra Ans. (D)
12. (A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible (B) Panchsheel (C) Geeta (D) Quran Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star (B) Sun (C) Sky (D) Moon
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Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets. 15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left? (A) N (B) L (C) O (D) None of these Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left? (A) V (B) T (C) W (D) Y Ans. (B) 17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right? (A) V (B) X (C) W (D) I Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 18. (A) Green (B) Red (C) Colour (D) Orange Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit (B) Crocodile (C) Earthworm (D) Snail Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo (B) Chess (C) Ludo (D) Carrom
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Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal Ans. (D) 24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code? (A) NOITIBIHORP (B) IHORPBITION (C) ITIONBIHOTP (D) IHORPBNOITI Ans. (D) 25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language? (A) VSS (B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTF Ans. (C) 26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as— (A) CBIECD (B) CIBCED (C) CBICED (D) CIBECD Ans. (B) 27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is— (A) 213310
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(B) 213301 (C) 123301 (D) 012334 Ans. (A) 28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language? (A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink Ans. (C) 29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans. (B) 30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans. (D) 31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest? (A) Manish (B) Pushpa (C) Namita (D) Nageena Ans. (A) 32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks? (A) Meena (B) Rupali (C) Raj (D) None of these Ans. (C)
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33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother? (A) Sister in law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter in law (D) None of these Ans. (B) 34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo? (A) Uncle—Nephew (B) Father—Daughter (C) Father—Son (D) Grandfather—Grandson Ans. (C) 35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk? (A) Tuesday (B) Earlier week’s Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Monday Ans. (C) 36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight? (A) 2 : 20 a.m. (B) 3 : 30 a.m. (C) 3 : 55 p.m. (D) 3 : 20 p.m. Ans. (D) 37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class? (A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 55 Ans. (D) 38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left? (A) 21st (B) 19th
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(C) 23rd (D) 20th Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7? 8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. (A) 40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5? 6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as— (A) MENOPM (B) MENOMP (C) NJOGPM (D) MNJOPM Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as— (A) CJCEFQPYWC (B) CJGERQTYVG (C) CNCERQPCRG (D) GJGAVMTYVC Ans. (D) 43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to …….. (A) Drink (B) Fish (C) Wash (D) Swim Ans. (B)
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44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……… (A) Injure (B) Peel (C) Prick (D) Attack Ans. (B) 45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row? (A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 24 (D) 35 Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank? (A) 26 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 33 Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……. (A) Education (B) Teacher (C) Student (D) Class Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to……… (A) Coin (B) Money (C) Cheque (D) Rupee Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ………… (A) Ear (B) Hearing (C) Noise (D) Commotion Ans. (B)
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50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ………… (A) Present (B) Future (C) Today (D) Hopeless Ans. (B)
FCI Management Trainee Accounts Question Paper
1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at— (A) Cost price (B) Market price (C) Cost or market price which ever is higher (D) Cost or market price which ever is lower Ans. (D)
2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of— (A) Over statement of assets (B) Understatement of assets (C) Understatement of liabilities (D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts Ans. (B)
3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to— (A) Accrual concept (B) Entity concept (C) Dual aspect concept (D) Money measurement concept Ans. (D)
4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in— (A) Landlords a/c (B) P&L a/c (C) Balance sheet assets side (D) Balance sheet liabilities side Ans. (C)
5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on— (A) Cash price of the asset (B) Hire purchase price of the asset
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(C) Higher of the two (D) Lower of the two Ans. (A)
6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under— (A) Asset accrued method (B) Total cash price method (C) Any of the two methods (D) None of these Ans. (C)
7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-— (A) Rs. 16667 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 33333 Ans. (B)
8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at— (A) Opening rate of exchange (B) Closing rate of exchange (C) Average rate of exchange (D) Rate applicable to debtors Ans. (B)
9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be— (A) Rs. 4000 (B) Rs. 5000 (C) Rs. 6000 (D) Rs. 3333 Ans. (A)
10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of— (A) Rs. 10000 (B) Rs.6000 (C) Rs. 4000 (D) None of the above Ans. (C)
11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
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(A) 5 partners (B) 10 partners (C) 20 partners (D) Any number of partners Ans. (B)
12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be— (A) Debited to his capital a/c (B) Credited to his drawing a/c (C) Credited to his current a/c (D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c Ans. (A)
13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm— (A) Interest at 6% p.a. (B) Interest at 12% p.a. (C) Interest at 15% p.a. (D) No interest Ans. (A)
14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be— (A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2 (B) 4: 3 : 2: 1 (C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2 (D) None of the above Ans. (B)
15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be— (A) 10:6:4 (B) 6:10:4 (C) 8:8:4 (D) 9:7:4 Ans. (D)
16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill— (A) Rs.21000 (B) Rs.9000 (C) Rs. 15000
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(D) Rs. 6000 Ans. (D)
17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of— (A) Rs. 500000 (C) Rs. 800000 (B) Rs.600000 (D) Rs. 375000 Ans. (A)
18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c— (A) Passage money (B) Freight (C) Primage (D) Address commission Ans. (D)
19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.— (A) 1st April 1949 (B) 1st April 1991 (C) 1st April 1992 (D) 1st April 1956 Ans. (C)
20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in— (A) Revenue Account (B) Balance Sheet (C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet (D) None of the above Ans. (B)
21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of— (A) Realisation (B) Consistency (C) Conservatism (D) None of the above Ans. (A)
22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
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(A) Lowering the profit (B) Raising the profit (C) Raising the tax liability (D) None of the above Ans. (B) 23. Given, Total assets turnover 4 Net Profits 10% Total Assets Rs. 50000 Net profit will be— (A) Rs. 15000 (B) Rs. 10000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs.20000 Ans. (D) 24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to- (A) Board of directors (B) Members (C) Managing director (D) Company secretary Ans. (B)
25. Bonus shares means shares issued to— (A) Workers (B) Existing equity shareholders (C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend (D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest Ans. (B) 26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification? (A) Stock (B) Plant (C) Loose tools (D) Goodwill Ans. (D)
27. Cash from operations is equal to— (A) Net profit + increase in current assets (B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities (C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities (D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities Ans. (C)
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28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be- (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 20000 (C) Rs. 25000 (D) Rs. 40000 Ans. (A) 29. Which of the following is not a current liability? (A) Bank overdraft (B) Redeemable debentures (C) Account payable (D) Provision for bad debts Ans. (B)
30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to— (A) 2% (B) 2.5% (C) 3% (D) 5% Ans. (B) 31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory? (A) 2: 1 (C) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (D) None of these Ans. (C) 32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by— (A) Peter Drucker (B) Herzberg (C) McGregor (D) Maslow Ans. (B) 33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day? (A) Autocratic (B) Democratic (C) Free rein (D) Participative Ans. (B) 34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called— (A) Management (B) Coordination (C) Planning
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(D) Decision-making Ans. (C)
35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called— (A) Line organisation (B) Chain organisation (C) Command organisation (D) All the above Ans. (D) 36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called— (A) Management by objective (B) Management by exception (C) Management by crisis (D) Management by choice Ans. (B)
37. Under delegation of authority— (A) Authority is given to subordinates (B) Authority flows from top to bottom (C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability (D) All the above happens Ans. (D) 38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called— (A) Job specification (B) Job evaluation (C) Job analysis (D) Job description Ans. (C) 39. In case of a private company— (A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares (B) The number of members is restricted (C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited (D) All of the above Ans. (D) 40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than— (A) 1 Company (B) 7 Companies (C) 15 Companies (D) 20 Companies Ans. (C)
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41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a— (A) Public company (B) Any type of company (C) Private company (D) Private company subsidiary to a public company Ans. (C) 42. Henry Fayol is known for— (A) Scientific management (B) Rationalisation (C) Industrial psychology (D) Principles of managements Ans. (D) 43. The principle of unity of command’ implies— (A) Unity of thought and action (B) Unity amongst subordinates (C) Instructions from staff authority (D) Instructions from line authority Ans. (D) 44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be— (A) 1:1 (B) 0.5: 1 (C) 0.4: 1 (D) None of the above Ans. (C) 45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called— (A) Net working capital (B) Gross working capital (C) Deferred liabilities (D) Net worth Ans. (D)
46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be— (A) Rs. 39000 (B) Rs. 40000 (C) Rs.41000 (D) Rs. 44000 Ans. (A)
47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as— (A) An asset
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(B) A liability (C) An expense (D) A revenue Ans. (B)
48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’? (A) Verification of assets (B) Internal check (C) Vouching (D) Internal audit Ans. (C)
49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be— (A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs.200 (C) Rs. 250 (D) Rs. 100 Ans. (D)
50. Sale of long term investments indicates— (A) A change in current assets (B) Application of funds (C) Increase in working capital (D) Source of funds Ans. (D)
GK For FCI Assistant Job exam 1. Which is the largest airport in the world? (A) Singapore Airport (B) The Kaulalumpur International Airport (C) Heathrow at London (D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia 2. Prithvi is a? (A) Surface-to-air missile (B) Surface-to-surface missile (C) Air-to-surface missile (D) Air-to-air missile 3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the cultivation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci sion? (A)Cargil (B) BASF (C) Monsanto
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(D) All of these 4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on? (A) 8th September (B) 5th June (C) 15th August (D) 5th September 5. Which was the first University to be established in the world? (A) Harvard University (B) Nalanda University (C) Oxford University (D) None of these 6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through? (A)glass (B) vacuum (C)air (D) water 7. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol? (A) Methanol (C) Kerosene (B) Ethanol (B) Butanol 8. What is the name of the instrument used to measure blood pressure? (A) Barometer (B) Hygrometer (C) Hydrometer (D) Sphygmomanometre 9. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got independence? (A) Attlee (C) Thatcher (B) Churchill (D) Wilson 10. Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source? (A) Numismatics (B) Epigraphs (C) Rock paintings (D) Census reports 11. What is not correct about a soft loan? 1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest 2. It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent 3. The world bank gives soft loans to developing countries for long-term capital projects (A)Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C)2and3 (D) 1 and3
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12. Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by the naked eyes from the moon? (A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa (B) The Pyramids of Egypt (C) The Statue of Liberty, NewYork (D) The Great Wall of China 13. Formal services of Credit do not include? (A) Self-help groups (B) Cooperatives (C) Employers (D) L.I.C. 14. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to? 1. Set up new factories 2. Buy existing local companies 3. Form partnerships with local companies 4. Invest in companies with low turn over (A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2and3 (C) 2,3and4 (D) All of the above 15. How many faces are there in an octahedron? (A)4 (B)6 (C)8 (D) 12 16. Night-blindness is caused by lackof which vitamin? (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D 17. The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere is? (A) Argon (C) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (D) Krypton 18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately? (A)2m (B) 1.88 m (C)1.67 m (D) 1.33 m 19. Which is the richest soil among the following? (A) Black soil (B) Red soil (C) Laterite soil (D ) Alluvial soil 20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the?
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(A) shape of earth (B) revolution of earth around the sun (C) rotation of earth on its axis (D) movements of the sun 21. A person of which of the following blood group can receive blood of any group? (A)A (B)AB (C)B (D)0 22. Evergreen type of forests are found in? (A) Equatorial climate (B) Monsoon climatic region (C) Desert regions (D) Mediterranean region 23. What is the other name for River Gangas? (A) Sapthanadi (B) Bhageerathi (C) Savitri (D) Bhadravati 24. The earth is? (A)Spherical (B)Elliptical (C)Oblate spheroid (D) Pralate spheroid 25. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units? (A) Length, mass and velocity (B) Length, time and velocity (C) Mass, time and velocity (D) Length, time and mass 26 Which of the following is / are the main agents of soil erosion? (A) Wind and water (B) Rocks (C) Sand (D) High temperature and humidity 27. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of India? (A) Sharad Pawar (B) Ran Vilas Paswan (C) Shiv Raj Patil (D) None of these 28. Monsoon is caused by? (A) Revolution of Earth (B) Movement of Clouds (C) Seasonal reversal of the winds (D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land temperature 29. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet?
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(A) Omega (B) Sigma (C) Zeta (D) Chi 30. Which is the birth place of Hitler? (A) Germany (B) Hungary (C) Austria (D) France 31. Who elects President of India? (A) Lock Sabha (B) Rajya Sahha (C) People of India (D) Parliament and State Assemblies 32. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’? (A)Britain (B) Spain (C)France (D) Scotland 33. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas? (A) Kathasaritsagar (B) Meghdutam (C) Raghuvansham (D) Pushpavan Vikasam 34. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential elections if? (A) he himself is a candidate (B) he is yet to prove his majority in the State legislature (C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature (D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister 35. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house? (A) Whenever he desires (B) Whenever the house desires (C) In the event of equality of votes (D) Whenever his party directs 36. which of the following is not a cash crop? (A)Jute (B) Paddy (C)Cashew-nut (D) Rubber 37. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the BinLaden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia? (A) Star Asia (B) B. B. C. Asia (C) Al Jazeera (D) Khaleed Times 38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of?
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(A) Nepal (B) U. K. (C) Spain (D) Japan 39. Who was Karl Marx’s main collaborator on his famous works? (A) V.I. Lenin (B) Max Weber (C) Fredrick Engels (D) Joseph Stalin 40. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth Games? (A) South Korea (B) Japan (C)Malaysia (D) China Answers : 1 D 2 B 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 D 13 C 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 C 21 B 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 D 29 A 30 C
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31 D 32 D 33 A 34 C 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 D 39 C 40 C
FCI Aptitude and Reasoning Solved Paper – IThese FCI questions is for just practice.FCI previous years aptitude,general ability solved questions with answers,FCI Assisstatn Grade III questions with answers for practice
FCI Arithmetical Ability 1. The product of 2 numbers is 1575 and their quotient is 9/7. Then the sum of the numbers is – a. 74 b. 78 c. 80 d. 90 Ans : Let the numbers be x and y .
∴ xy = 1575
And x/y = 9/7
∴ xy/x/y = 1575/9/7
∴ y2 = 1225
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∴ y = 35 and x = 45
∴ The sum of the numbers = 45+35
= 80
2. The value of (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/ (81)4.2 * (3) is __ a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 8.2
Ans : (81)3.6 * (9)2.7/(81)4.2 * (3) = (3)14.4 * (3)5.4/(3)16.8 * (3) = 314.4+5.4-16.8-1 = 32 = 9
3. √6+√6+√6+… is equal to –
a. 2 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Ans : Let √6+√6+√6+…. be x.
∴ x =√6+x
∴ x2 = 6+x
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∴ x2 + x – 6 = 0
∴ (x-3) (x+2) = 0
∴ x = 3
4. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is –
a. 24 b. 32 c. 40 d. 28
Ans : Let the consecutive odd numbers be x and (x+2)
∵ x2 + (x + 2)2 = 394
∴ x2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 394
∴ 2 x2 +4x – 390 = 0
∴ x2 + 2x – 195 = 0
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∴ (x +15) (x-13) = 0
∴ x = 13
∴ Required sum = 13 +15 =28
5. When (6767 +67) is divided by 68, the remainder is-
a. 1 b. 63 c. 66 d. 67
Ans: (6767+ 67) = 67(6766 + 166) As 66 is an even number
∴ 6766 is an even number
∴ (6766 + 1) is perfectly divisible by (67 + 1)
i.e. 68
∴ The remainder = 67
6. In a division sum, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and twice the remainder. If a and b are respectively the divisor and the dividend then-
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a. 4b-a2 /a =3 b. 4b-2a /a2 =2 c. (a+1)2 = 4b d. A(a+2)/b = 4
Ans : As divisor is a, and dividend is b.
∴ Quotient = a/4
And Remainder = a/2
∴ b = a * a/4 + a/2
∴ 4b = a2 + 2a
∴ a(a+2)/b = 4
7. If 738 A6A is divisible by 11, then the value of A is-
a. 6 b. 3 c. 9 d. 1 Ans : As 738A6 A is divisible by 11.
∴ A + A + 3 = 6 + 8 + 7
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∴ A = 9
8. The east positive integer that should be subtracted from 3011 * 3012 so that the difference is perfect square is-
a. 3009 b. 3010 c. 3011 d. 3012
Ans : ∵ 3011 * 3012 = 3011 (3011 + 1)
= (3011)2 + 3011
∴ Required least number = 3011
9. P, Q, R are employed to do a work for Rs. 5750. P and Q together finished 19/23 of work and Q and R together finished 8/23 of work. Wage of Q, in rupees, is-
a. 2850 b. 3750 c. 2750 d. 1000 Ans : Work done by Q = 19/23 + 8/23 – 1 4/23
∴ Wage of Q = 4/23 * 5750
= Rs. 1000
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10. A can do a piece of work in 24 day, B in 32 days and C in 64 days. All begin to do it together, but A leaves after 6 days and B leaves 6 days before the completion of the work. How many days did the work last?
a. 15 b. 20 c. 18 d. 30
Ans : Work done by A = 6/24 = ¼
Work done by B = (x-6)/32 (where x is no. of days in which work is competed)
∵ ¼ + x – 6/32 + x/64 = 1
∴ 16 + 24 – 12 + x /64 = 1
∴ 3x + 4 = 64
∴ x = 60/3 = 20 days
11. The square root of (0.75)3 /1-0.75 + [0.75 + 90.75)2 +1] is-
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
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Ans : The square root of [(0.75)3/1 – 0.75 + {0.75 + (0.75)2 + 1}] = √1.6875 + 2.3125 =√4 = 2
12. Given that √4096 = 64, the value of √4096 + √40.96 +√0.004096 is-
a. 70.4 b. 70.464 c. 71.104 d. 71.4
Ans : Given Exp. = √4096 + √40.96 +√0.004096 = 64 + 6.4 + 0.064 = 70.464
13. By selling an article at 3/4th of the marked price, there is a gain of 25%. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price is-
a. 5 : 3 b. 3 : 5 c. 3 : 4 d. 4 : 3
Ans : Let of M.P. be Rs. x.
∴ S.P. = Rs.3x/4
and C.P. = 3x/4 * 100/125 = Rs.3x/5
∴ required ratio = x: 3x/5
= 5:3
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14. A and B earn in the ratio 2:1. They spend in the ratio 5:3 and save in the ratio 4:1. If the total monthly savings of both A and B are Rs.5,000, the monthly income of B is-
a. Rs.7,000 b. Rs.14,000 c. Rs.5,000 d. Rs.10,000
Ans : Let the monthly income of B be Rs. x.
∴ Monthly income of A = Rs. 2x and
Saving of A =5000 * 4/(4 + 1) = Rs. 4000 Saving of B = Rs.1000
∵ 2x – 4000/x-1000 = 5/3
⇒ 6x – 12000 = 5x – 5000
∴ x = Rs.7000
15. The ratio of the sum of two numbers and their difference is 5:1. The ratio of the greater number to the smaller number is-
a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 5 : 1 d. 1 : 5
Ans : Let the numbers be x and y.
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∵ x + y/ x – y = 5/1
⇒ 5x – 5y = x + y
⇒ 4x = 6y
⇒ x/y = 6/4
x : y = 3 : 2
16. A cistern has 3 pipes A, B and C. A and B can fill it in 3 and 4 hours respectively, and C can empty it in 1 hour. If the pipes are opened at 3 p.m., 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. respectively on the same day, the cistern will be empty at- a. 7.12 p.m. b. 7.15 p.m. c. 7.10 p.m. d. 7.18 p.m.
Ans : Let the cistern be emptied at x p.m.
∵ x -3/3 + x – 4/4 = x - 5/1
⇒ 4x – 12 + 3x – 12/12 = x – 5/1
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⇒ 7x – 24 = 12x – 60
⇒ 5x = 36
∴ x = 36/5
= 7 hr. + 12 min. = 7.12 p.m.
17. If A works alone, he would take 4 days more to complete the job than if both A and B worked together. If B worked alone, he would take 16 days more to complete the job than if A and B work together. How many days would they take to complete the work if both of them worked together?
a. 10 days b. 12 days c. 6 days d. 8 days
Let x days are taken when they work together.
∴ Time taken by A to complete the work = (x + 4) days
And Time taken by B to complete the work = (x + 16) days
∵ 1/x = 1/x + 4 + 1/x + 16
∴ 1/x = x + 16 + x + 4/(x + 4) (x +16)
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∴ 2x2 + 20x = x2 + 20x +64
∴ x2 = 64 (8)2
∴ x = 8 days
18. 250 men can finish a work in 20 days working 5 hours a day. To finish the work within 10 days working 8 hours a day, the minimum number of men required is-
a. 310 b. 300 c. 313 d. 312
Ans : Required no. of men = 250 * 5 * 20/8 * 10 =312.5 313
19. 2 men and 5 women can do a work in 12 days. 5 men 2 women can do that work in 9 days. Only 3 women can finish the same work in-
a. 36 days b. 21 days c. 30 days d. 42 days
∵ (2m + 5w) * 12 = (5m + 2w) * 9
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⇒ 24m + 60w = 45m + 18w
⇒ 21m = 42w
⇒ 1m = 2w
∴ 2m + 5w = 9w
∴ required no. of days = 9 * 12/3
= 36
20. While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit per cent will be –
a. 10% b. 20% c. 16 2/3% d. 16 1/3%
Ans : Let the M.P. be Rs.100.
∴ S.P = (100-40) = Rs.60
and C. P. = 60 * 100/(100-30) = Rs.600/7
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∴ Reqd. % profit = 100-600/7 /600/7 * 100%
= (700 – 600)/7 * 600 * 100 * 7% = 16 2/3%
21. Successive discount of 10% , 20% and 50% will be equivalent to a single discount of-
a. 36% b. 64% c. 80% d. 56%
Ans : Equivalent to a single discount = [100 - (100 – 10) (100 – 20) (100 – 50)/100*100]% = [100 - 90*80*50/10000]% = [100-36]% = 64%
22. A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article-
I. Two successive discounts of 10% II. A discount of 12% followed by a discount of 8%. III. Successive discounts of 15% and 5% IV. A discount of 20%
The selling price will be minimum under the scheme-
a. I b. II c. III d. IV
Ans : From (i) single discount = [10 + 10 – 10*10/100] % = 19% From (ii) single discount = [12 + 8 -12*8/100] % = 19.04% From (iii) single discount = [15 + 5 – 15*5/100] % = 19.25% From (iv) single discount = 20%
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∴ The S.P. will be minimum under the scheme IV.
23. Of three numbers, the second is thrice the first and the third number is three-fourth of the first. If the average of the three numbers is 114, the largest number is –
a. 72 b. 216 c. 354 d. 726
Ans : Let the first number be x.
∴ Second number = 3x and Third number = 3x/4
∵ x + 3x + 3x/4 = 3*114
⇒ 19x/4 = 342
∴ x = 342*4/19 = 72
∴ The largest number = 3*72
= 216
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24. A car covers 1/5 of the distance from A to B at the speed of 8 km/hour, 1/10 of the distance at 25 km per hour and the remaining at the speed of 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of the whole journey-
a. 12.625 km/hr b. 13.625 km/hr c. 14.625 km/hr d. 15.625 km/hr
Ans : If the whole journey be x km. The total time taken = (x/5/8 + x/10/25 + 7x/10/20) hrs = (x/40 + x/250 + 7x/200) hrs = 25x + 4x + 35x/1000 = 64x/1000 hrs
∴ Average speed = x/64x/1000
= 15.625 km/hr
25. The average of 3 numbers is 154. The first number is twice the second and the second number is twice the third. The first number is-
a. 264 b. 132 c. 88 d. 66
Ans : Let the first number be x.
∴ Second number = x/2 and Third number = x/4
∵ x + x/2 + x/4 = 3 x 154
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⇒ 7x/4 = 462
∴ x = 462*4/7
=264
26. The average salary of all the staff in an office of a corporate house is Rs. 5,000. The average salary of the officers is Rs. 14,000 and that of the rest is Rs. 4,000. If the total number of staff is 500, the number of officers is –
a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50
Ans : Let the number of officers be x.
∵ 5000*500 = 14000x + 4000(500-x)
∴ 2500000 =14000x + 2000000 – 4000x
∴ x = 500000/10000
= 50
27. The average marks of 40 students in an English exam are 72. Later it is found that three marks 64, 62 and 84 were wrongly entered as 60, 65 and 73. The average after mistakes were rectified is-
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a. 70 b. 72 c. 71.9 d. 72.1
Ans : Correct average = 40*72 + (64 + 62 +84) – 68 – 65 – 73/40 = 2880 + 210 – 206/40 = 2884/40 = 72.1
28. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7:2 and 7:11 respectively. If equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper in C will be-
a. 5 : 7 b. 5 : 9 c. 7 : 5 d. 9 : 5
Ans : Quantity of gold in A = 7/9* wt. of A Quantity of gold in B = 7/18* wt. of B If 1 kg of each A and B are mixed to form third alloys C. Then quantity of gold in 2 kg C = 7/9 + 7/18 = 7/6 kg And Quantity of copper in 2 kg C = 2 – 7/6 = 5/6 kg
∴ Required ratio = 7/6 : 5/6 = 7 : 5
29. In a laboratory, two bottles contain mixture of acid and water in the ratio 2 : 5 in the first bottle and 7 : 3 in the second. The ratio in which the contents of these two bottles be mixed such that the new mixture has acid and water in the ratio 2 : 3 is-
a. 4 : 15 b. 9 : 8 c. 21 : 8 d. 1 : 2
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Ans : Quantity of acid in first bottle = 2/7 x mix. and Quantity of acid in second bottle = 7/10 x mix. If x and 1 volumes are taken from I and II bottle respectively to form new mixture. Then, (2/7 x + 7/10 * 1)/(5x/7 +3/10 * 1) = 2/3
⇒ 6x/7 21/10 = 10x/7 +6/10
⇒ 4x/7 = 15/10
∴ x = 15/10*7/4 = 21/8
∴ Required ratio = x : 1
= 21 : 8
30. A mixture contains 80% acid and rest water. Part of the mixture that should be removed and replaced by same amount of water to make the ratio of acid and water 4 : 3 is-
a. 1/3 rd b. 3/7 th c. 2/3 rd d. 2/7 th
Ans : Let the initial wt. of mixture be 1 kg and x kg of mixture is taken out and replaced by same amount of water.
∵ Amt. of acid/Amt. of water = 0.8 – 0.8x/ (0.2 – 0.2x + x) = 4/3
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⇒ 2.4 – 2.4x = 0.8 + 3.2x
⇒ 5.6x = 1.6
∴ x = 1.6/5.6 = 2/7th part
31. An employer reduces the number of his employees in the ratio 9 : 8 and increases their wages in the ratio 14 : 15. If the original wage bill was Rs. 189,900, find the ratio in which the wage bill is decreased-
a. 20 : 21 b. 21 : 20 c. 20 : 19 d. 19 : 21
Ans : Let the initial number of employees be 9x and the employer gives Rs. 14y as wage to each.
∵ 9x * 14y =18900
∴ xy = 150 and The later bill = 8x*15y = 120xy
= 120*150 = 18000
∴ Required ratio = 18000 : 18900
= 20 : 21
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32. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricketer is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is-
a. 165 b. 170 c. 172 d. 174
Ans : Let the max. number of runs be x.
∴ The lowest score = (x-172)
∵ 40*50 = 38*48 + x + (x-172)
⇒ 2000 = 1824 + 2x – 172
∴ x= 174
33. Walking at 3 km per hour, Pintu reaches his school 5 minutes late. If he walks at 4 km per hour he will be 5 minutes early. The distance of Pintu’s school from his house is-
a. 1 ½ Km b. 2 Km c. 2 ½ Km d. 5 Km
Ans : Distance of the school from the house = 4*3/(4 – 3) * 5 +5/60 km
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= 12*1/6 =2 km
34. Nitin bought some oranges at Rs. 40 a dozen and an equal number at Rs.30 a dozen. He sold them at Rs. 45 a dozen and made a profit of Rs.480. The number of oranges, he bought, was-
a. 48 dozen b. 60 dozen c. 72 dozen d. 84 dozen
Ans : Let the number of oranges bought be x.
∴ 45x/12 – 70x/24 = 480
⇒ (45-35)/12 = 480
⇒ x = 480*12/10 = 576
= 48*12 = 48 dozen
35. A man buys two chairs for a total cost of Rs.900. By selling one for 4/5 of its cost and the other for 5/4 of its cost, he makes a profit of Rs.90 on the whole transaction. The cost of the lower priced chair is-
a. Rs.360 b. Rs.400 c. Rs.420 d. Rs.300 Ans : Let the cost price of 1 chair be Rs. x.
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∴ C.P. of other chair = Rs. (900-x)
∵ 4/5 x + 5/4 (900-x) = 900 + 90
⇒ 4/5 x +1125 -5x/4 = 990
∴ 9x/20 = 135
∴ x = 135*20/9
= Rs. 300
∴ C.P. of the lower priced chair is Rs. 300.
36. By selling 100 oranges, a vendor gains the selling price of 20 oranges. His gain per cent is-
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 32
Ans : Let the S.P. of 100 Oranges be Rs. x.
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∴ S.P. of 20 oranges = x/100 *20 = Rs. x/5
∴C.P. of 100 oranges = x - x/5
= Rs. 4x/5
∴ Reqd. Profit % = x/5 * 100*5/4x %
= 25%
37. 60% of the cost price of an article is equal to 50% of its selling price. Then the percentage of profit or loss on the cost price is-
a. 20% loss b. 16 2/3% profit c. 20% profit d. 10% loss
Ans : Let the cost price be Rs. 100.
∵ S.P * 50/100 = 100*16/100
∴ S.P = 60*100/50
= Rs. 120
∴ Reqd. % profit = (120 – 100)% = 20%
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38. Maninder bought two horses at Rs.40,000 each. He sold one horse at 15% gain, but had to sell the second horse at a loss. If he hand suffered a loss of Rs.3,600 on the whole transaction, then the selling price of the second horse is-
a. Rs.30,000 b. Rs.30,200 c. Rs.30,300 d. Rs.30,400
Ans: C.P. of two horses = 2*40000 = Rs. 80000 and S.P. of two horse = 80000 – 3600 = Rs. 76400
∴ S.P. of the other horse = 76400 – 46000 = 30400
39. A fruit-seller buys x guavas for Rs.y and sells y guavas for Rs. x. If x>y, then he made-
a. x2 – y2 / xy % loss b. x2 – y2 / xy % gain c. x2 – y2 / y2 % loss d. x2 – y2 / y2 * 100% gain
Ans : C.P. of 1 guava = Rs. y/x [x>y] and S.P. of 1 guava = Rs. x/y
∴ Reqd. Gain% = x/y – y/x/ y/x * 100%
= x2 - y2 /y2 *100%
40. A jar contain 10 red marbles and 30 green ones. How many red marbles must be added to the jar so that 60% of the marbles will be red?
a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40
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Ans : Let after adding x red marbles, the red marbles with be 60% of the total.
∵ (10+x)/ (10 + x) + 30 = 60/100
⇒ 10 + x/40 + x = 3/5
⇒ 50 + 5x = 120 + 3x
x = 70/2 = 35
41. If a number multiplied by 25% of itself gives a number which is 200% more than the number, then the number is –
a. 12 b. 16 c. 35 d. 24 Ans : Let the number be x.
∵ x*25x/100 = x + 200x/100
⇒ x2/4 = 3x
⇒ x2 - 12x = 0
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⇒ x – 12 = 0
∴ x = 12
42. The value of an article depreciates every year at the rate of 10% of its value. If the present value of the article is Rs.729, then its worth 3 years ago was-
a. Rs.1250 b. Rs.1000 c. Rs.1125 d. Rs.1200
Ans : Let the worth 3 years ago be Rs. x.
∵ 729 = x (1 – 10/100)3
⇒ 729 = x*9*9*9/10*10*10
∴ x = Rs. 1000
43. The price of onions has been increased by 50%. In order to keep the expenditure on onions the same the percentage of reduction in consumption has to be-
a. 50% b. 33 1/3% c. 33%
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d. 30%
Ans : Reqd. Percentage of reduction = 50*100/(100 + 50) % = 5000/150 % = 33 1/3%
44. A took two loans altogether of Rs.1200 from B and C. B claimed 14% simple interest per annum, while C claimed 15% per annum. The total interest paid by A in one year was Rs.172. Then, A borrowed-
a. Rs.800 from C b. Rs.625 from C c. Rs.400 from B d. Rs.800 from B Ans : If A borrowed Rs. x from B. and A borrowed Rs. Rs. (1200 – x) from C.
∵ (1200 – x)*15*1/100 + x*14*1/100
⇒ 18000 – 15x + 14x = 172*100
x = Rs. 800
45. If a regular polygon has each of its angles equal to 3/5 times of two right angles, then the number of side is-
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
Ans : If the number of sides a regular polygon be n. Then (2n-4)/n = 2*3/5
⇒ (2n – 4)*5 = 6n
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∴ n = 5
46. A square is of area 200 sq. m. A new square is formed in such a way that the length of its diagonal is √2 times of the diagonal of the given square. The the area of the new square formed is-
a. 200√2 sq.m b. 400√2 sq.m c. 400 sq.m d. 800 sq.m
Ans : Length of the diagonal of Ist square = √2*200 = 20 m
∴ Length of the diagonal of new square = 20√2m
∴ Area of the new square = ½*(20.√2)2 = 400 sq. m
47. The heights of a cone, cylinder and hemisphere are equal. If their radii are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1, then the ratio of their volumes is-
a. 2 : 9 : 2 b. 4 : 9 : 1 c. 4 : 27 : 2 d. 2 : 3 : 1
Ans : Ratio of their volumes [cone : cylinder : hemisphere] (1)2.h (3)2*h : 2/3 (2)2h : = 1/3 = 4/3 : 9 : 2/3 = 4 : 27 : 2
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48. A motor-boat can travel at 10 km/hr in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river and then returned to the same place, taking altogether 2 hours. Find the rate of flow of river-
a. 3 km/hr b. 4 km/hr c. 2 km/hr d. 5 km/hr
Ans : Let the rate of flow of river be x km/hr.
∵ 91/(10 + x) + 91/(10 – x) = 20
⇒ 91(10 – x + 10 + x)(10 + x) (10 – x) = 20
⇒ 91*20 = 20(100 – x2)
⇒ x2 = 9 = (3)2
∴ x = 3 km/hr
49. A man driving at 3/4th of his original speed reaches his destination 20 minutes later than the usual time. Then the usual time is-
a. 45 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 75 minutes d. 120 minutes
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Ans : Let the original speed be x km/hr and the usual time be y hours.
∵ x * y = ¾ x(y+1/3)
∴ 4y = 3y + 1
∴ y = 1 hr = 60 minutes
50. A motor-boat, travelling at the same speed, can cover 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8 hours. At the same speed, it can travel 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. The speed of the stream is –
a. 2 km/hr b. 3 km/hr c. 4 km/hr d. 5 km/hr
Ans : Let the speeds of motor boat and the stream be x and y km/hr respectively.
∵ 39/x + y + 25/x – y = 8 …(1)
and 52/x + y + 35/x – y = 11 …(2) Solving equations (1) and (2), we get-
∴ 100 - 105/x – y = 32 – 33
∴ x – y = 5
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and x + y = 13
∴ y = 4 km/hr
51. If a sum of money placed at compound interest, compounded annually, doubles itself in 5 years, then the same amount of money will be 8 times of itself in-
a. 25 years b. 20 years c. 15 years d. 10 years
Ans : Required time = 5log 8/log 2 = 5*3log 2/log 2 = 15 years
52. A person has left an amount of Rs.1,20,000 to be divided between his 2 son aged 14 years and 12 years such that they get equal amounts when each attains 18 years of age. If the amount gets a simple interest of 5% per annum, the younger son’s share at present is-
a. Rs.48,800 b. Rs.57,600 c. Rs.62,400 d. Rs.84,400
Ans : Let the present share of the younger son be Rs. x.
∴ The share of the elder son = Rs. (120000 – x)
∵ x + x*6*5/100
= (120000 – x) + (120000 – x)*4*5/100
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⇒ 130x/100 = (120000 –x)*120/100
⇒ 13x = 1440000 – 12x
⇒ 25x = 1440000
∴ x = Rs. 57600
53. If the simple interest on Rs.x at a rate of a% for m years is same as that on Rs. y at a rate of a2% for m2 years, then x : y is equal to-
a. m : a b. am : 1 c. 1/m : 1/a d. 1/am : 1
∵ x*a*m/100 = y*a2*m2/100
⇒ x/y = am/1
∴ x : y = am : 1
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54. Base of a right prism is an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. If the volume of the prism is 108√3 cc, its height is-
a. 9 cm b. 10 cm c. 11 cm d. 12 cm
Ans : Height of the prism = 108√3*4/√3*(6)2 = 12cm
55. If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a37 – 1/a100) is-
a. 0 b. -2 c. 1 d. 2
Ans : ∵ a + 1/a + 2 = 0
⇒ a2 + 1 +2a = 0
⇒ (a + 1)2 = 0
⇒ a +1 = 0
∴ a = -1
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∴ a37 -1/a100 = (-1) – (1) = -2
56. The value of k for which the graphs of (k-1) x+y-2 = 0 and (2-k) x -3y + 1 = 0 are parallel is-
a. ½ b. -1/2 c. 2 d. -2 Ans : (k – 1) x + y – 2 = 0
∴ y = (1 – k) x + 2 ….(1)
and (2 –k) x – 3y – 1 = 0 3y = (2 – k) x +1 Y = 2 – k/3 x + 1/3 ….(2)
∵ m1 = m2
⇒ 1 – k = 2 – k/3
⇒ 3 – 3k = 2 - k
∴ k = 1/2
57. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a-b-c) – 3, then the value of (a – b + c) is-
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a. -1 b. 3 c. 1 d. -2
Ans : a2 + b2 + c2 = 2(a – b – c) – 3
⇒ a2 - 2a + 1 + b2 + 2b + 1 + c2 + 2c + 1 = 0
⇒ (a – 1)2 + (b + 1)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0
⇒ a – 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0
⇒ a = 1, b = -1, c = -1
∴ a + b – c = 1 – 1 + 1 =1
58. If x2 + 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of x3 + 1/x3 is-
a. -18 b. 18 c. 36 d. -36
Ans : ∵ x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
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⇒ x + 3 + 1/x = 0
⇒ x + 1/x = -3
⇒ (x + 1/x)3 = (-3)3
⇒ x3 + 1/x3 + 3 (-3) = -27
∴ x3 + 1/ x3 = -18
59. If xa, xb, xc = 1, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 is –
a. 9 b. abc c. a + b + c d. 3abc
Ans : ∵ xa. xb. xc = 1
⇒ xa + b + c = x0
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⇒ a +b + c =0
∴ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc
60. Base of a right pyramid is a square, length of diagonal of the base is 24√2 m. If the volume of the pyramid is 1728 cu.m, its height is-
a. 7 m b. 8 m c. 9 m d. 10 m
Ans : Area of the base of the pyramid = ½ (24√2)2 = 576m2
∴ Height of pyramid + 1728*3/576 = 9m
61. The height of a right circular cone and the radius of its circular base are respectively 9 cm and 3 cm. The cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base so as to divide it into two parts. The volume of the frustum (i.e., the lower part) of the cone is 44 cubic = cm. The radius of the upper circular surface of the frustum (taking 22-7) is-
a. 3√12 cm b. 3√13 cm c. 3√6 cm d. 3√20 cm
Ans : Let the radius of the upper circular part of the frustum be r cm.
(Picture) Then r/3 = x/9 = AC/AD
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∴ x = 3r (where AC = x cm)
/3h(r12 + r1r2+r22 = 44 ⇒
/3(9 – x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44 ⇒
⇒ (9 – x)*(9 + 3r + r2) = 44*3*7/22 = 42
⇒ 81 + 27r + 9r2 – 9x – 3rx - r2x = 42 On putting x = 3r,
⇒ 81 + 27r + 9r2 - 9r2 - 3r3 – 27r = 42
⇒ 3r3 = 39
∴ r = 3√13 cm
62. The ratio of radii of two right circular cylinder is 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 4. The ratio of their curved surface area is-
a. 5 : 6 b. 3 : 4
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c. 4 : 5 d. 2 : 3
*3r*4h = 5 : 6 *2r*5h/2 Ans : Required ratio = 2
63. A solid cylinder has total surface area of 462 sq.cm. Curved surface area is 1/3rd of its total surface area. The volume of the cylinder is- a. 530 cm3 b. 536 cm3 c. 539 cm3 d. 545 cm3
r(r + h) = 462 Ans : ∵ 2
rh = 1/3*462 = 154 and 2
∴ r + h/h = 462/154 =3
∴ r + h = 3h
∴ r = 2h
*2h2 = 154 ∴ 2
∴ h2 = 154*7/22*4 = 49/4
= (7/2)2
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∴ h = 7/2 cm
and r = 7 cm
∴ Volume of the cylinder
= 22/7*49*7/2 = 539 cm3
64. A cylinder and a cone have equal radii of their bases and equal heights. If their curved surface areas are in the ratio 8 : 5, the ratio of their radius and height is-
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 2 : 3 d. 3 : 4
Ans : Let the radius and height of each are r and h respectively.
r√h2 + r2 = 8/5 rh/ ∵ 2
∴ 10h = 8√r2 + h2
⇒ 100h2 =64r2 + 64h2
∴ h2 = 64 r2/36 = (4/3 r)2
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⇒ h = 4/3r
∴ r : h = 3 : 4
65. A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical above. If the surface areas of the two parts are equal, then the ratio of radius and height of its conical part is-
a. 1 : 3 b. 1 :1 c. √3 : 1 d. 1 : √3
Ans :
r2 rl = 2 ∵
⇒ l = 2r
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⇒ √h2 + r2 = 2r
⇒ h2 = 3r2
∴ r : h = r/h
= 1 : √3
66. If O is the circumcentre of ∆ ABC and ∠OBC = 350, then the ∠BAC is
equal to-
a. 550 b. 1100 c. 700 d. 350
Ans : ∴ ∠BOC = 1800 – (350 + 350) = 1100
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∴ ∠BAC = 1/2 * 1100 = 550
67. If I is the incentre of ∆ ABC and ∠ BIC = 1350, then ∆ ABC is-
a. Acute angled b. Equilateral c. Right angled d. Obtuse angled
Ans :
∠BIC = 1350
⇒ B/2 + C/2 = 1800 – 1350 = 450
⇒ ∠B + ∠C = 900
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∴ ∠A = 1800 – (∠B + ∠C) = 900
i.e., ∆ ABC is a right angled.
68. If sin2 (∝ + β/2) is-
a. 1 b. -1 c. 0 d. 0.5
∵ sin2 ∝ + sin2 β = 2
⇒ 1 – cos2 ∝ 1 - cos2 β = 2
⇒ cos2 ∝ cos2 β = 0
⇒ cos ∝ = 0
and cos β = 0
/2 /2 and β = ⇒ ∝ =
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/2 / 2] /2 + ∴ cos (∝ + β/2) = cos [
/2 = 0 = cos
69. The length of a shadow of a vertical tower is 1/√3 times its height. The angle of elevation of the Sun is-
a. 300 b. 450 c. 600 d. 900
Ans :
∵ tan θ = h/1√3 h = √3 = tan 600
70. The graphs of x +2y =3 and 3x-2y = 1 meet the Y-axis at two points having distance-
a. 8/3 units b. 4/3 units c. 1 unit d. 2 units Ans : When the graphs meet the Y-axis at two points.
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Then, [x + 2y = 3] at x = 0 ⇒ [0, y1 =3/2]
[3x - 2y = 1] at x = 0 and i.e., [0, y2 = -1/2] Required distance = (y1 – y2) = 3/2 – (- ½) = 2 units
71. If x+1/16x = 1, then the value of 64x3 + 1/64x3 is-
a. 4 b. 52 c. 64 d. 76
∵ x + 1/16x = 1
⇒ 16x2 – 16x + 1 =0
⇒ 16x2 – 16x + 4 = 3
⇒ (4x – 2)2 = 3
⇒ 4x = 2 + √3
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⇒ 64x3 = (2±√3)3
=8 + 3√3 + 6√3 (2 + √3) = 26 + 15√3
∴ 64x3 + 1/64x3 = (26 + 15√3) + 1/ (26 + 15√3)
= (26 + 15√3) + 26 - 15√3/676 -675 =52
72. If a, b, c, are three non-zero real numbers such that a + b + c = 0, and b2 ≠ ca, then the value of a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 –ca is-
a. 3 b. 2 c. 0 d. 1
∵ a + b + c = 0
⇒ a + c = -b
⇒ a2 + c2 = b2 -2ac
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 = 2b2 – 2ac
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∴ a2 + b2 + c2/ b2 ac = 2
73. If a4 + a2 b2 + b4 = 8 and a2 + ab + b2 = 4, then the value of ab is-
a. -1 b. 0 c. 2 d. 1
∵ a4 + a2 b2 + b4/ a2 + ab + b2 = 8/4
⇒ (a2 + b2)2 – (ab) 2/ (a2 + b2 + ab) = 2
⇒ a2 – ab + b2 = 2 ….(1)
and a2 + ab + b2 = 4 …..(2)
⇒ 2ab = 2
⇒ ab = 1
74. If a = 25, b = 15, c = -10, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc/ (a- b)2 + (b-c)2 + (c-a)2 is-
a. 30 b. -15
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c. -30 d. 15
∵ a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc
= (25)3 + (15)3 + (-10)3 – 3*25*15*(-10) =15625 + 3375 – 1000 + 11250 = 29250 and (a - b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2 = (10)2 + (25)2 + (-35)2 = (10)2 + 625 + 1225 = 1950
∴ Required value = 29250/1950 =15
75. A, B, C are three points on a circle. The tangent at A meets BC
produced at T, ∠BTA = 400, ∠CAT = 440. The angle subtended by BC at the
centre of the circle is-
a. 840 b. 920 c. 960 d. 1040
Ans : (Picture)
∠ACB = 400 + 440 = 840
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∴ ∠ACO = 900 - 440 = 460 = ∠OAC
⇒ ∠OCB = ∠ACB - ∠ACO
= 840 - 460 = 380 = ∠OBC
∴ ∠BOC = 1800 – (∠OCB + ∠OBC)
= 1800 – (380 + 380) = 1040
76. If the length of a chord of a circle at a distance of 12 cm from the Centre is 10 cm, then the diameter of the circle is-
a. 13 cm b. 15 cm c. 26 cm d. 30 cm
Ans : (Picture)
∵ OA = √OM2 + AM2
= √122 + 52 = 13
∴ Diameter of the circle = 2*OA
= 2*13 = 26cm
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77. In ∆ ABC, P and Q are the middle points of the sides AB and AC respectively. R is a point on the segment PQ such that PR : RQ = 1 : 2. If PR = 2 cm, then BC =
a. 4 cm b. 2 cm c. 12 cm d. 6 cm
∵ PR/RQ = ½
But, PR = 2cm RQ = 2*PR = 4cm
(Picture)
∴ PQ = PR + RQ
= 2 + 4 = 6 cm
∴ BC = 2*PQ = 12CM
78. If tan θ tan 2θ = 1, then the value of sin2 2θ + tan2 is equal to –
a. ¾ b. 10/3 c. 3 ¾ d. 3
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∵ tan θ * tan 2θ = 1
⇒ tan θ * 2 tan θ/1 – tan2 θ = 1
⇒ 2 tan2 θ = 1 - tan2 θ
⇒ 3 tan2 θ = 1
⇒ tan θ = 1/√3 = tan 300
∴ θ = 300
∴ sin2 2θ + tan2 2θ = sin2 600 + tan2 600
= ¾ + 3 =3 ¾
/20 is- /20 cot 9 /20 cot 7 /20 cot 5 /20 cot 3 79. The value of cot
a. -1 b. ½ c. 0 d. 1
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Ans : Given Exp. /20 /20. cot 9 /20. cot 7 /20. cot 5 /20. cot 3 = cot = cot 90. cot 270. cot 450. cot 630. cot 810 = cot 90. cot 270*1*tan 270. tan 90. = cot 90. cot 270*1*1/ cot 270*1/ cot 90 =1
80. If sin θ+ cos θ = 17/13, 0<θ<900, then the value of sin θ- cos θ is-
a. 5/17 b. 3/19 c. 7/10 d. 7/13
∵ sin θ + cos θ = 17/13
⇒ sin2 θ + cos2 θ + 2sin θ.cos θ = 289/169
∴ 2sin θ.cos θ = 289 /169 -1
= 289 -169/169 = 120/169
∴ sin2 θ + cos2 θ – 2 sin2 θ.cos θ = 1 – 120/169
= 49/169
⇒ (sin θ – cos θ)2 = (7/13)2
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∴ sin θ – cos θ = 7/13
FCI COMPUTER AWARENESS 1. A terabyte comprises (a) 1024 gigabyte (b) 1024 kilobyte (c) 1024 megabyte (d) 1024 byte 2. The access time refers to (a) Time required to locate and retrieve stored data (b) Time required to locate the lost data (c) Time required to delete specific data on a certain memory location (d) None of the above 3. Select the smallest memory size. (a) Terabyte (b) Gigabyte (c) Kilobyte (d) Megabyte 4. The type of RAM that works by staying on the row containing the requested bit and moves faster through the columns reading each bit as it goes is (a) DDR SDRAM (b) SDRAM (c) FPM DRAM (d) RDRAM 5. The ROM chip which can be rewritten several times and requires the action of ultraviolet radiations to erase its contents is (a) Flash memory (b) PROM(c) EEPROM (d) EPROM 6. The type of memory that uses in-circuit wiring to erase the content by applying electric field is (a) PROM (b) Flash memory (c) EAROM (d) EEPROM 7. Dynamic memory is also called as (a) Internal processor memory (b) Primary memory (c) External storage memory (d) Non- volatile memory 8. The memory which is utmost accessible to the processor is (a) Cache memory (b) RAM (c) Hard disk (d) Flash memory 9. The storage device that has high cost per bit of storage is (a) SDRAM (b) Cache memory (c) Read only Memory (d) Hard disk 10. The dual-port version of DRAM formerly used in graphics adaptors is (a) FPM DRAM (b) EDO DRAM (c) VRAM (d) DDR SDRAM 11. The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is (a) Optical Disk (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Magnetic Tape (d) None of these 12. FPI stands for (a) Faults per inch (b) Frames per inch (c) Figure per inch (d) Film per inch 13. The most common type of floppy size is (a) 3½-inch (b) 5¼-inch (c) 4¾-inch (d) None of these
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14. A spiral shape track formatting is present in (a) Floppy Disk (b) Optical Disk(c) Hard Disk (d) Half-inch Tape Cartridge 15. A floppy can be write protected by (a) Breaking the slider (b) Positioning the slider to cover the hole (c) Positioning the slider away from the hole (d) A floppy cannot be write protected 16. Rotational delay time is also known as (a) Seek time (b) Shift time (c) Latency (d) Access time 17. The average drives have an access time of (a) 14-29 ms (b) 9-14 ms (c) 60-70 ms (d) None of these 18. In which kind of disk does the read/write head physically touches the surface? (a) Hard Disk (b) Compact Disk (c) Floppy Disk (d) None of these 19. RAID stands for (a) Reproduce Array of Intelligent Disks (b) Reproduce Array of Inexpensive Disks (c) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Drives (d) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks 20. CD-ROM is a kind of
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