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Scanned by CamScanner The cutter chain(64.08.2000.14) of BCM RM-80 is provided with number of sets of scrapper and 01 intermediate links a)82 Sets b) 80 Sets c) 92 Sets d) 84 Sets

02 Number of round shaft chisels are there for a cutter chain of BCM a) 420 Nos. b) 410 Nos. c) 405 Nos. d) 41 I Nos. 03 Number of round shaft chisels in one scraper in BCM a) 410 Nos. b) 420 Nos. c) 5 Nos. d) 15 Nos. 04 what is the length of cutter bar(64.08.1949) of BCM - RM - 80 a)4 3m b) lm c) 1.9m d) 2m 05 How many chain pins for one scraper chain of BCM — RM — 80 a)160 No‘s b) 164 No‘s c) 1 70 No‘s d) 1 74 No‘s 06 How many corner rollers are there in chain drive system of BCM - RM — 80 a) 9 No‘s b) 12 No‘s c) 5 No‘s d) 17 No‘s 07 How much alignment and lift can be achieved in BCM — RM — 80 a) +/- 350mm alignment 250mm lifting. b) +/-300mm alignment 250mm lifting. c) +/- 350mm alignment 200mm lifting. d) +/- 300mm alignment 100mm lifting 08 How many axle gear boxes in driving system of BCM — RM — 80 a) 4 No‘s b) 5 No‘s c) 10 No‘s d) 7 No‘s 09 What are the various sizes of screens in present model BCM Machines. a) 80mm, 45mm, 30mm b) 80mm, 50mm, 28mm c) 85mm, 35mm, 30mm d) 80mm, 60mm, 20mm. 10 For transit drive how many driving motors are there in BCM — RM — 80 a)9 No‘s b) 8 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 6 No‘s 11 What is the rated RPM and HP of Deutz Engine used in BCM — RM —80 a) 2450, 453 b) 2350, 455 c) 2500, 500 d) 2300, 453 12 Type of clutches provided on Pinion shaft assembly of BCM — RM — 80 a) Driving clutch and working clutch b)Drive clutch plates and Pressure clutch plates c) Pressure plates and Drive plates d) Drive friction plates and Work friction plates 13 How many extra lifting cylinders are used in lifting unit of BCM — RM — 80 model machines. a) 8 No‘s b) 4 No‘s c) 6 No‘s d) 2 No‘s 14 Types of air filters used in Diesel Engine of BCM — RM — 80 a)Dry Type b) Wet Type c) Dry and Wet Type separeatly d) Combination of Dry type and Wet type

15 How many conveyor belts are used in BCM a) 5 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 3 No‘s d) 4 No‘s 16 Number of piston rings on a pinion shaft axle assembly of BCM a)3 No‘s b) 4 No‘s c) 6 No‘s d) 5 No‘s 17 Number of engines on a BCM a)3 b)2 c)1 d) 4 18 Number of power Axles for a BCM a)8 b) 5 c) 6 d) 4 19 What is the power mode for driving a BCM a)ZF & Hydraulics b) ZF c) Mechanical d) Hydraulic 20 Number of Main drive pumps on BCM a)4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 21 Number of Hydraulic coolers on a BCM a)1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 3 22 What is the dia meter of the BCM wheel a)910 mm b)900mm c)730 mm d)710mm 23 what is the minimum service life of a cutter chain for screening in kilometers of BCM a)15 kms b) 25 kms c)40 kms d)35 kms 24 what is the rated hydraulic charging pressure of driving pump of BCM/FRM a)30 bar b)21 bar c)25 bar d)19 bar 25 what is the rated hydraulic control pressure for new BCM a)25 bar b)65 bar c)80 bar d)60 bar 26 What is the rated hydraulic pressure for feed pump drive a)140 bar b)125 bar c)120 bar d)135 bar 27 Rated hydraulic pressure of driving system of BCM a)350 bar b)360 bar c)355 bar d)380 bar 28 Rated hydraulic pressure of cutter chain drive a)300 bar b)355 bar c)360 bar d)350 bar 29 Rated hydraulic pressure of chain tensioning and lifting device pressure a)110 bar b)160 bar c)125 bar d)100 bar 30 Number of variable speed of cutter chain of BCM in working mode a) 4 b)3 c)1 d)2

31 Oil and grade used in different gear boxes of BCM a) lube oil, SAE 40 b)hydraulic oil grade 68 c)lube oil 15w40 d)hydraulic oil servo system 88 32 What is the rated axle clutch pressure of BCM a)125 bar b)130 bar c)15 to 20 bar d)135 bar 33 Diesel engine provided in BCM machine(other than HOBCM) is a) NTA 855 b)DEUTZ BF12L512C c) VAT1710 d)DEUTZ BF12L513C/KTA 1150L 34 What is the rated HP of the Deutz Engine in RM -80 model a) 453 b) 500 c) 458 d) 420 35 Which of the following oil grade is not used in plasser make track machines in Indian Railways a) ultra 10 W b) SAE 100 c) 1 5W40 d) C90 36 What is the speed in RPM of the turbo charger of the Deutz Engine. a)2.4 lakhs b) 1.2 lakhs c) 1.8 lakhs d) 1.9 lakhs 37 How many pumps are mounted on main gear of engine No.I a) 9 b) 7 c) 12 d) 8 38 If distribution conveyor belt of BCM is to be replaced which of the following size is selected approximately ( including joint) a) 850mm, 20.5mtrs b) 650mm, 1 4.6mtrs c) 800mm, l8mtrs d) 600mm, I 5mtrs 39 If main conveyor belt of BCM is to be replaced which of the following size is selected approximately ( including joint) a)600mm, 45mtrs b) 650mm, 45mtrs c) 800mm, 45mtrs d) 850mm width, 46mtrs length 40 If Waste conveyor belt of BCM is to be replaced which of the following size is selected approximately ( including joint) a)650 mm, 13.5 mtrs b) 650 mm, 18 mtrs c) 850 mm, 45 mtrs d) 800mm, 13.5 mtrs 41 What is the safe working pressure of main conveyer belt. a) 40-60 Bar b) 50-75 Bar c) 100-120 Bar d) 100-130 bar 42 What is safe working pressure of distribution conveyer belt. a) 75 Bar b) 60 Bar c) 80 Bar d) 100 bar 43 Waste conveyor belt drive pressure is set at ------Bar in BCM. a)350 Bar b) 230 Bar c) 300 Bar d) 120 bar 44 Number of rollers for main conveyer belt a) 125 b)120 c) 130 d) 135 45 The size of the 08-475 4S UNIMAT wheel (Wheel dia meater) a)920mm b) 900 mm c) 850 mm d) 800 mm 3

46 The specification for conveyer belt is a) IS1892 b) lS1891 c) IS 1991 d) IS1993 47 One turnout progress of BCM is equivalent to---mts plain track progress a) 650mts b) 700mts c) 750mts d) 800mts 48 What is the minimum speed of the chain drive. a)1.5 M/Sec b) 2.0 M/Sec c) 1.8 M/Sec d) 1.2 M/Sec 49 What is the second speed of the chain drive a) 2.4 M/Sec b) 1 .8 M/Sec c)2.0 M/Sec d) 2.5 m/Sec 50 What is the Third speed of the chain drive a) 2.8 M/Sec b) 2.5 M/Sec c) 2.7 M/Sec d) 2.9 M/Sec 51 What is highest speed of the chain drive (Forth drive) a)3.5 M/Sec b) 3.8 M/Sec c) 3.3 M/Sec d) 4.0 M/Sec 52 In BCM What is the Maximum extension of waste conveyor from center of the track a) 4.0 mtrs b) 4.5 mtrs c) 6.0 mtrs d) 5.0 mtrs 53 what is the length of the cutter bar extension peace a) 0.5 mtrs b) 1.5 mtrs c) 1.2 mtrs d) 0.75 mtrs 54 What is the Hydraulic drive pressure in transit mode. a)280 Bar b) 400 Bar c) 270 Bar d) 360 Bar 55 Expand RBMV a) Rail born maintenance vehicle b) Rail bound maintenance vehicle c) Rail breakage maintenance vehicle 56 What is the minimum lube oil working pressure a)4.3 Kgs/Crn2 b) 1.5 Kgs/ Cm2 c) 4.5 Kgs/ Cm2 d) 3.8 Kgs/Cm2 57 Part number for engine coupling of BCM a) WN 220 – 20 b) WN 220 - 22 c) WN 200 – 20 d) WN 220 - 27 (a) 58 The bearing for a comer roller is a) 20314 MC4 b) 20313 MBC3 c) 2013 MBC4 d) 2014 MBC3 59 What is the frequency of screen‘s vibration unit ‗ a)34 HZS b) 33 HZS c) 36 HZS d) 35 HZS 60 What is the schedule for complete renewal of wear plates, wear strips of ascending trough of BCM. a)10 Kms b) 15 Kms c) 25kms d) 5 Kms

61 Location of The fiber plates provided in the conveyer tray of BCM a)Vertical Member b) Side Member c) Horizontal Member d) Neutral Member 62 In BCM Number Fiber plates in the conveyer tray a) 5 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 9 No‘s 63 What are the different sieves sizes provided in the screening unit of BCM. a) 6 Sizes b) 2 Sizes c) 1Sizes d) 3 Sizes 64 Number of screens provided for 30mm size. a) 9 No‘s b) 10 No‘s c) 8 No‘s d) 5 No‘s 65 In 4 point lining which of the following is correct a) versines are measured at two pre decided location on a chord of given length b) versines are measured at one pre decided location on a chord of given length c) versines are measured at three pre decided location on a chord of given length d) versines are measured at four pre decided location on a chord of given length 66 Number of screens provided for 80mm size a) 9 no‘s b) 10 no‘s c) l2 no‘s d) I5 no‘s 67 In design alignment correction values on tamping machines is fed from a) Operated Cabin b) Front cabin c) PWI Cabin d) Computer Cabin 68 Super elevation values for transition of a curve in CSM is fed from a) working Cabin b) PWI Cabin c) Front Cabin d) Computer Cabin 69 Super elevation values for transition of a curve in Duomatic and Unimat is fed from a)Both from Main and Computer Cabin b) Both from Main and Front cabin c) Front Cabin d) Computer Cabin 70 In 3 point lining which of the following is correct a) versines are measured at two pre decided location on a chord of given length b) versines are measured at one pre decided location on a chord of given length c) versines are measured at three pre decided location on a chord of given length d) versines are measured at four pre decided location on a chord of given length 71 Leveling chord wire tensioning pressure on tamping machines. a) 4 Kg for Sq Cm b) 8 Kg for Sq Cm c) 5 Kg for Sq Cm d) 7 Kg for Sq Cm 72 Measuring boggies feeler gauge for a tamping machines a) 1666 mm b) 1665 mm c) 1660 mm d) 1664 mm 73 Height of the lifting chord wire at height transducer on a tamping machine a) 2340 mm b) 2350 mm c) 2345 mm d) 2355 mm 74 Height of tire leveling chord wire on a tamping machine at front over, feeler rods and measuring bogie are to be adjusted on a a) Straight Track b) Optical Zero Track c) Main line Track d) Curved Track 75 Silicon oil in a pendulum for adjusting the cross levels works as a a) Mechanical Damping b) Fluid Damping c) Spring Damping d) Electrical Damping 5

76 Sudden electrical failures while tamping can be detected with the help of machine drawing called a) programme Logic diagram b) Machine drawing c) Electrical drawing d) Machine chart 77 Stabilizer power supply output of power PCB 813-00V is a) +/- l2V, +/-15V b) +/- 10V, +/-12V c) +‹- 10v, +/- 20 V d) +/-15, +/-10 V 78 Number of power supply PCBs 813SV00 B a available on each CSM a) 5No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 4No‘s d) 8 No‘s 79 The function of PCB EK l6V -00V in CSM machine is a)Tamping Unit up/dn movement controlling b) Controlling of machine movement c) Lifting Unit d) Satellite Unit 80 The function of PCB EK 24-00V a)Satellite drive controlling b) Tamping Unit c) Main machine d) Lifting Unit 81 The function of PCB EK 28-00V a) Multi check b) Main machine control c)Tamping Unit d) lifting unit 82 The function of PCB EK 319LV00 in CSM a) Controlling Unit b) Tamping Unit c) work drive control d) Lifting Control 83 The function of PCB EK 347-00v in CSM machine is a) Controlling Unit b) Tamping Unit c) Satellite Unit d) Lifting Control 84 The function of PCB EK 346-00v in CSM machine is a) Pendulum control b) Lining system c) Lifting control d) Multi check 85 The function of PCB EK 349-00V in CSM machine a) Lifting anlog b) Lining system anlog c) Lifting control d) Multi check 86 The function of PCB EK 502-00P a) Lifting anlog b)Lining system c) Lifting control d) programmer PCB 87 The function of PCB EK 503-00P a)Programmer PCB b) Tamping Unit c) Satellite Unit d) Lifting Control 88 Extra lifting correction can given by a) +/-7 potentio meter b) +/- 3 potentio meter c) +/- 5 potentio meter d) +/- 9 potentio meter 89 Satellite Bypass pressure in CSM is set at------Bar a)140 Bar b) 160 Bar c)170 Bar d) 180 Bar 90 In CSM machine the Satilite movement control is with the help of------Hydraulic motor a) OMS-500 b) OMS-200 c) OMS-600 d) OMS-800

91 The Satellite unit movement is assisted in CSM/3x up gradient by a) Rail clamp cylinder b) lining cylinder c)Track lifting cylinder d) Hydraulic booster Cylinder 92 Which of the following is not a tamping machine a)DUOMATIC b) DGS c) CSM d) UNIMAT 93 CSM while operation on automatic mode the movement of the machine is controlled by a) Front encoder b) Tamping tools c) ERC Sensor d) Transducers 94 On a Tamping machine only lining and lifting operation is called a) SOLO b) k4anual c) Semi Automatic d) Automatic 95 The Satelite driving motor Hydraulic power is fed from a) Driving pressure b) system Pressuer c) Vibration Pressure d) Sqeezing pressure 96 The Hydraulic pump used for driving of main machine during working in CSM is called a) System pump b) vibration pump c) Double pump d) Variable pump 97 The main machine driving motor operating hydraulic pressure(work drive) a) 210 Bar b) 21 5 Bar c) 220 Bar d) 225 Bar 98 In CSM hydraulic system pressure a) 150-170 Bar b)120- 140 Bar c) 110-120 Bar d) 160-180Bar 99 The CSM driving pressure a)220 Bar b) 215 Bar c) 210 Bar d) 225 Bar 100 The CSM tamping unit vibration pressure a)145 Bar b) 140 Bar c) I50 Bar d) 160 Bar 101 3X Express tamper tamping unit vibration pressure a)220 Bar b) 215 Bar c) 210 Bar d) 225 Bar 102 Works site tampers tamping unit vibration pressure a)1 85 Bar b) 180 Bar c) 160 Bat d) 175 Bar 103 The additional work drive axle is provided in------machine a)UNIMAT b) CSM c) DUOMATIC d) Both UNIMAT & DUOMATIC

104 Number of types of CSM tools a) 2 No‘s b) 3 No‘s c) 6 No‘s d) 4 No‘s 105 Number of types of 3X tools a) 2 No‘s b) 4 No‘s c) 6 No‘s d) 3 No‘s 106 Number of types of Unimat tools a)2 Nos b) 4 Nos c)6 Nos d) 3 Nos 107 Average life of tungsten carbide Tamping tip tools a)200 Kms of Tamping b) 300 Kms of Tamping c) 350 Kms of Tamping d) 250 Kms of Tamping 108 Normal tamping tool can be reconditioned number of times. a) 3 Times b) 5 Times c) 4 Times d) 6 Times 109 Tungsten Carbide tool can be reconditioned number of times a) 3 Times b) 1 Time c) 5 Times d) Cannot be reconditioned 110 The size of the tamping tool fixing bolt a) 20 mm dia& 50 mm Length b) 30 mm dia &55mm Length c) 1 6 mm dia& 28 mm Length d) 25 mm dia &35mm Length 111 The size of the 08-32DUO (wheel dia meter) a) 730 mm b) 760mm c) 800mm d) 900mm 112 Selection of tamping tools fixing is required for a)Avoid infringement to feeler rod trolley b) Avoid infringement to rails c) Avoid infringement to tamping unit d) Avoid infringement to rail fittings 113 The required hydraulic system pressure is to be set with the help of a) solenoid valve b) Check valve c) Unloader valve d) Flow control valve 114 Tamping unit vibration pressure is to be set with the help of a) Unloader valve b) Check valve c) Relief valve d) Reducing valve 115 The hydraulic hose burst due to physical damage can be controlled in Track Machines by a)Reducing the pressure b) High pressure of the hose c) Removing the hose d) Clamping the hose 116 The size of the CSM wheel dia meter a)730mm b) 760mm c) 800 mm d) 900 mm 117 The hydraulic accumulator on CSM works as a) Booster b) Loader c) Unloader d) Hydraulic Stabilizer 118 The capacity of Hydraulic system pressure Accumulator in CSM a) 35 Liters b) 38 Liters c) 40 Liters d) 32 Liters

119 The capacity of Hydraulic accumulator in 3X of small squeezing system a) 2.5 Liters b) 3.5 Liters c) 3 Liters d) 2 Liters 120 In Internal Diameter (I.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 4 (Four) number a) 1/4 " b) 3/8 " c) 3/4 " d) 1 " 121 In Internal Diameter (I.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 6 (Six) number a) 1/4 " b) 3/8 ― c) 3/4 " d) 1 " 122 In Internet Diameter (I.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 12 number a) 1/4 " b) 3/8 " c) 3/4 " d) 1 " 123 In Internal Diameters (I.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 16 ( Sixteen) number a) I /4 " b) 3/8 b)3/8 c) 3/4 " d) 1 " 124 In internal Diameter (1.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 20 (Twenty) number a) 1 1/4 " b) 3/8 " c) I /4 " d) 1 " 125 In Internal Diameter (I.D) of a hydraulic pressure hose of 10 (Ten) number a) 13/8 " b) 5/8 " c) 1 13/16" d) 135/18 " 126 Motrraised trolleys In T-28 machines have the facility to lift vertically ----mm a) 200 mm b) 350 mm c) 300 mm d) 400 mm 127 Length of rail peaces to be kept in T-28 machine for supporting rail wheels of the crane during shifting is ------a) 70cm b) 75cm c) 80cm d)85cm 128 The maximum working pressures of Pneumatic system on tamping machines a)6.5 Kgs per Sq Cm b) 7.5 Kgs per Sq Cm c) 8.5 Kgs per Sq Cm d) 9 Kgs per Sq Cm 129 Number of servo valve used in lining system of 3X a) 1 No b) 5 Nos c) 3 Nos d) 2 Nos 130 Number of servo valve used in lifting system in CSM a)6 Nos b) 2 Nos c)5 Nos d) 4 Nos 131 Counter pressure for Small squeezing in CSM is ------bar a)90-120 bar b) 150 bar c) 120-140 bar S d) 35-40 bar 132 The type of driving in BCM a)Mechanical Drive b) Hydraulic Drive c) ZF Drive d) Automatic Drive 133 Motor trolleys in T-28 have the facility to move laterally by ------mm on either side a) 400mm b) 350mm c)300mm d) 250mm

134 The type of driving in CSM a) ZF Drive b) Hydraulic Drive c) Mechanical Drive d) Automatic Drive 135 The type of driving in rail grinding machine a)Hydraulic Drive b)Automatic Drive c) ZF Drive d) Traction 136 The regulation of ballast in between the rails to be done on BRM with the help of a) Grader Plates b) Wings c) Plough d) Brooming 137 The shoulder ballast is regulated in BRM with the a) Grader b) wings c) Plough d) Brooms 138 The sleeper top and rail fitting of the running track is cleaned in the BRM the unit is called a) Grader Plates b) Wings c) Plough d) Brooming 139 Number of Brooming elements on the kershaw BRM a) 270 No‘s b) 228 No‘s c) 275 No‘s d) 280 No‘s 140 The traction motor of BRM is having torque modes a) Low & High Torque b) High & Medium Torque c) Low Torque d) High Torque 141 No. of motorized trolleys is used in T-28 Machine. a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2 142 The number of power wheels on PRC, T-28 a) 5 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 2Nos d) 8 No‘s 143 The PRC, T-28 crane moves on the ground with the help of a)Wheels b) Chains c) Axelsa d) Crawler 144 The wooden blanks are provided for movement of PRC crane on loose earth a) For smoothness b) To avoid derailment c) To avoid shrinkage of crawler d) For easy working 145 Pressure setting of safety valve for system hydraulic pressure in DGS is----- a) 175 Bar b) 185 Bar c) 165 Bar d) 190 Bar 146 Last vehicle indicator during light shall be------a)Red light b) Flashing red light c)yellow light d) flashing yellow/red light 147 The hydraulic pressure setting for the vibrating unit in DTS a) 350 Bar b) 250 Bar c) 140 Bar d) 135 Bar 148 The BHP KTA 1150 diesel engine of CSM a) 800 b) 500 c) 400 d) 450

149 The BHP VTA 1710 diesel engine on SBCM a) 800 b) 737 c) 700 d) 850 150 The cumminis engine model on work site champer a)KTA 1150 b) NT 855 L c) NT 743 d) NT855 Big cam 151 The SUN engine on PRC, T-28 is made of a) Germany b) Italy c) England d) India 152 The Duitz engine of RM-80 is made of a)) Germany b) India c)England d) Italy 153 Number of engines on each TRT P811S model including gantry a) 2 No‘s b) 1Nos c) 3Nos d) 4 No‘s 154 The maximum width of opening side troughs on SBCM (FRM-80) from sleeper end a) 500 mm b) 550 mm c) 600 mm d) 650 mm 155 The maximum allowed cutting depth of SBCM below the sleeper at the sleeper a) 200 mm b) 250 mm c) 300 mm d) 350 mm 156 Number of power wheels on 9 T, PQRS cranes in MG converted crane a) 4 No‘s b) 5 No‘s c) 6 No‘s d) 8 No‘s 157 The pitch of the driving chain of PQRS crane a) 2‖ b) 3 ‘ c) 1 " d) 4 " 158 The pitch of synchrons chain of PQRS crane a) 1 1/4 " b) 1 ½‖ c) I 1/3 " d) 2 " 159 The pitch of duplex chain a) 1 1/2 ‘ b) 1 1/4 " c) 1 1/3 " d) 2 " 160 The function of synchronous shaft of PQRS crane is a) For driving the crane b) For loading the crane on to BFR c) To unload the crane for BFR d) Lift the bridge 161 Number of small synchronizing shaft in a PQRS crane a) 4 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 2 No‘s d) 8 No‘s 162 Number of duplex chain on PQRS crane a) 8 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 2 No‘s d) 4 No‘s 163 The purpose of duplex chain on PQRS is a)Loading the crane on BFR b) For un loading the crane for BFR c) Lifting the crane bridge d) For safety of the machines

164 The Hp of the PQRS Diesel Engine(KOEL) a) 90 HP b) 105 HP c) 65 HP d) 80 HP 165 The diesel engine of the PQRS crane is a) Cummins make b) Duietz make c) Ashok Lay land make d) HA 694 KOEL make 166 The brakes operated in PQRS crane is a) Hydraulic b) Pneumatic c) Air d) Brake Fluid 167 The synchronizing shaft in plasser PQRS crane is with a)Buffer coupling b) Flange coupling c) Rubber coupling d) AVM 168 The synchronizing shaft bearings in 9T PQRS CRANE a) 6213ZZ b) 621 5 2RS c) 6213 2RS d) 6314 2RS 169 The number of synchronizing shaft Barings in each PQRS crane a)8 Nos b) 7 Nos c) 3 Nos d) 10 Nos 170 The brake blocks of PQRS crane made of a) Fiber b) MS c) Steel d) Cast Iron 171 The hydraulic pressure working of PQRS crane a)125 Bar b) 140 Bar c) 130 Bar d) 135 Bar 172 Full form of S.A.E is a)Society of American Engineers b) Society of Automotive Engineers c) Society of Automatic Engineers d) society of automobile engineers 173 No. of work drive motors in present BCM. a) 4 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 8 No‘s d) 10 No‘s 174 In BCM Depth of ballast cut cutter bar is about -----mm(approximately) . a)200 mm b) 280mm c)300mm d) 250 mm 175 In BCM the cutter chain Rotates a) Gear wheels b) On belts c) On Sprocket d) On trough 176 Hook transducer is used on a) Unimat b) CSM c) 3X d) Work Site Tamper 177 During lining, when the track is springing back the potentiometer to be adjusted is called a)Adjusted lining PCB b) Over slew c) Adjusted tamping PCB d) Adjusted lifting PCB 178 The extra demand of the hydraulic power is met through a) Flow control b) PCB c) Hydraulic accumulator d) Hug pump

179 ZF-gear box drive on CSM is called a) Machine b) Hydraulic c) Semi auto d) Hydro Dynamic 180 The speed of train over NON Interlocked points, turnouts and cross over shall not exceed ------normal a) 8 kmph b) 10 kmph c) 15 kmph d) 10/8 kmph 181 The PQRS auxiliary track gauge a) 3450 mm b) 3400 mm c) 3000 mm d) 3200 mm 182 The running speed of the hydraulic driven radiator fan of CSM a) 1400 RPM b) 1500 RPM c) 1200 RPM d) 1600 RPM 183 The stipulated output of 3X per effective block hour is a) 1.6 Kms b) 1.8 Kms c) 1 Km d) 2 Kms 184 Loaded BFR with TRC T-28 cranes comes under O.D.C class a) B Class b) C Class c) A Class d) D Class 185 For general lift of run-in and run-out ramp for tamping is a)1 in 2000 b)1in 1000 c) 1 in 1500 d) 1000 186 Minimum sieve size in BCM is a)35 mm b) 25 mm c) 30 mm d) 20 mm 187 Censure comes under a) Minor Penality b) major penality c) No of a Penality d) number of under DAR 188 Emergency engine available on T-28 a) KOEL b) sun c) lambadeni d) Cummins 189 Schedule for first POH of track machines is a) 8000 engine hr of working b) 6000 engine hr of working c) 6500 engine hr of working d) 7000 engine hr of working 190 The frequency tamping in case of steel sleepered track a)2 years b)1 year c)3 years d)5 years 191 minimum ballast cushion for deploying tamping machine is a)100mm b)150 mm c)200mm d)250 mm 192 lining mode adopted for tamping on straight line track a) 5 points line mode b) 6 points line mode c) 3 points line mode d)1 points line mode 193 long alignment defects are rectified in 3X machine a) 3 points lining b) lasser system c) 4 points lining d)auto mode

194 Shunt signal protects a) points b) loop c) track d) siding 195 Emission of black smoke in a diesel engine indicates a) water mix b) fuel c) lube oil burning d) unburned fuel in exhaust gasses 196 Cause for white smoke emission on a diesel engine indicates a) water contamination in fuel b) excess fuel burning c)excess lube oil d)fuel burning 197 Forms used for procurement of NS spares a) S 1300L b) S 1302A c) S 1302B d) S1300 198 PNM means a)preliminary negotiation machinery b)private negotiation machinery c) permanent negotiation machinery d) permanent negotiation meeting 199 The amplitude of tamping tool on tamping machine a)l0mm b) 35-40mm c) 35-39mm d) 35-45mm 200 Hooter provided in track machines for a) As indication b) To indicate safe situation c) For show d) Safety audio alarm 201 Full form of GVA is a) Auto leveling system b) Automatic lining system c) Geometry value assessment d) Automatic lifting system 202 During protection of track, first detonator to be placed at a distance of — a) 600 Mtrs b) 650 Mtrs c) 630 Mtrs d) 620 Mtrs 203 Rating of General lift potentiometer in CSM/DUO/UNIMAT is------mv/mm a) 50 b) 40 c) 60 d) 30 204 Chain tensioning pressure in BCM is set at ------Bar a) 150 b)250 c) 180 d) 350 205 The capacity of variable pump used in CSM a) 90 LPM b) 80 LPM c) 85 LPM d) 75 LPM 206 The capacity of T-28 crane is a) 20 Tonnes b) 30 Tonnes c) 25 Tonnes d) 15 Tonnes 207 During working with TRT transportation of sleepers from one wagon to another and to TRT machine is done by ------a) power car b) handling car c) gantry d) beem car 208 TRT Means a) Track Relaying Train b) Track Recording Trolley c) Track Routing Train d) Tamping Recording Train

209 The medical category prescribed for operator of a track machine is a) Al b) A3 c) A2 d) A4 210 The competency certificate for machine operator is issued by a)ADRM b) DRM c) Dy.CE/TM d) Sr.DEN/Co.ord 211 Minimum check rail clearance in case of PSC turnouts is a) 41 mm b) 42 mm c) 40 mm d) 45 mm 212 In latest model TRT, engine used is ------a) QST model b) QSM model c) QSX model d) all the above 213 Sand hump provided in a station yard serves as a) Isolation b) Safety c) Shunting d) Permanent 214 Rating of a battery provided on a PQRS crane a)12Y 1 50 AH b) 12V 180 AH c) 12V 88 AH d) 12V 120 AH 215 Counter pressure setting in Big squeezing cylinder in CSM is-----Bar a) 140 b) 150 c) 100 d) 160 216 The no. of casual leave days for Grade ‘C‘ staff is a) 1 1 Days b) 8 Days c) 10 Days d) 12 Days 217 Full form of D.M.T.R is a)Record b)Daily Material Transaction Register c) Transaction d)Departmental 218 Full form of PCDO is a)Particulars of Comparative Demi Official b) Prepared Cumulative Demi Official c) Periodical Confidential Demi Official d) Periodical Cumulative Demi Order 292 219 No. of pendulums are on CSM. a) 3 No‘s b) 5 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 7 No‘s 220 Schedule of lube oil change in MWM engine a) 120 Hrs b) 125 Hrs c) 130 Hrs d) 1 40 Hrs 221 Power supply PCB used in leveling circuit in CSM in machine. a)EK 813 b) ELT 813 c) EIL 812 SV – 00 d) ELT 8050 222 Screening unit Vibration pressure unit in BCM is------a) 300 Bar b) 180 Bar c) 140 Bar d) 390 Bar 223 Number of lining rollers on each lining unit of CSM a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8

224 Mode of operation to be adopted for rectifying the errors by 100%. a)Automatic mode b) Smothening mode c) Machine mode d) Design mode 225 No. of valves are used in each cylinder of Cummins engine. a) 3 No‘s b) 3 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 7 No‘s 226 Minimum lub oil pressure at rated speed in casc of MWM engine is a)4.5 Kgs per Sq Cm b) 3.5 Kgs per Sq Cm c) 2.5 Kgs per Sq Cm d) 1.5 Kgs per Sq Cm 227 Maximum sieve size in BCM is a) 85 mm b) 80 mm c) 90 mm d) 95 mm 228 Normal units to be kept for squeezing time counter of CSM while tamping a) 3 No‘s b) 5 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 7 No‘s 229 The minimum distance between two track machines during transit drive when they are in line block as per a) 125 Mtrs b) 120 Mtrs c) 130 Mtrs d) 135 Mtrs 230 The minimum air pressure to be maintain for engaging gear in CSM a)5 Bar b) 3 Bar c) 4 Bar d) 6 Bar 231 Turret gear box operates in BCM. a) Scraper chain b) Axles c)Drinting system d) Working system 232 Reduction to lower grade without cumulative effect is a) Major penality b) Minor penality c)No of a penality d) to of under DAR 233 The medical category prescribed for the artisan staff are track machines a) A I b) B 1 c)B2 d) A2 234 Maximum check rail clearance in case of level crossing is a)55 mm b) 50 mm c) 57mm d) 58 mm 235 The mode of lining adopted by a curved track a)4 Point b) 3 Point c)5 Point d) 7 Point 236 The grade of a gear oil used in tamping machines a) 80 b) 90 c) 70 d) 60 237 After through sleeper renewal, no. of tampings to be given are a)5 times b) 6 times c)3 times d) 8 times 238 No. of small squeezing cylinders on Duomatic machine a) 9 No‘s b) 10 No‘s c) 12 No‘s d) 8 No‘s

239 Engine fitted on T-28 Ameca portal crane a) SUN b) KOEL c) Dueitz d) Cummins 240 Machine used for Track consolidation. a) BRM b) CSM c)BCM d) DTS 241 On 3X machine to attain perfect alignment of track system adopted a)Lining system b) Lifting system c) ALC – Computer d) Automatic system 242 Capacity of PQRS portal crane which can lift a I 3.0 m long pre-assembled panel a) 9 Tones b) 10 Tones c) 8 Tones d) 5 Tones 243 On tamping machines gears cannot be engaged at air pressure less than a) 5 Kgs b) 4 Kgs c)2 Kgs d) 8 Kgs 244 Which of the following hydraulic pump is not used in CSM a)38.22.17 b) 38X22 c) 38X17 d) 20X14 245 The leakage of hydraulic oil from cylinder indicates a)Failure of machine b) cylinder damage c) Failures to system d) Oil seal damage 246 Weightage factor (units) for Portal crane is------. a ) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 247 Engine no.1 of BCM operates a) All pumps b) All motors c)Conveyer belts d) Chain 248 Rostered hours for ―Continuous Category‖ are a)50 hrs on week b) 48 hrs on week c) 45 hrs on week d) 43 hrs on week 249 Maximum no. of LA P that can be accumulated are a)300+15 b) 500+15 c) 700+15 d) 350+15 250 In the track machine safety items number of detonators in a tin container. a) 15 No‘s b) 10 No‘s c) 20 No‘s d) 25 No‘s d) 25 Nos 251 In the Base depot, material receipts and issues are posted daily in a) Gate pass b) Challan c) Voucher d) DMTR 252 the handing of rails and sleepers and assembly of turnouts is done by a) T&C crane b) JIB crane c) UT d) PRC 253 The operating voltage of electrical system of BCM a)20 V DC. b) 22 V DC c) 24 V DC d) 12V 254 The maximum width of cutter bar can be extended in BCM RM-80, 92 U a)7.7 Mtrs b) 7.5 Mtrs c) 7.8 Mtrs d) 7.3 Mtrs

255 The RPM of vibrating shaft of tamping unit a) 2200 b) 2100 c) 2000 d) 2500 256 In tamping machines in general lift should always be more than a)25 mm b) 30 mm c) 20 mm d) 35 mm 257 The type of lining system is provided in CSM a) Two cord wire b) Computer c) Lasser d) Single chord wire system 258 Function of Radiator in diesel engine is for a)for cooling of circulating water inside the engine b) Oil cooling c) Hydraulic oil coolers d) Gear oil cooling 259 Automatic lining on a curved track is attended with a)3 point b) 4 point c) 3 point d) 7 point 260 Codal life of all tamping machines is is------a) 20 years b)15years c) 12 years d) 18 years 261 CSM should work with number tamping tools while tamping a) 30Nos b) 32 No‘s c) 35 No‘s d) 36 No‘s 262 Number of Small squeezing cylinders on CSM a) 10 No‘s b) 12 No‘s c) 8 No‘s d) 6 No‘s 263 Normal aspect of automatic stop signal is a) Proceed b) Stop c) Observed d) Stop and proceed 264 Gear oil used in Tie Tamping machines is a) SAE 100 b) SAE 90 c) SAE 140 d) SAE 68 265 Minimum screen size in Ballast Cleaning Machine is a) 32 mm b) 35 mm c) 30 mm d) 28 mm 266 Codal life of Ballast cleaning machines is------a )15 years b) 20 years c) 12 years d) 18 years 267 Codal life of Rail grinding machine is------a) 12 years b) 20 years c) 15 years d) 18 years 268 Catch siding is intended to protect ------a) station section b) block section c) both A& B c) yard section 269 RDSO allowed speed of unimat during transit a)50 Kmph b) 60 Kmph c) 70 Kmph d) 75 Kmph 270 No. of flanges on a PQRS portal crane wheel a) 5 No‘s b) 3 No‘s c) 4 No‘s d) 2 No‘s

271 Number of lifting rollers provided on a CSM a) 5 No‘s b) 3 No‘s c) 8 No‘s d) 2 No‘s 272 Number of Magie springs provided on a Duomatic a)15 No‘s b) 16 No‘s c) 20 No‘s d) l8 No‘s 273 Type of 38 x 17 hydraulic double pump a) Vane b) Variable c) Gear d) Pin 274 Satellite compensation PCB in CSM a) EK 349 b) EK 348 c) EK 229 d) EK 290 275 Over slew PCB in CSM a) EK 16 b) EK 290 c) EK 229 d) EK 110 276 JE.II is allowed with number of Causal Leaves in a year. a) Twelve b) Fourteen c) Eight d) Ten 277 Any employee found mis-behaving on duty should be taken up under a) DAR b) SF11 c) Safety rules d) SF5 278 Number of passes admissible to GOUP C staff after 5 years a) One set b) Three sets c)five sets d) Two sets 279 maximum number of LAP that can be considered for encashment after retirement a) 200 b) 250 c)300 d)350 280 100 R2 is ------Braided hydrau1ic hose a)Double wire b)single wire c) Four wire d) Three wire 281 Engine oil used in track machines. a) SAG 40 b) 15W40 c) 20W 40 d) SRE 30 282 Tamping tool to be replaced after % of wear of blade. a) 30 b) 50 c) 20 d) 40 283 Codal life of TRT machines is------a )20 years b) 15 years c) 12 years d) 18 years 284 Codal life of points and crossing changing machine is------a )15 years b) 20 years c) 12 years d) 18 years 285 Compressor fitted with M/s. Greaves make engine CSM a) ELGI b) DHEL c) Single d) Duitz

286 Number of cutter chains in FRM a) 5 No‘s b) 6 No‘s c) 2 No‘s d) 1 No 287 Number roller in each FRM cutter chain a) 86 Nos b) 84 Nos c) 82 Nos d) 83 Nos 288 The cutting bit of FRM cutting chain is called a)Round shap chisel b) Cutting blade c) Fuse cap d) Cutting chisel 289 Codal life of Ballast Regulating machine is------a)15 years b) 18 years c) 12 years d) 20 years 290 Number of support for each excavating chain for FRM a) 1 26 No‘s b) 1 24 No‘s c)120 No‘s d) 1 23 No‘s 291 The maximum vertical lift that can be achieved on motralaized trally of PRC T28 a)300 mm b) 350 mm c) 250 mm d) 200 mm 292 The rail wheel dia meter of PRC T28 a) 300 mm b) 350 mm c) 150 mm d) 400 mm 293 The maximum speed with full load of PRC T28 crane a) 0.5 Km per Hr b) 0.6 Km per Hr c) 0.8 Km per Hr d) 0.7 Km per Hr 294 The SUN diesel engine on PRC T28 a)Oil Cooled b) Air Cooled c)water cooled d) both air and water cooled 295 The model of Cummins engine on BRM(Kershaw make) a)NTA - 743 C b) NTA - 740 C c) NTA - 745 C d) NTA - 742 C 296 The grease used for automatic greasing system on tamping machines a)EP 2 b) RR 3 c) Sheell alvania RL 2 d) Bearing grease 297 Lube oil filter to be replaced on a cumminis engine a) 350 Hrs b) 300 Hrs c) 250 Hrs d) 200 Hrs 298 Lub oil filter element to be replaced on Duitz engine a) 120 Hrs b) 125 His c) 130 Hrs d) 135 Hrs 299 Diesel tank of Track Machines to be cleaned at a interval of a) 1000Hrs b) 500 Hrs c) 1500 Hrs d) 2000 Hrs 300 The rated axel clutch pressure of FRM a) 15 to 20 Bar b) 10 to 15 Bar c) 5 to 10 Bar d) 20 to 25 Bar

301 Slip siding is intended to protect ------a) station section b) block section c) both a & b d) yard section 302 When IB signal is at ON and telephone is out of order after waiting 5 minutes shall proceed at a speed of -----km when is not view is clear. a) 8 kmph b) 10 kmph c) 15 kmph d) 10/8 kmph 303 In general type of belt used for alternator drive a) A series b) B series c) C series d) D series 304 Batteries provided on a tamping machine a) 2 No‘s each 12V b) 4 No‘s each l2V c) 6 No‘s each 12V d) 8 No‘s each 12V 305 Which of the following the function of tamping machine a) correction of alignment b)correction of longitudinal c) tamping of ballast under the sleeper d) all the above 306 Find odd man out of the following a) 15w40 b) 20w40 c)SAE-40 d)HLP-68 307 Which of the following is Pneumatic application a)satellite engage dis engage operation in CSM b) brake during working in DUOMATIC c)Electric horn d)none 308 Electrical power in track machine is generated from a) alternator b) self starter c) EK-813 d)None 309 With the Tamping units used in railways, maximum sleepers can be tamped at a time a) 01 sleeper b) 02 sleeper c) 03 sleeper d) None 310 Break system---- with K.E.valve woks with a) single pipe system b) two pipe system c) three pipe system d) all of the above--- 311 In plasser make new duomatic machine brake is applied automatically by switching of ------a) Main Switch b) Z.F. switch c) Hydraulic Switch d) both a & b 312 Which of the following machine is having the provision of operating individual tamping tool. a) CSM b) VPR-02 c) 3X d) UNIMAT 313 M/C which is designed for plain track as well as point and crossing a) UNIMAT-COMPACT b) UNIMAT-3S c) UNIMAT-4S d) None of the above 314 Which of the following is not a pre tamping work a) joggled fish plate removal b) clearing of rail head ballast c) OHE block d) removing of earth bonds

315 Tamping units works under following principals a) non synchronize constant pressure tamping principals b) synchronize constant pressure tamping principals c) synchronize pressure tamping principals d)Asynchronous pressure tamping 316 For caked ballast squeezing pressure for UNIMAT in (PSC) a) 125 kg/cm² b) 135 kg/cm² c)125-135 kg/cm² d) None 317 For deep screening site squeezing pressure for UNIMAT in (PSC) a) 125 kg/cm² b) 135 kg/cm² c) 125-135 kg/cm² d) None 318 For PSC track squeezing pressure for CSM in deep screening a) 110 kg/cm² b) 120 kg/cm² c)110-120 kg/cm² d) None 319 For PSC track squeezing pressure for CSM in caked up ballast ------a) 110 kg/cm² b) 120 kg/cm² c)110-120 kg/cm² d) None 320 For effective tamping, the gap between top of the tamping tool blade and bottom of sleeper is should have----for PSC sleeper a) 8-10 mm b) 10-12 mm c) 15-20 mm d) any of the above 321 For effective tamping, the gap between tamping tool blade and bottom of sleeper is should have---- For metal sleeper a) 8-10 mm b) 10-15 mm c) 15-20 mm d) 22-25 mm 322 Tamping tool depth (a) sleeper width at rail seat location + rail height + rubber pad thickness (b) sleeper height at rail seat location + rail height + rubber pad thickness (c) sleeper width + rail depth + rubber pad width (d) any of the above. 323 Tamping depth for 60 kg rail and sleeper a) 360 mm b) 370 mm c) 388 mm d) 410 mm 324 No of revolutions vibration shaft ------a)2100 rpm (appro) b) 1900 rpm (appro) c) 1500rpm (appro) d) 1600 rpm (appro) 325 Vibration frequency of tamping tool a) 25-35 HZ (apro) b) 30-35 HZ (apro) c) 33-35 HZ (apro) d) 35-40 HZ (apro) 326 Codal life of shoulder Ballast cleaning machines is------a)15 years b) 12 years c) 20 years d) 18 years (c) 327 During tamping, lining and lifting starts when tamping unit lowered by a) T/Unit reaches middle position b) T/Unit reaches 30mm before lower position c) T/Unit reaches top position d) T/Unit reaches lower position (a) 328 During tamping squeezing commences at ------a) 28 mm before target depth b) 29 mm before target depth c) 30 mm before target depth d) 25 mm before target depth

329 Criteria for selecting the referral rail in straight a) right side rail as referral b) left side rail as referral c) as per the convenience of the operator d)Least disturbed rail. 330 Versine compensation values are fed during following section of curve a) for entry of machine from straight to transition b) machine working in transition c) for enter of machine from transition to circular curve exiting from circulate line d) all the above 331 Value of VM value depends on a) length of transition b) position of different trollies of tamping machine. c)radius of circular curve d) all the above 332 Direction of feeding of VM value when machine moves from large radiant to small radiant a) towards inner rail b) towards outer rail c) either of above d) as per operation connivance. 333 Direction of feeding of VM valve when machine is entering from low radius to larger radius a) towards inner rail b) towards outer rail c) either of above d) as per the convert 334 In levelling of datum rail on starting track double line will be selected a a) Outer Rail b) Inner Rail c) as mention by PWI d) Non cess rail 335 In Levelling of track, datum rail in curves is selected as ------a) Non cess rail b) Inner Rail c) As Per Pwi d) Outer Rail. 336 In levelling of the track ,datum rail straight track single line a) each side b) least disturbed rail c) any side d) as per PWI 337 In levelling reduction ration for 0008-275 UNIMAT a) 3.678 b) 3.212 c) 3.232 d) 3.323 338 In levelling reduction ratio for 80-275-3S UNIMAT is a) 3.678 b) 3.212 c) 3.232 d) 3.323 339 In levelling reduction ration for 09-32 CSM a) 3.678 b) 3.212 c) 3.232 d) 2.775 340 In levelling reduction ratio 08-32C DUOMATIC machine is a) 3.678 b) 3.212 c) 3.232 d) 2.764 341 Quantum Of General Lift is limited to...... is any case. a) 30 mm b) 40 mm c) 50 mm d) 60 mm 342 For quality output and retentivity of tamping of tamping minimum clean ballast cushion required below bottom of sleeper at rail seat location a) 300 mm b) 250 mm c) 200 mm d) 150 mm

343 For new lines and gauge conversion before undertaking tamping by machine minimum ballast cushion required in main line a) 300 m b) 250 m c) 200 m d)150 m 344 For new line, doubling and gauge conversion clean ballast cushion before under taking tamping of loop line by machine should have--- a) 300 mm b) 250 mm c) 120 mm d) 150 mm 345 While tamping turn out minimum approach track length is a) 40 m b) 50 m c) 60 m d) 70 m 346 Which of the following machine is having the provision of 3rd rail tamping a) UNIMAT-2S b) UNIMAT-3S c) UNIMAT- CAMPACT d) UNIMAT-4S 347 Which of the following equipment is used to eliminate initial differential settlement c by impact of passing trains a) Unimat-Compact b) Unimat-3s c) Unimat-4s d) DGS 348 Speed of DTS to be maintained during stabilization for first and second Passes of the machine. a) 0.4-1.0 k-- b) 0.5-1.5 c) 0.5-1.0 d) 1.5-2.0 349 After working with DTS on freshly deep screened track possible speed limit is a) 30 kmph b) 40 kmph c) 50 kmph d) 60 kmph 350 Mode of working of DTS a) Maximum settlement mode b) controlled settlement mode c) both a & b d) none 351 Which of the following type stabilizers are used in Indian railways a) DTS 62 N Plasser India b) DTS UKL-404 IN BHEL India c) DTS DSP-C8T(METEX,JSC,MOSCOW) d) all the above 352 Range of vibration frequency in DGS-62N model a) 0-45 HZ b) 0-40 HZ c) 0-50 HZ d) 0-35 HZ 353 Range of working speed of DGS-62 N machine a) 0-2.5 kmph b)0-3.0 kmph c) 0-2.0 kmph d) 0-3.5 kmph 354 Total vertical pre load on each stabilizing unit in DGS- 62N model a) 240 kN b) 120 kN c) 80 kN d) 150 kN 355 During working ballast deck bridge of span over 10m vertical frequency to be selected a) working to be skipped b) high frequency of 40-45 to be selected c) low frequency of 25-30 HZ to be selected d) none 356 loads/settlement settings during Stabilization of plain track during maintenance a) 70 bar b)80 bar c) 60 bar d)50 bar 357 Which of the following is not a function of bcm- a) To improve drainage of track b) to provide cross slope of formation c) To lower the track d)To restore clean ballast cussion. 24

358 Speed of cutter chain in BCM is a)1.8 to4.0 m/sec b)1.7-3.8 m/sec c) 2.0-3.0 m/sec d)2.5- 4.5 m/sec 359 Screen area of BCM is a)21 SQM b)20 SQM c)22 SQM d) 23 SQM 360 Waste conveyor in BCM discharge muck to a distance a)72 .5 m b)7.5 m c)76.5 m d)76 m 361 With RM 76 model BCM, maximum excavating width will be a)7.0 m b)7.1 m c)7.1 m d)7.72 m 362 With RM 80 -92U model BCM maximum excavating width will be a) 7.76 m b) 7.77 m c) 7.78 m d) 7.79 m 363 Maximum depth of excavating width BCM is a) 300 mm b) 325 mm c) 350 mm d) 360 mm 364 With available BCM IR, maximum lifting of track is a)50 mm b) 100 mm c)150 mm d)200 mm 365 With available BCM IR, maximum slewing of track can be done is a)150 mm b) 100 mms c) 300 mm d) 350 mm 366 Retractable waste conveyor belt in BCM can swing by------in both direction a) 50º b)70º c) 30º d) 75º 367 Codal life of UTV machines is------a )15 years b) 25 years c) 12 years d) 18 years 368 Screening capacity of BCM in IR in one hour(ideal conditions) a)350 cubic meter b)500 cubic meter c) 600cubic meter d) 550 cubic meter 369 Length of each extension peace for deep screening of points and crossing with RM-76 and RM-80-92U BCM a) 500mm long b)300 mm long c)200 mm long d) 600 mm long 370 During BCM working, for future reference for alignment and levels pillars are installed. at an interval of ----- long the track. a) 20 mts b) 30 mts c) 35 mts d) 40 mts 371 Size of the trench prepared for insertion of cutter bar a) 30 cm depth and 1mtr width b) 20 cm depth and 1mtr width c) 10 cm depth and 2mtr width d) 5 cm depth and 1mtr width 372 The main function of the FRM is a) to improve drainage at shoulder of the track b) levelling the ballast c) to screen the ballast under the track d) all the above 373 Number of scraper plates having in FRM in each excavating chain a) 43 b)45 c)46 d)42

374 Number of fuse caps having in FRM each cutter chain a)76 b)56 c) 86 d)96 375 In SBCM excavating unit can be extended on either side to cover width up to ----- from centre of track a) 4150mm b)5150mm c)3150mm d)6150 mm 376 In SBCM muck can be dispensed up to a maximum distance of ------mts from centre of track a) 6.5 mts b) 7.5mts c) 5.5 mts d) 8.5 mts 377 Ballast screening capacity of SBCM is ---- a) 600m³/hr b) 700m³/hr c) 500m³/hr d) 800m³/hr 378 Maximum reach of shoulder plough for BRM from centre of the track is --- a) 3.5 mts b) 2.5 mts c) 4.5 mts d)5.5 mts 379 Depending on condition at site which method is used for laying of track with PQRS a) pulling the rake from and to b) pushing the rake from and to c) parting the rake from and to d) all of the above 380 Ballast handling capacity of BRM is ------in one hour a) 2000m³ b) 3000m³ c) 5000m³ d) 4000m³ 381 Size of the wooden blocks to be used in while laying auxiliary track for PQRS working a) 560×250×125mm b) 460×250×225mm c) 560×350×125mm d) 360×250×125mm 382 While laying auxiliary track wooden blocks are placed at ----- meters distance a) 2.5 to 3 mts b) 3.5 to 2 mts c) 1.5 to 2 mts d) 1.0 to 2 mts 383 In general, level of auxiliary track should be kept a) just below the existing track b) at same level to the existing track c) just above the existing track d) at any desired level 384 In any case Auxiliary track should not be more than ------mm height than existing track a) 50 mm b)40 mm c)30 mm d)20 mm 385 Which of the following is not the function of TRT a) threads out existing rails from track b) removes old sleepers c) levels and compacts ballast bed d) removes pandrol clips 386 Which of the following work cannot attended with TRT a) CTR b) TSR c) TRR d) TFR 387 Which of the following is the unit of TRT a) beam car b) handling car c) power car d) all of the above 388 For TRR work with TRT new rail panel should be placed ----- distance from centre of track a) 1.5 mts b)2.5 mts c) 3.5 mts d) 4.5 mts

389 During working with TRT in block section SR of not more than ------kmph is to be imposed on adjacent track to ensure safety a) 50 kmph b) 30 kmph c) 40 kmph d) 60 kmph 390 Weight of complete turnout of 1in 12 a) 74 ton b) 64 ton c) 54 ton d) 84 ton 391 For movement of T-28 cranes following arrangement is used a) rail wheels for movement of work b) crawler for movement on firm ground c) both a &b d) none of the above 392 Rating of lining transducer potentiometer is------a) 23.1 mv/mm b)10 mv/mm c) 90 mv/mm d) 50mv/mm 393 Rating of super elevation potentiometer is------a) 23.1 mv/mm b)10 mv/mm c) 90 mv/mm d) 50mv/mm 394 Maximum lift of T-28 with full load a) 2300 mm b) 2400 mm c) 2500 mm d)2600 mm 395 Width of the crawler in T-28 machine. a) 370 mm b) 390 mm c) 360 mm d) 380 mm 396 Maximum moving width of T-28 crane a) 7110 mm b)7120 mm c)7130 mm d)7140 mm 397 With AMECA T-28 crane maximum lateral shifting of 1 in 12 turn out could be –----- meter at switch side during each shifting operation a) 1.5 mts appro b) 1.0 mts appro c) 2.5 mts appro d) 3.5 mts appro 398 With AMECA T-28 crane maximum lateral shifting of 1 in 12 turn out could be –----- meter at crossing side during each shifting operation a) 0.65 mts b) 0.55 mts c) 0.45 mts d) 0.75 mts 399 While moving on ground T-28 crane can negotiate a level difference of ------a)1579 mm b) 1479 mm c) 1679 mm d) 1879 mm 400 For laying diamond assembly with T-28,numbers of sleeper to be removed to reduce the weight to 54 ton a) 50-54 sleepers b) 40-54 sleepers c) 50-55 sleepers d) 50-60 sleepers 401 Minimum numbers of wooden blocks(with approximate size) to be kept in traffic block a)50 b) 40 c) 60 d)30 402 Size of rail peaces for supporting rail wheels during shifting a) 70 cm b)30 cm c)40 cm d)50 cm 403 At present method of grinding process following by Indian railways a) preventing grinding b) preventing gradual grinding c) a only d) both a &b 404 Payload capacity of RBMV a) 15 ton b) 6 ton c) 10 ton d)8 ton 27

405 Peak value of un evenness for gauge conversion for deployment of measure a) 14 mm on 3.6 m chord b) 15 mm on 3.6 m chord c) 15 mm on 4.6 m chord d) 13 mm on 3.6 m chord 406 Peak value of twist a) 14 mm on 3.6 m chord b) 12 mm on 3.6 m chord c) 15 mm on 3.6 m chord d) 10 mm on 3.6 m chord 407 Peak value of alignment a) 14 mm on 3.6 m chord b) 10 mm on 3.6 m chord c) 15 mm on 3.6 m chord d) 15 mm on 7.2 m chord 408 Length of chord to be used in determining peak value of transit a) 3.6 mts b) 4.6 mts c) 4.8 mts d) 5.9 mts 409 Length of chord to be used in determining peak value of unevenness a) 3.6 mts b) 8.6 mts c) 4.8 mts d) 5.9 mts 410 In T-28 machine Minimum numbers of wooden blocks(with approximate size) to be kept in traffic block a)50 b) 40 c) 60 d)30 411 Which of the following is not related to pneumatic circuit a) air drier b) air un loader c) water separator d) ELT-277 412 Air un loader in track machine is generally set at a) 4 kg/cm² b) 8.5 kg /cm² c) 7.2 kg/cm² d) 6.0 kg/cm² 413 In indirect breaking system in track machines line pipe break pipe is maintenance at ------kg/m² pressure a) 4.5 kg/m² b) 5 kg/m² c) 5.5 kg/m² d) 6 kg/m² 414 Cleaning of cooling coil is cleaned in the following schedule a) daily schedule b) 50 hrs c) 100 hrs d) 200 hrs 415 In Cummins diesel engine input to suction for air compressor is from a) turbo charger b) cooling coil c) after cooler d) air cleaner 416 Oil used in air oiler a) 15w40 b) HLP-68 c) C-90 d) SS 140 417 Purpose of providing cooling coil in pneumatic circuit a) to cool the air b) to heat the air to remove moisture c) to cool the air to avoid damages to components d) to heat the air 418 Which of the following is not pneumatic application in DUOMATIC a) chord wire tension b) bogie lifting and lowering c) datum application d) brake application during working 419 In which of the following engine air compressors is provided additionally a) KTA1150 b) NTA 855L c) NT855 d) QSM-11

420 Abbreviation of PT used on RGM…………. a)Permanent Transducer b)Protection Temperature c)Potential Transformer d)None of the Above 421 Engine Model Number that is used on RGM……………….. a) Cummins KTA 1150 b) Cummins QST 30 c)Cummins NTA 855L d) Cummins QSM 11 422 Engine Brake Horse power of Cummins QST 30 model used on RGM is…..…… a)1000BHP b)1200BHP c)1350BHP d)1450BHP 423 Abbreviation of PLC is………..…… a)Programmable Logic Controller b) Publse Level Controller c)Position Logic Clear d)None of the Above 424 Abbreviation of PT associated with EGCP and its function is………. a)Pulse Transducer, To Convert Pulses generated to Electrical Signals b)Potential Transformer, To Step Down Voltages c)Potential Transformer, To Step Up Voltages d)Position Transducer, To Convert Position defining Signals to Electrical Signals 425 EGCP full form……………………. a) Engine Guide Controller Protection b) Encoder Generation and Controlling of Pulses. c) Encoder Gauge Control Position d) Engine Generator Controller Package 426 Abbreviation of RCA used on RGM) …….…..… a)Rail Corrector and Analyzer b)Rail Corrugation Analyzer c)Rear Controller Access d)Rail Cutting Advisory 427 SCR means…….…..…… a)Silicon Controlled Rectifier b)Soft Capacitance Regulator c)Semi Corrugation Response d)Safety Controller Reactive device 428 Type of Driving in RGM……. a)Mechanical Type b)Electrical Type c)Hydraulic Type d)Composite Type 429 Number of Dust Retardant Filters per each Grind Car of RGM…… a)36 b)33 c)27 d)24 430 Hydraulic Valves and Power Supplies of PLC‘s on RGM operate at…… a)12V DC, 12V DC b)24V DC, 12V DC c)12V DC, 24V DC d)24V DC, 24V DC 431 Idle and Full Rated Speed in rpm of Cummins QST 30 Engines used on RGM…. a)800, 2000 b)800,1860 c)750,2100 d)800, 2100 432 Grinding Motor Capacity and its RPM on RGM machine………. a)50Hp, 3000RPM b)40HP, 2400RPM c)30HP, 3600RPM d)40HP, 3200RPM 433 GDMS Refers to…… (Ref. Guidelines for RGM working by IRICEN pg.no.11,paragraph no.4.5) a)Grind Data Management System b)General Data Measurement System c)Graded Data Manipulation System d)Generator Data Monitor System

434 GQI means…….( Ref. Guidelines for RGM working by IRICEN pg.no.8,paragraph no.3.17) a)Generator Quality Indicator b)Grind Quantity Indicator c)Grind Quality Index d)Grease Quantity Interpreter 435 Depth of Rail Cutting that can be achieved when grinded by RGM for single Pass………. a)0.15mm @ 08KMPH b)0.20mm @10KMPH c)0.35mm @15KMPH d)0.40mm @18KMPH 436 CPC and CPF with respect to GDMS of RGM Machine refer to…………. a)Contact Point Corner, Contact Point Forward b)Contact Point Changed, Contact Point Fixed c)Contact Position Changed, Contact Position Fixed d)Contact Point Centre, Contact Point Field 437 Number of KLD Computers, GDMS Computers and HMI Computers that are present on RGM machine are respectively…… a)1,1,1 b)1,2,1 c)2,1,1 d)2,2,1 438 Traction Motors are present on which of the following axles…………. a)Grind Car Axles b)Front Control Car Axles c)Rear Control Car Axles d)BTPN Car Axles 439 Rated High Pressure and Low Pressure to be maintained by Hydraulic Pumps for grinding on RGM machine………………. a)140Bar, 30Bar b)125Bar,35Bar c)120Bar, 40Bar d)150Bar, 40Bar 440 AVR Refers to…… a)Analog Voltage Regulator b)Automatic Variable Resistor c)Active Variable Rheostat d)Automatic Voltage Regulator 441 Grind Stone Dimension of RGM are (Outer Dia, Inner Dia)……. a)200mm,100mm b)250mm,150mm c)175mm,95mm d)275mm,125mm 442 Purpose of Dust Augur Motor on RGM………………. a)To Dispose the Dust that was collected while grinding b)To Collect the Dust while Grinding c)To filter the Dust after Grinding d)To Collect the particles while grinding for analysis 443 Grinding Speed of RGM to be maintained in between…… a)5-16KMPH b)10-24KMPH c)8-20KMPH d)9-24KMPH 444 Number of Grind passes to be done in Straight Line and in Curve (of Length>180metres)…… a)2passes and 1 pass b)3 passes and 1 pass c)1 Pass and 3 Passes d)1 Pass and 2 Passes 445 Which of the following in not treated as Obstructions while grinding……? a)axle counter b) SEJ c)glued joint . d) L.C.gate 446 All the Grinding Motors operate at…….……………… a)120V, 60HZ b)230V,50HZ c)230V,60HZ d)480V,60HZ

447 Rating of each Generator present in the grind car of RGM……. a)900KW, 1285KVA b)600KW,1500KVA c)1200KW,1500KVA d)500KW,1000KVA 448 1600Amps CB that connects Generator Output to Bus Bar is controlled by…..……. a)PLC b)ECM c)EGCP d)AVR 449 ECM with respect to Cummins QST 30 Engine of RGM Refers to…………. a)Electrically Controlling Motors b)Embedded Controller Module c)Electronic Control Module d)Engine Care Module 450 Engine Speed (RPM) is sensed at Engine by…………. a)ECU b)ECM c)MPU d)PLC 451 MPU with respect to Engine of RGM refers to………………. a)Mechanical Protector unit b)Magnetic Pick up Unit c)Motor Protection Unit d)Multi Purpose Unit 452 Cummins QST 30 Engine of RGM is ……… Cylinder Engine…… a)6 b)8 c)12 d)14 453 Total Number of Fuel Lift Pumps and Fuel Transfer Pumps on each Engine of Cummins QST-30 a)1 and 2 b)1 and 1 c)2 and 1 d)2 and 2 454 Fuel Lift Pump and Fuel Transfer Pump of Cummins QST-30 Engine operate at…… a)12V DC, 12VDC b)24V DC,12V DC c)12V DC, 24V DC d)24V DC, 24V DC 455 Number of 1600Amps Circuit Breakers per Each Grind Car on RGM………..……. a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4 456 Numbers of Air Compressors on RGM are….………………. a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4 457 Maximum Life of Grinding Stone will be ……..…… a)14-16Hours b)8-10Hours c)10-12Hours d)12-14Hours 458 Each Grinding Motor can be tilted within the range…………. a)+50 Degrees to -30 Degrees b)+90 Degrees to -50 Degrees c)+70 Degrees to -30 Degrees d)+50 Degrees to -40 Degrees 459 Ditch Spray and Tie Spray before the grinding operation are used to…………. a)To Cool down the Rails b)To Cool down the Engines c)To Prevent the fire on Machine d)To Prevent the Fire on Cess 460 Ditch Spray and Tie Spray are present on which of the following Cars…… a)Front and Rear Control Cars b)Grind cars 1 and 2 c)Grind Cars 2 and 3 d)Grind cars 1 and 3 461 Use of Hot Rail on RGM machine is …….. a)To warn the personnel on the machine of a passing train on the adjacent track b)To Indicate when the temperature of Rail becomes too Hot after grinding c)To alert the personnel if any fire broke out on the machine d)To Indicate the derailment of any buggies while grinding

462 Pattern Selection can be done from which of the following…… a)GDMS Computer b)KLD Computer c)HMI Computer d)Mini Proof Computer 463 Rail Head Profile before and after grinding is measured using the instrument……. a)TRAVEL CAMERA b)SEQUENCE CAMERA c)RAIL CORRUGATION ANALIZER d)MINIPROOF INSTRUMENT 464 Mechanical Power Transmission methods used in any working unit are: a) ‗V‘ belt b) Chain drive c) Gear drive d) All of above 465 What is the full form of AMC: a) annual maintenance certificate b) annual material contract c) annual maintenance contract d) None of above. 466 Simplex chain and duplex chain of PQRS is run by: a) Pulley drive b) Chain drive c) ‗V‘ belt drive d) All of above. 467 Which of the following is known as silent drive a) V belt drive b) Chain drive c) inverted to chain drive d) Gear drive. 468 Mechanical power transmission through: a) Cardon Shaft b) Alternator c) Battery d) All of above. 469 Which of the following is not a component of MWM engine: a) turbo charger b) air compressor c) FIP d) cylinder head 470 If more nos. of pulleys are added then mechanical advantages will be: a) Decreased b) Increased c) Will be equal d) Non of above. 471 Male & female portion is available in following mechanical power transmission: a) Belt drive b) Chain Drive c) Cardon shaft d) Gear drive. 472 Mechanical power transmission is subjected to more: a) Slippage. b) More wear & Tear c) More friction d) All of above 473 No. of Cardon shafts provided in C.S.M.: a) 04 Nos. b) 05 Nos. c) 07 Nos. d) None of above. 474 Which of the following is not an electrical/electronic component: a) Maggie spring b) ELT-277 c) EK-16V d) Battery 475 Which of the following machine is used for tamping of plain track. a) unimat 3s. b) unimat 4s c) unimat d) VPR duomatic machines 476 No. of pumps driven by main gear box in Duomatic: a) One Pump b) Two pump c) three Pumps d) None of above 477 Function of engager body of main Gear Box is to: a) Engage and disengage Hydraulic Pumps b) To shift the hydraulic pumps c) To idle the main gear box d) None of above. (a)

478 NU2220 is the type of bearing: a) Roller Bearing b) Ball Bearing c) Needle Bearing d) None of above. 479 For lubrication of gears in main gear box in DUOMATIC : a) C-90 is used b) Grease RR3 is used c) Hydraulic HLP-68 is used d) None of above. 480 Which of the following engine model is used in BRM(plasser make) a) 6CTA8.3L b) NTA855L c) KTA1150L d)NTA743C 481 For mechanical drive system, initial torque needed is- a) Less b) Maximum c) Average d) None of above. 482 How many gear Wheels are provided in distributor Gear Box in CSM? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four 483 Oil for lubrication in distributor gear box is provided: a) synthetic oil b) Hyd. Oil c) Gear Oil d) Lube Oil 484 No. of Cordon shafts connected with distributor gear box in CSM/DUO : a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of above 485 Oil of distributor gear box is changed at: a) 100hrs. b) 200hrs c) 500hrs d) 1000hrs 486 In output shaft ball bearing provided is: a) 6212 b) 6305 c) GE-20 d) None of above 487 How many gear boxes are provided on CSM Machine: a) Four b) Six c) Eight d) Five 488 Crown and Tail Pinion arrangement is provided in the axle:. a) Driving Axle b) additional drive Axle c) Both a&b d) Satellite axle. 489 The following is the idle axle: a) Driving Axle b) Running axle c) Both d) None of above 490 Quantity of oil (Gear oil) provided in driving axle: a) 2 Lts. b) 1.8 Lts c) 5.5 lts d) 6.5 lts 491 Wheel diameter of driving and running axle is: a) 710mm b) 730mm c) 740mm d) 800mm 492 Allowable wheel diameter of driving axle and running axle is: a) 710mm b) 730mm c) 680mm d) None of above 493 Bearing provided in Crown housing in CSM/DUO: a) N 2220 b) GE05 c) 32032X d) None of above

494 Bearing provided in tail pinion is both 2 & 3: a) 6220 b) N 2315 c) 31313 d) Both 2 & 3 495 Bearing provided in the axle gear box of driving an during axle is (Duomatic/Unomatic: a) Bearing NJ2220 & JP2220 b) Bearing 620P c) Bearing 6315 d) Non of above 496 Change of oil in driving axle is done at: a) 100hrs b) 200hrs c) 500hrs d) 1000hrs 497 No. of teeth provided in tail pinion is: a) 10Nos. b) 20Nos. c) 30Nos. d) None of above 498 Wheel diameter of plasser make BRM is ------mm a) 730 b) 900 c) 830. d) None of above 499 If general lift is 40mm is given, number of insertions during tamping for each sleeper is ---- a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None of above 500 Maggie springs provided on each axle: a) 2Nos. b) 6Nos. c) 4 Nos. d) None of above 501 No. of break cylinders provided on a boggie a) 1Nos. b) 2Nos. c) 3Nos. d) None of above 502 Z. F. is a:. a)Mechanical Gear Box b) Electrical Power c) Hydrodynamic Power d) None of above 503 VPR model duomatic machines are imported from ------a) U.K. b) Russia c) France d) Germany 504 Z. F. Gear Box is: a) One Gear system b) Two Gear system c) Multiple Gear system d) None of above 505 Z. F. stands for: a) Zaharaid Fabrick b) Zagvan Freeial c) Zackal Fruk d) None of above 506 Z.F. needs: a) Gear engagement b) Clutch Pedal c) No clutch Pedal d) None of above 507 Z. F. Gear Box works on the principle of: a) Fluid coupling b) Mechanical coupling c) Water coupling d) None of above 508 Torque converter is the part of: a) Servo Valve b) Relief Valve c) Z.F. Gear Box d) None of above 509 Torque converter consists of: a) Impellor, stator and turbine b) Impellor & stator c) Stator & Turbine d) None of above

510 In torque converter impeller takes oil: a) From Pump b) From motor c) From solenoid d) Non of above 511 WK means: a) With Convertor Clutch b) With Motor c) With pump d) Non of above 512 In Z. F. Gear Box all the gears are in: a) Constant Mesh b) Without Mesh c) Freewheeling d) None of above 513 Maximum speed of TRT when self proplled a) 5kmph b) 10 kmph c) 8kmph d) 20 kmph 514 Maximum speed of the train to which TRT is coupled is------: a) 50 kmph b) 300 kmph c) 8kmph d) 20 kmph 515 Rating of slew potentiometer is------a) 50 mv/mm b) 40 mv/mm c) 23.1 mv/ d) 90 mv/mm 516 Rating of height transducer potentiometer is------a) 50 mv/mm b) 40 mv/mm c) 23.1 mv/ d) 90 mv/mm 517 Rating of cross level potentiometer in middle pendulum is------a) 25 mv/mm b) 40 mv/mm c) 23.1 mv/ d) 90 mv/mm 518 Z. F. is…….: a)Mechanically controlled b) Electrically controlled c)Pneumatically Controlled d) None of above 519 Rating of potentiometer in height transducer is------a) 25 mv/mm b) 40 mv/mm c) 23.1 mv/mm d) 90 mv/mm 520 Which type of oil is used for ZF Gear Box : a) Ultra-40 b) Ultra-50 c) Ultra-10W/15w40 d) None of above 521 Rating of potentiometer in measuring transducer is------a) 25 mv/mm b) 40 mv/mm c)23.1 mv/mm d) 90 mv/mm 522 Find odd man out a) CSM b)FRM c)BCM d)BRM 523 Oil filling Capacity of ZF Gear Box is: a) 45 lts. b) 20 lts. c) 100 lts. d) None of above 524 Oil change of Z. F. Gear Box is done at: a) 500 Hrs. b) 1000 Hrs c) 2000 Hrs. d) None of above 525 Filtering capacity of Z. F. Gear Box is( in microns) a) 50µ b) 25µ c) 100µ. d) None of above

526 Main control pressure of Z.F. Gear Box is: a) 12-14 bar b) 6-8 bar c) 2-4 bar. d) None of above 527 Oil used for new version of Z. F. Gear box is: a) 15W40 b) SS-100 b) SS-68. d) None of above 528 Name of Solenoids of shift assembly is: a) M1 M2 M3 M4 b) S1 S2 S3S4 c) R1 R2 R3R4 d) None of above 529 During lock up in ZF gear box, speed is: a) Average b) Minimum c) Maximum d) None of above 530 What should be the recommended rpm for checking of oil level of Z.F. Gear Box? a) Less than 100rpm b) At 1000 rpm c) More than 100rpm d) None of above 531 Which of the following macjine is not provided with Z.F. Gear Box. a) Russian DUOMATIC b) CSM c) UNIMAT 3S d) UNIMAT 2S 532 What will happen if early or late shifting of gear is done in Z.F. gear box? a) Excessive temperature b) Less temperature c) No effect d) both a & b 533 The maximum working temperature of Z.F. Gear Box: a) 1200C c) 1000C c) 2000C d) None of above 534 While passing through down gradient the rpm should be: a) Up to 1200rpm b) Up to 1000rpm c) Up to 2000rpm d) None of above 535 Don‘t work with Z.F. Gear Box, If main pressure is a) Less than 10 bar b) less than 20bar but more than 10 bar c) More than 20 bar d) None of above 536 In view of safety In which of the following occasion OHE block is insisted? a) working with T-28 b) Working with TRT c) Working with PQRS cranes d) All the above 537 If oil level of Z.F. Gear Box is checked at Low rpm, what will happen: a) It will result into malfunction b) It will effect no result c) Z.F. will not function d) None of above 538 Which of the following function is not having in TRT Machine? a) Removing of ERC b) Removal of old rail c) Replacement of sleepers d) Compaction of Ballast at plough area 539 During working with TRT, Machine movement is by------a) self propulsion of TRT b) By locomotive c) both TRT & Locomotive d) None of above 540 Maximum speed of GANTRY in TRT machine is------a) 20 kmph b) 15 kmph c) 10 kmph d) None of above

541 Funk gear box is used for a) Pneumatic to hydraulic b) Electrical to mechanical power transmission c) Mechanical transmission to hydraulic power transmission d) None of above. 542 Fund gear box has following nos. of gears- a) One b) 2 Nos. c) 3 Nos. d) None of above 543 Following is mounted on funk gear box a) Hydraulic pumps b) Hydraulic motors c) Solenoids d) None of above 544 Following oil is used in funk gear box- a) Hydraulic Oil b) Nobile Oil c) Gear oil d) None of above 545 No. of bearing used on funk gear box in CSM machine- a) 6211 b) 6206 c) 6204 d) None of above 546 Type of Bearing used in funk gear box is- a) Roller bearing b) Ball bearing c) Needle bearing d) None of above 547 Reduction gear box is used in the following machines- a) Old Duomatic b) New Duomatic c) Both 1 & 2 d) None of above 548 Reduction gear box is used for the purpose of- a) Reducing the speed of machine during working b) Increasing the speed of machine while working c) Both a& b d) None of above 549 Reduction gear box is used in forming mode of working- a) During working mode b) During traveling mode c) During a & b d) None of above 550 The oil for lubrication of reduction gear box used is- a) Hydraulic OilHP-68 b) Gear Oil C-90 c) Mobile oil 15W40 d) None of above 551 Satellite is a part of following machine- a) Duomatic b) CSM c) BCM d) None of above. 552 Which of the following units are mounted on satellite of CSM machine a) Tamping Unit & Lifting Unit b) Tamping Unit c) Lifting Unit d) None of above 553 No. of satellite unit on CSM machine- a) One no. b) Two nos. c) Three nos. d) None of above 554 Gears used in satellite unit of machine are- a) Spur gear b) Helical Gear c) Double helical d) None of above 555 Nos. of satellite unit on 3X-machine is- a) 1no. b) 2 nos. c) 3 nos. d) None of above

556 Satellite unit of CSM is run by- a)Vibration pump (38-17) b) System pump (38-22) c) Cooling pump (20-14) d) None of above 557 Engaging of gears in satellite axle is through- a) Mechanical b) Hydraulic c) Pneumatic c) None of above 558 Oil change of satellite axle gear box is done at- a)50hrs b) 200hrs c) 100hrs d) None of above 559 Main bearing provided on satellite axle box in CSM is- a) 32032X b) NU2220 c) NJP2221 d) None of above 560 What is the function of Tamping Units- a) To pack ballast under sleeper b) To lift track & pack ballast c) Slewing of track d) none of these 561 In single sleeper packing machine number of tool provided- a) 16 Nos. b) 32 Nos. c) 12 Nos. d) 8 Nos. 562 In point & x-ing machine, number of tamping tools provided- a) 16 Nos. b) 32 Nos. c) 48 Nos. d) 8 Nos. 563 In point & x-ing machine following types of tamping tools is required- a) Two type b) One Type c) Three type d) None of these 564 Recommended oil for lubrication of tamping arm centre pin assembly radial seal is- a) SS-68 b) SS-100 c) SS-150 d) SAE C-90 565 Number of Tamping Tools provided in CSM Duomatic tamping machine-- a) 32 Nos. b) 16 Nos. c) 48 Nos. d) 8 Nos 566 Number of tamping tools are provided in 09-3X Machine- a) 32 Nos. b) 16 Nos. c) 48 Nos. d) 8 Nos. 567 In 09-3X number of tamping unit fitted-- a) 2 Nos. b) 1 No. c) 3 Nos d) 4 Nos. 568 In Unimat -4S machine tamping units are in- a) 4 Parts b) Two Parts c) One piece d) None of above 569 In DGS how many pendulums a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 570 In one tamping unit of 09-3X machine ------a) one vibration shaft required b) Two vibration shafts required c) Three vibration shafts required d) four vibration shafts required 571 Which of the following is not an assembly of Track Relaying equipment of PQRS machine? a) Indexing wheel b) Bridge lifting cylinder. c) Turn table d) Rail clamps 572 Lifting capacity of SIMPLEX portal crane is------a) 12 tons b)9 tons c) 10 tons d)8 tons

573 Crown radius of rail head is measured before and after grinding by------a) Bar gauge b) Star gauge c) Mini prof d) None 574 Total number of bearing fixed on vibration shaft of DUO/CSM/UNO/UNI 2S & 3S is

a) 11Nos b) 12Nos c) 16Nos d) 10Nos Total number of bearing required in one tamping unit of 09-3X machine is- 575 a) 11Nos b) 12Nos c) 16Nos d) 8Nos Number of tamping arm in one tamping unit of CSM/DUO machine 576 a) 6 Nos b) 12 Nos c) 8 Nos d) 4 Nos 577 Number of tamping arm in one tamping unit of CSM-3X Machine is- a) 6Nos b) 12Nos c) 8Nos d) 4Nos. 578 Number of Big squeezing cylinders in CSM/DUOMATIC machine a) 4Nos b) 8Nos c) 6Nos d) 12Nos 579 Payload capacity of RBMV a) 15TON b) 18TON c)13TON d) 20 TON 580 For good quality of grinding with RGM recommended GQI is ------a) More than 70 b) More than 80 c) More than 60 d) More than 50 581 Number of small squeezing cylinders in CSM/DUOMATIC machine a) 8Nos b) 4Nos c) 6Nos d) 12Nos 582 Number of Big squeezing cylinders in CSM-3X machine a) 8Nos b) 4Nos c) 6Nos d) 12Nos 583 In tamping machines 09-3X tamping tools are fitted-- a) Taper shank type b) Parallel Shank type c)Key type d) Threaded type 584 Tool tilting is provided in following machine- a) Unimat b) Csm c) Dgs d) Bcm 585 The function of vibration motor is- a) To give movement to squeezing cylinder b) To rotate the vibration shaft c)To give movement to guide column d) None of above 586 Gear ring/clutch failure occurs, because- a) Centre line of vibration motor & vibration shaft is disturbed b) Hard bed c) More vibration pressure d) None of above 587 Main oil seal size of tamping unit is- a) 130 x 165 x 13 b)130 x 160 x 13 c) 85x 50x13 d) None of above 588 What is the function of Lifting Units- a) It lifts the Track b) It lifts & aligns the track c) It does only alignment c) None of above

589 How many lining rollars are provided in both lifting & lining units of CSM/WST machine- a)2 b)6 c)4 d) 8 590 How many lining rollars provided in both lifting & lining units of UNIMAT machine- a)4 b)6 c)2 d) 8 591 How many rail clamp discs are provided in both lifting & lining units of CSM/WST machine- a)8 b)6 c)4 d) 2 592 Hooks are used to lift the track ------a) In point & X-ing type tamping machine b) In plain track tamping machine c) In curve portion of plain track d) none 593 How many rail clamp discs provided in lifting & lining unit used in UNIMAT machine- a)4 b)6 c)8 d) 2 594 Inspection Schedule by Dy.CE/TM/Lines for TRT a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 595 How many lining cylinders are used in one lifting unit - a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these 596 How many track lifting cylinders are used in a tamping machine a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these 597 How many disc clamp rollers are used in BCM Machine– a) 2 Nos. b) 8 Nos. c) 4Nos. d) None of these 598 How many disc clamp rollers are used in plain track tampers– a) 2 Nos. b) 4 Nos. c) 8 Nos. d) None of these 599 How many hooks are used are used in lifting unit of point &-x-ing machine- a) 1 No. b) 2 Nos. c) 8 Nos. d) None of these 600 Over slew PCB in CSM machine a) EK16 V b) EK 290 c)EK 349 d) EK 345 601 In Unimat-3S machine for lifting & Lining- a) Servo valve are used b) Proportional valves are used c) D.C. valve are used d) None of these 602 Third Rail lifting arrangement is given only in- a) All point & xing machine b) Unimate- 2S, 3S, & 4S. c) Unimat 3S & 4S only d) None of these 603 In Unimate-2S & Old UNO/DUO machine for lifting & lining circuit- a) D.C. valve are used b) Proportional valve are used. c) Servo valve are used. d) None of these 604 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/TM for CSM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months

605 Cooling efficiency is better in- a) Oil lubrication b) Grease lubrication c) Both a & b d) None of these 606 For Automatic greasing, grease required- a) Multipurpose b) shell alvania RL-2. c) Wheel bearing grease d) None of these 607 For high rpm- a) Oil Lubrication is better b) Grease lubrication is better c) Oil & Grease both are better d) None of these 608 Sealing is more difficult in- a) Oil Lubrication b) In grease Lubrication c) In both oil & grease d) None of these 609 The numerical number of rocker bearing tells the- a) Bore of Bearing b) O.D. of bearing c) Width d) None of these 610 For mounting on shafts bearings are heated- a) By Gas flame b) By induction heater c) By oil bath d) both b& c 611 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD/INCHARGE for CSM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a month d) once in 2 months 612 How many engines are provided on BCM- a) 01 No. b) 02 Nos. c) 03 Nos. d) None of above 613 What is the make of the engine provided on BRM(Plasser make) a) Cummins b) Deutz c) MWM d) None of above 614 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/TM for BCM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 615 During working of BCM Ballast is distributed with ------a) Main conveyer belt b) Distribution conveyor belt c) Waste conveyer belt d) None of above 616 How many shovels are provided on BCM RM-80- a) 82 Nos b) 90 shovels c) 70 Nos. d) None of above 617 How many intermediate shovels are provided on BCM RM-80- a) 82 b) 90 shovels c) 40 Nos. d) None of above 618 vibration of Screening is done through- a) Vibration drum b) Main conveyer c) Waste conveyer d) None of above 619 Pressure setting of screening unit Vibration in BCM is a) 360 b) 150 c) 40bar d) None of above 620 Safety device provided on waste conveyer- a) To protect from OHE mast b) To protect for more lifting c) To protect from infringement of trough d) None of above

621 How many speeds can be achieved for cutter chain - a) One type b) Double type c) Four Type d) None of above 622 Name the troughs of BCM machines- a) Ascending trough & descending trough b) Roller & Guide trough c) Lifting trough d) None of above 623 How many corner rollers are provided on old BCM Machine- a) 2 Nos. b) 3 Nos. c)5 Nos. d) None of above 624 Length of cutter bar(RM08.25.2150) for present BCM machine is- a) 1.85 meter b) 1.00meter c) 2.15 meter d) None of above 625 Chain extension is with the help of------a) Chain tensioning cylinder b) Ascending trough c) Descending trough d) None of above 626 For fastening of screens, following item is used:- a) U-clamp b) L-clamp c) ‗T‘ head bolt d) None of above 627 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD in charge for BCM machine is------a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a month d) once in 2 months 628 Which of the following grease is used in track machine for lubrication. a) EP-2. b) MP-2 c) RP3 d) None of above 629 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/TM for UTV machine a) once in 4 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 630 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD In charge for UTV machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 631 The hydraulic oil used in Rail Grinding Machine is- a) HLP-68 b) Water Glycol c) Servo-317 d) None of above 632 Means of lubrication for FCC of RGM axle bearings is a) Journal oil. b) RR-3 c) MP-3 d) None of above 633 The oil used in axle Gear box of BCM is- a) Hydraulic Oil b) Gear Oil c) Mobile Oil d) None of above 634 Which of the following grade lubricant is used as engine oil in track machines - a) 15W40 b) Ultra-10 c) SS-100 d) all the above 635 The amount of hydraulic oil used in BCM axle Gear box is- a) 30 lts. b) 45 ltr. c)20 ltr d) None of above 636 Pendulum PCB a)ELT 5156 b) ELT 1163 c) ELT 5140 d) ELT 5155

637 Greasing of cardon shafts in track machines is done at---- hrs. a) 50hrs. b) 100hrs c) 200hrs. d) None of above 638 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/TM for BRM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in 4 months d) once in 2 months 639 Which of the following machine improves drainage in track a) DGS b) BCM c) PQRS d) T-28 640 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD in charge for BRM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 641 50hrs( schedule-II) schedule is to be completed in ----hours for UNO/DUO machines a) 1hrs. b) 2hrs. c) 5hrs. d) None of above 642 Schedule-III- for 09/09-3X machine is done at- a) 100hrs. b) 200hrs. c) 500hrs. d) None of above 643 Schedule-IV for 09/09-3X machine is done at- a) 200hrs. b) 500hrs. c) 1000hrs d) None of above 644 Schedule-V for 09/09-3X machine is done at- a) 1000hrs. b) 5000hrs. c) 1000hrs d) None of above 645 Schedule-I for BCM is to be completed in ------hrs. a) 1hrs. b) 2hrs. c) 3hrs d) None of above 646 IOH of machine is done at------hrs of engine running. a) 1000hrs. b) 2000hrs. c) 4000hrs d) None of above 647 POH of machine is done at------hrs of engine running a) 1000hrs. b) 2000hrs. c) 4000hrs d) None of above 648 IOH of machine is to be completed by------a) 45 days b) 60days c) 90 days. d) None of above 649 First POH of machine is to be completed by------a) 45 days b) 80 days c) 30 days. d) 60 days 650 Schedule-IV for PQRS is to be completed by------a) 1 days b) 2 days c) 3 days. d) None of above 651 Schedule-VI for BCM is to be completed in ------a) 45 days b) 90days c) 120 days. d) None of above

652 First POH of a machine (except RGM) will be carried out after ------engine running hours. a)4000 hrs b)6000 hrs c) 8000 hrs d)6500 hrs 653 Second POH of a machine(except RGM) will be carried out after ------engine running after previous POH a)4000 hrs b)6000 hrs c) 8000 hrs d)6500 hrs 654 3rd POH of a machine (except RGM)will be carried out after ------engine hours after previous POH. a)4000 hrs b)6000 hrs c) 8000 hrs d)6500 hrs 655 Weightage factor for tampers is ------a)0.5 b) 1.0 c)1.5 d) 2.0 656 Weightage factor for Track stabilizer a)0.5 b) 1.0 c)1.5 d) 2.0 657 Weightage factor for points crossing machine is------a)0.5 b) 1.0 c)1.5 d) 2.0 658 Weightage factor for BCM is ------a)0.5 b) 1.0 c)1.5 d) 2.0 659 Weightage factor for TRT machine is ------a)3.0 b) 1.0 c)1.5 d) 2.0 660 Weightage factor for RGM is ------a) 4.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 661 Authority to pass defective signal is------a)T/369 (1B) b) T/369(3b) c) T/409 d) T/370 662 Authority to pass signal at ON position is------a)T/369 (1B) b) T/369(3b) c) T/409 d) T/370 663 operating form for NIL caution order is---- a)T/369 (1B) b) T/369(3b) c) T/409 d) T/A409 664 operating form for caution order is---- a)T/369 (1B) b) T/369(3b) c) T/409 d) T/370 665 Authority to receive a train on obstructed line is ----- a) T/409 b)T/369(1) c) T/509 d)T/510 666 Authority to receive a train on NON SIGNALLED LINE is ----- a) T/409 b)T/369(1) c) T/509 d)T/510

667 Authority to start a train from common starter signal ----- a) T/512 b)T/369(1) c) T/509 d)T/510 668 Authority for shunting order a) T/409 b)T/369(1) c) T/509 d)T/806 669 Authority to start a train from non signal line is ---- a)T/1408 UP b)T/1408 DN c) T/511 d)T/D1425 670 Paper line clear ticket for UP line a)T/1408 UP b)T/1408 DN c) T/C1425 d) T/D1425 671 Paper line clear ticket for DN line a)T/1408 UP b)T/1408 DN c) T/C1425 d)T/D1425 672 when two yellow lights are exhibited in distant signal the aspect is------a) most restricted b)caution c) Attention d) proceed with caution 673 when one yellow light is exhibited in distant signal the aspect is------a) most restricted b) caution c) Attention d) proceed with caution 674 The indication of the distant signal in caution aspect is------a) Single yellow, be prepare to stop at next stop signal b) single yellow ,proceed and prepare to pass next stop signal. c) single yellow ,proceed and prepare to stop next stop signal d) single yellow, proceed cautiously and pass the signal. 675 The indication of the distant signal in attention aspect is------a) Single yellow, be prepare to stop at next stop signal b) Double yellow ,proceed and prepare to pass next stop signal. c) Double yellow ,proceed and prepare to stop next stop signal d) single yellow, proceed cautiously and pass the signal. 676 Calling on signal show -----light in ON position. a) yellow light b) white light c) NO light d) blinking light. 677 Which of the following occations CALLING ON signal is used? a) Failure of signal upon which it is provided b) When train is receiving on obstructed line. c) Both A&B d)As per convenient in the block working of track machines 678 To take off CALLING ON signal, the train must be in the ------a) Near HOME signal b) In CALLING ON zone c) both A&B d) through walkie talkie. 679 Gate signal is identified by------a) GATE b) G marker board on signal post c) gate man with green flag d) signal other than home and IB is treated as gate signal. 680 Slip siding is intended to protect ------a) station section b) block section c) both A& B d) yard section

681 When IB signal is at ON loco pilot/machine operator shall stop and contact------a) Need not to stop b) SM in rear c) SM ahead d) section controller 682 Catch siding is intended to protect ------a) station section b) block section c) both A& B c) yard section 683 When IB signal is at ON and telephone is out of order after waiting 5 minutes shall proceed at a speed of -----km when view is clear. a) 8 kmph b) 10 kmph c) 15 kmph d) 10/8 kmph 684 When IB signal is at ON and telephone is out of order after waiting 5 minutes shall proceed at a speed of -----km when view is not clear. a) 8 kmph b) 10 kmph c) 15 kmph d) 10/8 kmph 685 The speed of train over NON Interlocked points, turnouts and cross over shall not exceed ------kmph a )8 kmph b) 10 kmph c) 15 kmph d) 10/8 kmph 686 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/TM for UNIMAT machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 687 Fire extinguishers replacement shall be done ------a)once in 6 months b) once in a year c)once in two years d) After expiring the date 688 Reduction in BP/LINE pressure causes ------a) Application of brake b) Release of brake c) None. d) Application of horn 689 As a general frequency of tamping would be a) 1 year and above b) 2 years c)3 years d) 4 years 690 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD in charge for UNIMAT machine a) once in a month b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 691 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/open line for BCM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a fortnight d) once in 2 months 692 In case expiring of medical fitness, employee should inform to immediate supervisor------days advance a)60 days b) 50 days c)40 days d)30 days 693 Refresher technical training for JE/SSE should be done every ----years a)1 years b) 2 yeas c)3 years d) 4 years 694 Inspection Schedule by ADEN/OPEN Line for CSM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in fortnight d) once in 2 months 695 Permitted speed of track machine moving on wrong line a) 30 kmph b) 25 kmph c)40 kmph d)50 kmph

696 As per IRTMM minimum safe distance between machines when working in a group(during working) a)50 mts b) 60 mts c)70mts d) 80 mts 697 In VPR(Russian duomatic) machine during working on curve version feeding will be in - a)front cabin b) working cabin c) both a&b d) none of the above 698 In the event of break down, machine shall be protected as per G&SR------a)G.R 6.03 b) G.R 6.40 c) G.R 6.80 d) G.R 6.90 699 Which of the following is not a safety equipment a) green flag d) red flag c)field telephone d) spectacles 700 For track machine whose suspension and relevant characteristics are similar to service to stock already in service ,maximum speed can be increased to 75 kmph with the approval of ------a) CCRS b) ACRS c) CRS d) any of the above 701 Length of chord to be used in determining peak value of alignment for deploying ------a)7.2M b)7.3M c)6.3M d)8.3 M 702 As per IRTM stipulated block hour ( other than TRT&PCCM) per month a)100 hrs b)200 hrs c)300hrs d)400 hrs 703 Output per effecting hour for DUOMATIC a)800m b)700m c)200n d)100m 704 Output per effecting hour for CSM a) 1100 M b)1200 M c) 1300 M d) 1800 M 705 Output per effecting hour for TAMPING EXPRESS a) 1800M b) 1300M c)1600M d) 1500M 706 Output per effecting hour for UNIMAT a) 2turn out b) 3turn out c) 5 turn out d)1 turn out 707 Output per effecting hour for BCM(PLAIN) a) 100m b) 150m c) 300m d) 200m 708 Output per effecting 3 hour for BCM(P&C) a) 1 turn out (750 mts) b) 1turn out(950 mts) c) 1 turn out (800 mts ) d) 1turn out(1150 mts) 709 Output per effecting hour for SBCM a)200 M b)300M c)400M d)500M 710 Output per effecting hour for TRT a)400M b) 200 M c) 300M d) 500M

711 Output per effecting hour for RGM a)20-30 KM b)15-20 KM c)10-12 KM d)11-15 KM 712 Deep screening of one turnout by BCM is equivalent to one turn out output in liner length is equal to ------mts a)650m b)850m c)950m d)750 m 713 Ghat section means a)Part of block section where consists of 70% in length or more with continuous gradient i.e 1 in 100 or steeper b) Part of block section where consists of 60% in length or more with continuous gradient i.e 1 in 100 or steeper c) Part of block section where consists of 70% in length or more with continuous gradient i.e 1 in 90 or steeper d) Part of block section where consists of 50% in length or more with continuous gradient i.e 1 in 100 or steeper 714 Minimum RPM of engine to be kept in ghat section during transit of track machines a)3000rpm b)2000rpm c)1000 rpm d)4000rpm 715 As per IRTM in run through movement no of machine can permitted in ghat section a) two machines only b) one machine only c) any N0 of machines d) without loco not permitted 716 Periodicity of PME up to the 45 years a)2 years b)3 years c)4 years d)6 years 717 Inspection Schedule by Sr.DEN/open line for BCM machine a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 718 In automatic block system ,if automatic stop signal is at ON, then JE/SSE has to wait -- -- minute a) one mint in day b)2 minutes c) one minute in day/two minutes in night d) need not to wait 719 Owing curvature of the line during fog, rain or dust storms or other cause, the line ahead cannot be seen cleared maximum speed of the machine cannot be more than ------a) 8 kmph b)10 kmph c) 15 kmph d)20 kmph 720 Which of the following is not a stop signal a) distant signal b) shunt signal c) gate signal d) starter signal 721 Protection of track machine in absolute block system is as per a) GR 6.04 b)GR 6.03 c) GR 6.04 d) G R 6.02 722 Protection of track machine in automatic block section a) GR 9.10 b) GR9.12 c) GR 6.03 d) GR6.04 723 In case IB is at ON waiting time to contact SM in rear a)5 min b)10 min c)15 min d) till signal is taken off

724 In case IB is at on ,SM is rear is not responding track machine has to proceed ------kmph at day/night a)10/8 kmph b)8/15 kmph c)15/8 kmph d)15/10kmph 725 Which of the following is not earned leaves a) commuted leave b) LAP c) LHAP d) both b & c 726 How many no. of LAP can be granted to a railway servant at a time a) 14 days b)30 days c)120 days d)180 days 727 While in service a railway servant can have a maximum LAP credit to his account is----- a)300 days b) 300+15 days c)295+15days d) 290+15 days 728 In any case maximum number of LHAP may be granted to a railway servant in a spell is ------a) 6 moths b)12 months c)18 moths d)24 moths 729 On medical grounds ,how many no.of LHAP can be commuted in entire service is --- a)180 days b)240 days c)365 days d) no limit 730 LEAVE NOT DUE on half average pay may be granted to a railway servant during his entire service is ------(on medical grounds) a)360 days b)240 days c)180 days d)200 days 731 A railway servant shell be permitted to encash leave on average pay up to ------days at a time a) 10 days b)15 days c)60 days d)20 days 732 For availing leave encashment which of the following statement is the a) after availing encashment a minimum of 30 days LAP shell be available in his credit b) after availing encashment a minimum of 10 days LAP shell be available in his credit c) any number of leave must be available in his credit d) all of the above 733 In his entire service a railway servant can avail encashment to a maximum limit to ------days a)10 days b)30 days c)60 days d)90 days 734 Minimum gap between two successive leave encashment is ------a)one year b)two years c)3 years d)4 years 735 Final leave Encashment of leave on his credit will not be admissible in which of this following case a) removal from service b) dismissed from service c)compulsory retired as a measure of penalty(with directions of cut in encashment) d) all of the above 736 During hospital leaves period ,first ------days will be paid with leaves on average pay a)120 days b) 180days c)12 months d)18 months

737 During hospital leaves period ,after first 120 days remaining period will be paid------a)equal to leave on average pay b) equal to leave on half average pay c) no salary d)such rule does not exists 738 Study leave can be granted to a maximum of -----months( if not combined with other leave) a)12 months b)18 months c) 24 months d)36 months 739 Which of the following is not a minor penalty a) censure b) with holding a promotion for a specific period c) reduction to a lower stage in time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years d) reduction to a lower stage in time scale of pay for a period with further directions 740 Up to what extent of pension of any employee may be commuted a) 1/3rd b) 30% c) 40% d) 50% 741 Which is the date of introduction of NEW PENSON SCHEME a) 11-07-2004 b)01-01-2004 c)01-04-2003 d)01-04-2003 742 How long the family of railway servant who died while in service may retain the railway quarter a) up to 6 months b) up to 12 months c) up to 24 months d) up to 36 months 743 How many days paternity leave can be sanctioned a) 15 days b)20 days c)14 days d)16 days 744 Minimum qualifying service require for entitlement of service gratuity a) 6 months b)12 months c)3 years d)5 years 745 Minimum qualifying service to be rendered by a railway servant to entitle for retirement gratuity a) 5 years b)7 years c)10 years d)12 years 746 Minimum qualifying service to be rendered by a railway servant to entitle for pension a) 5 years b)7 years c)10 years d)12 years 747 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD in charge for PQRS machine a) once in a month b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in 2 months 748 PNM meetings between union and railway administration will be held at divisional level a) at least once in two months b) at least once in three months c) at least once in six months d) at least once in a year months 749 PNM meetings between union and railway administration will be held at head quarter level ---- a) at least once in two months b) at least once in three months c) at least once in six months d) at least once in a year months

750 PNM meetings between union and railway administration will be held at railway board level ---- a) at least once in two months b) at least once in quarter c) at least once in six months d) at least once in a year months 751 Expand ‗PREM‘ a) participation of railway engineers in management b) participation of railway employees in management c) participation of railway engineering employees in management d) both a & b 752 Who will be the secretary for PREM at divisional level a) DRM of concerned division b)Sr.DPO of concerned division c) DPO of concerned division d) either b or c as the case may be 753 Who will be the chairman for PREM at divisional level a) DRM of concerned division b)Sr.DPO of concerned division c) DPO of concerned division d) either b or c as the case may be 754 Name of the allowance paid to a railway servant who is under suspension a) compensatory allowance b) subsistence allowance c) non practicing allowance d) break down allowance 755 CMS stands for ------a) computer monitoring system b) Computerized measuring system c)closed measuring system d) curves measuring system 756 CST-9 stands for------a) central standard Trial 9 sleeper b) Cast steel 9 sleeper c) stainless steel sleeper d) both a & b 757 CWS stands for ------a) computer works solution b) computerized working system c) centralized working stores 758 DGR stands for------a)director general Railways b) defect rate c) defect generation rate d) None of the above 759 DGS&D stands for------a) director general Railways b) defect generation rate c) Directorate general store and depot. d) All the above 760 Which of the following statement is related to DPT.? a) DPT stands for dye penetrate test b) DPT is a non destructive test c) DPT is used to examine the surface cracks d) DPT is destructive test 761 GRP in track components stands for ------a) General railway police. b) Grooved rubber pad c) grooved rubber sole plate d) none of the above 762 Inspection Schedule by SSE/TM/SD in charge of working railway for RGM a) once in 6 months b) once in 3 months c) once in a year d) once in a week 763 HOER stands for ------a) Hours of employment regulation act b) Hours of employment regulation c) Hours of employment regulation law d) none of the above 764 Pick up odd statement out a) contact point center b) contact point field c) contact point corner d) high rail sharp.

765 IMR (immediate removal) is a a) Major punishment in DAR b) it‘s an indicative mark given by USFD team c) It‘s an obstruction which needed for immediate removal 766 Which of the following regarding LED is true. a) It‘s a light emitting diode b) It‘s a diode c) It‘s a semiconductor device d) all the above. 767 PAC stands for ------a) property article certificate b) public account certificate c) proprietary article certificate d) none 768 What is the Official Language of Union of India? a) Hindi in Devnagari Script b) Sanskrit c) English d) Panjabi 769 How many regions are classified under Official Language Rules? a) two b) three c) four d) five 770 According to Official Language Rules, under which region Andaman & Nicobar Islands come ? a) ‗A‘ region b) ‗B‘ region c) ‗C‘ region d) ‗D‘ region 771 Which is the only Union Territory classified under Region 'B' ? a) GOA b) DELHI c) ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR d) LAKSH DWEEP 772 What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh? a) HINDI b)BENGALI c)SANSKRIT d) ENGLISH 773 How many inspections in a month are mandatory for Rajbhasha Adhikari of Railways? a) one inspection per month b) two inspection per month c) three inspection per month d) four inspection per month 774 How many Languages available in the 8th Schedule? a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23 775 In which article is the provision regarding official language policy available in Part V of the constitution? a) article 119 b) article 120 c) article 121 d) article 122 776 Who was the First Chairman of the Official Language Commission ? a) B.G. Kher b) K.C.panth c) G.B. Pant d) none 777 In which year the Hindi translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway Minister ? a) In the year 1956 - Late Lal Bahdur Shastri b) In the year 1955 - Late Lal Bahdur Shastri c) In the year 1954 - Late Lal Bahdur Shastri d) In the year 1953 - Late Lal Bahdur Shastri 778 Jurisdiction of south central railway falls under which region ? a) region ‗A‘ b) region ‗B‘ c) region ‗C‘ d) region ‗D‘

779 What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi? a) Rajbhasha individual Cash Award Scheme b) Rajbhasha Scheme c) Cash Award Scheme d) individual Cash Award Scheme 780 Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee? a) Prime Minister b) president of India c) home minister d) finance minister 781 Lining analog PCB in WST a) EK 349 b) EK 2286 c) EK2195 d)EK16V 782 Leveling analog PCB in WST a) EK 349 b) EK 347 c) EK2041 d) EK16V 783 Tamping unit UP/DN control PCB in WST a) EK16V b)EK132 c) EK176 d) EK502 784 Pendulum analog PCB in WST a) EK346 b) EK345 c) EK2042 d) EK502 785 Front input PCB in CSM a)EK 349 b) EK 349 c)EK345 d)EK 347 786 Front input PCB in UNIMAT a)EK 132 b) EK120 c)EK2041 d)EK 2072 787 Hook control PCB in UNIMAT a)EK 132 b) EK120 c)EK2041 d)EK 2072 788 V.T amplifier is used in CSM a) transit drive b) work drive c) satellite drive d) none of the above 789 Vibration pump in DGS a)90 L b) 90 R c) 71L d)90 HD 790 Over slew PCB in WST machine a) EK 176 b) EK 813 c) EK 2195 d) EK 2072

General Knowledge 1. Indian Railways are consists __ no. of zones. a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18

2. Head quarter of SCR zone __. a) Secunderabad b) Mumbai c) Chennai d) Delhi

3. Wheel and Axle Plant is located at __. a) Yelahanka b) Chennai c) Punjab d) West Bengal

4. IRCTC abbreviated as __. a) Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation b) Indian Railway Category and Tourism Corporation c) Indian Railway Category and Technical Corporation d) Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation

5. ICF abbreviated as __. a) Integral Container Factory b) Indian Coach Factory c) Integral Coach Factory d) Integral Computer Factory

6. IRTMM abbreviated as __. a) Indian Railway Track Machine Manual b) Indian Railway Track Motor Manual c) Indian Railway Track Maintenance Manual d) Indian Railway Track Mechanical Manual

7. IRPWM abbreviated as __. a) Indian Railway Permanent Way Manual b) Indian Railway Precaution Work Manual c) Indian Railway Permanent Work Manual d) Indian Railway Preliminary Work Manual

8. CRIS abbreviated as __. a) Centre for Railway Indian Standard b) Centre for Railway Information Standard c) Centre for Railway Information System d) Centre for Railway Identification System

9. Prime Minister of India is __. a) Ram Nath Kovind b) Narendra Modi c) Man Mohan Singh d) Mamata Banerjee

10. President of India is __. a) Ram Nath Kovind b) Narendra Modi c) Rahul Gandhi d) Man Mohan Singh

11. General Manager of SCR is __. a) V K Yadav b) Ravindra Gupta c) Ashwani Lohani d) Gajanan Mallya

12. CRB of Indian Railways is __. a) V K Yadav b) Ravindra Gupta c) Ashwani Lohani d) Gajanan Mallya

13. Railway Minister of India is __. a) Nitin Gadkari b) Lalu Prasad Yadav c) Piyush Goyal d) Sadananda gowda

14. Author of Wings of Fire is __. a) Mahatma Gandhi b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam c) L.K. Advani d) Amit Choudhary

15. Author of My Truth is __. a) Jawahar Lal Nehru b) G.D. Khosla c) Indira Gandhi d) L.K. Advani

16. Author of The discovery of India is __. a) Indira Gandhi b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam c) Jawahar Lal Nehru d) Mahatma Gandhi

17. Author of My Nation My Life is __. a) Indira Gandhi b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam c) Jawahar Lal Nehru d) L.K. Advani

18. Author of My Experiments with Truth is __. a) Indira Gandhi b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam c) Jawahar Lal Nehru d) Mahatma Gandhi

19. Charminar is located at __. a) Delhi b) Hyderabad c) Mumbai d) Kolkata 20. Taj Mahal is located at __. a) Uttar Pradesh b) Hyderabad c) Delhi d) Mumbai

21. Qutub Minar is located at __. a) Hyderabad b) Delhi c) Mumbai d) Kolkata

22. Red Fort is located at __. a) Hyderabad b) Delhi c) Mumbai d) Kolkata 23. Golden Temple is located at __. a) Jaipur b) Amritsar c) Kashmir d) Chennai

24. The longest Railway Platform is located at __. a) Gorakhpur b) Kerala c) West Bengal d) Secunderabad

25. Longest Train in India is __. a) Krishna Express b) Intercity Express c) Amaravathi Express d) Vivek Express

26. Fastest Train in India is __. a) Rajdhani Express b) Duranto Express c) Shatabdi Express d) Vivek Express

27. India’s First Railway Line opened for traffic on __. a) 16-04-1853 b) 16-04-1843 c) 16-04-1863 d) 16-04-1873

28. Which of the following is the longest Railway tunnel in the world? a) Gotthard Base Tunnel b) Seikan Tunnel c) Yulhyeon Tunnel d) Channel Tunnel

29. Who among the following is a first female locopilot (train driver) of the Indian Railways in India? a) Rajashree Sachdev b) havani Kumari c) Ritu Chauhan d) Surekha Shankar Yadav (Surekha Yadav)

30. Where is the Railway Staff College located?

a. Pune b. Delhi c. Vadodara d. Allahabad

31. On which of the following is the longest railway bridge in India located?

a. River Ganges b. Vembanad Lake c. River Brahmaputra d. Chilka Lake

32. The Maitree Express connects India with which of the following countries?

a. Myanmar b. Pakistan c. Bangladesh d. Nepal

33. Which of the following is the largest zone in terms of route kilometers?

a. Western Railways b. Eastern Railways c. Northern Railways d. Southern Railways

34. What is the width of broad guage railway line in India?

a. 5 feet 3 inches b. 5 feet 6 inches c. 4 feet 11 inches d. 5 feet 4 inches

35. Which railway station is located at the highest altitude in India?

a. Ghum b. Ooty c. Shimla d. Kalka

36. UTS (Unreserved Ticketing System) is a mobile app developed by -

a. C-DAC b. IRCTC c. CRIS d. Infosys

37. Which of the following is fully unreserved superfast train?

a. Antyodaya Express b. Humsafar Express c. Garib Rath Express d. Suvidha Express

38. Fish plates are used in railway tracks to -

a. fix rails to the sleepers b. fix sleepers to the ground c. join two rails d. join two coaches

39. Deccan Queen is a popular train which runs between -

a. Mumbai and Pune b. Mumbai and Goa c. Bengaluru and Mysore d. Hydeerabad and Bidar

ARTS Advanced Railway Ticketing System

ARMV Accident Relief Medical Van

ART Accident Relief Train CA&FO Chief Accounting and Finance Officer CARS Central Accounting and Reporting System ESM Electronic Signal Maintainer FEDL Fully Electrified Double Line HSRL High Speed Rail Line

ICTT International Container Transshipment Terminal IOH Intermediate Overhaul IRMP Integrated Railway Modernization Plan

IRVS Interactive Voice Response System MRTC Mobile Radio Train Communication PNR Passenger Name Record POH Periodic Overhaul NTES National Train Enquiry System TMS Terminal Management System/ Track Management System PRS Passenger Reservation Services UTS Unreserved Ticketing Services ICMS Integrated Coach Management System CMS Crew Management System PMS Parcel Management System EPS E-Procurement System IRCTC INDIAN RAILWAY CATERING AND TOURISM CORPORATION LTD

S.NO NAME Year of ABBREVIATION Incorporation/ Inception 1 RITES 1974 Rail India Technical and Economic Services Ltd. 2 IRCON 1976 Indian Railway Construction Company Limited 3 CRIS 1986 Centre for Railway Information Systems 4 IRFC 1986 Indian Railway Finance Corporation Limited 5 CONCOR 1988 Container Corporation of India Ltd 6 KRCL 1990 KONKAN RAILWAY CORPORATION LIMITED 7 MRVC 1999 Mumbai Railway Vikas Corporation 8 RCIL 2000 RAILTAIL CORPORATION OF INDIA LTD. RAILTEL 9 IRCTC 2001 INDIAN RAILWAY CATERING AND TOURISM CORPORATION LTD 10 PRCL 2001 PIPAVAV RAILWAY CORPORATION LIMITED 11 RVNL 2003 RAIL VIKAS NIGAM LIMITED 12 RLDA 2005 RAIL LAND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY 13 DFCCIL 2006 DEDICATED FREIGHT CORRIDOR CORPORATION OF INDIA LTD 14 BSCL Burn Standard Company Limited 15 IRWO Indian Railway Welfare organization 16 BWEL Bharat Wagon& Engineering Co. Limited

S/No. Name of the Railway Zone Zonal Headquarter 1 Central Railway Mumbai 2 Eastern Railway Kolkata 3 East Central Railway Hajipur 4 East Coast Railway Bhubaneshwar 5 Northern Railway Baroda House, New Delhi 6 North Central Railway Allahabad 7 North Eastern Railway Gorakhpur 8 North Frontier Railway Maligaon, Guwahati 9 North Western Railway Jaipur 10 Southern Railway Chennai 11 South Central Railway Secunderabad 12 South Eastern Railway Garden Reach, Kolkata 13 South East Central Railway Bilaspur 14 South Western Railway Hubli 15 Western Railway Churchgate 16 West Central Railway Jabalpur

S.No State Capital 1 Hyderabad (2June2024) Andhra Pradesh Amaravati (proposed) 2 Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar 3 Assam Dispur 4 Bihar Patna 5 Chhattisgarh Raipur 6 Goa Panaji 7 Gujarat Gandhinagar 8 Haryana Chandigarh (shared with Punjab) 9 Himachal Pradesh Shimla 10 Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar (summer), Jammu (winter) 11 Jharkhand Ranchi 12 Karnataka Bengaluru (formerly Bangalore) 13 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram 14 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal 15 Maharashtra Mumbai 16 Manipur Imphal 17 Meghalaya Shillong 18 Mizoram Aizawl 19 Nagaland Kohima 20 Odisha Bhubaneswar 62

21 Punjab Chandigarh 22 Rajasthan Jaipur 23 Sikkim Gangtok 24 Tamil Nadu Chennai 25 Telangana Hyderabad (from June2, 2014 –shared with AP) 26 Tripura Agartala 27 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow 28 Uttarakhand Dehradun 29 West Bengal Kolkata

S.No Name of the Unit HQ 1 Chittaranjan Locomotive Works Chittaranjan 2 Diesel Locomotive Works Varanasi 3 Integral Coach Factory Parambur 4 Diesel Component Works Patiala 5 Rail Coach Factory Kapurthala 6 Wheel & Axle plant Bangalore