Comprehensive Review Flashcards
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Comprehensive Review Flashcards
The plasma (cell) membrane is made up what of PHOSPHOLIPIDS. two layers of molecules?
What does amphipathic mean? Amphipathic molecules have a polar region and a non-polar region.
The polar region of phospholipids consists of The polar region consists of PHOSPHATE HEADS and this region is what? considered to be HYDROPHILIC (likes water).
The non-polar region of phospholipids consists of The non-polar region of the cell membrane consists of FATTY ACID what? TAILS and this region is considered to be HYPDROPHOBIC (repels water). Which region is hydrophilic, and which is hydrophobic? What are the four main functions of the Plasma FUNCTIONS OF THE PLASMA MEMBRANE Membrane? 1) it controls the movement of substances into and out of the cell 2) It acts as a barrier to the external environment 3) It acts as a site for receiving signals from the rest of the body 4) It acts as a site for holding the cell in place Which organelle modifies proteins that are Golgi complex modifies proteins that are destined to be shipped destined to be shipped outside of the cell or to outside of the cell or to some other organelle some other organelle? It is like a Fed-Ex center that packages and ships the proteins from the ribosomes. What is the smallest living unit in the body? Mitochondria Which organelle is responsible for generating much of the cell’s ATP? What are the monomers (building blocks) of Amino acids proteins? When GENE TRANSCRIPTION occurs, it is When GENE TRANSCRIPTION occurs, it is characterized by characterized by ____? mRNA SYNTHESIS (messenger RNA is synthesized). Where in the cell does transcription occur? This occurs in the nucleus. The mRNA then exits the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm. When TRANSLATION occurs, it is characterized When TRANSLATION occurs, it is characterized by PROTEIN by ____? SYNTHESIS. Where in the cell does translation occur? This occurs in the cytoplasm. How many chromosomes are in the nucleus of a 46 typical diploid cell? Each gamete (ovum or sperm) has how many 23 because ½ come from our mothers (0vum) and ½ from our chromosomes? fathers (sperm) What is a chromosome? A double-stranded string of DNA DNA is made out of what? DNA is made out of Nucleic Acids
How many nucleic acids are there and what are 4 Nucleic Acids:
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their names? Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C) -Each A, T, G, or C on one strand of DNA is paired to its counterpart on the other strand of DNA. Which nucleic acids pair together? A and T ONLY pair together C and G ONLY pair together What is this called when they pair together? When they pair up together ( A with T and G with C) they are called Base Pairs. Why is DNA called a double-stranded helix? The double strand of DNA looks like a ladder, it is then twisted into a shape called a helix, thus being called a double-stranded helix. DNA is made out of what? DNA is made out of Nucleic Acids. How many nucleic acids are there and what are 4 nucleic acids: their names? Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and cystosine (C) What is the name for a group of cells, usually TISSUE: A group of cells, usually similar, which share a particular similar, which share a particular function? function. What is an organ made of ? Each ORGAN is made up of one or more tissues. What part of the hair follicle is the site of hair Hair matrix growth and the location of the melanocytes that determine hair color? What are the layers of the epidermis and give a Stratum corneum (most superficial layer of epidermis) brief description of each Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) Stratum granulosum (cells start to die here) Stratum spinosum Stratum basale (the deepest layer of epidermis; cells are reproducing only here) Describe 3 types of most common cancer in the SKIN CANCER USA. This is the most common cancer in the USA, and its major risk factor What is the major risk factor for all three? is exposure to ultraviolet light. Which one almost never metastasizes? 1) BASAL CELL CARCINOMA: Cancer of the blood vessels. Which one is the most metastatic? Almost never metastasizes or crosses the basement membrane Looks like shiny nodules 2) SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA 25% of all cancers Will metastasize if not treated. 3) MELANOMA: cancer of the melanocytes of the epidermis Highly metastatic. Asymmetrical, sharp but irregular borders and edges Not uniform in color. Characterize types of burns. FIRST DEGREE: Minor burn to the epidermis; sunburn Which one is most serious? SECOND DEGREE: Dermis separates from epidermis; blister THIRD DEGREE: Hypodermis is burned. (most severe type of burn) What is the medical term for thick, red, painful Keloid scars? What is an enlargement of the lining of blood vessels, Hemangioma and is treated with lasers? What is the rare autosomal dominant disorder of Piebaldism
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melanocyte development, causing a congenital white patch of hair What is the shaft of a long bone called? Diaphysis What type of bone does it contain? Contains compact bone What are the ends of a long bone called? Epiphysis What type of bone do they contain? Spongy (cancellous) bone What is the term for rickets caused by lack of Osteomalacia vitamin D? What is the term for dwarfism, the type that has Achondroplasia larger heads and hands than is proportionate? What is the term for cartilage rubbing off under Chondromalacia the patella What type of fracture is when the skin is not Simple (closed) broken? What type of fracture is when the bone breaks Compound (open) through the skin? How is a fracture described when only one side Incomplete of the bone has broken? How is a fracture described when both sides of Complete the bone have broken? What is the difference between a displaced and Describes whether or not the bone fragments are lined up in a non-displaced fracture? complete fracture. Name 8 types of fractures. TYPES OF FRACTURES Which type is the most serious? Least serious? COMMINUTED: The most serious; bone shatters into many small Which type is most common in children? pieces. Bone graft might be needed. What is it called when the hip bone breaks from SPIRAL: Bone was twisted. osteoporosis, and then the patient falls? GREENSTICK: most common in children COMPRESSION: bone is crushed, like the vertebrae in osteoporosis. STRESS: least serious, get tiny, almost invisible breaks. COMPOUND FRACTURES: Bone breaks and goes through skin. Increased chance of infections, which can be life-threatening. SIMPLE FRACTURES: Skin is not broken. PATHOLOGICAL FRACTURE: When the bone (especially the hip bone of someone with osteoporosis) breaks first, then the patient falls. What are the three classifications of joints? 1) Fibrous Joints: Fibrous connective tissue (dense regular CT) Give examples of each Example is suture, tooth, ligament 2) Cartilaginous Joints: a) Fibrocartilage (vertebral discs, pubic symphysis) b) Hyaline cartilage, no capsule (epiphyseal plate, costal cart) 3) Synovial: Hyaline cartilage with a capsule
What are the three types of joint movement? Synarthrotic immoveable, allows no movement Amphiarthrotic allows only limited movement Diarthrotic 3 Comprehensive Review Flashcards
freely moveable What type of movement does a fibrocartilage Amphiarthrotic (slightly moveable) (symphysis) joint have? What type of movement does a hyaline cartilage Synarthrotic (no movement) (synchondrosis) joint have? In the knee joint, what are the main ligaments the collateral ligaments that keep the knee from moving medially to laterally? What is a sprain? A tear in a ligament What is a strain? A tear in a muscle SKELETAL MUSCLE For skeletal muscle to contract, a neuron must first release a For skeletal muscle to contract, what chemical called acetylcholine onto the region known as the chemical is released from the neuron? endplate. Where is this chemical released onto? Calcium is also needed for muscle contraction. What mineral is also needed for muscle contraction? The nerve signal is called an ACTION POTENTIAL. What is the nerve signal called? a group of muscle fibers, surrounded by MUSCLE FASCIA perimysium. a single muscle cell MUSCLE FIBER a long organelle inside a muscle fiber MYOFIBRIL the lowest level of organization that is composed MYOFILAMENTS of actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin proteins.
What are the two types of myofilaments? there are two types: actin (with troponin and tropomyosin) and myosin. What happens to the myosin and actin filaments The myosin heads of the thick filaments attach like hooks to when sacromere contact? the thin actin filaments at both ends of the sacromere and pull the thin filaments toward the center of the sacromere. The sites where the myosin heads hook onto the Cross-bridges actin are called what?
TROPONIN and TROPOMYOSIN cover which TROPONIN is a complex of three proteins. myofilament when muscle is RELAXED? TROPOMYOSIN is a single protein.
Both troponin and tropomyosin cover the ACTIN filament when the muscle is relaxed. What nerve controls the contraction rate of the Phrenic nerve 4 Comprehensive Review Flashcards
diaphragm? What is the storage form of ATP? Creatine phosphate What is muscular dystrophy caused by? MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY Genetic lack of the protein DISTROPHIN. The muscle cell won’t contract. How do you test for the presence of spasticity? Passively move their elbow or foot quickly; the muscle will tighten What does a positive test look like? up or jerk 5 or more times BONE CELLS What is the immature bone cell that Osteoblast (makes bone) makes bone?
What is a mature bone cell called? Osteocyte (mature bone cell)
What bone cell breaks down bone and Osteoclast (reabsorbs bone) reabsorbs it?
What is the term for a bone infection? Osteomyelitis
What is the little cave called where Lacunae (where bone cells live) mature bone cells are?
What are the tiny channels that allow Canaliculi (allow for transport of nutrients and wastes) osteocytes to transport nutrients and waste to each other?
What are the rings in an osteon called? Lammellae (rings) What are the three main kinds of arthritis? ARTHRITIS
Which one is a chronic disorder of joints in which OSTEOARTHRITIS: common in older people. The articular cartilage the articular cartilages degenerate and bony begins to break down, and bone spurs start to grow. spurs form? RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: It’s an autoimmune disease where body Which one is an autoimmune disease? attacks and destroys the cartilage in synovial joints. It is NOT known for having spurs, like osteoarthritis.
GOUTY ARTHRITIS (gout). Caused by eating too much red meat or Which one is caused by cartilage destruction by protein. The breakdown product is urea, and acid, which causes uric uric acid crystals? acid crystals in the cooler areas of the body, especially big toes. Hematocrit is a value describing the ratio of ____ The hematocrit is the ratio of packed red blood cells to total blood to _____ volume.
What is the normal hematocrit value? Normal is 46% for men and 38% for women. Name the blood diseases: BLOOD DISEASES
The blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is ANEMIA is when the blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished diminished. It can be caused by blood loss, deficiency in iron, B12, or
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folic acid, RBC destruction, or a genetic defect of hemoglobin in the RBCs.
Three of the causes of anemia CAUSES OF ANEMIA: lack of iron, hemorrhage, lack of vitamin B12
Cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs LEUKEMIA is cancer of the stem cells, results in too few WBCs.
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing target THALASSEMIA is a form of anemia. The RBCs have abnormal cells, teardrops, spherocytes hemoglobin.
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin, causing sickled SICKLE CELL DISEASE is present in African Americans more than in erythrocytes. This anemia esp. common in other groups, and is always characterized by sickled erythrocytes. Africans
Too few platelets THROMBOCYTOPENIA: too few platelets, and blood doesn’t clot properly.
Blood clot in a vessel THROMBUS is a blood clot in a vessel.
A clot that breaks off and travels in the blood EMBOLIS is a thrombus that travels in the blood stream. stream What is immunotherapy? A form of cancer treatment that takes blood cells from a patient and fuses the blood with an antibody that is specifically designed to seek out and destroy the cancer cell.
Which heart chamber is responsible for Left ventricle generates the largest pressure upon contraction. generating the largest pressure upon contraction? What causes the heart to beat? The heart does not need a nerve to stimulate it to contract, rather, specialized heart cells can spontaneously start an action potential that spreads to depolarize the rest of the cardiac muscle cells.
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Picture of heart depolarization structures
Describe the path that an action potential takes 1. First the Sinoatrial (SA) node starts an action potential which during depolarization of the heart. causes the atria to depolarize. 2. This depolarization will then reach the AV node at the bottom portion of the right atrium and there is a delay here because these cells are so small in diameter. 3. Another delay in the transmission of the depolarization at the bundle of His (AV bundle) because these special heart cells travel through the atrioventricular septum which is non-conductive fibrous connective tissue. Next, the depolarizing event travels through the left and right bundle branches, found in the interventricular septum, to finally arrive at the Purkinje fibers in the ventricular myocardium. What is the term for the period when the Systole ventricles are contracting? What is the term for the period when the Diastole ventricles are relaxing? At which stage do the atria contract? Diastole Name the heart disease: HEART DISORDERS Inflamed outer layer of the heart PERICARDITIS: inflamed outer layer of heart.
Bacteria enters the bloodstream and lodges in ENDOCARDITIS: Bacteria enter bloodstream, lodges in heart the heart
Leaky heart valve is what? HEART MURMUR: The valve leaks
What valve is most likely to prolapse? MITRAL VALVE is most likely to prolapse
Problem with SA or AV node, causing improper ARRHYTHMIA = problem with the SA or AV node à improper heart 7 Comprehensive Review Flashcards
heart beat beat. Treatment is medicines or a pacemaker.
Pain caused by deficient blood delivery to the ANGINA PECTORIS = pain from not enough blood to the heart wall heart wall
Complete blockage of a coronary artery MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION = Complete blockage of a coronary artery
Heart disease from eating fatty food ATHEROSCLEROSIS is caused from eating fatty food
Ventricles contract with rapid, random motions VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION: (the ventricles are unable to pump blood efficiently due to rapid, random contraction of cardiac muscle fibers).
Progressive weakening of the heart CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE is progressive weakening of the heart as it fails to keep up with the demands of pumping blood. Name these heart disease treatments. HEART DISORDERS – treatment
Surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery Angioplasty is a surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery.
Medicine that reduces blood clot formation Aspirin reduces blood clot formation.
Medicine that dilates coronary arteries Nitroglycerine dilates the coronary arteries so more blood can get in. Surgery that takes a blood vessel graft (from Coronary bypass: Take another blood vessel graft (from thigh) and thigh) to go around a blockage go around the blockage.
Failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth Patent Foramen ovale: A ‘blue baby” has low oxygen levels in the blood that may be due to failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth. Which vein is often used to bypass a damaged SAPHANOUS VEIN is often used to bypass a damaged coronary coronary artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is artery in coronary bypass surgery. It is the most likely vein to the most likely vein to become varicose anyway? become varicose anyway.
The “danger triangle” of the face can spread FACIAL VEIN: squeezing pimples, and nose piercings in the “danger infection into the dural sinuses of the brain by triangle” of the face can spread infection through the facial vein into way of which vein? the dural sinuses of the brain.
Name the lymph disorder DISORDERS OF LYMPH SYSTEM 1) Cancer of the lymph nodes; many Hodgkins disease: Cancer of the lymph nodes; many enlarged lymph enlarged lymph nodes that do not feel nodes that do not feel tender
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tender
2) Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes Mononucleosis: Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes and causes and causes inflammation of lymph inflammation of lymph vessels. vessels.
3) Accumulation of excess tissue fluid in EDEMA is the accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connective loose connective tissue tissue.
4) Lymph vessel inflammation; usually from Lymphangitis: lymph vessel inflammation; usually from infection. infection
5) An infected lymph node that contains a BUBO is an infected lymph node that contains a large number of large number of pathogens that are pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed. trapped in the node but not destroyed Name respiratory disorder RESPIRATORY DISORDER
1) Inflamed vocal cords LARYNGITIS: inflamed vocal cords (↓ sound production).
2) In allergic conditions, bronchioles will ASTHMA: In allergic conditions, bronchioles will constrict, blocking constrict, blocking air flow to the lungs. air flow to the lungs.
3) The #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer LUNG CANCER: the #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer.
4) Lack of surfactant in premature babies RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME: lack of surfactant in premature babies
5) The rubbing together of inflamed pleural PLEURISY is the rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranes membranes that produces a stabbing that produces a stabbing pain in the chest. pain in the chest
6) Collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura PNEUMOTHORAX: collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura
When you are advised to get flu shots for this INFLUENZA year’s strain of flu virus, but you do not get the shot and then you get the flu, this flu is actually what? What three features is Mononucleosis 1) Inflammation of lymph vessels characterized by? 2) Painful lymph nodes 3) Infection of B-lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus
Inspiration – what muscles produce inspiration? The diaphragm and the external intercostals are the muscle group that produces inspiration. What is inflammation of the bronchi called? Bronchitis What respiratory conditions is loss of elastic Emphysema (a form of COPD)
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tissue on the bronchioles and alveoli, which collapse now during exhalation What condition is characterized by a person with Emphysema (a form of COPD) a large, “barrel” chest? Bacteria eat away at the enamel CAVITY (cary) If the cavity extends into the pulp cavity. ROOT CANAL Bacteria cause inflammation of the gums GINGIVITIS What is the major cause of tooth loss, and how PERIODONTITIS gingiva pulls away from the tooth and extends down does it occur? to the periodontal ligament. Bacterial infection that erodes the stomach lining GASTRIC ULCER a small pouch in the large intestine becomes DIVERTICULITIS inflamed inflammation of the colon COLITIS The #1 most deadly cancer because it COLON CANCER metastasizes with no symptoms. It can be diagnosed by seeing blood in the stool. Used to looks for POLYPS, which are pre- COLONOSCOPY cancerous growths. varicose veins along the rectum HEMORRHOIDS Infection of the liver HEPATITIS: Infection of the liver = (can be deadly) Liver cells die; often from alcoholism CIRRHOSIS: liver cells die; often from alcoholism. This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver JAUNDICE: This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver disorder. It disorder. It first shows up as a yellow color in the first shows up as a yellow color in the sclera of the eye because it is sclera of the eye because it is white there. white there. Which cells in the Stomach secrete hydrochloric PARIETAL CELLS acid and digestive enzymes which kill bacteria? Which vitamin requires an Intrinsic Factor in Vitamin B-12 order to be absorbed? Lack of B12 causes what disorder? Pernicious (megaloblastic) Anemia What do Chief Cells secrete? Chief cells secrete an enzyme called Pepsinogin. When Pepsinogin is exposed to hydrochloric acid, it is cleaved into PEPSIN, it’s active form. Pepsin digests proteins.
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