Exam 5
1. Which of the following statements about an organizational unit is true? A. An organizational unit cannot contain objects from other domains. B. An organizational unit can contain objects only from other trusted domains. C. An organizational unit can contain objects only from other domains in the same domain tree. D. An organizational unit can contain objects only from other domains in the same domain forest. Answer: A An organizational unit is a container in which you can place objects such as user accounts, groups, computers, printers, applications, file shares, and other organizational units. An organizational unit cannot contain objects from other domains and is the smallest unit to which you can assign or delegate administrative authority. Organizational units are provided strictly for administrative purposes and convenience. 2. To use universal groups in your Active Directory domain, what minimum domain functional level must you be running at? A. Windows Server 2003 B. Windows 2000 mixed C. Windows Server 2003 interim D. Windows 2000 native Answer: D The Windows 2000 native domain functional level is the minimum domain functional level at which universal groups become available, along with several other Active Directory features; it allows for Windows 2000 Server and Windows Server 2003 domain controllers only. 3. If the Hub Transport server in the destination site is unavailable, where will a message in routing be queued up temporarily? A. On the Hub Transport server in the source site B. On the Mailbox server in the destination site C. On the Hub Transport server in the destination site D. On the Hub Transport server in the site nearest to the destination site Answer: D If there are no operating Hub Transport servers in the destination site, the message will be queued on a Hub Transport server in the site closest to the one where the destination Mailbox server resides. The message will not be delivered until a Hub Transport server in the destination site is available to deliver it. 4. You will have two Exchange Server 2007 computers that provide all messaging access for your 250 network users. If all 250 of your users connect to the Exchange server using Office Outlook 2007 and Outlook Web Access, how many CALs do you need to have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 250 D. 500 Answer: C Exchange Server 2007 is licensed in the per-user or per-device mode, meaning that each client (user or device) that accesses the server must have a valid CAL. Since you have a total of 250 clients, you need to have 250 CALs for your organization, even if the clients access the Exchange server in more than one way, such as Outlook or Outlook Web Access. 5. Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest with three domains: one root domain and two child domains. If Exchange Server is to be installed in only one of the two child domains and not at all in the root domain, how many times (minimum) must you run the /PrepareDomain tool? A. None B. One time C. Two times D. Three times Answer: C Once the Windows Active Directory forest is prepared using the /PrepareSchema command, each domain in the forest that will run Exchange Server 2007 must also be prepared using the /PrepareDomain command. In addition, the forest root domain and each domain that will contain Exchange Server 2007 mailbox- enabled objects or that has users or groups that will manage Exchange Server 2007 computers must have the /PrepareDomain command run in it. 6. Which of the following Exchange Server 2007-created universal security groups have full access to all Exchange Server properties throughout the Exchange organization? A. Exchange Organization Administrators B. Exchange Server Administrators (servername) C. Exchange Recipient Administrators D. Exchange2003Interop E. Exchange View-Only Administrators (servername) Answer: A The members of the Exchange Organization Administrators group have full access to all Exchange Server properties throughout the Exchange organization. By default, the administrative account that is used to install Exchange Server 2007 is placed into this group. 7. Which of the following must you perform after an Exchange Server 2007 has been installed? A. License the server. B. Join the server to the Active Directory domain. C. Configure a static IP address for the server. D. Install the Forefront antivirus application. Answer: A Legally, you are required to license the server after completing the installation. You need to configure a static IP for the server and join the server to the domain before installing Exchange Server 2007, except in the installation of the Edge Transport role, which must not be part of the domain. Forefront, or any other antivirus application, should be installed as soon as possible, but it is not required. 8. Your Active Directory forest contains only a single domain. Which of the following actions must you complete manually before starting a GUI-based installation of the first Exchange Server 2007 server in the domain? A. setup /prepareschema B. setup /prepareAD C. setup /preparedomain D. None of these actions Answer: D In the scenario where the forest contains only a single domain, there is no requirement to extend the schema or perform any other manual preinstallation tasks that were previously discussed in Chapter 2. You can simply start the installation process, either via the GUI or from the command line, and setup will perform all required configuration steps during the installation of Exchange Server 2007. 9. Your organization plans to use the Outlook 2007 MAPI client, Outlook 2003 MAPI client, Outlook Web Access, and the Entourage IMAP4 client for Macintosh in your environment for email access. What must you install during the installation of the first Mailbox server in your Exchange organization? A. The Client Access server role B. Public folders C. The Forefront antivirus application D. Error reporting Answer: B Although you will need a Client Access server in this scenario, the question asked what you will need to install during the installation of the Mailbox server role. During the installation of the Mailbox server role, you will be asked whether you have legacy Outlook (pre-Outlook 2007) or Macintosh Entourage clients connecting to your Mailbox server. If the answer is yes, then you must install public folders on that server. 10. You have just installed a new drive on your Exchange server and want to move the transaction logs for one of your storage groups to that drive. Where would you go to do this? A. Click the Move Storage Group Path link under the storage group options in the Actions pane on the right of the Exchange Management Console. B. Click the Change Transaction Logs Location link under the storage group options in the Actions pane on the right of the Exchange Management Console. C. Open the storage group's Properties dialog box, and change the path of the transaction logs from the General tab. D. You cannot do this. Once a transaction log is created, it cannot be moved. Answer: A To change the transaction log path or the system file path for a storage group, simply click the Move Storage Group Path link under the storage group options in the Actions pane on the right of the Exchange Management Console. Alternatively, you can right-click the storage group and select the Move Storage Group Path menu item from the context menu that appears. Either way, the Move Storage Group Path Wizard opens and allows you choose the new path for either or both items. 11. What purpose does it serve for you to configure additional accepted domains on the Hub Transport server? A. There is no need to configure additional accepted domains on the Hub Transport server. B. Configuring them allows you to send messages to these SMTP domains securely. C. Configuring them allows you to accept and route messages for these SMTP domains correctly. D. Configuring them allows you to enable journaling for messages received for these SMTP domains. Answer: C Accepted domains are used to specify for which SMTP domains the Exchange Server organization will accept and/or route messages. Most commonly an organization will have multiple SMTP domains if it accepts mail for multiple subsidiary companies or if it has multiple public domain names in use, such as microsoft.com and xbox.com. 12. Your company does not want to send out-of-office messages to several SMTP domains outside the company. What can you create and configure in Exchange Server 2007 to allow this type of control? A. Accepted domains B. SMTP send connectors C. SMTP receive connectors D. Remote domains Answer: D You need to create remote domain objects for the external SMTP namespaces that you do not want out-of-office messages to be sent to. 13. Of the antispam agents available on the Edge Transport server, which one must you configure and manage exclusively from the Exchange Management Shell? A. Content filtering B. Recipient filtering C. Sender reputation D. Attachment filtering Answer: D No Exchange Management Console configuration is available for the attachment filtering agent. You will need to configure and manage this antispam agent exclusively from the Exchange Management Shell. 14. You are configuring a new Exchange Server 2007 organization for a small medical practice. Since many medical terms and drugs are common spam words, you've been asked to try to configure Exchange to pass messages containing some specific common spam words as nonspam items. What antispam agent can you configure on the Edge Transport server that could help you accomplish this request? A. Attachment filtering B. Content filtering C. Recipient filtering D. Sender filtering E. IP block list providers F. IP allow list providers G. IP block list Answer: B The Custom Words tab of the Content Filter allows you to enter a list words that will modify the default behavior of the content filter. In the top area of this tab, you can enter words that will never be blocked, such as those that might otherwise typically be blocked by the content filter. You can enter the requested spam-like words in this section and prevent the Edge Transport server's antispam agents from considering those words in the overall SCL rating of the message. 15. Once EdgeSnyc has been completely configured, how often will recipient data be synchronized? A. Every 120 minutes B. Every 240 minutes C. Every 60 minutes D. Every 180 minutes Answer: B Recipient data will be synchronized every 240 minutes (every four hours) once EdgeSync has been completely configured. 16. Your organization has several resource mailboxes that multiple users need to be able send messages from so that the messages appear to be coming from that mailbox. Where will you need to go to perform the required configuration to allow these users to send as the resource mailbox? A. The Exchange Management Shell B. The Exchange Management Console C. The Active Directory Users and Computers Console D. Any of these locations Answer: C You will need to go to the Active Directory Users and Computers console to configure Send As permissions on the resource mailbox user accounts. You will configure the permissions from the Security tab. 17. You need to disable the user account of a salesperson who has left your organization. The salesperson had a mailbox on one of your Exchange Mailbox servers. You do not want to make any changes to the mailbox at this time. What method could you use to disable the user account? A. Use the Disable-Mailbox cmdlet from the Exchange Management Shell. B. Use the Disable link for the mailbox in the Exchange Management Console. C. Use the Disable-MailUser cmdlet from the Exchange Management Shell. D. Use the Active Directory Users and Computers console to disable the user account. Answer: D The only option listed that actually disables the user account and does not change any mail-related settings is to disable the user account from the Active Directory User and Computers console. 18. Your company has hired an outside marketing agency to create marketing materials. Many of your employees often need to email messages to people in this marketing agency. Since both the marketing agency and your network have Internet access, Internet email seems the best method. However, you want to set it up so that the people in the marketing agency appear in the Exchange global address list. What type of recipient object would you configure to achieve this? A. Mailbox B. Mail-enabled user C. Contact D. A mailbox with a foreign owner Answer: C A contact is a pointer object that holds the address of a non- Exchange mail recipient. Contacts are made visible in the global address list and, therefore, permit Exchange clients to send messages to non-Exchange mail users. 19. A user named Aaron leaves your company. Management would like a user named Bobbi to assume Aaron's responsibilities. What could you do so that Bobbi can receive Aaron's email messages? Select the best answer. A. Make Bobbi's mailbox an alternate recipient for Aaron's mailbox. B. Disable Aaron's user account, and give Bobbi profile permission to access Aaron's mailbox. C. Delete Aaron's mailbox, and forward all undeliverable messages to Bobbi. D. Create a rule in Aaron's mailbox so that all of Aaron's mail is forwarded to Bobbi. Answer: A Making Bobbi's mailbox an alternate recipient ensures that both mailboxes receive a copy of all messages sent to Aaron's mailbox. Creating a rule in Aaron's mailbox that forwards mail to Bobbi would also work but would require more configuration on your part. 20. When should the MRM mailbox assistant be run? A. It should be run after you have deleted or moved a number of mailboxes as part of a mailbox cleanup operation. B. It should be run every Monday morning when you have the biggest load on the Mailbox server, because MRM functions better where there is extra server load. C. It is automatically run when it needs to be run; you shouldn't have to worry about when it runs. D. You should run it when the server has the least load because it is a resource-intensive operation. Answer: D You should run the MRM mailbox assistant when there is the least load on the server because it is a resource-intensive operation. It is best to run it during nonpeak business hours. 21. If an enabled transport rule has no condition, what will it do when it runs? A. Currently a message that has no condition will cause the transport service to stop responding; this is a known issue and will be fixed in Exchange Server 2007 SP1. B. The rule will do nothing at all. C. The rule will act on every message. D. An event log entry with event ID 1966 will be entered in the event log stating the rule has no condition and that it has been disabled. Answer: C Setting a condition is optional. Without a condition, a rule will act on every message unless the exception expects the message. 22. The Maximum Inactivity Time Lock setting performs what action when applied on an Exchange server policy? A. Allows you to monitor and then disable mailboxes that are not accessed by anyone for a given amount of time B. Logs users out of OWA if there has been no activity for a given amount of time C. Locks a mobile device if it has no activity for a given amount of time D. Disconnects an SMTP session if there has been no activity for a given amount of time Answer: C The Maximum Inactivity Time Lock setting is an ActiveSync policy and allows you to force mobile devices to become locked after a given amount of time with no activity and require a password before they can be used again. 23. To create a new custom managed folder using the Exchange Management Shell, which command would you use? A. Create-NewCustomManagedFolder B. New-CustomManagedFolder C. New-ManagedFolder -Type Custom D. None of the above Answer: D The correct Exchange Management Shell command to create a new managed custom folder is New-ManagedFolder. 24. What would be the proper command to issue to mail-enable the Activities public folder and have it be hidden from the global address list? A. Enable-MailPublicFolder-Identity "\Activities" -HiddenFromAddressLists: $false B. Enable-MailPublicFolder-Identity "\Activities" -ShownInAddressLists: $true C. Enable-MailPublicFolder-Identity "\Activities" -HiddenFromAddressLists: $true D. Enable-MailPublicFolder-Identity "\Activities" -HiddenFromAddressListsEnabled Answer: D To mail-enable the Activities public folder and cause it to be hidden from the global address list, you would use the Enable- MailPublicFolder-Identity "\Activities" -HiddenFromAddressListsEnabled command. 25. To enable POP3 access for the user Robert Jones, which of the following commands must you issue? A. Set-CASMailbox -identity [email protected] -POPEnabled:$false B. Set-Mailbox -identity [email protected] -POPEnabled: $true C. Set-CASMailbox -identity [email protected] -POPEnabled:$true D. Set-Mailbox -identity [email protected] -POPDisabled:$false Answer: C You will need to issue the following command to enable POP3 access for the user: Set-CASMailbox -identity [email protected] -POPEnabled:$true. 26. Your organization has a public folder named Safety Issues that employees use to post notices about safety hazards that have been located within your buildings and warehouses. You want all employees in the company to be able to post new items into this folder and read any existing items but perform no other actions. What role do you need to configure for the Default user on this public folder? A. Contributor B. Author C. Nonediting Author D. Editor Answer: C The Nonediting Author role will allow users to read existing items in the public folder and create new items but will not allow them any other permissions on the public folder 27. You recently created a public folder that employees of your company can use to post personal announcements, such as marriages and births. You have now become aware that a number of people are also posting large attachments to messages in the form of photos or other documents. This is causing the public folder to swell considerably in size. People enjoy the Announcements folder, and you want to keep it available. However, you want to keep users from posting large messages or attachments. What is your best option? A. Set a limit on the size of messages that each user may send by using the property pages for that user. B. Set a limit on the size of messages that can be posted in the public folder by using the folder's property pages. C. Set a limit on the maximum size that a public folder can reach before new posts are prohibited, and then manually delete large posts. D. Set a limit on the maximum size that a public folder can reach before new posts are prohibited, and then create a script that deletes large posts automatically. Answer: B The Limits tab for a public folder contains several settings that govern public folder limits. One setting allows you to specify the maximum size of messages that can be posted to the public folder. This is the best way to ensure that large posts are not made. Setting a limit on the size of the messages that users can send would also restrict the sending of regular email messages. Deleting posts, whether done manually or automatically, might be considered intrusive and arbitrary by users. 28. Which of the following queue types would be used for messages being routed to a different Active Directory site than the one the Hub Transport server is in that contains the queue? A. Mailbox delivery queue B. Remote delivery queue C. Submission queue D. Unreachable queue E. Remote site queue F. Poison message queue Answer: B The remote delivery queue holds messages that are being routed to remote SMTP destinations, such as servers that are located outside the Active Directory site containing the Hub Transport server. Remote delivery queues are dynamically created and removed as needed depending on the messages that are in routing on that server. The next hop for messages located in a remote delivery queue is a remote Active Directory site or SMTP domain or smart host. 29. If you wanted to remove all the messages from a specific queue and not send an NDR to any of the senders, what cmdlet would you need to use A. Remove-Queue -Filter {Queue -eq "server\queue"} -noNDR $true B. Remove-Message -Filter {Queue -eq "server\queue"} -withNDR $false C. Delete-Message -Filter {Queue -eq "server\queue"} -withNDR $false D. Empty-Queue -Filter {Queue -eq "server\queue"} -noNDR Answer: B To remove all the messages from a specific queue and not send NDRs to the senders, you would need to use the Remove-Message cmdlet as follows: Remove-Message -Filter {Queue -eq "server\queue"} -withNDR $false. 30. When looking at the status of a queue for messages being delivered to a Mailbox server, which one of the following status messages would not be seen? A. Retry B. Resumed C. Suspended D. Ready E. Active Answer: B The status of a queue can be only one of the following four values: Active, Suspended, Ready, Retry. 31. If messages are placed into a specific queue, they are not attempted for delivery. These messages are available for administrative review and can be released manually by an administrator. Which of the listed queues is this? A. Mailbox delivery queue B. Remote delivery queue C. Submission queue D. Unreachable queue E. Suspect queue F. Poison message queue Answer: F The poison message queue holds messages that have been determined to be potentially harmful to the Exchange organization after a server failure has occurred, such as messages that contain errors that are potentially fatal to the Exchange organization. When no messages meeting this condition are found, this queue does not exist on the Hub Transport server, although the queue is in a ready state should it be needed. Messages placed into the poison message queue are not attempted for delivery, and their status is set to suspended, allowing the messages to be examined and deleted or released by the administrator after further review. The next hop for messages located in the poison message queue that have been released is the submission queue. 32. You moved your file server from its switch to another switch that also hosts network load balanced web servers. Users report that the file server is extremely slow. What should you do? A. Move the file server to another switch. B. Add another NIC to the file server, and implement network teaming. C. Create a special VLAN for all file server clients. D. Defragment the hard drives on the file server. Answer: A NLB clusters cause port flooding that can cause other devices on the same switch as NLB nodes to degrade in performance as they try to process all the packets sent to them. 33. What is the best practice configuration for network load balancing? A. One network adapter and multicast B. Two network adapters and multicast C. One network adapter and unicast D. Two network adapters and unicast Answer: D The best practice for NLB is to use two NICs, one for the NLB network and the other for a management network, and to configure the NLB network for unicast. 34. You need to move the clustered mailbox from Node1 to Node2 for maintenance. What should you do? A. Use the Cluster Administrator MMC, right-click the clustered mailbox cluster group, and select Move. B. Use the Cluster Administrator MMC, right-click the clustered mailbox cluster group, and select Take Offline. C. Use PowerShell, and run Move-Clustered MailboxServer. D. Use cluster.exe, and run Cluster Group