______ 1. to Avoid Scratching the Scalp, the Teeth on Wide-Toothed Combs Should Have

SB 3 Test 2013

Braiding

______1. To avoid scratching the scalp, the teeth on wide-toothed combs should have: a. long rounded tips c. missing teeth b. short flat tips d. long pointed tips ____ 2. An excellent comb for design parting and opening and removing braids is a: a. finishing comb c. pressing comb b. wide-toothed comb d. tail comb ____ 3. Which tool is useful for lifting and separating textured hair? a. tail comb c. cutting comb b. pick with rounded teeth d. double-toothed comb ____ 4. The blow-dryer attachment that stretches and softens textured hair and loosens the curl pattern is a: a. concentrator c. pick nozzle b. butterfly clip d. diffuser ____ 5. Which of the following is NOT an implement or material need for extensions? a. hackle c. drawing board b. extension fibers d. hood dryer

Chemical Texture Services

____ 1. In the restructuring process, coarse, resistant hair with a strong compact cuticle requires a chemical solution that is: a. slightly alkaline c. strongly acidic b. mildly acidic d. highly alkaline ____ 2. The angle at which a permanent wave rod is positioned on the head is referred to as: a. wrapping technique c. diagonal technique b. rod direction d. base direction ____ 3. The two methods of wrapping the hair around a perm rod are: a. flat and spiral c. spiral and perpendicular b. croquignole and even d. croquignole and spiral ____ 4. In permanent waving, the reduction reaction is due to the addition of: a. hydrogen c. salt b. oxygen d. carbon ____ 5. Most alkaline permanent waves have a pH between: a. 4.5 and 5.5 c. 9.0 and 9.6 b. 6.0 and 7.0 d. 10.0 and 11.0 ____ 6. All acid waves have three components consisting of the permanent waving lotion, neutralizer, and: a. conditioner c. stabilizer b. prewrap d. activator ____ 7. Waves that are activated from an outside heat source are considered: a. stabilized c. exothermic b. endothermic d. acid waves ____ 8. The process that stops the action of permanent wave solution and rebuilds the hair into its new form is: a. sectioning c. thio neutralization b. rinsing d. normalization ____ 9. The double-rod wrap technique is also called the: a. piggyback wrap c. spiral wrap b. straight wrap d. weave technique ____ 10. Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called: a. metal relaxers c. lye relaxers b. no-lye relaxers d. medium relaxers ____ 11. Hydroxide relaxers that do not require the application of a protective base are: a. no-base relaxers c. cream relaxers b. base cream relaxers d. metal hydroxide relaxers ____ 12. The application for chemical relaxers should be started in the most resistant area, usually the: a. back of head c. scalp area b. front hairline d. side area ____ 13. A combination of a thio relaxer and a thio permanent wrapped on large rods is a: a. permanent wave c. full curl permanent b. soft curl permanent d. relaxer retouch Haircoloring

____ 1. Fine hair takes color faster and can look darker because the melanin granules are grouped: a. more loosely c. more scattered b. more tightly d. less tightly ____ 2. The melanin that gives black and brown color to hair is: a. primary c. pigment b. eumelanin d. pheomelanin ____ 3. The system used by colorists to analyze the lightness or darkness of a hair color is: a. the color wheel c. melanin distribution b. the level system d. the primary color system ____ 4. The darkest hair colors in the level system are identified as being a level: a. 1 c. 6 b. 3 d. 10 ____ 5. A color achieved by mixing equal parts of a secondary color and its neighboring primary color on the color wheel is a: a. complementary color c. tertiary color b. pigmented color d. base color ____ 6. Tones can be described as cool, warm, or: a. neutral c. light b. level d. dark ____ 7. All hair coloring products require a patch test with the exception of: a. semipermanent colors c. permanent colors b. temporary colors d. demipermanent colors ____ 8. The most commonly used developer in hair color is: a. ammonia peroxide c. hydrogen peroxide b. hydrogen propitiator d. potential activators ____ 9. The process where the hair is prelightened and then toned is: a. single-process color c. color enhancement application b. double-process application d. special effects color ____ 10. Decolorizing the hair’s natural pigment allows the colorist to create the exact degree of: a. complementary color c. neutralizing pigment b. artificial color d. contributing pigment ____ 11. During the process of decolorizing, natural hair can go through as many as: a. 5 stages c. 10 stages b. 8 stages d. 12 stages ____ 12. When applying color using the brush-and-bowl method, the mixing bowl should be: a. metal c. large b. nonmetallic d. nonbreakable ____ 13. When applying color for a single-process retouch application, the color should be applied to the new growth using: a. 1-inch partings c. 1/4-inch partings b. 3/4-inch partings d. 1/2-inch partings ____ 14. The part of the hair shaft between the scalp and the hair that has been previously colored is the: a. follicle c. new growth b. medulla d. reaction ____ 15. The coloring technique that involves coloring some strands of hair lighter than the natural color is: a. activating c. lowlighting b. toning d. highlighting ____ 16. The technique of coloring strands of hair darker than the natural color is: a. lowlighting c. highlighting b. accelerating d. baliage ____ 17. The technique using a free-form of painting hair lightener directly on clean, styled hair is: a. lowlighting c. brushing b. highlighting d. baliage

Haircutting/Styling

____ 1. A weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a: a. hydrogen bond c. salt bond b. carbon bond d. sulfur bond ____ 2. Permanent waving and hair relaxers change the shape of hair by chemically altering the hair’s: a. hydrogen bonds c. disulfide bonds b. ionic bonds d. amino acids ____ 3. Hydroxide chemical relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to: a. lanthionine bonds c. carbon bonds b. sulfur bonds d. hydrogen bonds ____ 4. The resting phase or final phase of the hair cycle that lasts until the fully grown hair is shed is the: a. telogen phase c. catagen phase b. anagen phase d. transition phase ____ 5. The sudden falling out of hair in round patches or baldness in spots is: a. postpartum alopecia c. alopecia totalis b. androgenic alopecia d. alopecia areata ____ 6. Hair that has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing is: a. fine hair c. medium hair b. coarse hair d. gray hair ____ 7. Curved lines that are used to blend and soften horizontal or vertical lines are: a. contrasting lines c. transitional lines b. single-lines d. diagonal lines ____ 8. To offset or round out the square facial type, choose a style that has: a. the illusion of width in the forehead b. volume around areas between the temples and jaw and adds width around ears c. the illusion of length to the face d. no volume around the area between the temples and no width around ears ____ 9. The line dividing hair at the scalp, separating one section from another, creating subsections is a(n): a. tension c. parting b. elevation d. angle ____ 10. A one-length haircut where all the hair comes to a single hanging level is also known as a: a. blunt cut c. graduated cut b. layer cut d. shingled cut ____ 11. Haircuts that generally have less weight than graduated haircuts are: a. one-length cuts c. layered cuts b. blunt cuts d. tension cuts ____ 12. Another term used to describe backbrushing is: a. backcombing c. teasing b. matting d. ruffing ____ 13. Curls that offer a curl option with only slight lift or volume are: a. full-volume curls c. volume-base curls b. half-base curls d. off-base curls ____ 14. To press hair satisfactorily for a client with a flexible scalp, the stylist must: a. not apply cream c. not apply pressure b. use enough tension d. apply low heat ____ 15. After heating a pressing comb, the temperature of the comb should be tested using: a. light paper c. fingers b. a hair section d. cloth Nail Care

____ 1. Implements should be removed from a disinfectant solution using: a. fingers c. tongs b. hands d. All of these answers are correct. ____ 2. A unique method of applying pressure with thumb and index fingers to the hands and feet is: a. friction c. cosmetology b. reflexology d. effleurage ____ 3. When filing the toenail during a pedicure, the nails should be filed: a. pointed with rounded corners c. long with square corners b. straight across with rounded corners d. pointed and thin ____ 4. When performing a pedicure, do not push back the: a. eponychium c. dead tissue b. rough edges d. cuticle tissue ____ 5. A thin, tightly woven natural material that becomes transparent when wrap resin is applied is: a. cotton c. linen b. fiberglass d. silk ____ 6. Masks are designed to prevent inhalation of excessive dust, but they offer no protection from: a. vapors c. reactions b. filings d. synthetics ____ 7. It takes the combination of resin, photoinitiator, and which of the following to cause the gel to cure: a. photoinhibitor c. gel applicator b. proper curing lamp d. urethane gel ____ 8. A measure of how much electricity a UV bulb consumes is: a. UV c. unit wattage b. gallons d. amperes Infection Control

____ 1. Useful product disposal guidelines and medical and first aid information can be found on a(n): a. MSDS c. HCS b. OSHA d. EPA ____ 2. Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are: a. antiseptics c. sterilizers b. disinfectants d. sanitizers ____ 3. Laws are also called: a. regulations c. statutes b. guidelines d. rules ____ 4. Invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n): a. infection c. abrasion b. antitoxin d. inflammation ____ 5. Which term means to remove all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and equipment by washing with soap and water? a. sterilize c. antiseptic b. disinfect d. clean ____ 6. One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are: a. diseases c. cells b. bacteria d. minute ____ 7. The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is: a. cocci c. spirilla b. pathogenic d. flagellum ____ 8. Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called: a. spore-forming c. protoplasm b. cilia d. photosynthesis ____ 9. Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the: a. life cycle of bacteria c. beneficial effects b. chemical origin of bacteria d. surrounding environment ____ 10. Inflammation is characterized by which of the following? a. swelling c. heat b. pain d. All answers are correct. ____ 11. A pimple or an abscess is an example of a: a. blood disease c. daughter cell b. general infection d. local infection ____ 12. A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a: a. bacteria c. virus b. parasite d. contaminant ____ 13. Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called: a. positive pathogens c. inoculation pathogens b. acquired pathogens d. bloodborne pathogens ____ 14. Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon? a. tinea barbae c. mildew b. staph d. tinea pedis ____ 15. The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is: a. tinea pedis c. tinea capitis b. tinea barbae d. barber’s itch ____ 16. A contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite is: a. scabies c. pediculosis b. head lice d. barber’s itch ____ 17. Which of the following is an acceptable way to clean tools or instruments? a. using an ultrasonic unit b. using a cleaning solvent c. washing with soap and water, then scrubbing with a clean, disinfected nail brush d. All answers are correct. ____ 18. A reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain foods, chemicals, or other normally harmless substances is a(n): a. allergy c. disease b. infection d. parasite ____ 19. The term describing the effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs when used according to the label instructions is: a. effect c. efficacy b. concentration d. disinfection ____ 20. A safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats, is: a. quarter antiseptic solution c. phenolic quaternary agents b. quaternary-based compounds d. quaternary ammonium compounds ____ 21. Which of the following is a drawback to using phenolic disinfectants? a. can cause some metals to rust c. are known carcinogens b. can damage plastic and rubber d. All answers are correct. ____ 22. When hand washing, it is important to rub hands together for a minimum of how long? a. 20 seconds c. 1 minute b. 30 seconds d. 2 minutes ____ 23. Universal Precautions for bloodborne pathogens are regulated by: a. DOL c. OSHA b. DOE d. FDA ____ 24. If an exposure incident should occur, discard all disposable contaminated objects in a: a. trash bag c. paper towel b. contaminated waste container d. trash can SB Test 3

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Scalp treatments and massage may be performed: a. before the shampoo c. before or during the shampoo b. during the shampoo d. after the shampoo ____ 2. A stylist should recommend a hair or scalp treatment only after having performed a(n): a. shampoo procedure c. conditioning treatment b. hair and scalp examination d. abrasion test ____ 3. Do not use high-frequency current on hair treated with tonics or lotions that contain: a. minerals c. proteins b. alcohol d. creams SB Test 3

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The muscle that causes goose bumps when a person is frightened or cold is the: a. angled muscle c. absorption muscle b. secretory muscle d. arrector pili muscle ____ 2. Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles? a. sensory c. secretory b. motor d. All answers are correct. ____ 3. Client questionnaires used for hair removal services should contain information about client medications and: a. employment and allergies c. age and finances b. allergies and skin disorders d. vitamins and diet routine ____ 4. Hair removal by means of an electric current that destroys the growth cells of the hair is: a. electricity c. electrolysis b. photoepilation d. depilation ____ 5. A kneading movement that is performed by lifting, squeezing, and pressing tissue with light, firm pressure is: a. pétrissage c. effleurage b. fulling d. tapotement ____ 6. A cosmetic preparation used to darken, define, and thicken eyelashes is: a. eye liner c. talc b. pigment d. mascara ____ 7. Heavy makeup used for theatrical purposes is: a. greasepaint c. concealer b. translucent d. oil-based

TDLR 3 Questions 8

1. Alum to stop bleeding is permissible: a. In powder or liquid form b. In stick form c. In lump form d. In a sanitary form

2. A salon that is on a risk-based inspection schedule must have this number of violation-free inspections before they are moved to a less frequent risk-based inspection schedule: a. Three b. One c. Five d. Four 3. In order to be eligible for an instructor specialty license, an applicant must meet the following requirement: a. Hold a retired operator license or retired specialty license in that specialty b. Hold an active operator license or active specialty license in that specialty c. Hold an inactive operator license or inactive license in that specialty d. Hold an expired operator license or expired specialty license in that specialty 4. In order to be admitted to an examination, the examinee must present which of the following: a. A current, valid government-issued photo identification, which includes the applicant’s full name and date of birth b. A social security card c. A list of instruments that will be needed for the practical portion of the examination d. All grades they have received in the courses they have taken 5. Lancets are considered: a. A reusable item as long as they are sanitized before use b. A reusable item as long as a high-level disinfectant is used between use c. A reusable item if they are soaked overnight d. A non-reusable item 6. Beauty culture schools shall post a sign at the time clock stating a. Each student must personally clock in and out b. Another student must clock in and out for someone if they have written permission c. If there is a clock failure, the student must make up the time they have worked d. That if the students lunch hour is under 30 minutes they do not have to clock out and clock back in 7. The amount of time that a licensee must retain a copy of the certificate of completion for a continuing education course is: a. 3 years b. 90 days c. 365 days d. 2 years 8. Salons are inspected: a. At least once every 60 days b. At least once every 365 days c. At least twice every two years d. At least once every two years SB Test 3 2013

Braiding Answer Key

1. ANS: B PTS: 1

2. ANS: D PTS: 1

3. ANS: B PTS: 1

4. ANS: C PTS: 1

5. ANS: D PTS: 1

Chemical Texture 1. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 Haircoloring

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 Haircutting/Styling

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 Nail Care

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 Infection Control

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: D PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 Shampooing

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 Skin Care

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1

1. A PTS: 1

2. D PTS: 1

3. B PTS: 1

4. A PTS: 1

5. D PTS: 1

6. A PTS: 1

7. D PTS: 1

8. D PTS: 1