In the Whole Course Exam I, 2017 of the Exam with You
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This exam is worth 50 points Evolutionary Biology You may take this part in the whole course Exam I, 2017 of the exam with you
A. Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best possible answer. Use the bubble sheet. (1 pt. each)
1. An evolutionary tree is also called (A) phrenology (B) a dendrology (C) an endogeny (D) a phylogeny (E) an ontogeny.
2. What is an example of inductive reasoning? (A) All birds have feathers and robins are birds, therefore robins should have feathers. B) Since all humans are mortal, and I am a human, then I, too, am mortal. C) It is dangerous to drive on icy streets. The streets are very icy now, so it is dangerous to dive now. D) Every time I eat peanuts my throat swells up. I am probably allergic to peanuts. (E) None of the above.
3. Natural selection is notoriously hard to see in nature, yet Darwin made it a linchpin in his argument for evolution. What was the most compelling argument he offered for Natural Selection being the causative agent for evolution? (A) He argued by analogy from the effects of artificial selection by farmers. (B) He was emulating the argument from his illustrious grandfather Erasmus Darwin who first stated the theory in his writings. (C) He took his clue from Lamarck who first suggested the first scientific hypothesis of evolution. (D) He believed the proposal of Thomas Malthus of struggle for existence. (E) He believed the creationist arguments could not be tested and thus were not scientific.
4. Which statement best describes Darwin’s findings during his trip on the HMS Beagle. A) The species on the Galapagos were different from island to island but related to those on the mainland. B) The species on the Galapagos were similar to one another thus supporting Charles Hapsgood’s theory on crustal displacement. C) Populations living close to one another in South America were more different than those that lived far away. D) Fossil and living armadillos are typically found in different parts of the world. E) Artificial selection as practiced by the farmers prompted him to propose the analogous argument of Natural Selection.
5. Which of the following people did not influence Charles Darwin’s hypothesis of decent with modification? A) Charles Lyell B) Thomas Malthus C) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck D) Gregor Mendel E) Alfred Russel Wallace.
6. Which of the following predictions about fossils would one most reasonably make if the creationist hypothesis were correct? (A) Large fossils should be in the lower rock strata because they would sink faster in the sediments. (B) There would be no particular order to the fossils. (C) Older rocks would have fewer modern species than younger strata. (D) Complex organisms would appear in the deepest sediments. (E) None of the above.
7. The weakness of the hypothetico-deductive method in explaining how science is really done is that it (A) neglects the role that experiments have (B) neglects the role that predictions play (C) neglects the roles that other scientists have (D) neglects the law of parsimony (E) under values the importance of historical sciences like geology. 2
8. The usage of Charles Lyell’s geological data as evidence in support of Darwin’s evolution hypothesis illustrates (A) Occam’s razor (B) consilience (C) inductive reasoning (D) testable hypothesis (E) the hypothetico-deductive method
9. Which of the following groups is considered to be the most immediate ancestor of reptiles, including the flying reptiles such as pterodactyls? (A) Archaeopteryx (B) fish (C) amphibians D) dinosaurs (E) scaly anteaters
10. How many heart chambers should we expect that fossil whales had? (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four (E) five
11. Radioactive dating puts the age of the earth at (A) 6,000 years ago (B) 10,000 years ago (C) 28 million years ago (D) 13.7 billion years ago (E) none of the above
12. What kind of fossil is used to claim that living organisms lived on earth at least 3.8 billion years ago? (A) permineralized fossil (B) carbon film fossil (C) cast of a fossil (D) trace fossil (E) chemical fossil.
13. Darwin and Lamarck’s views of evolution primarily differed in regard to (A) change over time (B) acquired characteristics (C) that natural selection was involved (D) genes were the factors that determined variability (E) new species were formed over time
14. A radioactive element has a half-life of 15,000 years. The fossil containing the radioactive element started with 100 grams, but it has decayed to just 9.0 grams. Approximately how old is the fossil? (A) 30,300 years (B) 45,000 years (C) 52,500 (D) 60,600 (E) None of the above
15. The prime reason that the hair of a tarantula and the hair of a cat cannot be homologous is that they do (A) not have exactly the same external structure (B) they do not have exactly the same internal anatomy (C) they are not derived from the same embryonic tissue (D) they do not function exactly in the same way (E) their common ancestor didn’t possess hair.
16. What is the least important indicator that two traits are homologous? (A) They are anatomically similar (B) They exhibit the same embryology (C) They perform the same function (D) They have a recent common ancestor with the same trait.
17. Which of the following would not be found in a eubacterium but would be found in an eukaryote? (A) Goli body (B) circular chromosome (C) messenger RNA (D) plasma membrane (E) cell wall
18. Which of the following is not an eukaryote? (A) mushroom (B) green algae (C) sponge (D) protist (E) all are eukaryotes
19. What factor is present in the embryology of the whale that demonstrates Haeckel’s idea of Ontogeny Recapitulates Phylogeny? (A) Their ears are specialized for underwater hearing. (B) Their nostrils shift from the nose to the top of the head (C) They breathe air even though they live underwater. (D) Whales have hair when they are embryos but as adults they do not. (E) Answers B and D are both correct 3
20. Which of the following would be absent in prokaryotes? (A) thyamine (B) chlorophyll (C) uracil (D) plasmids (E) all would be present
21. Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygote? A) Tt x Tt (B) ttmm x TtMm ( C) tt x Tt (D) ttmm x TTMM (E) none of the above
22. In humans pointed eyebrows are dominant to smooth eyebrows and widow's peak (downward pointed frontal hairline) is dominant to continuous hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both genes and an individual homozygous recessive for both genes? (A) 9:3:3:1 (B) 9:3:4 (C) 9:7 (D) 1:1:1:1 (E) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
23. A species of lizard has a single gene that controls whether the tail of the lizard will be red or green. Red is the dominant trait. If a homozygous red tailed lizard is crossed with a heterozygous lizard what would be the theoretical percentage of the offspring that would have a green tail? (A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50% (D) 25% (E) 0%
24. Which of the following pairs of crosses results in the same phenotypic ratios? (A)Aa x Aa and AA x aa (B) AA x aa and AA x Aa (C) AA x Aa and Aa x aa (D)AA x aA and aa x aa (E) None of the above
25. Which of the following statements about recombination are not true? (A) Recombination events can occur anywhere along the DNA molecule. (B) Recombination does not occur between non-sister chromatids. (C) Precision in the exchange- no gain or loss of nucleotide pairs-prevents mutations from occurring during the process. (D) Homologs physically break, exchanging parts, and rejoin.
26. Suppose this breeding combination occurred: RrYy x rryy. And suppose RY are linked together & ry are linked together. Which mating combinations would NOT be possible if RY were linked & ry were linked? (A) rryy (B) RrYy (C) RRyy (D) All are possible (E) none of the above 4
27. Each of our chromosomes are composed of two chromatids joined by a centromere. (A) These chromatids make up a diploid chromosome. (B) The cell that contains these sister chromatids must be diploid. (C) The sister chromatids were formed by replicating a single chromatid. (D) The sister chromatids were joined by fertilization, bringing together a maternal and paternal chromatid.
28. What happens after Meiosis I? (A) Four cells have been produced. (B) The cells are haploid.(C) The DNA will be replicated once more. (D) The cells are ready to perform as gametes. (E) Each chromosome consists of a single strand of DNA.
29. Positively charged subunits around which the DNA helix is wrapped are known as: (A) Histones (B) Kinetochores (C) Nucleoli (D)Telomerases (E) Centomeres
30. Which statement about mitosis is not true? (A) A single nucleus gives rise to two identical daughter cells (B) The daughter nuclei are generally identical to the parent nucleus (C) the centromeres separate at the onset of anaphase. (D) Homologous chromosomes synapse in prophase (E) The centrosomes organize the microtubules of the spindle fibers
31. Which statement is true about cytokinesis? (A) In animals a cell plate is formed (B) In plants, it is initiated by furrowing of the membrane (C) It follows mitosis (D) In plant cells, actin and myosin play an important role (E) It is the division of the membrane
32. The number of daughter chromosmomes in a human cell in anaphase II of meiosis is (A) 2 (B) 23 (C) 46 (D) 69 (E) 92
33. Mendel’s law of segregation ultimately allowed the rejection of the prevailing hypothesis of heredity that Flemming Jenkin used to criticize Darwin’s ideas of evolution. Which hypothesis was this? (A) Linked genes do not segregate independently (B) Blending hypothesis (C) Evolution by Acquired Characteristics (D) Catastrophe hypothesis (E) Particulate Theory
34. Which of the following is not a difference between RNA and DNA? (A) RNA has uracil and DNA has thymine (B) RNA has ribose and DNA has desoxyribose (C) RNA has five 5
bases and DNA has four (D) RNA is a single strand polynucleotide and DNA is a double strand (E) RNA molecules are smaller than chromosomal DNA molecules
35. In the double helix of DNA, what belongs on the complimentary DNA strand opposite cytosine? (A) thyamine (B) adenine (C) cytosine (D) guanine (E) uracil
36. Which statement about RNA is not true? (A) Transfer RNA functions in translation (B) Ribosomal RNA functions in translation (C) RNAs are produced by transcription (D) Messenger RNAs are produced on ribosomes (E) DNA codes for mRNA, tRNA and rRNA.
37. Linked genes (A) must be immediately adjacent to one another on a chromosome (B) have alleles that assort independently of one another (C) never show crossing over (D) are on the same chromosome (E) always have multiple alleles
38.A species of bird that resides in continental United States flew over to Hawaii. This is an example of: (A) Active immigration and dispersal (B) Active immigration and Vicariance (C) Passive Immigration and dispersal (D) Passive Immigration and Vicariance (E) Vicariance and dispersal
39.Which of the following supports the hypothesis that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes? (A) Eukaryotes are smaller and simpler than prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes have flagella which prokaryotes lack (C) Prokaryotes have a complex nuclear membrane (D) Eukaryotes have chlorophyll which prokaryotes lack. (E) Prokaryotes are smaller and lack the membranous organelles that eukaryotes possess.
40. Why are the chromosome numbers in animals usually even numbers? (A) because they received one haploid set from each parent (B) because mitosis could not proceed with odd numbers (C) because meiosis could not proceed with odd numbers (D) because the chromatids are always double (E) none of the above
41. “Intelligence” and skin color are two examples of continuous variation in humans, whereas in Mendel’s pea plants the purple allele was dominant over the white with no intermediates. Which is the best explanation for the differences described above? (A) The seeds coding for intermediate flower color are aborted within the seed pod and thus never develop (B) The seeds coding for intermediate flower color have deleterious alleles that prevent them from germinating (C) These variations in human are affected by lack of dominance in the alleles that control these traits (D) Humans are more advanced than pea plants, so the genetics of peas is much simpler that in humans (E) Many genes rather than one gene for a characteristic control some variations in species
42. When two alleles are both functional proteins this is an example of (A) co-dominance (B) incomplete dominance (C) multiple alleles (D) polygene inheritance (E) epistasis
43..Which two organelles are most similar in function? (A) chloroplast and vacuole 6
(B) mitochondria and ER (C) ribosomes and Golgi (D) lysosomes and cell wall (E) chloroplast and mitochondria 44 .Imagine we draw a phylogenetic tree based upon DNA sequences. Which of the following pairs of organisms would be placed most closely together? (A) Swordfish and a starfish (B) whale and a hippopotamus (C) Archaeopteryx and a robin (D) the green algae Chara australis and Chara longifolia (E) the bats Tadarida brasiliensis and Megaerops brasiliensis
45. In which part of the flower are cells formed which are analogous to the mammalian sperm? (A) anther (B) pistil (C) carpel (D) antheridium (E) ovule
46. According to the hypothetico-deductive method which of the following is the correct procedure? (A) 1 - formulation of question, 2 - experimentation, 3 hypothesis, 4 - observation, 5 - conclusion (B) 1 - observation, 2 - formulation of question, 3 - hypothesis, 4 - experimentation, 5 - theory (C) 1 - theory, 2 - formulation of question, 3 - hypothesis, 4 - experimentation, accumulation of data (D) 1 - observation, 2 - formulation of question, 3 - hypothesis, 4 - experimentation, 5 - conclusion (E) 1 - conclusion, 2 - observation 3 - hypothesis, 4 - control, 5 - formulation of question
47. Here is a tree showing the evolution of circle, square, and triangle traits. The shapes indicate the traits and the numbers (1-4) indicate common ancestors. Which trait displays apomorphy? A) circle B) square C) triangle D) none of the above
48.Where is the most recent common ancestor of A and E? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
49.Who is the closest living ancestor to organism B? (A) organism C; (B) organism D; (C) organism A; (D) organisms C and D; (E) all organisms are equally closely related to each other as they are all on the same time line. 7
50.Which organism is considered to be to be the most recent common ancestor to species A and C? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
51. The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is represented by (A) RNADNAProtein (B) ProteinLipidsCarbohydrates (C) RNADNALipids (D) DNARNAProtein (E) DNARNAEnzyme.