BDS Ist YEAR EXAMINATION 2008-09 s2

Supplementary MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2013-14

Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: S314103

General Medicine - II

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support your answer. Part ‘B’ 1. Write down the etiopathogenesis,clinical features and management of Parkinson’s disease. (8)

2. Write down the clinical features and management of Rheumatoid arthritis. (8)

3. Write short notes on: (3x3=9) a) Scabies b) Obsessive Compulsive disorder c) Lepra reactions

Part ‘C’

1. Write down the etiology, clinical features and management of community acquired pneumonia. (8)

2. Write short notes on: (3x4=12) a) Bone abnormalities in chronic kidney disease b) Nephrotic syndrome c) MDR Tuberculosis d) Treatment of acute severe asthma

Supplementary MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2013-14

Roll No. Student’s Name

Student’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: S314103 General Medicine - II Part ‘A’ Time: 30 Minutes Max Marks: 15 Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes. 2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed. 3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

Q.1 Cystic fibrosis is: Q.7 Empirical drug of choice for acute bacterial a) Autosomal recessive meningitis in an immunocompetent adult is: b) Autosomal dominant a) Ciprofloxacin b) Amoxicillin c) X linked c) Ceftriaxone d) Gentamicin d) None of the above Q.8 Perpheral neuropathy may be associated with Q.2 Which of the following is not a risk factor for exposure to: COPD: a) Lead a) Smoking b) Mercury b) Occupational exposure c) Arsenic c) Atopy d) All of the above d) Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency Q.9 All of the following are used in the treatment of Q.3 The investigation of choice to diagnose myasthenia gravis except: pulmonary embolism from among the following a) Streptomycin is: b) Mycophenolate a) Chest X-ray c) Steroids b) Echocardiography d) Pyridostigmine c) CECT scan chest d) D-dimer assay Q.10 Which of the following is not an antidepressant: a) Duloxitine Q.4 Pink puffers is a term associated with: b) Clomipramine a) Bronchitis b) Emphysema c) Clonezapam c) Both d) None d) Doxepin

Q.5 All are transudative pleural effusions except: Q.11 Which is not a feature of panic attack: a) Cirrhosis a) Palpitations b) Nephrotic syndrome b) Sweating c) Sarcoidosis c) Chest pain d) CHF d) Heat intolerance Q.6 Normal protein levels in CSF may be seen in which of the following: Q.12 Which is not a cause of acute kidney injury: a) Tubercular meningitis a) Diabetes b) Sepsis b) Viral meningitis c) Diarrhoea d) Drugs c) Bacterial meningitis d) None of the above P.T.O. Q.13 Membranous glomerunephritis may be b) Physical exhaustion associated with all of the following except: a) Hepatitis B c) Flickering lights b) Hepatitis C d) All of the above c) Hepatitis A d) None of the above Q.23 First line drug for partial seizures is: a) Topiramate Q.14 Clubbing is seen in: b) Carbamazepine a) Asthma b) Pneumonia c) Clobazam c) Lung abscess d) Pleural effusion d) Phenobarbitone

Q.15 Which is not a feature of nephrotic syndrome: Q.24 All are causes of chorea except: a) Proteinuria a) Pregnancy b) Hypotension. b) Parkinson’s disease c) Edema c) Huntington’s disease d) Hypercholesterolemia d) Rheumatic fever

Q.16 The CSF finding in Guillain Barre syndrome: Q.25 All are features of raised intracranial tension a) Elevated protein except: b) Reduced protein a) Vomiting c) Elevated glucose b) Bradycardia d) Reduced glucose c) Hypotension d) Papillodema Q.17 Berger’s disease is: a) Lupus nephritis Q.26 The autoantibody specific for SLE is: b) RPGN a) Antihistone c) IgA nephropathy b) Antinuclear d) Membranous glomerunephritis c) Anti-Sm d) Anti- RNP Q.18 Pellagra is caused by deficiency of: a) Pyridoxine b) Niacin Q.27 Which is not a feature of Felty’s syndrome: c) Folate d) Thiamine a) Neutropenia b) Thrombocytopenia Q.19 Orange colored urine is a side effect of: c) Rheumatoid arthritis a) INH d) Spenomegaly b) Pyrizinamide c) Ethambutol Q.28 Which of the following is increased in asthma: d) Rifampicin a) FEV1 b) FEV1/FVC ratio Q.20 Tinea versicolor is caused by: c) PEF a) Candida albicans d) None of the above b) Trichophyton c) Malassezia furfur Q.29 The most common etiologic agent for d) Trichophyton species uncomplicated cystitis is: a) Staph aureus b) E coli Q.21 All of the following are risk factors for c) Kliebsiella d) Proteus ischemic stroke except: a) Diabetes Q.30 All of the following can be used in the b) Smoking treatment of acne vulgaris except: c) Polycythemia a) Benzoyl peroxide d) Iron deficiency anemia b) Salicylic acid c) Coal tar Q.22 Trigger factors for seizures are: d) Retinoic acid a) Sleep deprivation