PIB Biology EOCT Review

SB1. Students will analyze the nature of the relationships between structures and functions in living cells. a. Explain the role of cell organelles for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, including the cell membrane, in maintaining homeostasis and cell reproduction. b. Explain how enzymes function as catalysts. c. Identify the function of the four major macromolecules (i.e., carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids). d. Explain the impact of water on life processes (i.e., osmosis, diffusion). 1. Identify the cell type pictured below. ANIMAL &/or EUKARYOTIC

2. Identify the structure labeled “5” in the diagram above. NUCLEOLUS 3. Identify the structure labeled “G” in the diagram below. CHLOROPLAST 4. Which ratio limits the size of cells? B A. The rate of metabolism to mass B. The surface area to volume C. The mass to volume D. The surface area to mass

5. What are organelles? C A. Small structures in the cytoplasm of a cell that all have more than one function. B. Membrane-bound structures found near the nucleus of all cells. C. Discrete structures found inside all eukaryotic cells that have specific functions. D. Specialized cells inside an organ that have one function.

6. Which organelles have a transport function? B A. Ribosome & Golgi apparatus B. Golgi apparatus & endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion & endoplasmic reticulum D. Mitochondrion & ribosome

7. In viewing an electron micrograph of a cell, ribosomes, pili and a single circular chromosome are observed. What other structure is likely to be present? D A. The rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria C. A nuclear membrane D. A plasmid

8. What describes the functions of the following organelles? D

Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmatic reticulum A. Synthesis of proteins for cell secretion ATP production B. ATP production Synthesis of proteins for cell secretion C. Synthesis of proteins for cell secretion Processing of proteins D. Processing of proteins Synthesis of proteins for cell secretion

9. Give the function of each cell structure listed below. Note: some structures belong to prokaryotes and some to eukaryotes.

 Vacuole TEMPORARY STORAGE AREA FOR FOOD, WASTES, ENZYMES, ETC

 Golgi apparatus MODIFIES, SORTS, & PACKAGES PROTEINS

 Nucleolus MANUFACTURES RIBOSOMES  Plasma Membrane HOLDS CELL TOGETHER AND CONTROLS WHAT ENTERS AND EXITS

 Pili ATTACH BACTERIA T OSURFACES AND ACT AS BRIDGE BETWEEN CELLS

 Flagella LOCOMOTION

 Lysosome DIGESTS OLD CELL PARTS

 Nucleoid CONTAINS LARGE CIRCULAR CHROMOSOMES IN PROKARYOTES

10. Without ribosomes, which macromolecule cannot be produced? ______PROTEINS______

11. Cell membrane is another name for which cell structure? ___ PLASMA MEMBRANE____

12. How would the structure of a bacterial cell be different from the structure of the plant cell? Circle all that apply.

Plant cell lacks a nucleus. Only plant cells have cell walls.

Only bacteria have ribosomes. Only plant cells have genetic material.

Only bacterial cells have a nucleoid. Bacterial cell walls have peptidoglycan

13. Which of the following words describes salivary amylase? Circle all that apply

Enzyme Carbohydrate Lipid

Nucleic acid Sugar Protein

14. Which macromolecule helps insulate organisms in the kingdom Animalia? _LIPIDS______

15. What do maltose and galactose have in common? ____BOTH ARE SUGARS______

16. Complete the table below.

Name of Carbohydrate Protein Lipid Nucleic Acid macromolecule

TRANSPORT STORE ENERGY SUBSTANCES, SPEED SOTRE AND Functions REACTIONS, PROVIDE STORE ENERGY, COMMUNICATE of the macromolecule STRUCTURAL INSULATE GENETIC INFO SUPPORT, AND MAKE HORMONES

Elements in the C, H, O IN THIS C, H, O, N C, H C, N, O, P, H macromolecule PROPORTION: (CH2O)n

Monomers making up FATTY ACIDS AND MONOSACHARRIDES AMINO ACIDS NUCLEOTIDES the macromolecule GGLYCEROLS 17. Identify each of the following macromolecules as carbohydrate, protein, lipid, or nucleic acid.

CARBOHYDRATE

A chain of:

NUCLEIC ACID LIPID

PROTEIN

Line A

Line B

18. The graph above represents the progress of a reaction with an enzyme and the same reaction without an enzyme. Which line above represents a reaction that involved an enzyme? _____B______19. How do enzymes catalyze reactions? ____BY LOWERING ACTIVATION ENERGY______

20. The names of enzymes end in what suffix? ____ASE______

21. Pancreatic lipase catalyzes the breakdown of lipids. Describe what happens to the pancreatic lipase after it catalyzes the breakdown of a single lipid. IT IS RELEASED & CAN CATALYZE REACTIONS AGAIN & AGAIN

22. The image below represents the enzyme madeupase. Label the active site of madeupase. Circle the substrate with which madeupase will bind to form an enzyme-substrate complex.

Madeupase

Substrate B: ACTIVE SITE 23. The enzyme salivary amylase speeds up the break down sugars in humans. Describe what will happen to the salivary amylase and its ability to catalyze the breakdown of sugars if it is heated in the oven to a temperature of 300°F. ENZYME DENATURES, CHANGING SHAPE OF ACTIVE SITE AND MAKING IT UNABLE TO CATALYZE REACTIONS BECAUSE CAN’T BIND WITH SUBSTRATE ANYMORE 24. If salivary amylase prefers a pH of 7.0, describe what will happen to the enzyme and its ability to catalyze the breakdown of sugar if it is placed in an environment with a pH of 2. ENZYME DENATURES, CHANGING SHAPE OF ACTIVE SITE AND MAKING IT UNABLE TO CATALYZE REACTIONS BECAUSE CAN’T BIND WITH SUBSTRATE ANYMORE 25. List four factors that can affect enzymatic activity. TEMPERATURE, pH, ACTIVATORS, INHIBITORS

26. Draw a water molecule in the space below. Label each atom and write the formula for water. Identify atoms that are slightly positive with a “+” and atoms that are slightly negative with a “-“.

27. Why is water called the universal solvent? DISSOLVES MANY SUBSTANCES 28. Circle the words below the describe properties of water.

Polar Its oxygen acts positive Nonpolar

Adhesion Contains carbon Hydrophobic

Cohesion Its hydrogen acts positive More dense as a solid

29. What property of water allows water molecules stick together to form droplets? _COHESION___ 30. Water in a graduated cylinder will be slightly higher near the edges of the cylinder and lower in the center, as seen in the image below. What property of water is responsible for this phenomenon? __ ADHESION ___ 31. Identify each solution as hypertonic, hypotonic, or isotonic and indicate the direction of the net movement of water.

ISOTONIC HYPOTONIC HYPERTONIC NO NET MOVEMENT WATER MOVES IN WATER MOVES OUT 32. An animal cell shrivels after being placed in a solution overnight. Into what type of solution was the cell placed? ____ HYPERTONIC ______33. In diffusion, solutes move from areas of HIGH concentration to areas of LOW concentration.

34. Where do transcription and translation occur in eukaryotic cells? C

Transcription Translation A. Ribosome Ribosome B. Ribosome Mitochondria C. Nucleus Ribosome D. Nucleus Nucleus 35. Which substance is a base found in RNA? D A. Ribose B. Thymine C. Adenosine D. Uracil

36. What type of bond holds the complementary base pairs together in a double helix of DNA? D A. Covalent bonds B. Peptide bonds C. Glycosidic bonds D. Hydrogen bonds

37. During the process of translation which of the following statements describes the relationship between nucleic acids? B A. Anticodons on mRNA bind to complementary codons on DNA. B. Anticodons on tRNA bind to complementary codons on mRNA. C. Bases on DNA bind to complementary bases on mRNA. D. A single strand of mRNA is produced from the DNA in the nucleus. 38. Identify the enzyme that catalyzes the unwinding of DNA during the production of mRNA. RNA POLYMERASE: has its own helicase activity whereas DNA polymerase requires a separate helicase. 39. How many nucleotide bases are required to code for a single amino acid? ____3______

40. During the process of replication, which bond(s) in the diagram of DNA below is/are broken? B

A. 3 B. 4, 5 C. 1, 2, 6, 7 D. 1, 7, 4, 5 41. Identify the component part of DNA labeled “J” in the diagram below. PHOSPHATE J

42. Which of the following is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis? B

a. Interphase is present only in mitosis.

b. Homologous chromosomes associate only in meiosis. c. DNA replication occurs only in mitosis.

d. Sister chromatids separate only in meiosis.

43. During which stage of the mitotic cell cycle is DNA replicated? C

a. Prophase

b. Metaphase

c. Interphase

d. Cytokinesis

44. Which one of the following occurs during mitosis? D

a. Homologous chromosomes synapse. b. Crossing-over takes place between homologous chromosomes. c. Chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid. d. Cells genetically identical to the parental cell are produced.

45. When do homologous chromosomes pair up? C

a. Mitosis

b. Meiosis II

c. Meiosis I

d. Meiosis I and meiosis II

46. Investigation of a daughter cell that has just completed meiosis II shows that the cell has 8 chromosomes. What

is the cell’s haploid number? ___8______

47. How many times does DNA replication occur during meiosis? ______1______

48. A muscle cell in your leg divides. What type of cell division takes place? _____MITOSIS______

49. Sister chromatids have just lined up at the equator. What phase of meiosis will follow this phase? ANAPHASE II

50. What phase of meiosis is shown in the picture below? METAPHASE I 51. Read the list of organisms below and use it to answer the question that follows. C Dolphin Dogwood tree Human immunodeficiency virus

E. coli bacteria Hippopotamus Marigold

A cell plate would form during cytokinesis in which of the organisms listed above? a. None of the organisms

b. Only one of the organisms listed

c. Only two of the organisms listed

d. Only three of the organisms listed

52. A man has blood type AB, and his wife has blood type B. They have two children, one with type B blood and another with Type A blood. Is the man the father of the children? Explain. YES, IF THE WOMAN’S GENOTYPE IS IBiO 53. What can you conclude about the children of mothers affected with an X-linked recessive trait? D

A. If the mother has an X-linked recessive trait, none of the children will have the trait.

B. If the mother has an X-linked recessive trait, all of the children will have the trait.

C. If the mother has an X-linked recessive trait, females will have the trait but males will only have the trait if their father also has the trait.

D. If the mother has an X-linked recessive trait, males will have the trait, but females will only have the trait if their father also has the trait.

54. A woman is a known carrier of the sex linked trait hemophilia. What is her genotype? C

A. XhY

B. XHXH

C. XHXh

D. XhXh

55. In wampa wampa lizards, polka dot skin (P) is dominant to striped skin (p). What is the genotype of a heterozygous polka dot lizard? ______Pp ______What is the phenotype of a lizard that is homozygous recessive for skin pattern? _____ STRIPED______

56. The gene controlling dimples is dominant to the gene for no dimples. If a female without dimples has a child with a man that is heterozygous for the trait, what is the likelihood that the child will be dimpled? Express your answer as a percent. __50%______

57. The pedigree below shows the trait of handedness. Right handedness is dominant to left handedness. Using upper and lowercase R to denote the genotype of handedness, what is the genotype of individual III-6? Rr 58. Why do Okazaki fragments form during DNA replication? BECAUSE REPLICATION IS DISCONTINUOUS ON THE LAGGING STRAND BECAUSE COPYING HAS TO STOP WHILE THE DNA UNWINDS.

59. Label the 3’ and 5’ ends of the DNA molecule below based on the information provided.

3’ 5’

5’ 3’

60. Why is DNA replication described as semiconservative? HALF OF EACH ORIGINAL DNA IS IN EACH NEW DAUGHTER DNA

61. Nucleotides are to nucleic acids as ___ AMINO ACIDS______are to proteins.

62. Circle the possible DNA base sequences from the list below. Underline the possible RNA sequences from the list below. ACGTTA GUGACC AAACGC

63. Identify the following: Number of bases per codon: _3______Number of amino acids: __20_

Number of bases in DNA: ___4____ Number of bases in RNA: ___4

Number of start codons: ____1___ Number of stop codons: __3____

64. In what direction does transcription occur? 3’ TO 5’

65. In what direction does DNA replication occur? 3’ TO 5’

66. Determine the amino acids coded for by the following DNA segment: T T A G A C T A G A C T

ASPARAGINE LEUCINE ISOLEUCINE STOP

67. Explain the base pairing rule as it applies to DNA and to RNA. IN DNA, ADENINE PAIRS WITH THYAMINE AND CYTOSINE PAIRS WITH GUANINE; IN RNA, ADENINE PAIRS WITH URACIL AND CYTOSINE PAIRS WITH GUANINE

68. Where does DNA replication occur? ____ NUCLEUS______

69. Crohn’s disease is the result of an extra nucleotide base that has been added to its DNA. Name this mutation. ______INSERTION FRAMESHIFT______

70. Explain each of the following mutations:

 Point __ ONE BASE REPLACES ANOTHER______

 Deletion __ ONE BASE IS REMOVED ______

71. Sickle cell anemia is caused by the replacement of a single base in the nucleotide sequence that codes for a particular protein. Name and describe this mutation. AMISSENSE POINT MUTATION - CHANGES A SINGLE AMINO ACID 72. Explain how mutations may be beneficial to an organism. ANEW COMBINATIONS OF BASES MAY LEAD TO BENEFICIAL TRAITS 73. What is nondisjunction? _failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis

74. What type of mutation is responsible for Down Syndrome? NONDISJUNCTION__

75. What do mutagenic factors do to DNA? change a gene or chromosome resulting in a new trait or characteristic that can be inherited 76. List two mutagenic factors. RADIATION, CHEMICALS, OR MORE SPECIFIC ANSWERSRELATED TO THE TWO. 77. What did the human genome project accomplish? _MAPPED THE ENTIRE HUMANE GENOME_ 78. How many times does DNA replication occur within each mitotic cell cycle? ___1______During each meiotic

division? ___1______During what phase of the cell cycle do these replications occur? _INTERPHASE__

79. When two cells with n number of chromosomes fuse, what type of cell results? _DIPLOID OR 2n______80. Circle all that apply to mitosis: Produces 4 daughter cells Telophase II Forms eggs or sperm Prokaryotic cells Daughter cells identical Eukaryotic cells Produces 2 daughter cells Anaphase 81. What is synapsis and when does it occur? when homologous chromosomes attach to one another and crossing over may occur. Happens in Prophase I 82. Explains what happens during crossing over. ____ Genetic material is exchanged ______

83. During which phase of meiosis does each of the following events occur? _____telophase I & II______cytokinesis results in formation of haploid cells ______METAPHASE II______sister chromatids line up at the equator ______ANAPHASE I______homologous chromosomes separate and move toward opposite poles

84. Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment. RANDOM DISTRIBUTION OF ALLELES OCCURS DURING MEIOSIS 85. Cricket color is determined by two alleles. A true breeding red cricket is mated with a true breeding yellow cricket. All offspring are red and yellow striped. Explain the results. CODOMINANCE RESULTS IN THE EXPRESSION OF BOTH TRAITS. 86. Pheromone scent in the smelly cat is determined by two alleles. A caramel scented smelly cat is mated with an apple scented smelly cat. All offspring smell like caramel apple, which blends the two heavenly aromas. Explain the results. INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE RESULTS IN EXPRESSION OF A BLEND OF THE TWO TRAITS. 87. If two caramel apple scented cats are mated, what is the likelihood that their offspring will smell like caramel only? 25% 88. Use the following information to construct a punnett square and predict the genotypic and phenotypic ratios from a cross between a homozygous recessive parent and a parent that is homozygous for pointy ears but heterozygous for orange ears. er er er er Dominate allele for orange ears = E Recessive allele for blue ears = e Er Eerr Eerr Eerr Eerr Dominate allele for round ears = R Recessive allele for pointy ears = r Er Eerr Eerr Eerr Eerr

er eerr eerr eerr eerr eerr eerr eerr eerr 1 Eerr : 1 eerr er 1 orange pointy ears: 1 blue pointy ears

89. Which of Mendel’s laws explains why the two alleles for the same trait separate during meiosis? SEGREGATION

Use the pedigree below to answer question 90.

90. Is it possible that this pedigree is for an X-linked recessive trait? Explain your answer. NO – FOR THE DAUGHTER TO HAVE IT THE FATHER WOULD ALSO HAVE TO HAVE IT.

91. When are dominant genetic disorders expressed? Anytime a dominant allele is present

92. When are recessive genetic disorders expressed? ONLY WHEN 2 RECESSIVE ALLELES ARE PRESENT 93. During the process of translation which of the following statements describes the relationship between nucleic acids? A. Anticodons on mRNA bind to complementary codons on DNA. B. Anticodons on tRNA bind to complementary codons on mRNA. C. Bases on DNA bind to complementary bases on mRNA. D. A single strand of mRNA is produced from the DNA in the nucleus.

94. Amino acids are to protein as ___ NUCLEOTIDES ______are to nucleic acids. 95. Identify the enzymes that catalyze the following:

 Joining of DNA segments during replication ___DNA LIGASE______

 Addition of nucleotides during the production of mRNA _RNA POLYMERASE______

 Unwinding of DNA during the production of mRNA __RNA POLYMERASE –

96. Complete the table below.

DNA RNA Name of the sugar it DEOXYRIBOSE RIBOSE contains Purine bases ADENINE AND GUANINE ADENINE AND GUANINE Location in eukaryotic NUCLEUS NUCLEUS, CYTOPLASM cells Number of strands 2 1

97. A nonviolent crime has been committed, and the crime scene investigators have produced the evidence below from a single speck of blood collected at the scene. How did they produce the evidence shown, and how can they use it to solve the crime?

 POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION AND GEL ELECTROPHORESUS

 COMPARE DNA FROM THE SCENE TO THAT OF SUSPECTS

98. Name two types of frameshift mutations. _INSERTION & DELETION

99. True of False: Certain chemicals and forms of radiation are mutagenic factors. TRUE

100. True of False: All mutagenic factors are bad. FALSE

101. A researcher found that a particular mutation had no effect on the protein coded by a gene. What is the most likely type of mutation in this gene? _SILENT______

102. A DNA sequence that codes for a particular protein is 93 nucleotides long. If a frameshift mutation occurs at the 17th base, how many amino acids in this protein will be correct? 5

103. How many amino acids are changed by a nonsense mutation? __1______104. Write the balanced equation for photosynthesis in the space below.

6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) C6H12O6 + 6O2

105. Photosynthesis has two stages: light dependent and light independent. During which stage does the production of glucose take place? _INDEPENDENT______

106. During which stage of photosynthesis is water broken down? _DEPENDENT______

107. During which stage of photosynthesis is light absorbed? ___DEPENDENT______

108. Label the thylakoid, grana and stroma in the drawing below. STROMA

GRANA THYLAKOID

109. Where do the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place? _THYLAKOIDS______

110. Where do the light independent reactions of photosynthesis take place? _STROMA______

111. What are the main light absorbing pigments of photosynthesis? CHLOROPHYLL A AND B

112. Write the balanced equation for cellular respiration in the space below.

C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H20 + ATP

113. Aerobic cellular respiration has three stages. List these stages in order:

__GLYCOLYSIS___ → ___KREB’S CYCLE______→ _____ELECTRON TRANSPORT _

114. During which stage of aerobic respiration does the production of carbon dioxide take place? _____KREB’S CYCLE______

115. During which stage of aerobic respiration does the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate take place? ____GLYCOLYSIS______

116. During which stage of aerobic respiration is the most ATP produced? __ELECTRON TRANSPORT_

117. During which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced? ___ELECTRON TRANSPORT

118. As electrons move through the electron transport chain, there must be a final electron acceptor. What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration? __OXYGEN______

119. In the absence of oxygen, what type of cellular respiration could take place? __ANAEROBIC______

120. Besides oxygen requirements, how are aerobic and anaerobic respiration different? AEROBIC PRODUCES MORE ATP 121. List the products of alcohol fermentation. ____ETHANOL AND CARBON DIOXIDE 122. Is it more efficient to break down glucose using aerobic or anaerobic respiration? Explain. ______AEROBIC BC PRODUCES MORE ATP______

123. How do aerobic cellular respiration and photosynthesis form a cycle? PRODUCTS OF ONE ARE THE REACTANTS OF THE OTHER

124. The two organisms below exchange gases with their environment. Identify the main gas being given off by each organism and the biological process responsible for producing the gas.

Organism: Saguaro Cactus Organism: Rattlesnake

Gas released: __OXYGEN_____ Gas released: CARBON DIOXIDE

Process producing gas: PHOTOSYNTHESIS Process producing gas: CELL RESPIRATION

125. Label the organelles and processes in the diagram below.

This IS VERY CONFUSING DIAGRAM INCLUDED BC IT is This process is PHOTOSYNTHESIS ON A 9th grade CDA. IGNORE IT IF IT CONFUSES YOU 

This is a CHLOROPLAST

This is a MITOCHONDRION

This process is CELL RESPIRATION

126. List the 8 characteristics of living things.

1. __made of cells_____ 5. _____RESPOND TO STILMULI_

2. ___DISPLAYS ORGANIZATION____ 6. ______REQUIRE ENERGY_____

3. _____GROW AND DEVELOP____ 7. ___MAINTAINS HOMEOSTASIS

4. ______REPRODUCES______8. ADAPTATIONS EVOLVE OVER TIME 127. How many of the 8 characteristics of living things must an organism have to be considered living? _8____ 128. True or False: Viruses are living things. FALSE 129. What is the lytic cycle? _FORM OF VIRAL REPORDUCTION WITHOUT A LATENCY PERIOD 130. What is the lysogenic cycle? FORM OF VIRAL REPORDUCTION WITH A DORMANCY PERIOD 131. Circle the image or images below that can show a pathogen that can be successfully treated with antibiotics. 132. Describe how bacteria reproduce. _BINARY FISSION______

133. List the taxa of living organisms from largest to smallest ___DOMAIN – KINGDOM – PHYLUM – CLASS – ORDER – FAMILY – GENUS – SPECIES 134. If two organisms belong to the same class, do they always belong to the same phylum? __YES______

135. If two organisms belong to the same family, do they always belong to the same genus? ____NO____

136. Place the organisms described below in the correct domain and kingdom:

Domain Kingdom

Heterotroph with cell walls of chitin EUKARYA FUNGI

Unicellular autotroph that lives in ARCHAEA ARCHAEBACTERIA near an ocean thermal vent

Multicellular organism without cell EUKARYA ANIMALIA walls

Unicellular autotroph with cellulose EUKARYA PROTISTA cell walls

137. Circle the italicized word or words that correctly complete the following sentence: According to the biological species concept, if two organisms can successfully interbreed they must be considered the same / different species.

138. Name one advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction. NEW COMBINATIONS OF DNA CAN RESULT

139. What is a niche? __ROLE OF AN ORGANISM IN ITS ENVIRONMENT

140. Which of the following organizational levels is least inclusive? Organism Community Biome

Population Ecosystem Biosphere 141. All of the insects, rabbits, birds, snakes, lizards, field mice, grasses and fungi living in a particular field and the soil nutrients, amount of sunlight, and temperature of the area make up which level of biological organization? __ECOSYSTEM______

142. Catfish can be found in both Grace Lake and in Fred’s Pond. The two ponds are connected by a small stream. Are these catfish members of the same population? Explain your answer. YES BECAUSE THEY CAN INTERBREED

143. Which biome receives the most rainfall? _TROPICAL RAINFOREST 144. True or false: Permafrost is a feature of the tundra. TRUE 145. In which biome(s) are grasses the dominant type of vegetation? TROPICAL A SAVANNAH AND TEMPERATE GRASSLAND

146. Describe the similarities and differences between temperate deciduous forests and boreal forests. Both: ____HAVE TREES__ but only __BOREAL FORESTS RETAIN THEIR LEAVES YEAR ROUND ___ 147. True or false: All deserts are hot and dry. FALSE 148. Name one similarity between the tundra and desert biomes. __BOTH HAVE LOW RAINFALL

149. In which of the following biome pairs would you expect to find the most similar plants and animals?

Explain your answer.

Oceans & Rivers Wetlands & Ponds Coral Reefs & Lakes

_BOTH ARE FRESHWATER BIOMES ______

150. What is the most diverse land biome? __TROPICAL RAINFOREST

151. Some biomes have relatively consistent temperatures year round. Which two biomes experience the least

temperature fluctuations? ____TROPICAL RAINFOREST AND TROPICAL SEASONAL FOREST 152. Nutrition questions:

Are detritivores producers? __NO______Do detritivores eat autotrophs? ____YES______

Do herbivores eat autotrophs? _YES______Do omnivores eat consumers? __YES______

Do carnivores eat producers? ___NO______what do autotrophs eat? ______NOTHING______

Do decomposers eat producers? Why or why not? NO – THEY BREAK THEM DOWN BY RELEASING DIGESTIVE ENZYMES

153. Circle the strictly heterotrophic organisms in the list below.

Omnivores Carnivores Herbivores

Autotrophs Detritivores Decomposers

154. Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts with the help of the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria. In what type of organisms would you expect to find both processes occurring in those organelles? _ PLANT ______155. Herbivores and carnivores are alike in that NEITHER IS AUTOTROPHIC or BOTH ARE

HETEROTROPHIC, but different because ____ HERBIVORES EAT PLANTS AND CARNIVORES

EAT MEAT / OTHER ANIMALS OR INSECTS 156. Two organisms interact with one another in such a way that one benefits and the other is harmed, but

neither eats the other. What is the name for this relationship? __ PARASITISM______

157. True or False: A biome includes both biotic and abiotic factors. TRUE

158. True or False: All symbiotic relationships harm at least one organism in the interaction. FALSE

159. Read the statements and answer the question below.

 Drought, fire, and hooved animals are important in maintaining the dominant vegetation of the temperate deciduous forest.  Permanently frozen subsoil is present in two terrestrial biomes.  The main type of vegetation found in the temperate forest loses its leaves seasonally.

Which answer choice best describes the statements above? B A. None of the statements is true. B. Only one of the statements is true. C. Only two of the statements are true. D. All of the statements are true. 165. Select the italicized word that best completes the sentence: An organism’s niche includes only / both its nutrition and habitat.

166. In an energy pyramid, approximately how much of the energy available in trophic level 1 is passed to trophic level 2? ___ 10% ______

167. How is an ecosystem different from a community? ____ ONLY ECOSYSTEMS INCLUDE ABIOTIC FACTORS ______

168. Place the following levels of biological organization in order from least inclusive (smallest) to most inclusive (largest): ecosystem, population, biome. ___ POPULATION, ECOSYSTEM, BIOME

169. How many species of organisms live in a population? __ 1______

170. How many of the earth’s biomes are included in the biosphere? _ ALL OF THEM______171. Barnacles often attach themselves to whales. When whales travel, the barnacles get access to nutrient rich waters and sometimes the bits of food that are left behind by the whale, which the barnacle may eat. The whale is not harmed by the barnacle, but it also does not benefit. What type of relationship exists between the barnacle and whale? ____ COMMENSALISM ______

172. Through what process does atmospheric nitrogen become usable by a plant? NITROGEN FIXATION

173. If you drew a food web for the organisms described in the paragraph that follows, how many organisms could be classified as primary consumers? __ 2 ___ Secondary consumers? ___ 3 __

The main type of vegetation in Hogan’s Meadow is grass. In the early spring, lovely yellow daffodils are seen in bloom. The meadow voles and brown rats that live in the meadow eat grass and the bulbs of daffodils. Shrews enjoy eating nice juicy meadow voles. Brown rats have also been seen eating meadow voles on occasion. Barn owls will feast on any of the meadow’s rodents, including meadow voles, shrews, and brown rats. 174. List the following biomes in order from the least amount of average annual precipitation to the greatest amount of average annual precipitation: tundra, tropical rain forest, tropical savanna. ______TUNDRA, TROPICAL SAVANNA, TROPICAL RAINFOREST

175. Describe the relationship between butterflies and deer. _ COMPETITION/COMPETITORS

176. Identify the heterotrophs in the food web. EVERYTHING EXCEPT BERRIES, FLOWERS, GRASSES, AND SEEDS 177. Identify the carnivores in the food web. GRIZZLY BEAR, GROUSE, RED-TAILED HAWK 178. List one similarity between the detritivores (identified as detrivores) and the grizzly bear in this food web. BOTH ARE HETEROTROPHS, BOTH CONSUME BERRRIES AND FLOWERS AND DEER, ETC. 179. Write a sentence about the marmot in the food web using the words autotroph and herbivore. The marmot is a herbivore, consuming autotrophs. OR SIMILAR 180. Circle the italicized word that fits the situation described in each sentence, and complete the sentence with the name of a tropism. a. Plant roots grow down because of negative / positive__ GRAVITROPISM ______. b. Plant shoots grow toward the sunlight because of negative / positive___ PHOTOTROPISM _. c. Morning glories twist around vertical surfaces such as poles an fences because of negative / positive_ THIGMOTROPISM______. 181. Create a cladogram for the following organisms: Shark, Bullfrog, Human, Kangaroo.

182. What theory explains how mitochondria and chloroplasts came to exist as organelles? ENDOSYMBIOTIC THEORY 183. How did prokaryotes contribute to the creation of an oxygen rich atmosphere? THRU PHOTOSYNTHESIS 184. Explain the Miller Urey experiments in terms of what they did, results, and conclusions.

 RECREATED CONDITIONS BELIEVED TO HAVE EXISTED ON EARTH BEFORE LIFE BEGAN  PRODUCED ORGANIC COMPOUNDS INCLUDING AMINO ACIDS  CONCLUSION: ORGANIC COMPOUNDS COULD HAVE FORMED SPONTANEOULSY ON EARTH (NOT THAT LIFE COULD HAVE!) 185. A species of organism has three legs. That particular trait does not appear in fossils of their ancestors. What type of traits are they? _ DERIVED ______If the feature did appear in their ancestors, how would the trait be described. ______ANCESTRAL ______186. Define and give one example of a homologous structure. SIMILAR STRUCTURES From a common ancestor but NOT NECESSARILY WITH A COMMON FUNCTION; PENDACTYL LIMBS IN VERTEBRATES 187. Whales have both a pelvic bone, which is the attachment point for legs, but no legs. This makes the pelvic bone of a whale a __ VESTIGIAL______structure. 188. Describe convergent evolution and give one example. WHEN ORGANISMS THAT ARE NOT CLOSELY RELATED BECOME MORE AND MORE SIMLIAR; ECHIDNA, PORCUPINES AND HEDGEHOGS 189. Describe divergent evolution and give one example. WHEN ORGANISMS THAT ARE RELATED BECOME MORE AND MORE DISSIMILAR; KIT FOX & RED FOX OR PENDACTLY LIMBS OF VERTEBRATES 190. According to Lamarck, orangutans needed longer arms to more easily swing from trees, so they grew longer arms and then passed the trait of longer arms on to their offspring. What is the name of the evolutionary theory that explains this? The Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics 191. List the four main points of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.  More organisms are produced than can survive, which leads to COMPETITION OVER RESOURCES  Individuals within a population vary, and some of the traits they possess are heritable.  Some variations are favorable and increase chances for survival and reproduction. Other variations are unfavorable.  Better adapted individuals survive and reproduce. 192. Discuss the two most prominent theories on the pace of evolution.  GRADUALISM (EVOLUTION OCCURS GRADUALLY)  PUNCTUATED EQUILIBRIUM (PERIODS OF EVOLUTINARY STABILITY ARE PUNCTUATED BY PERIODS OF RELATIVELY RAPID CHANGE)