BUS520 Week 11 Final Exam 1 and 2

BUS520Week 11 Final Exam 1 and 2

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Question 1

According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in ______is sensitive to people’s feelings and tries to make things pleasant for the followers.

• Question 2

______make(s) a leader’s influence either unnecessary or redundant in that they replace a leader’s influence.

• Question 3

According to the path-goal leadership theory, a manager is showing a participative leadership style when he/she ______.

• Question 4

According to ______approaches, individual behavior is constructed in context, as people act and interact in situations.

• Question 5

Meindl referred to the phenomenon whereby people attribute almost magical qualities to leadership as ______.

• Question 6 The ______that are driving organizations of all types and sizes can be found in organization-environment relationships, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations.

• Question 7

The decision to construct a new overseas plant can be considered to be a(n) ______.

• Question 8

Which of the following, refers to altruistic love?

• Question 9

______is intentional and occurs as a result of specific efforts by a change agent.

• Question 10

Another name for incremental change is ______.

• Question 11

To begin understanding an organization’s culture, it is often easiest to start with ______.

• Question 12

To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational ______.

• Question 13

The issues concerned with ______are tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.

• Question 14 Which step in the innovation process focuses on establishing an idea’s potential value and application?

• Question 15

Which step in the innovation process focuses on identifying an idea’s anticipated costs and benefits?

• Question 16

While ______may clearly indicate who reports to whom, it is also important to recognize that they do not show how work is done, who exercises the most power over specific issues, or how the firm will respond to its environment.

• Question 17

______methods of coordination produce synergy by promoting dialogue, discussion, innovation, creativity, and learning, both within and across organizational units.

• Question 18

Direct contact between organization members is a(n) ______method of coordination.

• Question 19

Executives, managers, and supervisors are hierarchically connected through the ______, which is a listing of who reports to whom up and down the firm.

• Question 20

The ______type of bureaucracy emphasizes vertical specialization and control with impersonal coordination and a heavy reliance on standardization, formalization, rules, policies, and procedures.

• Question 21 ______refers to the ability to change.

• Question 22

The three technology classifications that were described by James D. Thompson are ______.

• Question 23

Environmental ______refers to the magnitude of the problems and opportunities in the organization’s environment, as evidenced by three main factors: the degree of richness, the degree of interdependence, and the degree of uncertainty stemming from both the general and the specific environments.

• Question 24

Information technology has spawned a whole new series of corporations called ______.

Answer

Selected Answer: e-businesses

• Question 25

______is the possession of a repertoire of roles and the ability to selectively apply them.

• Question 1

When teams accomplish more than the total of their individual members’ capabilities, ______occurs.

• Question 2

Most self-managing teams include between ______members. • Question 3

______teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task.

• Question 4

A(n) ______team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

• Question 5

The team decision technique of ______asks everyone to respond individually and in writing to a basic question such as: “What should be done to improve the effectiveness of this work team?”

• Question 6 ______occurs when too much is expected and the individual feels overwhelmed with work.

• Question 7

Wheel communication network and chain communication network are other names for ______.

• Question 8

______occurs when different people send conflicting and mutually exclusive expectations.

• Question 9

KPMG’s practice that focuses on helping executives identify threats to their firm and manage them is known as ______. • Question 10

A form of selective perception, the ______involves seeking only those cues in a situation that support a preexisting opinion.

• Question 11

The ______model views decision makers as acting in a world of complete certainty.

• Question 12

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”

• Question 13

Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have ______that restrict their information-processing capabilities.

• Question 14

The negotiating pitfall of ______occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down once the demands have been stated.

• Question 15

______commonly involves supervisor-subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results.

• Question 16

______most commonly occurs in the context of the competition and rivalry that characterize firms operating the same markets.

• Question 17 Two important goals must be considered in negotiation. These goals are ______.

• Question 18

The success of international business practices such as outsourcing often rests with the quality of ______.

• Question 19

______work well for more routine and straightforward messages, such as announcing the location of a previously scheduled meeting.

• Question 20

The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in ______.

• Question 21

______is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.

• Question 22

The issue of ______is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory.

• Question 23

Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people ______.

• Question 24

The ______is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization.

• Question 25

With respect to political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve formal staff units that have special expertise. The ______characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated when the members of a team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or look forward to working together again at some future point in time. Answer

member satisfaction

team endurance

team excellence

team viability

team changeability

A(n) ______team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability. Answer

functional

serviceable

operative

effective

practical

Self-managed teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate ______. Answer

a firm’s staff functions

the line employees

the top management team

the CEO

the first-line supervisors

When people work less hard in teams than they would individually, ______occurs. Answer

social slacking

organizational shirking

individual loafing

organizational evading

social loafing

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group? Answer

Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.

Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.

Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.

Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams

Which of the following sequences accurately describes the order of the stages of team development? Answer

Introduction, growth, settling-in, maturation, and dismissal

Start-up, growth, leveling-off, settling-in, and disbanding

Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning

Launch, growth, leveling-off, maturing, and decline

Introduction, orientation, settling-in, maturation, and decline

______is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a team and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness. Answer

Team enhancing

Team building

Team structuring

Team championing

Team organizing

Researchers point out that collective intelligence is ______in teams whose processes result in social sensitivity and absence of domination by one or a few members. Answer

higher

a constant

nonexistent

In the ______, team building takes place during off-site meetings. Answer

formal retreat approach

informal withdrawal approach

privacy approach

informal isolation approach

formal seclusion approach

In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with ______performance norms and ______team cohesiveness. Answer

high; high

positive; high

negative; high

negative; low

positive; low

Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are ______. Answer

passive, aggressive, and regressive

focused, unfocused, and mid-focused

tough battler, friendly helper, and objective thinker

primal, emotional, and rational

thoughtful, aggressive, and modal

______is a “logically perfect” group decision making method because all team members agree totally on a course of action. Answer

Consensus

Unanimity

Majority rule

Minority rule

Lack of response

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?” Answer

Intuition

Escalating commitment

Bounded rationality

Non-programmed Decision-Making

Satisficing

A decision is exposed to public scrutiny and forces decision-makers to consider it in the context of full transparency with the use of ______. Answer

rational decision-making

spotlight questions

satisficing

moral dilemmas

criteria questions

The process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity is ______. Answer

selection making

decision shaping

decision-making

judgment resolution

judgment generation

______, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making. Answer

Intuition

Attitudinal formation

Judgment

Perceiving

Sensing

A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is ______. Answer

discernment

unrestrained rationality

recognition

intuition

assimilation

The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the ______environment. Answer

certain

expectant

uncertain

statutory

______goals deal with outcomes that relate to the “content” issues under negotiation. Answer

Relationship

Substance

Object

Discretionary

Material

______negotiation occurs when substance issues are resolved and working relationships are maintained or even improved. Answer

Effective

Decisive

Collaborative

Conclusive

Efficient

______is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues. Answer

Leniency

Suppression

Neglect

Avoidance

Tolerance

In ______negotiation, the manager is involved in negotiation with other persons, with each party representing a broader constituency. Answer

intergroup

constituency

two-party

intragroup

______negotiation focuses on positions staked out or declared by the parties involved who are each trying to claim certain portions of the available pie. Answer

Integrative

Distributive

Good-faith

Consolidating

Process

______distributive negotiation takes place when one party is willing to make concessions to the other to get things over with. Answer

Indirect

Hard distributive

Direct distributive

Integrative

Soft distributive

______negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it. Answer

Integrative

Distributive

Good-faith

Consolidating

Process

______occurs when an individual feels his self-worth is being questioned. Answer

Transparency

Defensiveness

Flaming

Proxemics

Disconfirmation

Because communication is frequently biased when flowing upward, subordinates may ______. Answer

only communicate with their bosses only when they have to.

use email as a means to communicate with their bosses.

communicate to their bosses only in writing.

filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear.

tell their bosses everything they know about a subject.

Because of their efficiency, ______are frequently used in work settings. Answer

three-way communications

two-way communications

one-way communications

group communications

individual communications

The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to ______. Answer

geographic differences

language differences

religious differences

lifestyle differences

ethnic differences

______is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view. Answer

Self-preservation

Self-centeredness

Ethnocentrism

Individual affirmation

Personal protection.

Which strategy for exercising relational influence can be described as “using the exchange of benefits as a basis for negotiation?” Answer

Assertiveness

Sanctions

Bargaining

Reason

Coalition

Which one of the following strategies for exercising relational influence can be defined as “using a direct and forceful personal approach?” Answer

Assertiveness

Reason

Coalition

Sanctions

Higher authority

Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people ______. Answer

learn from personal failures

obey the commands of an authority figure

are willing to use coercive power to gain influence

are motivated by financial rewards

are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

• Question 1

______teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task.

• Question 2

Most self-managing teams include between ______members.

• Question 3

Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called ______.

• Question 4

Members of ______can solve problems with a positive combination of functional expertise and integrative or total systems thinking.

• Question 5

A team member contributes ______leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action.

• Question 6

Decision by ______occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation.

• Question 7 In coping with the challenge of entering a team, ______are individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions.

• Question 8

Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are ______.

• Question 9

The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the ______environment.

• Question 10

______are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions.

• Question 11

______decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand.

• Question 12

In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others.

• Question 13

The ______model accepts the notion of bounded rationality and suggests that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

• Question 14 Use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize ______and promote more creative and efficient operations.

• Question 15

Negotiations can break down because of a(n) ______problem, wherein the parties don’t really talk to one another, at least not in the sense of making themselves truly understood.

• Question 16

______involves interpersonal difficulties that arise over feelings of anger, mistrust, dislike, fear, resentment, and the like.

• Question 17

______negotiation takes place when each party holds out to get its own way.

• Question 18

______is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.

• Question 19

In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that ______.

• Question 20

The primary emphasis of supportive communication is to avoid ______.

• Question 21

The flow of messages at the same levels across organizations is known as ______. • Question 22

______is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work teams and other creative worker involvement groups.

• Question 23

When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to ______it.

• Question 24

In building on the Machiavellian tradition, managers are often considered ______when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits.

• Question 25

According to the Machiavellian tradition, ______is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means.

• Question 1

Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called ______.

• Question 2

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group? • Question 3

______teams have members who are very similar to one another.

• Question 4

When voting is required in problem solving teams, ______.

• Question 5

A team member contributes ______leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action.

• Question 6

4 out of 4 points

In the ______, team building takes place during off-site meetings.

• Question 7

Decision by ______occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation.

• Question 8

The ______to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations.

• Question 9

______can lead to systematic errors that affect the quality, and perhaps ethical implications, of any decision that is made.

• Question 10 A decision maker holds a meeting to get everyone’s agreement on a system for deciding how to make a lunch schedule. This is an example of a(n) ______decision method.

• Question 11

In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others.

• Question 12

______decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand.

• Question 13

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”

• Question 14

______negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it.

• Question 15

______conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations is unclear or upsetting in some way, such as a team member receiving different expectations from the leader and other members.

• Question 16

______occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level.

• Question 17

______is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues. • Question 18

The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to ______.

• Question 19

In all interpersonal communication, it is important to understand the sources of ______that can easily cause problems in the communication process.

• Question 20

Grapevines have the advantage of ______.• Question 21

The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in ______.

• Question 22

According to the Machiavellian tradition, ______is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means.

• Question 23

Political ______links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.

• Question 24 The ______is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization.

• Question 25

The issue of ______is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory.

A manager who withholds positive outcomes, such as special assignments or bonuses, as a means for controlling the behavior of employees is using which type of power? Answer

Legitimate power

Expert power

Coercive power

Process power

Reward power

In the context of political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve organizational units that have the right to evaluate the actions of others after action has been taken. Answer

workflow

approval

service

advisory

auditing

The ______assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes. Answer

behavioral perspective

trait perspective

contingency perspective

contemporary perspective

psychological perspective

When using the leadership grid, results are plotted on a nine-position grid that places concern for ______on the vertical axis and concern for ______on the horizontal axis. Answer

structure; performance

people; production

task orientation;human relations

initiating structure; consideration

financial performance; people

The ______to studying leadership sought to identify important differences between leaders and non-leaders. Answer

behavioral approach

methodical approach

contingency approach

scientific approach

great person-trait approach

Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with ______to predict leader or organizational outcomes. Answer

industry experience

educational background

leadership experience

situational contingencies

Which of the following leadership theories has it roots in the expectancy model of motivation? Answer

Attribution theory

Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory

House’s path-goal theory

Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theory

Fiedler’s contingency theory

Context 4, ______, is a transition zone poised between order and chaos. Here, the system must rapidly adjust while maintaining sufficient stability to learn. Answer

near the edge of chaos

middle of the road

on the fence

the performance gap

______is often viewed as something that must be overcome in order for change to be successful. Answer

Political maneuvering

Power sharing

Forced coercion

Resistance to change

Rational persuasion

______is often used in combination with vertical leadership. Answer

Power negotiation

Organizational goal setting

Shared leadership

Teamwork

Individual leadership

People respond to a(n) ______change strategy mainly out of the fear of being punished if they do not comply with a change directive or out of the desire to gain a reward if they do. Answer

unilateral effort

force-coercion

rational persuasion

shared-power

hierarchical control

______is a direct response to someone’s perception of a performance gap –– a discrepancy between the desired and actual state of affairs. Answer

Unplanned change

Arranged change

Contingency change

Statutory change

Planned change

Organizational ______often specify/ies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system. Answer

vision and mission

culture

strategy

design

communication

Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of ______. Answer

terminology

jargon

patter

phrasing

In a business setting, a firm’s system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the company and guides the behavior of its members is called its ______. Answer

institutional culture

corporate culture

indigenous culture

bureaucratic culture

domestic culture

Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing? Answer

Idea creation

Initial experimentation

Test and retest

Feasibility determination

Final application

“What precisely needs to be accomplished, and how can it be done?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of ______. Answer

external adaptation

internal integration

institutional adaptation

systematic integration

structural adaptatio

Whether part of a formal work unit, a temporary task force, or a virtual team, the group itself passes through a series of ______. Answer

decision-making steps

life cycle stages

cultural transformations

entrepreneurial ventures

environmental challenges

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group? Answer

Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.

Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.

Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.

Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams. Chapter 7: Teams in Organizations

True/False

1. Scholars note that the same heart surgeons have lower death rates for similar procedures when performed in hospitals where they do more operations.

Ans: Page: 146 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Teams and Teamwork

2. The catchwords for an effective team are empowerment, participation, and diversity.

Ans: Page: 147 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams

3. A team is a small group of people with complementary skills, who work actively together to achieve a common purpose for which they hold themselves collectively accountable.

Ans: Page: 147 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: Teams and Teamwork

4. Teams that recommend things consist of people with formal responsibility for leading other groups. Ans: Page: 147 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: What Teams Do

5. Teams that recommend things typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

Ans: Page: 147 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

6. Teams that run things may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

7. Teams that make or do things are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks such as marketing departments.

8. The head of a formal group serves a linchpin role that ties the group horizontally and vertically with the rest of the organization.

Page: 148

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams

9. Temporary work groups often appear on organizational charts as departments, divisions, and teams.

Page: 148

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams 10. Cross-functional teams, or task forces, are created for special problem-solving efforts.

Page: 149

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

11. Informal teams have the potential to speed up the workflow by enabling people to assist each other in ways that formal lines of authority fail to provide.

Page: 148

Level: Easy

12. The informal structures and their embedded social relationships that are active in an organization are identified by social network analysis.

Page: 148

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

13. Cross-functional teams bring together persons from different organizations and industries to work on a common task.

Ans: Page: 149 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

14. The functional silos problem occurs when members of functional units focus on external issues and do not focus to a sufficient degree on their own areas of responsibility.

15. Virtual teams have members who convene and work together electronically via computers.

Page: 151

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Virtual Teams 16. Employee involvement teams describe a wide variety of teams whose members meet regularly to collectively examine important workplace issues.

17. Employee involvement teams discuss ways to enhance product or service quality, better satisfy customers, improve productivity, and enhance the quality of work life.

Ans: Pages: 149-150 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

18. A quality circle is a small group of persons who meet periodically to discuss problems relating to quality, productivity, or cost, and to develop solutions for them.

19. Virtual teams are ones whose members meet at least part of the time electronically and with computer support.

Ans: Page: 151 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams

20. A potential advantage of virtual teams is that members have very little, if any, direct personal contact.

Ans: Pages: 151-152 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams

21. A potential advantage of virtual teams is that computer mediation focuses interaction and decision making on facts and objective information rather than on emotional considerations.

Ans: Page: 151 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams

22. Self-managing teams are small groups that are empowered to make the decisions needed to manage themselves on a day-to-day basis.

Ans: Page: 150 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams 23. Self-managing teams are also known as self-directed teams.

Ans: Page: 150 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

24. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on establishing strategy and providing resources to achieve it.

Ans: Page: 150 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

25. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on selecting new team members, training them for job skills, and evaluating performance.

Ans: Page: 150 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

26. Self-managing teams differ from the more traditional work group in that team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Ans: Page: 150 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams 27. Multiskilling occurs when team members are trained in performing more than one job on the team.

Ans: Page: 151 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

28. The potential benefits of self-managing teams include productivity and quality improvements, production flexibility, and faster response to technological change, but not reduced absenteeism and turnover or improved work attitudes and quality of work life.

29. Self-managing teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate the first-line supervisors.

30. An effective group is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability. Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter.

Section Reference: Criteria of an Effective Team

31. The member satisfaction criterion of group effectiveness means that members are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or to look forward to working together again in the future.

Page: 152

Level: Medium

32. The team viability criterion of group effectiveness refers to groups with members who believe that their participation and experiences are positive and meet important personal needs.

Page: 152 Level: Medium

33. Synergy is the creation of a whole that is greater than the sum of its parts.

Page: 153

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Synergy and Team Benefits

34. Social loafing, also known as the “Ringlemann effect,” occurs when people work less hard in a group than they would individually.

Page: 153

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems 35. The performance advantages of teams over individuals are most evident in three situations: 1) when there is no clear “expert” for a particular task, 2) when the problems are complex and require a division of labor, and 3) when a riskier decision need be made.

Page: 153

Level: Medium

36. Research shows that teams tend to make less risky decisions than individuals.

Page: 153

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Synergy and Team Benefits 37. Ringlemann identified two reasons why people may not work as hard in groups as they would individually: (a) their individual contributions are less noticeable in the context of a group; and (b) group goals are often less well defined than individual goals.

Page: 153

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems

38. In general, social facilitation theory indicates that working in the presence of others creates an emotional arousal or excitement that stimulates behavior and therefore affects performance.

Page: 153

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Social Facilitation

39. A team member might withdraw or tend toward social loafing when asked to do something he/she isn’t very good at.

Ans: Page: 155

Level: Easy

40. Formal work units, but not temporary task forces or virtual teams, pass through a series of life cycle stages.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.

Section Reference: Stages of Team Development

41. The five stages of team development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

Page: 156

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning. Section Reference: Stages of Team Development

42. In the storming stage of team development, members are interested in getting to know each other and discovering what is considered acceptable behavior, in determining the real task of the team, and in defining team rules.

Page: 156

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Storming Stage

43. The storming stage of team development is a period of high emotionality and tension among the team members.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Storming Stage 44. During the norming stage of team development, coalitions or cliques may form as individuals compete to impose their preferences on the team and to achieve a desired status position.

Page: 157

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Norming Stage

45. In the norming stage of team development, the group really begins to come together as a coordinated unit.

Page: 157

Level: Easy

46. In the norming stage of team development, holding the team together may become more important to some members than working on the team’s tasks. Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Difficult

47. The norming stage of the team development process is sometimes called “total integration.”

Page: 157

Level: Difficult

48. The willingness of a team to disband when the job is done and to work well together in future responsibilities is an important long-run test of team success.

Page: 158

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning. Section Reference: Adjourning Stage

49. A study reported by Rutgers University professor Donald McCabe found that 86 percent of MBA students reported cheating by plagiarizing, downloading essays from the Web, and more.

Page: 159

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

Section Reference: Understanding Teams at Work

50. The technical demands of a task include relationships, ego involvement, controversies over ends and means, and the like.

Page: 160

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Nature of Team Task

51. Tasks that are complex in social demands require unique solutions and more information processing, whereas task that are complex in technical demands involve difficulties in reaching agreement on goals or methods for accomplishing them. Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult

52. CEO and founder of Amazon.com, Jeff Bezos’ simple rule when it comes to the size of a product development team is “No team should be larger than two pizzas can feed.”

Page: 160

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Team Size

53. The optimal size for teams is between five and seven members.

Page: 160

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work. Section Reference: Team Size

54. Members of a homogenous group vary with respect to age, gender, race, ethnicity, experience, culture, and similar characteristics.

Page: 162

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Diversity and Team Performance

55. FIRO-B theory suggests that groups whose members have compatible needs are likely to be more effective than groups whose members have incompatible needs.

Page: 162

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Membership Composition of a Team

56. Homogeneous teams have members who are similar with respect to such variables as age, gender, race, experience, ethnicity, and culture. Ans: Page: 162 Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

57. Members of homogeneous teams experience difficulty in building social relations and engaging in the interactions needed for teamwork.

Ans: Pages: 162-163 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

58. Heterogeneity may limit the team in terms of ideas, viewpoints, and creativity.

Ans: Page: 163 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

59. Heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other variables.

Ans: Pages: 162-163 Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

Section Reference: Diversity and Team Performance 60. Status congruence occurs when a person’s position within the group is equivalent in status to positions held outside of the group.

Page: 162

Level: Medium

61. The diversity-consensus dilemma is the tendency for diversity in groups to make working together more difficult, even though diversity itself expands the skills and perspectives available for problem solving.

Page: 163

Level: Medium

62. Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out. Ans: Pages: 162-163 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

63. Researchers have found that females score higher than males on social sensitivity.

Page: 163

Level: Easy

Multiple Choice

64. Team members and leaders can do all of the following to help their teams achieve high performance EXCEPT: a) putting personal talents to work. b) building disagreement so that the team gets multiple opinions. c) persuading others to cooperate d) accepting suggestions. e) communicating ideas.

Page: 146

Level: Medium

65. Teams that ______typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled. a) recommend things b) run things c) study things d) make or do things e) review things

66. Teams that ______may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives. a) review things b) recommend things c) run things d) evaluate things e) make or do things

67. Members of teams that ______must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time. a) plan things b) reengineer things c) recommend things d) make or do things e) review things

Page: 147

Level: Medium

68. Groups that form spontaneously through personal relationships or special interests, and not by any specific organizational endorsement, are called ______. a) informal groups b) virtual groups c) temporary groups d) interim groups e) ad hoc groups

Page: 148

Level: Medium

69. The potential benefits of informal groups include all of the following EXCEPT: a) informal groups have the potential to speed up the workflow. b) informal groups enable people to assist each other in ways that formal lines of authority fail to provide. c) informal groups enable members to establish important goals for the formal work unit. d) informal groups help individuals satisfy needs that are unmet in a formal group. e) informal groups can provide their members with social satisfaction, security, and a sense of belonging.

Page: 148

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams 70. ______consist of persons with natural affinities for one another, and who tend to work together, sit together, take breaks together, and even do things together outside of the workplace. a) Interest groups b) Affiliation groups c) Friendship groups d) Connection groups d) Familiarity groups

Page: 148

Level: Medium

71. ______teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task. a) Cross-functional b) Self-directed c) Virtual d) Self-managed e) Employee involvement

Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams 72. The ______occurs when members of functional units stay focused on matters internal to the function and minimize their interactions with members of other functions. a) limited perspective problem b) restriction of perspective problem c) functional niche problem d) functional silos problem e) limited vision problem

Page: 149

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

73. The ______is another name for the functional silos problem. a) individual unit problem. b) serviceable group problem c) functional chimney problem d) hyper-focused team problem e) exclusive over-assemblage problem

74. Members of ______can solve problems with a positive combination of functional expertise and integrative or total systems thinking. a) cross-functional teams b) self-directed teams c) cross-departmental teams d) virtual teams e) statutory teams

Page: 149

Level: Easy

75. Most self-managing teams include between ______members. a) 1 and 4 b) 5 and 15 c) 20 and 35 d) 50 and 65 e) 80 and 100

76. The potential advantages of virtual teams include all of the following EXCEPT: a) virtual teams bring cost effectiveness to teamwork where members are unable to meet easily face-to-face. b) virtual teams can bring speed to teamwork where members are unable to meet easily face-to- face. c) virtual teams bring the power of the computer to bear on typical team needs for information processing and decision making. d) virtual team members may have very little, if any, direct personal contact. e) computer mediation focuses interaction and decision making on facts and objective information rather than on emotional considerations.

Pages: 151-152

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams

77. Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called ______. a) project teams b) cybernetic teams c) virtual teams. d) implicit teams e) networked teams

Page: 151

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Virtual Teams

78. The term ______applies to a wide variety of teams whose members meet regularly to collectively examine important workplace issues. a) employee engagement team b) employee connection team c) employee participation team d) employee empowerment team e) employee involvement team

Pages: 149-150

Level: Medium

79. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on all of the following EXCEPT: a) establishing strategy and providing resources to achieve it. b) scheduling work and allocating tasks. c) training for job skills and evaluating performance. d) selecting new team members. e) controlling the quality of work.

80. Self-managing teams are also known as ______. a) virtual teams b) self-directed work teams c) task teams d) silo teams e) employee teams

Page: 150 Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

81. The potential benefits of self-managing teams include all of the following EXCEPT: a) productivity and quality improvements. b) production flexibility and faster response to technological change. c) reduced absenteeism and turnover. d) difficulty for some members to adjust to self-managing responsibilities. e) improved work attitudes and quality of work life.

Page: 151

Level: Easy

82. Self-managed teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate ______. a) a firm’s staff functions b) the line employees c) the top management team d) the CEO e) the first-line supervisors Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Medium

83. Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group? a) Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company. b) Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups. c) Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor. d) Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams. e) Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams.

Pages: 150-151

Level: Medium

84. To create a successful virtual team, managers should do which of the following? a) Select team members high in initiative b) Begin with social messaging c) Assign clear goals and roles d) Gather regular feedback from members e) Managers should do all of the above

Ans: Page: 151 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams

85. A(n) ______team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability. a) functional b) serviceable c) operative d) effective e) practical

Page: 152

Level: Easy

86. When a team achieves its performance goals regarding quantity, quality, and timeliness of work results, the ______characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated. a) task performance b) member satisfaction c) team viability d) team changeability e) team excellence

Page: 152

Level: Difficult

87. When a team’s members believe that their participation and experiences are positive and meet important personal needs, the ______characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated. a) task performance b) member commitment c) member satisfaction d) team viability e) team changeability

Page: 152

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Criteria of an Effective Team 88. The ______characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated when the members of a team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or look forward to working together again at some future point in time. a) member satisfaction b) team endurance c) team excellence d) team viability e) team changeability

Page: 152

Level: Medium

89. When teams accomplish more than the total of their individual members’ capabilities, ______occurs. a) exchange b) association c) synergy d) harmony e) union Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy

90. When people work less hard in teams than they would individually, ______occurs. a) social slacking b) organizational shirking c) individual loafing d) organizational evading e) social loafing

Page: 153

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems 91. The performance advantages of teams over individuals are most evident in all of the following cases EXCEPT: a) when a conservative decision is required. b) when there is no clear “expert” for a particular task. c) when problems are complex. d) when a division of labor is required. e) when a sharing of information is required.

Page: 153

Level: Medium

92. An example of social facilitation occurs when ______. a) a team achieves more together than they would have individually b) people work less hard in teams than they would individually c) an athlete performs in front of an enthusiastic hometown audience d) a lack of preparedness motivate a novice, nervous speaker to perform better e) people work together via computer networks

Pages: 154-155 Level: Medium

Section Reference: Social Facilitation

93. The study of social loafing by Price, Harrison, and Gavin designed natural teams consisting of ______. a) tug-of-war teams b) students working together in course study groups for a semester c) 150 mid-level managers d) representatives from 35 industries e) 12 virtual team members

Page: 155

Level: Easy

94. Whether part of a formal work unit, a temporary task force, or a virtual team, the group itself passes through a series of ______. a) decision-making steps b) life cycle stages c) cultural transformations d) entrepreneurial ventures e) environmental challenges

Page: 156

Level: Medium

95. Which of the following sequences accurately describes the order of the stages of team development? a) Introduction, growth, settling-in, maturation, and dismissal b) Start-up, growth, leveling-off, settling-in, and disbanding c) Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning d) Launch, growth, leveling-off, maturing, and decline e) Introduction, orientation, settling-in, maturation, and decline

Page: 156

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Stages of Team Development 96. The five stages of team development include all of the following EXCEPT: a) forming. b) norming. c) adjourning. d) journeying. e) storming.

Page: 156

Level: Medium

97. Which stage of team development has a primary concern with the initial entry of members to the team? a) Forming b) Storming c) Norming d) Performing e) Adjourning Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Forming Stage

98. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the forming stage of team development? a) Members are interested in getting to know each other. b) Members are interested in discovering what is considered acceptable behavior. c) Members are interested in maintaining the sense of harmony that has been established. d) Members are interested in determining the real task of the team. e) Members are interested in defining team rules.

Page: 156

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Forming Stage 99. During which stage of team development does hostility and infighting occur with the team typically experiencing many changes? a) Forming b) Storming c) Norming d) Performing e) Adjourning

Page: 156

Level: Easy

100. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the storming stage of team development? a) Hostility and infighting seldom occur. b) The team typically experiences many changes, and coalitions or cliques may form. c) Members’ expectations tend to be clarified, and attention shifts toward obstacles standing in the way of team goals. d) Individuals begin to understand one another’s interpersonal styles. e) Efforts are made to find ways to accomplish team goals while satisfying individual needs. Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium

101. During what stage of team development may a team member ask, “What can the group offer me? Can my needs be met at the same time that I contribute to the group? a) Storming b) Forming c) Performing d) Adjourning e) Norming

Page: 156

Level: Medium

102. Which stage of the team development process is sometimes called initial integration? a) Storming b) Forming c) Performing d) Adjourning e) Norming

Page: 157

Level: Medium

103. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the norming stage of team development? a) The turmoil of the preceding stage gives way to a precarious balancing of forces. b) Holding the team together may become more important to some members than working on the team’s tasks. c) Minority viewpoints, deviations from group directions, and criticism are welcomed as members experience a preliminary sense of closeness. d) Team members experience a new sense of harmony. e) Some team members may mistakenly perceive this stage as one of ultimate maturity.

Page: 157

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.

104. Which stage of the team development process is sometimes called total integration? a) Storming b) Forming c) Performing d) Adjourning e) Norming

Page: 157

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Performing Stage

105. The performing stage of team development is described by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) the team is able to deal with complex tasks and handle internal disagreements in creative ways. b) the team structure is unstable. c) members are motivated by team goals and are generally satisfied. d) the primary team challenges are continued efforts to improve relationships and performance. e) team members should be able to adapt successfully as opportunities and demands change over time.

Page: 157

Level: Medium

106. An immature group will have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) dysfunctional decision-making methods. b) flexible operating procedures. c) unclear communications. d) independent authority relations. e) low acceptance of minority views.

Page: 157

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Performing Stage 107. The final stage in the team development process is known as the ______stage. a) adjourning b) performing c) dismissal d) maturation e) disbanding

Page: 158

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Adjourning Stage

108. Which of the following is the correct equation for team effectiveness according to the open systems model of teams? a) Team effectiveness = Quality of inputs x (Process gains + Process losses) b) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs + (Process gains x Team inputs) c) Team effectiveness = Quality of inputs x (Process gains – Process losses) d) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs x (Process gains + Process losses) e) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs + (Process gains x Team inputs) Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Open Systems Model of Teams

109. Key team inputs include all of the following EXCEPT: a) the nature of the task. b) goals, rewards, and resources. c) team composition. d) member satisfaction. e) team size.

Page: 158

Level: Difficult

110. The open systems model of team effectiveness suggests that team effectiveness is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT: a) inputs. b) processes. c) “right players in the right seats”. d) “on the same bus, headed in the same direction”. e) task performance.

Page: 158

Level: Easy

111. All of the following are considered membership characteristics according to the open- systems model of team effectiveness EXCEPT: a) abilities. b) values. c) cohesiveness. d) personalities. e) diversity.

Page: 158

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work. Section Reference: Open Systems Model of Teams

112. Team performance can suffer when: a) goals are unclear. b) goals are too focused on individual-level accomplishments. c) resources are inefficient to accomplish the task. d) when goals are insufficiently challenging. e) All of the above.

Page: 159

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Team Resources and Setting

113. The ______of a team’s task include its routineness, difficulty, and information requirements. a) cognitive demands b) mechanical demands c) social demands d) technical demands e) psychological demands Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult

114. The ______of a team’s task involve relationships, ego involvement, controversies over means and ends, and the like. a) cognitive demands b) mechanical demands c) social demands d) technical demands e) psychological demands

Page: 160

Level: Difficult

115. Tasks that are complex in ______require unique solutions and more information processing than other tasks. a) cognitive demands b) mechanical demands c) social demands d) technical demands e) psychological demands

Page: 160

Level: Difficult

Reference: Foundations of Team Performance

116. Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of team member competencies on team performance? a) Talent alone can guarantee performance results. b) It is relatively easy to overcome the performance limitations imposed by insufficient skills and competencies for the task at hand. c) To achieve success, a team must have the right skills and competencies available for task performance. d) In homogeneous teams, members are very different and bring needed diversity in skill sets to the team. e) The difficulties of heterogeneity are especially pronounced in the long run.

Page: 161 Level: Difficult

117. A good size for problem-solving teams is ______. a) 1-2 b) 2-4 c) 4-5 d) 5-7 e) 8-10

Page: 160

Level: Medium

118. When voting is required in problem solving teams, ______. a) larger numbers of team members are preferred

b) smaller numbers of team members are preferred c) even numbers of team members are preferred d) odd numbers of team members are preferred e) the team leader should make the decision

Page: 160

Level: Easy

119. ______teams have members who are very similar to one another. a) Homogenous b) Heterogeneous c) Variant d) Variegated e) Conglomerate

Page: 162

Level: Easy

120. ______refers to a person’s relative rank, prestige, and standing in a group. a) Condition b) Standing c) Fullness d) Status e) Prominence

Page: 162

Level: Easy

121. The FIRO-B theory examines differences in how people relate to one another based on their needs to express and receive feelings of ______. a) inclusion, control, and affection b) status, control, and affiliation c) power, achievement, and control d) affection, nurturance, and affiliation e) status, achievement, and power

Page: 162

Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

122. The FIRO-B theory suggests that teams whose members have ______needs are likely to be more effective than teams whose members are more ______. a) compatible; incompatible b) incompatible; compatible c) diverse; similar d) technical; social e) social; technical

Page: 162

Level: Medium

123. Symptoms of team member incompatibility include all of the following EXCEPT: a) withdrawn members. b) open hostilities. c) status differences. d) struggles over control. e) domination of the group by a few members.

Page: 162

Level: Medium

124. Which of the following statements provides an accurate description of homogeneous teams? a) Homogeneous teams have members who are similar with respect to such variables as age, gender, race, experience, ethnicity, and culture. b) Members of homogeneous teams experience difficulty in building social relations and engaging in the interactions needed for teamwork. c) Homogeneity does not limit the team in terms of ideas, viewpoints, and creativity. d) Team members have diverse cultures and lifestyles. e) Members of homogeneous teams have different backgrounds and experience.

Ans: Pages: 162-163 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

125. As a team gets larger, all of the following things tend to happen EXCEPT: a) communication problems often set in. b) coordination of the team members becomes more difficult. c) satisfaction may dip. d) turnover and absenteeism decrease. e) social loafing may increase.

Page: 160

Level: Easy

126. Researchers have identified the tendency for increasing diversity among team members to create difficulties even as it offers improved potential for problem solving is known as the ______. a) positive-negative dilemma b) enhancement-enactment dilemma c) upside-downside dilemma d) good news-bad news dilemma e) diversity-consensus dilemma

Page: 163

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Diversity and Team Performance 127. ______is the ability of a team to perform well across a range of tasks. a) Collective intelligence b) Emotional intelligence c) Reliability intelligence d) Generalized ability intelligence e) None of the above.

Page: 163

Level: Medium

Fill in the blank

128. A(n) ______is a group of people brought together to use their complementary skill to achieve a common purpose for which they are collectively accountable.

129. ______occurs when group members actively work together in ways such that all their respective skills are well utilized to achieve a common purpose.

130. ______are established to study specific problems and recommend solutions to them.

Ans: Page: 147 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

131. ______consist of people with the formal responsibility for leading other teams.

132. ______are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks, such as marketing or manufacturing. Ans: Page: 147 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

133. In a sense, functional department or work units can create artificial boundaries that discourage rather than encourage more integrative thinking and active coordination with other parts of an organization. This organizational problem is called ______.

Ans: Page: 149 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

134. A(n) ______is set up to deal with a specific problem or opportunity.

Ans: Page: 149 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

135. ______are ones whose members meet at least part of the time electronically and with computer support.

Page: 151

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Virtual Teams 136. A(n) ______is a small group of persons who meet periodically to discuss problems relating to quality, productivity, or cost, and to develop solutions for them.

Page: 150

Level: Medium

137. ______are small teams empowered to make the decisions needed to manage themselves on a day-to-day basis.

Page: 150

Level: Easy

138. ______occurs when team members are trained to perform more than one job on the team.

Page: 151

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations. Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams 139. With regard to ______, the members of an effective team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an on-going basis and/or to look forward to working together again at some future point in time.

Page: 152

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter. Section Reference: Criteria of an Effective Team

140. The creation of a whole that is greater than the sum of its parts is known as ______.

Page: 153

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter. Section Reference: Synergy and Team Benefits

141. Max Ringelmann’s findings that people may not work as hard in groups because their individual contributions are less noticeable in the group context are known as ______.

Page: 153

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter. Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems

142. In the ______stage of team development, members are interested in: getting to know each other, discovering what is considered acceptable behavior, determining the real task of the group, and defining team rules.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

143. The ______stage of team development is a period of high emotionality and tension among the team members.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Storming Stage 144. During the ______stage of team development, coalitions or cliques may form as individuals compete to impose their preferences on the group and to achieve a desired status position.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

145. The ______stage of team development is the point at which the team really begins to come together as a coordinated unit.

Page: 156

Level: Easy

146. The ______stage of team development marks the emergence of a mature, organized, and well-functioning team. Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium

147. The ______stage of team development is especially important for the many temporary teams that are increasingly common in the new workplace.

Page: 158

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Adjourning Stage

148. ______teams have members who vary in age, gender, race, ethnicity, experience, and culture.

Page: 162

Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

149. ______occurs when a person’s position within the group is equivalent in status to positions held outside of the group.

Page: 162

Level: Medium

150. The ______is the tendency for increasing diversity among team members to make it harder for them to work together, even though the diversity itself offers improved potential for problem solving.

Page: 163

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Diversity and Team Performance Essay

151. What is a team? What are the three types of teams in organizations?

Page: 147

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Teams and Teamwork Section Reference: What Teams Do

152. Describe the concept of social loafing. Why does social loafing occur? What can be done to avoid social loafing in the workplace?

Page: 153

Level: Medium

153. Identify the five stages of team development and explain what happens at each stage.

Pages: 156-158

Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.

154. What is the FIRO-B theory? What are its implications for teams?

Page: 162

Level: Difficult

155. Discuss the diversity-consensus dilemma.

Page: 163

Level: Medium

Schermerhorn OB 12e

Chapter Number: 08 Question Type: True/False

1. An essential criterion of a true team is that the members feel “collectively accountable” for what they accomplish.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

2. High-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.

Answer:

3. Members of high-performance teams have the right mix of technical, problem-solving, decision-making, and interpersonal skills.

Answer:

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams 4. High-performance teams have strong core values that help the team members guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

Answer:

5. High-performance teams’ members focus on individual effort and excellence.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

6. Teamwork usually happens naturally in a group, without much effort on the part of members and leaders.

Answer:

7. Specific objectives provide a clear focus for solving problems and resolving conflicts.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

8. Team building is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a group and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness.

Answer:

9. Team building is an effective way to deal with teamwork difficulties when they occur or to help prevent them from occurring in the first place.

Answer:

10. The first step in the team-building process is data gathering and analysis.

Answer:

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams 11. The second step in the team-building process occurs when members work together in planning for team improvements.

Answer:

12. The last step in the team-building process occurs when members work together to evaluate the results.

Answer:

13. The team building process is highly collaborative.

Answer:

14. Team building in the formal retreat approach takes place in the firm’s headquarters facility, typically over a weekend, when the building is quiet.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

15. The formal retreat approach to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations.

Answer:

16. The outdoor experience approach to team building places group members in a variety of physically challenging situations that must be mastered through teamwork, not through individual work.

Answer:

17. In a continuous improvement approach to team building, the team members commit themselves to monitoring group developments and accomplishments on an ongoing basis and making the day-to-day changes needed to ensure team effectiveness.

Answer:

18. In a continuous improvement approach to team building, the manager, team leader, or group members themselves take responsibility for regularly engaging in the team-building process.

Answer:

19. Special problems relating to team processes may arise as more and more jobs are turned over to teams and as more and more traditional supervisors are being asked to function as team leaders.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

20. Effective teams have no further need for leadership efforts, after team building, to improve team processes.

Answer:

21. Problems regarding participation, goals, control, relationships, and process are likely to occur in a new team or when new members join existing teams.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

22. According to Schein, the friendly helper is insecure, suffering uncertainties of intimacy and control.

Answer:

23. In coping with the challenge of entering a team, tough battlers are those individuals who are frustrated by a lack of identity in the new group and who may act aggressively or reject authority.

Answer:

24. In his studies of how people cope with the challenge of entering a team, Edgar Schein labeled individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions as disruptive entrants.

Answer:

25. Research in social psychology suggests that the achievement of sustained high performance by groups requires that members’ task needs and maintenance needs are met.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes 26. Distributed leadership is the sharing of responsibility, by all members, for meeting individual needs.

Answer:

27. Maintenance activities directly contribute to the performance of important group tasks.

Answer:

28. A role is a set of expectations associated with a job or position on a team.

Answer:

29. Role ambiguity occurs when a person is uncertain about his or her role in a job or on a team.

Answer:

30. Role conflict occurs when someone is unable to meet the expectations of others. Answer:

31. The norms of a group or team represent ideas or beliefs about how members are expected to behave.

Answer:

32. The performance norm conveys expectations about how hard group members should work and what the team should accomplish.

Answer:

33. A leader can establish positive norms within groups and teams by acting as a positive role model, reinforcing and rewarding desired behaviors, selecting members who can and will perform, and providing support and training for members.

Answer:

34. The statement “on our team, people always try to work hard” is an example of a positive high-achievement norm. Answer:

35. The statement, “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others” reinforces the negative support and helpfulness norm.

Answer:

36. Cohesiveness of a group or team is the degree to which group or team members are attracted to and motivated to remain a part of the group or team.

Answer:

37. Generally, the more cohesive the group, the greater the conformity of members to group norms.

Answer:

38. In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with high performance norms and high team cohesiveness.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

39. From a manager’s perspective, the worst-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with negative performance norms and high team cohesiveness.

Answer:

40. Team cohesiveness tends to be low when members are similar in age, attitudes, needs, and backgrounds.

Answer:

41. Group cohesiveness tends to decrease when groups are physically isolated from others and when they experience performance success or crisis.

Answer:

42. A key negative aspect of inter-team dynamics is that the members of each team may divert energies toward their mutual animosities rather than on the performance of important tasks. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

43. A positive aspect of intergroup competition occurs when the members of each group work harder, become more focused on key tasks, and develop more internal loyalty.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

44. Inter-team dynamics are relationships between groups cooperating and competing with one another.

Answer:

45. Decentralized communication networks create high levels of member satisfaction and work best when team tasks are complex and non-routine.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication. Section Reference: Improving Team Communication

46. The counteracting team pattern results in a decentralized communication network in which all team members communicate directly and share information with one another.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

47. In the co-acting team pattern, information flows to a central person and is redistributed to form a centralized communication network.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication. Section Reference: Improving Team Communication 48. Wheel communication networks and chain communication network are other names for a centralized communication network.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

49. Problems of destructive competition in inter-team dynamics are likely in restricted communication networks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

50. Proxemics refers to the use of space as people interact.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication. Section Reference: Improving Team Communication 51. Virtual communication networks allow team members to be in electronic contact with one another and empower team members.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

52. In decision by lack of response, one idea after another is suggested without any discussion taking place. When the team finally accepts an idea, all others have been bypassed and discarded by simple lack of response rather than by critical evaluation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

53. In decision by minority rule, the chairperson, a manager, or a leader makes a decision for the group. This can be done with or without discussion and is very time efficient.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

54. In decision by majority rule, all team members agree totally on the course of action to be taken.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

55. Teams will make decisions by consensus when discussion leads to one alternative being favored by most members and the others members agreeing to support it.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

56. To achieve group consensus, members should not argue blindly and should consider others’ reactions to one’s points. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

57. Teams will make decisions by unanimity when all team members agree totally on a course of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

58. The potential advantages of group decision making include more knowledge and expertise being applied to the problem, more alternatives being considered, greater understanding and acceptance of the final decision, and more commitment among group members to making the final decision work.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions 59. The potential disadvantages of group decision making include social pressure to conform, minority domination, and time delays.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

60. When groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups, poor decisions may result from the members’ unwillingness to criticize one another’s ideas and suggestions, overemphasis on agreement, desire to hold the group together, underemphasis on critical discussion, and desire to avoid unpleasant circumstances.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

61. Groupthink can be avoided by having the leader express his/her pSection Reference for a particular course of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

62. Groupthink can be avoided when team leaders hold “second-chance” meetings after consensus is apparently achieved.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

63. The guidelines for brainstorming include ruling out all criticism, welcoming “freewheeling,” emphasizing quantity of ideas, and encouraging “piggy-backing” on others’ ideas.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

64. The nominal group technique is a group decision-making approach that involves structured rules for generating and prioritizing ideas.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

Question Type: Multiple Choice

65. A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT: a) communicating high-performance standards. b) having members spend time together. c) creating a sense of urgency. d) setting a clear/challenging direction. e) ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum.

Answer:

66. Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT: a) high-performance teams have strong core values. b) high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives. c) high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence. d) members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills. e) members of high-performance teams feel “collectively accountable.” Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

67. Researchers point out that collective intelligence is ______in teams whose processes result in social sensitivity and absence of domination by one or a few members. a) higher b) lower c) a constant d) nonexistent e) none of the above

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives. Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

68. ______is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a team and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness. a) Team enhancing b) Team building c) Team structuring d) Team championing e) Team organizing

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives. Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

69. Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of steps in the team-building process? a) Establishing a team mission statement; team goal setting; data gathering and analysis; implementing team goals; and evaluation of results b) Planning for team effectiveness; data gathering and analysis; establishment of team goals and objectives; implementing team goals; and evaluation of results c) Establishing a team mission statement; team cohesiveness training; data gathering and analysis; actions to improve team functioning; and implementing team goals d) Planning for team effectiveness; team goal setting; implementing team goals, evaluation of results; and reassessment of team goals e) Problems or opportunity in team effectiveness; data gathering and analysis; planning for team improvements; actions to improve team functioning; and evaluation of results

Answer:

70. In the ______, team building takes place during off-site meetings. a) formal retreat approach b) informal withdrawal approach c) privacy approach d) informal isolation approach e) formal seclusion approach

Answer:

71. Which of the following is the third step in the team building process? a) Data gathering and analysis b) Problem or opportunity in team effectiveness c) Actions to improve team functioning d) Planning for team improvements e) Evaluation of results

Answer:

72. The ______to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations. a) informal withdrawal approach b) privacy approach c) informal isolation approach d) formal seclusion approach e) formal retreat approach

Answer:

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams 73. In a(n) ______to team building, the manager, team leader, or group members themselves take responsibility for regularly engaging in the team-building process. a) formal retreat approach b) employee participation approach c) outdoor experience approach d) continuous improvement approach e) incremental enhancement approach

Answer:

74. The ______approach to team building places group members in a variety of physically challenging situations that must be mastered through teamwork, not individual work. a) formal retreat b) outdoor experience c) continuous improvement d) rustic experience e) informal withdrawal

Answer:

75. Which of the following statements about improving team processes is NOT accurate? a) Team members must be prepared to handle more members. b) As more and more jobs are turned over to teams, special problems relating to team processes may arise. c) As more and more traditional supervisors are being asked to function as team leaders, special problems relating to team processes may arise. d) Effective teams have no further need, after team-building, for leadership efforts to improve team processes. e) Team members must be prepared to handle disagreements on rules and responsibilities

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

76. To improve team processes, both team leaders and members must be prepared to deal with all of the following EXCEPT: a) introducing new members. b) handling disagreements on goals and responsibilities. c) handling reward distribution issues. d) resolving delays and disputes when making decisions. e) reducing friction and interpersonal conflicts.

Answer:

77. Which of the following is NOT one of the problems that face new group members? a) Participation b) Goals c) Lack of originality d) Control e) Process

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

Section Reference: Improving Team Processes 78. Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are ______. a) passive, aggressive, and regressive b) focused, unfocused, and mid-focused c) tough battler, friendly helper, and objective thinker d) primal, emotional, and rational e) thoughtful, aggressive, and modal

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

79. In coping with the challenge of entering a team, ______are individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions. a) friendly helpers b) tough battlers c) objective thinkers d) amiable entrants e) thoughtful newcomers

Answer:

80. ______is the sharing of responsibility for meeting group task and maintenance needs. a) Participative partnering b) Conjunctive leadership c) Authentic leadership d) Empowered leadership e) Distributed leadership

Answer:

80. ______directly contribute to the performance of important group tasks. a) Task activities b) Assignment mandates c) Directive activities d) Responsibility activities e) Maintenance activities

Answer:

81. A team member contributes ______leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action. a) task b) functional c) transactional d) maintenance e) directive

Answer:

82. All of the following statements about maintenance activities are true EXCEPT: a) maintenance activities support the social and interpersonal relationships among group members. b) when maintenance leadership is poor, members become dissatisfied with one another. c) in an effective group, maintenance activities support the relationships needed for team members to work well together over time. d) when maintenance leadership is weak, the value of group membership may diminish. e) maintenance activities include initiating discussion, sharing information, asking information of others, clarifying something that has been said and summarizing the status of a deliberation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

83. Disruptive behaviors that can harm group process include all of the following EXCEPT: a) being overly aggressive toward other members. b) trying to recognize others and give them attention. c) withdrawing and refusing to cooperate with others. d) horsing around when there is work to be done. e) talking too much about irrelevant matters. Answer:

84. ______-role conflict occurs when a person’s values and needs come into conflict with role expectations. a) Intrasender b) Intersender c) Person d) Inter e) Outer

Answer:

85. All of the following statements regarding role ambiguity are true EXCEPT: a) to do any job well in a group, people need to know what is expected of them. b) in a new group or team situation, role ambiguities may create problems as members find that their work efforts are wasted or unappreciated by others. c) even in mature groups and teams, the failure of members to share expectations and listen to one another may create a lack of understanding. d) role ambiguity cannot be managed through awareness of role dynamics and their causes. e) being asked to do too much or too little as a team member can create problems.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

86. ______occurs when too much is expected and the individual feels overwhelmed with work. a) Role conflict b) Role indifference c) Role encumberment d) Role overload e) Role frustration

Answer:

87. All of the following are part of four common forms of role conflict EXCEPT: a) intrasender role conflict. b) extrasender role conflict. c) intersender role conflict. d) person-role conflict. e) interrole conflict.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

88. ______occurs when different people send conflicting and mutually exclusive expectations. a) Person-role conflict b) Intrasender role conflict c) Parallel role conflict d) Interrole role conflict e) Intersender role conflict Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

89. ______occurs when the expectations of two or more roles held by the same individual become incompatible, such as the conflict between work and family demands. a) Interrole conflict b) Person-role conflict c) Correspondent role conflict d) Divergent role conflict e) Intersender role conflict

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

90. Which of the following statements about norms is NOT correct? a) Norms help clarify the expectations associated with a person’s membership in a group. b) Although important, norms are not considered to be rules or standards of conduct. c) Norms allow members to structure their own behavior. d) When someone violates a group norm, other members typically respond in ways that are aimed at enforcing the norm. e) Norms allow members to predict what others will do.

Answer:

91. Role ______is a process for discussing and agreeing upon what team members expect of one another. a) negotiation b) agreement c) overload d) expectation e) cooperation

Answer:

92. Positive norms within groups and teams can be established by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) acting as a positive role model. b) reinforcing and rewarding desired behaviors. c) encouraging principled dissenters to join the group. d) selecting members who can and will perform. e) providing support and training for members.

Answer:

93. All of the following statements about group norms are correct EXCEPT: a) in order for a task force to operate effectively, group norms regarding attendance at meetings, punctuality, and preparedness are needed. b) groups also commonly have norms regarding how to deal with supervisors, colleagues, and customers. c) norms for establishing guidelines for honesty and ethical behaviors are important for groups to discuss. d) norms should be identified by the management team only. e) norms are expressed in everyday conversations

Answer:

94. Which of the following statements does the best job of reinforcing positive “ethics” norms? a) “In our department, people are always looking for better ways of doing things.” b) “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others.” c) “We try to make fair and just decisions, and we expect others to do the same.” d) “On our team, people always try to work hard.” e) “It is a tradition around here for people to stand up for the company when others criticize it unfairly.”

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

95. Which of the following statements does the best job of reinforcing positive “organizational and personal pride” norms? a) “In our department, people are always looking for better ways of doing things.” b) “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others.” c) “Our company strives for both efficiency and effectiveness.” d) “On our team, people always try to work hard.” e) “It is a tradition around here for people to stand up for the company when others criticize it unfairly.”

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

96. ______refers to the tendency to reduce effort when working in groups. a) Social mooching b) Social management c) Social loafing d) Social contract e) Social engagement

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

97. In contrast to less cohesive groups, members of highly cohesive group members display all of the following EXCEPT: a) being more energetic when working on group activities. b) tending to leave work early when possible. c) remaining less likely to be absent. d) enduring more likely to be happy about performance success. e) continuing more likely to be sad about performance failures.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

98. In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with ______performance norms and ______team cohesiveness. a) high; high b) positive; high c) negative; high d) negative; low e) positive; low

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

99. From a manager’s perspective, the worst-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with ______performance norms and ______team cohesiveness. a) high; high b) high; low c) negative; high d) negative; low e) positive; low

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

100. All of the following techniques increase group or team cohesiveness EXCEPT: a) getting agreement. b) increasing team diversity. c) making the team smaller. d) isolating the team from other teams. e) rewarding team results.

Answer: Page: 186

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

101. The positive aspects of inter-team competition include all of the following outcomes EXCEPT: a) the members of each team may work harder. b) the members of each team may become more focused on key tasks. c) the members of each team may develop more internal loyalty and satisfaction. d) the members of each team may achieve a higher level of creativity in problem solving. e) the members of each team may use their energies toward their mutual animosities.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

102. Organizations and their managers can discourage the negative aspects and encourage the positive aspects of inter-team dynamics by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) refocusing the teams on a common enemy or a common goal. b) training members to work more cooperatively. c) promoting direct negotiations between teams. d) using win-lose reward systems. e) focusing reward distribution on contributions to the total organization.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

103. The interacting team pattern results in a ______in which all team members communicate directly and share information with one another. a) decentralized communication network b) centralized communication network c) restricted communication network d) synergistic communication network e) vertical communication network

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication.

Section Reference: Improving Team Communication

104. Wheel communication network and chain communication network are other names for ______. a) restricted communication networks b) parallel communication networks c) centralized communication networks d) synergistic communication networks e) hierarchical communication networks

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

105. Tasks that are routine and easily subdivided lend themselves to: a) hierarchical communication networks. b) parallel communication networks. c) decentralized communication networks. d) restricted communication networks. e) centralized communication networks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

106. ______form when subgroups emerge within a team due to issue-specific disagreements. a) Co-acting teams b) Counteracting teams c) Interacting teams d) Disparate teams e) Countervailing teams

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference: Improving Team Communication 107. The counteracting team pattern involves a ______in which polarized subgroups disagree with one another’s positions and maintain sometimes antagonistic relations. a) countervailing communication network b) counteracting communication network c) centralized communication network d) decentralized communication network e) restricted communication network

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

108. When workspace architecture is studied as an influence on communication behavior, this is part of: a) cohesiveness. b) proxemics. c) virtual communication networks. d) team building. e) relationships.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication.

109. GE’s launch of the “Tweet Squad” is an example of a: a) study in proxemics. b) vertical communication network c) virtual communication network. d) centralized network. e) all of the above.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

110. Decision by ______occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation. a) majority rule b) lack of response c) authority rule d) consensus e) minority rule Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

111. Decision by ______is often done by providing a suggestion and then forcing quick agreement by challenging the group with such statements as “Does anyone object?...No? Well, let’s go ahead then. a) majority rule b) lack of response c) authority rule d) consensus e) minority rule

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

112. All of the following statements about majority rule are true EXCEPT: a) formal voting may take place or members may be polled to find the majority viewpoint. b) all group members will feel successful as a result of the majority rule. c) some people will feel like “winners” and others will feel like “losers” when the final vote is tallied. d) the very process of voting can create coalitions. e) this method parallels the democratic political system and is often used without awareness of its potential problems.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

113. To achieve group consensus, members should adhere to all of the following guidelines EXCEPT: a) don’t argue blindly; consider others’ reactions to your points. b) don’t change your mind just to reach quick agreement. c) don’t use voting, coin tossing, and bargaining to avoid conflict. d) don’t try to involve everyone in the decision process. e) don’t focus on winning versus losing; seek alternatives acceptable to all.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions 114. ______is a “logically perfect” group decision making method because all team members agree totally on a course of action. a) Consensus b) Unanimity c) Majority rule d) Minority rule e) Lack of response

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

115. In regards to decision-making, the best teams: a) let the smartest person in the group make most of the decisions. b) stay together as a group all of the time because they work well together. c) take decisions spontaneously, without much discussion. d) do not limit themselves to just one decision-making method, using it over and over again regardless of circumstances. e) do not encourage exchange of ideas.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

116. When groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups, poor decisions may result from the members’ tendencies to do all of the following EXCEPT: a) being unwilling to criticize one another’s ideas and suggestions. b) underemphasizing agreement. c) desiring to hold the group together. d) underemphasizing critical discussion. e) seeking to avoid unpleasant circumstances.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

117. Groupthink can be avoided by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) assigning the role of critical evaluator to each group member. b) creating subgroups that each work on the same problem. c) inviting outside experts to observe and react to group processes. d) having the leader express his/her preference for a particular course of action. e) writing alternative scenarios for the intentions of competing groups.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

118. Historical examples of groupthink according to Janis include all of the following EXCEPT: a) space shuttle disasters. b) decision-making during the Vietnam War. c) American intelligence regarding weapons of mass destruction in Iraq. d) the lack of preparedness by U.S. forces at Pearl Harbor before entry into WWII. e) Cuban Missile Crisis.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions 119. Of the following, which is a symptom of teams displaying groupthink? a) Illusions of invulnerability b) Rationalizing unpleasant and disconfirming data c) Belief in inherent group morality d) All of the above

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

120. The guidelines for brainstorming include all of the following EXCEPT: a) all criticism is ruled out. b) “freewheeling” is welcomed. c) quantity is important. d) quality is important e) “piggy-backing” on others’ ideas is encouraged.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

121. The team decision technique of ______asks everyone to respond individually and in writing to a basic question such as: “What should be done to improve the effectiveness of this work team?” a) statutory technique b) nominal group technique c) brainstorming technique d) freewheeling technique e) Delphi technique

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

122. A group decision-making approach developed by the Rand Corporation for use in situations where group members are unable to meet face to face is a) electronic brainstorming. b) the nominal group technique. c) the Delphi technique. d) the freewheeling technique. e) computer-mediated analysis.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Question Type: Fill in the blank

123. ______teams are able to turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives and the members feel collectively accountable for moving together in a compelling direction toward a goal.

Answer:

124. ______is the ability of a team to perform well across a range of tasks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives. Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

125. When difficulties occur within a group or team, ______can help in addressing problems and resolving issues.

Answer:

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams 126. In his studies on how people cope with the challenge of entering a team, Edgar Schein labeled individuals who show extraordinary support for others, behave in a dependent way, and seek alliances in subgroups or cliques as ______.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes..

127. Research in social psychology suggests that the achievement of sustained high performance by groups requires that both ______needs and ______needs be met.

Answer:

128. ______include initiating discussion, sharing information, asking information of others, clarifying something that has been said, and summarizing the status of a deliberation.

Answer:

129. Activities that support the team’s social and interpersonal relationships are called ______.

Answer:

130. Behaviors that harm the team process like talking too much about irrelevant matters are called ______. Answer:

131. ______occurs when a person is uncertain about his or her role in a job or on a team..

Answer:

132. ______occurs when too little work is expected and the individual feels underutilized.

Answer:

133. ______occurs when the same person sends conflicting expectations.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

134. The ______of a group or team represent the ideas or beliefs about how members are expected to behave.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes 135. The ______conveys expectations about how hard group members should work.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

136. ______is a process for discussing and agreeing upon what team members expect of one another.

Answer:

137. The rule of ______states that the greater the team cohesiveness, the greater the conformity of members to team norms.

Answer:

138. ______is the degree to which group or team members are attracted to and motivated to remain a part of the group or team.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes. Section Reference: Improving Team Processes 139. All-channel or star communication networks are other names for ______.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

140. ______are work arrangements where members work on tasks independently, while linked through some form of central coordination.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

141. The attention to office design in building spaces conducive to communication needed by teams today is part of ______.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

142. ______is the process of choosing among alternative courses of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

143. In decision by ______, when the group finally accepts an idea, all others in the group have been bypassed and discarded by simple ______rather than by critical evaluation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard

144. Decision by ______is being used when a chairperson, leader, or manager makes a decision for the team.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

145. Decision by ______is being used when two or three people can dominate the majority or “railroad” the majority into agreeing to a solution.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

146. Teams will make decisions by ______when discussion leads to one alternative being favored by most members and the others members agree to support it.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions 147. ______is the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

148. In ______, group members actively generate as many ideas and alternatives as possible, and they do so relatively quickly and without inhibitions.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

149. When President Kennedy chose to absent himself from strategy discussions by his Cabinet during the Cuban Missile Crisis, he avoided the tendency for his Cabinet members to figure out what he wanted and give it to him, thereby avoiding ______.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

150. The ______is a group decision-making approach that involves structured rules for generating and prioritizing ideas.”

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

151. ______involves generating decision-making alternatives in groups through a series of survey questionnaires.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Question Type: Essay 152. Describe the characteristics that enable a high-performance team to excel at teamwork.

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

153. Discuss the following approaches to team building: the formal retreat approach, the continuous improvement approach, and the outdoor experience approach.

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

154. Describe the differences between role ambiguity, role overload, role underload, and role conflict.

Difficulty: Medium

155. What are norms? What is cohesiveness? How are norms and cohesiveness related? Difficulty: Medium

156. What is groupthink? Why can groupthink be detrimental to effective group functioning?

Difficulty: Medium

File: ch9, Chapter 9: Decision-Making and Creativity

True/False

1. Decision-Making is the process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity.

Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

Section Reference: Steps in Decision Making

2. Rational Decision-Making is a five-step process that starts with recognition and definition of the problem or opportunity, and ends with evaluation of results and any needed follow-up.

Page: 196

Level: Easy

3. Decision-Making choices usually have a moral dimension that might be overlooked.

Page: 197

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making 4. Teams may suffer from lack of participation error in the stage of decision-making where alternative courses of action are identified and analyzed.

Page: 197

Level: Easy

5. A moral dilemma is defined as a situation in which a decision-maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives.

Page: 198

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

6. Consideration of the moral problem might change decisions, but seldom would change how the decision is implemented.

Page: 198

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

7. The justice criteria asks if the decision satisfies all constituents or stakeholders.

Page: 199

Level: Medium

8. The utility question asks if the decision respects the rights and duties of everyone.

Page: 199

Level: Medium

9. Programmed decisions are made as standardized responses to recurring situations and routine problems.

Page: 200

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Types of Decisions

10. Programmed decisions implement solutions that have already been determined by past experience as appropriate for the problem at hand.

Page: 200

Level: Easy

11. Examples of programmed decisions include reordering inventory automatically when stock falls below a predetermined level and issuing a written reprimand to someone who violates a specific work rule.

Page: 200

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Types of Decisions 12. Nonprogrammed decisions address routine problems that arise on a regular basis and for which standard solutions have been derived.

Page: 200

Level: Medium

13. Nonprogrammed decisions are created to deal uniquely with a problem at hand.

Page: 200

Level: Easy

14. An example of a nonprogrammed decision is when a senior marketing manager who has to respond to the introduction of a new product by a foreign competitor. Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy

15. The most extreme type of programmed decision is the crisis decision.

Page: 200

Level: Medium

16. Acts of terrorism and workplace violence are examples of crisis decisions.

Page: 200

Level: Difficult

17. When a crisis occurs, managers should disregard skeptics as these people foster disagreement and lack of commitment.

Ans: Page: 200 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Types of Decisions

18. Unfortunately, formal crisis management programs are decreasing in popularity in organizations.

Page: 200

Level: Easy

19. Decisions in organizations are typically made under three different conditions or environments: certainty, jeopardy, and skepticism.

Page: 201

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Decision Environments 20. Certain environments exist when information is sufficient to predict the results of each alternative in advance of implementation.

Page: 201

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Decision Environments

21. Certainty is a less than ideal condition for managerial problem solving and Decision-Making.

Page: 201

Level: Easy

22. Certainty is the norm in decision situations.

Page: 201

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Decision Environments

23. Risk environments exist when decision makers lack complete certainty regarding the outcomes of various courses of action, but they are aware of the probabilities associated with their occurrence.

Page: 201

Level: Easy

24. When dealing with risk environments, probabilities are assigned through objective statistical procedures rather than intuition.

Page: 201

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Decision Environments 25. Uncertain environments exist when managers have so little information that they cannot even assign probabilities to various alternatives and their possible outcomes.

Page: 202

Level: Easy

26. Of the three decision-making environments (certainty, risk, and uncertainty), risk environments are the most difficult for decision makers.

Page: 202

Level: Medium

27. Responses to uncertain environments seldom involve intuition, educated guesses, or hunches.

Page: 202

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

28. Risk management focuses on anticipating risk in situations and factoring risk alternatives into the decision-making process.

Page: 202

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

29. Threats to a brand or the firm’s reputation are referred to as reputation risks.

Ans: Page: 202 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

30. In the classical decision model, the problem is not clearly defined, knowledge of possible action alternatives and their consequences is limited, and the manager chooses a satisfactory solution to the problem.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models. Section Reference: Classical Decision Model

31. In the behavioral decision model, the manager faces a clearly defined problem, knows all possible action alternatives and their consequences, and then chooses the alternative that offers the optimum solution to the problem.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models.

Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model

32. Classical decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.

Page: 203

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Classical Decision Model 33. Behavioral decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

34. The behavioral decision model allows for an optimizing decision that gives the absolute best solution to the problem.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

35. Classical decision theory appears to fit very well in today’s chaotic world of globalizing high-tech organizations.

Section Reference: Classical Decision Model

36. Behavioral decision theory models accept the notion of bounded rationality and suggest that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

Page: 203

Level: Easy

37. Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have cognitive limitations that restrict their information-processing capabilities.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model 38. Bounded rationality refers to the idea that, while individuals reason well and are logical, they have their limits with respect to interpreting and making sense of things within the context of their personal situations.

Page: 203

Level: Easy

39. The behavioral decision maker is viewed as acting most often under uncertain conditions and with limited information.

Page: 203

Level: Easy

40. Bounded rationality is choosing the first alternative that appears to give an acceptable or satisfactory resolution of the problem.

Ans: Page: 203-204

Level: Difficult

41. A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is intuition.

Page: 204

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

42. Intuition adds elements of flexibility and spontaneity to Decision-Making, thereby offering potential for creativity and innovation.

Page: 204

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking 43. Jeff Bezos of Amazon.com believes there is a place for both systematic and intuitive decision-making in management.

Page: 204

Level: Medium

44. Teams engaged in systematic thinking would be expected to make a plan before taking action.

Page: 204

Level: Easy

45. Judgment, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making.

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.

Section Reference: Judgmental Heuristics

46. Heuristics are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions.

Page: 205

Level: Easy

47. The availability heuristic involves assessing a current event based on past occurrences that are easily available in one’s memory.

Page: 205

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Judgmental Heuristics 48. The representativeness heuristic bases a decision on similarities between the situation at hand and stereotypes of similar occurrences.

Page: 205

Level: Medium

49. An example of the application of the anchoring and adjustment heuristic is the team leader who selects a new member not because of any special qualities of the person, but only because the individual comes from a department known to have produced high performers in the past.

Page: 205

Level: Difficult

50. In managing the decision-making process, one of the first issues to address is whether to actually address the decision situation.

Page: 206

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Knowing When to Decide 51. Research shows that to prevent future errors, small problems should get the same time and attention as bigger ones.

Page: 206

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Knowing When to Decide

52. A mistake commonly made by many new managers and team leaders is presuming that they must solve every problem by making every decision themselves.

Page: 207

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve

53. Creativity is more likely to occur when a person has a lot of task expertise.

Ans: Page: 212

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making.

Section Reference: Personal Creativity Drivers

54. Switching members among teams to gain insights from diverse backgrounds and experiences is known as associative play.

Page: 213

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Team Creativity Drivers

Multiple Choice

55. The process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity is ______. a) selection making b) decision shaping c) decision-making d) judgment resolution e) judgment generation Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy

56. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic steps involved in the rational decision model? a) recognize and define the problem or opportunity. b) identify and analyze alternative courses of action, and estimate their effects on the problem or opportunity. c) choose a preferred course of action. d) inform relevant stakeholders of the decision and its consequences. e) implement the preferred course of action.

Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy

57. The first step in the rational decision model is ______. a) choosing a preferred course of action b) recognizing and defining the problem or opportunity c) identifying the alternative courses of action d) evaluating the results e) implementing the preferred course of action

Ans: Page: 196-197 Level: Medium

58. The lack-of-participation error occurs in which phase of the rational decision model? a) evaluating results b) identifying alternatives c) implementing preferred course of action d) choosing a preferred course of action e) recognizing the problem

Ans: Page: 197

Level: Medium

59. When a decision maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives, it is referred to as a ______. a) criteria question b) moral dilemma c) justice decision d) moral problem e) rational decision

Ans: Page: 198

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

60. Which of the following is NOT one of Cavanagh’s criteria questions for assessing ethics in decision-making? a) Does the decision satisfy all constituents or stakeholders? b) Does the decision respect the rights of everyone? c) Is the decision consistent with the canons of justice? d) Does the decision make sense? e) Is the decision consistent with my responsibility to care?

Ans: Page: 199

Level: Medium

61. Which of the following is Cavanagh’s utility question for assessing ethics in Decision- Making? a) Does the decision satisfy all constituents or stakeholders? b) Does the decision respect the rights and duties of everyone? c) Is the decision consistent with the canons of justice? d) Is the decision consistent with my responsibilities to care? e) None of the above.

Page: 199

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making 62. A decision is exposed to public scrutiny and forces decision-makers to consider it in the context of full transparency with the use of ______. a) rational decision-making b) spotlight questions c) satisficing d) moral dilemmas e) criteria questions

Ans: Page: 199

Level: Medium

63. Which of the following is considered to be a spotlight question as mentioned in the text? a) What might my friend do if he was in a similar situation as me? b) How would I feel if my family found out about this decision? c) If I make this decision, will I be able to sleep at night? d) Would most other people in society make the same decision as I would? e) None of the above.

Ans: Page: 199 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

64. ______are routine problems that arise on a regular basis and which can be addressed through standard responses. a) Arbitrary decisions b) Nonprogrammed decisions c) Fixed decisions d) Programmed decisions e) Standardized decisions

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Easy

65. Examples of ______decisions include reordering inventory automatically when stock falls below a predetermined level and issuing a written reprimand to someone who violates a specific work procedure. a) uniform b) standardized c) programmed d) fixed e) nonprogrammed

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Medium

66. ______decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand. a) Ad hoc b) Discretionary c) Nonprogrammed d) Arbitrary e) Elective

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Easy

67. Acts of terrorism and IT failures are examples of which type of decision? a) rational decisions b) ethical decisions c) non-programmed decisions d) programmed decisions e) crisis decisions

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Medium

68. Problem-solving decisions in organizations are typically made under three different conditions or environments. These are ______. a) confidence, chance, and doubt b) certainty, risk, and uncertainty c) conviction, hazard, and concern d) certainty, jeopardy, and skepticism e) confidence, hazard, and doubt Ans: Page: 201

Level: Medium

69. ______is an ideal condition for managerial problem solving and Decision-Making. a) Certainty b) Risk c) Uncertainty d) Turbulence e) Chaos

Ans: Page: 201

Level: Easy

70. ______environments exist when decision makers lack complete certainty regarding the outcomes of various courses of action, but they are aware of the probabilities associated with their occurrence. a) Jeopardy b) Hazard c) Risk d) Assured e) Uncertain

Ans: Page: 201

Level: Easy

71. When dealing with risk environments, managers may assign ______through objective statistical procedures or through personal intuition. a) potentialities b) expectations c) prospects d) probabilities e) feasibilities

Ans: Page: 201

Level: Difficult

72. ______environments exist when managers have so little information that they cannot even assign probabilities to various alternatives and their possible outcomes. a) Uncertain b) Risk c) Unpredictable d) Jeopardy e) Hazard

Ans: Page: 201 Level: Easy

73. The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the ______environment. a) risk b) certain c) expectant d) uncertain e) statutory

Ans: Page: 202

Level: Easy

74. All of the following statements about uncertain environments are correct EXCEPT: a) uncertain environments provide little, if any, information to predict expected results for decision-making alternatives. b) behavioral responses to uncertain environments seldom involve intuition, educated guesses, or hunches. c) uncertain environments require unique, novel, and often totally innovative alternatives to existing patterns of behavior. d) an uncertain decision environment may be characterized as a rapidly changing organizational setting in terms of external conditions. e) an uncertain decision environment may be characterized as a rapidly changing organizational setting in terms of the personnel who influence problem and choice definitions.

Ans: Page: 202 Level: Difficult

75. KPMG’s practice that focuses on helping executives identify threats to their firm and manage them is known as ______. a) operational risk b) enterprise risk management c) strategic management d) uncertainty avoidance management e) reputation risk management

Ans: Page: 202

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

76. Threats to overall business success are called ______risks. a) strategic b) operational c) financial d) reputation e) functional

Ans: Page: 202 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

77. The ______model views decision makers as acting in a world of complete certainty. a) behavioral decision b) true decision c) cognitive decision d) classical decision e) aesthetic decision

Ans: Page: 203

Level: Easy

78. ______accepts the notion of bounded rationality and assumes that decision makers act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation. a) Behavioral decision theory b) Perceptive decision theory c) Cognitive decision theory d) Classical decision theory e) Visual decision theory

Ans: Page: 203

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model 79. Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have ______that restrict their information-processing capabilities. a) sociological limitations b) cognitive limitations c) subjective limitations d) emotional limitations e) psychological limitations

Ans: Page: 203

Level: Medium

80. The ______model accepts the notion of bounded rationality and suggests that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation. a) behavioral decision theory b) rational decision theory c) rigid decision theory d) scientific decision theory e) potential investment decision theory

Ans: Page: 203

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model 81. ______is consistent with the rational model where a decision is approached in a step- by-step and analytical fashion. a) Scientific thinking b) Strategic thinking c) Systematic thinking d) Irrational thinking e) Satisficing

Ans: Page: 204 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models. Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

82. A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is ______. a) discernment b) unrestrained rationality c) recognition d) intuition e) assimilation

Ans: Page: 204

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models. Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

83. Which of the following statements pertaining to intuition is incorrect? a) A key element in Decision-Making under certainty is intuition. b) Intuition is the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a given situation. c) Intuition adds elements of flexibility to Decision-Making. d) Intuition adds elements of spontaneity to Decision-Making. e) Intuition offers potential for creativity and innovation.

Ans: Page: 204

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models. Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

84. ______, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making. a) Intuition b) Attitudinal formation c) Judgment d) Perceiving e) Sensing

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy

85. ______are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions. a) Hindsights b) Disciplines c) Regulations d) Codes e) Heuristics Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy

86. ______can lead to systematic errors that affect the quality, and perhaps ethical implications, of any decision that is made. a) Disciplines b) Regulations c) Heuristics d) Rules e) Codes

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy

87. An example of the ______is a product development specialist who bases a decision to not launch a new product on her recent failure with another product offering. a) representativeness heuristic b) accessibility heuristic c) hindsight heuristic d) utility heuristic e) availability heuristic

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Difficult

88. An example of the application of the ______is the team leader who selects a new member not because of any special qualities of the person, but only because the individual comes from a department known to have produced high performers in the past. a) productiveness heuristic b) accessibility heuristic c) anchoring and adjustment heuristic d) representativeness heuristic e) suitability heuristic

Page: 205

Level: Difficult

89. An example of the application of the ______is the executive who makes salary increase recommendations for key personnel by simply adjusting their current base salaries by a percentage amount. a) representativeness heuristic b) anchoring and adjustment heuristic c) equivalence heuristic d) incremental change heuristic e) availability heuristic

Page: 205

Level: Difficult

90. A form of selective perception, the ______involves seeking only those cues in a situation that support a preexisting opinion. a) documentation trap b) confirmation error c) validation pitfall d) authentication trap e) affirmation pitfall

Page: 206

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Decision Biases

91. Individual decisions are also called ______decisions. a) authority b) consultative c) solitary d) valid e) hindsight

Page: 208

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve

92. The central premise of the decision-making model developed by Vroom, Yetton, and Jago is that ______. a) decisions should be made in the most cost-efficient manner possible b) group Decision-Making is superior to authority or consultative Decision-Making c) authority decisions are superior to consultative decisions d) consultative decisions are superior to authority decisions e) the decision-making method used should always be appropriate to the problem being solved

Page: 208

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues. Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve

93. The key problem attributes of the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model include all of the following EXCEPT: a) the required quality of the decision. b) the commitment needed from subordinates. c) the leader’s commitment to participation. d) commitment probability. e) goal congruence.

Page: 209

Level: Difficult

94. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others. a) groupthink decisions b) authority decisions c) consultative decisions d) group decisions e) minority decisions

Page: 209

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues. Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve 95. A decision maker tells subordinates that lunch schedule is needed and asks them when they would like to schedule their lunch and why before making a decision. This is an example of a ______decision. a) groupthink b) authority c) consultative d) strategic e) minority

Page: 208

Level: Medium

96. A decision maker holds a meeting to get everyone’s agreement on a system for deciding how to make a lunch schedule. This is an example of a(n) ______decision method. a) groupthink b) authority c) consultative d) team e) minority

Page: 208

Level: Medium

97. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______involves the manager solving the problem or making the decision alone, using information available at the time. a) variant 1 of authority decisions b) variant 2 of authority decisions c) variant 1 of consultative decisions d) variant 2 of consultative decisions e) variant 3 of authority decisions

Page: 208

Level: Difficult

98. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______involves the manager obtaining the necessary information from subordinate(s) or other group members and then deciding on the problem solution a) variant 1 of authority decisions b) variant 2 of authority decisions c) variant 1 of consultative decisions d) variant 2 of consultative decisions e) variant 3 of authority decisions

Page: 208

Level: Difficult

99. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______involves the manager sharing the problem with relevant subordinates or other group members individually, getting their ideas and suggestions without bringing them together as a group, and. then making a decision that may or may not reflect the subordinates’ input. a) variant 1 of authority decisions b) variant 2 of authority decisions c) variant 1 of consultative decisions d) variant 2 of consultative decisions e) variant 3 of authority decisions

Page: 208

Level: Difficult

100. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______involves the manager sharing the problem with subordinates or other group members, collectively obtaining their ideas and suggestions, and then making a decision that may or may not reflect the subordinates’ input. a) variant 1 of authority decisions b) variant 2 of authority decisions c) variant 1 of consultative decisions d) variant 2 of consultative decisions e) variant 3 of authority decisions

Page: 208

Level: Difficult

101. What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?” a) Intuition b) Escalating commitment c) Bounded rationality d) Non-programmed Decision-Making e) Satisficing

Page: 210

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues. Section Reference: Knowing When to Quit

102. ______is a form of decision entrapment that leads people to do things that the facts of a situation do not justify. a) Intuition b) Nonprogrammed Decision-Making c) Satisficing d) Bounded rationality e) Escalating commitment

Page: 211

Level: Moderate

103. All of the following statements relating to escalating commitment are correct EXCEPT: a) the tendency to escalate commitments often outweighs the willingness to disengage from them. b) decision makers may rationalize negative feedback resulting from an escalated commitment as a temporary condition. c) an escalated commitment may result in a decision maker protecting his or her ego by not admitting that the original decision was a mistake. d) once it is determined that a chosen course of action is “not working,” decision makers will re-group and select a different course of action. e) decision makers may characterize any negative results from an escalated commitment as a “learning experience” can be overcome with added future effort.

Page: 211

Level: Easy

104. All of the following are ways to avoid getting trapped in escalating commitments EXCEPT: a) setting limits in advance on your involvement and commitment to a particular course of action. b) making your own decisions. c) carefully determining just why you are continuing a course of action. d) reminding yourself of the costs of a course of action. e) All of the above are ways to avoid getting trapped in escalating commitments.

Ans: Page: 211 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues. Section Reference: Knowing When to Quit

105. All of the following approaches can be used to increase creativity EXCEPT: a) establishing high expectations for creativity. b) using associative play. c) switching members among teams. d) using analogies. e) using metaphors to describe a problem.

Ans: Page: 213 Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making.

Fill in the blank

106. ______is the process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity.

Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy

107. The 5-step process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem is referred to as ______.

Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Steps in Decision Making

108. A(n) ______exists when the decision-maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives.

Page: 198

Level: Easy

109. ______is the philosophical study of morality.

Ans: Page: 198 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

110. ______decisions simply implement solutions that have already been determined by past experience as appropriate for the problem at hand.

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process. Section Reference: Types of Decisions

111. A(n) ______occurs when an unexpected problem can lead to disaster if not resolved quickly and appropriately.

Page: 200

Level: Easy

112. ______environments exist when information is sufficient to predict the results of each alternative in advance of implementation.

Page: 201

Level: Easy

113. A(n) ______is the degree of likelihood of an event’s occurrence.

Ans: Page: 201

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

114. ______is a short-hand term suggesting that, while humans are capable of exercising reason and logic, they have their limits.

Ans: Page: 203

Level: Medium

115. ______is choosing the first alternative that appears to give an acceptable or satisfactory resolution of the problem.

Ans: Page: 204

Level: Easy

116. ______is the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a given situation.

Ans: Page: 204 Level: Easy

117. Many managers use simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” as a means of making it easier to deal with uncertainty and limited information in problem situations. These simplifying strategies are called ______.

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy

118. The ______involves assessing a current event based on past occurrences that are easily available in one’s memory.

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Difficult

119. The ______bases a decision on similarities between the situation at hand and one’s stereotypes of similar occurrences.

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.

120. The ______involves assessing an event by taking an initial value from historical precedent or an outside source, and then incrementally adjusting this value to make a current assessment.

Page: 205

Level: Medium

121. The ______is the tendency to seek confirmation for what is already thought to be true and to neglect opportunities to acknowledge or find disconfirming information.

Page: 206

Level: Easy

122. The ______is a tendency for the decision maker to overestimate the degree to which he or she could have predicted an event that has already taken place.

123. ______developed a framework for helping managers choose the Decision-Making methods most appropriate for various problem situations to insure both better choices and implementation.

Page: 208

Level: Easy

124. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______decisions are made when the manager or team leader solicits input from other people and then, based on this information and its interpretation, makes a final choice.

Page: 208

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues. Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve 125. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, ______decisions are made by both consulting with others and allowing them to help make the final choice.

Page: 208

Level: Easy

126. The generation of a novel idea or unique approach to solving performance problems or exploiting performance opportunities is known as ______.

Page: 211

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Stages of Creative Thinking

127. Switching members among teams to gain insights from diverse experiences when working on problems is referred to as ______.

Page: 213

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Team Creativity Drivers Essay

128. Define Decision-Making. What are the five basic steps involved in the rational decision model?

Page: 196-197 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

129. Describe the difference between programmed and Nonprogrammed decisions. Provide an example of each type of decision.

Page: 200 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

130. Explain the basic differences between the classical decision model and the behavioral decision model.

Page: 203

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model 131. Describe the concept of escalating commitment. Explain why escalating commitment can occur. Page: 210-211

Level: Medium

132. Define creativity and identify the individual and the team creativity drivers.

Page: 211-212 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making. Section Reference: Personal Creativity Drivers

File: ch10, Chapter 10: Conflict and Negotiation

True/False 1. Conflict occurs whenever disagreements exist in a social situation over issues of substance, or whenever emotional antagonisms create frictions between individuals or groups.

Page: 220

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

Section Reference: Conflict in Organizations

2. In today’s environment, research shows that managers and team leaders spend relatively little time dealing with conflicts.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

3. Substantive conflict involves a fundamental disagreement over ends or goals to be pursued and the means for their accomplishment. Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Types of Conflict

4. A dispute with one’s boss over a plan of action to be followed, such as a marketing strategy for a new product, is an example of emotional conflict.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

5. Substantive conflict is commonly known as a clash of personalities.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations. Section Reference: Types of Conflict

6. When emotional conflicts creep into work situations, they can be conducive to teamwork because they get people to talk about their feelings.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

7. Intrapersonal conflict occurs within the individual because of actual or perceived pressures from incompatible goals or expectations.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 8. Approach-approach conflict, avoidance-avoidance conflict, and approach-avoidance conflict are different types of interpersonal conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Level of Conflict

9. Choosing between a valued promotion in the organization or a desirable new job with another firm is an example of approach-approach conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

10. Avoidance-avoidance conflict occurs when a person must choose between two negative, equally unattractive alternatives.

11. An example of approach-avoidance conflict is being asked to accept a job transfer to another town in an undesirable location or to have one’s employment with an organization terminated.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

12. Being offered a higher paying job whose responsibilities entail unwanted demands on one’s personal time is an example of approach-avoidance conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations. Section Reference: Level of Conflict

13. Interpersonal conflict occurs between two or more individuals in opposition to each other, and may be either substantive or emotional or both.

Page: 221

Level: Easy

14. Two persons debating each other aggressively on the merits of two different proposed advertising campaigns is an example of emotional interpersonal conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 15. Two persons continually in disagreement over each other’s choice of work attire is an example of an emotional interpersonal conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

16. Intergroup conflict occurs among different teams or groups in an organization.

Page: 221

Level: Easy

17. Conflict between functional departments such as marketing and manufacturing is a common example of intragroup conflict.

18. The use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize intergroup conflict.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

19. The classical example of interorganizational conflict is conflict among functional groups or departments, such as marketing and manufacturing, in organizations.

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 20. An example of interorganizational conflict is the disagreements between unions and the organizations employing the union members.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

21. Conflict in organizations can be upsetting both to the individual directly involved and to others affected by its occurrence.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Functional and Dysfunctional Conflict

22. Functional conflict results in positive benefits to individuals, the group, or the organization. Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy

23. Unfortunately, functional conflict cannot bring important problems to the surface and as such they cannot be addressed constructively.

Page: 222

Level: Medium

24. Functional conflict can cause decisions to be considered carefully and to be perhaps reconsidered to ensure that the right course of action is being followed.

Page: 222

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

25. Functional conflict can offer opportunities for creativity that can improve individual, team, or organizational performance.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

26. Functional conflict is also referred to as constructive conflict.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Functional and Dysfunctional Conflict 27. Dysfunctional conflict works to the individual’s, group’s, or organization’s disadvantage often diverting energies and hurting group cohesion.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

28. Daniel and Carol are unable to work together because of their interpersonal differences. This exemplifies a destructive substantive conflict.

Page: 223

Level: Medium

29. Attitudes toward time is a cultural difference that can have a substantial impact on conflict. Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Culture and Conflict

30. Individuals who are not able to recognize and respect the impact of culture on behavior may contribute to the emergence of functional conflict.

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

31. Conflict resolution occurs when the reasons for a dysfunctional conflict are eliminated.

Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed.

Section Reference: Conflict Management

32. The conflict resolution process begins with a good understanding of its causes and recognition of the stage to which it has developed.

Page: 224

Level: Easy

33. Conflict antecedents establish the conditions from which conflicts are likely to develop.

Page: 224

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Stages of Conflict 34. When the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of felt conflict exists.

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Stages of Conflict

35. In the context of the stages of conflict, when the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of perceived conflict exists.

Page: 224

Level: Medium

36. Perceived conflict is experienced as tension that motivates the person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort. Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium

37. Conflict that is experienced as tension and motivates a person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort is called felt conflict.

Page: 224

Level: Easy

38. When conflict is expressed openly in behavior, it is said to be manifest conflict.

Page: 224

Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed.

39. Manifest conflict may be resolved by removing or correcting its antecedents.

Page: 224

Level: Medium

40. Suppression is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution.

Page: 225

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Stages of Conflict 41. Horizontal conflict occurs between hierarchical levels. It commonly involves supervisor- subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results.

Page: 225

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Hierarchical Causes of Conflict

42. Vertical conflict occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level. It commonly involves goal incompatibilities, resource scarcities, or purely interpersonal factors.

Page: 225

Level: Medium

43. Role ambiguity conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations proves unclear or upsetting. Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Easy

44. Disputes and open disagreements may erupt among units and people when workflow independence is high.

Page: 226

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Contextual Causes of Conflict

45. Disputes and open disagreements may erupt among units and people when workflow interdependence is high.

Page: 226

Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed.

46. Resource scarcity is a likely cause of conflict in organizations that are experiencing downsizing or financial difficulties.

Page: 226

Level: Medium

47. Conflict can be created by the power or value asymmetries that exist when interdependent people or groups differ substantially from one another in status and influence or in values.

Page: 226

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Contextual Causes of Conflict 48. People working in roles such as project liaison can serve as linking pins to reduce interdependence between groups, such as engineering and sales, which are prone to conflict.

Page: 227

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Indirect Conflict Management Strategies

49. An appeal to common goals can focus the attention of potentially conflicting parties on one mutually desirable conclusion.

Page: 227

Level: Medium

50. In some situations, conflict is superficially managed by scripts, which are behavioral routines that become part of the organization’s culture. Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Easy

51. If conflict is severe and recurring, the continual use of hierarchical referral may not result in true conflict resolution.

Page: 227

Level: Medium

52. An example of the indirect conflict management approach of using scripts is a monthly meeting of department heads which is held presumably for purposes of coordination and problem solving but actually becomes a polite forum for superficial agreement.

Page: 227-228

Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed.

53. Managed interdependence, appeals to common goals, upward referral, and altering scripts and myths are examples of direct conflict management strategies.

Page: 226-228

Level: Medium

54. Avoidance involves pretending a conflict does not really exist.

Page: 228

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies 55. Lose-lose strategies may result from outright competition or authoritative command where the solution is dictated by an authority figure.

Page: 228

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies

56. Accommodation is a conflict management strategy may be used when an issue is trivial.

Page: 229

Level: Medium

57. Three criteria for effective negotiation are quality, harmony, and efficiency.

Learning Objective 3: Explain the nature of negotiation in organizations.

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes

58. An example of constituency negotiation occurs when representatives of management and labor negotiate a collective bargaining agreement.

Page: 232

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Organizational Settings for Negotiation

59. The hard approach to distributive negotiation may lead to a win-lose outcome.

Page: 233

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Identify alternative strategies for negotiation, common negotiation pitfalls, and third-party roles in negotiation.

Section Reference: Approaches to Distributive Negotiation 60. When negotiating for a pay raise, it is important to do research and find out what others make for a similar position inside and outside the organization.

Page: 234

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Approaches to Distributive Negotiation

61. The myth of the fixed pie occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down.

Page: 235

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Common Negotiation Pitfalls

62. In arbitration, the neutral third party has the power to issue a binding decision.

Ans: Page: 236

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Third Party Roles in Negotiation

Multiple Choice

63. Which of the following statements about conflict is incorrect? a) Managers and team leaders can spend considerable time dealing with conflicts. b) The manager or team leader may act as a mediator to resolve conflicts between other people. c) Managers and team leaders should always push conflict to the highest level. d) Managers and team leaders should be able to recognize situations that have the potential for conflict. e) Managers and team leaders should be able to deal with conflict situations in ways that will best serve the needs of both the organization and the people involved.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Conflict in Organizations 64. Conflict as it is experienced in the daily workplace involves at least two basic forms. These are ______. a) rational conflict and irrational conflict b) sanctioned conflict and ad-hoc conflict c) substantive conflict and emotional conflict d) bureaucratic conflict and personal conflict e) institutional conflict and rational conflict

Page: 220

Level: Medium

65. ______involves interpersonal difficulties that arise over feelings of anger, mistrust, dislike, fear, resentment, and the like. a) Substantive conflict b) Emotional conflict c) Indigenous conflict d) Rational conflict e) Impulsive conflict

Page: 220

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Types of Conflict 66. Samantha stated that she does not like her coworker, Mary. Samantha said, “Mary always rubs me the wrong way.” Samantha is experiencing ______conflict with Mary. a) substantive b) emotional c) indigenous d) rational e) impulsive

Page: 220

Level: Difficult

67. Choosing between a valued promotion in the organization or a desirable new job with another firm is an example of ______conflict. a) retreat-advance b) avoidance-avoidance c) advance-retreat d) avoidance-approach e) approach-approach

Page: 221

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

68. An example of ______conflict is being asked to accept a job transfer to another town in an undesirable location or to have one’s employment with an organization terminated. a) avoidance-avoidance b) approach-approach c) retreat-retreat d) avoidance-approach e) approach-avoidance

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

69. Being offered a higher paying job whose responsibilities entail unwanted demands on one’s personal time is an example of ______. a) avoidance-avoidance conflict b) approach-approach conflict c) approach-avoidance conflict d) retreat-retreat conflict e) avoidance-approach conflict

Ans: Page: 221

Level: Difficult

70. Two persons debating each other aggressively on the merits of two different proposed advertising campaigns is an example of ______. a) substantive intrapersonal conflict b) substantive group conflict c) emotional interpersonal conflict d) substantive interpersonal conflict e) emotional intrapersonal conflict

Page: 221

Level: Medium

71. Two persons continually in disagreement over each other’s work attire is an example of ______. a) substantive intrapersonal conflict b) substantive group conflict c) emotional interpersonal conflict d) substantive interpersonal conflict e) emotional intrapersonal conflict Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

72. Conflict between functional departments such as marketing and manufacturing is a common example of ______. a) interpersonal conflict b) intergroup conflict c) intragroup conflict d) interorganizational conflict e) extra-organizational conflict

Page: 221

Level: Medium

73. Use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize ______and promote more creative and efficient operations. a) interpersonal conflict b) intragroup conflict c) intergroup conflict d) interorganizational conflict e) extra-organizational conflict

Page: 221

Level: Medium

74. ______most commonly occurs in the context of the competition and rivalry that characterize firms operating the same markets. a) Shared organizational conflict b) Intraorganizational conflict c) Cross-organizational conflict d) Interorganizational conflict e) Extra-organizational conflict

Page: 221

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 75. All of the following are examples of interorganizational conflict EXCEPT: a) disagreements between unions and the organizations employing the union members. b) disagreements between government regulatory agencies and the organizations subject to their surveillance. c) the battle between U.S. businesses and their global rivals. d) disagreements with members of another work team. e) disagreements between organizations and those who supply them with raw materials.

Page: 221-222

Level: Difficult

76. Continuing battles between U.S. businesses and their global rivals such as Ford versus Hyundai and AT&T versus Verizon are examples of which of the following? a) Interorganizational conflict b) Intergroup conflict c) Intrapersonal conflict d) Interpersonal conflict e) Substantive conflict

Page: 221

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 77. All of the following are considered levels of conflict EXCEPT: a) emotional conflict. b) interorganizational conflict. c) intergroup conflict. d) intrapersonal conflict. e) interpersonal conflict.

Page: 220

Level: Easy

78. Which of the following is not considered a benefit of functional conflict? a) Functional conflict can bring important problems to the surface so they can be addressed. b) Functional conflict can cause decisions to be considered carefully. c) Functional conflict can cause decisions to be reconsidered to ensure that the right course of action is being followed. d) Functional conflict can decrease the amount of information used for decision making. e) Functional conflict can offer opportunities for creativity that can improve individual, team, or organizational performance.

Page: 222

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations. Section Reference: Functional and Dysfunctional Conflict

79. The type of conflict that diverts energies, hurts group cohesion, promotes interpersonal hostilities, and overall creates a negative environment for workers is called ______. a) inappropriate conflict b) inconsistent conflict c) functional conflict d) dysfunctional conflict e) contradictory conflict

Page: 222

Level: Medium

80. Individuals who are not able to recognize and respect cultural differences may contribute to the emergence of ______. a) constructive conflict b) functional conflict c) dysfunctional conflict d) appropriate conflict e) useful conflict

Page: 224

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

81. The ______process begins with a good understanding of the causes of conflict and recognition of the stage to which conflict has developed. a) conflict fortitude b) conflict reconciliation c) conflict resolution d) conflict judgment e) conflict determination

Page: 224

Level: Medium

82. ______establish the conditions from which conflicts are likely to develop. a) Conflict antecedents b) Perceived conflicts c) Manifest conflicts d) Felt conflicts e) Distinct conflicts

83. In the context of the stages of conflict, when the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of ______exists. a) felt conflict b) distinct conflict c) manifest conflict d) perceived conflict e) apparent conflict

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

84. Conflict that is experienced as tension and motivates a person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort is called ______. a) perceived conflict b) felt conflict c) distinct conflict d) manifest conflict e) apparent conflict Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

85. When conflict is expressed openly in behavior, it is considered ______. a) felt conflict b) perceived conflict c) apparent conflict d) distinct conflict e) manifest conflict

Page: 224

Level: Difficult

86. ______is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues. a) Leniency b) Suppression c) Neglect d) Avoidance e) Tolerance

Page: 225

Level: Medium

87. ______commonly involves supervisor-subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results. a) Line-staff conflict b) Upright conflict c) Bureaucratic conflict d) Horizontal conflict e) Vertical conflict

Page: 225

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Hierarchical Causes of Conflict 88. ______occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level. a) Horizontal conflict b) Role conflict c) Vertical conflict d) Line-staff conflict e) Bureaucratic conflict

Page: 225

Level: Medium

89. ______commonly involve goal incompatibilities, resource scarcities, or purely interpersonal factors. a) Bureaucratic conflicts b) Cross-diagonal conflicts c) Horizontal conflicts d) Hierarchical conflicts e) Vertical conflicts

Page: 225

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Hierarchical Causes of Conflict 90. ______conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations is unclear or upsetting in some way, such as a team member receiving different expectations from the leader and other members. a) Vertical b) Horizontal c) Line-staff d) Task e) Role ambiguity

Page: 225

Level: Medium

91. Which of the following is (are) a common cause(s) of conflict in organizations? a) Unresolved prior conflicts b) Resource scarcities c) Role ambiguities d) Structural differentiation e) All of the above

Page: 225-226

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed. Section Reference: Hierarchical Causes of Conflict

92. When people are unclear about how their objectives or those of their teams fit with those being pursued by others, or when their objectives directly compete in a win-lose fashion, which of the following may be the cause of conflict? a) Unresolved prior conflicts b) Resource scarcities c) Domain ambiguities d) Structural differentiation e) Task interdependencies

Page: 226

Level: Medium

93. In a course team where members are arguing over content choices for a PowerPoint presentation, it might help to remind everyone that the goal is to impress the instructor and get an “A” for the presentation and that this is only possible if everyone contributes their best. This is an example of which indirect conflict management strategy? a) Managed interdependence b) Appeals to common goals c) Upward referral d) Altering scripts and myths e) None of the above Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Difficult

94. The conflict management style of ______involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony. a) avoidance b) accommodation c) competition d) compromise e) collaboration

Page: 229

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies 95. Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style? a) Avoidance b) Competition c) Accommodation d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Page: 229

Level: Difficult

96. Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style? a) Avoidance b) Competition c) Accommodation d) Compromise e) Collaboration

Page: 229

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies 97. The conflict management style of ______involves being uncooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by working against the wishes of the other party, engaging in win- lose competition, and/or forcing things to a favorable conclusion through the exercise of authority. a) avoidance b) accommodation c) competition d) compromise e) collaboration

Page: 229

Level: Medium

98. The conflict management style of ______involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains. a) avoidance b) accommodation c) competition d) compromise e) collaboration

99. Len emphasizes cooperation and assertiveness in dealing with conflict situations in his department. Differences are worked through together so that everybody’s concerns are addressed and everyone gains something in the end. Len uses which conflict management style? a) Competition b) Avoidance c) Collaboration d) Accommodation e) Compromise

Page: 229

Level: Difficult

100. ______may be used when issues are more important to others than to yourself or when you want to build “credits” for use in later disagreements. a) Collaboration and problem solving b) Avoidance c) Authoritative command d) Accommodation e) Compromise Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Medium

101. Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style? a) Avoidance b) Authoritative command c) Accommodation d) Collaboration e) Unassertiveness

Page: 229

Level: Medium

102. ______occurs when a formal authority simply dictates a solution and specifies what is gained and what is lost by whom. a) Competition b) Avoidance c) Collaboration d) Authoritative command e) Compromise

Page: 229

Level: Medium

103. Two important goals must be considered in negotiation. These goals are ______. a) substantive goals and emotional goals b) statutory goals and discretionary goals c) interpersonal goals and intrapersonal goals d) substance goals and relationship goals e) direct goals and indirect goals

Page: 230-231

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes 104. ______goals deal with outcomes that relate to the “content” issues under negotiation. a) Relationship b) Substance c) Object d) Discretionary e) Material

Page: 230

Level: Easy

105. The dollar amount of a wage agreement in a collective bargaining situation is an example of a(n) ______goal. a) emotional b) discretionary c) relationship d) substance e) article

Page: 230-231

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes 106. ______goals deal with outcomes that relate to how well people involved in the negotiation and any constituencies they may represent are able to work with one another once the process in concluded. a) Process b) Substance c) Relationship d) Collaborative e) Statutory

Page: 231

Level: Medium

107. An example of a(n) ______goal is the ability of union members and management representatives to work together effectively after a contract dispute has been settled. a) emotional b) discretionary c) relationship d) substance e) article

Page: 231

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes 108. ______negotiation occurs when substance issues are resolved and working relationships are maintained or even improved. a) Effective b) Decisive c) Collaborative d) Conclusive e) Efficient

Page: 231

Level: Medium

109. The manager negotiates directly with one other person in ______negotiation. a) intergroup b) constituency c) two-party d) group e) intragroup

Page: 232

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Organizational Settings for Negotiation 110. In ______negotiation, the manager is part of a group that is negotiating with another group to arrive at a decision regarding a problem or situation affecting both. a) group b) two-party c) intragroup d) intergroup e) constituency

Page: 232

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Organizational Settings for Negotiation

111. In ______negotiation, the manager is involved in negotiation with other persons, with each party representing a broader constituency. a) intergroup b) constituency c) two-party d) group e) intragroup

Page: 232

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Organizational Settings for Negotiation 112. ______negotiation focuses on positions staked out or declared by the parties involved who are each trying to claim certain portions of the available pie. a) Integrative b) Distributive c) Good-faith d) Consolidating e) Process

Page: 232

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Negotiation Strategies

113. ______negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it. a) Integrative b) Distributive c) Good-faith d) Consolidating e) Process

Page: 232

Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Identify alternative strategies for negotiation, common negotiation pitfalls, and third-party roles in negotiation.

114. ______negotiation takes place when each party holds out to get its own way. a) Soft distributive b) Hard distributive c) Direct distributive d) Indirect e) Integrative

Page: 233

Level: Medium

115. ______distributive negotiation takes place when one party is willing to make concessions to the other to get things over with. a) Indirect b) Hard distributive c) Direct distributive d) Integrative e) Soft distributive

116. Gaining truly integrative agreements rests on which set of factors? a) Friendly interpersonal relationships, constructive task roles, and good information b) Supportive attitudes, constructive behaviors, and good information c) Supportive attitudes and values d) Constructive plans and cooperative behaviors e) Good information, ethical values, and effective maintenance roles

Page: 234

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: How to Gain Integrative Agreements

117. All of the following are important behavioral foundations for gaining integrative agreements EXCEPT: a) the ability to separate the people from the problem in order to prevent emotional considerations from affecting the negotiations. b) the ability to focus on positions rather than interests. c) the ability to avoid making premature judgments. d) the ability to keep the acts of alternative creation separate from their evaluation. e) the ability to judge possible agreements on an objective set of criteria or standards. Ans:

Page: 234

Level: Difficult

118. ______is the tendency in negotiations to stake out your position based on the assumption that in order to gain your way, something must be subtracted from the other party’s way. a) The myth of the fixed pie b) Escalating commitment c) Overconfidence d) The telling problem e) The selling problem

Page: 235

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Common Negotiation Pitfalls 119. The negotiating pitfall of ______occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down once the demands have been stated. a) the myth of the fixed pie b) escalating commitment c) overconfidence d) the telling problem e) the selling problem

Page: 235

Level: Medium

120. The negotiation pitfall of ______occurs when negotiators believe that their positions are the only correct ones. a) the myth of the fixed pie b) escalating commitment c) overconfidence d) the telling problem e) the selling problem

Page: 235

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Common Negotiation Pitfalls 121. Negotiations can break down because of a(n) ______problem, wherein the parties don’t really talk to one another, at least not in the sense of making themselves truly understood. a) telling b) selling c) perceptual d) hearing e) cognitive

Page: 235

Level: Medium

122. In ______, a neutral third party tries to engage the parties in a negotiated solution through persuasion and rational argument. a) arbitration b) mediation c) accommodation d) compromise e) ADR

Page: 236

Fill in the blank

123. ______involves a fundamental disagreement over ends or goals to be pursued and the means for their accomplishment.

Page: 220

Level: Medium

124. Emotional conflict is commonly known as a(n) ______.

Page: 220

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

125. ______occurs within the individual because of actual or perceived pressures from incompatible goals or expectations.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

126. Approach-approach conflict, avoidance-avoidance conflict, and approach-avoidance conflict are different types of ______.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Level of Conflict 127. ______occurs when a person must choose between two positive and equally attractive alternatives.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

128. ______occurs when a person must choose between two negative and equally unattractive alternatives.

Page: 221

Level: Medium

129. ______conflict occurs when a person must decide to do something that has both positive and negative consequences. Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult

130. ______conflict results in positive benefits to individuals, the group, or the organization.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

131. Functional conflict is also called ______.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations. Section Reference: Functional and Dysfunctional Conflict

132. Dysfunctional conflict is also called ______.

Page: 222

Level: Easy

133. ______occurs when the underlying reasons for a destructive conflict are eliminated.

Page: 224

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Conflict Management 134. ______conflict occurs between persons or groups working at the same hierarchical level.

Page: 225

Level: Medium

135. Decoupling is a simple indirect conflict management strategy used to reduce ______.

Page: 227

Level: Medium

136. ______conflict occurs when no one gets what he/she wants, while the underlying reasons for conflict remain unaffected and a similar conflict is likely to occur in the future.

137. ______is preferred to gain true conflict resolution when time and cost permit.

Page: 230

Level: Medium

138. ______may be used when an issue is trivial, when more important issues are pressing, or when people need to cool down temporarily and regain perspective.

Page: 230

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies 139. ______may be used to arrive at temporary settlements of complex issues or to arrive at expedient solutions when time is limited.

Page: 230

Level: Medium

140. When conflict management results in one party achieving its desires and the other party not achieving its desires, the conflict is considered to be a ______conflict.

Page: 229

Level: Easy

141. ______is the process of making joint decisions when the parties involved have different preferences. Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Easy

142. Principled negotiation is another name for ______.

Page: 232

Level: Medium

143. The ______is the range between one party’s minimum reservation point and the other party’s maximum reservation point in a negotiating situation.

Page: 233

144. In the ______approach to negotiation, participants would say: “Let’s find a way to make this work for both of us.”

Page: 232

Level: Medium

145. When people state their demands and then become committed to them and are reluctant to back down, they are demonstrating the negotiation pitfall known as ______.

Page: 235

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Common Negotiation Pitfalls 146. In ______, a neutral third party works with persons involved in a negotiation to help them resolve impasses and settle disputes

Page: 235

Level: Medium

147. In ______, a neutral third party tries to engage the parties in a negotiated solution through persuasion and rational argument.

Page: 236

Level: Medium

148. In ______, a neutral third party acts as judge with the power to issue a decision binding for all parties. Ans:

Page: 236

Level: Medium

149. What is conflict? In what ways are managers involved with conflict? Page: 220

Level: Medium

150. What is the difference between functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict?

Page: 222-223

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

151. In the context of direct conflict management approaches, what are assertiveness and cooperativeness? How are assertiveness and cooperativeness related to each of the five basic direct conflict management approaches?

Page: 229

Level: Difficult

152. What is negotiation? What are the two primary goals in the negotiation process? Provide an example of each type of goal. In the context of these goals, when is negotiation effective?

Page: 230-231

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes 153. Explain the basic nature and likely results of distributive and integrative negotiation? Page: 232-234

Level: Difficult

File: ch11, Chapter 11: Communication and Collaboration

True/False

1. Communication is the process of sending and receiving symbols with attached meanings.

Ans: Page: 242 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process

2. Successful organizations value and promote effective communication across organizational boundaries but fortunately not at the interpersonal level.

Ans: Page: 242

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

Section Reference: The Communication Process

3. The key elements in the communication process include a source, who encodes an intended meaning into a message; a receiver, who decodes the message into a perceived meaning; and noise, which is any disruption in the transference of the message.

Ans: Page: 242 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process

4. The role of the “source” in the communication process is to encode an intended meaning into a message.

5. The role of the “receiver” in the communication process is to decode the message into a perceived meaning.

6. Static is the term used to describe any disturbance that influences the effectiveness of the communication process.

7. The process of translating an idea or thought into a message consisting of verbal, written, or nonverbal symbols, or some combination of them, is called decoding.

8. Communication channels are the pathways through which messages are communicated.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process 9. Encoding-decoding conduits are the pathways through which messages are transmitted.

10. Fortunately, the choice of communication channel does not have an impact on the communication process.

11. The communication process is completed when a message is sent.

12. In order for meaning to be assigned to any received message, its contents must be interpreted through encoding. Ans: Page: 243 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process

13. The process of decoding is complicated by many factors, including the knowledge and experience of the receiver and his or her relationship with the sender.

14. Feedback is the process through which the receiver communicates with the sender by returning another message.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

15. Feedback communicates how one feels about something another person has done or said.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication 16. Unfortunately, in most workplaces, there is too much feedback rather than too little.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

17. Nonverbal communication occurs by facial expressions, body position, eye contact, and other physical gestures.

Ans: Page: 244 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

Section Reference: Nonverbal Communication

18. Communicating with someone through facial expressions, body posture, eye contact, and other physical gestures is referred to as non-audible communication.

Ans: Page: 244 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

Section Reference: Nonverbal Communication 19. Nonverbal communication affects the impressions that people make on others. It also can hold the key to what someone is really thinking or what he/she really means.

20. Nonverbal communication can take place through the physical arrangement of space.

Ans: Page: 244 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

21. Kinesics is the study of the way space is utilized, whereas proxemics is study of gestures and body postures.

22. Furniture placement can provide nonverbal communication. Ans: Page: 244 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

23. When Sam cannot listen objectively to Tinesha due to a lack of trust, he is experiencing an interpersonal barrier to communication.

Ans: Page: 245 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

Section Reference: Communication Barriers

24. Interpersonal barriers occur when individuals are not able to objectively listen to the sender due to things such as lack of trust, personality clashes, and a bad reputation.

Page: 245

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

25. Semantic barriers occur only when people communicate in two different languages. Ans: Page: 246 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

26. The ability to listen well is a distinct asset to anyone whose job involves a large proportion of their time spent communicating with other people.

Section Reference: Active Listening

27. Telling and listening are two sides of the communication process.

28. The ability to help the source of a message say what he or she really means is called dynamic listening.

29. The concept of active listening comes from the work of counselors and therapists, who are trained to help people express themselves and talk about things that are important to them.

Ans: Pages: 246-247 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

30. To be an effective active listener, a person should listen only for content –– trying to hear exactly what is being said.

Ans: Page: 247 Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

31. To be an effective active listener, research suggests, that people should only pay attention to verbal expressions and ignore nonverbal expressions.

Ans: Page: 247

Level: Easy

32. Ethnocentrism is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.

Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication

33. Crossed legs are quite acceptable in the United Kingdom but are rude in Saudi Arabia if the sole of the foot is directed toward someone.

Page: 249

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication 34. The U.S. is a low-context culture where words convey only part of a message, while the rest of the message must be inferred from body language and additional contextual cues.

35. International business experts advise that one of the best ways to gain understanding of cultural differences is to hire people from different countries.

Page: 250

Level: Medium

36. Information flows in organizations through both formal and informal channels of communication. Ans: Page: 251 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels

37. Formal channels of communication follow the chain of command established by an organization’s hierarchy of authority.

Ans: Page: 251 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels

38. Informal channels of communication do not adhere to the organization’s hierarchy of authority.

39. Both formal channels and informal channels follow the chain of command.

Ans: Page: 251 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels 40. A grapevine transfers rumors and other unofficial information through networks of friendships and acquaintances.

41. Being part of a grapevine can provide a sense of security from “being in the know” and can help fulfill the needs of people involved in them.

42. The primary disadvantage of grapevines occurs when they transmit incorrect or untimely information.

43. The primary disadvantage of grapevines is that they transfer information slowly and fairly inefficiently.

Ans: Page: 252 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.

Section Reference: Communication Channels

44. Channel richness is the capacity of a communication channel to convey information in an effective manner.

45. In general, the richest communication channel is face-to-face communication.

46. In general, the leanest communication channel is a posted notice or bulletin.

Ans: Page: 252 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels 47. Leaner channels work well for more routine and straightforward messages, whereas richer channels work well with complex and open-ended messages.

Ans: Page: 252 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels

48. Upward communication follows the chain of command from top to bottom.

Ans: Page: 253 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows

49. One of the major functions of downward communication is to achieve influence by providing information.

50. A lack of adequate downward communication is often cited as a management failure.

Ans: Page: 252 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows 51. The flow of messages from lower to higher organizational levels is downward communication.

52. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about the organization’s strategies and policies.

53. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about what lower-level employees are doing and the problems they are having.

54. Inside an organization, employees communicate across departmental levels through parallel communication.

55. For lateral communication to be effective, people must be willing and able to communicate across departmental or functional boundaries.

Ans: Page: 253 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows

56. For lateral communication to be effective, people must be willing to listen to other functions and departments from the perspective of serving their needs as “internal customers.”

57. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is referred to as organizational ecology.

Ans: Page: 253 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows 58. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is known as organizational proxemics.

59. A problem in electronic communication today is controlling one’s emotions.

Section Reference: Communication Flows

60. In a 24/7 world, most companies take the cue from P & G in telling employees it is not acceptable to turn their presence status to off or unavailable.

Ans: Page: 255 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.

61. With the rise of social networking tools, the withholding of information is becoming more difficult giving customers more information power than ever.

Ans: Page: 255 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments. Section Reference: Collaboration Technologies

62. Interest in transparency concepts are on the decline with so much information available on the internet.

Ans: Page: 256 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Section Reference: Interactional Transparency

63. A supportive communication principle is to focus on the problem and not the person.

Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles

64. When engaging in supportive communication, it is helpful for a person to use absolutes such as, “You never listen to me.”

Page: 257

Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Multiple Choice

65. There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are ______. a) semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects b) cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects c) mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects d) physical distractions, semantic problems, absence of feedback, cultural differences, absence of commitment to effective communication, and cultural differences e) tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback

66. In all interpersonal communication, it is important to understand the sources of ______that can easily cause problems in the communication process. a) communicating b) e-mailing c) noise d) talking e) writing

67. Potential noise comes from all of the following EXCEPT: a) cultural similarities. b) semantic problems. c) mixed messages. d) absence of feedback. e) physical distractions.

Ans: Page: 242 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

68. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to two-way communication? a) Two-way communication goes from sender to receiver and back again. b) Two-way communication is characterized by the normal interactive conversation in our daily experiences. c) Research indicates that two-way communication is often less effective than one-way communication. d) Two-way communication is more time consuming than one-way communication. e) Two-way communication is more costly than one-way communication.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process

69. In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that ______. a) two-way communication is more accurate b) one-way communication is more accurate c) both types of communication are the same in terms of accuracy d) two-way communication is more accurate in large firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in small firms e) two-way communication is more accurate in small firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in large firms

Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

70. Which of the following is NOT an effective way to give constructive feedback? a) Limit how much feedback the receiver gets at one time. b) Focus on things the receiver can control. c) Give feedback when the receiver is most ready to accept it. d) Be general so as not to hurt the person’s feelings. e) Give feedback directly and in a spirit of mutual trust.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

71. The art of impression management during interviews requires careful attention to ______. a) dress b) verbal communication c) timeliness d) nonverbal aspects of communication e) both verbal and nonverbal aspects of communication

72. Research indicates that ______communication is more accurate and effective than ______communication. a) one-way; two-way b) individual; group c) team; individual d) two-way; one-way e) one-way; group

73. ______communication is more costly and time consuming than ______communication. a) One-way; two-way b) Individual; group c) Team; individual d) Two-way; one-way e) One-way; group

74. Examples of one-way communication include all of the following EXCEPT: a) memos. b) discussion boards. c) letters. d) e-mail. e) voice mail.

75. Because of their efficiency, ______are frequently used in work settings. a) three-way communications b) two-way communications c) one-way communications d) group communications e) individual communications

Section Reference: Feedback and Communication 76. ______occurs when individuals block out information or only hear things that match preconceived notions. a) Mangled messages b) Selective listening c) Perceptual distractions d) Semantic problems e) Communication barriers

77. Which of the following may lead to an interpersonal barrier? a) Lack of trust b) Personality clashes c) A bad reputation d) Stereotypes/prejudices e) All of the above

Ans: Page: 245 Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication. Section Reference: Communication Barriers

78. John dislikes his co-worker, Dylan. Dylan must miss the morning staff meeting as he has other work-related responsibilities to complete at this time. It is John’s responsibility to fill Dylan in on what happened at the meeting. Many times John decides to leave out critical details or pointers that may help Dylan to be more successful in getting things done. John is engaging in which communication barrier? a) Selective listening b) Filtering c) Semantic barriers d) Physical distractions e) None of the above

Ans: Page: 245 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication. Section Reference: Communication Barriers

79. When in doubt regarding the clarity of your written or spoken message, the recommended course of action to follow is: a) “keep it smart and short.” b) “keep it straightforward and simple.” c) “keep it simple and smart.” d) “keep it short and simple.” e) “keep it sophisticated and savvy.”

80. Semantic barriers to communication involve ______. a) foreign communication b) weak communication links c) breaks in communication transmissions d) loud noises that disrupt what is communicated e) a poor choice or use of words and mixed messages

Ans: Page: 246 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

81. The popular KISS principle of communication stands for ______. a) keep it swift and safe b) keep it short and simple c) keep it step-by-step d) keep in style and standard e) keep it speedy and specific

82. ______is the ability to help the source of a message say what he or she really means. a) Ordered listening b) Expressive listening c) Trained listening d) Formal listening e) Active listening

83. There are two sides to the communication process ______and ______. a) forwarding a message; receiving a message b) forwarding a message; listening to a message c) sending a message; reinforcing a message d) telling a message; reinforcing a message e) sending a message; receiving a message

84. Guidelines for active listening include all of the following EXCEPT: a) listen for content. b) listen for feelings. c) watch for mistakes. d) respond to feelings. e) reflect back.

85. The success of international business practices such as outsourcing often rests with the quality of ______. a) ethnocentrism b) honesty c) ethics d) cross-cultural communication e) an individual’s ability to speak one language

Ans: Page: 248 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication. Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication

86. ______is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view. a) Self-preservation b) Self-centeredness c) Ethnocentrism d) Individual affirmation e) Personal protection.

87. The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious in respect to ______differences. a) language b) moral c) outsourcing d) stamina e) writing

88. ______cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word. a) High and low-continuity b) Low-content c) High-content d) Low-context e) High-context

89. Which of the following countries is a low-context culture? a) United States b) India c) Japan d) France e) Scotland

90. Members of high-context cultures use all of the following to convey their messages EXCEPT: a) body language. b) the physical setting. c) past relationships. d) words for only a limited part of a message. e) explicit words for the majority of a message.

91. Which of the following statements is accurate? a) Many Asian cultures are considered low context cultures. b) Most Western cultures are high context cultures. c) Canada is a high-context culture. d) Many Middle Eastern cultures are considered low-context cultures. e) The United States is a low-context culture.

92. ______is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously. a) Ethnocentrism b) Proxemics c) Kinesics d) Internal affirmation e) Self importance

Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication 93. The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to ______. a) geographic differences b) language differences c) religious differences d) lifestyle differences e) ethnic differences

94. Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate? a) People must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country. b) Ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds. c) Language differences represent a major difficulty in cross-cultural communication. d) Gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world. e) People must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different national cultures.

Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication 95. Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct? a) Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word. b) In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken. c) Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures. d) Members of high-context cultures use words to convey only a limited part of the message. e) In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.

Ans: Pages: 249-250 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

96. Examples of communication channels include all of the following EXCEPT: a) face-to-face meetings. b) e-mail. c) online discussions. d) decoding. e) written letters.

Ans: Page: 251 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Channels

97. All of the following statements about information channels are correct EXCEPT: a) networking takes place through the use of informal channels. b) informal channels adhere to an organization’s hierarchy of authority. c) informal channels coexist with the formal channels of an organization. d) informal channels diverge from formal organization channels by skipping levels in the hierarchy or cutting across vertical chains of command. e) informal channels help to create open communications in organizations and ensure that the right people are in contact one another.

98. Grapevines have the advantage of ______. a) always including the leaders of the organization b) separating “those with information” from “those who shouldn’t have information” c) sharing information that is always correct d) ensuring that everyone who needs to hear the information gets the information e) being able to transmit information quickly and efficiently

99. The primary disadvantage of grapevines is, it ______. a) provides a sense of security from “being in the know” b) provides social satisfaction as information is exchanged interpersonally c) helps fulfill the needs of people involved in them d) transmits incorrect or untimely information e) transmits information quickly and efficiently

100. When messages get more complex and open-ended, ______are necessary to achieve effective communication. a) leaner channels b) richer channels c) more channels d) senior channels e) correct channels

101. ______work well for more routine and straightforward messages, such as announcing the location of a previously scheduled meeting. a) Elegant channels b) Additional channels c) Richer channels d) Leaner channels e) Foreign channels

102. Downward communication does all of the following EXCEPT: a) follows the chain of command top to bottom. b) achieves influence through information. c) helps create a sense of security and involvement among receivers who feel they know the whole story. d) as a favorite management strategy that often occurs. e) helps minimize the spread of rumors.

103. The flow of messages at the same levels across organizations is known as ______. a) team communication b) upward communication c) downward communication d) lateral communication e) collaborative communication

104. All of the following are true of the study by Detert and Burris on leadership behaviors EXCEPT: a) personalized behavior is not enough to generate employee voice. b) if leaders are going to overcome employee restraint in speaking up, they must indicate openness to change. c) openness behaviors send a clear signal that voice is welcome. d) many individuals don’t feel safe speaking up in their organizations. e) transformational leader behaviors are enough to signal openness.

Ans: Page: 254 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows 105. The term ______is sometimes used to describe rudeness in electronic communication. a) flaming b) filtering c) selective perception d) noise e) presence

106. ______differences in organizations create potential communication barriers between persons of higher and lower ranks. a) Minority vs. majority b) Cultural c) Status d) Gender e) Age

Section Reference: Status Effects

107. Given the authority of their positions, managers may be inclined to do a lot of ______, but not much ______. a) screaming; talking b) intuitively deciding; sound evaluating. c) decision making; listening d) answering; creating e) telling; listening

Ans: Page: 255 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.

108. Because communication is frequently biased when flowing upward, subordinates may ______. a) only communicate with their bosses only when they have to. b) use email as a means to communicate with their bosses. c) communicate to their bosses only in writing. d) filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear. e) tell their bosses everything they know about a subject.

109. The mum effect can occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) an employee’s fear of retribution for bringing bad news. b) an employee’s unwillingness to identify personal mistakes. c) an employee’s general desire to please. d) an employee’s desire to be polite. e) an employee’s desire to speak out at meetings.

110. A potential advantage of electronic communication is ______. a) people are interacting with machines so interactions are often impersonal b) allowing broader and more immediate access to information c) nonverbal communications is removed from interactions d) recipients are typically accurate is identifying the tone or intent of email e) people are interacting less with each other directly

111. Software that allows users to view others’ real-time availability and readiness to communicate is known as ______. a) the 24/7 environment b) presence-aware tools c) electronic eavesdropping d) privacy tools e) flaming

112. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the effects of status on interpersonal communication? a) Status differences in organizations create potential communication barriers between persons of higher and lower ranks. b) Given the authority of their positions, managers may be inclined to do a lot of listening but not much telling. c) Communication is frequently biased when flowing upward in organizational hierarchies. d) Subordinates may filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear. e) Higher-level decision makers may take the wrong actions because of biased and inaccurate information supplied from below.

Ans: Page: 255 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Status Effects

113. The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in ______. a) verbal communication b) written communication c) electronic communication d) nonverbal communication e) communications in large group settings

114. The use of computers makes people feel less inhibited, more impatient in what they say, and more likely to engage in ______. a) the mum effect b) information overload c) flaming d) collaborative approaches e) feedback.

115. The open and honest sharing of information is known as ______. a) feedback b) constructive feedback c) interactional transparency d) disconfirmation e) the mum effect

Section Reference: Interactional Transparency

116. A result of the rise of social networking tools and additional collaboration technologies has been ______. a) a reduction of status differentials and breaking down of corporate silos b) an increase of status differentials and breading down of corporate silos c) an increase of status differentials and an increase in corporate silos d) a reduction of status differentials and an increase in corporate silos e) less information power for customers

Ans: Page: 256 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Section Reference: Collaboration Technologies

117. Which of the following is NOT a component of interactional transparency? a) Sharing relevant information b) Being forthcoming regarding motives c) Proactively seeking feedback d) Guarding against corporate fraud e) Proactively giving feedback

Section Reference: Interactional Transparency 118. A set of tools to approach difficult conversations are known as ______. a) transparency b) supportive communication principles c) presence-aware tools d) proxemics e) active listening

119. The primary emphasis of supportive communication is to avoid ______. a) transparency and disconfirmation b) defensiveness and transparency c) defensiveness and disconfirmation d) selective listening and defensiveness e) disconfirmation and selective listening

120. ______occurs when an individual feels his self-worth is being questioned. a) Transparency b) Defensiveness c) Flaming d) Proxemics e) Disconfirmation

121. ______occurs when individuals feel they are being attacked and they need to protect themselves. a) Transparency b) Defensiveness c) Flaming d) Proxemics e) Disconfirmation

122. Which of the following is NOT a supportive communication principle? a) Focus on the problem and not the person. b) Be specific and descriptive, not global or evaluative. c) Own, rather than disown, the communication. d) Seek to be heard and understood. e) Be congruent – match the words with the body language.

Fill in the blank

123. ______is a process of sending and receiving messages with attached meanings.

124. ______is the process through which a receiver communicates with a sender by returning another message.

Ans: Page: 243 Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

125. ______flows from sender to receiver only, as in the case of a written memo or a voice-mail message.

126. In ______communication, there is no direct and immediate feedback from the recipient of a message.

127. ______communication goes from sender to receiver and back again.

128. When verbal and nonverbal messages do not match, receivers will pay more attention to the ______.

Section Reference: Nonverbal Communication 129. ______communication takes place through facial expressions, body position, eye contact and other physical gestures.

130. ______is the study of gestures and body postures.

131. ______is the act of speaking without using words.

Page: 244

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

132. ______barriers to communication involve a poor choice or use of words and mixed messages.

133. Interruptions such as a telephone ringing, someone knocking on your door, or someone dropping by your office when you are trying to communicate with someone else are examples of ______in effective communication.

134. Suppose you work for an international food company. Although you like your boss, one thing that bothers you is that he openly believes that his culture is superior to other cultures. This common problem is called ______.

135. ______is the tendency to believe one’s culture and its values are superior to those of others.

136. The types of information flows in organizations are ______and ______.

137. ______is the study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications.

Ans: Page: 253 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows

138. ______channels follow the chain of command established by an organization’s hierarchy of authority.

139. ______takes place through the use of information channels that do not adhere to an organization’s hierarchy of authority.

140. The tendency to sometimes withhold information from a desire to be polite and a reluctance to transmit bad news is sometimes called the ______.

141. ______tools are software that allow a user to view others’ real-time availability status and readiness to communicate.

142. ______in communication occurs when individuals feel they are being attacked and they need to protect themselves.

Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles 143. In supportive communication, we are supposed to focus on the problem and not the ______.

144. ______occurs when an individual feels his or her self-worth is being questioned.

Ans: Page: 257 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments. Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles

145. What are the key elements in the communication process?

Page: 242-243 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: The Communication Process

146. What does the term “feedback” refer to in the context of interpersonal communication? Why is it important? In practice, how does the feedback process typically work and how is it accomplished effectively?

Page: 243 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication. Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

147. What is active listening and what are the recommended guidelines for its use?

Page: 246-247 Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication. Section Reference: Active Listening

148. Briefly describe each of the following communication flows: downward, upward, and lateral. What does each type of flow accomplish in an organization?

Pages: 252-253 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects. Section Reference: Communication Flows

149. What are supportive communication principles?

Page: 257

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles File: ch12, Chapter 12: Power and Politics

True/False

1. Power is a behavioral response to the exercise of influence.

Page: 264

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

Section Reference: Power and Influence

2. Influence is the ability to get someone to do something you want done or the ability to make things happen in the way you want them to.

Ans: Page: 264

Level: Medium

3. Few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.

Page: 264

Level: Medium

4. The foundation for power rests in interdependence.

Page: 264

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Interdependence, Legitimacy, and Power 5. Stanley Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

Page: 265

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Obedience

6. The basic conclusion of Stanley Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

Page: 266

Level: Medium

7. According to Chester Barnard, subordinates accept a directive from a superior when one or the other of the following conditions is met: (a) the subordinate can and must understand the directive, or (b) the subordinate must feel mentally and physically capable of carrying out the directive.

Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference

8. To accept and follow a manager’s order, the subordinate does not need to understand how the proposed action will help the organization.

Page: 267

Level: Difficult

9. When employees believe the organization has not delivered on its implicit promises, in addition to disobedience, there is more loyalty, lower turnover intentions, and high job satisfaction.

Page: 267

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference 10. A zone of indifference is the range of authoritative requests to which a subordinate is willing to respond without subjecting the directions to critical evaluations or judgment.

Page: 267

Level: Medium

11. According to Chester Barnard, directives falling within the zone of indifference are obeyed, whereas those falling outside of it are not considered legitimate under the terms of the psychological contract.

Page: 267

Level: Medium

12. When a boss would like a subordinate to do something outside the zone of indifference, the manager must attempt to enlarge the zone to accommodate additional behaviors.

Page: 268

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

13. The zone of indifference is fixed.

Page: 268

Level: Medium

14. Position power is available to a manager solely as a result of her or his position in the organization.

Page: 268

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.

Section Reference: Position Power 15. There are seven important aspects of position power: legitimate, reward, coercive, process, information, representative power, and subordination.

Page: 268

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Position Power

16. Power can be based on punishment instead of reward.

Page: 268

Level: Easy

17. Legitimate power, or formal hierarchical authority, stems from the extent to which a manager can control subordinates’ behavior because they believe the boss has the right to do so.

Page: 268

Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.

18. Having the formal authority to approve or deny employees requests for job transfers, equipment purchases, overtime, or personal time off are examples of a manager’s legitimate power.

Page: 268

Level: Easy

19. Voluntarism is the degree to which an employee contributes his or her time and energy to charitable organizations.

Page: 269

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Position Power 20. Coercive power is the extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control other people.

Page: 269

Level: Medium

21. The presence of unions and organizational policies on employee treatment can weaken the ability of a manager to use coercive power.

Page: 269

Level: Easy

22. Specialists who determine the procedures by which investment proposals will be analyzed and evaluated are utilizing process power.

Page: 269

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.

23. Information power may complement legitimate hierarchical power.

Page: 270

Level: Difficult

24. Representative power is based upon access to and/or control of information.

Page: 270

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Position Power 25. Personal power resides in the individual and is independent of that individual’s position within an organization.

Page: 270

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Personal Power

26. Four bases of personal power are expert power, rational persuasion, referent power, and coalition power.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

27. Expert power is the ability to control another’s behavior through the possession of knowledge, experience, or judgment that the other person does not have but needs.

Page: 271

Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.

28. Expert power is absolute, not relative.

Page: 271

Level: Difficult

29. Rational persuasion involves both explaining the desirability of expected outcomes and showing how specific actions will achieve these outcomes.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Personal Power 30. The personal power of rational persuasion can be developed by always honoring implied and explicit social contracts in order to build trust.

Page: 271

Level: Difficult

31. Referent power is the ability to control another’s behavior because, through the individual’s efforts, the person accepts the desirability of an offered goal and a reasonable way of achieving it.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

32. Referent power is the ability to control another’s behavior because of the individual’s desire to identify with the power source.

Page: 271

33. A person’s referent power can be enhanced when the individual taps into the morals held by another or shows a clearer long-term path to a morally desirable end.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

34. Coalition power is the ability to control another’s behavior indirectly because the individual owes an obligation to you or another as part of a larger collective interest.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Personal Power 35. To build a coalition, individuals negotiate trade-offs to arrive at a common position.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

36. Power-oriented behavior is action directed primarily at developing or using relationships in which other people are to some degree willing to defer to one’s wishes.

Page: 272

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity

37. The effective manager is one who succeeds in building and maintaining high levels of both position power and personal power over time.

38. A manager’s personal power can be enhanced by demonstrating to others that his or her work unit is highly relevant to organizational goals and can respond to urgent organizational needs.

Page: 272

Level: Easy

39. Nelson Mandela used his personal and position as president of South Africa to help transform a whole society using a rugby team.

Page: 272

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity 40. Three personal characteristics  expertise, tactfulness, and experience  have special potential for enhancing personal power in an organization.

Page: 273

Level: Difficult

41. Managers can enhance their personal power by building expertise through advanced training and education, participation in professional associations, and involvement in the early stages of projects.

Page: 273

Level: Easy

42. By learning better ways to negotiate, persuade people, and understand the goals and means people are willing to accept, an individual can learn political savvy in order to increase his or her personal power. Ans:

Page: 273

Level: Easy

43. A manager’s referent power is increased by characteristics that enhance his or her “likeability” and create personal attraction in relationships with other people.

Page: 273

Level: Medium

44. Most managers attempt to increase the visibility of their job performance by: expanding the number of contacts they have with senior people, making oral presentations of written work, participating in problem-solving task forces, sending out notices of accomplishments, and generally seeking additional opportunities to increase personal name recognition.

Page: 274

45. By defining a problem in a manner that fits the manager’s expertise, it is natural for that manager to be in charge of solving it, which in turn subtly shifts his or her position power.

Page: 274

Level: Medium

46. The most common strategies of turning power into relational influence include friendliness, coalition, bargaining, and higher authority but exclude reason, assertiveness, and sanctions.

Page: 274

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Relational Influence Techniques 47. Friendliness, assertiveness, bargaining, and higher authority are used more frequently to influence supervisors than to influence subordinates.

Page: 275

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Relational Influence Techniques

48. Downward influence generally includes mobilization of both position and personal power sources, whereas upward influence is more likely to draw on personal power.

Page: 275

Level: Medium

49. Empowerment is the process by which managers help others to acquire and use the power needed to make decisions affecting themselves and their work.

Page: 275

Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the keys to empowerment, power as an expanding pie, and getting from empowerment to valuing people.

Section Reference: Empowerment

50. The traditional view of power considers it to be relational in terms of problems and opportunities, whereas the empowerment view looks at power in terms of the ability to make things happen.

Page: 276

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 3: Discuss the keys to empowerment, power as an expanding pie, and getting from empowerment to valuing people.

Section Reference: Keys to Empowerment

51. When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to contract it.

Page: 276

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Keys to Empowerment 52. The key to empowering all employees is to change the concept of power within the organization from a view that stresses power over others to one that emphasizes the use of power to get things done.

Page: 276

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Power as an Expanding Pie

53. A clearer definition of roles and responsibilities may help managers empower others.

Page: 276

Level: Easy

54. By providing opportunities for creative problem solving coupled with the discretion to act, real empowerment increases the total power available in the organization.

Page: 277

Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the keys to empowerment, power as an expanding pie, and getting from empowerment to valuing people.

55. The Machiavellian tradition of organizational politics considers managers to be political when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits.

Page: 278

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

56. The second tradition of organizational politics involves the use of power to develop socially acceptable ends and means that balance individual and collective interests.

Page: 279

Level: Medium

57. Organizational politics can serve a number of important functions, including overcoming personnel inadequacies, coping with change, and substituting for formal authority. Ans:

Page: 280

Level: Medium

58. Managers may gain a better understanding of political behavior to forecast future actions by placing themselves in the position of other persons involved in critical decisions or events.

Page: 280

Level: Medium

59. Organizational politics are inherently bad.

Ans: Page: 280 Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

60. Workflow linkages for lateral political action involve contacts with units that precede or follow in a sequential production chain.

61. Individuals can employ three common strategies to protect themselves against the adverse effects of organizational politics. Individuals can take action but avoid risk, redirect accountability and responsibility, or maintain a low profile.

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection

62. People who are really devious will engage in political self-protection by using the redirecting techniques of: blaming the problem on someone or some group who has difficulty engaging in self-defense; blaming the problem on uncontrollable events; or escalating commitment to a losing course of action.

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

63. Agency theory reflects the notion that managers are “agents” of the owners and suggests that public corporations can function effectively even though its managers are self-interested and do not automatically bear the full consequences of their managerial actions. Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance

64. To place appropriate controls on agents, stockholders with a large stake in the firm take an active role on the board of directors and a strong, independent board is established.

Page: 284

Level: Medium

65. Organizational governance is the pattern of authority, influence, and acceptable managerial behavior established at the top of the organization.

Page: 286

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance 66. Whereas organizational governance was an internal and rather private matter in the past, it is today becoming more public and controversial.

Page: 286

Level: Medium

Multiple Choice

67. The essence of power is ______. a) personal desire b) the ability to provide support c) a distinguished reputation d) control over the behavior of others e) having a Machiavellian personality.

Page: 264

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Power and Influence 68. In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is inaccurate? a) The unstated underpinning of legitimacy in most organizations is an implicit technical and moral order. b) In U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid. c) In other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc. d) In firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies. e) Senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.

Page: 265

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Interdependence, Legitimacy, and Power

69. Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people ______. a) learn from personal failures b) obey the commands of an authority figure c) are willing to use coercive power to gain influence d) are motivated by financial rewards e) are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

Page: 265

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference. Section Reference: Obedience

70. Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments? a) Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person. b) Experimental subjects were falsely told that the purpose of the experiment was to determine the effects of punishment on the learning of word pairs. c) Experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs. d) The experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points. e) The basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

Page: 265-266

Level: Difficult

71. Barnard’s studies on obedience and compliance relate to all of the following concepts EXCEPT: a) compliance in organizations stemmed from the “consent of the governed.” b) in every day organizational life, subordinates accepted or followed a managerial directive only if specific circumstances were met. c) obedience is not the only reason for compliance in organizations. d) subordinates must believe that a management directive is consistent with the purpose of an organization, but not necessarily the personal interests of the individual. e) Bernard built his analysis on the notion of a psychological contract between the individual and the firm.

Page: 266

Level: Medium

72. According to Barnard, all of the following conditions must be met for a subordinate to accept or follow a directive EXCEPT: a) the subordinate can and must understand the directive. b) the subordinate must feel mentally and physically capable of carrying out the directive. c) the subordinate must believe that the directive is not inconsistent with the purpose of the organization. d) the subordinate must believe that the directive is not inconsistent with his or her personal interests. e) the subordinate must know how the directive will help the organization.

Pages: 266-267

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference 73. The ______is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization. a) psychological contract b) zone of indifference c) political agreement d) rational persuasion e) interorganizational pact

Page: 267

Level: Medium

74. A ______is the range of authoritative requests to which a subordinate is willing to respond without subjecting the directives to critical evaluation or judgment. a) territory of unconcern b) region of inattention c) region of insensibility d) section of apathy e) zone of indifference

Page: 267

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference 75. Directives falling within the zone of indifference are ______. a) subjected to slight scrutiny b) ignored c) rejected d) obeyed e) subjected to severe scrutiny.

Page: 267

Level: Medium

76. When a boss wants a subordinate to do things falling outside the zone of indifference, as identified by Chester, the manager must ______. a) publicize the importance of the zone to employees b) acknowledge the power and influence of the zone c) limit the zone to highlight certain behaviors d) enlarge the zone to accommodate additional behaviors e) explain the zone to employees

Page: 268

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference 77. Managers derive power from both organizational and individual sources, which are called ______. a) bureaucratic power and individual power b) authority power and indigenous power c) position power and personal power d) statutory power and individual power e) hierarchical power and personal power

Page: 268

Level: Easy

78. All of the following are types of position power EXCEPT: a) reward power. b) coercive power. c) legitimate power. d) statutory power. e) information power.

Pages: 268-269

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Position Power 79. When Linda, a manager in a department store, tells someone to do something and refers to the fact that she is the boss and therefore the other person must do as asked, she is trying to use which type of power to influence the other person’s behavior? a) Personal power b) Reward power c) Legitimate power d) Coercive power e) Process power

Page: 268

Level: Easy

80. What type of power does a manager exercise when he or she approves or denies employee requests such as job transfers, equipment purchases, personal time off, or overtime work? a) Legitimate power b) Expert power c) Coercive power d) Referent power e) Reward power

Page: 268

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Position Power 81. What type of power does a manager exercise when he or she offers pay raises, bonuses, special assignments, or compliments as incentives to subordinates? a) Legitimate power b) Expert power c) Coercive power d) Referent power e) Reward power

Page: 268

Level: Medium

82. A manager who withholds positive outcomes, such as special assignments or bonuses, as a means for controlling the behavior of employees is using which type of power? a) Legitimate power b) Expert power c) Coercive power d) Process power e) Reward power

Page: 269

83. Consider a financial analyst who reviews, analyzes, and makes recommendations regarding investment proposals from other organizational units. What type of position power is the analyst most likely using in doing her/his job? a) Reward power b) Coercive power c) Legitimate power d) Process power e) Information power

Page: 269

Level: Medium

84. Karl is the manager of an engineering department. He refuses to allow engineering drawings to be circulated outside of the department. Karl is exercising which type of power? a) Coercive power b) Information power c) Legitimate power d) Process power e) Representative power

85. Which type of power is being used by an investor relations manager who is responsible for anticipating the questions of investors and guiding the types of responses that senior management makes? a) Legitimate power b) Information power c) Representative power d) Reward power e) Coercive power

Page: 270

Level: Medium

86. President Barack Obama chose Jay Carney to be the White House press secretary. As a result, he became “the face of the administration.” Jay Carney holds which type of power? a) Legitimate power b) Coercive power c) Representative power d) Reward power e) Legal power Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Difficult

87. The four bases of personal power are ______, ______, ______, and ______. a) legitimate; expert; information; referent b) coercive; expert; reward; rational persuasion c) reward; process; rational persuasion; coalitions d) referent; reward; legitimate; expert e) expert; rational persuasion; referent; coalitions

Page: 271

Level: Difficult

88. Ralph makes it a point to always offer help in technical areas in which he is skilled and knowledgeable. His subordinates trust his judgment, and form one of the most productive units in the company. What type of power is Ralph exerting? a) Legitimate power b) Coercive power c) Referent power d) Reward power e) Expert power Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium

89. In leading his work team on any project, Mike and the team members will typically discuss the project goals and the best way to achieve those goals. Which form of personal power is Mike using? a) Process power b) Expert power c) Referent power d) Rational persuasion e) Information power

Page: 271

Level: Medium

90. ______behavior is action directed primarily at developing or using relationships in which other people are willing to some degree to defer to one’s wishes. a) Skill-oriented b) Endowment-oriented c) Capability-oriented d) Power-oriented e) Referent-oriented

Page: 272

Level: Difficult

91. ______can be enhanced when managers are able to demonstrate to others that their work units are highly relevant to organizational goals and are able to respond to urgent organizational needs. a) Statutory power b) Personal power c) Position power d) Hierarchical power e) Bureaucratic power

Page: 272

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity 92. In order to increase their centrality and criticality in the organization, managers may seek to acquire a more central role in the workflow by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) having information filtered through them. b) occupying an office convenient to main traffic flows. c) expanding their network of communication contacts. d) increasing their political savvy. e) making at least part of their job responsibilities unique.

Pages: 272-273

Level: Difficult

93. A manager may attempt to increase task relevance to add criticality by doing which of the following? a) By becoming an internal coordinator within the firm b) By moving to provide unique services and information to other units c) By shifting the emphasis on his or her group’s activities toward emerging issues central to the organization’s top priorities d) By becoming an external representative of the firm e) All of the above

Ans: Page: 273 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques. Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity

94. Which strategy for exercising relational influence can be described as “using the exchange of benefits as a basis for negotiation?” a) Assertiveness b) Sanctions c) Bargaining d) Reason e) Coalition

Page: 274

Level: Medium

95. Which one of the following strategies for exercising relational influence can be defined as “using a direct and forceful personal approach?” a) Assertiveness b) Reason c) Coalition d) Sanctions e) Higher authority

Page: 274

Level: Medium

96. Managers may attempt to increase the visibility of their job performance by doing which of the following? a) Expanding the number of contacts they have with senior people b) Making oral presentations of written work c) Participating in problem-solving task forces d) Sending out notices of accomplishments e) All of the above

Ans: Page: 274 Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques. Section Reference: Relational Influence Techniques

97. Research on the various ways of exercising relational influence has concluded that ______is the most popular strategy overall. a) coalition b) bargaining c) reason d) friendliness e) sanctions

Page: 275

Level: Medium

98. ______is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work teams and other creative worker involvement groups. a) Reengineering b) Continuous improvement c) Empowerment d) Strategic human resource management e) Total quality management Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Medium

99. Which statement about empowerment is not true? a) In business today, managers in progressive organizations are expected to be good at empowering the people with whom they work. b) Rather than considering power to be something at higher levels, power can be shared by everyone working in flatter and more collegial structures. c) The concept of empowerment is part of the sweeping change being witnessed in today’s corporations. d) Empowerment is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work teams and other creative worker involvement groups. e) One of the bases for empowerment is the need to maintain older views of power itself.

Page: 275

Level: Medium

100. When an organization attempts to move power down the hierarchy, it must also alter the existing pattern of ______power. a) personal b) individual c) special d) position e) exclusive

Page: 276

Level: Medium

101. When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to ______it. a) neutralize b) contract c) inactivate d) balance e) expand

Page: 276

Level: Easy

102. The key to expanding the amount of available power in an organization is to change from a view that stresses ______to a view that emphasizes ______. a) power over others; power over things b) power over others ; power over self c) power over others; power to get things done d) power over self; power to get things done e) power over subordinates; power over peers

Page: 276

Level: Medium

103. Which of the following statements about empowerment is NOT correct? a) A clearer definition of roles and responsibilities may help managers empower others. b) Empowerment increases the total power available in an organization by providing opportunities for creative problem solving coupled with the discretion to act. c) Empowerment means that all managers need to emphasize different ways of exercising influence. d) Special support may be needed for managers so that they become comfortable in developing their own power over events and activities. e) Executives and middle managers will change their thinking about and use of traditional position and personal power without having any inducement for changing their thinking or for acting on it.

Pages: 276-277

Level: Difficult

104. Beyond just empowering employees, Jeffrey Pfeffer suggests that organizations place employees at the center of their strategy by taking all of the following steps EXCEPT: a) develop employment security for a selectively recruited workforce. b) pay high wages with incentive pay and the potential for employee ownership. c) encourage information sharing and participation with an emphasis on self-managed teams. d) emphasize individual training and skill development with little cross-utilization of talent and cross–training. e) pursue egalitarianism with little pay compression across units and enable extensive internal promotion.

Page: 277

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: From Empowerment to Valuing People

105. According to the Machiavellian tradition, ______is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means. a) organizational psychology b) organizational sociology c) organizational power d) organizational politics e) social science

Page: 278

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics 106. In building on the Machiavellian tradition, managers are often considered ______when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits. a) reasonable b) devious c) political d) rational e) effective

Page: 278

Level: Easy

107. One tradition in the analysis of organizational politics treats it as a necessary function resulting from differences in the self-interests of individuals. Which one of the following statements about this tradition is NOT accurate? a) Organizational politics is viewed as the art of creative compromise among competing interests. b) Politics arise because individuals need to develop compromises, avoid confrontation, and live together. c) Organizationally powerful individuals negotiate with others to establish the goals of the organization and the acceptable means for achieving them. d) Managers seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization. e) Organizational politics is the use of power to develop socially acceptable ends and means that balance individual and collective interests.

Page: 279

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics 108. Which statement about political forecasting is false? Managers can attempt to forecast future political actions by ______. a) placing themselves in the position of other persons involved in critical decisions or events b) examining the benefits for all concerned parties with respect to each decision and action c) considering the costs to all involved parties regarding each decision and action d) spontaneously taking action with little thought e) framing the situation in the context of a political payoff matrix

Page: 280

Level: Medium

109. Which one of the following statements about subunit power is accurate? a) International units are typically more powerful than are staff groups. b) Units toward the bottom of the organizational hierarchy are often more powerful than those toward the top. c) Subtle power differentials are found among units at or near the same level in a firm. d) Every unit has the same power. e) Units have no power.

Page: 281

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics 110. Political ______links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units. a) savvy b) movement c) eventfulness d) response e) action

Page: 281

Level: Difficult

111. With respect to political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve formal staff units that have special expertise. a) workflow b) approval c) service d) advisory e) auditing

Page: 281

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics 112. In the context of political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve organizational units that have the right to evaluate the actions of others after action has been taken. a) workflow b) approval c) service d) advisory e) auditing

Page: 281

Level: Easy

113. Individuals can employ three common strategies to protect themselves against organizational politics. These three strategies are ______. a) protecting accountability, maintaining dominant values, and defending turf b) forbearance of foes, redirecting accountability and responsibility, and maintaining a low profile c) avoiding action and risk taking, redirecting accountability and responsibility, and defending turf d) abstaining from cultural involvement, promotion of competing interests, and maintaining a low profile e) forbearance of foes, directing task activities, and maintaining a low profile

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection 114. In the context of self-protection against organizational politics, the methods of avoiding action and risk taking include all of the following EXCEPT: a) working to the rules. b) playing dumb. c) depersonalization. d) passing the buck. e) routine or creative stalling.

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

115. “Creative stalling” is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee ______. a) treats customers, clients, or subordinates as numbers, things or objects b) accepts blame for the negative consequences of his/her actions c) pretends to not be aware of the rules, policies, or procedures or of events that have occurred d) adheres strictly to all the rules, policies, and procedures, and does not allow deviations or exceptions e) spends time delaying implementation of undesirable changes

Page: 282

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection 116. In the context of self-protection against organizational politics, the methods of redirecting accountability includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) rewriting history. b) blaming the problem on someone or some group that has difficulty defending themselves. c) working to the rules. d) blaming the problem on uncontrollable events. e) escalating commitment to a losing course of action.

Page: 282

Level: Easy

117. ______is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by claiming to be an early supporter of something that turns out to be successful, or one who had initial reservations if a programs fails. a) Passing the buck b) Buffing (or rigorous documentation) c) Preparing a blind memo d) Rewriting history e) Scapegoating

Page: 282

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection 118. ______is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by blaming the problem on someone or some group that has difficulty engaging in self-defense. a) Passing the buck b) Buffing (or rigorous documentation) c) Preparing a blind memo d) Rewriting history e) Scapegoating

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

119. Defending turf is a method of political self-protection that can result from one of the following situations ______. a) minimized commitment to a course of action b) managers seeking to improve their power by attempting to expand the jobs their groups perform c) organizations having various departments and groups with aligning interests d) teams working closely together e) managers sacrificing their personal interests for the sake of their departments

Page: 283

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection 120. ______theory suggests that public corporations can function effectively even though their managers are self-interested and do not automatically bear the full consequences of their managerial actions. a) Representative b) Agency c) Empowerment d) Legitimate power e) Indifference theory

Page: 283

Level: Easy

121. Which one of the following statements accurately describes a key premise of agency theory? a) By protecting stockholder interests, all the interests of society are served. b) Stockholders do not have a clear interest in greater returns. c) Managers are self-interested and willing to sacrifice those self-interests for others (particularly stockholders. d) Employees monitor how agents handle company strategies. e) Newspapers report how agents manage company strategies.

Page: 283

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance 122. Which of the following control mechanisms is commonly used to ensure that executives and managers, as agents of the firm’s owners, act in the best interests of those owners? a) Pay plan incentives do not align the interests of management and stockholders. b) The establishment of a strong, independent board of directors. c) Stockholders with a large stake in the firm taking a weak role on the board. d) Stockholders read board of director reports. e) People read what is stated in newspapers.

Page: 284

Level: Medium

123. The issue of ______is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory. a) pay of manufacturing workers b) pay of service workers c) pay of lower level managers d) pay of middle level managers e) pay of chief executive officers

Page: 284

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance 124. Under which of the following conditions does the resource dependence of an organization increase? a) As needed resources become scarcer b) As outsiders have less control over needed resources c) As more substitutes for a particular type of resource are available d) As more companies can provide the necessary key resources e) As competitor firms become weaker in your market

Page: 284

Level: Difficult

125. According to research by Hillman, Shropshire, and Cannalla, which of the following is true? a) Larger firms were more likely to have female board members than smaller corporations. b) Firms with more female employees were more likely to have a female board member. c) Firms with less diversification and more closely related products and services were more likely to have a female board member. d) Firms doing a lot of business with organizations that also had a female board member were more likely to have female board members. e) All of the above are true.

Ans: Page: 285 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance Fill in the blank

126. The ability to get someone else to do something you want done or to make things happen the way you want is called ______.

Page: 264

Level: Medium

127. ______is what a person has when exercising power and it is expressed by others’ behavioral response to this exercise of power.

Page: 264

Level: Medium

128. ______argued that subordinates accept or follow directives from a boss only under special circumstances.

Page: 266

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

129. Chester Barnard refers to the area in which authoritative directions are obeyed as the ______.

Page: 267

Level: Medium

130. ______, or formal authority, is the extent to which a manager can use subordinates’ internalized values or beliefs that the “boss” has a “right of command” to control their behavior.

Page: 268

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Position Power 131. ______is the extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control other people.

Page: 268

Level: Medium

132. ______power is the extent to which a manager can deny desired rewards or administer punishments to control other people.

Page: 269

Level: Medium

133. The source of ______power is the placing of an individual in a position to influence how inputs are transformed into outputs from a firm, department or small group.

Page: 269

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Position Power 134. ______power is the access to and/or the control of information.

Page: 270

Level: Medium

135. ______is the formal right conferred by the firm to speak as a representative for a potentially important group composed of individuals across departments or outside the firm.

Page: 270

Level: Medium

136. ______power resides in the individual and is independent of that individual’s position. Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium

137. When a person controls another’s behavior by convincing him or her of the desirability of a goal and a reasonable way of achieving it, ______is being used.

Page: 271

Level: Difficult

138. ______is the ability to control another’s behavior because the person wants to identify with the power source.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques. Section Reference: Personal Power

139. ______is the ability to control another’s behavior indirectly because the individual owes an obligation to you or another as part of a larger collective interest.

Page: 271

Level: Medium

140. ______is the process by which managers help others to acquire and use the power needed to make decisions affecting themselves and their work.

Page: 275

Level: Easy

141. With respect to political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve contacts with units that precede or follow in a sequential production chain. Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Medium

142. In the context of political action and subunit power, ______linkages involve contacts with units that are established to help with problems.

Page: 281

Level: Difficult

143. ______is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee adheres strictly to all the rules, policies, and procedures, and does not allow deviations or exceptions.

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection 144. ______is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee treats customers, clients, or subordinates as numbers, things or objects.

Page: 282

Level: Easy

145. ______is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection where the employee slows down the pace of work to expand the task so that the individual appears to be working hard.

Page: 282

Level: Easy

146. ______is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by defining the task in such a way that it becomes someone else’s formal responsibility.

Page: 282

Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection

147. ______reflects the notion that managers are “agents” of company owners.

Page: 283

Level: Easy

148. ______refers to the pattern of authority, influence, and acceptable managerial behavior established at the top of the organization.

Page: 286

Level: Easy

149. Define power from an organizational behavior perspective. What is the difference between power and influence? Page: 264 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

150. Describe the zone of indifference.

Page: 267 Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

151. What are the six forms of position power and the four forms of personal power? Briefly describe each form.

Page: 268-271

Level: Difficult

152. What are the two traditions in organizational politics?

Page: 278-279 Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

153. What does the term organizational governance mean?

Page: 286 Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self- protection, and politics and governance. Section Reference: Politics and Governance

File: ch13, Chapter 13: Leadership Essentials

True/False

1. A key way of differentiating between management and leadership is to argue that the role of management is to promote adaptive or useful change while the role of leadership is to promote stability or to enable the organization to run smoothly.

Page: 292

Level: Medium Learning Objective 1: Discuss managers versus leaders, trait leadership perspectives, and behavioral leadership perspectives.

Section Reference: Managers versus Leaders

2. Both management and leadership are needed in an organization, and if managers do not assume responsibility for both, then they should ensure that someone else handles the neglected activity

Page: 292

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Discuss managers versus leaders, trait leadership perspectives, and behavioral leadership perspectives.

3. Leadership is the process of influencing others to understand and agree about what needs to be done and how to do it, and the process of facilitating individual and collective efforts to accomplish shared objectives.

Page: 292

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Managers versus Leaders 4. Leadership appears in two forms: implicit leadership and explicit leadership.

Page: 292

Level: Medium

5. Formal leadership is exerted by persons who are appointed or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations.

Page: 292

Level: Easy

6. Informal leadership is exerted by persons who become influential because they have special skills that meet the resource needs of others. Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy

7. Trait perspectives assume that traits play a central role in differentiating between leaders and non-leaders or in predicting leader or organizational outcomes.

Page: 293

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Trait Leadership Perspectives

8. The “great person-trait approach” is a new approach to studying leadership that focuses on the relationship between empowerment and leadership.

Page: 293

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Discuss managers versus leaders, trait leadership perspectives, and behavioral leadership perspectives.

9. Trait theories reveal that leaders who tend to be energetic, operate on an even keel, are ambitious, and have a high need for achievement.

Page: 293

Level: Easy

10. Trait perspectives indicate that leaders crave power not as a means to achieving a vision or desired goals but as an end in itself.

Page: 293

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Trait Leadership Perspectives 11. Leaders must have enough emotional maturity to recognize their own strengths and weaknesses, and have to be oriented toward self-improvement.

Page: 293

Level: Easy

12. Prosocial power motivation refers to a high need for achievement.

Page: 293

Level: Medium

13. Leaders do not need to be brilliant and they usually do not have to possess extensive specific knowledge concerning their industry, firm, and job. Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Difficult

14. The behavioral perspective of leadership assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes.

Page: 294

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives

15. Leadership studies conducted at the University of Michigan derived two basic forms of leader behavior called consideration and initiating structure.

Page: 294

16. Two basic forms of leader behavior, called employee-centered and production-centered, were identified as a result of leadership studies conducted at the University of Michigan.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

17. According to the Michigan leadership studies, employee-centered supervisors are those who place strong emphasis on their subordinates’ welfare.

Page: 294

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 18. The results of the Michigan leadership studies indicate that production-centered supervisors tend to have more productive work groups than employee-centered supervisors.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

19. Sometimes the more general terms of human relations oriented leadership and task oriented leadership are used to refer, respectively, to employee-centered supervisors and production- centered supervisors.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

20. Two basic forms of leader behavior derived by leadership studies at Ohio State University include employee-centered and production-centered behaviors. Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium

21. A highly considerate leader is sensitive to people’s feelings and, much like the employee- centered leader, tries to make things pleasant for his or her followers.

Page: 294

Level: Easy

22. A leader high in initiating structure is concerned with defining task requirements and other aspects of the work agenda.

Page: 294

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Discuss managers versus leaders, trait leadership perspectives, and behavioral leadership perspectives.

23. Initial results of the Ohio State leadership studies were deceptive in indicating that effective leaders were high on both consideration and initiating structure.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

24. Consideration is analogous to socioemotional leadership and initiating structure is analogous to task leadership.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 25. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be moderate on: consideration behaviors and initiating structure behaviors.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

26. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton developed the “leadership grid” approach, which emphasizes combinations of concern for production and concern for people.

Pages: 294-295

Level: Medium

27. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton’s leadership grid results are plotted on a fifteen-position grid. Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy

28. According to the leadership grid, leaders with a 1/1 style are termed “impoverished,” while a 5/5 style is labeled “middle of the road.”

Page: 295

Level: Medium

29. According to the leadership grid, a leader with a 9/1 style has high concern for people and high concern for production.

Page: 295

30. According to the leadership grid, a leader with a 9/9 style is high on both concern for people and concern for production, and has the ideal leadership style.

Page: 296

Level: Medium

31. Some research carried out in the United States, Britain, Hong Kong and Japan, on cross cultural implications shows that leadership behaviors should be carried out in the same ways in alternative cultures.

Page: 296

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 32. Successful leaders adjust their influence attempts to the situation.

Page: 296

Level: Easy

33. Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with situational contingencies to predict leader or organizational outcomes.

Page: 296

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership.

Section Reference: Situational Contingency Leadership

34. According to situational leadership theories, leader flexibility should be the most predictive in stable environments or when leaders lead the same people over time. Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Difficult

35. According to situational leadership theories, prosocial power motivation is likely to be most important in complex organizations where decision implementation requires lots of persuasion and social influence.

Page: 296

Level: Medium

36. According to situational leadership models, leader traits and behaviors will have less impact in a strong situation than in a weak unstructured situation.

Page: 296

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership. Section Reference: Situational Contingency Leadership

37. Fiedler’s leadership contingency view holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader’s style and the demands of the situation.

Page: 296-297

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View

38. The least-preferred co-worker scale is a measure of a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom respondents have been able to work least well.

Page: 297

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 39. Fielder argues that low LPC leaders have a relationship-motivated leadership style, whereas high LPC leaders have a task-motivated leadership style.

Page: 297

Level: Medium

40. According to Fiedler’s contingency theory, the relationship-motivated leader has greater group effectiveness under high or low situational control.

Page: 297

Level: Difficult

41. In Fiedler’s contingency theory, situational control is a function of leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.

Page: 297

Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership.

42. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource perspective, a leader should use directive or nondirective behavior depending on the following situational contingencies: the leader’s or subordinate group members’ ability or competency, stress, experience, and group support of the leader.

Page: 298

Level: Medium

43. Cognitive resource theory views nondirective leader behavior as most helpful for performance when the leader is competent, relaxed, and supported.

Page: 298

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 44. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource theory, group member ability becomes most important when the leader is directive and receives strong support from group members.

Page: 298

Level: Difficult

45. In Fiedler’s LPC instrument, the biggest controversy concerns exactly what Fiedler’s LPC instrument measures. Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Easy

46. In leader match training, leaders are trained to diagnose the situation to match their high or low LPC scores with situational control.

Page: 298

Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership.

47. Because unanswered questions concerning Fiedler’s contingency theory remain, the perspective and the leader match program have relatively little support.

Page: 299

Level: Medium

48. Robert House’s path-goal leadership theory has its roots in the expectancy model of motivation.

Page: 300

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership 49. House’s path-goal theory of leadership assumes that a leader’s key function is to adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingencies that influence the accomplishment of personal goals and organizational goals.

Page: 300

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership

50. In House’s leadership theory, the term path-goal emphasizes how a leader influences subordinates’ perceptions of both work goals and personal goals and the links found between these two sets of goals.

Page: 300

Level: Easy

51. Directive leadership is predicted to have a positive impact on subordinates when the task is ambiguous; it is predicted to have just the opposite effect for clear tasks.

52. Supportive leadership will increase the satisfaction of subordinates who work on highly repetitive tasks or on tasks considered to be unpleasant, stressful, or frustrating.

Page: 301

Level: Medium

53. Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that most aspects have been thoroughly validated.

Page: 301

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership 54. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory focuses on the situational contingency of maturity, or “readiness,” of followers.

Page: 302

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Hersey and Blanchard Situational Leadership Model

55. Hersey and Blanchard argue that situational leadership requires adjusting the leader’s emphasis on task behaviors and relationship behaviors according to the readiness of followers to perform their tasks.

Page: 302

Level: Medium

56. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a “telling” leadership style is best for low follower readiness.

Ans: Page: 301

Level: Medium

57. Substitutes for leadership can prevent a leader from behaving in a certain way or nullify the effects of a leader’s actions.

Page: 304

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Substitutes for Leadership

58. Passive followership beliefs are beliefs that followers should express opinions, take initiative, and constructively question and challenge leaders.

Page: 308

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Compare the implicit leadership theories and implicit followership theories.

Section Reference: Implicit Followership Theories 59. Transactional leaders are those leaders who are capable of having a profound and extraordinary effect on followers.

Page: 309

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the inspirational and relational perspectives of leadership.

Section Reference: Charismatic Leadership

60. Conger and Kanungo developed a five-stage charismatic leadership model.

Page: 310

Level: Medium

61. Transformational leadership involves leader-follower exchanges necessary for achieving routine performance agreed upon between leaders and followers. Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Transactional and Transformational Leadership

62. Transactional leadership includes the four dimensions of charisma, inspiration, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

Page: 310

Level: Medium

63. Dark-side charismatic can have negative effects on followers.

Page: 313

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Transactional and Transformational Leadership Multiple Choice

64. The role of ______is to promote adaptive or useful change. a) directing b) management c) leadership d) administration e) supervision

Page: 292

Level: Easy

65. ______is the process of influencing others to understand and agree about what needs to be done and how to do it, and the process of facilitating individual and collective efforts to accomplish shared objectives. a) Supervision b) Directing c) Management d) Administration e) Leadership Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy

66. Leadership appears in two forms, which are ______. a) formal leadership and informal leadership b) explicit leadership and implicit leadership c) administrative leadership and supervisory leadership d) behavioral leadership and mechanistic leadership e) organic leadership and mechanistic leadership

Page: 292

Level: Easy

67. ______is exerted by persons appointed to or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations. a) Informal leadership b) Administrative leadership c) Bureaucratic leadership d) Formal leadership e) Authoritative leadership

Page: 292

Level: Easy

68. The ______to studying leadership sought to identify important differences between leaders and non-leaders. a) behavioral approach b) methodical approach c) contingency approach d) scientific approach e) great person-trait approach

Page: 293

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Trait Leadership Perspectives 69. The ______assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes. a) behavioral perspective b) trait perspective c) contingency perspective d) contemporary perspective e) psychological perspective

Page: 294

Level: Easy

70. Which of the following is NOT a trait with positive implications for successful leadership? a) Prosocial power motivation b) Emotional maturity c) Perseverance d) Flexibility e) All of the above

Page: 293

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Trait Leadership Perspectives 71. Leadership studies at the University of Michigan developed which two basic forms of leader behavior? a) Consideration and initiating structure b) Implicit and explicit c) Proactive and reactive d) Employee centered and production centered e) In-groups and out-groups

Page: 294

Level: Medium

72. According to the Michigan leadership studies, ______supervisors are those who place strong emphasis on their subordinates’ welfare. a) production-centered b) administration-centered c) employee-centered d) task-centered e) process-centered

Page: 294

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 73. According to the Michigan leadership studies, ______supervisors are primarily concerned with getting the work done. a) process-centered b) production-centered c) employee-centered d) administration-centered e) task-centered.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

74. Leadership studies conducted at Ohio State University derived which two basic forms of leader behavior? a) Consideration and initiating structure b) Implicit and explicit c) Proactive and reactive d) Employee centered and production centered e) In-groups and out-groups

Page: 294

75. According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in ______is sensitive to people’s feelings and tries to make things pleasant for the followers. a) initiating structure b) attention to detail c) task orientation d) consideration e) human relations orientation

Page: 294

Level: Easy

76. According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in ______is concerned with spelling out the task requirements and clarifying other aspects of the work agenda. a) consideration b) initiating structure c) attention to detail d) production orientation e) employee orientation

Ans: Page: 294

Level: Medium

77. Consideration is sometimes called ______leadership and initiating structure is sometimes called ______leadership. a) socioemotional; task b) task; socioemotional c) socioemotional; 9/9 d) production-centered; task-oriented e) human relations oriented; employee-centered

Page: 294

Level: Medium

78. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be ______on consideration and ______on initiating structure. a) low; low b) low; high c) moderate; moderate d) high; low e) high; high Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy

79. When using the leadership grid, results are plotted on a nine-position grid that places concern for ______on the vertical axis and concern for ______on the horizontal axis. a) structure; performance b) people; production c) task orientation;human relations d) initiating structure; consideration e) financial performance; people

Page: 294-295

Level: Medium

80. Which of the following does NOT provide an accurate description of leadership styles in the Blake and Mouton leadership grid? a) A 1/1 manager is termed team management. b) A 1/9 manager has minimum concern for production and maximum concern for people. c) A 5/5 manager is a middle of the road manager. d) A 9/1 manager has maximum concern for production and minimum concern for people. e) A 9/9 manager has a maximum concern for both people and production.

Page: 295

Level: Difficult

81. Leaders with a 1/9 leadership style possess which of the following? a) Low concern for production and high concern for people b) Low concern for people and high concern for production c) Low concern for both people and production d) High concern for both people and production e) None of the above

Page: 295

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 82. According to Blake and Mouton, the “country club management” term refers to leaders with: a) Low concern for production and high concern for people b) Low concern for people and high concern for production c) Low concern for both people and production d) High concern for both people and production e) None of the above

Page: 295

Level: Medium

83. According to the leadership grid, a 9/1 leader has a(n) ______style. a) country club management b) impoverished c) task management d) team management e) middle of the road

Page: 295-296

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 84. Research conducted in the United States, Britain, Hong Kong and Japan show that leadership behaviors ______. a) are the same in all four countries b) are not important c) must be carried out in different ways in alternative cultures d) must be carried out the same way in different cultures e) change consistently by country

Page: 296

Level: Medium

85. Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with ______to predict leader or organizational outcomes. a) industry experience b) educational background c) leadership experience d) age e) situational contingencies

Page: 296

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Situational Contingency Leadership 86. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to situational leadership theories? a) Leader flexibility should be the most predictive in stable environments or when leaders lead the same people over time. b) Prosocial power motivation is likely to be most important in complex organizations where decision implementation requires lots of persuasion and social influence. c) An example of a strong situation is a highly formal organization with lots of rules and procedures. d) Leader traits and behaviors will have less impact in a strong situation than in a weak, unstructured situation. e) The effects of traits are enhanced by their relevance to the leader’s situational contingencies.

Page: 296

Level: Difficult

87. In Fiedler’s leadership contingency theory, a leader’s style is essentially a(n) ______. a) power b) strength c) trait measure d) personality e) ego

88. Fiedler argues that high LPC leaders have a(n) ______style, whereas low LPC leaders have a(n) ______style. a) consideration; initiating structure b) employee-centered; production-centered c) task-oriented; human-relations oriented d) relationship-motivated; task-motivated e) consideration; mechanistic

Page: 297

Level: Medium

89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with regard to Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership? a) Situational control is the extent to which leaders can determine what their group is going to do and what the outcomes of their actions and decisions are going to be. b) The least preferred co-worker scale is a measure of a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom the respondent has been able to work least well. c) Fiedler argues that high LPC leaders have a relationship-motivated style. d) Fiedler argues that relationship-oriented leaders have greater group effectiveness under high and low situational control, whereas task-oriented leaders have more effective group effectiveness under moderate situational control. e) Fiedler argues that low LPC leaders have a task-motivated style.

Page: 297

Level: Difficult

90. In his contingency theory of leadership, Fiedler measures high, moderate, and low situational control with which of the following three variables? a) human relations orientation, task identity, and personal power b) leader-member relations, task structure, and position power c) position power, human relations orientation, and environmental complexity d) human relations orientation, task variety, and environmental complexity e) personal power, task variety, and leader-member relations

Page: 297

Level: Medium

91. According to Fiedler, the extent to which a position enables a leader to use his or her task expertise and authority to reward or punish subordinates is called ______. a) leader-member relations b) position power c) leadership style d) task structure e) situational control

Page: 297

Level: Medium

92. Assume you are the supervisor of a group of bank tellers. Your subordinates are highly supportive, their jobs are well defined, and you have clear authority to evaluate and reward their performance. Which of the following leadership styles would be most recommended based upon Fiedler’s theory? a) task-motivated b) relationship- motivated c) human relations d) team- motivated e) achievement- motivated

Page: 298

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 93. Suppose that the following features characterize the leadership situation in a specific work team: (a) The skills required in each team member’s job, the order in which tasks are to be performed, and the interdependencies among the various jobs are all clearly defined. (b) The supervisor frequently criticizes team members and readily punishes them because he has the power to do so. (c) Because the supervisor is punitive, the team members try to undermine his authority and sabotage his leadership. Which leadership style likely would be most effective in this situation? a) task- motivated b) relationship-motivated c) human relations d) team- motivated e) achievement- motivated

Page: 298

Level: Difficult

94. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource theory, whether a leader should use directive or nondirective behavior depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT: a) the leader’s or subordinate group members’ ability or competency. b) stress. c) experience. d) industry. e) group support of the leader.

Page: 298

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 95. The biggest controversy about Fiedler’s contingency theory concerns ______. a) the three variables that Fiedler chose to measure –– high, moderate, and low control b) what Fiedler’s LPC instrument measures c) Fiedler’s notion of situational control d) Fiedler’s definition of position power e) Fielder’s behavioral interpretation

Page: 298

Level: Medium

96. In ______, leaders are trained to diagnose the situation to match their high or low LPC scores with situational control. a) diagnostic development b) situational control analysis c) leader match training d) situational diagnostics e) leader analysis profiling

Page: 298

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 97. Which of the following leadership theories has it roots in the expectancy model of motivation? a) Attribution theory b) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory c) House’s path-goal theory d) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theory e) Fiedler’s contingency theory

Page: 300

Level: Medium

98. In House’s leadership theory, ______refers to how a leader influences subordinates’ perceptions of both work goals and personal goals and the links found between these two sets of goals. a) goal-linkage b) goal-congruence c) path-congruence d) path-goal e) linking-pin

Page: 300

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership. Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership

99. House’s path-goal theory of leadership assumes that a leader’s key function is to ______in the work setting. a) maintain his or her work behaviors b) keep changing his or her behaviors c) reinforce his or her typical behaviors d) adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingencies e) teach employees his or her normal behaviors

Page: 300

Level: Difficult

100. According to House’s path-goal leadership model, which of the following behaviors is part of a directive leadership style? a) showing concern for the status and needs of subordinates b) soliciting the suggestions of subordinates c) displaying confidence that subordinates are able to meet high performance standards d) treating subordinates as equals e) spelling out the what and how of subordinates’ tasks

Page: 300

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership.

101. According to House’s path-goal model, which of the following behaviors is part of achievement-oriented leadership? a) showing concern for the status and needs of subordinates b) soliciting the suggestions of subordinates c) emphasizing challenging goals, stressing performance excellence, and displaying confidence that subordinates are able to meet high standards of performance d) using suggestions of subordinates when making decisions e) spelling out the what and how of subordinates’ tasks

Page: 300

Level: Difficult

102. According to the path-goal leadership theory, a manager is showing a participative leadership style when he/she ______. a) lets subordinates know what performance is expected b) expects the highest levels of performance c) consults with subordinates and takes their suggestions into account before making decisions d) treats subordinates as equals during decision making e) acts friendly to subordinates

Ans: Page: 300

Level: Medium

103. Len and John are managers. Len spends a lot of time scheduling work to be done and providing guidance on its accomplishment. John takes great care to listen to his subordinates’ concerns and act friendly toward them. In the terminology of House’s path-goal theory, Len is acting as a(n) ______leader, while John is acting as a(n) ______leader. a) directive; achievement-oriented b) directive; supportive c) achievement-oriented; participative d) achievement-oriented; supportive e) autocratic; democratic

Page: 300

Level: Difficult

104. The path-goal theory predicts that ______leadership is called for when ambiguous tasks are performed by highly authoritarian and close-minded subordinates. a) directive b) supportive c) achievement-oriented d) authoritarian e) participative Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult

105. The path-goal theory predicts that a(n) ______supervisor would help traditional assembly-line auto worker jobs, which are typically repetitive, more pleasant. a) directive b) supportive c) achievement-oriented d) authoritarian e) participative

Page: 301

Level: Difficult

106. Which of the following statements about House’s path-goal theory is true? a) Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that many aspects have not been tested adequately. b) Training could be used to change leadership behavior to fit the situational contingencies. c) The leader could be taught to diagnose the situation and learn how to try to change the contingency. d) There is very little recent research concerning the theory. e) The path-goal theory is the most highly regarded leadership theory.

Page: 301

Level: Difficult

107. The ______model focuses on the situational contingency of maturity or “readiness” of followers. a) romance of leadership b) situational leadership c) supportive leadership d) transformational e) passive followership

Page: 301

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership 108. Hersey and Blanchard argue that situational leadership requires adjusting the leader’s emphasis on task behaviors and relationship behaviors according to the ______. a) readiness of followers to perform their tasks b) readiness of leaders to empower their followers c) willingness of leaders to interact with their followers d) willingness of followers to embrace a broad zone of indifference e) leader’s position power

Page: 302

Level: Medium

109. Which of the following is NOT one of the four styles of leadership identified by Hersey and Blanchard? a) Delegating b) Participating c) Selling d) Telling e) Motivating

Page: 303

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Hersey and Blanchard Situational Leadership Model 110. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a telling style of leadership is best for ______. a) low follower readiness b) low to moderate follower readiness c) moderate to high follower readiness d) high follower readiness e) veteran employees who are highly prepared for a particular job

Page: 302

Level: Easy

111. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a ______style of leadership is best for high follower readiness. a) delegating b) directing c) participating d) selling e) telling

Page: 303

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Hersey and Blanchard Situational Leadership Model 112. Use of ______theory requires the leader to develop the capability to diagnose the demands of situations in terms of follower readiness and then to choose and implement the appropriate leadership response. a) Attribution b) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership c) House’s path-goal d) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange e) Fiedler’s contingency

Pages: 303-304

Level: Medium

113. All of the following are substitutes for leadership EXCEPT: a) individuals’ experience, ability and training. b) highly structured/routine jobs. c) intrinsically satisfying jobs. d) cohesive work groups. e) high leader position power.

Page: 304

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Substitutes for Leadership 114. ______make(s) a leader’s influence either unnecessary or redundant in that they replace a leader’s influence. a) Diverse team membership b) Ethical team values c) Substitutes for leadership d) Substitutes for followership e) Substitutes for technology

Page: 304

Level: Medium

115. Meindl referred to the phenomenon whereby people attribute almost magical qualities to leadership as ______. a) the romance of leadership b) a leadership prototype c) leadership as attribution d) inference-based attrition e) transactional leadership

Page: 305

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Substitutes for Leadership 116. According to ______approaches, individual behavior is constructed in context, as people act and interact in situations. a) supportive leadership b) social construction c) situational leadership d) trait perspectives e) leader match training

Page: 308

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Implicit Followership Theories

117. Research suggests that high-quality LMX is associated with all of the following outcomes EXCEPT: a) increased follower satisfaction. b) increased follower productivity. c) decreased turnover. d) increased salaries. e) slower promotion rates.

Page: 313

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the inspirational and relational perspectives of leadership. Section Reference: Leader-Member Exchange Theory

118. The ______of charismatic leadership emphasizes personalized power, whereas the ______of charismatic leadership emphasizes empowerment of followers. f) bright side; dark side g) selfish side; unselfish side h) sustainable side; unsustainable side i) dark side; bright side j) strong side; weak side

Page: 310

Level: Medium

119. Conger and Kanungo have argued that if leaders rely on vision articulation, environmental sensitivity, and unconventional behavior, rather than on maintaining the status quo, followers will tend to attribute ______leadership to them. k) traditional l) charismatic m) transactional n) transformational o) managerial

Ans: Page: 310

Level: Medium

120. The four dimensions of transactional leadership include all of the following EXCEPT: p) contingent rewards. q) active management by exception. r) passive management by exception. s) management by example. t) laissez-faire.

Page: 310

Level: Medium

121. Which of the following is NOT one of the four dimensions of transformational leadership? u) Charisma v) Physical stamina w) Inspiration x) Intellectual stimulation y) Individualized consideration

Ans: Page: 310

Level: Medium

122. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? z) Transformational leadership is likely to be strongest at the top-management level. aa) Transformational leadership is found throughout the organization. ab) Transformational leadership operates in combination with transactional leadership. ac) Transformational leadership is similar to most of the traditional leadership approaches. ad) Leaders need both transactional and transformational leadership to be successful.

Page: 311

Level: Medium

Fill in the blank 123. The role of ______is to promote stability or to enable the organization to run smoothly, whereas the role of ______is to promote adaptive or useful changes.

Page: 292

Level: Easy

124. ______leadership is exerted by persons who become influential because they have special skills that meet the resource needs of others.

Page: 292

Level: Medium

125. ______perspectives assume that traits play a central role in differentiating between leaders and non-leaders or in predicting leader or organizational outcomes.

126. In the Michigan leadership studies, ______-centered supervisors were found to have more productive work groups than did ______-centered supervisors.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

127. ______leadership is a more general term for employee-centered supervision.

Page: 294

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives 128. ______leadership is a more general term for production-centered supervision.

Page: 294

Level: Difficult

129. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton developed the ______, based on extensions of the Ohio State leadership dimensions.

Page: 294

Level: Medium

130. ______theory holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader’s style and the demands of the situation. Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Easy

131. Fielder used the ______to measure a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom the respondent has been able to work least well.

Page: 297

Level: Difficult

132. Fiedler recently moved beyond his contingency theory of leadership by developing the______theory.

Page: 298

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View 133. ______theory assumes that a leader’s key function is to adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingencies that influence the accomplishment of personal goals and organizational goals.

Page: 300

Level: Medium

134. The path-goal theory predicts that ______leadership is expected to have a positive impact on subordinates when the task is ambiguous.

Page: 301

Level: Difficult

135. The path-goal theory predicts that ______leadership will promote satisfaction on non-repetitive tasks that allow for the ego involvement of subordinates. Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Easy

136. ______theory focuses on the situational contingency of maturity, or “readiness,” of followers.

Page: 302

Level: Medium

137. According to the Hersey and Blanchard situational leadership model, ______is the extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task.

Page: 302

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership. Section Reference: Hersey and Blanchard Situational Leadership Model

138. In contrast to other approaches to studying leadership, the ______approach argues that sometimes hierarchical leadership makes essentially no difference.

Page: 304

Level: Medium

139. People attributing romantic, almost magical qualities to leadership is known as the ______.

Page: 305

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Substitutes for Leadership 140. A(n) ______is an image that people have in their minds regarding what a model leader should look like.

Page: 306

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Implicit Leadership Theories

141. ______are preconceived notions about the attributes associated with leaders that reflect the structure and content of “cognitive categories” used to distinguish leaders from nonleaders.

Page: 306

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Implicit Leadership Theories

142. ______are beliefs that followers should be passive, deferent, and obedient to authority.

Ans: Page: 308

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Implicit Followership Theories

143. ______are those who, by force of their personal abilities, are capable of having a profound and extraordinary impact on followers.

Page: 309

Level: Easy

144. ______leadership involves leader-follower exchanges necessary for achieving routine performance agreed upon between leaders and followers.

Page: 310

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Transactional and Transformational Leadership 145. ______leadership occurs when leaders broaden and elevate followers’ interests, when they generate awareness and acceptance of the group’s purpose and mission, and when they stir followers to look beyond their own interests for the good of others.

Page: 310

Level: Easy

146. The ______dimension of transformational leadership provides vision and a sense of mission, and it instills pride, along with follower respect and trust.

Page: 311

Level: Easy

Essay 147. What is leadership and how does it differ from management?

Page: 292-293

Level: Medium

148. Briefly describe the differing emphases of the trait perspectives of leadership, the behavioral perspectives of leadership, and situational contingency theories of leadership.

Page: 293-296

Level: Medium

149. Discuss Fiedler’s leadership contingency view. Page: 296-297

Level: Medium

150. What is meant by the concept of substitutes for leadership? Page: 304

Level: Medium

151. What is the difference between transactional and transformational leadership? Page: 310-311

Level: Medium

File: ch14, Chapter 14: Leadership Challenges and Organizational Change True/False

1. Servant leadership involves both owning one’s personal experiences and acting in accordance with one’s true self.

Page: 322

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 1: Define authentic, spiritual, servant, and ethical leadership.

Section Reference: Servant Leadership

2. Self-efficacy is a person’s belief that he or she can perform adequately in a situation.

Page: 320

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Authentic Leadership

3. Spiritual leadership has a strong research base in organizational behavior. Ans:

Page: 321

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Spiritual Leadership

4. Greenleaf argued that the primary purpose of business should be to create a positive impact on both its employees and community.

Page: 322

Level: Difficult

5. Spiritual leadership is viewed as a field of inquiry within the broader setting of workplace spirituality.

Page: 320

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Spiritual Leadership 6. Servant leadership is rooted in organizational behavior research.

Page: 323

Level: Easy

7. Authentic leadership is similar to ethical leadership in that both types of leadership express a concern for others, integrity, and role modeling.

Page: 323

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Ethical Leadership

8. Transformational leaders stress authenticity and self-awareness and tend to be more transactional than other leadership aspects.

9. Ethical leaders emphasize values, vision and intellectual stimulation.

Page: 323

Level: Difficult

10. Research indicates that leadership is restricted to the vertical influence of a single individual in an organization.

Page: 324

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Discuss shared leadership in work teams and self-leadership.

Section Reference: Shared Leadership in Work Teams 11. Leadership is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but extends to other people as well.

Page: 325

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Shared Leadership in Work Teams

12. Within a team, leadership can be assigned to one person, rotated across team members or even shared simultaneously as different needs arise across time.

Page: 325

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Locations of Shared Leadership

13. A productive, supportive climate and commitment to continuous improvement and adaptation are unnecessary for creating and maintaining team performance.

Page: 325

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss shared leadership in work teams and self-leadership. Section Reference: Desired Shared Conditions

14. Shared and vertical self-directing team activities tend to encourage self-leadership activities which in turn can help individuals and the team.

Page: 326

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Shared Leadership and Self- Leadership

15. Often self-leadership activities are divided into three broad categories: behavior-focused, personal-focused and organizational-focused.

Page: 326

Level: Medium

16. Behavior-focused strategies of self leadership include: self observation, self goal achievement, self congratulations, and self maintenance.

Section Reference: Behavior- Focused Strategies

17. Self observation involves examining your own behavior to increase awareness of when and why you engage in certain behaviors.

Page: 326

Level: Easy

18. Heightened self awareness is a first step in behavior change.

Page: 326

Level: Easy

19. Self-rewards, in conjunction with self observation, can be very useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment only when they are real and not imaginary. Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Self- Rewards

20. Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment.

Pages: 326-327

Level: Medium

21. Constructive thought patterns focus on the development of reinforcement strategies for behavioral change.

Page: 327

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Discuss shared leadership in work teams and self-leadership. Section Reference: Constructive Thought Patterns

22. Self-analysis and improvement of belief systems, mental imagery of successful performance outcomes and positive self-talk can influence a team member’s thoughts and positively affect performance.

Page: 327

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Constructive Thought Patterns

23. Self analysis and improvement of belief systems, mental imagery of successful performance outcomes and positive self-talk tend to serve as partial substitutes for ethical leadership.

Page: 327

Level: Difficult

24. Shared leadership is the only way to lead in business today. Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Medium

25. Often shared leadership is used in combination with vertical leadership.

Page: 327

Level: Easy

26. Project GLOBE is built around the assumption that leadership variables and cultural variables can be meaningfully applied at societal and organizational levels.

Page: 328

Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership.

Section Reference: The GLOBE Perspective

27. The central assumption behind the GLOBE theoretical model is that similar attributes and entities across cultures are most effective in organizations.

Page: 328

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership.

28. According to the GLOBE theoretical model, over time, founders and subsequent organizational leaders respond to organizational culture and alter their behavior/leadership styles.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: The GLOBE Perspective 29. According to the GLOBE theoretical model, acceptance of the leader by followers does NOT facilitate leader effectiveness.

Page: 328

Level: Medium

30. The cultural dimension “uncertainty avoidance” within the GLOBE theoretical model refers to reliance on social norms, rules, etc., to alleviate future unpredictability.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture

31. The cultural dimension “in-group collectivism” refers to the rewarding of collective actions.

Page: 329

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership.

32. The cultural dimension of institutional collectivism refers to the rewarding of collective actions versus individual rewards.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

33. Performance orientation, a cultural dimension within the GLOBE theoretical model, refers to the collective encouraging and rewarding of a group for performance improvement versus rewarding for membership.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture 34. The GLOBE’s theoretical model has three broad-based leadership dimensions encompassing ten primarily leadership dimensions and a small number of leadership items and attributes.

Page: 329

Level: Easy

35. The six broad-based leadership dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model are: charismatic/value based, team-oriented, participative, humane-oriented, autonomous and self-protective.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture 36. The autonomous leadership dimension of the GLOBE theoretical model refers to ensuring safety and security of the individual, self-centered and face saving.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

37. The humane-oriented dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model refer to the degree to which the leader stresses support, consideration, compassion, and generosity.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

38. Cultural implicit leadership dimensions (CLT’s) within the GLOBE theoretical model, are similar to the term “prototypes.”

Page: 328

Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership.

39. The GLOBE theoretical model presents summary comparisons among culture clusters to indicate which clusters are most likely to endorse or refute the importance of six CLT leadership prototype dimensions.

Page: 330

Level: Medium

40. Summary comparisons on the GLOBE study among culture clusters indicate a sharp similarity between the study’s Anglo cluster and the Middle East cluster.

Page: 330

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture 41. The GLOBE study sought only to understand the attributes of leadership universally endorsed as relating to either effective or ineffective leadership across sampled countries.

Page: 331

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Universally Endorsed Aspects of Leadership

42. An important point to remember from the GLOBE study is that there are dramatically different expectations for leaders in different cultures.

Page: 332

Level: Easy

43. In addition to the traditional challenges of management, the forces of globalization as well as the state of the current economic environment provide a number of problems and opportunities to even the most experienced organizational executives.

Ans: Page: 332

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change.

44. The four leadership contexts consist of stability, crisis, dynamic equilibrium, and near the edge of chaos.

Page: 333

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Four Leadership Contexts

45. Radical change, or transformational change, results in a major overhaul of the organization or its component systems.

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Leaders as Change Agents 46. The success of both radical and incremental change in organizations depends in part on change agents who lead and support the change processes.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Leaders as Change Agents

47. Unplanned change may be disruptive, such as a wildcat strike that ends in a plant closure, or beneficial, such as an interpersonal conflict that results in a new procedure designed to smooth the flow of work between two departments.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

48. Most unplanned changes may be regarded as efforts intended to deal with performance gaps in ways that benefit an organization and its members.

49. The driving forces for change in organizations of all types and sizes can be found in the organization-environment relationship, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations.

Page: 337

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Forces and Targets for Change

50. When considering the targets of change, it must be recognized that changes in any one target are likely to require or involve changes in the other targets.

Page: 338

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Forces and Targets for Change 51. The planned change model suggests that a change effort be viewed as a process with three distinct phases: listening, doing, and evaluating.

Page: 338

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Planned Change Strategies

52. Through a force-coercion change strategy, a change agent acts unilaterally to “command” change through the formal authority of his or her position, to induce change via an offer of special rewards, or to bring about change via threats of punishment.

Page: 338

Level: Easy

53. When successful, a force-coercion change strategy results in a longer lasting, more internalized change than does a rational persuasion strategy.

Ans: Pages: 338-339

Level: Difficult

54. Sometimes called a normative-reeducative approach, a rational persuasion strategy tries to develop direction and support for change through involvement and empowerment.

Page: 339

Level: Difficult

55. Resistance to change is any attitude or behavior that shows unwillingness to make or support a change.

Page: 339

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Planned Change Strategies 56. A helpful view of resistance to change is that it represents feedback that the change agent can use to facilitate achieving change objectives.

Pages: 339-340

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Resistance to Change

57. People may believe that a change is not worth their time, effort, or attention, but they seldom reject a change for these reasons.

Page: 340

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Resistance to the Change Itself

58. Resistance to the change agent is directed at the person implementing the change and often involves personality and other differences.

Page: 340

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Resistance to the Change Agent 59. The education and communication approach for dealing with resistance to change is intended to educate people about a change before it is implemented and to help them understand the logic of the change.

Page: 341

Level: Easy

Section Reference: How to Deal with Resistance

60. The facilitation and support approach for dealing with resistance to change seems to work best when people are frustrated by work constraints and difficulties encountered in the change process.

Page: 341

Level: Easy

Multiple Choice 61. “Know thyself” is the essential argument of ______leadership. a) ethical b) authentic c) servant d) spiritual e) transformational

Page: 320

Level: Easy

62. Which of the following is NOT a core quality of a spiritual leader? a) Vision b) Altruistic love c) Hope d) Faith e) Obedience

Page: 322

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Spiritual Leadership 63. Which of the following, refers to altruistic love? a) Defining the destination and journey b) Forgiveness, acceptance, and honesty c) Endurance and perseverance d) Having stretch goals e) Reflecting high ideals

Page: 322

Level: Medium

64. According to Robert Greenleaf, all of the following statements about servant leadership are correct EXCEPT: a) the primary purpose of business should be to create a positive impact on both its employees and community. b) the leader is attended to basic spiritual values and in serving these, serves others such as colleagues, the organization and society. c) servant leadership is not a special case of leadership but instead is a special kind of service. d) servant leadership helps others discover their outer spirit. e) servant leadership is best demonstrated by those with a vision and a desire to serve others first, rather than by those seeking leadership roles.

Page: 322

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Servant Leadership 65. All of the following statements about spiritual leadership are correct EXCEPT: a) spiritual leadership can be viewed as field of inquiry within the broader setting of moral leadership. b) spiritual leadership does not yet have a strong research base in organizational behavior. c) spiritual leadership theory is a causal leadership approach for organizational transformation designed to create an intrinsically motivated, learning organization. d) spiritual leadership includes values, attitudes and behaviors required to intrinsically motivate self and others to have a sense of spiritual survival through calling and membership. e) spiritual leadership intrinsically motivates the self and others to experience meaning in their lives, believe they make a difference and feel understood and appreciated.

Page: 320

Level: Difficult

66. Key similarities between authentic theories of leadership and ethical theories of leadership include all of the following EXCEPT: a) concern for others. b) ethical decision-making. c) integrity. d) honesty. e) role modeling.

67. Key similarities between transformational theories of leadership and ethical theories leadership include all of the following EXCEPT: a) ethical decision-making. b) integrity. c) role modeling. d) concern for others. e) future-orientation.

Page: 323

Level: Difficult

68. A key similarity shared by ethical, authentic, spiritual and transformational leadership is ______. a) role modeling b) honesty c) inspiration d) encouragement e) fortitude

Ans: Page: 323

Level: Medium

69. Key similarities between authentic theories of leadership and ethical theories leadership include all of the following EXCEPT: a) a concern for others. b) ethical decision making. c) an emphasis on moral management. d) integrity. e) role modeling.

Page: 323

Level: Difficult

70. According to the text, which of the following five characteristics have been identified across projects as elements to successful team performance? a) Perseverance; one-way communication; competent, motivated performance; efficient, goal-directed effort; and optimism b) Resilience; hope; one-way communication; adequate resources; and a productive, supportive climate c) Efficient, goal-directed effort; adequate resources; competent, motivated performance; a productive, supportive climate; and a commitment to continuous improvement d) Unplanned change; resilience; faith; adequate resource; and a pattern of attention e) Shared leadership; resistance to change; one-way communication; unplanned change; and competent, motivated performance

Page: 325

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Desired Shared Conditions

71. All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT: a) leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well. b) the influence process often involves upward or downward hierarchical influence. c) the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence. d) leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior. e) the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.

Pages: 324-326

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Shared Leadership

72. Self-leadership activities are often divided into these three broad categories: a) behavior focused, self reward and constructive thought pattern strategies. b) cognitive, behavior and emotional strategies. c) focus, ambiguous and unfocused strategies. d) bottom-up, top-down and middle strategies. e) group, individual and team strategies.

Page: 326

Level: Medium

73. Behavior-focused strategies include all of the following EXCEPT: a) self observation. b) goal setting. c) self accomplishment. d) reward. e) self correcting feedback.

Page: 326

Level: Difficult

74. Which of the following statements about self-rewards is inaccurate? a) Self-rewards can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment. b) Self-rewards can be real such as a steak dinner. c) Imagery, such as imagining the receipt of a bonus, is a self-reward. d) Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can prove quite useful. e) Most people do not like to often reward themselves for their activities.

Pages: 326-327

Level: Medium

75. ______focus on the creation or alteration of cognitive thought processes. a) Creative solutions b) Constructive thought patterns c) Developmental idea concepts d) Innovative approaches e) Novel-mapping

Page: 327

Level: Medium

76. ______is often used in combination with vertical leadership. a) Power negotiation b) Organizational goal setting c) Shared leadership d) Teamwork e) Individual leadership

Page: 327

Level: Medium

77. All of the following pertain to the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT: a) the study used a multiple measure approach with a strong emphasis on questionnaires built around the assumption that leadership variables and cultural variables can be meaningfully applied at societal and organizational levels. b) the key assumption behind the model is that the attributes and entities that differentiate a specified culture predict organizational practices and leader attributes and behaviors that are most often carried out and most effective in that culture. c) the study sample was comprised of middle managers in the telecommunication, food and banking industries. d) the GLOBE project is headed by Robert House. e) the GLOBE project involves countries in Asia and North America only.

Page: 328

Level: Medium

Section Reference: The GLOBE Perspective 78. The original GLOBE theoretical model includes all of the following aspects EXCEPT: a) over time, founders and subsequent organizational leaders respond to organizational culture and alter their behaviors/leaderships styles. b) leader acceptance is a function of the interaction between CLT’s and leader attributes and behaviors. c) leader strength is based on strong relationships inside and outside the groups. d) acceptance of the leader by followers facilitates leader effectiveness. e) leader effectiveness, over time, will increase leader acceptance.

Pages: 328-329

Level: Medium

79. Which of the following is NOT a cultural dimension within the GLOBE theoretical model? a) Assertiveness b) Ethical proactivity c) Future orientation d) Gender egalitarianism e) Power distance

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture 80. All of the following are leadership dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT: a) charismatic/value based. b) team-oriented. c) fortitude. d) self-protective. e) autonomous.

Page: 329

Level: Medium

81. Which of the following sets represent CLT leadership dimensions? a) self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented b) autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented c) charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven d) implicit, explicit, specific, detailed e) top-level, bottom-up, middle, secular

Page: 329

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture 82. All of the following leadership dimensions were related to ineffective leaders, according to the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT: a) irritability. b) egocentricity. c) non-cooperativeness. d) dictatorial. e) strong-minded.

Page: 331

Level: Medium

83. Culturally contingent endorsement of leader characteristics, according to the GLOBE theoretical model involved all of the following EXCEPT: a) individualistic. b) status conscious. c) risk taking. d) emotional. e) self sacrificing.

Page: 331

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership. Section Reference: Universally Endorsed Aspects of Leadership

84. Which of the following does NOT reflect one of the four contexts for leadership action? a) Stability b) Crisis c) Retrenchment d) Dynamic equilibrium e) Near the edge of chaos

Page: 333

Level: Medium

85. The leadership context of ______refers to a dramatic departure from prior practice and sudden threats to high-priority goals with little or no response time. a) stability b) crisis c) retrenchment d) dynamic equilibrium e) near the edge of chaos

Page: 333

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change. Section Reference: Four Leadership Contexts

86. How might a leader measure success in regard to the leadership context of dynamic equilibrium? a) By performance on assigned goals b) Adjustment to crisis; return to normalcy c) Movement toward successful implementation of proposed change programs d) Balance of stability and dynamic adaptation to increase fitness e) None of the above

Page: 333

Level: Difficult

87. Context 4, ______, is a transition zone poised between order and chaos. Here, the system must rapidly adjust while maintaining sufficient stability to learn. a) near the edge of chaos b) middle of the road c) on the fence d) the performance gap e) None of the above

Page: 334

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change. Section Reference: Four Leadership Contexts

88. When establishing giving circles, a manager ought to do which of the following? a) Find out who is interested in participating b) Provide a schedule of meeting times and locations c) Assign an appropriate number of people d) Educate members in a variety of activities e) All of the above

Page: 335

Level: Easy

89. Another name for incremental change is ______. a) subtle change b) original change c) frame-bending change d) basic change e) temporal change

Page: 336

Level: Medium Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change.

90. The success of both radical and incremental change in organizations depends in part on ______who lead and support the change processes. a) change agents b) transition agents c) variation agents d) alteration agents e) transformation agents

Page: 336

Level: Easy

91. All of the following can increase transformational change effort success EXCEPT: a) developing a sense of urgency. b) have a compelling vision. c) empower others to act. d) when the team is succeeding, keep going. Don’t stop to celebrate short-term wins or you will stop the forward moving momentum. e) build on accomplishments.

Page: 336

Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change.

92. Suppose unexpected conflicts occur among numerous people in several different departments of an organization, and that these conflicts ultimately result in a new policy on interdepartmental relations. This situation and its outcome could be called ______. a) unplanned change b) unexpected trouble c) crisis management. d) organizational upheaval e) human resource conflict

Page: 336

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Planned and Unplanned Change

93. ______may be disruptive, such as a wildcat strike that ends in a plant closure, or beneficial, such as an interpersonal conflict that results in a new procedure designed to smooth the flow of work between two departments. a) Casual change b) Involuntary change c) Unplanned change d) Fortuitous change e) Contingent change

94. ______is intentional and occurs as a result of specific efforts by a change agent. a) Charted change b) Programmed change c) Outlined change d) Arranged change e) Planned change

Page: 336

Level: Easy

95. The decision to construct a new overseas plant can be considered to be a(n) ______. a) performance gap b) planned change c) unplanned change d) structural change e) refreezing phase

96. ______is a direct response to someone’s perception of a performance gap –– a discrepancy between the desired and actual state of affairs. a) Unplanned change b) Arranged change c) Contingency change d) Statutory change e) Planned change

Page: 336

Level: Easy

97. Most planned changes may be regarded as efforts intended to deal with ______gaps in ways that benefit an organization and its members. a) realization b) performance c) attainment d) accomplishment e) completion

Ans: Page: 336

Level: Medium

98. The ______that are driving organizations of all types and sizes can be found in organization-environment relationships, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations. a) forces for change b) change agents c) targets of change d) instruments of change e) techniques of change

Page: 337

Level: Medium

99. ______represent(s) forces for change that deal with mergers, strategic alliances, and divestitures as ways of redefining organizational relationships with challenging social and political environments. a) Organization-environment relationships b) The organizational life cycle c) The political nature of organizations d) The technological nature of organizations e) The structural nature of organizations Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Medium

100. ______represent(s) forces for change that deal with adapting the organization’s culture and structure as it grows toward maturity. a) Organization-environment relationships b) The organizational life cycle c) The political nature of organizations d) The technological nature of organizations e) The structural nature of organizations

Page: 337

Level: Medium

101. When considering the ______, it must be recognized that changes in any one are likely to require or involve changes in the others. a) forces for change b) change agents c) targets of change d) instruments of change e) techniques of change Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Medium

102. Which of the following statements about targets of planned change is NOT correct? a) The culture target is intended to clarify or create core beliefs and values. b) The tasks target is intended to update job designs for individuals and groups. c) The objectives target focuses on setting or modifying specific performance targets. d) The purpose target is intended to clarify or create mission and objectives. e) The structure target focuses on clarifying or creating strategic and operational plans.

Page: 337

Level: Difficult

103. People respond to a(n) ______change strategy mainly out of the fear of being punished if they do not comply with a change directive or out of the desire to gain a reward if they do. a) unilateral effort b) force-coercion c) rational persuasion d) shared-power e) hierarchical control

Page: 338

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Force- Coercion

104. When change is accomplished through ______, compliance is usually only temporary and continues only as long as the change agent and his or her legitimate authority are visible, or as long as the opportunities for rewards and punishments remain obvious. a) hierarchical control b) shared-power c) rational persuasion d) force-coercion e) unilateral effort

Page: 338

Level: Medium

105. When successful, the ______results in a longer lasting, more internalized change than does force-coercion. a) inside-outside strategy b) rational persuasion strategy c) top-down change strategy d) community involvement strategy e) hierarchical control strategy

Page: 339

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Rational Persuasion

106. A ______actively and sincerely involves the people who will be affected by a change in planning and making key decisions relating to this change. a) shared-power strategy b) collaborative effort strategy c) lateral control strategy d) force-coercion strategy e) rational persuasion strategy

Page: 339

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Shared Power

107. Which strategy for planned change is sometimes called a normative-reeducative approach? a) shared-power strategy b) collaborative effort strategy c) lateral control strategy d) force-coercion strategy e) rational persuasion strategy

Page: 339

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Shared Power

108. ______is often viewed as something that must be overcome in order for change to be successful. a) Political maneuvering b) Power sharing c) Forced coercion d) Resistance to change e) Rational persuasion

Page: 339

Level: Easy

109. Which of the following is NOT a reason why people resist planned change? a) fear of the unknown b) lack of a felt need to change c) lack of resources d) selflessness e) insecurity

Page: 340

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Why people Resist to Change

110. In order to minimize resistance to change, the people affected by the change should know how the change meets the benefit criterion, which means that the change should ______. a) have a clear relative advantage for the people being asked to change b) be as compatible as possible with the existing values and experiences of the people being asked to change c) capitalize on the relative power positions of those affected by the change and those implementing the change d) be no more complex than necessary; it must be as easy as possible for people to understand and use e) be something that people can attempt on a step-by-step basis and make adjustments as things progress

Page: 340

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Resistance to Change Strategy

111. Which of the following statements regarding resistance to the change strategy is NOT accurate? a) People may resist a force-coercion strategy because they resent management by command or the use of threatened punishment. b) People may resist a rational persuasion strategy in which the data are suspect or the expertise of advocates is not clear. c) People may resist a shared-power strategy that appears manipulative and insincere. d) Change agents never have to deal with resistance to a change strategy. e) When a change strategy is implemented people generally “buy-into” the strategy immediately.

Page: 340

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Resistance to Change Strategy

112. In dealing with resistance to change, the method of ______seems to work best when people lack information or have inaccurate information. a) facilitation and support b) negotiation and agreement c) education and communication d) explicit or implicit coercion e) participation and involvement

Page: 341

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: How to Deal with Resistance 113. In dealing with resistance to change, the approach of ______seems to work best when other people have important information. a) explicit or implicit coercion b) education and support c) manipulation and cooptation d) facilitation and support e) participation and involvement

Page: 341

Level: Difficult

114. In dealing with resistance to change, the method of ______seems to work best when people are frustrated by work constraints and difficulties encountered in the change process. a) facilitation and support b) negotiation and agreement c) manipulation and cooptation d) explicit or implicit coercion e) participation and involvement

Page: 341

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: How to Deal with Resistance Fill in the blank

115. ______essentially involves both owning one’s personal experiences and acting in accordance with one’s true self.

Page: 320

Level: Difficult

116. Those high in ______are argued to have optimal self-esteem, or genuine, true, stable and congruent self-esteem as opposed to fragile self-esteem based heavily on outside responses.

Page: 320

Level: Difficult

117. SLT stands for ______. Ans:

Page: 321

Level: Easy

118. ______is defined as a dynamic, interactive influence process among individuals in groups for which the objective is to lead one another to the achievement of group or organizational goals or both.

Page: 324

Level: Easy

119. Shared and vertical self-directing team activities tend to encourage ______activities which in turn can help individuals and the team.

Page: 326

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Discuss shared leadership in work teams and self-leadership. Section Reference: Shared Leadership and Self- Leadership

120. ______strategies, of self-leadership activities, tend to increase self- awareness leading to the handling of behaviors involving necessary but not always pleasant tasks.

Page: 326

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Behavior-Focused Strategies

121. ______is the first step toward behavioral change.

Page: 326

Level: Difficult

122. ______is a major project outlining the common dimensions of leadership that are important, as well as the significant differences in how effective managers lead in different cultures.

Ans: Page: 328

Level: Easy

123. Another name for radical change is ______.

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy

124. The term ______is used to stress the establishment of a norm where the leader is expected to ask questions, raise issues, and help gather information for unit members.

Page: 335

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Four Leadership Contexts 125. Change that results in a major overhaul of the organization or its component systems is called ______.

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy

126. ______is part of an organization’s natural evolution that builds on existing ways of operating to enhance or extend them in new directions.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

127. ______are individuals and groups who take responsibility for changing the existing behavior patterns of another person or social system.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Leaders as Change Agents 128. ______occur spontaneously or randomly and without a change agent’s direction.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

129. A(n) ______is a discrepancy between the desired and the actual conditions.

Page: 336

Level: Easy

130. Through a(n) ______change strategy, a change agent acts unilaterally to “command” change through the formal authority of his or her position, to induce change via an offer of special rewards, or to bring about change via threats of punishment. Ans :

Page: 338

Level: Easy

131. A(n) ______change strategy assumes that people will be guided by reason and self-interest in deciding whether or not to support a change.

Page: 339

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Rational Persuasion

132. The ______strategy is likely to result in long-term and internalized change.

Page: 339

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Shared Power 133. ______can be viewed as feedback that a change agent can use to facilitate achieving change objectives.

Pages: 339-340

Level: Medium

134. Define shared leadership. Define the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership.

Page: 324

Level: Medium

135. Define transformational change and incremental change. Discuss the role of change agents.

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change.

136. What is the difference between unplanned change and planned change? Describe the nature of each type of change.

Page: 336

Level: Medium

137. Identify six methods for dealing with resistance to change. Indicate when each method should be used and describe the potential advantages and disadvantages that are associated with using each method.

Pages: 341-342

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: How to Deal with Resistance File: ch.15, Chapter 15: Organizational Culture and Innovation

True/False

1. Communications by Wall Street firms and employees are restricted by intensely detailed regulatory guidelines that present a challenge for individual employees who wish to promote themselves using social media tools.

Page: 346

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture. Reference: Social Media and Corporations: Don’t Cross the Line When You Go Online

Section Reference: Social Media and Corporations

2. Organizational culture is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members.

Page: 348

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture.

Section Reference: Organizational Culture

3. In the business setting, organizational culture is called corporate culture.

Page: 348

Level: Easy

4. Most organizational cultures are similar if not identical to one another.

Ans: Page: 348

Level: Medium

5. Cultural differences can have a major impact on the performance of organizations and the quality of work life experienced by their members.

Page: 348

Level: Easy

6. Through their collective experience, members of an organization can solve two extremely important survival issues: 1) internal adaptation, and 2) competition integration.

Page: 348

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture 7. The external adaptation function of organizational culture concerns issues regarding tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.

Page: 348

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture

8. Three important aspects of external adaptation are: (a) separating more important from less important external forces, (b) developing ways to measure accomplishments, and (c) creating explanations for why goals are not always met.

Page: 348

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture 9. Some of the key questions regarding external adaptation are: How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for friendship?

Page: 349

Level: Medium

10. Internal integration deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of matching methods of working and living together.

Page: 349

Level: Easy

11. The process of external adaptation often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself.

Ans: Page: 349

Level: Difficult

12. In the context of internal integration, three important aspects of working together are: (a) deciding who is a member and who is not; (b) developing a formal agreement that specifies acceptable and unacceptable behavior; and (c) getting friends and enemies to collaborate with one another.

Page: 349

Level: Difficult

13. Some of the key questions regarding internal integration are: What do we do if specific targets are not met? How do we tell others how good we are? When do we quit?

Page: 350

Level: Difficult Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture.

14. Smaller firms often have a single dominant culture with a universal set of shared actions, values, and beliefs.

Page: 350

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Subcultures and Countercultures

15. Most larger organizations contain several subcultures as well as one or more countercultures.

Page: 350

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Subcultures and Countercultures 16. Strong subcultures are seldom found in high-performance task forces, teams, and special project groups in organizations.

Page: 350

Level: Medium

17. A subculture has a pattern of values and philosophy that outwardly rejects the surrounding culture of the larger organization or social system.

Page: 350

Level: Medium

18. Every large organization imports potentially important subcultural groupings when it hires employees from the larger society.

19. In North American companies, subcultures and countercultures may naturally form on the basis of ethnic, racial, gender, generational, or locational similarities.

Page: 350

Level: Easy

20. In Japanese organizations, subcultures often form based on the date of graduation from a university, gender, or geographic location.

Pages: 350-351

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Subcultures and Countercultures 21. In European firms, subcultures may form on the basis of ethnicity, language, or gender.

Page: 351

Level: Easy

22. A counterculture is a group of individuals with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that is consistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy.

Page: 350

Level: Medium

23. Research shows that most organizations originate in several national cultures and incorporate very little features from these host cultures even when they expand internationally. Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Medium

Section Reference: National Cultures and Corporate

24. One of the difficulties associated with organizations importing and accepting subcultural groupings from the larger society is that the firm may encounter extreme difficulty in coping with broader cultural changes.

Page: 351

Level: Easy

Section Reference: National Culture and Corporate Culture

25. One of the difficulties associated with organizations importing and accepting subcultural groupings from the larger society is that firms that accept and build on natural divisions from the large culture may find it extremely difficult to develop sound international operations. This may help to explain why many Japanese firms have had difficulty adjusting to the equal treatment of women in their US operations.

Page: 351

Level: Easy Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture.

26. The multicultural organization is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societally based subcultures into the fabric of the organization.

Page: 352

Level: Medium

27. The Wall Street Journal reports that older workers are at greater risk of layoffs because many employers use a “first in/first out” rule when cutting back staff.

Page: 352

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Ethics In OB 28. In step one of Taylor Cox’s five-step program for developing the multicultural organization, the organization should develop pluralism with the objective of multi-based socialization.

Page: 352

Level: Medium

29. Observable culture that is the first level of cultural analysis, refers to the way things are done in a particular organization.

Page: 353

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles.

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis

30. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are: observable culture, implicit culture, and uncommon cultural assumptions.

31. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are: observable culture, shared values, and common cultural assumptions.

Page: 353

Level: Medium

32. The observable culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within the firm.

Page: 353

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis 33. The second level of cultural analysis focuses on common cultural assumptions that are the taken-for-granted truths that collections of corporate members share as a result of their joint experiences.

Page: 353

Level: Medium

34. Many consultants suggest that organizations should develop a dominant and coherent set of shared values.

Page: 353

Level: Easy

35. The term shared in cultural analysis implies that the group is a whole.

Pages: 353-354 Level: Medium

36. The deepest level of cultural analysis focuses on shared values that can play a critical role in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

Page: 354

Level: Difficult

37. Isolating common cultural assumptions is accomplished very easily that explains why culture is a relatively superficial aspect of organizational life.

Page: 354

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis 38. Rituals are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Stories, Rites, Rituals, and Symbols

39. Sagas are important because they are used to tell new members the real mission of the organization, how the organization operates, and how individuals can fit into the company.

Page: 354

Level: Easy

40. Rites are standardized and recurring activities used at special times to influence the behaviors and understanding of organizational members; rituals are systems of rites.

41. Subcultures often arise from the type of technology deployed by the units, the specific function being performed, and the specific collection of specialists in the unit.

Page: 355

Level: Easy

42. Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of jargon.

Page: 355

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Stories, Rites, Rituals, and Symbols 43. A cultural artifact is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

44. A cultural symbol is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

45. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS and Federal Express delivery personnel are examples of cultural symbols.

Page: 355

Level: Easy Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles.

46. Organizational culture often specifies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.

Page: 355

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Cultural Rules and Roles

47. Cultural rules and roles are part of the operational controls of the organization and emerge from its strategic planning.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Cultural Rules and Roles 48. To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational culture.

Page: 356

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Shared Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths

49. Shared values help turn routine activities into valuable and important actions.

Page: 356

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Cultural Rules and Roles

50. Shared values tie the corporation to the important values of society.

Page: 356

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles. Section Reference: Shared Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths

51. By linking values and actions, the organization taps into some of the strongest and deepest realms of the individual.

Page: 356

Level: Medium

52. An organization with a “strong culture” possesses a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity, enhance collective commitment, provide a stable social system, and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls.

Pages: 356-357

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Shared Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths 53. A strong culture can be detrimental if it reinforces a broad and pluralistic view of the organization and its environment.

Page: 357

Level: Medium

54. In many firms, the management philosophy is supported by a series of organizational myths.

Page: 358

Level: Easy

55. A common myth in organizations is the presumption of administrative competence.

Page: 358

Level: Medium

56. A common myth in organizations is the denial of trade-offs.

Page: 358

Level: Medium

57. The best organizations don’t stagnate; they innovate; they value and expect innovation, and it becomes a normal part of everyday operations.

Ans: Page: 360 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

58. Creativity is the process of creating new ideas and putting them into practice.

Ans: Page: 360 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

59. Idea creation, initial experimentation, feasibility determination, and final application are the basic steps in a typical process of organizational innovation.

Ans: Page: 361 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

60. Generating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing is the feasibility determination step of the innovation process.

61. Innovative organizations benefit from and require top management support.

Ans: Page: 361 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: The Process of Innovation 62. A number of studies suggest that the key difficulty with product development is the integration across all of the units needed to move from the idea stage to final implementation.

Ans: Page: 362 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

63. Process innovations introduce new and better work methods and operations.

Ans: Page: 363 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

64. According to a meta-analysis of 100 published statistical studies over the past 30 years, six team processes are particularly important for innovative success: 1) vision, 2) support for innovation, 3) task orientation, 4) cohesion, 5) internal communications, and 6) external communications.

Ans: Page: 363 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

65. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of exploration.

Page: 364

Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.

Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation

66. Managers cannot modify the visible aspects of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

Page: 366

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Explain how to manage organizational culture and innovation.

Section Reference: Building, Reinforcing, and Changing Culture

Multiple Choice

67. A firm’s ______is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the organization and guides the behavior of its members. a) organizational structure b) control philosophy c) organizational persona d) organizational climate e) organizational culture

Page: 348

68. In a business setting, a firm’s system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the company and guides the behavior of its members is called its ______. a) institutional culture b) corporate culture c) indigenous culture d) bureaucratic culture e) domestic culture

Page: 348

Level: Easy

69. “What precisely needs to be accomplished, and how can it be done?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of ______. a) external adaptation b) internal integration c) institutional adaptation d) systematic integration e) structural adaptation

70. “How do members resolve the daily problems associated with living and working together?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of ______. a) institutional adaptation b) structural adaptation c) internal integration d) external adaptation e) systematic integration

Page: 348

Level: Medium

71. ______involves reaching goals and dealing with outsiders. a) Institutional adaptation b) Internal integration c) External adaptation d) Systematic integration e) Structural adaptation

Ans: Page: 348

Level: Medium

72. The issues concerned with ______are tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure. a) structural adaptation b) strategic adaptation c) internal integration d) institutional integration e) external adaptation

Page: 348

Level: Medium

73. ______deals with questions such as: What is the real mission? How do we contribute? What are our goals? How do we reach our goals? What external forces are important? How do we measure results? What do we do if specific targets are not met? How do we tell others how good we are? When do we quit? a) Institutional adaptation b) Internal integration c) External adaptation d) Systematic integration e) Structural adaptation

Page: 349

Level: Difficult

74. ______deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together. a) Institutional integration b) Internal integration c) Structural adaptation d) External adaptation e) Bureaucratic integration

Page: 349

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture 75. The process of ______often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself. a) institutional adaptation b) structural adaptation c) internal integration d) external adaptation e) systematic integration

Page: 349

Level: Medium

76. ______deals with questions such as: What is our unique identity? How do we view the world? Who is a member? How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for friendship? a) Institutional adaptation b) Internal integration c) External adaptation d) Systematic integration e) Structural adaptation

Page: 350

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture 77. Resolving the issues of ______helps individuals develop a shared identity and a collective commitment. a) shared meanings b) internal integration c) external adaptation d) cultural diversity e) management philosophy

Page: 350

Level: Medium

78. To work together effectively, individuals need to do which of the following? a) decide collectively how to allocate power, status, and authority b) establish a shared understanding of who will gets rewards and sanctions for specific types of actions c) work out acceptable ways to communicate d) develop guidelines for friendships e) all of the above.

Page: 350

79. ______are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that is NOT inconsistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy. a) Subcultures b) Countercultures c) Subordinate cultures d) Collateral cultures e) Tributary cultures

Page: 350

Level: Medium

80. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding subcultures? a) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance task forces. b) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance special project groups. c) Subcultures reflect groups with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that are inconsistent with the dominant culture of the larger organization or social system. d) Subcultures emerge to bind individuals working intensely together to accomplish a specific task. e) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance teams.

81. The ______is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal based subcultures into the fabric of the organization. a) counterculture organization b) subculture dominated organization c) subordinate culture organization d) multicultural organization e) homogeneous organization

Page: 352

Level: Medium

82. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Taylor Cox’s five-step program for developing the multicultural organization? a) The organization should develop pluralism with the objective of multibased socialization. b) The firm should disentangle its culture so that there are direct relationships between naturally occurring groups and particular jobs. c) The firm must integrate the informal networks by eliminating barriers and increasing participation. d) The organization should break the linkage between naturally occurring group identity and the identity of the firm. e) The organization must actively work to eliminate interpersonal conflict based on either the group identity or the natural backlash of the largest societally based grouping.

Pages: 352-353

Level: Difficult

83. The five-step program for developing the multicultural organization was developed by ______. a) Taylor Cox b) Geert Hofstede c) Daimler Benz and Chrysler d) Jack Welch e) Richard Branson

Page: 352

Level: Medium

84. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are ______. a) unobservable culture, role models, and shared mission b) implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences c) shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission d) observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions e) explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions

Page: 353

Level: Medium

85. Which is NOT one of the levels of analysis in studying organizational culture? a) Observable culture b) Shared values c) Inter-organizational conflict d) Common assumptions e) Taken-for-granted truths

Pages: 353-354

Level: Medium

86. In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the first level concerns ______, or “the way we do things around here.” a) shared values b) common assumptions c) implicit culture d) observable culture e) shared mission

Page: 353

Level: Medium

87. The ______culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it. a) latent b) shared c) common d) observable e) implicit

Page: 353

Level: Medium

88. In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as ______can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture. a) shared values b) observable culture c) implicit culture d) common culture e) common assumptions

Page: 356

Level: Medium

89. Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of ______. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important. a) observable attitudes b) implicit needs c) common perceptions d) shared values e) common assumptions

Page: 353-354

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis 90. At the deepest level of cultural analysis are ______, or the taken-for-granted truths that collections of corporate members share as a result of their joint experience. a) shared values b) common assumptions c) shared premises d) mutual promises e) collective conjectures

Page: 354

Level: Medium

91. Isolating ______is often extremely difficult, but doing so helps explain why culture invades every aspect of organizational life. a) observable attitudes b) implicit needs c) common perceptions d) shared values e) common cultural assumptions

Page: 354

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis 92. To begin understanding an organization’s culture, it is often easiest to start with ______. a) observations of employee actions b) stories about the organization c) work group norms d) the employee handbook. e) the organization’s code of ethics

Page: 354

Level: Medium

93. ______are embellished heroic accounts of accomplishments, especially regarding the founding of an organization. a) Artifacts b) Sagas c) Legends d) Rites e) Rituals

Page: 354

Level: Medium

94. ______are important because they are used to tell new members the real mission of the organization, how the organization operates, and how individuals can fit into the company. a) Legends b) Epics c) Rituals d) Rites e) Sagas

Page: 354

Level: Medium

95. Systems of rites are called ______. a) rules b) artifacts c) routines d) sagas e) rituals

Page: 355

Level: Easy

96. It is common for Japanese workers and managers to start their workdays together with group exercises and singing of the “company song.” Together, the exercises and songs form a ______. a) rite b) ritual c) cultural symbol d) saga e) routine

Page: 355

Level: Difficult

97. Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of ______. a) terminology b) jargon c) patter d) lingo e) phrasing

Page: 355

Level: Medium

98. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS and Federal Express delivery personnel are examples of ______. a) cultural symbols b) cultural artifacts c) cultural tokens d) cultural attributes e) cultural proxies

Page: 355

Level: Medium

99. Organizational ______often specify/ies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system. a) vision and mission b) culture c) strategy d) design e) communication

Page: 355

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Stories, Rites, Rituals, and Symbols 100. ______are parts of the normative controls of the organization and emerge from its daily routines. a) Organizational strategies b) Organizational goals c) Cultural vision and mission d) Cultural rules and roles e) Cultural symbols

Page: 355

Level: Medium

101. To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational ______. a) planning b) leadership c) design d) culture e) structure

Page: 356

Level: Easy

Section reference: Share Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths 102. Organizations with ______possess a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity, enhance collective commitment, provide a stable social system, and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls. a) strong structures b) strong designs c) strong cultures d) strong artifacts e) strong top managers

Pages: 356-357

Level: Medium

103. Which of the following statements about shared meanings in organizations is NOT correct? a) What you see as an outside observer may or may not be what organizational members see. b) Through interaction with one another, and as reinforced by the rest of the organization, workers may infuse a larger shared meaning  or sense of broader purpose  into their tasks. c) Organizational members refrain from linking their actions to values and unstated assumptions. d) Organizational culture is a “shared” set of meanings and perceptions. e) In most firms employees create and learn a deeper aspect of their culture.

Page: 357

Level: Medium

104. In the aftermath of 9/11, many casual observers saw crane operators moving wreckage from an 18-acre pile of rubble that was once the Twin Towers at the World Trade Center. However, those actually doing the work were not just hauling away the remnants of the Twin Towers. They were rebuilding America. This is an example of which of the following? a) Shared meanings b) Organizational myths c) Shared values d) Rite e) Ritual

Page: 357

Level: Difficult

105. Organizational ______are unproven and often unstated beliefs that are accepted uncritically. a) rites b) routines c) sagas d) myths e) rituals

106. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate with respect to organizational myths? a) Myths allow managers to govern. b) Organizations should discourage the use of managerial myths. c) Myths allow executives to redefine impossible problems into more manageable components. d) Myths can facilitate experimentation and creativity. e) In many firms, the management philosophy is supported by a series of organizational myths.

Page: 358

Level: Medium

107. The means by which creative ideas find their way into everyday practice is called ______. a) reengineering b) development c) innovation d) modernization e) integration

Ans: Page: 360 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section reference: Innovation in Organizations

108. The innovation process is not complete until ______. a) an idea has been created b) an estimate of the idea’s anticipated costs and benefits has been completed c) the test-retest procedures have been completed d) final application has been achieved e) an estimate of the idea’s value and potential has been completed

109. The basic steps in the innovation process include all of the following EXCEPT: a) idea creation. b) initial experimentation. c) test and retest. d) feasibility determination. e) final application.

110. Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing? a) Idea creation b) Initial experimentation c) Test and retest d) Feasibility determination e) Final application

Ans: Page: 361 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

111. Which step in the innovation process focuses on establishing an idea’s potential value and application? a) Idea creation b) Initial experimentation c) Test and retest d) Feasibility determination e) Final application

112. Which step in the innovation process focuses on identifying an idea’s anticipated costs and benefits? a) Idea creation b) Initial experimentation c) Test and retest d) Feasibility determination e) Final application Ans: Page: 361 Level: Easy Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

113. Which step in the innovation process focuses on producing and marketing a new product or service, or on implementing a new approach to operations? a) Idea creation b) Initial experimentation c) Test and retest d) Feasibility determination e) Final application

114. Highly innovative organizations share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) look to the future. b) have a low tolerance for risk. c) prize creativity. d) reward idea generators. e) are willing to cannibalize existing products in their development of new ones.

Ans: Page: 361 Level: Difficult Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

115. The introduction of new and better work methods and operations are the result of ______. a) creativity b) product innovations c) process innovations

d) exploitation e) exploration

Ans: Page: 363 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

116. ______calls for the organization and its managers to stress freedom and radical thinking and therefore opens the firm to big changes-or what some call radical innovations. a) Exploitation b) Exploration c) Management philosophy d) Process innovation e) Internal integration

Ans: Page: 364 Level: Medium Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation. Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation 117. Managers should consider doing all of the following to develop a strong culture for a unit EXCEPT: a) emphasize a shared understanding of what the unit stands for. b) stress a concern for the management over rules and procedures. c) talk about heroes of the past and their contributions, develop rituals and ceremonies for the members. d) reinforce informal rules and expectations consistent with shared values. e) promote the sharing of ideas of information.

Page: 365

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Management Philosophy and Strategy

118. A ______links key goal-related issues with key collaboration issues and comes up with a series of general ways by which the firm will manage its affairs. a) mission statement b) planning philosophy c) management philosophy d) supervisory philosophy e) control system

Page: 365

Level: Easy

Section reference: Management Philosophy and Strategy

119. A management philosophy does all of the following EXCEPT: a) establishes generally understood boundaries for all members of a firm. b) provides a consistent way of approaching new and novel situations. c) helps hold individuals together by assuring them of a known path toward success. d) the way in which top management addresses the questions of external adaptation. e) addresses the issues associated with internal adaptation.

Page: 365

Level: Difficult

120. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is via the ______. a) the leaders assigned to top management b) the people it fires c) the people it hires d) performance system is administers e) reward systems it establishes

Page: 366

Level: Difficult

121. In many larger U.S. based firms the ______matches the overall strategy of the firm and reinforces the ______emerging from day-to-day activities. a) retention practices; termination practices b) orientation practices; development system c) hiring practices; promotional system d) performance program; reward system e) reward system; culture

Page: 366

Level: Difficult

122. Managers can modify the ______of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas. a) vocal aspects b) visible aspects c) verbal aspects d) oral aspects e) written aspects

Page: 366

Level: Difficult

123. ______set the tone for a culture and for cultural change. a) Production employees b) Service workers c) First-line supervisors d) Middle level managers e) Top managers

Page: 366

Level: Easy

124. ______is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations. a) Exploitation b) Organizational cultural lag c) Exploration d) Subcultures e) Process innovation

Page: 367

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Tensions Between Cultural Stability and Innovation

125. If rule changing and rule following are not properly balanced, there is a danger of reinforcing ______. a) innovation b) creativity c) cultural lag d) common assumptions e) shared values

Pages: 367-368

Level: Medium

Fill in the blank

126. The system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members is known as ______.

Page: 348

Level: Easy

Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture 127. When employees at 3M talk about the quality of their products and the useful products they have brought to market, they are addressing the ______aspect of organizational culture.

Page: 349

Level: Medium

128. ______deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together.

Page: 349

Level: Medium

129. ______are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and a philosophy that is not consistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy.

Ans: Page: 350

Level: Medium

130. ______are groups of individuals with a pattern of values and philosophy that outwardly reject those of the larger organization or social system.

Page: 350

Level: Medium

131. Managers of an acquired firm may hold values and assumptions that are quite inconsistent with those of the acquiring firm – thereby creating a(n) ______.

Page: 351

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Subcultures and Countercultures 132. Societal cultures may actually be ______into organizations.

Page: 351

Level: Medium

133. A firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal- based subcultures into the fabric of the organization is known as a(n) ______organization.

Page: 352

Level: Medium

134. The three layers of cultural analysis are ______, ______, and ______.

Page: 353

Level: Medium Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles.

Section Reference: Layers of Cultural Analysis

135. The ______aspect of culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within the firm.

Page: 353

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Layers of Cultural Analysis

136. ______are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization that are found at the deepest layer of cultural analysis.

Page: 354

Level: Medium

137. ______serve to transmit cultural meaning. Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy

138. The “Miss America” type ceremonies of Mary Kay used to spotlight positive work achievements are examples of ______.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

139. ______are standardized and recurring activities that are used at special times to influence the behaviors and understandings of organizational members.

Page: 355

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles. Section Reference: Stories, Rites, Rituals, and Symbols

140. A(n) ______is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

141. The corporate uniform worn by UPS delivery people is an example of a(n) ______.

Page: 355

Level: Medium

142. A(n) ______is a commonly held cause-effect relationship or assertion that cannot be supported empirically.

Ans: Page: 358

Level: Medium

143. The first step in the typical process of organizational innovation is ______.

Page: 361

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.

Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

144. A new study has indicated that ______rather than national policy makes the biggest difference with radical product innovation.

Page: 362

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations 145. ______innovation is the introduction of new goods or services to better meet customer needs, whereas ______innovation is the introduction into operations of new and better ways of doing things.

Page: 362-363

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

146. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of ______.

Page: 364

Level: Medium

Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation

147. A(n) ______links key goal-related strategic issues with key collaboration issues and comes up with a series of general ways by which the firm will manage its affairs.

148. A well-developed ______is important because it links strategy to a more basic understanding of how a firm is to operate.

Page: 365

Level: Medium

149. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is through the ______it establishes.

Page: 366

Level: Medium

150. ______is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations. Ans:

Page: 367

Level: Medium

151. What is organizational culture? What is corporate culture? Is a firm’s culture important? Why or why not?

Page: 348

Level: Easy

152. Describe the cultural functions of external adaptation and internal integration.

Page: 348-350

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture. Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture

153. What is a subculture? Where are strong subcultures found? How is a subculture different from a counterculture?

Page: 350-351

Level: Medium

154. What is innovation in organizations? List and briefly describe the four steps of the innovation process.

Page: 360-361

Level: Difficult

Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

155. Briefly discuss how managers build, reinforce, and change culture.

Page: 366-367

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Explain how to manage organizational culture and innovation. Section Reference: Building, Reinforcing, and Changing Culture

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