Module 6 Exam Review

1. Compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells will typically have a ______. cell wall

2. True or false, prokaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane? false

3. What prokaryotic cell structure regulates passage of materials into and out of the cell? cell membrane

4. What is the role of the capsule found on some prokaryotic cells? protection and phagocyte resistance

5. What tiny, tube-like projections from the cell surface and are associated with adherence? pili

6. What are plasmids? extrachromosomal DNA

7. Identify the following on a graphic: chromosome, ribosomes, inclusion, plasmid, cytoplasm, cell membrane, cell wall, capsule, flagellum

8. What is the term for rod-shaped bacteria? bacilli

9. What is the term for a flexible, corkscrew shape? spirochete

10. What is the term that describes spherical bacteria? cocci

11. What term is used to describe chains of spherical bacteria? streptococci

12. Grape-like or irregular clusters of spherical bacteria are called______. staphylococci

13. Spherical bacteria arranged in groups of two would be known as ______. diplococci

14. A thin peptidoglycan layer would be indicative of a Gram ______bacterium. negative

15. The reason there is a difference in the Gram stain is due to the ______of the cell wall. thickness

16. A Gram stain of a thick cell wall would show ______staining. purple

17. Selective culture media ______. encourages the growth of some organisms, discourages others

18. Differential growth media identifies bacteria based on the fermentation of _____. carbohydrates

19. Which type of culture media enhances the growth of fastidious bacteria? enriched

20. What type of organism would be destroyed in conditions of high atmospheric oxygen? anaerobic

21. Aerobes would thrive in an environment that is rich in ______. oxygen

22. The four phases of bacterial growth are ____, _____, _____, and _____? lag, log, stationary, death

23. Binary fission is used to describe the process of bacterial ______. replication 24. With a generation time of 15 minutes how many organisms would there be after three hours? 4096

25. Exponential growth is evident in which phase of the bacterial growth curve? log

26. When bacterial growth has stabilized it is in the ______phase. stationary

27. On a graphic identify the phases of bacterial growth: lag, log, stationary, and death.

28. Symbiosis is condition where two organisms are ______. cohabitate/live together

29. What is commensalism? one organism benefits, one is neutral

30. What is mutualism? both organisms benefit

31. What is parasitism? one organism benefits, one is harmed

32. Organisms that commonly live in or on the body and are usually not pathogenic are part of the body’s ______. normal flora

33. Pathogenicity is the organism’s ability to ______. cause disease

34. Virulence would be described as ______. the severity of disease

35. Hyaluronidase is an enzyme, which contributes to the ______of a bacterium. pathogenicity

36. Coagulase is an enzyme that accelerates ______to cover the bacterium with fibrin. clotting

37. Streptokinase and staphylokinase break down and prevent ______. clots

38. Gram-positive organisms primarily secrete ______. exotoxins

39. Upon their deaths, Gram-negative bacteria release ______. endotoxins

40. Certain bacterial species can survive for very long periods of time as _____. endospores

41. Newly synthesized nucleic acids are packaged into complete virions during the ______stage. maturation

42. The return of a spore to an active, metabolizing state is called ______. germination

43. A virus which can transfer genetic material to bacteria is called a ______. transduction

44. Drug resistance is transferred via a F pilus (sex pilus) in the process of ______. conjugation

45. Drug resistance resulting from the uptake of DNA fragments from neighboring, dead bacteria is called ____. transformation

46. A viral infection is closely tied to which bacterial-resistance process? transduction 47. A bacteriostatic antimicrobial ______organism growth. inhibits

48. A bacteriocidal antimicrobial will ______an organism. kill

49. A broad spectrum antimicrobial is effective against both ______and ______microorganisms. Gram- positive and Gram-negative

50. A narrow spectrum antimicrobial is effective against a ______number of microorganisms. limited

51. A large, clear zone surrounding an antibiotic disc on an agar disk indicates the organism is _____ to the antibiotic. sensitive

52. Resistant bacteria would be indicated by a _____ zone of inhibition on the antibiotic sensitivity disk. small

53. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common cause of ______. pharyngitis

54. Mycoplasms lack a ______. cell wall

55. An insect that transmits an organism is called a _____. vector

56. Bacteria that have different shapes and sizes are classified as ______. pleomorphic

57. Chlamydia and Rickettsia are obligate, ______microorganisms. intracellular

58. The nucleic acid core of a virus is either ______or ______but never both.DNA or RNA

59. A _____ is a protective coat that encloses the viral nucleic acid. capsid

60. Adsorption, penetration, synthesis, maturation, and release are the steps to ______. viral replication

61. A virus that can reappear and produce disease symptoms is called a ______virus. latent

62. A prion-related disease called bovine spongiform encephalopathy is more commonly known as _____. mad cow disease

63. Brain tissue can be affected by infectious misfolded proteins called ______. prions

64. Ringworm is a ______infection. fungal

65. What protozoan can be found in the local streams? Giardia

66. The motile, adult, invasive form of an infective protozoan is called a ______. trophozoite

67. The dormant, infective stage of a protozoan is commonly referred to as a ______. cyst

68. A _____ host harbors the parasite when it reproduces by sexual reproduction. definitive

69. A host that is not part of the normal life cycle is called ______. accidental 70. Flukes, tapeworms, roundworms, and tissue parasites are examples of ______. helminths

71. A scolex and segments called proglottids are associated with ______. tapeworm