Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1

: Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1

1. A patient who is listless, slovenly, unkempt, is most likely suffering from:

Your answer:

depression

paranoia

anorexia

2. For every unit of blood lost in trauma, how much crystalloid must be infused?

Your answer:

three times the amount

half as much

twice as much

equal amount

3. A 30 year old female is in a MVA and is complaining of chest pain, should be treated as a patient with:

Your answer:

4. A patient complaining of chest apin who is showing multifocal PVCs on the monitor should be treated with:

Your answer:

5 mg/kg bretylium infusion

1 mg/kg bretylium bolus

1 mg/kg lidocaine bolus 2-4 mcg/kg lidocaine infusion

5. Vasopressors may be indicated in which type of shock?

Your answer:

respiratory

metabolic

hypovolemic

neurogenic

6. Treatment of neurogenic shock should include:

Your answer:

oxygen, IV, valium

oxygen, IV aramine, Trendelenberg position

oxygen, IV, PASG, consider vasopressors

IV, aramine, lidocaine infusion

7. A patient with a history of seizures is most likely to take which medications:

Your answer:

lasix and lanoxin

inderal and digitalis

theo-dur and lanoxin

dilantin and phenobarbitol

8. A patient presents with vomiting, headache, and yellow vision. The monitor show rapid atrial fib with frequent PVCs. The patient states that she takes a heart pill. She is most likely suffering from:

Your answer:

influenza

lidocaine toxicity lasix overdose

lanoxin toxicity

9. The preferred site for intraosseous needle placement in the field is:

Your answer:

distal femur

midshaft femur

distal tibia

proximal tibia

10. The most common cause of airway obstruction in the unconscious victim of an unwitnessed collapse is:

Your answer:

tongue

mucous

dentures

11. A pregnant patient suffering from edema, hypertension and increased muscle tone is likely suffering from:

Your answer:

preeclampsia

eccpampsia

postural hypotension

12. The problem with communication of teh elderly is most often due to:

Your answer:

confusion organic brain syndrome

senility

hearing loss

13. The term that which describes normal respirations is:

Your answer:

eupnea

bradypnea

dyspnea

orthopnea

14. The rate of adult compressions in CPR is:

Your answer:

80-100

100 plus per minute

15. The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is:

Your answer:

irreversible death

biological death

clinical death

16. The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is:

Your answer:

20 breaths/minute 8 breaths/minute

5 breaths/minute

12 breaths/minute

17. The rescuer's initial ventilation of a person requiring CPR should be:

Your answer:

five full breaths

two full breaths

four quick breaths

one quick breath

18. Your 27 year old female patient is complaining of vaginal discharge and abdominal pain which increases with intercourse. The patient relates that she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. the patient is most likely suffering from:

Your answer:

uterine rupture

ectopic pregnancy

19. What is the name for alveolar collapse?

Your answer:

pulmonary edema

tension pneumothorax

atelectasis

pneumonia

20. A 31 year old female is involved in a MVA. Vital signs are 90/68, 100, and 40. Trachea is deviated to the right, breath sounds are absent on the left, hyperresonance is noted on the left side on percussion. What is most likely the problem? Your answer:

hemothorax

simple pneumothorax

pericardial tamponade

tension pneumothorax

21. The first priority in management of an open pneumothorax is to:

Your answer:

insert an oral airway

cover and seal the wound

check both lung fields

deliver high flow O2

22. Uncompensated shock is evidenced by:

Your answer:

cold, clammy skin

rising pulse rate

falling blood pressure

rising temperature

23. In some people, congenitally weakened areas of the lungs may rupture causing:

Your answer:

pulmonary edema

spontaneous pneumothorax

alveolar pneumonia

hemothorax

24. Which is the most important in evaluating a patient with an illness causing abdominal pain? Your answer:

vital signs

appearance of the patient

patient history

palpitation

25. Insulin is secreted by the:

Your answer:

superior testines

islets of Langerhans

gall bladder

adrenal glands

26. What is the primary drug given to correct ventricular fibrillation?

Your answer:

atropine

lidocaine

inderal

27. The usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is:

Your answer:

0.2 mg in 500 ml of D5W

2 mg in 500 ml D5W

20 mg in 500 ml of D5W

1 mg in 1000 ml of D5W

28. The fluid portion of blood is the: Your answer:

erythrocyte

albumin

leukocyte

plasma

29. Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit?

Your answer:

respiratory acidosis

metabolic acidosis

respiratory alkalosis

metabolic acidosis

30. The purkinge system has an intrinsic firing rate of:

Your answer:

20-40 min

40-60 min

60-70 min

10-20 min

31. You have been ordered to give a patient 7 mcg/min of isuprell. Mix 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W and use a microdrip. What drip rate is needed?

Your answer:

90 gtts/min

105 gtts/min

210 gtts/min

28 gtts/min

32. The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack would be: Your answer:

10 mg/kg

.001 mg/kg

.01 mg/kg

0.1 mg/kg

33. Stimulation of the beta receptors causes:

Your answer:

increased heart rate and force of contraction

bronchial constriction and tachycardia

decreased cardiac oxygen consumption

increased vascular resistance and vasoconstriction

34. You are attempting to intubate a pediatric pateint. Your best guide in choosing the correct size tube is:

Your answer:

the pateint's ring finger

the patient's little finger

the pateint's weight

the pateint's general appearance

35. Which factor is common to all forms of shock?

Your answer:

inadequate tissue perfusion

hypovolemia

tachycardia

tachypnea

36. When a myocardial fiber is at rest the charge within the cell is: Your answer:

positive

depolarized

polarized

negative

37. A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having:

Your answer:

a concentration the same as that in the cells

a concentration higher than that in the cells

a concentration lower than that in the cells

none of the above adequately defines the term

38. Which of the following is primarily an extracellular electrolyte?

Your answer:

calcium

potassium

sodium

nitrogen

39. Injuries that result in partial tearing of a ligment are called:

Your answer:

fractures

dislocations

sprains

strains

40. In a posterior dislocation of the hip, the leg will appear: Your answer:

abducted and slightly flexed

lengthened and rotated outward

shortened and rotated inward

flexed to about 90 degrees

41. Lactated Ringer;s solution is a(n):

Your answer:

hypertonic solution

isotonic solution

isotonic balanced buffered electrolyte solution

hypotonic solution

42. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is usually caused by:

Your answer:

underfeeding the infant

overheating the infant

suffocation

the cause is unknown

43. The most common cause of seizures in the child is:

Your answer:

ventricular fibrillation

elevated temperature

bronchitis

inadequate tissue perfusion

44. What is the first step in the secondard survey? Your answer:

head to tow survey

check for hemorrhage

obtain a set of vital signs

check for open fractures

45. your patient is unconscious and in apparent respiratory distress. The permission to treat her is given by the concept of:

Your answer:

replied consent

implied consent

actual consent

applied consent

46. 23 year old male has a history of seizures. You find him having recurrent seizures without return to consciousness. His color is poor and he is suffeing arrythmias. The patient is suffering from:

Your answer:

status epilepticus

marital distress

petit mal seizures

focal motor seizures

47. Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of hypoxia:

Your answer:

weak and rapid pulse

thirst

restlessness

cyanosis 48. Your patient is a conscious and rational adult. Failure to get consent to treat and transpoert could lead to what type of liability?

Your answer:

assault

battery

false imprisonment

all of the above

49. Aminophyline may be given in a dosage of range of ____ and it's main action is ______?

Your answer:

250-500 mg slowly; bronchial dilation

500 mg rapidly; decreased urinary output

250-500 mg rapidly; bronchial dilation

300 mg slowly; increased cardiac output

50. What is the most common adverse side effect of IV push valium?

Your answer:

seizures

respiratory depression

hypotension

hypertension

Answers: Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1

1. Which of the following is a colloid solution? Your answer: Dextran CORRECT! 2. A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable vital signs is suffering from: Your answer: insulin shock CORRECT! 3. Uncompensated shock produces which of the following: Your answer: pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter relaxation CORRECT! 4. Kinematics of trauma; How may collisions occur? Your answer: three CORRECT! 5. Dopamine has what effects when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min? Your answer: renal and mesenteric dilation CORRECT! 6. Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is an indication of: Your answer: cerebral focal cortex lesions CORRECT! 7. The best possible score for a Glascow coma scale is: Your answer: eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6 CORRECT! 8. The beta cells of the pancreas produce: Your answer: insulin hormone CORRECT! 9. The most significant sign of abdominal injury is: Your answer: pain CORRECT! 10. Lidocaine is usually given for: Your answer: ventricular tachycardia CORRECT! 11. Before applying a PASG you must: Your answer: assess lung sounds CORRECT! 12. Patient has high blood pressure in pregnancy: Your answer: toxemia CORRECT! 13. Anapylaxsis following an insect sting is treated with: Your answer: epinephrine CORRECT! 14. What device transmits specific tones that other receivers will recognize? Your answer: encoder CORRECT! 15. Who has the ultimate authority over the EMT in the field? Your answer: on-line medical control CORRECT! 16. A deviation from the accepted standards of care is called: Your answer: negligence CORRECT! 17. Which of the following is not a method of transmission of the Hepatitis virus? Your answer: caliva CORRECT! 18. An ovedose of Oil of Wintergreen will present similar to: Your answer: salicylates CORRECT! 19. Aminophylline is given: Your answer: IV over 20-30 minutes CORRECT! 20. You have been called to a party for a 20 year old male who bystanders state had a seizure activiely before you arrived. The pateint is conscious and agitated, BP 132/96, pulse 132, resp. 28. He is diaphoretic and his pupils are dilated. He denies any drug or alcholo ingestion. What do you suspec Your answer: cocaine CORRECT! 21. Which of the folloiwn is NOT a predisposing factor to hypothermia? Your answer: alcoholism CORRECT! 22. Ions that carry a negative charge are: Your answer: anions CORRECT! 23. Verapamil has wha effects on the myocardium? Your answer: negative chronotropic CORRECT! 24. What is the chief extracellular elecrolyte? Your answer: sodium CORRECT! 25. The normal PR interval is _____ seconds. Your answer: 0.12 - 0.20 CORRECT! 26. The EMT's best defense in the event of legal proceedings is: Your answer: a detailed medical record CORRECT! 27. The range of a portable radio transmitter/receiver is somewhat limited. The range can be extended by the use of a(n): Your answer: repeater CORRECT! 28. The first action an EMT takes after receiving a medication order: Your answer: repeat the medication order CORRECT! 29. Which of the following is a re-entry rhythm? Your answer: atrial tachycardia CORRECT! 30. If a patient apical pulse is 130, and their radial pulse rate is 96, what is this referred to? Your answer: pulse deficit CORRECT! 31. The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with: Your answer: congestive heart failure CORRECT! 32. The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the: Your answer: atriventricular valves CORRECT! 33. A patient who is hyperventilation may have which acid-base condition? Your answer: respiratory alkalosis CORRECT! 34. If a radial pulse is present, systolic blood presure is at least: Your answer: 80 CORRECT! 35. What heart valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium? Your answer: tricuspid valve CORRECT! 36. What is pH? Your answer: the hydrogen ion concentration CORRECT! 37. What is the correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax? Your answer: 2nd intercostal space; mid-clavicular line CORRECT! 38. Airway obstruction can be caused by: Your answer: ventral flexion CORRECT! 39. What does the T wave represent on the ECG? Your answer: atrial repolarization CORRECT! 40. Which aspect of the physical exam is least helpful in the field? Your answer: deep tendon reflex CORRECT! 41. Which of teh following is the earliest sign of shock? Your answer: resentlessness CORRECT! 42. A possible complicaton of the PASG is: Your answer: decreased ventilation CORRECT! 43. The joint action of two drugs where the combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effect is called: Your answer: synergism CORRECT! 44. What is the action of insulin? Your answer: transfers glucose into cells CORRECT! 45. The physician orders 5mcg.kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient. You put 400mg of Dopamine in 250mls D5W. What is the correct rate using microdrip tubing? Your answer: 15 gtts/min CORRECT! 46. Which drug must be given cautiously to patients currently taking Digitalis? Your answer: CaCl CORRECT! 47. Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients? Your answer: Inderal CORRECT! 48. The APGAR score evaluates: Your answer: pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace CORRECT! 49. The signs of epiglottitis are: Your answer: dysphagia and drooling CORRECT! 50. A patient has an IV established and suddenly goes into V-fib. You will: Your answer: defibrillate CORRECT!