<p> : Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1</p><p>1. A patient who is listless, slovenly, unkempt, is most likely suffering from:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> depression</p><p> paranoia</p><p> mania</p><p> anorexia</p><p>2. For every unit of blood lost in trauma, how much crystalloid must be infused?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> three times the amount</p><p> half as much</p><p> twice as much</p><p> equal amount</p><p>3. A 30 year old female is in a MVA and is complaining of chest pain, should be treated as a patient with:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> an MI</p><p>TIA</p><p>COPD</p><p>CVA</p><p>4. A patient complaining of chest apin who is showing multifocal PVCs on the monitor should be treated with:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>5 mg/kg bretylium infusion</p><p>1 mg/kg bretylium bolus</p><p>1 mg/kg lidocaine bolus 2-4 mcg/kg lidocaine infusion</p><p>5. Vasopressors may be indicated in which type of shock?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> respiratory</p><p> metabolic</p><p> hypovolemic</p><p> neurogenic</p><p>6. Treatment of neurogenic shock should include:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> oxygen, IV, valium</p><p> oxygen, IV aramine, Trendelenberg position</p><p> oxygen, IV, PASG, consider vasopressors</p><p>IV, aramine, lidocaine infusion</p><p>7. A patient with a history of seizures is most likely to take which medications:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> lasix and lanoxin</p><p> inderal and digitalis</p><p> theo-dur and lanoxin</p><p> dilantin and phenobarbitol</p><p>8. A patient presents with vomiting, headache, and yellow vision. The monitor show rapid atrial fib with frequent PVCs. The patient states that she takes a heart pill. She is most likely suffering from:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> influenza</p><p> lidocaine toxicity lasix overdose</p><p> lanoxin toxicity</p><p>9. The preferred site for intraosseous needle placement in the field is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> distal femur</p><p> midshaft femur</p><p> distal tibia</p><p> proximal tibia</p><p>10. The most common cause of airway obstruction in the unconscious victim of an unwitnessed collapse is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> tongue</p><p> food</p><p> mucous</p><p> dentures</p><p>11. A pregnant patient suffering from edema, hypertension and increased muscle tone is likely suffering from:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> preeclampsia</p><p> eccpampsia</p><p>PMS</p><p> postural hypotension</p><p>12. The problem with communication of teh elderly is most often due to:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> confusion organic brain syndrome</p><p> senility</p><p> hearing loss</p><p>13. The term that which describes normal respirations is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> eupnea</p><p> bradypnea</p><p> dyspnea</p><p> orthopnea</p><p>14. The rate of adult compressions in CPR is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>80-100</p><p>100 plus per minute</p><p>15-1</p><p>5-2</p><p>15. The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> irreversible death</p><p> biological death</p><p>DRT</p><p> clinical death</p><p>16. The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>20 breaths/minute 8 breaths/minute</p><p>5 breaths/minute</p><p>12 breaths/minute</p><p>17. The rescuer's initial ventilation of a person requiring CPR should be:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> five full breaths</p><p> two full breaths</p><p> four quick breaths</p><p> one quick breath</p><p>18. Your 27 year old female patient is complaining of vaginal discharge and abdominal pain which increases with intercourse. The patient relates that she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. the patient is most likely suffering from:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>AIDS</p><p>PID</p><p> uterine rupture</p><p> ectopic pregnancy</p><p>19. What is the name for alveolar collapse?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> pulmonary edema</p><p> tension pneumothorax</p><p> atelectasis</p><p> pneumonia</p><p>20. A 31 year old female is involved in a MVA. Vital signs are 90/68, 100, and 40. Trachea is deviated to the right, breath sounds are absent on the left, hyperresonance is noted on the left side on percussion. What is most likely the problem? Your answer:</p><p> hemothorax</p><p> simple pneumothorax</p><p> pericardial tamponade</p><p> tension pneumothorax</p><p>21. The first priority in management of an open pneumothorax is to:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> insert an oral airway</p><p> cover and seal the wound</p><p> check both lung fields</p><p> deliver high flow O2</p><p>22. Uncompensated shock is evidenced by:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> cold, clammy skin</p><p> rising pulse rate</p><p> falling blood pressure</p><p> rising temperature</p><p>23. In some people, congenitally weakened areas of the lungs may rupture causing:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> pulmonary edema</p><p> spontaneous pneumothorax</p><p> alveolar pneumonia</p><p> hemothorax</p><p>24. Which is the most important in evaluating a patient with an illness causing abdominal pain? Your answer:</p><p> vital signs</p><p> appearance of the patient</p><p> patient history</p><p> palpitation</p><p>25. Insulin is secreted by the:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> superior testines</p><p> islets of Langerhans</p><p> gall bladder</p><p> adrenal glands</p><p>26. What is the primary drug given to correct ventricular fibrillation?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> lasix</p><p> atropine</p><p> lidocaine</p><p> inderal</p><p>27. The usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>0.2 mg in 500 ml of D5W</p><p>2 mg in 500 ml D5W</p><p>20 mg in 500 ml of D5W</p><p>1 mg in 1000 ml of D5W</p><p>28. The fluid portion of blood is the: Your answer:</p><p> erythrocyte</p><p> albumin</p><p> leukocyte</p><p> plasma</p><p>29. Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> respiratory acidosis</p><p> metabolic acidosis</p><p> respiratory alkalosis</p><p> metabolic acidosis</p><p>30. The purkinge system has an intrinsic firing rate of:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>20-40 min</p><p>40-60 min</p><p>60-70 min</p><p>10-20 min</p><p>31. You have been ordered to give a patient 7 mcg/min of isuprell. Mix 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W and use a microdrip. What drip rate is needed?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>90 gtts/min</p><p>105 gtts/min</p><p>210 gtts/min</p><p>28 gtts/min</p><p>32. The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack would be: Your answer:</p><p>10 mg/kg</p><p>.001 mg/kg</p><p>.01 mg/kg</p><p>0.1 mg/kg</p><p>33. Stimulation of the beta receptors causes:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> increased heart rate and force of contraction</p><p> bronchial constriction and tachycardia</p><p> decreased cardiac oxygen consumption</p><p> increased vascular resistance and vasoconstriction</p><p>34. You are attempting to intubate a pediatric pateint. Your best guide in choosing the correct size tube is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> the pateint's ring finger</p><p> the patient's little finger</p><p> the pateint's weight</p><p> the pateint's general appearance</p><p>35. Which factor is common to all forms of shock?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> inadequate tissue perfusion</p><p> hypovolemia</p><p> tachycardia</p><p> tachypnea</p><p>36. When a myocardial fiber is at rest the charge within the cell is: Your answer:</p><p> positive</p><p> depolarized</p><p> polarized</p><p> negative</p><p>37. A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> a concentration the same as that in the cells</p><p> a concentration higher than that in the cells</p><p> a concentration lower than that in the cells</p><p> none of the above adequately defines the term</p><p>38. Which of the following is primarily an extracellular electrolyte?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> calcium</p><p> potassium</p><p> sodium</p><p> nitrogen</p><p>39. Injuries that result in partial tearing of a ligment are called:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> fractures</p><p> dislocations</p><p> sprains</p><p> strains</p><p>40. In a posterior dislocation of the hip, the leg will appear: Your answer:</p><p> abducted and slightly flexed</p><p> lengthened and rotated outward</p><p> shortened and rotated inward</p><p> flexed to about 90 degrees</p><p>41. Lactated Ringer;s solution is a(n):</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> hypertonic solution</p><p> isotonic solution</p><p> isotonic balanced buffered electrolyte solution</p><p> hypotonic solution</p><p>42. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is usually caused by:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> underfeeding the infant</p><p> overheating the infant</p><p> suffocation</p><p> the cause is unknown</p><p>43. The most common cause of seizures in the child is:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> ventricular fibrillation</p><p> elevated temperature</p><p> bronchitis</p><p> inadequate tissue perfusion</p><p>44. What is the first step in the secondard survey? Your answer:</p><p> head to tow survey</p><p> check for hemorrhage</p><p> obtain a set of vital signs</p><p> check for open fractures</p><p>45. your patient is unconscious and in apparent respiratory distress. The permission to treat her is given by the concept of:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> replied consent</p><p> implied consent</p><p> actual consent</p><p> applied consent</p><p>46. 23 year old male has a history of seizures. You find him having recurrent seizures without return to consciousness. His color is poor and he is suffeing arrythmias. The patient is suffering from:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> status epilepticus</p><p> marital distress</p><p> petit mal seizures</p><p> focal motor seizures</p><p>47. Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of hypoxia:</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> weak and rapid pulse</p><p> thirst</p><p> restlessness</p><p> cyanosis 48. Your patient is a conscious and rational adult. Failure to get consent to treat and transpoert could lead to what type of liability?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> assault</p><p> battery</p><p> false imprisonment</p><p> all of the above</p><p>49. Aminophyline may be given in a dosage of range of ____ and it's main action is ______?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p>250-500 mg slowly; bronchial dilation</p><p>500 mg rapidly; decreased urinary output</p><p>250-500 mg rapidly; bronchial dilation</p><p>300 mg slowly; increased cardiac output</p><p>50. What is the most common adverse side effect of IV push valium?</p><p>Your answer:</p><p> seizures</p><p> respiratory depression</p><p> hypotension</p><p> hypertension</p><p>Answers: Emergency Medical Technician Quiz 1</p><p>1. Which of the following is a colloid solution? Your answer: Dextran CORRECT! 2. A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable vital signs is suffering from: Your answer: insulin shock CORRECT! 3. Uncompensated shock produces which of the following: Your answer: pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter relaxation CORRECT! 4. Kinematics of trauma; How may collisions occur? Your answer: three CORRECT! 5. Dopamine has what effects when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min? Your answer: renal and mesenteric dilation CORRECT! 6. Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is an indication of: Your answer: cerebral focal cortex lesions CORRECT! 7. The best possible score for a Glascow coma scale is: Your answer: eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response 6 CORRECT! 8. The beta cells of the pancreas produce: Your answer: insulin hormone CORRECT! 9. The most significant sign of abdominal injury is: Your answer: pain CORRECT! 10. Lidocaine is usually given for: Your answer: ventricular tachycardia CORRECT! 11. Before applying a PASG you must: Your answer: assess lung sounds CORRECT! 12. Patient has high blood pressure in pregnancy: Your answer: toxemia CORRECT! 13. Anapylaxsis following an insect sting is treated with: Your answer: epinephrine CORRECT! 14. What device transmits specific tones that other receivers will recognize? Your answer: encoder CORRECT! 15. Who has the ultimate authority over the EMT in the field? Your answer: on-line medical control CORRECT! 16. A deviation from the accepted standards of care is called: Your answer: negligence CORRECT! 17. Which of the following is not a method of transmission of the Hepatitis virus? Your answer: caliva CORRECT! 18. An ovedose of Oil of Wintergreen will present similar to: Your answer: salicylates CORRECT! 19. Aminophylline is given: Your answer: IV over 20-30 minutes CORRECT! 20. You have been called to a party for a 20 year old male who bystanders state had a seizure activiely before you arrived. The pateint is conscious and agitated, BP 132/96, pulse 132, resp. 28. He is diaphoretic and his pupils are dilated. He denies any drug or alcholo ingestion. What do you suspec Your answer: cocaine CORRECT! 21. Which of the folloiwn is NOT a predisposing factor to hypothermia? Your answer: alcoholism CORRECT! 22. Ions that carry a negative charge are: Your answer: anions CORRECT! 23. Verapamil has wha effects on the myocardium? Your answer: negative chronotropic CORRECT! 24. What is the chief extracellular elecrolyte? Your answer: sodium CORRECT! 25. The normal PR interval is _____ seconds. Your answer: 0.12 - 0.20 CORRECT! 26. The EMT's best defense in the event of legal proceedings is: Your answer: a detailed medical record CORRECT! 27. The range of a portable radio transmitter/receiver is somewhat limited. The range can be extended by the use of a(n): Your answer: repeater CORRECT! 28. The first action an EMT takes after receiving a medication order: Your answer: repeat the medication order CORRECT! 29. Which of the following is a re-entry rhythm? Your answer: atrial tachycardia CORRECT! 30. If a patient apical pulse is 130, and their radial pulse rate is 96, what is this referred to? Your answer: pulse deficit CORRECT! 31. The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with: Your answer: congestive heart failure CORRECT! 32. The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the: Your answer: atriventricular valves CORRECT! 33. A patient who is hyperventilation may have which acid-base condition? Your answer: respiratory alkalosis CORRECT! 34. If a radial pulse is present, systolic blood presure is at least: Your answer: 80 CORRECT! 35. What heart valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium? Your answer: tricuspid valve CORRECT! 36. What is pH? Your answer: the hydrogen ion concentration CORRECT! 37. What is the correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax? Your answer: 2nd intercostal space; mid-clavicular line CORRECT! 38. Airway obstruction can be caused by: Your answer: ventral flexion CORRECT! 39. What does the T wave represent on the ECG? Your answer: atrial repolarization CORRECT! 40. Which aspect of the physical exam is least helpful in the field? Your answer: deep tendon reflex CORRECT! 41. Which of teh following is the earliest sign of shock? Your answer: resentlessness CORRECT! 42. A possible complicaton of the PASG is: Your answer: decreased ventilation CORRECT! 43. The joint action of two drugs where the combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effect is called: Your answer: synergism CORRECT! 44. What is the action of insulin? Your answer: transfers glucose into cells CORRECT! 45. The physician orders 5mcg.kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient. You put 400mg of Dopamine in 250mls D5W. What is the correct rate using microdrip tubing? Your answer: 15 gtts/min CORRECT! 46. Which drug must be given cautiously to patients currently taking Digitalis? Your answer: CaCl CORRECT! 47. Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients? Your answer: Inderal CORRECT! 48. The APGAR score evaluates: Your answer: pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace CORRECT! 49. The signs of epiglottitis are: Your answer: dysphagia and drooling CORRECT! 50. A patient has an IV established and suddenly goes into V-fib. You will: Your answer: defibrillate CORRECT! </p>