Infection Control Exam Catherine Collier RDH, B.Ed, MS Instructor

Infection Control Exam Catherine Collier RDH, B.Ed, MS instructor

The following sample questions were selected by Cathie Collier. They are based on the topics of interest that might appear on the Infection Control Exam. They are only reflective of the topics and are not exact to the exam content. Participants should continue to research topics to gain a more comprehensive insight into material content.

1. What does OSHA stand for?

___a. Occupational Services and Help Assistance

___b. Ouch Stabbed Hard Again

___c. Occupational Services and Health Association

___d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

2. Which of the following statements is true regarding OSHA? a. Parents or children who are not patients are not allowed into patient areas due to OSHA regulations. b. OSHA regulations have nothing to do with the safety of patients including children.

3. Which agency regulates the registration of surface disinfectants?

___ a. FDA ___ b. OSHA ___ c. EPA ___d. CDC

4. This nationally recognized agency deals with issues concerning public health hazards and infectious diseases.

_____ a. NIOSH _____ b. EPF ______c. CDC ______d. OSAP

5. Medical records of an employee’s exposure incident should be retained for:

___ a. 10 years ___b. 15 years ___c. 6 months ___d. 30 years

6. Does an OSHA compliance officer need a search warrant to inspect your office?

Yes No

7. Safety Data Sheets are now considered GHS. What does GHS stand for?

_____a. Guaranteed Highest Standards _____b. . Globally Harmonized System _____c.Generated Hazards Safety

_____d. None of the above

1 8. In regards to chemical safety information employees should refer to the SDS sheets.

Which of the following does SDS stand for?

___ a. Standard Dental Safety ___b. Supervised Dental Safety

___ c. Safety Data Sheets ___d. Standard Data Sheets

9. Which information does not appear on a SDS?

_____ a. Chemical Product Identification

_____ b. Physical/Chemical characteristics

_____ c. Reactivity Data

_____d. List of other products manufacturer produces

10. The majority of organisms that make up dental unit waterline biofilm consist of:

___a . human pathogens _____ b. oral flora_____ c. water bacteria_____ d. mycobacterium species

11. Which bacterium is most often found in the dental unit water-line?

___a. Herpes Simplex 1 ___b. Pseudo Legionella ___c. Streptococcus Pyogenes

__d. Legionella Pneumophila

12. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate delivery method for irrigation during oral surgery?

___ a. Use distilled water in a sterile bulb syringe ___b. Use sterile water in the dental unit waterline

___ c. Use sterile water in a sterile bulb syringe ___d. use distilled water in a dental unit waterline

2 13. To reduce bacterial growth in the dental unit water line high-speed handpieces lines and air-water syringes should be flushed with water:

____a. after each patient ___b. at the time of lubrication c. weekly ___ d. at the end of the work day

14. According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), a bloodborne pathogens training program should include a general explanation of:

_____ a. the trainer's background and relevant credentials

_____ b. how the training program was created and by whom

_____ c. research documents on safety concerns

_____d. modes of disease transmission and prevention

15. A patient diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection will:

_____a. be capable of transmitting TB to another person in the same room

_____ b. have a positive skin test and at least one symptom of active tuberculosis.

_____ c. require treatment in an appropriate facility

_____ d. Have a positive skin test and no symptoms of active tuberculosis.

16. Which vaccine-preventable disease poses the greatest risk of transmission in a dental office setting?

_____ a. Tuberculosis _____ b. Hepatitis C _____c . Cytomegalovirus _____d. Influenza

17. Which vaccination is available for protection against bloodborne pathogens?

___ a. Hepatitis A ___b. Hepatitis B ___c. Hepatitis C ___d. a & b only ___e. a & c only

18. Which form of immunity is acquired when you are vaccinated for Hepatitis B?

3 _____ a. Passive Immunity ____ b. Active Immunity _____ c. Latent Immunity _____d. auto-immunity

19. Hepatitis D is considered :

__ a. foodborne disease __b. coinfection with hepatitis C ___c. oral-fecal condition

__d. coinfection with hepatitis B

20. Which of the following statements can apply to herpetic viruses:

_____a. They can be transferred through saliva _____b. They appear as small visceral lesions

_____c. The virus lies dormant in the nerve endings _____d. All of the above apply

21. Immunization is available for all of the following except?

___a. Shingles ___b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus ___c. Hepatitis B ___d. Hepatitis A

23. Which is the preferred method to retrieve a cotton roll from a container during a patient procedure?

_____ a. Remove gloves and use your bare hand

_____ b. Ask your patient to reach in and retrieve one

_____ c. Use a sterile cotton pliers or tongs

_____ d. Try not to touch the other cotton rolls with your contaminated gloves

24. Which of the following is considered the appropriate level when filling a sharps container?

___ a. The level depends on the size of the container. ___ b. The container should be filled to capacity

___ c. When the items reach the designated fill line ___d. 1/2 full

25. Heat sterilization of extracted teeth containing mercury may result in which of the following conditions?

4 ___ a. the vaporization of mercury, presenting a health hazard

___ b. shattering of the teeth, posing puncture injury risk

___ c. failure of the sterilization cycle

___d. destruction of instruments in the sterilizer

26. Which of the following items requires a biohazard sticker?

_____a. Waste receptacles containing blood - soaked gauze

_____b. Contaminated Laundry Bin

_____ c. On a disposal bin for needles and other sharp related items

_____d. All of the above

27. After an exposure incident, the employer must provide the evaluating physician a description of:

___ a. Employee's level of training prior to exposure ___b. Employee's relevant job duties

___c. The source patient's dental records ___d. The source patient's vaccination record

28. Which of the following protocol is NOT part of an Post Exposure Control Plan (PEP)?

___ a. Report the incident immediately to your supervisor

___b. Review with supervisor the possible risks of acquiring HBV, HCV, and HIV and the need for a post

exposure evaluation

___ c. Rinse off the exposure site and take the day off.

___ d. Have supervisor or practice owner contact source individual to discuss blood testing

29. The main purpose of handwashing is :

_____ a. To remove the dead skin cells from you hands

_____ b. To remove the transient bacteria from your hands

5 _____c. To remove the resident bacterial from your hands

_____d. To maintain the integrity of your skin

30. When should employees consider washing their hands?

___ a. Before leaving operatory or lab

___ b. When hands are visibly soiled

___ c. When you experience contact with blood or aerosol droplets

____d. Employees should consider handwashing for all of the above

31. After washing hands at a faucet that is not automatic, the dental healthcare personnel should:

___a. wait for the water to stop ___b. turn off the faucet with hands after they are completely dry

___c. use a dry paper towel to turn off the faucet ___d. turn off the faucet with hands before drying

32. When performing a surgical hand wash, the primary purpose is to:

_____ a. Reduce friction when placing on gloves

_____ b. Keep microbes from penetrating gloves during a surgical procedure.

_____c. Minimize the risk of an allergic reactions that can occur from contact with gloves

_____ d. To minimize the risk of contamination of the patient if the gloves become punctured or torn.

33. Which is considered the most severe adverse reaction to latex gloves?

___ a. Allergic contact dermatitis ___ b. Allergic contact hypersensitivity

___ c. Type I hypersensitivity ___d. Type IV hypersensitivity

34. How often should surface barriers be removed and changed?

___ a. before your lunch break ___b. In between each patient

___ c. When they are visibably soiled with blood ___ d. Only once per day

6 35. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to surface disinfectants?

_____ a. Surface disinfectants destroy all forms of endospores.

_____ b. With appropriate contact time, surface disinfectants reduce the number of organisms on

clinical surfaces.

_____c. Surface disinfections should be EPA approved

_____d. Surface disinfections can contain toxic properties

36. Which of the following is considered a clinical contact surface?

___ a. Bitewing tab ___b. Panoramic cassette ___c. X-ray control panel ___d. X-ray film

37. Which of the following CDC recommended guidelines is most likely to prevent contamination of components of dental equipment that are permanently attached to the dental unit?

___ a . Use impervious barriers and change at the end of the day

___b. Wipe with a low-level disinfectant between patients

___ c. Rinse with hot tap water

___ d. None of the above

38. Which of the following statements applies to single use only items?

___ a. They offer greater infection-control advantages ___ b. Designed to be used on more than one patient ___ c. They require a proper cleaning time of 10 minutes d. They are considered to be non- critical items.

39. According to the CDC reusable mops used on housekeeping surfaces should be:

___ a. used until the water in the bucket is visibly dirty ___ b. used with room temperature water only

7 ___ c. cleaned and dried before reuse ____d. covered with a biohazard bag and discarded.

40. Which of the following is the first step when processing instruments for sterilization?

____a. Surface Disinfection ___ b. Pre-Cleaning ___c. select proper package size

___d. Rinse instruments with cold tap water for 5 full minutes

41. Which of the following of actions is used to pre-clean contaminated instruments prior to sterilization?

______a. Supersonic ______b. Subsonic ______c. Ultrasonic ______d. Galvanized force

42. The purpose of the pre-cleaning instrument is to:

___ a. increase the instrument life ____b. remove bioburden debris

___ c. Improve the handling of instruments ___d. remove all pathogenic organisms

43. Which is the proper method for decontaminating impressions before sending them to the laboratory?

___ a. Clean and disinfect ___b. Clean with soap and water ___c. Disinfect and sterilize

___d. Spray with mouthwash

44. An internal and external indicator is placed on packaging material to assess:

___ a. That all bacteria have been destroyed ___ b. Specific cycle time, temperature and pressure

___ c. The physical conditions necessary for sterilization ___d. That the sterilization cycle is completed

45. The primary active agent used for unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization is: _____ a. water _____ b. xylene _____c. formaldehyde and alcohol _____ d. distilled water

8 46. What is the minimum temperature and time a steam sterilizer needs to reach to achieve effective sterilization?

___a. 100 degrees C for 15 – 45 minutes ___ b. 100 degrees F for 50 minutes

___c. 250 degrees F 20 -30 minutes ___ d. 121 degrees C for 60 – 90 minutes

47. What are the three methods required for the monitoring of sterilization?

___a. Mechanical, chemical and biological ___ b. Visual, mechanical and biological

___c. Biological, bacterial and visual _ ____d. Visual, biological and temperature

48. What is the recommended procedure when a sterilizer fails two consecutive spore tests?

_____ a. Do not use the sterilizer until the reason for failure has been determined and corrected

_____ b. Try sterilizing the instruments again to see if you get the same results

_____ c. Contact spore test manufacturer for instructions

_____d. Tell the other clinical staff members to be careful when using the sterilizer

49. Biological indicators for monitoring an autoclave or an unsaturated chemical vapor unit contain which of the following spore types;

___a. Hepatitis B virus ___ b. Geobacillus Stearothermophilus ___c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

50. Which is the appropriate form required by OSHA to be filled out to report a work-related accident?

_____a. ADA Medical History _____b. Emergency room admission form _____c. OSHA Log 300

_____d. Post –exposure log