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In the Next Questions You Should Find the Only Correct Answer for Each Question INSTRUCTIONS SIMPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Instructions: In the next questions you should find the only correct answer for each question. The letter of the selected answer (A, B, C, D, E) has to be written on the line left to the questions. Multiple-choice questions Instructions: In the next questions several correct answers belong to each sentence or question according to the following lettered combinations. The letter is to be written on the left side on the line. A,if 1.,2.and 3. are correct B,if 1.,2.and 4. are correct C,if 1.and 3. are correct D,if 2.and 4. are correct E,if all the answers are correct RELATION -ANALYSIS Instuctions:In the next questions consist of one compound sentence,the first part is a statement ,while the second part is a reason for the statement .The statement and the reason may both be true or false ,or they may both be true but without any cause-and -effect relation between eachother. You can see five possibilities below,but only one answer is correct. The relation has to be judged only if both the statement and the reason are correct.If you have decided whichone is correct ,write the corresponding capital letter on the line next to the question. A,Both the statement and the reason are true, and the reason veri- fies the statement. B,Both the statement and the reason are true ,but there is no relation between them C,The statement is true the reason is false D,The statement is false the reason is true E,Both the statement and the reason are false 1/36 QUESTIONS OF ASSOCIATION Instructions: In the next questions you will find lines with four capital letters (A,B,C,D) Letters A and B are associated with one concept.Your task is to determine which of the sentences refers to A or B .If the sentence is associated both with A or B then choose C .If it is associated with neither of them ,letter D has to be selected 2/36 GENERAL MEDICINE SIMPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ALT-1. From which component do the periodontal ligaments develop? A. periodontal ligaments develop independently from the dental bud B. periodontal ligaments develop from the Hertwig’s root sheat C. the periodontal ligaments develop from the follicular layer of the inverted bowl D. the periodontal ligaments develop from the mucous membrane of the stomodeum E. the periodontal ligaments develop from the mesenchymal tissue of the dental sac ALT-2. Which muscle’s activity is resulted in the forward movement of the mandible? A. m. masseter B. m. temporalis C. m. pterygoideus lateralis D. m. pterygoideus medialis E. m. mylohyoideus ALT-3. It runs from the medial cranial fossa passing through the foramen rotundum into the sphenopalatinal fossa : A. n. canalis pterygoidei B. n. petrosus profundus C. n. mandibularis D. n. maxillaris E. n. lingualis ALT-4. It is one of the main branches of the trigeminal nerve, that leaves the skull through the foramen ovale. A. n. mandibularis B. n. maxillaris C. n. facialis D. n. hypoglossus E. n. ophthalmicus ALT-5. Which nerve does motorically innervate the buccinator muscle? A. n. glossopharyngeus B. n. buccinatorius C. n. facialis D. n. hypoglossus 3/36 E. n. trigeminus ALT-6. Which muscle has a role in the opening of the mouth? A. medial pterygoid muscle B. temporal muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle D. masseter muscle E. buccinator muscle ALT-7. What is the main connection between the sphenopalatinal fossa and the nasal cavity? A. canalis rotundus B. foramen ovale C. fissura pterygopalatina D. foramen sphenopalatinum E. foramen palatinum majus ALT-8. Which of the following veins does the venous system of the teeth establish? A. ophtalmic vein B. anterior facial vein C. pterygoid plexus D. external jugular vein E. temporal veins ALT-9. It is the location of the Peyer's plaques. A.stomach B.colon C.jejunum D.duodenum E. ileum ALT-10. From which trunk does the right subclavial artery arise? A. arch of the aorta B. common carotid artery C. brachiocephal artery D. thoracic aorta E. vertebral artery ALT-11. Where is the location of the orifice of the parotid duct. A. at the level of the mandibular second premolar B. at the level of the maxillary premolars C. at the level of the mandibular second molar tooth 4/36 D. at the level of the maxillary second molar tooth E. at the level of the maxillary second premolar ALT-12. Which nerve is topographically in the closest connection with the parotid gland? A. n. maxillaris B. n. facialis C. n. glossopharyngeus D. n. mandibularis E. n. alveolaris inferior ALT-13. What is the Carabelli's Cusp? A. a bony extension on the condylar ramus of the mandible B. a bump on the posterior surface of the maxilla C. a bump on the lower second molar D. a bump on the upper first molar E. a circumscript pathologic swelling of the gingiva ALT-14. Which is the proprioceptive nucleus of the trigeminal nerve? A. nucleus motorius n. trig. B. nucleus principalis n. trig. C. nucleus mesencephalius n. trig. D. nucleus spinalis n. trig. E. Locus coeruleus ALT-15. When does the breaking of the oronasal membrane occur? A. on the 6-th week B. on the 3-th week C. on the 8-th week D. at the end of the 2-nd month E. at the end of the 4-th week ALT-16. What is the gomphosis? A. It is the inflammation of the gingiva B. It is an anastomosis of blood vessels in the pulp cavity C. It is the desease of the periodontium D. It is the connection between the tooth and the socket E. It is the rest of the Hertwig's root shea ALT-17. Which nerve is not the sensory branch of the mandibular nerve? 5/36 A. n. masticatorius B. n. alveolaris inferior C. n. auriculotemporalis D. n. lingualis E. n. mentalis ALT-18. Which fibers do not belong to the main gingival fiber systems? A. circular fibers B. alveolo-gingival fibers C. dento-gingival fibers D. interdental decussatae fibers E. horizontal fibers ALT-19. What is the most sever complication of having gallstones (cholelithiasis)? A. acut cholecystitis B. perforation of the gall-bladder C. obstructive icterus D. ileus caused by the gall stones E. development of a malignant neoplasm ALT-20. What is the most common reason of the massive gastrointestinal hemorrhage? A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. gastric neoplasm C. gastro-duodenal ulcer D. rupture of the oesophageal varicosity E. erosive gastritis ALT-21. What should be administered in case of an idiopathic convulsion accompanied unconsciousness? A. Seduxen B. Pipolphen C. No-Spa D. Hibernal E. either of the them ALT-22. Observing a serious necrotizing inflammation in the oral cavity, what can be the cause of the underlying systemic disease ? A. pernicious anaemia B. hepatic cirrhosis C. gastric cancer 6/36 D. acute leukaemia E. tuberculosis ALT-23. Which of the following diseases can cause acromegaly? A. virus related disease B. haemangioma C. vitamin-C deficiency D. acidophil adenoma located in the anterior lobe of the hypophysis E. disease of the bone marrow ALT-24. How is the haemophilia inherited? A. it manifests the same way in heterozygote and homozygote women B. it is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait carried on the X- chromosome C. it is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait carried on the X- chromosome D. it manifests in heterozygote men E. it is always lethal in hemizygote men ALT-25. What can be a causative factor in the aethiopathogenesis of thrombosis? A. hyperplasia of the endocrine glands B. lithogenesis C. clostridium Welchii D. lipotrop materials E. endothelial damage of the blood vessels ALT-26. It can be a cause of the hemorrhagic diathesis: A. hypercholesterinaemia B. stasis C. immunological mechanisms D. thrombocytopenia E. increased viscosity of the blood ALT-27. Which chemical mediator have a role in the inflammation? A. histamin B. the loss of T-cell tolerance C. protease effect D. the increased level of the glicerine-phosphates E. the incomplete function of the cystation synthetase ALT-28. It can be considered as a focal disease: 7/36 A. lobodontia B. median rhomboid glossitis C. rheumatic endocarditis D. calcification of the pulp E. leukoedema exfoliativum mucosae oris ALT-29. It is a predisposing factor of the deep venous thrombosis : A. physical activity B. Sjögren’s syndrome C. chronic bronchitis D. administration of Aspirin E. taking of anticoncipient drugs ALT-30. How long should be the Syncumar administered in case of the first deep venous thrombosis, if there is no detectable thrombophylia? A. 1 week B. 1 month C. 3-6 months D. it is not necessary E. it is contraindicated ALT-31. Which of the following signs does not belong to the consequences of the peptic ulcer? A. haemorrhage B. perforation C. embolism D. stenosis E. penetration ALT-32. Which disease can be indicated by a thoracic pain, intensifying at breathing and coughing, evidenced from the history of the patient? A. myocardial infarction B. bronchial asthma C. chronic bronchitis D. pulmonary embolism E. cardial decompensation ALT-33. It is the first step in the medication, in case of a moderate anaphylactic reaction (urticaria, flush): A. binding an infusion B. providing the patient with O2 inhalation 8/36 C. administration of epinephrine D. administration of Corinfar sublingually E. administration of antihistamines ALT-34. It is the leading symptom of an asthmatic attack: A. dyspnoe at physical activity B.
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