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Index Chapters Page No. English 2 Mathematics 170 Reasoning 381 Current Affairs Quiz 576 General Knowledge 952 Assam History 992 Computer Awareness 1032
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English
1. PERDILECTION (1) predicament (2) afterthought (3) aversion (4) postponement Explanation: aversion (Noun) : reluctance; dislike; a strong feeling of not liking somebody/something. predilection (Noun) : liking, preference.
2. POMPOUS (1) uppish (2) humble (3) meek (4) grandiose Explanation: humble (Adjective) :modest; no showing. pompous (Adjective) : pretentious; showing; grandiose.
3. SERENE (1) calm (2)angry (3) ruffled (4) bitter
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Explanation: ruffled (Adjective) : disturbed; flustered. serene (Adjective) : calm and peaceful.
4. RELEASE (1) hide (2) bury (3) close (4) confine Explanation: confine (Verb) : to keep inside the limits; restrict; to keep a person/animal in a small space. release (Verb) : set free; stop holding ; let go.
5. CLEAR (1) implicit (2) effulgent (3) nebulous/opaque (4) lucid Explanation: nebulous (Adjective) : not clear; vague. clear (Adjective) : easy to understand; direct; obvious. implicit (Adjective) : not clear; indirect.
6. DISCRIMINATION (1) bias
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(2) equality (3) motivation (4) replenishment Explanation: equality ( Noun) : the fact of being equal in rights, status etc. discrimination (Noun) :the practice of treating somebody or a particular group less fairly than others; partiality; bias.
7. ENDANGERED (1) protected (2) livening up (3) abundant (4) blissful Explanation: protected (Adjective) : make sure that something is not harmed, injured, damaged etc. endangered (Adjective) : putting somebody/something in a situation in which they could be harmed or damaged.
8. MAVERICK (1) dependable (2) conventional (3) redundant (4) old Explanation: maverick (Adjective) : not thinking like everyone ; having independent, unusual opinions; unconventional.
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9. DEPTH (1) deep (2) shallow (3) hollow (4) filled Explanation: shallow (Adjective) : not having much distance between the top and the bottom; superficial. depth (Noun) : the distance from the top or surface to the bottom of something ; strength and power of feelings.
10. DEMOLISH (1) diminish (2) establish (3) debunk (4) deter Explanation: establish (Verb) : to start or create an organisation; set up. demolish (Verb) : to pull or knock down a building ; to destroy something accidentally.
11. TAINT (1) construct (2) clear (3) purify (4) repair
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Explanation: purify (Verb) : to make something pure. taint (Verb) : to damage or spoil the quality of something
12. APPROPRIATE (1) undeserved (2) regardless (3) prempted (4) usurped Explanation: undeserved (Adjective) : that somebody does not deserve and therefore unfair. appropriate (Adjective) : suitable, acceptable or correct for the particular circumstances.
13. CACOPHONY (1) noise (2) discord (3) disharmony (4) harmony Explanation: harmony (Noun) : a state of peaceful existence and agreement ; a pleasant sound. cacophony (Noun) : noise ; a mixture of loud unpleasant sounds.
14. RANCID (1) sweet
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(2) stale (3) fresh (4) sour Explanation: rancid (Adjective) : unpleasant taste ; stale ; not fresh ; sour. If a food containing fat is rancid, it tastes/smells unpleasant because it is no longer fresh.
15. ALWAYS (1) never (2) sometimes (3) anytime (4) seldom Explanation: always (Adverb) : at all time ; on every occasion seldom (Adverb) : not often ; rarely
16. PROVIDE (1) ignore (2) defy (3) deceive (4) deny Explanation: deny (Verb) : to refuse to admit or accept something. provide (Verb) : supply ; to give something to somebody or make it available ; stipulate defy (Verb) : to refuse to obey/show respect for somebody in authority, a law, a rule, etc.
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17. VACILLATE (1) relieve (2) injure (3) decide (4) repel Explanation: vacillate (Verb) : to keep changing your opinion or thoughts about something, waver.
18.OBSEQUIOUS (1) careful (2) domineering (3) opaque (4) clever Explanation: domineering (Adjective) : trying to control other people without considering their opinions or feelings. obsequious (Adjective) : trying too hard to please somebody; servile.
19. ENLARGE (1) condense (2) glorify (3) amplify (4) augment Explanation:
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condense (Verb) : reduce; to put something into fewer words. enlarge (Verb) : to make something bigger; to become bigger; augment.
20. UNSCRUPULOUS (1) dedicated (2) single–minded (3) conscientious (4) superfluous Explanation: conscientious (Adjective) : taking care to do things carefully and correctly. unscrupulous (Adjective) : without moral principles; not honest or fair. dedicated (Adj.) : working hard at something because it is very important to you ; committed
21. TRANQUIL (1) unruffled (2) perpetual (3) temporal (4) disturbed Explanation: disturbed (Adjective) : unhappy and full of shocking experiences. tranquil (Adjective) : quiet and peaceful; serene; unruffled. unruffled (Adj.) : calm perpetual (Adj.) : continuous temporal (Adj.) : connected with/limited by time.
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22. ABRUPT (1) obscure (2) gradual (3) concrete (4) rapid Explanation: Gradual (Adjective) : happening slowly over a long period. abrupt (Adjective) : sudden and unexpected. obscure (Adj.) : not well-known concrete (Adj.) : based on facts, not on ideas/guesses rapid (Adj.) : happening in a short period of time
23. ACCELERATE (1) delay (2) quicken (3) diminish (4) descent Explanation: delay (Verb) : to make/ do late accelerate (Verb) : to happen faster or earlier than expected.
24. AUTONOMY (1) subordination (2) dependence (3) slavery (4) conformity
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Explanation: dependence (Noun) : the state of needing the help and support of somebody/something in order to survive or be successful autonomy (Noun) : freedom; independence ; the ability to act without being controlled by anyone else. Slavery (Noun) : state of being a slave. subordination (Noun) : the act of treating somebody/something as less important than somebody/ something else conformity (Noun) : behaviour/actions that follow the accepted rules of society.
25. IMMACULATE (1) flawless (2) filthy (3) weak (4) strong Explanation: filthy (Adjective) : very dirty and unpleasant. immaculate (Adjective) : flawless; spotless; extremely clean and tidy; perfect.
26. SWELTERING (1) smelly (2) clammy (3) freezing (4) cozy Explanation: freezing (Adj.) : extremely cold sweltering (Adjective) : stifling; very hot and uncomfortable.
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Cozy (Adjective) : warm, comfortable and safe; easy and convenient. clammy (Adj.) : damp in an unpleasant way.
27. TREMULOUS (1) healthy (2) steady (3) obese (4) young Explanation: steady (Adjective) : not shaking or likely to fall down. tremulous (Adjective) : shaking slightly because you are nervous; trembling.
28. FAKE (1) wrong (2) fanciful (3) real (4) ideal Explanation: fake (Adjective) : not genuine, counterfeit.
29. DISCONSOLATE (1) prominent (2) joyous (3) thankful (4) unprejudiced Explanation:
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joyous (Adjective) : a feeling of great happiness; very happy; delighted. disconsolate (Adjective) : very unhappy and disappointed; dejected.
30. URBANE (1) loud (2) native (3) crude (4) rural Explanation: crude (Adjective) : offensive or rude; vulgar. urbane (Adjective) : good at knowing what to say and how to behave in social situations.
31. BOLD (1) timid (2) nervous (3) coy (4) fearful Explanation: timid (Adjective) : brave; shy and nervous. bold (Adjective) : brave and confident; not afraid.
32. AUTHENTIC (1) genuine (2) false (3) factual
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(4) real Explanation: authentic (Adjective) : genuine; known to be real and not a copy.
33. PLACID (1) urgent (2) dull (3) moving (4) stormy Explanation: stormy (Adjective) : full of strong feelings and angry arguments ; strong winds and heavy rain. placid (Adjective) : not easily excited or irritated ; calm and peaceful ; tranquil.
34. VACILLATION (1) steadfastness (2) relief (3) inoculation (4) remorse Explanation: steadfastness (Noun) : firmness ; not changing your attitudes or aims. vacillation (Noun): keep changing your opinion or thoughts ; wavering. relief (Noun) : the feeling that comes when something burden some is removed/ reduced inoculation (Noun) :vaccination ; immunization remorse (Noun) : a feeling of deep regret (usually for some misdeed)
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35. EFFEMINACY (1) aggressiveness (2) attractiveness (3) manliness (4) boorishness Explanation: manliness (Noun) : having the qualities or physical features that are admired or expected in a man. effeminacy (Noun): looking, behaving or sounding like a woman or a girl. boorishness (Noun) : the manner of a rude/ insensitive person.
36. ARROGANT (1) proud (2) selfish (3) modest (4) haughty Explanation: modest (Adjective) : not talking much about your own abilities or possessions. arrogant (Adjective) : behaving in a proud, unpleasant way ; showing little thought for other people.
37. ECCENTRIC (1) normal (2) carefree (3) unusual
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(4) peculiar Explanation: normal (Adjective) : typical, usual or ordinary. eccentric (Adjective): irregular, whimsical; to be strange or unusual ; peculiar.
38. ZENITH (1) nadir (2) shallow (3) low (4) bottom Explanation: nadir (Noun): the worst moment of a particular situation zenith (Noun): the highest point; the time when something is strongest and most successful; peak.
39. AMATEURS (1) actors (2) promoters (3) democrats (4) professionals Explanation: professional (Noun/Adjective) : competent, connected with a skillful job. amateur (Noun) : a person who is not skilled; a person who takes part in activites for enjoyment not as job.
40. DECEIT
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(1) honesty (2) natural (3) sincere (4) plainness Explanation: honesty (Noun) : the quality of being honest/true. questions with her usual honesty. deceit (Noun) : dishonest behaviour, deception.
41. BENEVOLENT (1) malignant (2) malevolent (3) equivalent (4) prevalent Explanation: malevolent (Adjective) : having or showing a desire to harm others, malicious, wicked. benevolent (Adjective) : kind, helpful and generous. malignant (Adj.) : that cannot be controlled and is likely to cause death.
42. ARROGANT (1) favourable (2) illiterate (3) kind (4) humble Explanation:
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humble (Adjective) : modest; showing no self-importance. arrogant (Adjective) : behaving in a proud, unpleasant way.
43. IMPOVERISHED (1) pure (2) affluent (3) important (4) efficient Explanation: affluent (Adjective) : having a lot of money; wealthy; prosperous. impoverished (Adjective) : very poor; without money.
44. AFFIRMED (1) contradicted (2) opposed (3) disputed (4) denied Explanation: deny (Verb) : to say that something is not true. affirm (Verb) : to state publicly that something is true; confirm.
45. HARMONIOUS (1) sonorous (2) discordant (3) concordant (4) balanced
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Explanation: discordant (Adjective) : not in agreement harmonious (Adjective) : friendly; peaceful and without any disagreement.
46. FRAGILE (1) weak (2) brittle (3) strong (4) discard Explanation: fragile (Adjective) : easily broken or damaged; weak and uncertain; easily destroyed or spoilt.
47. SUPERFICIAL (1) genuine (2) natural (3) artificial (4) amicable Explanation: genuine (Adjective): real; exactly what it appears to be. superficial (Adjective) : appearing to be true, real or important; artificial; cursory.
48. NOISILY (1) loudly (2) quietly
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(3) clearly (4) distinctly Explanation: quietly (Adverb) : with very little noise; peacefully. noisily (Adverb): extremely unpleasantly or offensively.
49. ADMIRATION (1) blame (2) contempt (3) disapprove (4) despise Explanation: contempt (Noun) : a feeling that something is without value and deserves no respect at all. admiration (Noun) : a feeling of respect and liking for somebody/ something.
50. BEAUTIFUL (1) bountiful (2) unique (3) bizarre (4) ugly Explanation: ugly (Adjective): unpleasant to look at; unattractive. beautiful (Adjective) : having beauty; very good.
51. Profound
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(1) less (2) special (3) large (4) superficial Explanation: superficial (Adjective) : not studying deeply; not concerned with anything serious; shallow. profound (Adjective) : very great ; showing great knowledge or understanding
52. Minuscule (1) minute (2) menial (3) massive (4) impressive Explanation: massive : very large, heavy and solid. minuscule (Adjective) : extremely small.
53. Wary (1) kind (2) watchful (3) careless (4) free Explanation: wary (Adjective) : watchful; careful when dealing with somebody, cautious.
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54. DEFILE (1) yield (2) repair (3) purify (4) describe Explanation: purify (Verb): to make something pure by removing dirty or harmful things. defile (Verb) : to make something dirty or no longer pure.
55. STERILE (1) fertile (2) infertile (3) dense (4) barren Explanation: sterile (Adjective) : infertile; not able to produce children; not good enough to pruduce crops.
56. DESIST (1) assign (2) continue (3) hope (4) request Explanation: desist (Verb) : to stop doing something ; discontinue.
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57. PRUDENT (1) foolish (2) strange (3) miserly (4) careless Explanation: prudent (Adjective) : sensible and careful ; avoiding unnecessary risks
58. FLAWLESS (1) deficient (2) defective (3) seconds (4) sick Explanation: defective (Adjective): not perfect; having a fault. flawless (Adjective) : without defect or fault ; perfect.
59. OBSCURE (1) distinct (2) vague (3) enigma (4) distinguish Explanation: distinct (Adjective) : easily or clearly seen, heard, felt etc; clear; definite. obscure (Adjective) : difficult to understand ; unknown; not clear.
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60. ENDURING (1) abiding (2) unwavering (3) transient (4) transitory Explanation: transient (Adjective) : continuing for a short time; fleeting; temporary. enduring (Adjective) : lasting for a long time.
61. GRIEVE (1) agony (2) moan (3) rejoice (4) sadness Explanation: rejoice (Verb) : to express great happiness about something. grieve (Verb) : to feel very sad because somebody has died; pain.
62. BIZARRE (1) droll (2) ridiculous (3) ordinary (4) comical Explanation: ordinary (Adjective) : not unusual. bizarre (Adjective): very strange or unusual; weird.
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63. GUILTY (1) dubious (2) honest (3) innocent (4) sorry Explanation: innocent (Adjective) : not guilty of a crime. guilty (Adjective) : having done something illegal; being responsible for something bad.
64. ACCUSATION (1) encouragement (2) complaint (3) felicitation (4) exculpation Explanation: exculpation (Noun): stating officially that somebody is not guilty. accusation (Noun) : to say someone guilty of doing something wrong.
65. APPOINT (1) dismiss (2) reward (3) yield (4) disunite Explanation:
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dismiss (Verb) : to officially remove somebody from job ; fire; sack. appoint (Verb) : to choose somebody for a job or position of responsibility.
66. ASCEND (1) rise (2) descend (3) soar (4) climb Explanation: descend (Verb) : to come or go down from a higher to a lower level. ascend (Verb) : to rise; to go up; to climb up.
67. TRAITOR (1) migrant (2) member (3) patriot (4) officer Explanation: patriot (Noun) : a person who loves their country and is ready to defend against an enemy. traitor (Noun) : a person who gives away secrets about their country; one who betrays; renegade; back-stabber.
68. DETEST (1) injure (2) assist
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(3) adore (4) withhold Explanation: adore (Verb) : to love somebody very much. detest (Verb) : to hate something very much; loathe.
69. REPEL (1) drag (2) coax (3) attract (4) annoy Explanation: attract (Verb) : If you are attracted by something; it interests you; arouse interest. repel (Verb): to push, drive, keep something away.
70. ILLICIT (1) approved (2) noble (3) legal (4) correct Explanation: illicit (Adjective) : not allowed by the law; illegal ; not approved of the normal rules of society.
71. DEMAND
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(1) request (2) supply (3) petition (4) claim Explanation: supply (Noun) : an amount of something that is provided or available to be used. demand (Noun) : a very firm request for something.
72. NOTORIOUS (1) infamous (2) honourable (3) prominent (4) reputed Explanation: reputed (Adjective) : known; generally thought to be something. notorious (Adjective) : well known for being bad ; infamous.
73. DESCENT (1) discern (2) dissent (3) assent (4) ascent Explanation: ascent (Noun) : the act of climbing or moving up ; an upward journey. descent (Noun) : an action of coming or going down.
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74. RESIST (1) remain (2) decline (3) yield (4) adjust Explanation: yield (Verb) : to stop resisting; give way; surrender. resist (Verb) : oppose; to refuse to accept something; to fight back when attacked; to use force.
75. CONCUR (1) agree (2) weak (3) praise (4) disagree Explanation: concur (Verb) : to agree
76. ACCUMULATE (1) disperse (2) dismiss (3) below (4) aware Explanation: disperse (Verb) : to spread; scatter; to move apart.
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accumulate (Verb) : to gradually increase in number; collect; amass; build up.
77. ELEMENTARY (1) involved (2) complex (3) compound (4) hard Explanation: complex (Adjective) : complicated; difficult to understand. elementary (Adjective) : very simple and easy; basic; primary. compound (Adjective) : formed of two or more parts.
78. EXAGGERATE (1) extravagant (2)understate (3) abundance (4)excerpt Explanation: understate (Verb) : to state that something is smaller, less important than it really is. exaggerate (Verb) : to make something seem larger, better, worse or more important than it really is.
79. ABRUPT (1) sudden (2)crisp
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(3) spongy (4)smooth Explanation: smooth (Adjective) : completely flat and even, without any lumps, holes or rough areas. abrupt (Adjective) : sudden and unexpected, often in an unpleasant way; rude
80. FORMAL (1) pitiable (2)informal (3) heedful (4)plain Explanation: formal (Adjective) : very correct and suitable for official or important occasions.
81. THOROUGH (1) cursory (2)detailed (3) intensive (4)utter Explanation: cursory (Adjective) : done quickly and without giving enough attention to details; brief; perfunctory. thorough (Adjective) : done completely; with great attention to detail.
82. NASTY
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(1) ugly (2)pleasant (3) unpleasant (4)beautiful Explanation: Pleasant (Adjective) : enjoyable or attractive. nasty (Adjective) : very bad or unpleasant; unkind; mean.
83. EXAGGERATE (1) extravagant (2) understate (3) abundance (4) excerpt Explanation: understate (V.) : to state that something is smaller, less important than it really is. exaggerate (V.) : to make something seem larger, better, worse or more important than it really is.
84. ABRUPT (1) sudden (2) crisp (3) spongy (4) smooth Explanation: smooth (Adj.) : happening/ continuing without any problems
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abrupt (Adj.) : sudden and unexpected, often in an unpleasant way; rude.
85. FORMAL (1) pitiable (2) informal (3) heedful (4) plain Explanation: formal (Adj.) : very correct and suitable for official or important occasions.
86. THOROUGH (1) cursory (2) detailed (3) intensive (4) utter Explanation: cursory (Adj.) : done quickly and without giving enough attention to details; brief; perfunctory. thorough (Adjective) = done completely and with great attention to detail.
87. NASTY (1) ugly (2) pleasant (3) unpleasant (4) beautiful Explanation:
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pleasant (Adj.) : enjoyable or attractive. nasty (Adj.) : very bad or unpleasant; unkind; mean.
88. FORTIFY (1) undermine (2) intensify (3) strengthen (4) support Explanation: undermine (V.) : to make something gradually weaker or less effective. fortify (V.) : make somebody/ yourself feel stronger ; strengthen.
89. MISANTHROPIST (1) pedant (2) pragmatist (3) zealot (4) philanthropist Explanation: zealot (N.) : a person who is extremely enthusiastic about something (religion/politics) misanthropist (N.) : a person who hates and avoids other people. philanthropist (N.) : a rich person who helps the poor and those in need. pedant (N.) : a person who is too concerned with small details/ rules especially when learning/ teaching pragmatist (N.) : a person who behaves in a practical and sensible way rather than having fixed ideas/theories
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90. ABSTAIN (1) dismiss (2) indulge (3) disgrace (4) repel Explanation: indulge (V.) : to allow yourself to have or do something that you like ; to satisfy a particular desire, interest etc. abstain (V.) : to decide not to do or have something ; stay away.
91. OSTRACIZE (1) crucify (2) shun (3) discard (4) patronize Explanation: patronize (V.) : to treat somebody in a way that seems friendly. ostracize (V.) : to refuse to meet somebody ; shun.
92. UNAPPROACHABLE (1) unclear (2) accessible (3) withdrawn (4) casual Explanation: unapproachable (Adj.): unfriendly and not easy to talk to ; inaccessible.
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93. JINX (1) taunt (2) juncture (3) tour (4) spell Explanation: jinx (N.) : bad luck ; spell ; something that is thought to bring bad luck mysteriously. taunt (N.) : mocking/criticizing juncture (N.) : an event that occurs at a critical time
94. CONTENTIOUS (1) precious (2) controversial (3) benevolent (4) extravagant Explanation: contentious (Adj.): controversial; likely to cause disagreement.
95. CONJECTURE (1) critic (2) gathering (3) strife (4) guess Explanation:
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conjecture (N.) : an opinion or idea that is not based on definite knowledge ; guess. strife (N.) : bitter conflict; lack of agreement/harmony
96. BRAZEN (1) modest (2) melodramatic (3) shameless (4) trashy Explanation: brazen (Adj.) : shameless ; open and without shame.
97. SYNOPSIS (1) discussion (2) preview (3) summary (4) report Explanation: synopsis (N.) : a summary of a piece of writing, a play etc.
98. ERUDITE (1) unimaginative (2) immature (3) ignorant (4) professional Explanation:
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ignorant (Adj.) : lacking knowledge or information about something ; not educated. erudite (Adj.) : having or showing great knowledge ; learned
99. PROFUSE (1) sacred (2) ambiguous (3) meager (4) adverse Explanation: meagre/meager (Adj.) : small in quantity and poor in quality ; paltry profuse (Adj.) : produced in large amounts
100. AGONY (1) conflict (2) sorrow (3) misery (4) ecstasy Explanation: ecstasy (N.) : a feeling or state of very great happiness; bliss agony (N.) : extreme physical or mental pain.
Synonyms - 100 Q
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1. TENET (1) belief (2) provision (3) perspective (4) view Explanation: Tenet: one of the principles on which a belief or theory is based Belief: the feeling of being certain that something exists or is true Provision: the act of providing something Perspective: a particular way of considering something View: an opinion, belief, or idea, or a way of thinking about something
2. PECULIAR (1) special (2) strange (3) ordinary (4) rare Explanation: Peculiar: unusual and strange, sometimes in an unpleasant way Special: in the UK, a person who is not a paid member of the police force but who wears a police uniform and is trained to act as a police officer in certain situations Strange: unusual and unexpected, or difficult to understand Ordinary: not different or special or unexpected in any way; usual Rare: not common or frequent; very unusual
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3. AFFLUENT (1) blossom (2) flourish (3) prosperous (4) thrive Explanation: Affluent: having a lot of money or owning a lot of things Blossom: When a tree or plant blossoms, it produces flowers before producing fruit that can be eaten Flourish: to grow or develop successfully Prosperous: successful, usually by earning a lot of money Thrive: to grow, develop, or be successful
4. PERIL (1) danger (2) roughness (3) insecurity (4) anger Explanation: Peril: great danger, or something that is very dangerous Danger: the possibility of harm or death to someone Roughness: the quality of not being even or smooth, often because of being in bad condition Insecurity: a feeling of lacking confidence and not being sure of your own abilities or of whether people like you Anger: a strong feeling that makes you want to hurt someone or be unpleasant because of something unfair or unkind that has happened
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5. AUGUST (1) common (2) ridiculous (3) dignified (4) petty Explanation: August: having great importance and especially of the highest social class Common: the same in a lot of places or for a lot of people Ridiculous: stupid or unreasonable and deserving to be laughed at Dignified: controlled, serious, and calm, and therefore deserving respect Petty: not important and not worth giving attention to
6. PERSIST (1) resist (2) leave (3) quit (4) insist Explanation: Persist: If an unpleasant feeling or situation persists, it continues to exist Resist: to fight against something or someone that is attacking you Leave: to go away from someone or something, for a short time or permanently Quit: to stop doing something or leave a job or a place Insist: to say firmly or demand forcefully, especially when others disagree with or oppose what you say
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7. EVENTUALLY (1) previously (2) briefly (3) finally (4) successfully Explanation: Eventually: in the end, especially after a long time or a lot of effort, problems, etc Previously: before the present time or the time referred to Briefly: for a short time Finally: after a long time or some difficulty Successfully: in a way that achieves the results wanted or hoped for
8. IMPECCABLE (1) remarkable (2) unbelievable (3) flawless (4) displeasing Explanation: Impeccable: perfect, with no problems or bad parts Remarkable: unusual or special and therefore surprising and worth mentioning Unbelievable: extremely surprising Flawless: perfect or without mistakes Displeasing: to cause someone to be annoyed or unhappy
9. LATENT
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(1) hidden (2) expose (3) obstruct (4) confuse Explanation: Latent: present but needing particular conditions to become active, obvious, or completely developed Hidden: not easy to find Expose: to remove what is covering something so that it can be seen Obstruct: to block a road, passage, entrance, etc. so that nothing can go along it, or to prevent something from happening correctly by putting difficulties in its way Confuse: to mix up someone's mind or ideas, or to make something difficult to understand
10. DWINDLE (1) flourish (2) grow (3) increase (4) decrease Explanation: Dwindle: to become smaller in size or amount, or fewer in number Flourish: to grow or develop successfully Grow: to increase in size or amount, or to become more advanced or developed Increase: to (make something) become larger in amount or size Decrease: to become less, or to make something become less
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11. AMELIORATE (1) appease (2) improve (3) humiliate (4) make excuse Explanation: Ameliorate: to make a bad or unpleasant situation better Appease: to prevent further disagreement in arguments or war by giving to the opposing side an advantage that they have demanded Improve: to (cause something to) get better Humiliate: to make someone feel ashamed or lose respect for himself or herself Make Excuse: to forgive someone
12. OSSIFY (1) make or become like a stone (2) make or become like a bone (3) turn into plasma (4) turn into iron Explanation: Ossify: If habits or ideas ossify, or if something ossifies them, they become fixed and unable to change
13. SPURIOUS (1) fictional (2) true (3) particular
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(4) fake Explanation: Spurious: false and not what it appears to be, or (of reasons and judgments) based on something that has not been correctly understood and therefore false Fictional: imaginary True: (especially of facts or statements) right and not wrong; correct Particular: special, or this and not any other Fake: an object that is made to look real or valuable in order to deceive people
14. BESEECH (1) crave (2) praise (3) bless (4) beg Explanation: Beseech: to ask for something in a way that shows you need it very much Crave: to have a very strong feeling of wanting something Praise: to express admiration or approval of the achievements or characteristics of a person or thing Bless: to ask for God's help and protection for someone or something, or to call or make someone or something holy Beg: to make a very strong and urgent request
15. SNOOZE (1) sleep (2) snore (3) dream
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(4) relax Explanation: Snooze: to sleep lightly for a short time, especially somewhere other than in your bed Sleep: the resting state in which the body is not active and the mind is unconscious Snore: to breathe in a very noisy way while you are sleeping Dream: a series of events or images that happen in your mind when you are sleeping Relax: to (cause someone to) become less active and more calm and happy, or to (cause a part of the body to) become less stiff
16. HUMILIATION (1) elimination (2) dishonour (3) irritation (4) damage Explanation: Humiliation: to make someone feel ashamed or lose respect for himself or herself Elimination: to remove or take away someone or something Dishonour: a feeling of embarrassment and loss of people's respect, or a situation in which you experience this Irritation: the feeling of being angry or annoyed, or something that makes you feel like this Damage: to harm or spoil something
17. EMIT
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(1) discharge (2) appear (3) vomit (4) disappear Explanation: Emit: to send out a beam, noise, smell, or gas Discharge: to allow someone officially to leave somewhere, especially a hospital or a law court Appear: to start to be seen or to be present Vomit: to empty the contents of the stomach through the mouth Disappear: If people or things disappear, they go somewhere where they cannot be seen or found
18. GULLIBILITY (1) shrewdness (2) simplicity (3) avidity (4) gravity Explanation: Gullibility: a tendency to be easily persuaded that something is real or true; credulity. Shrewdness: clear understanding and good judgment of a situation, usually resulting in an advantage Simplicity: the fact that something is easy to understand or do Avidity: the quality of being extremely eager or interested Gravity: the force that attracts objects towards one another, especially the force that makes things fall to the ground
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19. TIRADE (1) trade (2) praise (3) applause (4) rant Explanation: Tirade: a long, angry speech expressing strong disapproval Trade: the activity of buying and selling, or exchanging, goods and/or services between people or countries Praise: to express admiration or approval of the achievements or characteristics of a person or thing Applause: the sound of people clapping their hands repeatedly to show enjoyment or approval of something such as a performance or speech Rant: to speak, write or shout in a loud, uncontrolled, or angry way, often saying confused or silly things
20. PROFICIENT (1) adept (2) pupil (3) reliable (4) prominent Explanation: Proficient: skilled and experienced Adept: having a natural ability to do something that needs skill Pupil: a person, especially a child at school, who is being taught
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Reliable: Someone or something that is reliable can be trusted or believed because he, she, or it works or behaves well in the way you expect Prominent: very well known and important
21. ADMONISH (1) irritate (2) chide (3) displease (4) anno Explanation: Admonish: to tell someone that they have done something wrong Irritate: to make someone angry or annoyed Chide: to speak to someone severely because they have behaved badly Displease: to cause someone to be annoyed or unhappy Anno: a Latin phrase meaning "in the year of the Lord", the full form of the abbreviation AD, which is used when referring to a year after Jesus Christ was born
22. INTERFERENCE (1) honour (2) obstruction (3) fearful (4) deference Explanation: Interference: an occasion when someone tries to interfere in a situation Honour: a quality that combines respect, being proud, and honesty
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Obstruction: something that blocks a road, passage, entrance, etc. so that nothing can go along it, or the act of blocking something in this way Fearful: frightened or worried about something Deference: respect and politeness
23. QUARRY (1) victim (2) quake (3) denounce (4) quest Explanation: Quarry: a large artificial hole in the ground where stone, sand, etc. is dug for use as building material Victim: someone or something that has been hurt, damaged, or killed or has suffered, either because of the actions of someone or something else, or because of illness or chance Quake: to shake because you are very frightened or find something very funny, or to feel or show great fear Denounce: to criticize something or someone strongly and publicly Quest: a long search for something that is difficult to find, or an attempt to achieve something difficult
24. ANNIHILATE (1) solve (2) initiate (3) destroy (4) deduce Explanation:
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Annihilate: to destroy something completely so that nothing is left Solve: to find an answer to a problem Initiate: to cause something to begin Destroy: to damage something so badly that it cannot be used Deduce: to reach an answer or a decision by thinking carefully about the known facts
25. CONJECTURE (1) guess (2) truth (3) knowledge (4) bias Explanation: Conjecture: a guess about something based on how it seems and not on proof Guess: to give an answer to a particular question when you do not have all the facts and so cannot be certain if you are correct Truth: the quality of being true Knowledge: understanding of or information about a subject that you get by experience or study, either known by one person or by people generally Bias: the action of supporting or opposing a particular person or thing in an unfair way, because of allowing personal opinions to influence your judgment
26. VERISIMILITUDE (1) grotesque (2) fantastic (3) festive (4) authenticity
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Explanation: Verisimilitude: the quality of seeming true or of having the appearance of being real Grotesque: strange and unpleasant, especially in a silly or slightly frightening way Fantastic: extremely good Festive: having or producing happy and enjoyable feelings suitable for a festival or other special occasion Authenticity: the quality of being real or true
27. RECAPITULATION (1) introduction (2) capture (3) withdrawal (4) recall Explanation: Recapitulation: This was all worked out prior to the synthesis to provide a musically coherent structure - one with an introduction, development, climax and recapitulation. Introduction: an occasion when something is put into use or brought to a place for the first time Capture: to take someone as a prisoner, or to take something into your possession, especially by force Withdrawal: when you take money out of a bank account Recall: to bring the memory of a past event into your mind, and often to give a description of what you remember
28. COMPLACENT
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(1) satisfied (2) recommend (3) witty (4) confuse Explanation: Complacent: a feeling of calm satisfaction with your own abilities or situation that prevents you from trying harder Satisfied: pleased because you have got what you wanted, or because something has happened in the way that you wanted Recommend: to suggest that someone or something would be good or suitable for a particular job or purpose, or to suggest that a particular action should be done Witty: using words in a clever and funny way Confuse: to mix up someone's mind or ideas, or to make something difficult to understand
29. ENTERPRISING (1) doing a new experiment (2) finding out new ways of doing things (3) taking up a new job (4) a new venture Explanation: Enterprising: good at thinking of and doing new and difficult things, especially things that will make money
30. OPULENT (1) hard-working (2) comfortable
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(3) obscure (4) rich Explanation: Opulent: expensive and luxurious Hard-Working: always doing a lot of work Comfortable: Comfortable furniture and clothes provide a pleasant feeling and do not give you any physical problems Obscure: not known to many people Rich: having a lot of money or valuable possessions
31. VISCERAL (1) cloudy (2) bodily (3) heavenly (4) intelligent Explanation: Visceral: based on deep feeling and emotional reactions rather than on reason or thought Cloudy: with clouds Bodily: relating to the human body Heavenly: of heaven Intelligent: showing intelligence, or able to learn and understand things easily
32. DEVOUT (1) pious (2) solemn
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(3) loyal (4) dedicated Explanation: Devout: believing strongly in a religion and obeying all its rules or principles Pious: strongly believing in religion, and living in a way that shows this belief Solemn: serious and without any humour Loyal: firm and not changing in your friendship with or support for a person or an organization, or in your belief in your principles Dedicated: believing that something is very important and giving a lot of time and energy to it
33. PREDILECTION (1) preference (2) favour (3) whim (4) prejudice Explanation: Predilection: If someone has a predilection for something, they like it a lot Preference: the fact that you like something or someone more than another thing or person Favour: the support or approval of something or someone Whim: a sudden wish or idea, especially one that cannot be reasonably explained Prejudice: an unfair and unreasonable opinion or feeling, especially when formed without enough thought or knowledge
34. EFFIGY
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(1) organ (2) dummy (3) imagery (4) reflection Explanation: Effigy: a model or other object that represents someone, especially one of a hated person that is hanged or burned in a public place Organ: a part of the body of an animal or plant that performs a particular job Dummy: a large model of a human, especially one used to show clothes in a shop Imagery: the use of words or pictures in books, films, paintings, etc. to describe ideas or situations Reflection: the image of something in a mirror or on any reflective surface
35. PLEBISCITE (1) referendum (2) reservation (3) representation (4) renunciation Explanation: Plebiscite: a referendum Referendum: a vote in which all the people in a country or an area are asked to give their opinion about or decide an important political or social question Reservation: an arrangement in which something such as a seat on an aircraft or a table at a restaurant is kept for you Representation: a person or organization that speaks, acts, or is present officially for someone else
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Renunciation: the formal announcement that someone no longer owns, supports, believes in, or has a connection with something
36. FRUGAL (1) plain (2) simple (3) miserly (4) economical Explanation: Frugal: careful when using money or food, or (of a meal) cheap or small in amount Plain: not decorated in any way; with nothing added Simple: easy to understand or do; not difficult Miserly: someone who has a strong wish to have money and hates to spend it Economical: not using a lot of fuel, money, etc
37. DIMINISH (1) prohibit (2) worsen (3) reduce (4) shorten Explanation: Diminish: to reduce or be reduced in size or importance Prohibit: to officially refuse to allow something Worsen: more unpleasant, difficult, or severe than before or than something else that is also bad
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Reduce: to become or to make something become smaller in size, amount, degree, importance, etc. Shorten: to become shorter or to make something shorter
38. PERUSE (1) read (2) argue (3) follow (4) reduce Explanation: Peruse: to read through something, especially in order to find the part you are interested in Read: to look at words or symbols and understand what they mean Argue: to speak angrily to someone, telling that person that you disagree with them Follow: to move behind someone or something and go where he, she, or it goes Reduce: to become or to make something become smaller in size, amount, degree, importance, etc
39. SPUME (1) spit (2) poison (3) lava (4) foams Explanation: Spume: white foam (= bubbles) on the top of waves in water Spit: to force out the contents of the mouth, especially saliva
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Poison: a substance that can make people or animals ill or kill them if they eat or drink it Lava: hot liquid rock that comes out of the earth through a volcano, or the solid rock formed when it cools Foams: a mass of very small bubbles formed on the surface of a liquid
40. BOARD (1) food (2) furniture (3) lodging (4) frame Explanation: Board: a thin, flat piece of cut wood or other hard material, often used for a particular purpose Food: something that people and animals eat, or plants absorb, to keep them alive Furniture: things such as chairs, tables, beds, cupboards, etc. that are put into a house or other building to make it suitable and comfortable for living or working in Lodging: a temporary place to stay Frame: a border that surrounds and supports a picture, door, or window
41. RESURGENCE (1) relocation (2) repletion (3) renewal (4) reluctance Explanation:
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Resurgence: a new increase of activity or interest in a particular subject or idea that had been forgotten for some time Relocation: to (cause a person or company to) move to a new plac Repletion: Repletion is a condition of being completely full of something. Your repletion at the end of a meal probably means you'll skip dessert. Repletion is experienced by people who are full or satisfied by the amount of food they've eaten, but it can also describe other kinds of fullness. Renewal: to increase the life of or replace something old Reluctance: an unwillingness to do something
42. DAMP (1) light (2) clear (3) wet (4) complicated Explanation: Damp: slightly wet, especially in a way that is not pleasant or comfortable Light: the brightness that comes from the sun, fire, etc. and from electrical devices, and that allows things to be seen Clear: easy to understand, hear, read, or see Wet: covered in water or another liquid Complicated: involving a lot of different parts, in a way that is difficult to understand
43. INGENUOUS (1) careless (2) candid (3) creative
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(4) crafty Explanation: Ingenuous: honest, sincere, and trusting, sometimes in a way that seems silly Careless: not taking or showing enough care and attention Candid: honest and telling the truth, especially about something difficult or painful Creative: producing or using original and unusual ideas Crafty: clever, especially in a dishonest or secret way
44. INSANE (1) cowardice (2) foolish (3) mad (4) funny Explanation: Insane: extremely unreasonable or stupid Cowardice: a person who is not brave and is too eager to avoid danger, difficulty, or pain Foolish: unwise, stupid, or not showing good judgment Mad: mentally ill, or unable to behave in a reasonable way Funny: humorous; causing laughter
45. PODIUM (1) arena (2) tripod (3) stand
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(4) dais Explanation: Podium: a raised area on which a person stands to speak to a large number of people, to conduct music, or to receive a prize in a sports competition Arena: a large, flat area surrounded by seats used for sports or entertainment Tripod: a support with three legs for a piece of equipment such as a camera Stand: to be in a vertical state or to put into a vertical state, especially (of a person or animal) by making the legs straight Dais: a raised surface at one end of a meeting room that someone can stand on when speaking to a group
46. CHARISMA (1) character (2) charm (3) fame (5) power Explanation: Charisma: a special power that some people have naturally that makes them able to influence other people and attract their attention and admiration Character: the particular combination of qualities in a person or place that makes them different from others Charm: a quality that makes you like or feel attracted to someone or something Fame: the state of being known or recognized by many people because of your achievements, skills, etc Power: ability to control people and events
47. BUMPTIOUS (1) uncouth
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(2) conceited (3) rude (4) shrewd Explanation: Bumptious: unpleasantly confident Uncouth: behaving in a rude, unpleasant way Conceited: too proud of yourself and your actions and abilities Rude: not polite; offensive or embarrassing Shrewd: having or based on a clear understanding and good judgment of a situation, resulting in an advantage
48. OSTRACIZE (1) evacuate (2) excavate (3) expel (4) extradite Explanation: Ostracize: to avoid someone intentionally, or to prevent someone from taking part in the activities of a group Evacuate: to move people from a dangerous place to somewhere safe Excavate: to remove earth that is covering very old objects buried in the ground in order to discover things about the past Expel: to force someone to leave a school, organization, or country Extradite: to make someone return for trial to another country or state where they have been accused of doing something illegal
49. BANE
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(1) challenge (2) curse (3) danger (4) threat Explanation: Bane: a cause of continuous trouble or unhappiness Challenge: (the situation of being faced with) something that needs great mental or physical effort in order to be done successfully and therefore tests a person's ability Curse: (the situation of being faced with) something that needs great mental or physical effort in order to be done successfully and therefore tests a person's ability Danger: the possibility of harm or death to someone Threat: a suggestion that something unpleasant or violent will happen, especially if a particular action or order is not followed
50. FELICITATED (1) admired (2)adored (3) encouraged (4)congratulated Explanation: Felicitated: to praise someone and say that you approve of or are pleased about a special or unusual achievement Admired: to find someone or something attractive and pleasant to look at Adored: to love someone very much, especially in a way that shows a lot of admiration or respect, or to like something very much Encouraged: having more confidence or hope about something
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Congratulated: to praise someone and say that you approve of or are pleased about a special or unusual achievement
51. HONOUR (1) determination (2)courage (3) respect (4)discipline Explanation: Honour: a quality that combines respect, being proud, and honesty Determination: the ability to continue trying to do something, although it is very difficult Courage: the ability to control your fear in a dangerous or difficult situation Respect: admiration felt or shown for someone or something that you believe has good ideas or qualities Discipline: training that makes people more willing to obey or more able to control themselves, often in the form of rules, and punishments if these are broken, or the behaviour produced by this training
52. RECTIFY (1) clarify (2)condone (3) correct (4)regularise Explanation: Rectify: to correct something or make something right Clarify: to make something clear or easier to understand by giving more details or a simpler explanation
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Condone: to accept or allow behaviour that is wrong Correct: in agreement with the true facts or with what is generally accepted Regularise: to change a situation or system so that it obeys laws or is based on reason
53. ENORMOUS (1) petty (2) warehouse (3) immense (4) trivial Explanation: Enormous: extremely large Petty: not important and not worth giving attention to Warehouse: a large building for storing things before they are sold, used, or sent out to shops, or Immense: extremely large in size or degree Trivial: having little value or importance
54. INEVITABLE (1) significant (2) unavoidable (3) crucial (4) undeniable Explanation: Inevitable: certain to happen and unable to be avoided or prevented Significant: important or noticeable
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Unavoidable: impossible to avoid Crucial: extremely important or necessary Undeniable: certainly true
55. DRIZZLE (1) sprinkle (2) trickle (3) splash (4) downpour Explanation: Drizzle: rain in very small, light drops Sprinkle: to drop a few pieces or drops of something over a surface Trickle: If liquid trickles somewhere, it flows slowly and without force in a thin line Splash: If a liquid splashes or if you splash a liquid, it falls on or hits something or someone Downpour: a lot of rain in a short time
56. ERRONEOUS (1) inaccurate (2) unfair (3) wrong (4) false Explanation: Erroneous: wrong or false Inaccurate: not completely correct or exact, or not able to do something correctly or exactly
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Unfair: not treating people in an equal way, or not morally right Wrong: not correct False: not real, but made to look or seem real
57. VIABLE (1) useless (2) bright (3) capable (4) workable Explanation: Viable: able to work as intended or able to succeed Useless: of no use; not working or not achieving what is needed Bright: full of light, shining Capable: able to do things effectively and skilfully, and to achieve results Workable: A workable plan or system can be used effectively
58. SINUOUS (1) serpentine (2) transparent (3) straight (4) serene Explanation: Sinuous: moving in a twisting, curving, or indirect way, or having many curves Serpentine: curving and twisting like a snake Transparent: If a substance or object is transparent, you can see through it very clearly
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Straight: continuing in one direction without bending or curving Serene: peaceful and calm; worried by nothing
59. DILIGENT (1) industrious (2) energetic (3) intelligent (4) modest Explanation: Diligent: careful and using a lot of effort Industrious: An industrious person works hard Energetic: having or involving a lot of energy Intelligent: showing intelligence, or able to learn and understand things easily Modest: not large in size or amount, or not expensive
60. DESULTORY (1) random (2) frugal (3) forsake (4) diminish Explanation: Desultory: without a clear plan or purpose and showing little effort or interest Random: happening, done, or chosen by chance rather than according to a plan Frugal: careful when using money or food, or (of a meal) cheap or small in amount Forsake: to leave someone for ever, especially when they need you
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Diminish: to reduce or be reduced in size or importance
61. JEALOUS (1) lustful (2) envious (3) proud (4) greedy Explanation: Jealous: upset and angry because someone that you love seems interested in another person Lustful: feeling or connected with strong sexual desire Envious: wishing you had what another person has Proud: feeling pleasure and satisfaction because you or people connected with you have done or got something good Greedy: a very strong wish to continuously get more of something, especially food or money
62. QUEST (1) test (2) trial (3) decision (4) search Explanation: Quest: a long search for something that is difficult to find, or an attempt to achieve something difficult Test: a way of discovering, by questions or practical activities, what someone knows, or what someone or something can do or is like
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Trial: the hearing of statements and showing of objects, etc. in a law court to judge if a person is guilty of a crime or to decide a case or a legal matter Decision: a choice that you make about something after thinking about several possibilities Search: to look somewhere carefully in order to find something
63. REVENUE (1) income (2) return (3) disaster (4) regain Explanation: Revenue: the income that a government or company receives regularly Income: money that is earned from doing work or received from investments Return: to come or go back to a previous place Disaster: (an event that results in) great harm, damage, or death, or serious difficulty Regain: to take or get possession of something again
64. GENUINE (1) Concern (2) Local (3) Authentic (4) Clever Explanation: Genuine: If something is genuine, it is real and exactly what it appears to be Concern: to cause worry to someone
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Local: from, existing in, serving, or responsible for a small area, especially of a country Authentic: If something is authentic, it is real, true, or what people say it is Clever: having or showing the ability to learn and understand things quickly and easily
65. ACCURACY (1) Cleverness (2) Agreement (3) Precision (4) Attachment Explanation: Accuracy: the fact of being exact or correct Cleverness: ability to understand and learn quickly and easily Agreement: the situation in which people have the same opinion, or in which they approve of or accept something Precision: the quality of being exact Attachment: an extra piece of equipment that can be added to a machine
66. CONSORT (1) Protect (2) Partner (3) Convoy (4) Guide Explanation: Consort: to spend a lot of time in the company of a particular group of people, especially people whose character is not approved of
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Protect: to keep someone or something safe from injury, damage, or loss Partner: a person or organization you are closely involved with in some way Convoy: a group of vehicles or ships that travel together, especially for protection Guide: a book that gives you the most important information about a particular subject
67. FEEBLE (1) weak (2) playful (3) pretty (4) small Explanation: Feeble: weak and without energy, strength, or power Weak: not physically strong Playful: funny and not serious Pretty: quite, but not extremely Small: little in size or amount when compared with what is typical or average
68. PAWN (1) sponge (2) scrounge (3) hire (4) pledge Explanation: Pawn: any one of the eight least valuable pieces in the game of chess
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Sponge: a soft substance that is full of small holes and can absorb a lot of liquid, and is used for washing and cleaning Scrounge: to get things, especially money or food, by asking for them instead of buying them or working for them Hire: to pay to use something for a short period Pledge: a serious or formal promise, especially one to give money or to be a friend, or something that you give as a sign that you will keep a promise
69. CHASTISE (1) praise (2) upbraid (3) monitor (4) chase Explanation: Chastise: to criticize someone severely Praise: to express admiration or approval of the achievements or characteristics of a person or thing Upbraid: to forcefully or angrily tell someone they should not have done a particular thing and criticize them for having done it Monitor: a person who has the job of watching or noticing particular things Chase: to hurry after someone or something in order to catch him, her, or it 70. MAESTRO (1) genius (2) admirer (3) employee (4) novice Explanation:
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Maestro: a man who is very skilled at playing or conducting (= directing the performance of) music Genius: very great and rare natural ability or skill, especially in a particular area such as science or art, or a person who has this Admirer: to find someone or something attractive and pleasant to look at Employee: someone who is paid to work for someone else Novice: a person who is not experienced in a job or situation
71. INVINCIBLE (1) vulnerable (2) fallible (3) yielding (4) unassailable Explanation:
72. RESULT (1) data (2) decision (3) outcome (4) cause Explanation:
73. LOUSY (1) awesome (2) awful (3) aura
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(4) awry Explanation:
74. CRUSADE (1) campaign (2) flatten (3) critical (4) angry Explanation:
75. MERGE (1) mixture (2) blend (3) contact (4) meet Explanation:
76. GOURMET (1) fussy (2) praise (3) gastronome (4) constant Explanation:
77. LIMPID (1) clear
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(2) crippled (3) lopsided (4) ruffled Explanation:
78. VOCATION (1) holiday (2) occupation (3) break up (4) virtue Explanation:
79. FILTHY (1) spotless (2) immaculate (3) dirty (4) clean Explanation:
80. MISTAKE (1) precise (2) error (3) accurate (4) mistook Explanation:
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81. ANNOY (1) refuse (2) revoke (3) lazy (4) offend Explanation:
82. ACQUIRE (1) relinquish (2) procure (3) lose (4) renounce Explanation:
83. ADVERSITY (1) seniority (2)spirituality (3) familiarity (4)misery Explanation:
84. REVEL (1) make Merry (2)glory (3) reveal (4)revert
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Explanation:
85. BRUTAL (1) humane (2) savage (3) sympathetic (4) compassionate Explanation:
86. STROLL (1) trat (2)gallop (3) walk (4)jog Explanation:
87. ETERNAL (1) temporary (2)short term (3) time being (4)forever Explanation:
88. ADVERSITY (1) seniority (2) spirituality
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(3) familiarity (4) misery Explanation:
89. REVEL (1) makemerry (2) glory (3) reveal (4) revert Explanation:
90. BRUTAL (1) humane (2) savage (3) sympathetic (4) compassionate Explanation:
91. STROLL (1) trat (2) gallop (3) walk (4) jog Explanation:
92. ETERNAL
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(1) temporary (2) short term (3) time being (4) forever Explanation:
93. SPORADIC (1) occasional (2) whirling (3) epidermic (4) stagnant Explanation:
94. SPECTRUM (1) star (2) telephone (3) range (4) specific Explanation:
95. REGIME (1) clique (2) authority (3) cabal (4) gang Explanation:
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96. STRINGENT (1) evident (2) farfetched (3) strict (4) compulsory Explanation:
97. CONNOTE (1) pay (2) convey (3) conspire (4) print Explanation:
98. ALTRUISTIC (1) hostile (2) outdated (3) selfish (4) philanthropic Explanation:
99. ARCANE (1) ancient (2) new (3) simple
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(4) mysterious Explanation:
100. CONTRITE (1) concise (2) regretful (3) compassionate (4) unapologetic Explanation:
Correct Verb/Tense- 100 Q 1. The swimming pool ---- at 9 o'clock and ---- at 18.30 every day. A) is opening / is closing B) opens / closes C) has opened / has closed D) opened / closed
2. The Olympic Games ---- place every four years. A) have taken B) are taking C) take D) took
3. Look! That man ---- to open the door of your car.
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A) tries B) has been trying C) tried D) is trying
4. Look at the river. It ---- very fast today – much faster than usual. A) flows B) has been flowing C) is flowing D) flowed
5. We usually ---- vegetables in our garden but this year we ---- any. A) are growing / don't grow B) grew / haven't grown C) grow / aren't growing D) grow / don't grow
6. Usually I ---- parties but I ---- this one very much. A) enjoy / am not enjoying B) am enjoying / haven't enjoyed C) enjoy / don't enjoy D) enjoyed / haven't enjoyed
7. It ---- quite often in Britain during the winter. A) is snowing B) snows C) has been snowing D) has snowed
8. Normally I ---- to bed at around 11.30 every night.
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A) am going B) have been going C) go D) have gone
9. There is something wrong with Lynne's car at the moment so she ---- to work by bus this week. A) has been going B) goes C) went D) is going
10. The River Thames ---- through London. A) is flowing B) has been flowing C) flows D) has flowed
11. I tennis every Sunday morning. A) playing B) play C) am playing D) am play
12. Don't make so much noise. Noriko to study for her ESL test! A) try B) tries C) tried D) is trying
13. Jun-Sik his teeth before breakfast every morning.
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A) will cleaned B) is cleaning C) cleans D) clean
14. Sorry, she can't come to the phone. She a bath! A) is having B) having C) have D) has
15. many times every winter in Frankfurt. A) It snows B) It snowed C) It is snowing D) It is snow
16. How many students in your class from Korea? A) comes B) come C) came D) are coming
17. Weather report: "It's seven o'clock in Frankfurt and ." A) there is snow B) it`s snowing C) it snows D) it snowed
18. Babies when they are hungry.
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A) cry B) cries C) cried D) are crying
19. Jane: "What in the evenings?" Mary: "Usually I watch TV or read a book." A) you doing B) you do C) do you do D) are you doing
20. Jane: "What ?" Mary: "I'm trying to fix my calculator." A) you doing B) you do C) do you do D) are you doing
21. Jane her blue jeans today, but usually she wears a skirt or a dress. A) wears B) wearing C) wear D) is wearing
22. I think I a new calculator. This one does not work properly any more. A) needs B) needed C) need D) am needing
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23. Sorry, you can't borrow my pencil. I it myself. A) was using B) using C) use D) am using
24. At a school dance: Jane: " yourself?" Mary: "Yes, I'm having a great time!" A) You enjoying B) Enjoy you C) Do you enjoy D) Are you enjoying
25. I've just finished reading a story called Dangerous Game. It's about a man who his wife because he doesn't want to lose her. A) kills B) killed C) kill D) is killing
26. What time ? A) the train leaves? B) leaves the train? C) is the train leaving? D) does the train leave?
27. Jane: "Are you going to the dance on Friday?"
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Mary: "No, I'm not. I school dances; they're loud, hot and crowded!" A) not enjoy B) don`t enjoy C) doesn`t enjoy D) am not enjoying
28. I for my pen. Have you seen it? A) will look B) looking C) look D) am looking
29. You can keep my iPod if you like. I it any more. A) don`t use B) doesn`t use C) didn`t use D) am not using
30. The phone . Can you answer it, please? A) rings B) ring C) rang D) is ringing
31. It was found that some students ______not attending their classes. A) were B) was C) do D) is
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32. He ______around filthy room in distaste. A) looked B) looking C) am looks D) is looks
33. We ______to new house, because old house was small enough for our family. A) shifted B) shifts C) are shifted D) is shifted
34. It is necessary for government to ______their people's life better. A) makes B) make C) making D) be made
35. I daily wait for his call, but he ______not call. A) do B) does C) done D) is
36. My father ______newspaper after getting up. A) read B) is read C) am read D) reads
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37. One must consider about any matter before ______it. A) deciding B) decides C) decide D) decided
38. Wait for us at home until I ______from office. A) returned B) am return C) returns D) return
39. They ______asked to give opinion in their own words. A) may be B) could be C) might D) have being
40. Do you know, I ______asked by them to be honest? A) am B) is C) were D) are
41. There ______lots of hidden feelings and emotions behind every faces. A) was B) have being C) are D) were be
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42. Why ______you break your promise? A) did B) does C) done D) is
43. Each country is responsible to keep ______for peace in region. A) work B) works C) worked D) working
44. Twelve terrorists ______in air strike. A) kill B) kills C) is killed D) killed
45. She ______for effective follow up of agenda. A) called B) call C) will called D) be call
46. I ______repairing defective car. A) were B) is C) am D) will
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47. Every person ______its own responsibilities and worries. A) has B) be C) been D) being
48. He is greatest player, ______highly proud by his nation. A) feel B) feeling C) is feels D) feels
59. She ______working very hard before examination. A) has been B) has be C) has being D) has to
50. Prime Minister ______meeting to discuss matters of country. A) call B) is calls C) called D) am called
51. She ______care about such odd behavior. A) do not B) does not C) is not D) are not
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52. An ordinance ______promulgated to regulate all private institutions. A) is been B) had been C) have being D) are been
53. By and large, honest and hard working people ______liked by everyone. A) are B) is C) am D) was
54. ______you passed examination? A) Is B) was C) Had D) Been
55. I ______work hard, however hard it may be. A) am B) does C) are D) will
56. For his novelty, gift ordered to me ______very lovely. A) were B) am C) was D) are
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57. I want in a hot country A) live B) to live C) living D) lived
58. We like to Italy for our holidays. A) go B) to go C) goes D) going
59. She go home early tonight. A) can B) wants C) likes D) thinks
60. Gerry would like a pilot when he grows up. A) be B) being C) to be D) do
61. We look forward from you soon. A) hear B) hearing C) to hear D) to hearing
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62. I was thinking you when I got your e-mail. A) of phoning B) phone C) to phone D) phoning
63. I don't enjoy very much. A) to dance B) dancing C) to dancing D) dance
64. My parents would to meet you. A) to love B) loving C) love D) to loving
65. We are hoping skiing next weekend. A. to go B. go C. to going D. going
66. When I grow up, I'm going an astronaut. A. be B. being C. to being D. to be
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67. I will home a bit late tonight. A. get B. to get C. getting D. to getting
68. We decided early A. leave B. to leave C. leaving D. to leaving
69. I hate to people talk about things they know nothing about. A. to listening B. listen C. to listen D. listening
70. They promised better next time. A. to do B. to doing C. do D. doing
71. Caroline told her guests half an hour early. A. arrive B. to arrive C. arriving D. to arriving
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72. If you can't sleep, it sometimes helps sheep in your head. A. to count B. counting C. to counting D. count
73. I Jenny when I was going to the supermarket. A. saw B. was seeing C. see D. were seing
74. What you doing at ten o'clock last night ? A. was B. were C. are D. did
75. Why me last night ? A. weren't you calling B. you called C. didn't you call D. don't you call
76. The sun and the sky was blue. A. was shining B. were shining C. shone D. shines
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77. When I up, it was a lovely day. A. wake B. woke C. was waking D. were waking
78. He very fast when the police stopped him. A. drove B. drives C. is driving D. was driving
79. A funny thing while I was going to work yesterday. A. happens B. happened C. was happening D. were happening
80. We hard for the exam but we still found it difficult. A. studied B. were studying C. was studying D. study
81. When she born? A. were B. is C. was D. did
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82. did you leave so early ? I a good time. A. didn't have B. hadn't C. weren't having D. wasn't having
83. Why are you so hungry? I got up late and time for breakfast. A. hadn't B. didn't have C. don't have D. wasn't having
84. How long this been going on? A. has B. have C. does D. do
85. you ever been to Ireland? A. Did B. Have C. Were D. Had
86. Jane to work yesterday. A. doesn't go B. hasn't gone C. didn't go D. wasn't
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87. I breakfast when she arrived. A. had B. was having C. am having D. had had
88. We here since 1998. A. 've been living B. 're living C. lived D. live
89. I thinking about what you said and I don't agree. A. am B. was C. were D. 've been
90. I for a newer flat and I think I've found one. A. am looking B. look C. looked D. 've been looking
91. What at me like that for? A. do you look B. look C. are you looking D. were you looking
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92. What about this question? What's your opinion? A. are you thinking B. have you thought C. do you think D. have you been thinking
93. What for breakfast yesterday? A. had you B. do you have C. have you had D. did you have
94. Where last night? A. have you gone B. do you go C. did you go D. have you been going
95. I'm hungry; I anything yet today. A. don't eat B. didn't eat C. haven't eaten D. haven't been eating
96. We aren't tired. We to go to bed yet. A. aren't wanting B. don't want C. didn't want D. haven't want
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97. She the piano very well. A. playing B. play C. will play D. plays
98. He’s not happy because his brother his computer. A. has used B. doesn't use C. will use D. using
99. For dinner last night we fish and chips. A. will have B. had C. are having D. have had 100. My sister hamburgers: she thinks they’re bad for her. A. eats B. is eating C. doesn't eat D. will eat
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Parts-of-speech - 50 Questions 1. He will visit his grandparents for two weeks this summer. a. adverb b. conjunction c. noun d. pronoun
2. Silently read your book. a. adjective b. adverb c. preposition d. verb
3. Hey! Put that down! a. adjective b. adverb c. interjection d. noun
4. Liam brought his notebook to class. a. adverb b. conjunction c. noun d. pronoun
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5. Your test scores were almost perfect. a. adjective b. adverb c. noun d. pronoun
6. Please join us for the birthday party this afternoon. a. conjunction b. interjection c. pronoun d. verb
7. French onion soup is on the lunch menu. a. adjective b. adverb c. conjunction d. noun
8. The coach jumped for joy. a. adjective b. conjunction c. preposition d. verb
9. Classes will resume in the fall. a. noun
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b. preposition c. pronoun d. verb
10. I understand the directions. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
11. Fathers and sons enjoy taking long fishing trips to the lake. a. adverb b. conjunction c. noun d. preposition
12. The postman will deliver it to your house. a. conjunction b. interjection c. pronoun d. verb
13. She wore a beautiful dress to the party. a. adjective b. adverb c. interjection
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d. noun
14. Wow! That was scary. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
15. The music concert was loud and entertaining. a. adjective b. adverb c. noun d. pronoun
16. Place the books against the wall. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
17. I will not be able to attend the game for I have not completed my homework. a. adjective b. adverb c. conjunction d. noun
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18. Visiting Italy was an exciting trip for my family. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
19. Would you like chocolate or vanilla? a. conjunction b. noun c. pronoun d. preposition
20. Nathan is finishing his chores early so he can enjoy the rest of the day. a. conjunction b. interjection c. pronoun d. verb
21. Honesty is a desirable characteristic trait. a. conjunction b. adverb c. pronoun d. preposition
22. Samantha forgot to bring her homework to school.
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a. adjective b. interjection c. noun d. pronoun
23. The storm uprooted the eight-foot tree. a. adjective b. conjunction c. preposition d. pronoun
24. Many students are excited about the class trip. a. noun b. preposition c. pronoun d. verb
25. Sophia sang the solo perfectly. a. adverb b. conjunction c. noun d. pronoun
26. I must clean my room before going to the park. a. noun b. preposition
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c. pronoun d. verb
27. Refreshing water is always a treat on a hot day. a. interjection b. noun c. adjective d. verb
28. Everyone was happy to see the young man return home safely. a. conjunction b. noun c. pronoun d. preposition
29. The stars are shining bright tonight. a. adjective b. adverb c. conjunction d. noun
30. Ouch! You are hurting me. a. conjunction b. interjection c. pronoun d. verb
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31. Athletes must exercise regularly to stay in shape. a. adjective b. conjunction c. preposition d. noun
32. Carelessness caused the boy to fall down the stairs. a. adjective b. adverb c. conjunction d. noun
33. I enjoyed watching your performance tonight on stage. a. noun b. preposition c. pronoun d. verb
34. Our group of students arrived ahead of time. a. adjective b. adverb c. conjunction d. noun
35. The winning team will receive a blue ribbon.
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a. adjective b. interjection c. noun d. verb
36. Jason is an intelligent student. a. adjective b. conjunction c. noun d. pronoun
37. Neighborhood children are gathering outside to play. a. adjective b. adverb c. interjection d. preposition
38. Whose book is this? a. adjective b. adverb c. noun d. pronoun
39. I can see my reflection in my new car. a. adjective b. adverb
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c. noun d. pronoun
40. The yellow ducklings follow their mother very closely. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. adjective
41. My doctor speaks in a calm voice. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
42. We will celebrate your promotion tomorrow. a. adverb b. noun c. pronoun d. preposition
43. The teacher is patient with all of her students. a. interjection b. noun c. pronoun d. verb
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44. I can see beyond the horizon. a. adverb b. noun c. preposition d. verb
45. Last night's audience seemed excited to see the performance. a. interjection b. noun c. preposition d. verb
46. My symptoms include fever and weakness. a. adjective b. adverb c. interjection d. noun
47.I gently put the baby down for a nap. a. adjective b. adverb c. interjection d. noun
48. Oh, I didn't realize that it would be so dark in the forest.
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a. adjective b. interjection c. preposition d. verb
49. The plane flew over the rain clouds. a. conjunction b. noun c. pronoun d. preposition
50. You may purchase tickets at the door but there will be an extra charge. a. interjection b. conjunction c. preposition d. verb
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Preposition-50 Questions 1. My cousin has invested a lot of money ------farming. A. in B. for C. on D. into
2. A good judge never gropes ------the conclusion. A. on B. to C. for D. with
3. The mother was anxious ------the safety of her son. A. upon B. about C. for D. at
4. After having tea, he settled himself ------his arm chair. A. into B. over C. to D. on
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5. The reward was not commensurate ------the work done by us. A. on B. for C. with D. order
6. Ramesh’s mind was attuned ------music. A. to B. on C. at D. with
7. The Shopkeeper deals ------grain, but did not deal honestly ------me. A. in; with B. with; to C. with; by D. in; by
8. The soldiers rebelled ------the king. A. against B. on C. at D. with
9. Ram is confident ------his success.
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A. for B. about C. towards D. of
10. A good judge never jumps ------the conclusion. A. for B. to C. at D. on
11. She was a devoted wife and looked ------her husband. A. to B. at C. after D. upon
12. I have a distate ------publicity. A. about B. at C. against D. for
13. A steady mind triumphs ------difficulties. A. in B. over
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C. with D. at
14. Very often we do not get what we fine ------A. for B. about C. at D. on
15. It is very dangerous to intrude ______the enemy's camp A. in B. into C. on D. through
16. Terrorists live ______the gun all their life. A. with B. for C. by D. on
17. My uncle was afflicted ______a serious illness and was almost confined ______bed ______more than two months. A. by, on, for B. by, on, since C. with, to, for
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D. to, to, since
18. Finding himself short ______money, he wrote ______his uncle ______help. A. of, to, for B. in, to, to C. with, to, for D. to, to, about
19. Shyam looked ______the old kite maker ______the same indifference as he showed ______the show maker. A. to, with, for B. on, in, to C. at, in, to D. at, with, to
20. It is not difficult to sympathise ______an unfortunate man. A. with B. for C. by D. at
21. He had to repent ______what he had done. A. at B. of C. over
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D. for
22. You are supposed to take this medicine and you will ged rid ______the bad cold. A. from B. over C. at D. of
23. The candidates were tense ______expectancy. A. with B. in C. on D. from
24. I have invested a lot of money ______farming. A. on B. for C. in D. into
25. Give an example pertinent ______the case. A. with B. on C. for D. to
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26. It is a long time ______he saw his friend who lives ______his parents ______the neighbouring town. A. when, at, of B. since, with, in C. when, for, in D. since, for, of
27. I was advised to abstain ______all alcoholic drinks. A. in B. at C. from D. by
28. The father was anxious ______the safety of his daughter. A. at B. about C. for D. with
29. He was killed ______a highway man ______a dagger. A. by, for B. by, with C. in, for D. with, for
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30. Under this heavy load the bridge will give ------A. in B. out C. way D. away
31. The person refused to grovel ______the feet of his master. A. on B. about C. at D. by
32. The insects are a great nuisance ------us. A. for B. with C. at D. upon
33. The man robbed me ------my possessions. A. of B. from C. with D. on
34. Let this be an example ------the troublemakers. A. to
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B. about C. against D. for
35. Nobody in our group has a genius ------winning friends and in convincing people. A. in B. for C. of D. at
36. Religious leaders should not delve ------politics. A. with B. into C. in D. at
37. He had to repent ------what he had done. A. of B. over C. for D. at
38. I do not agree ------you on this point. A. to B. in
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C. at D. with
39. President Saddam Hussain has lived ------the gun all his life. A. for B. on C. by D. through
40. The Indian magpie indulges ------a long flight. A. at B. in C. on D. over
41. The candidates were tense ------expectancy. A. with B. in C. from D. on
42. He was vexed ------Sohan for his behavior. A. at B. to C. upon D. with
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43. I brought him ------with great difficulty. A. up B. about C. round D. in
44. Give example pertinent ------the case. A. on B. to C. for D. with
45. There is no exception ------this rule. A. for B. to C. at D. about
46. Take this medicine and you will get rid ------the bad cold A. of B. over C. at D. from
47. I am angry with him ------his carelessness.
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A. on B. to C. for D. at
48. It is dangerous to enter ------the enemy’s camp. A. in B. on C. by D. into
49. It is dangerous to enter ------the enemy’s camp. A. in B. on C. by D. into
50. Arun is married to ------Bobby. A. to B. between C. with D. to
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Determiners- 40 Questions 1. Lisa saw _____ shooting star yesterday. a) a b) an c) the d) some
2. Don't look directly at _____ sun. a) a b) an c) the d) any
3. Is there any milk left in _____ fridge? a) a b) an c) the d) some
4. I need to pack _____ apple for my lunch. a) a b) an c) the d) few
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5. The dogs were _____ given a bone. a) each b) any c) every d) the
6. The police spoke separately to _____ suspect. a) every b) each c) some d) more
7. She was wearing a bracelet on ______wrist. a) Each b) some c) any d) every
8. She got her license without _____ problems. a) Some b) more c) any d) every
9. He went with ______younger sisters. a) his both b) both his c) the d) two his
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10. I always keep _____ money in my wallet for emergencies. a) any b) every c) some d) more
11. If you have ______questions, I am ready to answer. a) Many b) Few c) Any d) Some
12. Can you pass me ______book please? a) A b) The c) Some d) An
13. He gave chocolate to ______child. a) All b) Each c) Some d) Few
14. There are not ______students in the classroom. a) Few b) Much c) Many d) Any
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15. I always keep ______money in my purse. a) Few b) Some c) Much d) Many
16. Is there any milk left in ______fridge? a) An b) The c) A d) None
17. There is ______water left, so use carefully. a) Few b) Some c) Much d) Little
18. You can buy these magazines at ______station. They all have them. a) Any b) Some c) Many d) One
19. The dogs were ______given a biscuit. a) All b) Each c) Every d) Much
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20. He got his passport without ______problem. a) Any b) Few c) Little d) Some
21. Very people fly just because of terrorist activities. a) little b) much c) many d) few
22. Johnny is a keen player but unfortunately he has skills. a) few b) none c) some d) little
23. If we don't move faster, we'll miss our transfer to Munich. There isn't time to waste. a) little b) any c) many d) few
24. Unfortunately, I haven't got time for watching TV. a) few b) no c) much d) little
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25. You can buy these maps at station. They all have them. a) a lot of b) several c) some d) any
26. If you have questions, I'm ready to answer. a) little b) any c) much d) plenty
27. I didn't have trouble getting the passports. I only had a problem with my photo because it was an old one. a) much b) any c) no d) several
28. There is water left, so drink only if you must. a) some b) little c) few d) much
29. There isn't point at all in getting upset about it. a) few b) several c) any d) many
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30. coat will do. It doesn't need to be a raincoat. a) Little b) No c) Any d) Few
31. apple a day keeps the doctor away. a) An b) The c) A d) Some
32. Mount Everest is in Himalaya. a) a b) the c) an d) few
33. President of the United States was elected last year. a) the b) a c) some d) few
34. She did MA in French literature. a) an b) a c) the d) some
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35. It's ...... most expensive hotel in town a) some b) a few c) a d) the
36. I don't have ______money left. a) Any b) Some c) Few d) The
37. How ______sugar do you want in your tea? a) More b) Much c) Some d) Few
38. It was raining heavily in the morning, so ______students reached school in time. a) Few b) A few c) The few d) Some
39. CNG buses cause ______pollution than diesel buses do. a) More b) Most c) Much d) Many
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40. ______bat and owl are nocturnal, therefore, rarely seen during the day. e) The f) An g) Much h) Many
41. There are ______places where one can avoid noise pollution. i) More j) Most k) Much l) Many
42. ______persons can keep a secret. e) Few f) A few g) The few h) Some
43. Have you got ______prize so far? a) Some b) Few c) Less d) Any
44. I have called him ______times. a) Some b) Several c) Such d) Much
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45. He is a man of ______words. i) Few j) A few k) The few l) Some
46. Are there ______mango trees in the garden? e) Some f) Few g) Less h) Any
47. He has lost ______his wealth. a) Some b) Few c) All d) Any
48. I pay ______rent for my flat than my friend does. m) More n) Most o) Much p) Many
49. Do you have ______good news for me. a) A b) An c) The d) Few
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50. Do you have ______information about the lost child a) Any b) More c) Some d) Little
51. Here is ______water in the jug for every one a) A few b) Enough c) Some d) Little
52. I shall be going to Bombay for ______days a) Much b) Some c) Little d) Mare
52. How ______sugar did you buy? a) Many b) Much c) More d) The
54. He takes milk ______day. a) Each b) Every c) Some d) Few
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55. The cake was very tasty. ______of the girls ate two pieces each. a) Some b) Most c) More d) Any
56. We enjoyed our holiday. ______hotel was very nice. a) A b) An c) The d) This
57. Jane is ______interesting person. You must meet him. a) A b) An c) The d) Most
58. You look very tired. You need ______holiday. a) Some b) Any c) A d) Few
59. Paris is ______capital of France. a) The b) A c) An d) Some
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60. Can I ask ______question? a) Any b) A c) The d) Few
Narration - 30 Questions 1. Deepak said to me, "I had finished the coffee." a) Deepak told me that he had finished the coffee. b) Deepak told me that he had been finished the coffee. c) Deepak told me that he had finish the coffee. d) Deepak told me that he finished the coffee.
2. Rahul said to me, " I had gone through it." a) Rahul told me that he have went through it. b) Rahul told me that he have gone through it. c) Rahul told me that he had went through it. d) Rahul told me that he had gone through it.
3. Reema said to Jitender, "You would not fight with me." a) Reema told to Jitender that he has not to fight with her.
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b) Reema told to Jitender that he would not fight with her. c) Reema told to Jitender that he will not fight with her. d) Reema told to Jitender that he should not fight with her.
4. My father said to me, "It might rain yesterday". a) My father told me that it may have rain the previous day. b) My father told me that it would rain the previous day. c) My father told me that it might rain the previous day. d) My father told me that it could rain the previous day.
5. Sahil said to Deepu, "I was going to buy milk". a) Sahil told Deepu that he were going to buy milk. b) Sahil told Deepu that he would going to buy milk. c) Sahil told Deepu that he had been going to buy milk. d) Sahil told Deepu that he was going to buy milk.
6. She said, "You were missing from the picnic". a) She told me that I had been missing from the picnic. b) She told me that I has been missing from the picnic. c) She told me that I were missing from the picnic. d) She told me that I had been missed from the picnic.
7. Reeta said Shivani, "You have to go to school". a) Reeta told Shivani that she would have to go to school. b) Reeta told Shivani that she has to go to school. c) Reeta told Shivani that she have to go to school.
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d) Reeta told Shivani that she had to go to school.
8. He said to me, "I shall write an essay". a) He said to me that he will be writing an essay. b) He told me that he would write an essay. c) He said to me that he will write an essay. d) He told me that he would write an essay.
9. He said to me, "I shall be writing an essay". a) He told me that he would have been writing an essay. b) He told me that he would be writing an essay. c) He told me that he will be writing an essay. d) He told me that he shall be writing an essay.
10. Sita said to Geeta, "You can learn piano". a) Sita told Geeta that she can be learn piano. b) Sita told Geeta that you can learn piano. c) Sita told Geeta that she could learn piano. d) Sita told Geeta that she can learn piano.
11. He said to you, "You may go out". a) He told you that you might be go out. b) He said you that you might be go out. c) He told you that you may go out. d) He told you that you might go out.
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12. Ram said to Rahul, "You are a good player of cricket". a) Ram told Rahul that he was a good player of cricket. b) Ram told Rahul that he were a good player of cricket. c) Ram told Rahul that he would a good player of cricket. d) Ram told Rahul that he could be a good player of cricket.
13. Shahekant said to me, "I have no time for you". a) Shahekant said that he had no time for me. b) Shahekant told me that he had no time for me. c) Shahekant told me that he has no time for me. d) Shahekant told me that he was having no time for me.
14. You said to her, "She has to cook food for you". a) You told her that she has to cook food for you. b) You told her that she had to cook food for you. c) You told her that she needs to cook food for you. d) You told her that she would have to cook food for you.
15. He said to me, " I had to finish this first." a) He told me that he has to finish this first. b) He told me that he have to finish this first. c) He told me that he had had to finish this first. d) He told me that he had to finish this first.
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16. Rahul said to Shusheela, "I had to reach there". a) Rahul told Susheela that he has to reach there. b) Rahul told Susheela that he would have to reach there. c) Rahul told Susheela that he had to reach there. d) Rahul told Susheela that he had had to reach there.
17. She said to me, "I could reach there easily". a) She told me that she could reach there easily. b) She told me that she could have reach there easily. c) She told me that she had reach there easily. d) She told me that she had been reach there easily.
18. He said, "I went to Rajesthan yesterday." a) He told that he had gone to Rajesthan the day before. b) He told that he has gone to Rajesthan the day before. c) He told that he has went to Rajesthan the day before. d) He told that he had went to Rajesthan the day before.
19. Raju said to me, "He worked hard". a) Raju told me that he had worked hard. b) Raju told me that he has worked hard. c) Raju told me that he had been worked hard. d) Raju told me that he has been worked hard.
20. Rahul said, " He was walking."
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a) Rahul said that he had been walking. b) Rahul said that he was walking. c) Rahul said that he had walking. d) Rahul said that he had walked.
21. Sheela said to me, "Munni is dancing better than me." a) Sheela told me that Munni have been dancing better than her. b) Sheela told me that Munni was dancing better than her. c) Sheela told me that Munni had been dancing better than her. d) Sheela told me that Munni had dancing better than her.
22. She said, "He was trying to help me". a) She said that he tried to help her. b) She said that he had been trying to help her. c) She said that he has been trying to help her. d) She said that he was trying to help her.
23. Baljider said to me, "I had been working on it for 5 days." a) Baljinder told me that he had been working on it for 5 days. b) Baljinder told me that he has been working on it for 5 days. c) Baljinder told me that he had worked on it for 5 days. d) Baljinder told me that he was working on it for 5 days.
24. Sweety said to me, "I had been writing an essay for 3 hours." a) Sweety told me that she has been writing an essay for 3 hours. b) Sweety told me that she had been writing an essay for 3 hours.
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c) Sweety told me that she was writing an essay for 3 hours. d) Sweety told me that she had written an essay for 3 hours.
25. Rahul said, "I can buy that watch." a) Rahul said that he can buy that watch. b) Rahul said that he could buy that watch. c) Rahul said that he was able to buy that watch. d) Rahul said that he can be buy that watch.
26. He said, "Honesty is the best policy." a) He said that Honesty is the best policy. b) He said that Honesty was the best policy. c) He said that Honesty would be the best policy. d) He said that Honesty will be the best policy.
27. He remarked, "Two and two makes four." a) He remarked that two and two would make four. b) He remarked that two and two made four. c) He remarked that two and two makes four. d) He advised that two and two makes four.
28. He said to me, "I am ready". a) He told to me that he is ready. b) He told me that he was ready. c) He told me that I am ready. d) He told me that I will ready.
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29. Sonia said, "You help my sister". a) Sonia said that I helps her sister. b) Sonia said to me that I helped her sister. c) Sonia said that I helped her sister. d) Sonia says that I helped her sister.
30. They said, "We can not live without oxygen". a) They said that we can not live without oxygen. b) They said that they can not live without oxygen. c) They said that they would not live without oxygen. d) They says that they can not live without oxygen.
Wh. Questions- 30 Questions 1. _____ doesn't understand what the teacher has explained? A. What B. Whose C. Which D. Who
2. _____ is the height of Everest? A. Whom B. Whose C. What D. Which
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3. _____ children are they? – The Browns’. A. Whose B. Who C. Whom D. Which
4. _____ does she do for a living? A. What B. Whom C. Who D. Which
5. _____ are you learning now? A. Who B. Which C. What D. Whose
6. _____ size shoes do you take? A. Whom B. Whose C. What D. Which
7. _____ coffee is this? – It’s mine. A. Whose B. Who C. What D. Which
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8. _____ are you doing? – I’m reading a book. A. What B. Who C. Whom D. Whose
9. _____’s the weather like today? A. Whose B. Which C. Who D. What
10. In _____ street does she live? A. who B. which C. whose D. what
11. ______book did you buy? A. Whose B. Who C. What D. Whom
12. _____ time are they going to come? A. What B. Which C. Whose D. Whom
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13. With ______did you go to the seaside? A. what B. which C. whom D. who
14. To _____ did you hand in this money? A. which B. whose C. whom D. who
15. ______’s this called in English? A. Which B. Whom C. Who D. What
16. ______car is this, and what make is it? A. Whose B. What C. Who D. Which
17._____ make is your car? A. Which B. What C. Who D. Whose
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18. _____ of these problems are you most interested in? A. Who B. What C. Which D. Whom
19. _____ is responsible for the accident? A. Who B. Whose C. Whom D. Which
20. _____ is the longest river in the world: the Amazon or the Nile? A. What B. Whom C. Who D. Which
21. ______did you ask to tea? A. Whose B. Which C. Who D. What
22. ______do you prefer: ''U2'' or "AC/DC"? A. Whose B. Who C. Which D. What
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23. _____ colour is your new tie? A. Who B. Whose C. What D. Which
24. _____ do you know about this subject, and who taught it to you? A. Which B. What C. Whom D. Who
25. _____ nationality are you? A. What B. Which C. Whom D. Whose 26. __ is that man over there? A. What B. Where C. Who D. When
27. __ are you studying English? A. What B. Where C. Which D. When
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28. __ does your train leave? A. What B. When C. Why D. Where
29. __ do you make an English breakfast? A. How B. Which C. Who D. Why
30. __ do you go swimming? A. How long B. How many C. How often D. How much
Noun- 30 Questions 1. Why do you tell a lie? (Which word is an abstract noun?) a) tell b) lie c) you d) why
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2. We get wool from sheep. (Which word is a material noun?) a) sheep b) wool c) get d) from
3. I believe in his honesty. (Which word is an abstract noun?) a) in b) believe c) honesty d) I
4. Kiran performance was not impressive in test. (Which word is a proper noun?) a) test b) impressive c) Kiran d) performance
5. A dog barks at night. (Which word is a masculine noun?) a) A b) dog c) barks d) at
6. How many students in your class? (Which word is a countable noun?) a) many b) students c) class d) your
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7. My chair is made of wood. (Which word is a material noun?) a) wood b) made of c) chair d) my
8. Rice is my favorite dish. (Which word is an uncountable noun?) a) my b) dish c) favorite d) rice
9. We need peace in our state. (Which word is an abstract noun?) a) state b) peace c) need d) our
10. What a great idea! He cried. (Which word is a countable noun?) a) great b) what c) cried d) idea
11. Can you give me some advice? (Which word is an uncountable noun?) a) some b) give c) you d) advice
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12. broke window pane. (Which word is a plural noun?) a) broke b) window pane c) children d) the
13. Where was Sara? Did you see her? (Which word is a proper noun?) a) Was b) where c) Sara d) see
14. My mother is a wise lady. (Which word is an abstract noun?) a) lady b) my c) wise d) mother
15. Do not hide fact. (Which word is word a countable noun?) a) hide b) the c) fact d) do not
16. Heroes never lay down their words. (Which word is a plural noun?) a) never b) heroes c) lay down d) words.
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17. Moon shines at night. (which word is a proper noun?) a) Moon b) night c) Shines d) At
18. You can settle everything in a friendly manner. (Which word is concrete noun) a) settle b) can c) friendly manner d) you
19. Taj Mahal is a sign of love. (Which word is a proper noun?) a) Taj Mahal b) sing c) love d) is
20. Beauty does not need any ornaments. (Which word is an uncountable noun?) a) need b) beauty c) any d) ornaments
21. Does wood sink in water? (Which word is a material noun?) a) sink b) does c) water d) wood
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22. My mother wears gold jewelry. (which word is a material noun?) a) Wears b) jewelry c) mother d) gold
23. Crowd was on main street. (Which word is a collective noun?) a) crowd b) main c) on d) street
24. They gazed across valley. (Which word is a common noun?) a) across b) gazed c) they d) valley
25. Honesty is best policy. (Which word is an abstract noun?) a) best b) Honesty c) policy d) the
26. He was reading a newspaper. (Which word is a common noun?) a) newspaper b) was c) a d) he
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27. My family supports me. (Which word is a collective noun?) a) family b) me c) supports d) my
28. A keeper throws ball. (Which word is a subject noun?) a) ball b) throws c) keeper d) the
29. He is hero of country. (Which word is a masculine noun?) a) he b) country c) the d) hero
30. Plants make food in presence of sunlight. (Which word is a compound noun?) a) food b) pressure c) plants d) Sunlight
Prefix & suffix -20 Questions 1. What prefix would you add to the word 'finished' to show that there is still some work to be done?
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a) un b) dis c) mis d) not
2. What suffix would you add to the word 'air' to show that a room is very stuffy? a) ed b) ful c) less d) ent
3. What prefix would you add to the word 'view' to indicate that you see something before other people do? a) re b) pre c) dis d) un
4. What suffix would you add to the word 'blame' to show you have done nothing wrong? a) ness b) less c) ed d) ent
5. Which two suffixes have the same meaning? a) ful and less b) less and ness c) s and es d) None of the above
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6. Which of these words cannot be made into another word by adding the prefix 'sub'? a) way b) marine c) book d) can
7. Which of these prefixes means below? a) under b) pre c) over d) dis
8. What does the prefix do to the word 'cooked' in this sentence? The pies were precooked. a) It tells you you need to cook the pies. b) It tells you the pies need cooking again. c) It tells you the pies have already been cooked. d) None of the above
9. What does the prefix 'dis' do to the word appeared in this sentence? The cat disappeared before her very eyes. a) It tells you that the cat appeared bigger than before. b) It tells you that the cat vanished. c) It tells you that the act appeared to be further away. d) None of the above
10. What does the suffix 'ful' do to the word house in this sentence?
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She had a houseful that weekend. a) It tells you that her house was empty that weekend. b) It tells you that her house was a mess that weekend. c) It tells you that she had lots of people staying in her house that weekend. d) None of the above
11. The prefix re- means ..... a) not b) before c) again d) full
12. The prefix dis- means ...... a) quality or state of b) not or opposite c) far off d) before
13. The prefix pre- means ...... a) before b) opposite of c) again d) not
14. The prefix im- means ...... a) full of b) before c) again d) not or opposite of
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15. The prefix mis- means . . . . a) under b) again c) before d) wrongly
16. The prefix un- means . . . a) wrong b) under c) across d) not
17. The suffix -less means . . . a) state of or condition of b) full of c) not d) without
18. The suffix -ful means . . . a) full of b) opposite of c) state of or condition of d) without
19. The suffix -ness means a) without b) state of or condition of c) full of d) under
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20. The suffix -ant means . . . a) quality of b) with c) without d) one who does
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Punctuation- 20 Questions 1. Which of these sentences has the comma in the right place? A) Please get me, some eggs milk and some butter. B) Please get me some eggs, milk and some butter. C) Please get me some eggs milk, and some butter. D) Please get me some eggs milk and, some butter.
2. Which of these sentences has the comma in the right place? A) Get the nails the hammer and, the pliers before you start. B) Get, the nails the hammer and the pliers before you start. C) Get the nails, the hammer and the pliers before you start. D) Get the nails the hammer, and the pliers before you start.
3. Which of these sentences has the comma in the right place? A) My kids are called Harry, Joe and Sam. B) My kids are called, Harry Joe and Sam. C) My kids are called Harry Joe, and Sam. D) My kids are called Harry Joe and, Sam.
4. Which of these sentences has the comma in the right place? A) My car washing machine and, TV all broke down today. B) My car, washing machine and TV all broke down today. C) My car washing, machine and TV all broke down today. D) My car washing machine, and TV all broke down today
5. Which of these sentences has the comma in the right place?
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A) Lunch is lamb with peas beans and, new potatoes. B) Lunch is lamb with peas beans and new, potatoes. C) Lunch is lamb with peas beans, and new potatoes. D) Lunch is lamb with peas, beans and new potatoes.
6. Which of these sentences has BOTH commas in the right places? A) I play sport football, or cricket, every Sunday. B) I play sport, football or cricket, every Sunday. C) I play, sport football or cricket, every Sunday. D) I play sport football or cricket, every, Sunday.
7. Which of these sentences has BOTH commas in the right places? A) The school which, had only just opened, burnt down. B) The school which, had only just opened burnt, down. C) The school, which had only just opened, burnt down. D) The school, which had only just, opened burnt down.
8. Which of these sentences has BOTH commas in the right places? A) Secretaries, or, other workers can often get free eye tests. B) Secretaries, or other workers can often, get free eye tests. C) Secretaries or, other workers can often, get free eye tests. D) Secretaries, or other workers, can often get free eye tests.
9. Which of these sentences has BOTH commas in the right places? A) Hani, who is my elder sister, is 62 this year. B) Hani, who is, my elder sister is 62 this year.
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C) Hani who is, my elder sister, is 62 this year. D) Hani who is my elder sister, is 62, this year.
10. Which of these sentences has BOTH commas in the right places? A) The window frames, which are all, different colours need painting. B) The window frames which are all, different colours, need painting. C) The window frames, which are all different colours, need painting. D) The window frames which are, all different colours, need painting.
11. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) Last month I drove to London, Bristol, Leeds and Cardiff. B) Last month I drove to London, Bristol Leeds and Cardiff. C) Last month I drove to London Bristol Leeds, and Cardiff. D) Last month I drove to London Bristol, Leeds, and Cardiff.
12. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) My friend who retires this year wants to live in Spain, or France. B) My friend, who retires this year, wants to live in Spain or France. C) My friend who retires this year wants to live, in Spain, or France. D) My friend, who retires this year, wants to live, in Spain or France.
13. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) Jim, Sue, and Phil, my oldest kids, have all got blonde hair. B) Jim Sue, and Phil my oldest kids, have all got blonde hair.
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C) Jim, Sue and Phil, my oldest kids, have all got blonde hair. D) Jim Sue and Phil, my oldest kids, have all got blonde hair.
14. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) Andy and I go fishing every week, as long as it's not raining. B) Andy, and I, go fishing every week as long as it's not raining. C) Andy and I go fishing, every week, as long as it's not raining. D) Andy and I go fishing every week as long as it's not raining.
15. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) My Dad, his Dad, and all his brothers have always lived in Dover. B) My Dad his Dad, and all his brothers, have always lived in Dover. C) My Dad, his Dad and all his brothers, have always lived in Dover. D) My Dad, his Dad and all his brothers have always lived in Dover.
16. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) I don't drink tea coffee or other drinks, such as cola, that contain caffeine. B) I don't drink tea coffee or other drinks such as cola, that contain caffeine. C) I don't drink tea coffee or other drinks such as cola that contain caffeine. D) I don't drink tea, coffee or other drinks, such as cola, that contain caffeine.
17. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) Cars, buses, and vans, need a tax disc.
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B) Cars, buses and vans need a tax disc. C) Cars, buses, and vans need a tax disc. D) Cars buses and vans need a tax disc.
18. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) The wallpaper, which was green, red and black, was peeling off the walls. B) The wallpaper, which was green red and black, was peeling off the walls. C) The wallpaper which was green, red and black was peeling off the walls. D) The wallpaper which was green, red and black, was peeling off the walls.
19. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) France, Germany Belgium and Denmark are all members of the EU. B) France Germany Belgium, and Denmark are all members of the EU. C) France Germany Belgium, and Denmark, are all members of the EU. D) France, Germany, Belgium and Denmark are all members of the EU.
20. Which of these sentences has the right number of commas, with each comma in the right place? A) Jo, and Jim, the gardeners were sitting in the shed. B) Jo and Jim the gardeners were sitting, in the shed. C) Jo and Jim, the gardeners, were sitting in the shed. D) Jo, and Jim the gardeners were sitting in the shed.
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Mathematics 1. Which of the following fraction is the smallest? 7/6, 7/9, 4/5, 5/7 (1)7/6 (2)7/9 (3)4/5 (4)5/7 Explanation: 7/6= 1.166 7/9= 0.777 4/5= 0.8 5/7= 0.714 Therefore, the smallest number is 5/7
2. Which of the following fraction is the smallest? 9/13, 17/26, 28/29, 33/52 (1)33/52 (2)17/26 (3)9/13 (4)28/29 Explanation:
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3. The smallest possible three place decimal number is : (1) 0.012 (2) 0.123 (3) 0.111 (4) None of the Explanation: The smallest possible three place decimal number = 0.001
4. Which of the following fraction is the smallest? 8/15, 14/33, 7/13, 11/13 (1)8 /15 (2)7/13 (3)11/13 (4)14/33 Explanation:
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5. Which of the following is the smallest fraction? 8/25, 7/23, 11/23, 14/53 (1)8/25 (2)7/23 (3)11/23 (4)14/53 Explanation:
6. Which of the following is the largest fraction? 6/7, 5/6, 7/8, 4/5 (1)6/7 (2)4/5 (3)5/6
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(4)7/8 Explanation:
7. The smallest number of five digits exactly divisible by 476 is (1) 47600 (2) 10000 (3) 10476 (4) 10472 Explanation:
8. The least among the fractions 15/16, 19/20, 24/25, 34/35 is (1)34/35 (2)15/16 (3)19/20 (4)24/25 Explanation:
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9. The greatest fraction among 2/3, 5/6, 11/15 and 7/8 is (1)7/8 (2)11/15 (3)5/6 (4)2/3 Explanation:
10. The least number among 4/9, √ , 0.45 and (0.8)2 is (1) 4/9
(2) √ , (3) 0.45 (4) (0.8)2 Explanation:
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11. Which of the following number is the greatest of all? 0.9, 0.9, 0.09, 0.09 (1) 0.9 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.09 (4) 0.09 Explanation:
12. The greatest value among the fractions 2/7, 1/3, 5/6, 3/4 is: (1)3/4 (2)5/6 (3)1/3 (4)2/7 Explanation:
13. The least number of five digits which has 123 as a factor is (1) 10037 (2) 10086
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(3) 10081 (4) 10063 Explanation:
14. The largest among the numbers (0.1)2, √0.0121, 0.12 and √0.0004 is (1) (0.1)2 (2) √0.0121 (3) 0.12 (4) √0.0004 Explanation:
15. The greatest among the following numbers (3)1/3, (2)1/2, 1, (6)1/6 is : (1) (3)1/3 (2) 1 (3) (6)1/6 (4) (3)1/3 Explanation:
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16. When 335 is added to 5A7, the result is 8B2. 8B2 is divisible by 3. What is the largest possible value of A? (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4 Explanation:
17. If a number is as much greater than 31 as it is less than 75, then the number is (1) 106 (2) 44 (3) 74 (4) 53 Explanation:
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18. The greatest number among 0.7+√0.16, 1.02–0.6/24, 1.2 × 0.83 and √1.44 is:
(1) 0.7+√0.16
(2) √1.44 (3) 1.02–0.6/24 (4) 1.2 × 0.83 Explanation:
19. Which is the largest of the following fractions? 2/3, 3/5, 8/11, 11/17 (1)8/11 (2)3/5 (3)11/17 (4)2/3 Explanation:
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20. Sum of three fractions is 2 24/11. On dividing the largest fraction by the smallest fraction, 7/6 is obtained which is 1/3 greater than the middle fraction. The smallest fraction is (1)5/8 (2)3v4 (3)5/6 (4)3/7 Explanation:
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21. Arrangement of the fractions 4/3, -2/9, -7/8, 5/12 into ascending order is (1) -7/8, -2/9, 5/12, 4/3 (2) -7/8, -2/9, 4/3, 5/12 (3) -2/9, -7/8, 5/12, 4/3 (4) -2/9, -7/8, 4/3, 5/12 Explanation:
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22. Which of the following is correct? (1) 2/3 < 3/5 < 11/15 (2) 3/5 < 2/3 < 11/15 (3)11/15 < 3/5 < 2/3 (4)3/5 < 11/15 < 2/3 Explanation:
TYPE–II
1. A number when divided by 899 gives a remainder 63. If the same number is divided by 29, the remainder will be:
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(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2 Explanation: Required remainder = remainder got when 63 is divided by 29 = 5
2. 1/0.04 is equal to: (1)1/40 (2)2/5 (3)5/2 (4) 25 Explanation: 1/0.04 = 100/4 = 25
3. A six digit number is formed by repeating a three digit number; for example, 256, 256 or 678, 678 etc. Any number of this form is always exactly divisible by: (1) 7 only (2) 11 only (3) 13 only (4) 1001 Explanation: The number (x y z x y z) can be written, after giving corresponding weightage of the places at which the digits occur, as 100000 x + 10000y + 1000z + 100x + 10y + z = 100100x + 10010y + 1001z = 1001 (100x + 10y + z) Since 1001 is a factor, the number is divisible by 1001.
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7 × 11 × 13 = 1001 As the number is divisible by 1001, it will also be divisible by all three namely, 7, 11 and 13 and not by only one of these because all three are factors of 1001. So, the answer is 1001.
4. The smallest number to be added to 1000, so that 45 divides the sum exactly, is: (1) 35 (2) 80 (3) 20 (4) 10 Explanation: 1000 = (45 × 22) + 10 Hence, 45 – 10 = 35 to be added. So, the smallest number to be added to 1000 to make the sum exactly divisible by 45 is 35.
5. Which of the following numbers will always divide a six-digit number of the form xyxyxy (where 1 < x < 9, 1 < y < 9)? (1) 1010 (2) 10101 (3) 11011 (4) 11010 Explanation: Number = xy xy xy = xy × 10000 + xy × 100 + xy = xy (10000 + 100 + 1) = xy × 10101
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6. The divisor is 25 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the quotient is 16, the dividend is: (1) 6400 (2) 6480 (3) 400 (4) 480 Explanation: Quotient = 16 Divisor = 25 × 16 = 400 and remainder = 80 Dividend = Divisor × quotient + Remainder = 400 × 16 + 80 = 6400 + 80 = 6480
7. The product of two positive numbers is 11520 and their quotient is 9/5 . Find the difference of two numbers. (1) 60 (2) 64 (3) 74 (4) 70 Explanation: Let the numbers be x and y. Hence, xy = 11520 and x/y = 9/5 Hence, xy × x/y = 11520 × 9/5 =>x2 = 2304 × 9 => x = √(2304 × 9) => 48 × 3 = 144 From
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x/y= 9/5 We have y =(5×144)/9 =80 Hence, Required difference = 144 – 80 = 64
8. When a number is divided by 56, the remainder obtained is 29. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 8? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 7 Explanation: When the second divisor is factor of first divisor, the second remainder is obtained by dividing the first remainder by the second divisor. Hence, on dividing 29 by 8, the remainder is 5. 9. A student was asked to multiply a number by 3/2 but he divided that number by 3/2. His result was 10 less than the correct answer. The number was: (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 20 Explanation: Let the given number be x. Then, (X × 3/2)- (X ÷ 3/2) = 10 =>3/2 x – 2/3 x = 10 =>(9x-4x)/6 = 10 =>5x = 60
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=>x = 12
10. A number being divided by 52 gives remainder 45. If the number is divided by 13, the remainder will be (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 7 Explanation: Here, 52 is a multiple of 13. Hence, the required remainder is obtained on dividing 45 by 13. Required remainder = 6.
11. If 3/4 of the difference of 2 1/4 and1 2/ 3 is subtracted from 2/3 of 3 1/4 the result is (1) -48/83 (2) 48/83 (3) -83/48 (4) 83/48 Explanation:
12. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. When the same number is divided by 37, the remainder will be
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(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 11 Explanation: Let number (dividend) be X. Hence, X = 296 × Q + 75 Where Q is the quotient and can have the values 1, 2, 3 etc. = 37 × 8 × Q + 37 × 2 + 1 = 37 (8Q + 2) + 1 Thus we see that the remainder is 1.
13. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves remainder 1 and 4 respectively. When it is successively divided by 5 and 4 the respective remainders will be (1) 4, 1 (2) 3, 2 (3) 2, 3 (4) 1, 2 Explanation:
14. In a division problem, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and 3 times the remainder. If remainder is 4, the dividend is (1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 12 (4) 30
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Explanation: Remainder = 4 =>Divisor = 3 × 4 = 12 Again, divisor = 4 × quotient =>4 × quotient = 12 => Quotient = = 12/4 = 3 =>Dividend = 3 × 12 + 4 = 40
15. Each member of a picnic party contributed twice as many rupees as the total number of members and the total collection was 3042. The number of members present in the party was (1) 2 (2) 32 (3) 40 (4) 39 Explanation:
16. How many natural numbers divisible by 7 are there between 3 and 200? (1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 36
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Explanation:
17. The sum of first sixty numbers from one to sixty is divisible by (1) 13 (2) 59 (3) 60 (4) 61 Explanation:
18. A number when divided by 3 leaves a remainder 1. When the quotient is divided by 2, it leaves a remainder 1. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 6? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 Explanation:
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19. The product of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the larger one is divided by the smaller, is 15. The sum of the numbers is: (1) 395 (2) 380 (3) 400 (4) 425 Explanation:
20. A number, when divided by 119, leaves a remainder of 19. If it is divided by 17, it will leave a remainder of: (1) 19 (2) 10
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(3) 7 (4) 2 Explanation: On dividing the given number by 119, let k be the quotient and 19 as remainder. Then, number = 119k + 19 = 17 × 7k + 17 × 1 + 2 = 17 (7k + 1) + 2 Hence, the given number when divided by 17, gives (7k + 1) as quotient and 2 as remainder.
21. (719 + 2) is divided by 6, the remainder is: (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Explanation:
22. When a number is divided by 357 the remainder is 39. If that number is divided by 17, the remainder will be: (1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 11
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Explanation: Here, 357 is exactly divisible by 17. So, Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 39 by 17 = 5
23. A number divided by 68 gives the quotient 269 and remainder zero. If the same number is divided by 67, the remainder is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 Explanation: Number = 269 × 68 = 269 × (67 + 1) = 269 × 67 + 269 Clearly, remainder is obtained on dividing 269 by 67 that is 1.
24. A number when divided by 6 leaves remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 Explanation: The remainder will be same. On dividing 9 by 6, remainder = 3 On dividing 81 by 6, remainder = 3
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25. When a number is divided by 893, the remainder is 193. What will be the remainder when it is divided by 47? (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 25 (4) 33 Explanation: Here, 893 is exactly divisible by 47. Hence, the required remainder is obtained on dividing 193 by 47. Hence, Remainder = 5 26. A number divided by 13 leaves a remainder 1 and if the quotient, thus obtained, is divided by 5, we get a remainder of 3. What will be the remainder if the number is divided by 65? (1) 28 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 40 Explanation:
27. Which of the following number is NOT divisible by 18?
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(1) 54036 (2) 50436 (3) 34056 (4) 65043 Explanation: A number will be exactly divisible by 18 if it is divisible by 2 and 9 both. Clearly 65043 is not divisible by 2. Hence, Required number = 65043
28. 64329 is divided by a certain number. While dividing, the numbers, 175, 114 and 213 appear as three successive remainders. The divisor is (1) 184 (2) 224 (3) 234 (4) 296 Explanation:
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29. In a question on division, the divisor is 7 times the quotient and 3 times the remainder. If the remainder is 28, then the dividend is (1) 588 (2) 784 (3) 823 (4) 1036 Explanation:
30. If two numbers are each divided by the same divisor, the remainders are respectively 3 and 4. If the sum of the two numbers be divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 2. The divisor is (1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3 Explanation: Required divisor = 3 + 4 – 2 = 5
31. A number consists of two digits. If the number formed by interchanging the digits is added to the original number, the resulting number (i.e. the sum) must be divisible by (1)11
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(2)9 (3)5 (4)3 Explanation: Let the number be 10x + y After interchanging the digits, the number obtained = 10y + x According to the question, Resulting number = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11 (x + y) Which is exactly divisible by 11
32. A number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5? (1)1 (2)2 (3)3 (4)4 Explanation: If the quotient in the first case be x. Then, number = 5x + 3 On Squaring, the number = (5x + 3)2 = 25x2 + 30x + 9 On dividing by 5, Remainder = 9 – 5 = 4
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33. A number when divided by 192 gives a remainder of 54. What remainder would be obtained on dividing the same number by 16? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 Explanation: Here, the first divisor 192 is a multiple of second divisor 16. Required remainder = remainder obtained by dividing 54 by 16 = 6
34. A number, when divided by 136, leaves remainder 36. If the same number is divided by 17, the remainder will be (1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 3 (4) 2 Explanation: If the first divisor be a multiple of the second divisor, then required remainder = remainder obtained by dividing the first remainder (36) by the second divisor (17) = 2
35. Two numbers, when divided by 17, leave remainders 13 and 11 respectively. If the sum of those two numbers is divided by 17, the remainder will be (1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 7 (4) 4
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Explanation: First number (X) = 17x + 13 Second number (Y) = 17y + 11 X+Y/17 =17(x+y)/17 = (13+11)/17 Hence, Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 11 + 13 i.e. 24 by 17 = 7
36. A number, when divided by 221, leaves a remainder 64. What is the remainder if the same number is divided by 13? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 11 (4) 12 Explanation: Here, the first divisor (221) is a multiple of second divisor (13) Hence, required remainder = remainder obtained on dividing 64 by 13 = 12
37. When ‘n’ is divisible by 5 the remainder is 2. What is the remainder when n2 is divided by 5? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 Explanation: Required remainder = Remainder obtained by dividing 22 by 5. Remainder = 4
38. The remainder when 321 is divided by 5 is
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(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Explanation: 31 = 3; 32 = 9; 33 = 27; 34 = 81; 35 = 243 i.e. unit’s digit is repeated after index 4. Remainder after dividing 21 by 4 = 1 Unit’s digit in the expansion of (3)21 = 3 Remainder after dividing by 5 = 3
39. A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as remainder. This number when divided by 7 will have the remainder as (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 Explanation: Here, the first divisor i.e. 49 is multiple of second divisor i.e. 7. Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 32 by 7 = 4
40. When a number is divided by 36, the remainder is 19. What will be the remainder when the number is divided by 12? (1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 3
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(4) 0 Explanation: Here, the first divisor (36) is exactly divisible by the second divisor (12). Required remainder = Remainder obtained after 19 is divided by 12 = 7
41. 96–11 when divided by 8 would leave a remainder of: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 6 Explanation: If (x ±1)n is divided by x, the remainder is (±1)n, Now, 96 – 11 = (8 + 1)6 –11 When it is divided by 8, remainder = + 1 – 11 = – 10 When – 10 is divided by 8, remainder = – 2 i.e. – 2 + 8 = 6
42. If 17200 is divided by 18, the remainder is— (1) 17 (2) 16 (3) 1 (4) 2 Explanation:
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43. When231 is divided by 5 the remainder is (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Explanation:
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44. A student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to the quotient. He, however, first added 12 to the number and then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer. The correct answer should have been (1) 124 (2) 122 (3) 118 (4) 114 Explanation:
45. When a number is divided by 387, the remainder obtained is 48. If the same number is divided by 43, then the remainder obtained will be– (1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 35 Explanation: Here, 387 is a multiple of 43. Remainder obtained on dividing 48 by 43 i.e. 5 is the required remainder. 46. When two numbers are separately divided by 33, the remainders are 21 and 28 respectively. If the sum of the two numbers is divided by 33, the remainder will be
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(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16 Explanation: If two numbers are separately divided by a certain divisor (d) leaving remainders r1 and r2 , then remainder after their sum is divided by the same divisor. = r1 + r2 – d = 21 + 28 – 33 = 16
47. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, then the dividend is (1) 4236 (2) 4306 (3) 4336 (4) 5336 Explanation: Divisor = 5 × Remainder = 5 × 46 = 230 Quotient =230/10 = 23 Hence, Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder = 230 × 23 + 46 = 5290 + 46 = 5336
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48. When a number is divided by 24, the remainder is 16. The remainder when the same number is divided by 12 is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 Explanation: Required remainder = 16 – 12 = 4 (because 24 is a multiple of 12.)
49. The expression 26n – 42n, where n is a natural number is always divisible by (1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 36 (4) 48 Explanation:
50. (461 + 462 + 463) is divisible by (1) 3 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) 17 Explanation: 461 + 462 + 463 = 461 (1 + 4 + 42) = 461 × 21 Which is divisible by 3.
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51. 47 is added to the product of 71 and an unknown number. The new number is divisible by 7 giving the quotient 98. The unknown number is a multiple of (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 3 Explanation: Let the unknown number be x. 71 × x + 47 = 98 × 7 =>71x = 686 – 47 = 639 =>x = 639/71 = 9 = 3 × 3
52. When an integer K is divided by 3, the remainder is 1, and when K + 1 is divided by 5, the remainder is 0. Of the following, a possible value of K is (1) 62 (2) 63 (3) 64 (4) 65 Explanation: Of the given alternatives, When 64 is divided by 3, remainder = 1 When 65 is divided by 5, remainder = 0
53. A number when divided by 91 gives a remainder 17. When the same number is divided by 13, the remainder will be: (1) 0
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(2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 Explanation: Here, the first divisor (91) is a multiple of second divisor (13). Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 17 by 13 = 4
54. If the sum of the two numbers is 120 and their quotient is 5, then the difference of the two numbers is– (1) 115 (2) 100 (3) 80 (4) 72 Explanation:
55. A number when divided by 280 leaves 115 as remainder. When the same number is divided by 35, the remainder is (1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 17
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Explanation: Here, 280 is a multiple of35. Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 115 by 35 = 10
56. A certain number when divided by 175 leaves a remainder 132. When the same number is divided by 25, the remainder is: (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 Explanation: Here, first divisor (175) is a multiple of second divisor (25). Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 132 by 25 = 7
57. The number of integers in between 100 and 600, which are divisible by 4 and 6 both, is (1) 40 (2) 42 (3) 41 (4) 50 Explanation: We have to find such numbers which are divisible by 12 (LCM of 4 and 6). Number of numbers divisible by 12 and lying between 1 to 600 =600/12 - 1 = 49 Number of numbers divisible by 12 from 1 to 100 = 100/12 = 8
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Required answer = 49 – 8 = 41
58. The value of λ for which the expression x3 + x2 – 5x + λ will be divisible by (x – 2) is: (1) 2 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) 4 Explanation: (x– 2) is a factor of polynomial P (x) = x3 + x2 – 5x + λ Hence, P(2) = 0 (i.e., on putting x = 2) =>23 + 22 – 5 × 2 + λ = 0 =>8 + 4 – 10 + λ = 0 => λ + 2 = 0 => λ = –2
59. If the number formed by the last two digits of a three digit integer is an integral multiple of 6, the original integer itself will always be divisible by (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 12 Explanation: Required Number = 100x + 10y + z Q 10y + z = 6m Number = 100x + 6m,
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Where m is a positive integer. = 2 (50x + 3m)
60. Divide 37 into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the other are together 227. (1) 15, 22 (2) 20, 17 (3) 25, 12 (4) 30, 7 Explanation: If the first part be x, then second part = 37 – x. x × 5 + (37 – x) 11 = 227 =>5x + 407 – 11x = 227 =>6x = 407 – 227 = 180 =>x = 30 Second part = 7
62. How many numbers between 400 and 800 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6? (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 Explanation: LCM of 4, 5 and 6 = 60 Quotient on dividing 800 by 60 = 13 Quotient on dividing 400 by 60 = 6
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Required answer = 13 – 6 = 7
63. A positive integer when divided by 425 gives a remainder 45. When the same number is divided by 17, the remainder will be (1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 Explanation: The no. is of the form (425x + 45) First divisor (425) is multiple of second divisor (17). Required remainder = Remainder Obtained on dividing 45 by 17 = 11
64. A number x when divided by 289 leaves 18 as the remainder. The same number when divided by 17 leaves y as a remainder. The value of y is (1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1 Explanation: Here, the first divisor (289) is a multiple of second divisor (17). Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 18 by 17 = 1
65. When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is (1) 2
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(2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 1 Explanation: n = 6q + 4 2n = 12q + 8 Dividing 8 by 6 the remainder = 2 66. Two numbers 11284 and 7655, when divided by a certain number of three digits, leaves the same remainder. The sum of digits of such a three-digit number is (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11 Explanation: If the remainder be x, Then (11284 – x ) and (7655 – x ) are divisible by three digit number. i.e. (11284 – x ) – (7655 – x ) = 3629 is divisible by that number. 3629 = 19 × 191 Hence, required number = 191 Sum of digits = 1 + 9 + 1 = 11
67. In a division sum, the divisor is 3 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 2, then the dividend is (1) 50 (2) 48 (3) 36 (4) 28
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Explanation: Divisor = 6 × 2 = 12 Again, Divisor = 3 × quotient Quotient = 12/3 = 4 Dividend = 12 × 4 + 2 = 48 + 2 = 50
68. 216 –1 is divisible by (1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 19 Explanation: 216 – 1 = (28)2–1 = (28+1) (28–1) = (256 + 1) (256 – 1) = 257 × 255 which is exactly divisible by 17.
69. The smallest number that must be added to 803642 in order to obtain a multiple of 11 is (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 9 Explanation: Sum of digits at odd places = 2 + 6 + 0 = 8, Sum of digits at even places = 4 + 3 + 8 = 15.
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For divisibility by 11, difference i.e., (15 – 8) = 0 or multiple of 11. The required number = 7
70. Which one of the following will completely divide 571 + 572 + 573? (1) 150 (2) 160 (3) 155 (4) 30 Explanation: 571 + 572 + 573 = 571 (1 + 5 + 52) = 571 × 31 which is exactly divisible by 155.
71. If [n] denotes the greatest integer < n and (n) denotes the smallest integer > n, where n is any real number, then (1 ⅕) × [1 ⅕] - (1 ⅕) ÷ [1 ⅕] + (1.5) is (1) 1.5 (2) 2 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5 Explanation: [n] < n (integer); (n) > n (integer) Expression = 2 × 1 – 2 ÷ 1 + 2 = 2
72. The number which is to be added to 0.01 to get 1.1, is (1) 1.11 (2)1.09
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(3) 1 (4)0.10 Explanation: Required number = 1.1 – 0.01 = 1.09
73. 999 998/999 × 999 is equal to: (1) 998999 (2)999899 (3) 989999 (4) 999989 Explanation:
74. (271 + 272 + 273 + 274) is divisible by (1) 9 (2)10 (3) 11 (4)13 Explanation: Expression = 271 (1 +2 + 4 + 8) = 271 × 15 = 271 × 3 × 5 Which is exactly divisible by 10
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75. By which number should 0.022 be multiplied so that product becomes 66? (1) 3000 (2) 3200 (3) 4000 (4) 3600 Explanation: Let required number be x. 0.022 × x = 66 =>x = 66/0.022 = 3000
76.(325 + 326 + 327 + 328) is divisible by (1) 11 (2) 16 (3) 25 (4) 30 Explanation: 325 + 326 + 327 + 328 = 325 (1 + 3 + 32 + 33) = 325 (1 + 3 + 9 + 27) = 325 × 40, Which is clearly divisible by 30.
77. The value of (0.3467 + 0.1333 ) is: (1) 0.48
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(2) 0.48 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.48 Explanation:
. × × 78. The value of is closest to . × . (1) 0.002 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.2 (4) 2 Explanation: × × Tricky Approach Taking approximate values, we have = 0.2046 = 0.2 ×
79. + (999 ) ×99 is equal to (1) 1 (2) 99000 (3) 99800 (4) 99900 Explanation: Expression = + (999 ) ×99
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= + 999×99 ×99 = + (1000 − 1)99 + = + + 99000 − 99 = +99000-99 =99+99000-99 = 99000
80. (49)15 – 1 is exactly divisible by: (1) 50 (2) 51 (3) 29 (4) 8 Explanation: xn–an is exactly divisible by (x–a) if n is odd. (49)15–(1)15 is exactly divisible by 49–1 = 48, That is a multiple of 8.
81. If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is (a4 – b4) always divisible? (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
Explanation: a4 – b4 = (a2)2 – (b2)2 = (a2 + b2) (a2 – b2) = (a2 + b2) (a + b) (a – b) Let a = 3, b = 1 Required number = (3 + 1) (3 – 1) = 8
82. If m and n are positive integers and (m – n )is an even number, then (m2 – n2) will be always divisible by (1) 4 (2) 6
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(3) 8 (4) 12 Explanation: Let m = n = p and m – n = 2p m + n = 2p (m – n) (m + n) = 4p2 =>m2 – n2 = 4p2
83. If 5432*7 is divisible by 9, then the digit in place of * is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 9
Explanation: A number is divisible by 9, if sum of its digits is divisible by 9. Let the number be x. =>5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + x + 7 = 21 + x =>x = 6
84. The least number, which must be added to 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9, is (1) 5 (4) 4 (3) 7 (4) 2
Explanation: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. Here, 6 + 7 + 0 + 9 = 22 Now, 22 + 5 = 27, Which is divisible by 9. Hence 5 must be added to 6709.
85. The total number of integers between 100 and 200, which are divisible by both 9 and 6, is:
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(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
Explanation: A number is divisible by 9 and 6 both, if it is divisible by LCM of 9 and 6 i.e., 18. Hence, the numbers are 108, 126, 144, 162, 180, 198.
86. How many 3-digit numbers, in all, are divisible by 6? (1)140 (2)150 (3)160 (4)170
Explanation: First 3–digit number divisible by 6 = 102 Last such 3-digit number =996 996 = 102 + (n –1) 6 =>(n – 1)6 = 996 – 102 = 894 =>n – 1 =894/6 = 149 =>n = 150
87. If ‘n’ be any natural number, then by which largest number (n3 – n) is always divisible? (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 18
Explanation: n3 – n = n (n2 – 1) = n (n + 1) (n – 1) For n = 2, n3 – n = 6
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88. If n is an integer, then (n3 – n) is always divisible by: (1) 4 (2)5 (3) 6 (4)7 Explanation: n3 – n = n (n + 1) (n – 1) n = 1, n3 – n = 0 n = 2, n3 – n = 2 × 3 = 6 n = 3, n3 – n = 3 × 4 × 2 = 24 n = 4, n3 – n = 4 × 5 × 3 = 60 60 ÷ 6 = 10
89. If the sum of the digits of any integer lying between 100 and 1000 is subtracted from the number, the result always is (1) divisible by 6 (2) divisible by 2 (3) divisible by 9 (4) divisible by 5 Explanation: Number = 100x + 10y + z Sum of digits = x + y + z Difference = 100x + 10y + z – x – y – z = 99x + 9y = 9 (11x + y)
90. If a number is divisible by both 11 and 13, then it must be necessarily: (1) divisible by (11 + 13) (2) divisible by (13 – 11) (3) divisible by (11 × 13) (4) 429
Explanation: Divisible by (11 × 13)
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91. If * is a digit such that 5824* is divisible by 11, then * equals: (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6 Explanation:
92. If 78*3945 is divisible by 11, where * is a digit, then * is equal to (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 3 (4) 5 Explanation: A number is divisible by 11, if the difference of the sum of its digits at odd places and the sum of its digits of even places, is either 0 or a number divisible by 11. Hence, (5 + 9 + * + 7) – (4 + 3 + 8) = 0 or multiple of 11 =>21 + * – 15 * + 6 = a multiple of 11 * = 5
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93. If the number 4 8 3 2 7 * 8 is divisible by 11, then the missing digit (*) is (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Explanation: A number is divisible by 11, if the difference of sum of its digits at odd places and the sum of its digits at even places is either 0 or a number divisible by 11. Difference = (4 + 3 + 7 + 8) – (2 + 8 + *) = 22 – 10 –* = 12 – * Clearly, * = 1
94. Both the end digits of a 99 digit number N are 2. N is divisible by 11, then all the middle digits are: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Explanation: A number is divisible by 11 if the difference of the sum of digits at odd and even places be either zero or multiple of 11. If the middle digit be 4, then 24442 or 244442 etc are divisible by 11.
95. If n is a whole number greater than 1, then n2(n2 – 1) is always divisible by: (1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 10
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(4) 8 Explanation: n2(n2–1) = n2 (n + 1 ) (n – 1) Now, we put values n = 2, 3..... When n = 2 n2(n2 –1) = 4 × 3 × 1 = 12, which is a multiple of 12 When n = 3 n2(n2 – 1) = 9 × 4 × 2 = 72, Which is also a multiple of 12. etc.
96. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit number such as 2525, 3232, etc. Any number of this form is always exactly divisible by: (1) 7 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) Smallest 3-digit prime number Explanation: Let the unit digit be x and ten’s digit be y. Number = 1000y + 100x + 10y + x = 1010y + 101x = 101(10y + x) Clearly, this number is divisible by 101, which is the smallest three-digit prime number.
97. What least number, of 5 digits is divisible by 41? (1) 10045 (2) 10004
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(3) 10041 (4) 41000 Explanation:
98. It is given that (232+ 1) is exactly divisible by a certain number. Which one of the following is also definitely divisible by the same number? (1) 296 + 1 (2) 7 × 233 (3) 216 – 1 (4) 216 + 1 Explanation: 296 + 1 = (232)3 + 13 = (232+1) (264 – 232 + 1) Clearly, 232+1 is a factor of 296+1
99. The greatest whole number, by which the expression n4 + 6n3 + 11n2 + 6n + 24 is divisible for every natural number n, is (1) 6 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 48
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Explanation: For n = 1 n4 + 6n3 +11n2 + 6n + 24 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 6 + 24 = 48 For n = 2 n4 +6n3 + 11n2 +6n +24 = 16 + 48 + 44 + 12 + 24 = 144 Which is divisible by 48. Clearly, 48 is the required number.
100. How many numbers between 1000 and 5000 are exactly divisible by 225? (1)16 (2)18 (3)19 (4)12 Explanation: When we divide 1000 by 225, quotient = 4 When we divide 5000 by 225, quotient = 22 Required answer = 22 – 4 = 18
101. Find the largest number, which exactly divides every number of the form (n3 – n) (n –2) where n is a natural number greater than2. (1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 48 Explanation: (n3 – n) (n – 2) = n (n – 1) (n + 1) (n – 2)
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When n = 3, Number = 3 × 2 × 4 = 24
102. The greatest number less than 1500, which is divisible by both 16 and 18, is (1) 1440 (2)1404 (3) 1386 (4)1368 Explanation: LCM of 16 and 18 = 144 Multiple of 144 that is less than 1500 = 1440
103. The least number, which is to be added to the greatest number of 4 digits so that the sum may be divisible by 345, is (1) 50 (2)6 (3) 60 (4)5 Explanation: The largest 4-digit number = 9999 Required number = 345 – 339 = 6
104. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by (1) 3 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 13 Explanation:
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461 + 462 + 463 + 464 = 461 (1 + 4 + 42 + 43) = 461 (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) = 461 × 85 Which is a multiple of 10.
105. The difference of a number consisting of two digits from the number formed by interchanging the digits is always divisible by (1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 6 Explanation: Let the number be 10x + y Where y < x. Number obtained by interchanging the digits = 10y + x Difference = 10x + y – 10y – x = 9x – 9y = 9 (x – y) Hence, the difference is always exactly divisible by 9.
106. Which one of the numbers is divisible by 25? (1) 303310 (2) 373355 (3) 303375 (4) 22040 Explanation: Check through option 303375/25 = (303375×4)/(25×4)
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= 1213500/100 = 12135 A number is divisible by 25 if the last two digits are divisible by 25 or zero.
107. The least number which must be added to the greatest number of 4 digits in order that the sum may be exactly divisible by 307 is (1) 132 (2) 32 (3) 43 (4) 75 Explanation: 307 × 32 = 9824 307 × 33 = 10131 Required number = 10131 – 9999 = 132
108. If a = 4011 and b = 3989 then value of ab= ? (1) 15999879 (2) 15899879 (3) 15989979 (4) 15998879 Explanation: a = 4011, b = 3989 ab = 4011 × 3989 = (4000 + 11) (4000 – 11) = (4000)2 – (11)2 = 16000000 – 121 = 15999879
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109. For any integral value of n, 32n + 9n + 5 when divided by 3 will leave the remainder (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 5 Explanation: Expression = 32n + 9n + 5 = (32n + 9n + 3) + 2 = 3 (32n – 1 + 3n +1) + 2 Clearly, remainder = 2
110. The solution to the inequality 12x – 61 < 6 is (1) x < 6 (2) 0 < x < 6 (3) – 6 < x < 6 (4) – 6 < x < 0 Explanation: 12x – 61 < 6 =>12x < 61 + 6 =>12x < 67 =>x < 67/12 =>x < 6 (Approx.)
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111. 5349 is added to 3957. Then 7062 is subtracted from the sum. The result is not divisible by (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 11 Explanation: Resulting number = 3957 + 5349 – 7062 = 2244 Which is divisible by 4, 3 and 11. 2244 ÷ 4 = 561 2244 ÷ 3 = 748 2244 ÷ 11 = 204
112. The product of all the prime numbers between 80 and 90 is (1) 83 (2) 89 (3) 7387 (4) 598347 Explanation: Prime numbers between 80 and 90. = 83 and 89 Required product = 83 × 89 = 7387
113. If n is even, (6n– 1) is divisible by (1) 37 (2) 35 (3) 30
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(4) 6 Explanation: When n = 2, 6n – 1 = 62 – 1 = 36 – 1 = 35 When, n = an even number, an–bn is always divisible by (a2–b2).
114. I have x marbles. My elder brother has 3 more than mine, while my younger brother has 3 less than mine. If the total number of marbles is 15, the number of marbles that I have is (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7 Explanation: Total number of marbles = x + x + 3 + x – 3 = 3x =>3x = 15 =>x = 5
115. Weight of a bucket when filled fully with water is 17 kg. If the weight of the bucket when half filled with water is 13.5 kg, what is the weight of empty bucket? (1) 12 kg (2) 8 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 7 kg Explanation:
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116. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are counted they are 180, if legs are counted they are 420. The number of cows in the farm is (1) 130 (2) 150 (3) 50 (4) 30 Explanation: A cow and a hen each has a head. If the total number of cows be x, then Number of hens = 180 – x A cow has four legs and a hen has two legs. =>(180 – x) × 2 + 4x = 420 =>360 – 2x + 4x = 420 =>2x = 420 – 360 = 60 =>x =60/2 = 30
117. The number which can be written in the form of n (n + 1) (n + 2), where n is a natural number, is (1) 7 (2) 3
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(3) 5 (4) 6 Explanation: On putting n = 1 n(n +1) (n + 2) = 1 × 2 × 3 = 6
118. A number when divided by 2736 leaves the remainder 75. If the same number is divided by 24, then the remainder is (1) 12 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 23 Explanation: 2736 ÷ 24 = 114 Hence, first divisor (2736) is a multiple of second divisor (24). Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 75 by 24 = 3
119. The maximum value of F in the following equation 5E9 + 2F8 + 3G7 = 1114 is where E, F, G each stands for any digit. (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 7 (4) 5 Explanation: 5 E9 + 2 F8 + 3 G7 = 1114 Value of ‘F’ will be maximum if the values of E and G are minimum. 509 + 2 F8 + 307 = 1114
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=>2 F8 = 1114 – 509 – 307= 298 =>F = 9
120. The sum of four numbers is 48. When 5 and 1 are added to the first two; and 3 and 7 are subtracted from the 3rd and 4th, the numbers will be equal. The numbers are (1) 9, 7, 15, 17 (2)4, 12, 12, 20 (3) 5, 11, 13, 19 (4)6, 10, 14, 18 Explanation: Let four numbers be a, b, c and d respectively. a + b + c + d = 48 ...... (i) and, a + 5 = b + 1 = c – 3 = d – 7 = x (let) a = x – 5; b = x – 1, c = x + 3, d = x + 7 From equation (i), =>x – 5 + x – 1 + x + 3 + x + 7 = 48 =>4x + 4 = 48 Þ 4x = 48 – 4 = 44 =>x = 44/4 = 11 a = x – 5 = 11 – 5 = 6 b = x – 1 = 11 – 1 = 10 c = x + 3 = 11 + 3 = 14 d = x + 7 = 11 + 7 = 18
121. The least number that should be added to 2055, so that the sum is exactly divisible by 27 is (1) 28
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(2) 24 (3) 27 (4) 31 Explanation:
122. What is the Arithmetic mean of the first ‘n’ natural numbers?
( ) (1) ( ) (2) ( ) (3) (4) 2(n + 1) Explanation:
( ) Sum of first n natural numbers = ( ) ( ) Required average = = ×
123. A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. If the same number is divided by 19, the remainder obtained is (1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 1 Explanation:
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Here, the first divisor (361) is a multiple of second divisor (19). Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing 47 by 19 = 9
124. The difference between the greatest and the least four digit numbers that begin with 3 and ends with 5 is (1) 999 (2) 900 (3) 990 (4) 909 Explanation: Largest number = 3995 Smallest number = 3005 Difference = 3995 – 3005 = 990
125. The sum of two numbers is 75 and their difference is 25. The product of the two numbers is: (1) 1350 (2) 1250 (3) 125 (4) 1000 Explanation:
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126. The difference between the greatest and least prime numbers which are less than 100 is (1) 96 (2) 97 (3) 94 (4) 95 Explanation: Required difference = 97 – 2 = 95
127. Which one of the following is the minimum value of the sum of two integers whose product is 24? (1) 25 (2) 11 (3) 8 (4) 10 Explanation: xy = 24 (x, y) = (1 × 24), (2 ×12), (3 × 8), (4 × 6) Minimum value of (x + y) = 4 + 6 = 10.
128. If the sum of the digits of a three digit number is subtracted from that number, then it will always be divisible by (1) 3 only (2) 9 only (3) Both 3 and 9
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(4) All of 3, 6 and 9 Explanation: Let the 3–digit number be 100x + 10y + z. Sum of the digits = x + y + z According to the question, Difference = 100x + 10y + z – (x + y + z) = 99x + 9y = 9 (11x + y) Clearly, it is a multiple of 3 and 9.
129. The greater of the two numbers whose product is 900 and sum exceeds their difference by 30 is (1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 90 (4) 100 Explanation: Let the numbers be x and y where x > y. According to the question, (x + y) – (x – y) = 30 => x + y – x + y = 30 =>2y = 30 =>y =30/2 xy = 900 =>15x = 900 =>x =900/15 = 60
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130. In a division sum, the divisor ‘d’ is 10 times the quotient ‘q’ and 5 times the remainder ‘r’. If r = 46, the dividend will be (1) 5042 (2) 5328 (3) 5336 (4) 4276 Explanation: According to the question, Divisor (d) = 5r = 5 × 46 = 230 Again, Divisor (d) = 10 × Quotient (q) 230 = q × 10 =>q =230/10 = 23 Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder = 230 × 23 + 46 = 5290 + 46 = 5336
131. A number when divided by 44, gives 432 as quotient and 0 as remainder. What will be the remainder when dividing the same number by 31? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 Explanation:
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132. A number when divided by 729 gives a remainder of 56. What will we get as remainder if the same number is divided by 27? (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 1 Explanation: Here, first divisor (729) is a multiple of second divisor (27). Required remainder = Remainder got on dividing 56 by 27 = 2.
133. What is the smallest 6-digit number that is completely divisible by 108? (1) 100003 (2) 100004 (3) 100006 (4) 100008 Explanation:
134. If 25 is added to a number it becomes 3 less than thrice of the number. Then number is:
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(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 19 (4) 20 Explanation: Let the number be x. According to the question, x + 25 = 3x – 3 =>3x – x = 25 + 3 =>2x = 28 =>x = 14
135. The number 334 × 545 × 7p is dividible by 3340 if p is at least. (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1 Explanation: 334 × 545 × 7p is divisible by 3340. =>334 × 5 × 109 × 7 × p, is divisible by 334 × 2 × 5 Clearly, p = 2
136. If the sum of a number and its reciprocal be 2, then the number is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2 Explanation:
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Let the number be a. According to the question, a + 1/a = 2 =>a2 + 1 = 2a =>a2 – 2a + 1 = 0 =>(a – 1)2 = 0 =>a – 1 = 0 =>a = 1
137. When a number is divided by 56, the remainder will be 29. If the same number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3 Explanation: First divisor (56) is a multiple of second divisor (8). Required remainder = Remainder obtained after dividing 29 by 8 = 5
138. A positive number when decreased by 4, is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of this number. The number is: (1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 9 Explanation: Let the number be x. According to the question,
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x – 4 = 21/x =>x2 – 4x = 21 =>x2 – 4x – 21 = 0 =>x2 – 7x + 3x – 21 = 0 =>x (x – 7) + 3 (x – 7) = 0 =>(x + 3) (x – 7) = 0 =>x = 7 because x ≠ -3.
139. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. The remainder when 2n is divided by 4 is: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6 Explanation: Let quotient be 1. n = 4 × 1 + 3 = 7 2n = 2 × 7 = 14, On dividing 14 by 4, remainder = 2
140. A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as quotient and 30 as the remainder. The number is (1) 220030 (2) 22030 (3) 1220 (4) 1250
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Explanation: Divisor = 555 + 445 = 1000 Quotient = (555 – 445) × 2 = 110 × 2 = 220 Remainder = 30 Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder = 1000 × 220 + 30 = 220030
141. When a number x is divided by a divisor it is seen that the divisor = 4 times the quotient = double the remainder. If the remainder is 80 then the value of x is (1) 6480 (2) 9680 (3) 8460 (4) 4680 Explanation: According to the question, Divisor = 2 × remainder = 2 × 80 = 160 Again, 4 × quotient = 160 =>Quotient =160/4 = 40 x= Divisor × Quotient + remainder = 160 × 40 + 80 = 6480
142. On dividing a certain number by 342 we get 47 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 18, what will be the remainder? (1) 15 (2) 11 (3) 17 (4) 13 Explanation:
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Here, first divisor (342) is a multiple of second divisor (18). i.e. 342 ÷ 18 = 19 Required remainder = Remainder on dividing 47 by 18 = 11
143. The sum of three numbers is 252. If the first number is thrice the second and third number is two–third of the first, then the second number is (1) 41 (2) 21 (3) 42 (4) 84 Explanation: Let second number = x. First number = 3x Third number = 2/3 × 3x = 2x According to the question, 3x + x + 2x = 252 =>6x = 252 =>x = 252/6 = 42
144. The difference between the greatest and the least five-digit numbers formed by the digits 2, 5, 0, 6 and 8 is (repetition of digits is not allowed) (1) 69552 (2) 65925 (3) 65952 (4) 63952 Explanation: Five-digit numbers formed by 2, 5, 0, 6 and 8 : Largest number = 86520 Smallest number = 20568
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Required difference = 86520 – 20568 = 65952
145. A man has some hens and some cows. If the total number of heads of hens and cows together is 50 and the number of feet of hens and cows together is 142, then the number of cows is (1) 21 (2) 25 (3) 27 (4) 29 Explanation: Let the number of cows be x. A hen or a cow has only one head. Number of hens = 50 – x A hen has two feet. A cow has four feet. According to the question, 4x + 2 (50 – x) = 142 =>4x + 100 – 2x = 142 =>2x = 142 – 100 = 42 =>x =42/2 = 21
146. The least number, which when divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3 in each case, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is: (1) 1677 (2) 1683 (3) 2523 (4) 3363 Explanation:
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147. If the sum of the digits of any integer between 100 and 1000 is subtracted from the same integer, the resulting number is always divisible by (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 9 Explanation: A 3–digit number = 100x + 10y + z Sum of digits = x + y + z Difference = 100x + 10y + z – x – y – z = 99x + 9y = 9 (11x + y) i.e., multiple of 9.
148. The least number that must be added to 8961 to make it exactly divisible by 84 is: (1) 27 (2) 57 (3) 141 (4) 107 Explanation:
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149. Number of composite numbers lying between 67 and 101 is: (1) 27 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 23 Explanation: Number of numbers lying between 67 and 101 =>101 – 67 – 1 = 33 Prime numbers =>71, 73, 79, 83, 89 and 97 = 6 Composite numbers = 33 – 6 = 27
150. The least number that must be subtracted from 1294 so that the remainder when divided by 9, 11 and 13 will leave in each case the same remainder 6, is: (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 Explanation: LCM of 9, 11 and 13 = 9 × 11 × 13 = 1287 Required lowest number that leaves 6 as remainder = 1287 + 6 = 1293 Required answer = 1294 – 1293 = 1
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151. What least value must be assigned to ‘*’ so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by 8? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Explanation: A number is divisible by 8 if number formed by the last three digits is divisible by 8. If * is replaced by 3, then 632 ÷ 8 = 79
152. The least number to be added to 13851 to get a number which is divisible by 87 is: (1) 18 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 69 Explanation:
153. What least value must be assigned to ‘*’ so that the number 451 * 603 is exactly divisible by 9? (1) 7 (2) 8
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(3) 5 (4) 9 Explanation: If the sum of the digits of a number be divisible by 9, the number is divisible by 9. Sum of the digits of 451 * 603 = 4 + 5 + 1 + * + 6 + 0 + 3 = 19 + * If * = 8, Then 19 + 8 = 27 which is divisible by 9.
154. The largest number of four digits exactly divisible by 88 is: (1) 9988 (2) 9944 (3) 8888 (4) 9768 Explanation:
155. Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 99? (1) 57717 (2) 57627 (3) 55162
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(4) 56982 Explanation: A number is divisible by 99 if it is divisible by 9 and 11 both. Sum of the digits of the number 57717 = 5 + 7 + 7 + 1 + 7 = 27 which is divisible by 9. Difference between the sum of digits at odd and even places = (7 + 7 + 5) – (7 + 1) = 19 – 8 = 11 which is a multiple of 11. Required number = 57717
156. The sum of all prime numbers between 58 and 68 is (1) 179 (2) 178 (3) 187 (4) 183 Explanation: Prime numbers between 58 and 68 Þ 59, 61 and 67 Required sum = 59 + 61 + 67 = 187
157. The product of digits of a 2-digit number is 24. If we add 45 to the number, the new number obtained is a number formed by interchanging the digits. What is the original number? (1) 54 (2) 83 (3) 38 (4) 45 Explanation: Let the two digit number be 10x + y.
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According to the question, xy = 24 .... (i) And, 10x + y + 45 = 10y + x =>10y + x – 10x – y = 45 =>9y – 9x = 45 =>9(y – x) = 45 =>y – x =45/9 = 5 ... (ii) (x + y)2 = (y – x)2 + 4xy = 52 + 4 × 24 = 25 + 96 = 121 =>x + y = 121 = 11 ... (iii) On adding equations (ii) and (iii), y – x + x + y = 5 + 11 =>2y = 16 Þ y = 8 xy = 24 =>8x = 24 =>x =24/8 = 3 Required number = 10x + y = 10 × 3 + 8 = 38
158. The smallest number, which should be added to 756896 so as to obtain a multiple of 11, is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5 Explanation:
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A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and that at even places is either zero or a multiple of 11. Sum of the digits at odd places = 6 + 8 + 5 = 19 Sum of the digits at even places = 9 + 6 + 7 = 22 Required number=22–19 = 3
159. The product of two numbers is 48. If one number equals “The number of wings of a bird plus 2 times the number of fingers on your hand divided by the number of wheels of a Tricycle”. Then the other number is (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 18 Explanation: According to the question, First number =(2 + 2 × 5)/3 = 12/3 = 4 Second number = 48/4 = 12
LCM & HCF TYPE–I
1. The LCM of two numbers is 864 and their HCF is 144. If one of the number is 288, the other number is: (1) 576 (2) 1296
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(3) 432 (4) 144 Explanation: Using Rule 1, Required number =(LCM×HCF)/First number =(864×144)/288 =432
2. LCM of two numbers is 225 and their HCF is 5. If one number is 25, the other number will be: (1) 5 (2) 25 (3) 45 (4) 225 Explanation: Using Rule 1, LCM × HCF = 1st Number× 2nd Number =>225 × 5 = 25 × x x = (225 × 5)/25 = 45
3. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 1820 and their H.C.F. is 26. If one number is 130 then the other number is: (1) 70 (2) 1690 (3) 364 (4) 1264
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Explanation: Using Rule 1, Given that L.C.M. of two numbers = 1820 H.C.F. of those numbers = 26 One of the number is 130 Another number = (1820×26)/130 = 364
4. The LCM of two numbers is 1920 and their HCF is 16. If one of the number is 128, find the other number. (1) 204 (2) 240 (3) 260 (4) 320 Explanation: Using Rule 1, We have, First number × second number = LCM × HCF Second number = (1920×16)/128 = 240
5. The HCF of two numbers 12906 and 14818 is 478. Their LCM is (1) 400086 (2) 200043 (3) 600129 (4) 800172 Explanation: Using Rule 1, Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM
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=>12906 × 14818 = LCM × 478 =>LCM = (12906×14818)/478 = 400086
TYPE–II 11. The smallest square number divisible by 10, 16 and 24 is (1) 900 (2) 1600 (3) 2500 (4) 3600 Explanation:
12. If the students of a class can be grouped exactly into 6 or 8 or 10, then the minimum number of students in the class must be (1) 60 (2) 120 (3) 180 (4) 240 Explanation: Required number of students = LCM of 6, 8, 10 = 120
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13. The least number which when divided by 4, 6, 8 and 9 leave zero remainder in each case and when divided by 13 leaves a remainder of 7 is: (1) 144 (2) 72 (3) 36 (4) 85 Explanation:
14. The smallest number, which when divided by 12 and 16 leaves remainder 5 and 9 respectively, is: (1) 55 (2) 41 (3) 39 (4) 29 Explanation: Using Rule 5, Here, 12 – 5 = 7, 16 – 9 = 7 Required number = (L.C.M. of 12 and 16) – 7 = 48 – 7 = 41
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15. A number which when divided by 10 leaves a remainder of 9, when divided by 9 leaves a remainder of 8, and when divided by 8 leaves a remainder of 7, is: (1) 1539 (2) 539 (3) 359 (4) 1359 Explanation: Using Rule 5, Here, Divisor – remainder = 1 e.g., 10 – 9 = 1, 9 – 8 = 1, 8 – 7 = 1 Required number = (L.C.M. of 10, 9, 8) –1 = 360 – 1 = 359
Type III 1. The LCM and the HCF of the numbers 28 and 42 are in the ratio: (1)6 : 1 (2)2 : 3 (3)3 : 2 (4)7 : 2 Explanation:
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2. If the ratio of two numbers is 2 : 3 and their L.C.M. is 54, then the sum of the two numbers is (1) 5 (2) 15 (3) 45 (4) 270 Explanation: Let the two numbers are 2x and 3x respectively. According to question, LCM = 54 x(3×2) = 54 => x = 9 Numbers = 2x = 2 × 9 = 18 and, 3x = 3 × 9 = 27 Sum of the two numbers = 18 + 27 = 45
3. The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 120. The numbers are (1) 30, 40
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(2) 40, 32 (3) 24, 30 (4) 36, 20 Explanation: Suppose the numbers are 4x and 5x respectively According to question x × 4 × 5 = 120 =>x = 6 Required numbers = 4 × 6 = 24 and = 5 × 6 = 30
4. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 12. The L.C.M. of the numbers is (1) 144 (2) 192 (3) 96 (4) 72 Explanation: Let the numbers be 2x, 3x and 4x respectively. HCF = x = 12 Numbers are: 2 ×12 = 24 3 ×12 = 36, 4 ×12 = 48 LCM of 24, 36, 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 2 = 144
5. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If their LCM is 240, the smaller of the two number is
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(1)100 (2)80 (3)60 (4)50 Explanation: Let the number be 3x and 4x. Their LCM = 12x According to the question, 12x = 240 =>x =240/12 = 20 Smaller number = 3x = 3 × 20 = 60
Type IV 1. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. The difference of the two numbers is 2. Find the numbers? (1) 8 and 6 (2) 8 and 10 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 6 and 4 Explanation: Using Rule 1, Let the numbers be x and (x + 2). Product of numbers = HCF × LCM =>x (x + 2) = 24 x2 + 2x – 2 4 = 0 => x2 + 6x – 4x – 2 4 = 0 =>x (x + 6) – 4 (x + 6 ) = 0
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=>(x– 4) (x + 6 ) = 0 =>x = 4, as x ≠ 6 = 0 Numbers are 4 and 6.
2. The LCM of two numbers is 495 and their HCF is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 100, then their difference is: (1) 10 (2) 46 (3) 70 (4) 90 Explanation: Using Rule 1, Suppose 1st number is x then, 2nd number = 100 – x LCM × HCF = 1st number × 2nd number =>495 × 5 = x × (100 – x) =>495 × 5 = 100x – x2 =>x2 – 55x – 45x – 2475 = 0 =>(x – 45) (x – 55) = 0 > x = 45 or x = 55 Then, difference = 55 – 45 = 10
3. Two numbers, both greater than 29, have HCF 29 and LCM 4147. The sum of the numbers is: (1) 966 (2) 696
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(3) 669 (4) 666 Explanation: Let the number be 29x and 29y respectively Where x and y are prime to each other. LCM of 29x and 29y = 29xy Now, 29xy = 4147 xy => 4147/29 = 143 Thus xy = 11 × 13 Numbers are 29 × 11 = 319 and 29 × 13 = 377 Required sum = 377 + 319 = 696
4. The sum of the H.C.F. and L.C.M of two numbers is 680 and the L.C.M. is 84 times the H.C.F. If one of the number is 56, the other is: (1) 84 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 96 Explanation: Let HCF be h and LCM be λ Then, λ = 84h and λ + h = 680 =>84h + h = 680 =>h =680/85 = 8 λ = 680 – 8 = 672 Other number = (672×8)/56 = 96
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5. The sum of two numbers is 84 and their HCF is 12. Total number of such pairs of number is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 Explanation: HCF = 12 Numbers = 12x and 12y Where x and y are prime to each other. 12x + 12y = 84 =>12 (x + y) = 84 => x + y = 84/12 = 7 Possible pairs of numbers satisfying this condition = (1,6), (2,5) and (3,4). Hence three pairs are of required numbers.
TYPE–V The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the number is 132, the other number is (1) 12 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 132 Explanation: Let the numbers be 12x and 12y. Their LCM = 12xy when x and y are prime to each other. y =1056/132 = 8=
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Other number = 12y = 12 × 8 = 96
2. The least number to be subtracted from 36798 to get a number which is exactly divisible by 78 is (1) 18 (2) 60 (3) 38 (4) 68 Explanation: When 36798 is divided by 78, Remainder = 60 The least number to be subtracted = 60
3. Find the least multiple of 23, which when divided by 18, 21 and 24 leaves the remainder 7, 10 and 13 respectively. (1) 3013 (2) 3024 (3) 3002 (4) 3036 Explanation: LCM of 18, 21 and 24 = 504 Now compare the divisors with their respective remainders. We observe that in all the cases the remainder is just 11 less than their respective divisor. So the number can be given by 504 K – 11. Where K is a positive integer Since 23 × 21 = 483
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We can write 504 K – 11 = (483 + 21) K – 11 = 483 K + (21K – 11) 483 K is multiple of 23, since 483 is divisible by 23. So, for (504K – 11) to be multiple of 23, the remainder (21K – 11) must be divisible by 23. Put the value of K = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,.....and so on successively. We find that the minimum value of K for which (21K – 11) is divisible by 23 is 6, (21 × 6 – 11) = 115 which is divisible by 23. Therefore, the required least number = 504 × 6 – 11 = 3013
4. The greatest number, that divides 122 and 243 leaving respectively 2 and 3 as remainders, is (1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 30 (4) 120 Explanation: Using Rule 7, Clearly, 122 – 2 = 120 and 243 – 3 = 240 are exactly divisible by the required number. Required number = HCF of 120 and 240 = 120
5. The number of pair of positive integers whose sum is 99 and HCF is 9 is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
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(4) 5 Explanation: Let the numbers be 9x and 9y where x and y are prime to each other. According to the question, 9x + 9y = 99 =>9(x + y) = 99 =>x + y = 11 Possible pairs = (1, 10) (2, 9), (3, 8), (4, 7), (5, 6)
TYPE–VI 1. Which greatest number will divide 3026 and 5053 leaving remainders 11 and 13 respectively? (1) 18 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 60 Explanation:
2. The greatest number, by which 1657 and 2037 are divided to give remainders 6 and 5 respectively, is (1)127
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(2) 133 (3)235 (4) 305 Explanation: We have to find HCF of (1657 – 6 = 1651) and (2037 – 5 = 2032) 1651 = 13 × 127 2032 = 16 × 127 HCF = 127 So, required number will be 127
3. The largest number, which divides 25, 73 and 97 to leave the same remainder in each case, is (1) 24 (2) 23 (3) 21 (4) 6 Explanation: Using Rule 7, Let x be the remainder. Then, (25 – x), (73 – x), and (97 – x) Will be exactly divisible by the required number. Required number = HCF of (73 –x) – (25 –x), (97 –x) – (73 –x) and (97 –x) – (25 –x) = HCF of (73 –25), (97 –73), and (97 –25) = HCF of 48, 24 and 72 = 24
4. What is the greatest number which will divide 110 and 128 leaving a remainder 2 in each case ?
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(1) 8 (2) 18 (3) 28 (4) 38 Explanation: Using Rule 7, Required number = HCF of (110 – 2) and (128 – 2) = HCF of 108 and 126 = 18
5. A milkman has 75 litres milk in one can and 45 litres in another. The maximum capacity of container which can measure milk of either container exact number of times is: (1) 1 litre (2) 5 litres (3) 15 litres (4) 25 litres Explanation: Required maximum capacity of container = HCF of 75 L and 45 L Now, 75 = 5 × 5 × 3 45 = 5 × 3 × 3 HCF = 15 litres
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Percentage TYPE–I 1. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is: (1) 400 (2) 300 (3) 160 (4) 150 Explanation: According to question, A × 80/100 = B × 50/100 B = (A × 80)/50 = 1.6A B = 160% of A x = 160
2. If x is 80% of y, what percent of y is x? (1) 75% (2) 80% (3) 100% (4) 125% Explanation:
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According to question, y = (100 × 100)/80 of x y = 125% of x
3. If 8% of x is the same as 4% of y, then 20% of x is the same as: (1) 10% of y (2) 16% of y (3) 80% of y (4) 50% of y Explanation: 8x/100 = 4y/100 =>y = 2x 20% of x = 10% of y
4. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3 . What is the percentage error in the calculation? (1) 44% (2) 34% (3) 54% (4) 64% Explanation:
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5. If p% of p is 36, then p is equal to: (1) 3600 (2) 600 (3) 60 (4) 15 Explanation: p% of p = 36 =>p/ 100 × p = 36 =>p2 = 3600 =>p = 60
TYPE–II 6. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 20, the larger number is: (1) 25 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 80 Explanation:
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Let the larger number be x According to question, x – 20 = 20% of x Or, x – 20 = x/5 Or, x - x/5 = 20 Or, 5x – x = 20 × 5 Or, 4x = 20 × 5 =>x = 5 × 5 = 25
7. If a number x is 10% less than another number y and y is 10% more than 125, then x is equal to : (1) 150 (2) 143 (3) 140.55 (4) 123.75 Explanation: y is 10% more than 125 = 125 × 110/100 = 1375. y and x is 10% less than y x = (90/100) × y = (90/100) × 1375 = 123.75
8. Two numbers are respectively 12 ⅟2% and 25% more than a third number. The first number as percentage of second number is (1) 50
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(2) 60 (3) 75 (4) 90 Explanation: If the third number is 100, then the numbers are =100+25/2 = 225/2 and 125 respectively. First number as a percentage of the second => {225/(2×125)} × 100= 90
9. Which number is 40% less than 90? (1) 36 (2) 54 (3) 50 (4) 60 Explanation: Required number= 60% of 90 = (90×60)/100 = 54
10. Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37% respectively. The per cent by which the second number is less than the first is (1) 10% (2) 7% (3) 4% (4) 3% Explanation: Third number = 100 First number
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= 70 Second number = 63 Required percentage =7/70×100 = 10
TYPE–III 11. If the total monthly income of 16 persons is 80,800 and the income of one of them is 120% of the average income, then his income is (1) 5,050 (2) 6,060 (3) 6,160 (4) 6,600 Explanation: Let the required income be x Average monthly income = ₹ (80800/16) = ₹5050 x = 120% of 5050 =₹ (120/100) × 5050 = ₹ 6060
12. Mita’s income is 25% more than that of Sita. What percent is Sita’s income less than that of Mita? (1) 25% (2) 24% (3) 22% (4) 20% Explanation: Using Rule 8,
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Required percentage = {25/(100+25)} × 100 = 20%
13. A man spends 12⅟2% of his salary on items of daily use and 30% of the remainder on house rent. After that he is left with 2940. How much is his salary? (1) 4800 (2) 5200 (3) 4500 (4) 4000 Explanation:
14. The monthly income of a person was 13,500 and his monthly expenditure was 9,000. Next year his income increased by 14% and his expenditure increased by 7%. The per cent increase in his savings was
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(1) 7% (2) 21% (3) 28% (4) 35% Explanation: Original savings = (13500 – 9000) = 4500 New income = 114% of 13500 = (114 × 135) = 15390 New expenditure = 107% of 9000 = (107 × 90) = 9630 New savings = (15390 – 9630) = 5760 Percentage increase in savings = {(5760 – 4500)/4500} × 100 = 1260/45 =28%
15. A worker suffers a 20% cut in his wages. He may regain his original wages by obtaining a rise of (1) 27.5% (2) 25.0% (3) 22.5% (4) 20.0%
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Explanation: Using Rule 9, Required percentage of increase = {r/(r-100)} × 100 = {20/(20-100)} × 100 =(20/80) × 100 = 25%
TYPE–IV 15. The difference of two numbers is 15% of their sum. The ratio of the larger number to the smaller number is (1) 23 : 17 (2) 11 : 9 (3) 17 : 11 (4) 23 : 11 Explanation:
16. The price of sugar is increased by 20%. If the expenditure on sugar has to be kept the same as earlier, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 4
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(3) 1 : 6 (4) 1 : 5 Explanation:
17. Rama’s expenditures and savings are in the ratio 5 : 3. If her income increases by 12% and expenditure by 15%, then by how much per cent do her savings increase? (1)12% (2)7% (3)8% (4)13% Explanation:
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18. The ratio of two numbers is 4:5 when the first is increased by 20% and the second is decreased by 20%, the ratio of the resulting numbers is (1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5 Explanation:
19. If 60% of A =3/4 of B, then A : B is (1) 9 : 20 (2) 20 : 9 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4 Explanation:
20. If A exceeds B by 60% and B is less than C by 20%, then A : C is (1) 32 : 25 (2) 25 : 32
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(3) 8 : 5 (4) 4 : 5 Explanation:
TYPE–V
1. The Government reduced the price of sugar by 10 per cent. By this a consumer can buy 6.2 kg more sugar for 837. The reduced price per kg of sugar is (1) 12.50 (2) 13.00 (3) 13.50 (4) 14.00 Explanation:
2. The price of sugar is reduced by 20%. Now a person can buy 500g more sugar for 36. The original price of the sugar per kilogram was (1) 14.40 (2) 18 (3) 15.60
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(4) 16.50 Explanation:
3. A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 6.2 kg more for 1116. The reduced price per kg is (1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 18 Explanation:
4. When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could buy 1 kg more for 270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is (1) 25 (2) 30
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(3) 27 (4) 32 Explanation:
5. A reduction of 20% in the price of an apple enables a man to buy 10 apples more for 54. The reduced price of apples per dozen is (1) 4.32 (2) 12.96 (3) 10.80 (4) 14.40 Explanation:
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TYPE–VI
1. In a school 70% of the students are girls. The numbers of boys are 510. Then the total number of students in the school is: (1) 850 (2) 1700 (3) 1830 (4) 1900 Explanation: Percentage of boys = 100% – 70% = 30% Let total no. of students be x According to question, 30% of x = 510 x=510/30 × 100= 1700
2. If 60% of the students in a school are boys and the number of girls is 972, how many boys are there in the school? (1) 1258 (2) 1458 (3) 1324 (4) 1624 Explanation: 40% of students = 972 60% of students=972/40 × 60 = 1458
3. If 70% of the students in a school are boys and the number of girls be 504, the number of boys is:
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(1) 1176 (2) 1008 (3) 1208 (4) 3024 Explanation: Number of boys= (70/30) × 504 = 1176
6. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits? (1) 32 kg (2) 40 kg (3) 52 kg (4) 80 kg Explanation: Water in 100 kg fresh fruit = 68% Water in dry fruit = 20% Decrease = 48% Dry fruit obtained = 100 – 48 = 52 kg.
7. An individual pays 30% income tax. On this tax he has to pay a surcharge of 10%. Thus, the net tax rate, he has to pay, is (1) 45% (2) 40% (3) 33% (4) 27% Explanation:
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Average 1. The average monthly expenditure of Mr.Ravi’s family for the first three months is Rs 2,750, for the next three months is Rs 2,940 and for the last three months Rs 3,150. If his family saves Rs 4980 for nine months, find the average monthly income of the family for the 9 months? A) Rs. 3800 B) Rs. 3500 C) Rs. 3400 D) Rs. 4200 Explanation: Average monthly expenditure for 3 months = Rs. 2750 Total expenditure for 3 months = Rs 2750 x 3 = Rs. 8250
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Average monthly expenditure for 3 months = Rs. 2940 Total expenditure for 3 months = Rs 2940 x 3 = Rs. 8820 Average monthly expenditure for 3 months = Rs. 3150 Total expenditure for 3 months = Rs 3150 x 3 = Rs. 9450 Total savings for 9 months = 4980 Average monthly income for 9 months = (8250 + 8820 + 9450 + 4980)/9 = 3500
2. The average age of a family of 8 members is 24 years. If the age of the youngest member be 6 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member was? A) 23.42 years B) 21.42 years C) 27.42 years D) 26.42 years Explanation: Total present age of the family (8×24) = 192 years Total age of the family 6 years ago = (192 – 6×7) = 150 years At that time, Total members in the family = 7 Therefore Average age at that time = 150/7 = 21.42 years
3. The average salary of the entire staff in a office is Rs 250 per month. The average salary of officers is Rs 520 and that of non-officers is Rs. 200. If the number of officers is 15, then find the number of non–officers in the office A) 823 B) 81 C) 87 D) 56
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Explanation: Let the required number of non–officers = x 200x + 520 x 15 = 250 (15 + x) =>250x – 200x = 520 × 15 – 250 × 15 50x = 4050 x = 81
4. 3 years ago, the average of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby having been born, the average age of the family is the same today. The present age of the baby is: A) 5 years B) 2 years C) 1 year D) 4 years Explanation: Total age of 5 members, 3 years ago = (17 x 5) years = 85 years Total age of 5 members now = (85 + 3 x 5) years = 100 years Total age of 6 members now = (17 x 6) years = 102 years Age of the baby = (102 – 100) years = 2 years
5. The average age of 30 Boy of a class is equal to 14 years. When the age of the class teacher is included the average becomes 15 years. Find the age of the class teacher? A) 50 B) 44 C) 45 D) 42
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Explanation: Total ages of 30 boys = 14 x 30 = 420 years Total age when class teacher is included = 15 x 31 = 465 years Age of class teacher = 465 – 420 = 45 years
6. There are 50 students in a hostel. Now the number of students got increased by 8. Due to this the expenses of the mess increased by 30 rupees per day while the average expenditure is decreased by 2 rupees. Find the original expenditure. a) 812.5 rupees b) 912.5 rupees c) 1012.5 rupees d) 1112.5 rupees Explanation: Let initial expenditure is E per day. Now it is increased by 30 rupees per day, Initial students = 50 and now they are 58, E/50 – (E + 30)/58 = 2 Solve for E, We will get E = 912.5 rupee.
7. The average age of a class of 32 students is 16 yrs. if the teacher's age is also included, the average increases by one year. Find the age of the teacher A) 49 B) 48 C) 47 D) 50 Explanation: Total age of students is 32 × 16 = 512 Years
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Total age inclusive of teacher = 33 × (16+1) = 561 So, Teacher's age is 561-512 = 49 Yrs There is a shortcut for these type of problems Teacher's age is 16+(33 × 1) = 49 Years
8. The average of seven numbers is 18. The average of first three numbers is 14 and the average of last three numbers is 19. What is the middle number? A) 42 B) 57 C) 27 D) None of these Explanation: The total of seven numbers = 7 × 18 = 126 The total of first 3 and last 3 numbers is = 3 × 14+3 × 19 = 99 So, the middle number is (126 - 99) = 27
9. The average weight of a class of 20 boys was calculated to be 58.4 kgs and it was later found that one weight was misread as 56 kg instead of 65 kg. What is the correct weight? A) 67.4kg B) 57.75kg C) 58.85kg D) 49.4kg Explanation: Actual total weight is (20 × 58.4 - 56 + 65) = 1177 Kgs Actual average weight is 1177/20 = 58.85kgs
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10. The average age of a group of 10 students was 24. The average age increased by 1 years when two new students joined the group. What is the average age of the two new students who joined the group? A) 29 B) 31 C) 30 D) 28 Explanation: The average age of a group of 10 students is 24. Therefore, the sum of the ages of all 10 of them = 10 * 24 = 240 When two students joins the group, the average increase by 1. New Average = 25 Now there are 11 students Therefore, sum of all the ages of 12 students = 12 x 25 = 300 Therefore, the sum of the ages of two students who joined = 300 - 240 = 60 And the average age of these two students = 30
11. The average of 8 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most how many may be greater than zero? A) 4 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Explanation: Average of 8 numbers is = 0 Therefore sum of all 8 numbers = 0 It is quite possible that 7 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is "a" then 8th number is "(-a)".
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12. In the first 35 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 6.4. What should be the run rate in the remaining 15 overs to reach the target of 410 runs? A) 12.4 B) 13.4 C) 15.25 D) 17.25 Explanation: Required Run rate = ( 410 - ( 6.4 x 35 ) )/15 = (186)/(15) = 12.4
13. The average of 12 numbers is 24. If each number be multiplied by 6. Find the average of new set of numbers? A) 48 B) 144 C) 65 D) 121 Explanation: New Average = Old Average x 6 = 24 x 6 = 144
14. There are 459 students in a hostel. If the number of students increased by 36, the expenses of the mess increased by Rs .81 Per day while the average expenditure per head reduced by 1. Find the original expenditure of the mess? A) 7304 B) 7314 C) 7324
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D) 7344 Explanation: Total expenditure = 459x 36 students joined then total expenditure = 459x+81 Average = 459x+81/495 = x-1 x = 16 Original expenditure = 16 × 459 = 7344
15. The average age of a couple at the time of marriage was 20 years. After 8 years of marriage they have a baby of 4 years old. Calculate the average age of the family when the baby was born. A) 16 B) 15 C) 17 D) 18 Explanation: At the time of marriage H+W = 40. So when baby was means after 4 years from their marriage So (40+4+4)/3 = 16
16. The average weight of 40 students in a class is 75 kg. By mistake the weights of two students are read as 74 kg and 66 kg respectively instead of 66 kg and 54 kg. Find the corrected average weight of the class A) 73.50 kg B) 74.50 kg C) 75.50 kg D) 76.50 kg
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Explanation: Weight of 40 students = 40×75 New weight = 40×75 – 74 – 66 + 66 + 54 = 40×75 – 20 So new average =(40×75 – 20)/40 = 74.50 kg
17. There are 50 students in a hostel. Now the number of students got increased by 8. Due to this the expenses of the mess increased by 30 rupees per day while the average expenditure is decreased by 2 rupees. Find the original expenditure. A) 812.5 rupees B) 912.5 rupees C) 1012.5 rupees D) 1112.5 rupees Explanation: Let initial expenditure is E per day. Now it is increased by 30 rupees per day, Initial students = 50 and now they are 58, E/50 – (E + 30)/58 = 2 Solve for E, We will get E = 912.5 rupee.
18. A cricketer has an average of 55 after playing 20 innings. How much runs should he scores in the next inning so as to increase the average to 57. A) 95 B) 96 C) 97 D) 98 Explanation:
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Runs after 20 innings = 55×20, so (1100 + X)/21 = 57, after solving we will get X = 97
19. The present average age of a family of 5 members is 40 years. If the youngest member of the family is 12 years old, then find the average age of the family at the time of birth of the youngest member. A) 32 B) 33 C) 34 D) 35 Explanation: Present age of the family = 5×40 = 200 years. 12 years ago at the time of the birth of youngest member, age of family = 200 – 12×5 = 140. So average age = 140/4 = 35 year
20. The average age of a husband and wife at the time of marriage is 22 years. After 3 years, they have a one year old child. Find the average age of the family of three at the time of birth of the child. A) 14 years B) 15 years C) 16 years D) 17 years Explanation: At the time of marriage sum of the age of husband and wife = 44 years. After three years, total age of the family = 44 + 3+ 3+ 1 = 51 years. At the time of child birth, age of family = 51 -1-1-1 = 48 years. So average age = 48/3 = 16 years
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21. A student was asked to find the arithmetic mean of the following 12 numbers: 3, 11, 7, 9, 15, 13, 8, 19, 17, 21, 14 and x He found the mean to be 12. The value of x will be: (1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 17 (4) 31 Explanation:
22. The average of the marks obtained in an examination by 8 students was 51 and by 9 other students were 68. The average marks of all 17 students were: (1) 59 (2) 59.5 (3) 60 (4) 60.5 Explanation: Sum of total number of 8 students in exam = 8 × 51 = 408 Sum of total number of 9 students in exam = 9 × 68 = 612 Required average=(408 + 612)/17 = 1020/17 = 60
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23. If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively are 50, 55 and 60, then the average marks of all the students is (1) 54.68 (2) 53.33 (3) 55 (4) None of these Explanation:
24. The average of 30 results is 20 and the average of other 20 results is 30. What is the average of all the results? (1) 24 (2) 48 (3) 25 (4) 50 Explanation:
25. If the average weight of 6 students is 50 kg; that of 2 students is 51 kg; and that of other 2 students is 55 kg; then the average weight of all students is
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(1) 61 kg (2) 51.5 kg (3) 52 kg (4) 51.2 kg Explanation:
26. The average of 10 numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 12, then the average of the new set of numbers will be (1) 7 (2) 19 (3) 82 (4) 84 Explanation: If each number is multiplied by a certain number, then the average is also multiplied by that number. Required average =7×12 = 84
27. The average weight of five persons sitting in a boat is 38 kg. The average weight of the boat and the persons sitting in the boat is 52kg. What is the weight of the boat? (1) 228 kg (2) 122 kg
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(3) 232 kg (4) 242 kg Explanation: Weight of the boat = 6 × 52 – 5 × 38 = 312 – 190 = 122 kg
28. Total weekly emoluments of the workers of a factory is 1534. Average weekly emolument of a worker is 118. The number of workers in the factory is: (1) 16 (2)14 (3) 13 (4)12 Explanation: Using Rule 1, Number of workers in the factory =1534/118 = 13
29. 12 kg of rice costing 30 per kg is mixed with 8 kg of rice costing 40 per kg. The average per kg price of mixed rice is (1) 38 (2) 37 (3) 35 (4) 34 Explanation: Total cost price of 20kg of mixed rice (12 × 30 + 8 × 40) = 680 Average per kg price= 680/20 = 34
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30. A library has an average number of 510 visitors on Sunday and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with Sunday is: (1) 285 (2) 295 (3) 300 (4) 290 Explanation:
Ascending & Decreasing order 1. Arrange 4/5, 7/8, 6/7, 5/6 in the ascending order: (1) 4/5, 7/8, 6/7, 5/6 (2) 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 4/5 (3) 4/5, 5/6, 6/7, 7/8
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(4) 7/8, 6/7, 5/6, 4/5 Explanation: Firstly, we express every fraction in decimal form. 4/5=0.8 7/8=0.875 6/7=0.857 5/6=0.83 So, 4/5, 5/6, 6/7, 7/8
2. Arrange the following fractions in decreasing order: 3/5, 7/9, 11/13 (1) 3/5, 7/9, 11/13 (2) 7/9, 3/5, 11/13 (3) 11/13, 7/9, 3/5 (4) 11/13, 3/5, 7/9 Explanation: The decimal equivalent of 3/5=0.6 7/9=0.77 11/13=0.846 Obviously, 0.846 > 0 77 > 0.6 The required decreasing order is 11/13, 7/9, 3/5
3. The fractions 1/3, 4/7 and 2/5 written in ascending order given by: (1) 4/7 < 1/3 < 2/5
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(2) 2/5 < 4/7 < 1/3 (3) 1/3 < 2/5 < 4/7 (4) 4/7 > 1/3 > 2/5 Explanation: 1/3=0.333 4/7=0.5714 2/5=0.4 Clearly, 0.333< 04<0.5714 1/3 < 2/5 < 4/7
4. Six numbers are arranged in decreasing order. The average of the first five numbers is 30 and the average of the last five numbers is 25. The difference of the first and the last numbers is : (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 5 (4) 30 Explanation: Numbers are: a > b > c > d > e > f According to the question, a + b + c + d + e = 5 × 30 = 150 --- (i) b + c + d + e + f = 5 × 25 = 125 --- (ii) By equation (i) – (ii) a – f = 150 – 125 = 25
5. The sum of three consecutive integers is 51. The middle one is: (1) 14 (2) 15
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(3) 16 (4) 17 Explanation: Let the numbers be x, x + 1 and x + 2. x + x + 1 + x + 2 = 51 =>3x + 3 = 51 =>3x = 51 – 3 = 48 =>x =48/3 = 16 Middle number = 16 + 1= 17
Natural Number, Whole Number, Even & Odd Number
1. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 147. Then, the middle number is:
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(1) 47 (2) 48 (3) 49 (4) 51 Explanation: x + x + 2 + x + 4 = 147 =>3x + 6 = 147 =>3x = 147 – 6 = 141 => x =141/3 = 47 Middle Number = x + 2 = 47 + 2 = 49
2. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to: (1) 210 (2) 300 (3) 400 (4) 420 Explanation: Series of first 20 odd natural numbers is an arithmetic progression with 1 as the first term and the common difference 2. Sum of n terms in arithmetic progression is given by.
Sn = (⅟2)n[2a+(n –1)d] Where, a: First term, d: common difference So,
S20= (⅟2) × 20[(2×1)+(2-1) ×2] =10[2+38] = 10 × 40 = 400
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3. The sum of all natural numbers from 75 to 97 is: (1) 1598 (2) 1798 (3) 1958 (4) 1978 Explanation: Series of all natural numbers from 75 to 97 is in A.P. whose first term, a = 75, last term, l = 97 If number of terms be n,
Then, an = a + (n–1)d =>97 = 75 + (n – 1) =>n = 97 – 74 = 23
Sn=n/2 (a+1)
=>S23=23/2 (75+97) = 1978
4. The sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 200, which are multiples of 3 is: (1) 5000 (2) 4950 (3) 4980 (4) 4900 Explanation:
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5. The sum of the squares of three consecutive natural numbers is 2030. Then, what is the middle number? (1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 27 (4) 28 Explanation: Let the three consecutive natural numbers be x, x + 1 and x + 2. According to question, x2 + (x + 1)2 + (x + 2)2 = 2030 =>x2 + x2 + 2x + 1 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 2030 =>3x2 + 6x + 5 = 2030 =>3x2 + 6x – 2025 = 0 =>x2 + 2x – 675 = 0 =>x2 + 27x – 25x – 675 = 0 =>x (x + 27) – 25 (x + 27) = 0 => (x – 25) (x + 27) = 0 =>x = 25 and – 27 Required number = x + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26
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6. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 87. The smallest of these numbers is: (1) 29 (2) 31 (3) 23 (4) 27 Explanation: Let the three odd consecutive natural numbers be x, x + 2 and x + 4. According to the question x + x + 2 + x + 4 = 87 =>3x + 6 = 87 =>3x = 81 x = 27 Smallest number = 27
7. Sum of three consecutive even integers is 54. Find the least among them. (1) 18 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 16 Explanation: Let three consecutive even integers be 2x, 2x + 2 and 2x + 4 respectively. 2x + 2x + 2 + 2x + 4 = 54 =>6x + 6 = 54 =>6x = 54 – 6 = 48 =>x = 8 The least even number = 2 × 8 = 16
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8. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 87. The middle number is (1) 27 (2) 29 (3) 30 (4) 28 Explanation: Let three consecutive natural numbers be x, x+1, x+2. According to the question, x + x + 1 + x + 2 = 87 =>3x + 3 = 87 =>3x = 84 =>x =84/3 = 28 Middle number = 28 + 1 = 29
9. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose square is 84? (1) 38 (2) 34 (3) 42 (4) 46 Explanation: (x + 2)2 – x2 = 84 =>x2 + 4x + 4 – x2 = 84 =>4 x = 84 – 4 = 80 =>x =80/4= 20
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=>x + 2 = 20 + 2 = 22 The required sum = 20 + 22 = 42
10. The sum of all the natural numbers from 51 to 100 is (1) 5050 (2) 4275 (3) 4025 (4) 3775 Explanation:
11. The sum of all the 2-digit numbers is: (1) 4995 (2) 4950 (3) 4945 (4) 4905 Explanation:
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12. The sum of first 50 odd natural numbers is (1)1000 (2)1250 (3)5200 (4)2500 Explanation:
13. The sum of all the 3-digit numbers, each of which on division by 5 leaves remainder 3, is (1)180 (2)1550 (3)6995 (4)99090 Explanation: According to the question, First number = a = 103 Last number = l = 998 If the number of such numbers be n, Then, 998 = 103 + (n – 1) × 5 =>(n – 1) × 5= 998 – 103 = 895
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=>n – 1 =895/5 = 179 =>n = 180 S =n/2 (a+l)= 180/2 (103+998) = 90 × 1101 = 99090
14. The sum of all the 3-digit numbers is (1)98901 (2)494550 (3)8991 (4)899 Explanation: First 3 – digit number = 100 Last 3 – digit number = 999 Number of terms = 900 S =n/2 (a+l) = 900/2 (100+999) = 450 × 1099 = 494550
15. Out of six consecutive natural numbers, if the sum of first three is 27, what is the sum of the other three? (1) 36 (2) 35 (3) 25 (4) 24 Explanation: x + x + 1 + x + 2 = 27
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=>3x + 3 = 27 =>3x = 24 =>x = 8 Three consecutive no's whose sum is 27 are 8, 9, 10. Hence, next 3 consecutive no's having 36 as sum are 11, 12 and 13
16. Which one of the following is a factor of the sum of first twenty five natural numbers? (1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 13 (4) 12 Explanation:
17. The sum of all even numbers between 21 and 51 is (1) 518 (2) 540 (3) 560 (4) 596 Explanation: Sum of first n even numbers = n (n + 1)
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Required sum = Sum of 25 even numbers from 1 to 50 – sum of 10 even numbers from 1 to 20 = 25×26 – 10 × 11 = 650 – 110 = 540
18. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 748. The smallest among them is (1) 188 (2) 186 (3) 184 (4) 174 Explanation: x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 = 748 =>4x + 12 = 748 =>4x = 748 – 12 = 736 =>x =736/4 = 184
19. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, then the largest of those integers in terms of S is (1) (S –10)/5 (2) (S+4)/4 (3) (S+5)/4 (4) (S+10)/5 Explanation: Sum of five consecutive integers = S Third integer = S/5 Largest integer =(S/5) + 2 =(S +10)/5
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20. The sum of all those prime numbers which are not greater than17 is (1) 59 (2) 58 (3) 41 (4) 42 Explanation: Prime numbers upto 17 =>2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 Required sum = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 = 58
21. The sum of the squares of 3 consecutive positive numbers is 365. The sum of the numbers is (1) 30 (2) 33 (3) 36 (4) 45 Explanation: 102 + 112 + 122 = 100 + 121 + 144 = 365 Required sum =10 + 11 + 12 = 33
22. Find three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, three times the second and four times the third together make 191. (1) 19, 20, 21 (2) 21, 22, 23 (3) 20, 21, 22 (4) 22, 23, 24
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Explanation: Numbers = x, x +1 and x + 2 2x + 3x + 3 + 4x + 8 = 191 =>9x = 191 – 11 = 180 =>x = 20 Numbers = 20, 21 and 22
23. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them? (1) 21 (2) 24 (3) 27 (4) 36 Explanation: Let the numbers be 3x, 3x + 3 and 3x + 6 =>3x + 3x + 3 + 3x + 6 = 72 =>9x + 9 = 72 =>9x = 72 – 9 = 63 >x = 63/9 = 7 Largest number = 3x + 6 = 3 × 7 + 6 = 27
24. Find the sum of all positive multiples of 3 less than 50 (1) 400 (2) 404 (3) 408 (4) 412
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Explanation: Sum of all multiples of 3 upto 50 = 3 + 6 + ..... + 48 = 3 (1 + 2 + 3 + .... + 16) ={3×16(16+1)}/ 2 = 3 × 8 × 17 = 408
25. What is the arithmetic mean of first 20 odd natural numbers? (1) 19 (2) 17 (3) 22 (4) 20 Explanation: Sum of first n odd natural numbers = n2 = (20)2 = 400 Required average =400/20 = 20
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Profit & lose 1. A man buys a cycle for ₹ 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the cycle? (1) ₹ 1202 (2) ₹ 1190 (3) ₹ 1160 (4) ₹ 1000 Learning Zone:
2. On selling an article for ₹ 651, there is a loss of 7%. The cost price of that article is (1) ₹ 744 (2) ₹ 751 (3) ₹ 793 (4) ₹ 700 Learning Zone:
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3. A milkman bought 70 litres of milk for ₹ 630 and added 5 litres of water. If he sells it at ₹ 9.00 per litre, his profit percentage is (1) 8 ⅕% (2) 7% (3) 8⅖% (4) 7⅟7% Learning Zone:
5. A man bought an old typewriter for ₹ 1200 and spent ₹ 200 on its repair. He sold it for ₹ 1680. His profit per cent is: (1) 20% (2) 10% (3) 8% (4) 16% Learning Zone:
6. If the cost price is 95% of the selling price, what is the profit percent? (1) 4% (2) 4.75%
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(3) 5% (4) 5.26% Learning Zone:
7. A merchant buys an article for ₹ 27 and sells it at a profit of 10% of the selling price. The selling price of the article is: (1) ₹ 29.70 (2) ₹ 30 (3) ₹ 37 (4) ₹ 32 Learning Zone:
8. If the cost price of an article is 80% of its selling price, the profit per cent is: (1) 20 % (2) 22 1/2% (3) 24% (4) 25% Learning Zone:
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9. Krishnan bought a camera and paid 20% less than its original price. He sold it at 40% profit on the price he had paid. The percentage of profit earned by Krishnan on the original price was (1) 22% (2) 32% (3) 12% (4) 15% Learning Zone:
10. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20% after allowing a commission of 10%? (1) 25% (2) 133 1/3% (3) 33 1/3% (4) 30% Learning Zone:
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11. By selling an article, a man makes a profit of 25% of its selling price. His profit per cent is (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 16 2/3% (4) 33 1/3% Learning Zone:
12. If there is a profit of 20% on the cost price of an article, the percentage of profit calculated on its selling price will be (1) 24 (2) 16 2/3 (3) 8 1/3 (4) 20 Learning Zone:
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13. A man purchased a bed sheet for ₹ 450 and sold it at a gain of 10% calculated on the selling price. The selling price of the bed sheet was (1) ₹ 460 (2) ₹475 (3) ₹ 480 (4) ₹ 500 Learning Zone:
14. By selling an article for ₹ 960 a man incurs a loss of 4%; what was the cost price? (1) ₹ 1,000 (2) ₹ 784 (3) ₹ 498.4 (4) ₹ 300 Learning Zone:
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15. A salesman expects a gain of 13% on his cost price. If in a month his sale was ₹ 7,91,000.00 what was his profit ? (1) ₹ 85,659 (2) ₹ 88,300 (3) ₹ 91,000 (4) ₹ 97,786 Learning Zone:
16. By selling a car for ₹ 64,000, Mr. Rao lost 20%. Then the cost price of the car is: (1) ₹ 72,000 (2) ₹ 76,800 (3) ₹ 80,000 (4) ₹ 84,000 Learning Zone:
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17. A retailer buys a radio for ₹ 225. His overhead expenses are ₹ 15. He sells the radio for ₹ 300. The profit per cent of the retailer is: (1) 25% (2) 26 2/3 % (3) 20% (4) 33 1/3 % Learning Zone:
18. An item when sold for ₹ 1,690 earned 30% profit on the cost price. Then the cost price is (1) ₹ 507 (2) ₹ 630 (3) ₹ 1,300 (4) ₹ 130 Learning Zone:
19. A fan is listed at ₹ 150 and a discount of 20% is given. Then the selling price is (1) ₹ 180 (2) ₹ 150
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(3) ₹ 120 (4) ₹ 110 Learning Zone:
20. By selling 33 metres of cloth, a person gains the cost of 11 metres. Find his gain%. (1) 33 1/3 % (2) 33 1/2 % (3) 33% (4) 34 1/3 % Learning Zone:
21. While selling to the retailer, a company allows 30% discount on the marked price of their products. If the retailer sells those products at marked price, his profit % will be: (1) 30% (2) 42 1/7% (3) 40% (4) 42 6/7% Learning Zone:
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22. A merchant purchases a wrist watch for ₹ 450 and fixes its list price in such a way that after allowing a discount of 10%, he earns a profit of 20%. Then the list price of the watch is (1) ₹ 650 (2) ₹ 700 (3) ₹ 550 (4) ₹ 600 Learning Zone:
23. The cost price of a radio is ₹ 600. The 5% of the cost price is charged towards transportation. After adding that, if the net profit to be made is 15%, then the selling price of the radio must be (1) ₹ 704.50 (2) ₹ 724.50 (3) ₹ 664.50 (4) ₹ 684.50 Learning Zone:
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24. If a shirt costs ₹ 64 aftern20% discount is allowed, what was its original price in? (1) ₹ 76.80 (2) ₹ 80 (3) ₹ 88 (4) ₹ 86.80 Learning Zone:
25. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is ₹ 92 and the total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs is ₹ 77. Find the cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets. (1) ₹ 35 (2) ₹ 70 (3) ₹ 30 (4) ₹ 38 Learning Zone:
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26. If books bought at prices from ₹ 150 to ₹ 300 are sold at prices ranging from ₹ 250 to ₹ 350, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 15 books? (1) Cannot be determined (2) 750 (3) 4,250 (4) 3,000 Learning Zone:
27. If there is a profit of 20% on the cost price, the percentage of profit on the sale price is (1) 16 2/3% (2) 12 %
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(3) 15 1/3% (4) 16 % Learning Zone:
28. Nisha bought a number of oranges at 2 for a rupee and an equal number at 3 for a rupee. To make a profit of 20% she should sell a dozen for (1) ₹ 6 (2) ₹ 8 (3) ₹ 10 (4) ₹ 12 Learning Zone:
29. There is a profit of 20% on the cost price of an article. The % of profit, when calculated on selling price is (1) 16 2/3% (2) 20%
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(3) 33 1/3% (4) None of these Learning Zone:
30. If selling price of an article is 1 1/3 of cost price, find gain %. (1) 25% (2) 33 1/3 % (3) 1.33% (4) 66 2/3 % Learning Zone:
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31. A merchant loses 10% by selling an article. If the cost price of the article is ₹ 15, then the selling price of the article is (1) ₹ 13.20 (2) ₹ 16.50 (3) ₹ 12.30 (4) ₹ 13.50 Learning Zone:
32. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at ₹ 30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is (1) ₹ 240 (2) ₹ 220 (3) ₹ 250 (4) ₹ 225 Learning Zone:
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33. A fruit merchant makes a profit of 25% by selling mangoes at a certain price. If he charges Re. 1 more on each mango, he would gain 50%. At first the price of one mango was (1) Rs. 5 (2) Rs. 7 (3) Rs. 4 (4) Rs. 6 Learning Zone:
34. There is 10% loss if an article is sold at Rs. 270. Then the cost price of the article is
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(1) Rs. 300 (2) Rs. 270 (3) Rs. 320 (4) Rs. 250 Learning Zone: C.P. of article = Rs. x (let). According to the question (x × 90)/100 = 270 =>x =(270 × 100)/90 = Rs. 300
35. If bananas are bought at the rate of 4 for a rupee, how many must be sold for a rupee so as to gain 33 1/3 %? (1) 2.5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Learning Zone:
36. By selling an article for Rs. 450, I lose 20%. For what price should I sell it to gain 20%? (1) Rs. 490
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(2) Rs. 675 (3) Rs. 470 (4) Rs. 562.50 Learning Zone:
37. If the profit on selling an article for Rs. 425 is the same as the loss on selling it for Rs. 355, then the cost price of the article is (1) Rs. 410 (2) Rs. 380 (3) Rs. 400 (4) Rs. 390 Learning Zone:
38. The C.P of 10 articles is equal to the S.P. of 15 articles. What is the profit or loss percentage? (1) 25.5% (2) 35% (3) 10%
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(4) 33.3% Learning Zone:
39. The selling price of 6 bananas is equal to the cost price of 8 bananas. Then the percentage of profit is: (1) 20 (2) 33 1/3 (3) 25 (4) 30 Learning Zone:
40. By selling a bag at Rs. 230, profit of 15% is made. The selling price of the bag, when it is sold at 20% profit would be (1) Rs. 250 (2) Rs. 205 (3) Rs. 240 (4) Rs. 200
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Learning Zone:
41. A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be (1) 40% (2) 100% (3) 120% (4) 140% Learning Zone:
42. A trader sold a cycle at a loss of 10%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 200, there would have been a gain of 6%. The cost price of the cycle is (1) Rs. 1200 (2) Rs. 1205 (3) Rs. 1250 (4) Rs. 1275
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Learning Zone:
43. The cost price of 25 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books. The profit per cent is (1) 20% (2) 22% (3) 24% (4) 25% Learning Zone:
44. If the selling price of 40 articles is equal to the cost price of 50 articles, the loss or gain per cent is
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(1) 25% gain (2) 20% gain (3) 25% loss (4) 20% loss Learning Zone:
45. By selling a tape-recorder for Rs. 1040 a man gains 4%. If he sells it for Rs. 950, his loss will be (1) 5% (2) 4% (3) 4.5% (4) 9% Learning Zone:
46. If the cost price of 20 books is the same as selling price of 25 books, then the loss percentage is (1) 20
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(2) 25 (3) 22 (4) 24 Learning Zone:
47. By what fraction selling price (S.P.) must be multiplied to get the cost price (C.P.) if the loss is 20%? (1)4/5 (2)8/5 (3)5/4 (4)6/5 Learning Zone:
48. A store sells a watch for a profit of 25% of its cost price. Then the percentage of profit against selling price is: (1) 22% (2) 20%
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(3) 18% (4) 15% Learning Zone:
49. To make a profit of 20% the selling price of the goods is Rs. 240. The cost price of the goods is : (1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 210 (3) Rs. 220 (4) Rs. 230 Learning Zone:
50. The per cent profit made when an article is sold for Rs. 78 is twice as much as when it is sold for Rs. 69. The cost price of the article is (1) Rs. 60 (2) Rs. 51 (3) Rs. 55.50 (4) Rs. 70 Learning Zone:
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Let the C.P. of article be Rs. x. According to the question, 78 – x = 2 (69– x) =>78 – x = 138 – 2x =>2x – x = 138 – 78 =>x = Rs. 60
51. The profit (in Rs.) after selling an article for Rs. 524 is the same as the loss (in Rs.) after selling it for Rs. 452. The cost price of the article is: (1) Rs. 480 (2) Rs. 485 (3) Rs. 488 (4) Rs. 500 Learning Zone:
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Rupees & Paisa 1. Two coins of ₹ 1= . A. 20 p B. 200 p C. 100 p D. 50 p
2. ₹ 2000 note is equal to ₹ 50 notes. A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
3. Rani bought a textbook of worth ₹ 207.50 and she gave the cashier ₹ 250. How much she will receive back? A. ₹40.00 B. ₹42.50 C. ₹45.50 D. ₹56.75 Learning Zone: ₹ 250.00 - ₹ 207.50 = ₹ 42.50
4. The cost of 2 metre nylon cloth is ₹ 25 and 2 metre cotton cloth is ₹ 30. What is cost of 4 metre nylon and 4 metre cotton cloth together? A. ₹55.00
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B. ₹75.00 C. ₹110.00 D. ₹220.00 Learning Zone: Price of nylon cloth = 2 × 25 = ₹ 50.00 Price of cotton cloth= 2 × 30 = ₹ 60.00 Total Cost = ₹ 50.00 + ₹ 60.00 = ₹ 110.00
5. Hirak has 6 coin of 50 p and 5 notes of ₹ 50. How much total money he has? A. ₹ 250 B. ₹ 253 C. ₹ 251 D. ₹ 252
Learning Zone: 6 × 50 p = ₹ 3 5 × ₹ 50 = ₹ 250 Total = ₹ 3 + ₹ 250 = ₹ 253
6. How much money has to be paid for 100 grams of sugar if the cost of 1 gram of sugar is 35 paisa? A. ₹ 33 B. ₹ 34 C. ₹ 35 D. ₹ 37
Learning Zone: ₹ 0.35 × 100 = ₹ 35.00
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7. How much amount should be added to ₹ 56.30 to get ₹ 60? A. ₹ 3.70 B. ₹ 4.50 C. ₹ 5.30 D. ₹ 4.20
Learning Zone: ₹ 60.00 - ₹ 56. 30 = ₹ 3.70
8. Convert 2974 Paisa in Rupees A. ₹ 29 and 97 paisa B. ₹ 29 and 74 paisa C. ₹ 28 and 74 paisa D. ₹ 25 and 25 paisa
Learning Zone: 2974/100 = 29.74 = ₹ 29 and 74 paisa
9. The table below shows the cost of different number of tennis balls. Number of tennis balls Total cost 1 ? 3 9 6 18 9 27
What is the cost of one tennis ball? A. ₹ 6 B. ₹ 3 C. ₹ 1
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D. ₹ 9
Learning Zone: 9 ÷ 3 = 3 18 ÷ 6 = 3 27 ÷ 9 = 3
10. How much is the cost of 20 stamps, if the cost of each stamp is 10 paisa? A. 20 paisa B. ₹ 1 C. ₹ 2 D. ₹ 20 Learning Zone: 20 × ₹ 0.10 = ₹ 2
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Discount 1. Applied to a bill for 1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% is: (1) Nil (2) 1,440 (3) 2,500 (4) 4,000 Learning Zone:
2. Successive discounts of 10% and 30% are equivalent to a single discount of: (1) 40% (2) 35% (3) 38% (4) 37% Learning Zone:
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3. The marked price of a watch was 720/-. A man bought the same for 550.80, after getting two successive discounts, the first at 10%. What was the second discount rate? (1) 12% (2) 14% (3) 15% (4) 18% Learning Zone:
4. The marked price of a watch is 1000. A retailer buys it at 810 after getting two successive discounts of 10% and another rate which is illegible. What is the second discount rate? (1) 15% (2) 10% (3) 8%
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(4) 6.5% Learning Zone:
5. Successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of: (1) 30% (2) 15% (3) 28% (4) 12% Learning Zone:
6. The equivalent single discount for two successive discounts of 15% and 10% is (1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 23.5%
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(4) 20.5% Learning Zone:
7. The marked price of an article is 500. It is sold at successive discounts of 20% and 10%. The selling price of the article (in rupees) is: (1) 350 (2) 375 (3) 360 (4) 400 Learning Zone:
8. An item is marked for 240 for sale. If two successive discounts of 10% and 5% are allowed on the sale price, the selling price of the article will be (1) 205.20 (2) 204 (3) 34.80 (4) 36 Learning Zone:
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9. The price of an article is raised by 30% and then two successive discounts of 10% each are allowed. Ultimately the price of the article is (1) increased by 10% (2) increased by 5.3% (3) decreased by 3% (4) decreased by 5.3% Learning Zone:
10. A single discount equivalent to the successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25% is (1) 55% (2) 45% (3) 46% (4) 60% Learning Zone:
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11. List price of an article at a show room is 2,000 and it is being sold at successive discounts of 20% and 10%. Its net selling price will be: (1) 1900 (2) 1700 (3) 1440 (4) 1400 Learning Zone:
12. The difference between a single discount of 30% on 550 and two successive discounts of 20% and 10% on the same amount is (1) Nil (2) 11 (3) 22 (4) 44 Learning Zone:
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13. The marked price of a watch is 800. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts and sells the watch at 612. If the first discount is 10%, the second discount is: (1) 10% (2) 12% (3) 15% (4) 20% Learning Zone:
14. A person paid 17,000 for a motor-car after a single discount of 15%. If he is given successive discounts of 5% and 10% then how much he would pay? (1) 17,000 (2) 17,010 (3) 17,100 (4) 18,900 Learning Zone:
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15. The list price of a clock is 160. A customer buys it for 122.40 after two successive discounts. If first discount is 10%, the second is (1) 10% (2) 12% (3) 15% (4) 18% Learning Zone:
16. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts on an article marked 450. The first discount given is 10 per cent. If the customer pays 344.25 for the article, the second discount given is (1) 14 per cent (2) 10 per cent (3) 12 per cent
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(4) 15 per cent Learning Zone:
17. A company offers three types of successive discounts: (i) 25% and 15%, (ii) 30% and 10%, (iii) 35% and 5%. Which offer is the best for a customer? (1) First offer (2) Second offer (3) Third offer (4) Any one; all are equally good Learning Zone:
18. An article is listed at 900 and two successive discounts of 8% and 8% are given on it. How much would the seller gain or lose, if he gives a single discount of 16%, instead of two discounts? (1) Gain of 4.76
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(2) Loss of 5.76 (3) Gain of 5.76 (4) Loss of 4.76 Learning Zone:
19. A dealer buys a car listed at 200000 at successive discounts of 5% and 10%. If he sells the car for 179550, then his profit is (1) 10% (2) 9% (3) 5% (4) 4% Learning Zone:
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20. An article listed at 800 is sold at successive discounts of 25% and 15%. The buyer desires to sell it off at a profit of 20% after allowing a 10% discount. What would be his list price? (1) 620 (2) 600 (3) 640 (4) 680 Learning Zone:
21. The difference between a discount of 40% on 500 and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% on the same amount is (1) zero (2) 1.93 (3) 2.00 (4) 7.20 Learning Zone:
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22. An article is listed at 920. A customer pays 742.90 for it after getting two successive discounts. If the rate of first discount is 15%, the rate of 2nd discount is (1)3% (2)5% (3)8% (4)12% Learning Zone:
23. The marked price of watch was 820. A man bought the watch for 570.72 after getting two successive discounts, of which the first was 20%. The second discount was (1) 18% (2) 15%
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(3) 13% (4) 11% Learning Zone:
24. A bicycle, marked at 2,000, is sold with two successive discount of 20% and 10%. An additional discount of 5% is offered for cash payment. The selling price of the bicycle at cash payment is (1) 1,368 (2) 1,468 (3) 1,568 (4) 1,668 Learning Zone:
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25. The difference between a discount of 40% on 500 and two successive discounts of 30% and 10% on the same amount is (1) 15 (2) 0 (3) 20 (4) 10 Learning Zone:
26. The marked price of a T.V. is 16,000. After two successive discounts it is sold for 11,400. If the first discount is 5%, then the rate of second discount is (1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 25% Learning Zone:
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27. The difference between a discount of 30% on 2,000 and two successive discounts of 25% and 5% on the same amount is (1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 25 (4) 40 Learning Zone:
28. If on a marked price, the difference of selling prices with a discount of 30% and two successive discounts of 20% and 10% is 72, then the marked price (in rupees) is (1) 3,600 (2) 3,000 (3) 2,500 (4) 2,400 Learning Zone:
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29. Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% is equivalent to a single discount of (1) 60% (2) 49.6% (3) 40.5% (4) 36% Learning Zone:
30. Two successive discounts of 20% and 20% is equivalent to a single discount of (1) 42%
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(2) 40% (3) 36% (4) 34% Learning Zone:
Simple Interest
1. What sum of money must be given as simple interest for six months at 4% per annum in order to earn ₹ 150 interests? (1) ₹ 5000 (2) ₹ 7500 (3) ₹ 10000 (4) ₹ 15000 Learning Zone:
2. A sum of ₹ 1600 gives a simple interest of ₹ 252 in 2 years and 3 months. The rate of interest per annum is: (1) 51 2 %
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(2) 8% (3) 7% (4) 6% Learning Zone:
3. A sum of money lent at simple interest amounts to ₹ 880 in 2 years and to ₹ 920 in 3 years. The sum of money (in rupees) is (1) ₹ 700 (2) ₹ 760 (3) ₹ 784 (4) ₹ 800 Learning Zone:
4. At some rate of simple interest, A lent ₹ 6,000 to B for 2 years and ₹ 1,500 to C for 4 years and received ₹ 9,00 as interest from both of them together. The rate of interest per annum was (1) 5%
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(2) 6% (3) 8% (4) 10% Learning Zone:
5. A lent ₹ 5000 to B for 2 years and ₹ 3000 to C for 4 years on simple interest at the same rate of interest and received ₹ 2200 in all from both as interest. The rate of interest per annum is (1) 7% (2) 5% (3) 7 1/8% (4) 10% Learning Zone:
6. What sum of money will amount to ₹ 520 in 5 years and to ₹ 568 in 7 years at simple interest? (1) ₹ 400
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(2) ₹ 120 (3) ₹ 510 (4) ₹ 220 Learning Zone:
7. ₹ 500 was invested at 12% per annum simple interest and a certain sum of money invested at 10% per annum simple interest. If the sum of the interest on both the sum after 4 years is ₹ 480, the latter sum of money is: (1) ₹ 450 (2) ₹ 750 (3) ₹ 600 (4) ₹ 550 Learning Zone:
8. A money lender finds that due to fall in the annual rate of interest 8% to 7 3/4%, his yearly income diminishes by ₹ 61.50. His capital is (1) ₹ 22400 (2) ₹ 23800
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(3) ₹ 24600 (4) ₹ 26000 Learning Zone:
9. A lends ₹ 2500 to B and a certain sum to C at the same time at 7% annual simple interest. If after 4 years, A altogether receives ₹ 1120 as interest from B and C, the sum lent to C is (1) ₹ 700 (2) ₹ 6500 (3) ₹ 4000 (4) ₹ 1500 Learning Zone:
10. A certain sum of money amounts to ₹ 756 in 2 years and to ₹ 873 in 3 1/2 years at a certain rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is (1) 10% (2) 11% (3) 12% (4) 13%
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Learning Zone:
11. What sum will amount to ₹ 7000 in 5 years at 3 1/3% simple interest? (1) ₹ 6300 (2) ₹ 6500 (3) ₹ 6000 (4) ₹ 5000 Learning Zone:
12. A man took a loan from a bank at the rate of 12% per annum at simple interest. After 3 years he had to pay ₹ 5,400 as interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was: (1) ₹ 2,000 (2) ₹ 10,000 (3) ₹ 20,000 (4) ₹ 15,000
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Learning Zone:
13. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹ 1,012 in 21/2 years and to ₹ 1,067.20 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is: (1) 2.5% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5% Learning Zone:
14. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to ₹ 720 after 2 years and to ₹ 1020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum is: (1) ₹ 500 (2) ₹ 600
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(3) ₹ 700 (4) ₹ 710 Learning Zone:
15. The sum of money, that will give ₹ 1 as interest per day at the rate of 5% per annum simple interest is (1) ₹ 3650 (2) ₹ 36500 (3) ₹ 730 (4) ₹ 7300 Learning Zone:
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Compound Interest 1. At what rate per annum will ₹ 32000 yield a compound interest of ₹ 5044 in 9 months interest being compounded quarterly? (1) 20% (2) 32% (3) 50% (4) 80% Learning Zone:
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2. If the difference between simple and compound interest on some principal amount at 20% per annum for three years is ₹ 48, then the principal amount is: (1) ₹ 450 (2) ₹ 375 (3) ₹ 390 (4) None of these Learning Zone:
3. Find compound interest on ₹ 5000 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded half-yearly.
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(1) ₹ 1077.5 (2) ₹ 1072.5 (3) ₹ 1000 (4) ₹ 1100 Learning Zone:
4. Find compound interest on ₹ 10,000 for 3 1/2 years at 10% per annum, compounded yearly. (1) ₹ 3675.50 (2) ₹ 3775.50 (3) ₹ 3875. 50 (4) ₹ 3975.50 Learning Zone:
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5. Find the present worth of ₹ 9261 due 3 years hence at 5% per annum compounded yearly. (1) ₹ 8000 (2) ₹ 8200 (3) ₹ 8500 (4) ₹ 8700 Learning Zone:
6. Find the ratio of simple interest to compound interest for 2 years at 4% per annum, compounded yearly in case of compound interest. (1) 50 : 53 (2) 50 : 51 (3) 49 : 50 (4) 48 : 53 Learning Zone:
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7. In what time will ₹ 15625 amount to ₹ 17576 at 4% per annum, compounded yearly? (1)4 years (2) 2.5 years (3)3 years (4) 3.5 years Learning Zone:
8. If SI on a certain sum of money at 4% per annum for 2 years be ₹ 125, what would be the interest if it was to be compounded annually at the same rate and for the same time period? (1) ₹ 127.50 (2) ₹ 125.50
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(3) ₹ 135.50 (4) ₹ 138 Learning Zone:
9. The compound interest on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 3 years is ₹ 2522. What would be the simple interest on this sum at the same rate and for the same period? (1) ₹ 2500 (2) ₹ 2400 (3) ₹ 2450 (4) ₹ 2350 Learning Zone:
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10. The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years is ₹ 50 and the compound interest is ₹ 55. Find the rate of interest per annum and the sum. (1)16% P.a. ; ₹ 200 (2)15% P.a. ; ₹ 150 (3)20% P.a. ; ₹ 125 (4)18% P.a. ; ₹ 175 Learning Zone:
11. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum at r% per annum for 2 years is x, find the expression for principal sum. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum at 4% per annum for 2 years is 25, find the sum. (1) ₹ 18625 (2) ₹ 16625 (3) ₹ 14625 (4) ₹ 15625 Learning Zone:
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12. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum at r% per annum for 3 years is Rs x, find the expression for the principal sum. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum at 4% for 3 years is ₹ 608, find the sum. (1) ₹ 125000 (2) ₹ 120000 (3) ₹ 130000 (4) ₹ 122250 Learning Zone:
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13. A sum amounts to ₹ 9680 in 2 years and to ₹ 10648 in 3 years compounded annually. Find the principal and the rate of interest per annum. (1)12% ; ₹ 7500 (2)10% ; ₹ 8000 (3)11% : ₹ 11000 (4) None of these Learning Zone:
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14. Divide ₹ 10230 into two parts such that the first part after 10 years is equal to the second part after 7 years, compound interest being 20% per annum compounded yearly. (1) ₹ 4150 ; ₹ 6080 (2) ₹ 3950 ; ₹ 6280 (3) ₹ 3750 ; ₹ 6480 (4) ₹ 3550 ; ₹ 6680 Learning Zone:
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15. A sum of ₹ 1682 is to be divided between Aand Bwho are respectively 20 years and 22 years old. They invest their shares at 5% per annum, compounded annually. At the age of 25 years both receive equal amounts. Find the share of each. (1) ₹ 730 ; ₹ 952 (2) ₹ 750 ; ₹ 932 (3) ₹ 700 ; ₹ 982 (4) ₹ 800 ; ₹ 882 Learning Zone:
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Reasoning Set-1 1 . In this following question one number is missing in the series, you have to understand the pattern of the series and insert the number. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46 ,? (a) 64 (b) 86 (c) 94 (d) 122 Explanation:
Hence missing term = 46+3×16=46+48=94 2 . In this following question one number is missing in the series, you have to understand the pattern of the series and insert the number. 3, 10, 32, 100, ? (a) 345 (b) 460 (c) 308 (d) 440 Explanation :
So, missing term =100×3+8=300+8=308
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3 .In a certain code language, GOVERNMENT is written as PIFXOTFOUP. How will be the word SHORTAGE written in that code language ? (a) IUSQBFVI (b) IUSQBVFI (c) USQAVFI (d) JIUSJBFJ Explanation :
4 .In the certain code, APPLE is written as BPPLD and CEAT is written as DEAS, then how will be HEART written in that code ? (a) GEARS (b) IEARS (c) HEAST (d) TREEH Explanation :
5 .Introducing a girl, Vipin said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother- in-law.” How is Vipin related to the girl ? (a) Uncle
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(b) Father (c) Brother (d) Husband Explanation : The only daughter of Vipin´s mother-in-law is the wife of Vipin. Therefore, the statement, in the other words implies that “her mother is my wife.” So, we can say that Vipin is the father of that girl. 6 .A man said to a lady, “Your mother´s husband´s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady related to the man ? (a) Daughter (b) Granddaughter (c) Sister (d) Mother Explanation :
Hence, Lady is the sister of that man. 7 .Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 km straight, then turned right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he form the starting point. (a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 18 km (d) None of the above Explanation : Follow the given movements,
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Hence, Value will be decimal but all values are given in natural numbers. 8 . A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the northeast direction of his own village. From there he come to meet his father- in-law living in a village situated 4 km in the south of his uncle´s village. How far away he now ? (a) 3 km (b) 5 km (c) 4 km (d) 6 km Explanation : Follow the movements,
Here, OA2 = OB2 + AB2 => OB2 = OA2-AB2 = 52-42 = 25-16 = 9 => OB = √9 = 3 km
9 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word " CASTRAPHONE" which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) 3 (b) 4
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(c) 5 (d) 6 Explanation :
1. ON - NO
2. HONE - EFGH
3. ST - ST
4. TRAPHO - OPQRST
5. TRAPHON - NOPQRST
6. RAP – PQR
10 . How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) None
Explanation :
Meaningful words are ROSE, SORE and EROS.
Note the meaning of the words SORE and EROS with the help of dictionary.
11 . Directions : In the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below the question 1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito 4. Tiger 5. Whale
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(a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
(b) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
(d) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
12 . Directions : In the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below the question 1. Probation 2. Interview 3. Selection 4. Appointment 5. Advertisement 6. Application
(a) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1 (c) 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
13 . Insert the missing number in each of the following 5 8 3
4 8 11 20 16 10 ?15 8
2 6 6 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 14
(d) 8
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Explanation:
We have : (4+11)-(5+2)=8;(20+10)-(8+6)=16; (15+8)-(3+6)=14. So missing term is 14. So answer is option 3
14 . Insert the missing number in each of the following 15 20 8 10 ? 8
30 12 2 5 6 10 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 22
(d) 12
Explanation:
The pattern is as follows 20+15-5=30; 8+10-6 = 12; so ? +8-10=2 so ?=4 answer is option 1
15 . In this question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearranage these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Since the beginning of history
P : have managed to catch
Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians
R : by a very difficulty method
S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal
The Proper sequence should be:
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(a) QRPS (b) SQPR (c) SQRP (d) QPSR
16 . In this question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearranage these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
I read an advertisement that said
P : posh, air-conditioned
Q : gentleman of taste
R : are available for
S : fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) PQRS (b) PSRQ (c) PSQR (d) SRPQ
Ordering of words-2 19 . Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follow. Which of the following people are sitting to the right of S? (a) OTPQ (b) OTPR (c) UNVM (d) UOTPR
Explanation:
The arrangement of the persons is Q W M V N U S O T P R OTPR are sitting to the right of S.
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20. Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follow.
i. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven friends and are sitting in a circle facing the center of the circle. ii. V is second to the left of S and is the neighbour of T and U. iii. S is not a neighbour of R or T. iv. P is neighbour of Q and R.
Which of the following is correct? (a) Q is between P and S. (b) S is between U and P. (c) T is to the immediate right of V. (d) U is to the immediate left of V.
Explanation:
The persons are sitting in the following way: R
T P
V Q
U S
Hence Q is between P and S.
Set-2 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ? , 394 a) 10
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b) 27 c) 18 d) None of these Explanation : 3 rd, 5 th and 7 th numbers are sum of preceding two numbers. Hence, the missing number is 9 as 18 + 9 = 27 2. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 6, 126, ? ,108 , 12 , 7 ,133, 19, 12, 72, 6 a) 21 b) 23 c) 12 d) None of these Explanation : Number between 1 st and 3 rd, 4 th and 6 th, 7 th and 9 th is the product of the adjacent numbers. Hence, the missing number will be = 21 3. In a certain code , CERTAIN is coded as XVIGZRM, SEQUENCE is coded as HVJFVMXV , then how would MUNDANCE be coded ? a) NFMWZMX B) NFMWZMV C) NFMXZMV d) None of these Explanation : Each letter in the word is replaced by the letter , which occupies the same position from the other end of the alphabet , to obtain the code . 3.In a certain code , RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code?
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a)318826 b)776655 c)786543 d)156724
Word : R I P P L E L I F E P I L L E R Code : 6 1 3 3 8 2 8 1 9 2 3 1 8 8 2 6
5. B5D means B is the father of D. B9D means B is the sister of D. B4D means B is the brother of D. B3D means B is the wife of D. Which of the following means F is the mother of K?
A. F3M5K
B. F5M3K
C. F9M4N3K
D. F3M5N3K
Explanation: F3M → F is the wife of M M5K → M is the father of K Therefore, F is the mother of K.
6. A $ B means A is the father of B; A # B means A is the sister of B; A * B means A is the daughter of B and A @ B means A is the brother of B. Which of the following indicates that M is the wife of Q?
A. Q $ R # T @ M
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B. Q $ R @ T # M
C. Q $ R * T # M
D. Q $ R @ T * M
Explanation: Q $ R → Q is the father of R R @ T → R is the brother of T Hence, → Q is the father of T T * M → T is the daughter of M Hence, → M is the mother of T Hence, M is the wife of Q.
7. Some boys are sitting in three rows all facing North such that A is in the middle row. P is just to the right of A but in the same row. Q is just behind of P while R is in the North of A. In which direction of R is Q?
A. South
B. South-West
C. North-East
D. South-East
Explanation:
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Q is in South-East of R.
8. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?
A. East
B. West
C. South
D. Data inadequate
Explanation: Sun rises in the east. So the shadow of a man will always falls towards the west. Since the shadow of Stephen is to the right of Vimal. Hence Vimal is facing towards South.
9. Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P
If one is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right ?
A) 4 B) 8
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C) 2 D) 1
Explanation: Fourth to the right of the tenth from the right means (10 - 4 = )6th from the right, ie 5. But according to the queswtion, one is subtracted from each of the numbers, ie 4.
10. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
If the first half of English alphabet is reversed and the second half of the English alphabet is left undisturbed then which letter will be 10th to the left of 16th letter from the left?
A) H B) F
C) Z D) U
Explanation: If the first half of the English alphabet is reversed and the remaining part has been left undisturbed, then it becomes very easy to find out the required letters, if required letters come in the first half. According to the question, 10th to the left of 16th letter from the left = (16 - 10 =) 6th letter from the left in new series.
=> 6th letter from the left in new series = (13 + 1 - 6=) 8th letter from the left in the original series, i.e H.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito
4. Tiger 5. Whale
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A. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
B. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
Explanation: The correct order is : Mosquito Cat Tiger Elephant Whale
3 2 4 1 5
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Yarn 2. Plant 3. Saree
4. Cotton 5. Cloth
A. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Explanation: The correct order is : Plant Cotton Yarn Cloth Saree
2 4 1 5 3
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13.Which number replaces 'x' in the below figure ?
A) 2 B) 9
C) 11 D) 12
Explanation:
Here in 2nd column if you add the individual digits
we get 3 + 7 + 0 =10 , 2 + 2 + 4 = 8 , 7 + 3 + 0 = 10
7 10 3 --> 7+3 =10
6 8 2 --> 6+2 =8 x 10 1 --> x+1 =10
Here we can observe that by adding 1st and 3rd column elements we get 2nd column elements
--> x = 9
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14.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
1 3 7
5 12 14
25 ? 28
125 192 56
A) 64 B)56
C) 48 D)40
Explanation:
The sequence in first column is x 5. Thus, 1 x 5 = 5, 5 x 5 = 25, 25 x 5 = 125. The sequence in third column is x 2. Thus, 7x 2 = 14, 14 x 2 = 28, 28 x 2 = 56. The sequence in second column is x 4. .'. Missin number = 12 x 4 = 48.
15. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1: Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants preserved in rocks dating back in millions of years.
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P : Records of the history of the world are contained in fossils.
Q Through the ages, plants have evolved from simple to more complex : forms.
R : First there were water plants then land plants appeared during the Paleozoic era.
S : But since the fossil remains appear locked in rock layers, they are closely related to the geologist area of investigation.
S6: The fossil plants indicate the age of the rock, and also point to facts regarding climate, temperature and topography.
The Proper sequence should be: A. RQSP
B. SQRP
C. PSQR
D. QRPS
16. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
. S1: On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street cafe.
P : At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me, a single gold tooth and a dingy fez.
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Q soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me. :
R : But this one wouldn't budge.
S : We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.
S6: Finally a man walked over to me and whispered, "Hey buddy this guy is your waiter and he wants your order"
The Proper sequence should be: A. SQRP
B. SQPR
C. QSRP
D. QSPR
17. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
When it began to rain suddenly on the first of January P : to celebrate the new year
Q : we ran for shelter
R : to the neighbouring house
S : where many people had gathered
The Proper sequence should be: A. QRPS
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B. PSQR
C. PRSQ
D. QRSP
18. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. He told us that P : and enjoyed it immensely
Q : in a prose translation
R : he had read Milton
S : which he had borrowed from his teacher
The Proper sequence should be: A. RSQP
B. QRPS
C. RQSP
D. RQPS
19.A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ? A. A B. X
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C. S D. Z Explanation: The seating arrangement is as follows:
Therefore, right of P is X.
20. There are 8 houses in a line and in each house only one boy lives with the conditions as given below: Jack is not the neighbour Siman. Harry is just next to the left of Larry. There is at least one to the left of Larry. Paul lives in one of the two houses in the middle. Mike lives in between Paul and Larry. If at least one lives to the right of Robert and Harry is not between Taud and Larry, then which one of the following statement is not correct ? A. Robert is not at the left end. B. Robert is in between Simon and Taud. C. Taud is in between Paul and Jack. D. There are three persons to the right of Paul.
Set-3 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ? a. 35 b. 38
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c. 39 d. 40
Explanation: The pattern is - 21, - 19, - 17, - 15,..... So, missing term = 48 - 13 = 35.
2. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ? a. 58965 b. 65423 c. 89654 d. 96542
Explanation: The digits are removed one by one from the beginning and the end in order alternately so as to obtain the subsequent terms of the series.
5. If A $ B means A is the brother of B; B * C means B is the son of C; C @ D means C is the wife of D and A # D means A is the son of D, how C is related to A?
A. Maternal grandmother
B. Maternal aunt
C. Aunt
D. Mother
Explanation: A $ B → A is the brother of B B * C → B is the son of C
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Hence, → A is the son of C C @ D → C is the wife of D Hence, → C is the mother of A.
6. Pointing to a girl Sandeep said, "She is the daughter of the only sister of my father." How is sandeep related to the girl?
A. Uncle
B. Cousin
C. Father
D. Grandfather
Explanation: The girl is the daughter of the sister of Sandeep's father. Hence, the girl is the cousin or Sandeep is the cousin of the girl.
Direction Seanse-2
7. Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8 km. he turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest distance now from his house? A. 10 km.
B. 16 km.
C. 14 km
D. 2 km.
Explanation:
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8. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is to turn right at 135o and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?
A. West
B. South
C. South-West
D. South-East
Explanation:
Hence he should go in the South-West direction.
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9.B M N G O P C Q R H S T F L U V W X Y A K Z D I E J
Counting from left if it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third and fifth letters from left, using each at least twice and third letter from right in sequence, only once , write the first letter of the word as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed write "M" as your answer, and if no word can be formed write 'X' as your answer.
A) M B) X
C) O D) I
Explanation:
Specified letters from the left are N and O , and the letter from the right is I.
With these letters , according to the conditions given in the question , one Word ONION can be formed. Clearly , first letter of this word is O.
10. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
If the second half of the English alphabet is reversed then which letter will be 4th to the right of 20th letter from the right?
A) U B) K
C) E D) F
Explanation:
4th to the right of 20th letter from the right means (20 - 4 =) 16th from the right.
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16th letter from the right = (26 - 16 + 1 =) 11th from the left, i.e K
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Leaves 2. Branch 3. Flower
4. Tree 5. Fruit
A. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
B. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
C. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
D. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
Explanation: The correct order is : Tree Branch Leaves Flower Fruit
4 2 1 3 5
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Tree 2. Seed 3. Flowers
4. Fruit 5. Plant
A. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
B. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
C. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
Explanation:
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The correct order is : Seed Plant Tree Flowers Fruit
2 5 1 3 4
13.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
13 12 5
17 15 8
25 24 ?
21 20 29
A) 7 B) 9
C) 11 D)15
Explanation: Clearly, (3rd column)2 + (2nd column)2 = (1st column)2 In the first row, 52 + 122 = 132. In the second row, 82 + 152 = 172. Let the missing number in the third row be y. Then y2 + 242 = 252 or y2 + 576 = 625 or y2 = 49 or y = 7.
14.Choose apropriate words which gives a complete meaning to the sentence from the given options.
We were thinking ______it ______something like a requiem for our age.
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A) for, B) for, as because
C) of, as D) of, since
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: Satyajit Ray made several films for children.
P : Later film makers have followed his lead.
Q Today other nations are making the children's film in a big way. :
R : This was at a time when no director considered children as potential audience.
S : Ray was, thus, a pioneer in the field.
S6: But today few think of Ray as a maker of children's films.
The Proper sequence should be: A. PSRQ
B. RSQP
C. RSPQ
D. SQRP
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16. S1: Hungary, with a population of about 10 million, lies between Czechoslovakia to the north and Yugoslavia to the south.
P : Here a great deal of grain is grown.
Q In recent years, however, progress has been made also in the field of : industrialisation.
R : Most of this country consists of an extremely fertile plain, through which the river Danube flows.
S : In addition to grain, the plain produces potatoes, sugar, wine and livestock.
S6: The new industries derive mainly from agricultural production.
The Proper sequence should be: A. QRSP
B. RPSQ
C. PRSQ
D. RQSP
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence 17. In the darkness
P : the long, narrow beard
Q : was clearly visible with
R : the tall stooping figure of the doctor
S : and the aquiline nose
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The Proper sequence should be: A. RQPS
B. PSQR
C. RSQP
D. QPRS
18. We have to P : as we see it
Q : speak the truth
R : there is falsehood and weakness
S : even if all around us
The Proper sequence should be: A. RQSP
B. QRPS
C. RSQP
D. QPSR
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S. 19. Which one is sitting opposite to P ? A. R B. Q C. T
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D. S Explanation:
S is sitting opposite to P.
2o.Who is the fourth person to the left of Q ? A. P B. U C. R D. Data inadequate Explanation:
P is the fourth person to the left of Q.
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Set-4 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 3, 10, 101,? A. 10101 B. 10201 C. 10202 D. 11012 Explanation: Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to the square of the preceding term. So, missing term = (101)2 + 1 = 10202.
2. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, ...... what will be the 8th term ? A. 4370 B. 4374 C. 7443 D. 7434 Explanation: Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,..... So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3. Therefore 8th term = ar8-1 = ar7 = 2 x 37 = (2 x 2187) = 4374.
3. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
A. Brother
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B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Father Answer: Option D
Explanation: The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
6. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q? A. Q - N + M x P B. P + S x N - Q C. P - M + N x Q D. Q - S % P Answer: Option C
Explanation:
P - M → P is the brother of M
M + N → M is the mother of N
N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.
7.One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
A. East B. West
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C. North D. South Answer: Option C
Explanation:
8. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P? A. North B. South C. South-East D. None of these Explanation:
P is in South-West of Y.
9.How many pairs of letters are there in the word " CASTRAPHONE" which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5
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D) 6 Explanation: Looking into the alphabets there are six such pairs namely ON, HONE, ST, TRAPHO, TRAPHON, RAP. 1. ON - NO 2. HONE - EFGH 3. ST - ST 4. TRAPHO - OPQRST 5. TRAPHON - NOPQRST 6. RAP - PQR
10. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z . Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet?
A) X B) W C) I D) H Explanation: In the given alphabet, last but one letter of alphabet is Y. 10th letter to the left of Y is O 8th letter to the right of O is W
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock
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4. Room 5. Switch on A. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 Explanation: The correct order is : Key Lock Door Room Switch on 1 3 2 4 5
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letters 5. Phrase A. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 B. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 D. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 Explanation: The correct order is : Letters Word Phrase Sentence Paragraph 4 1 5 3 2
13.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
72 24 6
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96 16 12 108 ? 18
A) 12 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20 Explanation: In the first row, 72 ÷ (24/2) = 72 ÷ 12 = 6. In the second row, 96 ÷ (16/2) = 96 ÷ 8 = 12. Let the missing number in the third row be y. Then, 108 ÷ (y/2) = 18 or y/2 = 108/18 = 6 or y = 12.
14.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
B G N D J R G N ?
A) U B) V C) W D) X
Explanation: The letters in the first row follow the sequence +5, +7.
The letters in the second row follow the sequence +6, +8. In the third row, the first letter G moves 7 steps forward to give the second letter N. Clearly, the missing letter will be 9 steps ahead of N i.e. W.
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Filed Under: Inserting The Missing Character - Verbal Reasoning - Mental Ability
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important person in the room. P : For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals. Q : On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee. R : While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committe. S : As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities. S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own. The Proper sequence should be: A. RSQP B. PQRS C. SQPR D. QSRP
16. S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe. P : Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is considerable. Q : It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
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R : Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth. S : This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved. S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of attraction gravity. The Proper sequence should be: A. PRQS B. PRSQ C. QSRP D. QSPR
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. When he P : did not know Q : he was nervous and R : heard the hue and cry at midnight S : what to do The Proper sequence should be: A. RQPS B. QSPR C. SQPR D. PQRS
18. It has been established that P : Einstein was
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Q : although a great scientist R : weak in arithmetic S : right from his school days The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ B. QPRS C. QPSR D. RQPS
19. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ? A. A B. X C. S D. Z Explanation: The seating arrangement is as follows: Therefore, right of P is X.
20. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ? A. Between B and D B. Between B and C C. Between E and D
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D. Between C and E Explanation: Therefore, A is sitting in between B and C
Set-5 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 125,80,45,20,?
A. 5 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 Explanation:
The pattern is - 45, - 35, - 25, .....
So, missing term = 20 - 15 = 5.
2. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
A. 32 B. 64 C. 81 D. 256 Explanation:
The series consists of squares and cubes of consecutive natural numbers i.e. 12, 13, 22, 23, 32, 33, 42, .....
So, missing term = 43 = 64.
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3.In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code ? a) MFEDJJOE b) EOJDEJFM c) MFEJDJOE d)EOJDJEFM
The letters of the word are written in reverse order and expect the first and the last letter all other letters are move one step forward 4.In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as C, C is written as D and so on, then how will SMART be written in that code language ? a) TLBSU b)SHBSU c)TNBSU d)SNBRU The letters are coded by moving them 1 step forward.
5. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A. Brother B. Sister C. Nephew D. Cannot be determined Explanation:
If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is Female, the answer is Niece.
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As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.
Note: Niece - A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in- law or sister-in-law. Nephew - A son of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
6. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
A. M - N x C + F B. F - C + N x M C. N + M - F x C D. M x N - C + F Explanation:
M x N → M is the father of N
N - C → N is the sister of C
and C + F → C is the brother of F.
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M.
7. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West Explanation:
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It is clear from the diagrams that new name of West will become South-East.
8. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place? A. West B. South C. North-East D. South-West Explanation:
Hence required direction is South-West.
9.Callous is the opposite of A) emotionally hardened B) insensitive C) sympathetic D) Unkind Explanation:
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A callous person is insensitive or emotionally hardened. Hence, Callous is the opposite of Sympathetic, kind hearted, sensitive, nice,...
10.Alpha is to Omega as First is to what? A) Last B) Beta C) Gamma D) End Explanation: We know that, ALpha and Omega are the first and last lettrs of in the Greek alphabet. Hence, alpha is to omega as first is to last.
11.Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1. Marriage 2. Birth 3. Death 4. Education 5. Job A.1, 2, 4, 5, 3 B.2, 4, 5, 3, 1 C.2, 4, 5, 1, 3 D.4, 5, 1, 2, 3 Explanation: After birth, the education starts, and after completing the education we look for a job and after getting a job we plan to get married, and death comes later.
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12. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1. Cow 2. Grass 3. Milk 4. Curd 5. Butter A.1, 3, 2, 4, 5 B.4, 3, 5, 1, 2 C.3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: A cow feeds on grass then gives milk. The curd is produced from milk and butter is produced from curd. 1. Inserting missing character-2
13. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. 72 24 6 96 16 12 108 ? 18 a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20 Explanation:
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In the first row, 72 ÷ (24/2) = 72 ÷ 12 = 6. In the second row, 96 ÷ (16/2) = 96 ÷ 8 = 12. Let the missing number in the third row be y. Then, 108 ÷ (y/2) = 18 or y/2 = 108/18 = 6 or y = 12.
14.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. B G N D J R G N ? a. U b. V c. W d. X Explanation: The letters in the first row follow the sequence +5, +7. The letters in the second row follow the sequence +6, +8. In the third row, the first letter G moves 7 steps forward to give the second letter N. Clearly, the missing letter will be 9 steps ahead of N i.e. W.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner time.
P : One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
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Q One plate was for himself and other was for his cat. :
R : she drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.
S : He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.
The Proper sequence should be: a) QSPR
b) PSRQ
c) QRSP
d) RPQS
16. S1: Ants eat worms, centipedes and spiders.
P : They are usually much quicker than the ant itself.
Q Nevertheless, these animals do not make easy game for ants. :
R : Besides, they have an extraordinary number of ways of escaping.
S : They also eat larvae and insect adults such as flies, moths and spring tails.
S6: Some jump, and some give out a pungent repellent substance.
The Proper sequence should be: a) SQPR
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b) SPRQ
c) SQRP
d) SRQP
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
17. It was to be P : before their school examination
Q : which was due to start
R : the last expedition
S : in a month's
The Proper sequence should be: a) SRQP
b) RQSP
c) RPQS
d) SPRQ
This time
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18. P : exactly what he had been told
Q : the young man did
R : beyond his dreams
S : and the plan succeeded
The Proper sequence should be: a) QPRS
b) QPSR
c) PQSR
d) QSRP
Set-6 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, ?, 54
A. 18 B. 27 C. 36 D. 81 Explanation: The pattern is x 2, x 3/2, x 2, x 3/2, x 2,..... So, missing term = 18 x 3/2 = 27.
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2. 6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ? A. 201 B. 202 C. 203 D. 205 Explanation: The pattern is x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1, x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1,.....
So, missing term = 101 x 2 + 1 = 203.
3.In a certain code FLOWER is coded as 36 and SUNFLOWER is coded as 81, then how to code FOLLOWS? a) 42 b)49 c)63 d) 36 The word FLOWER has 6 letters . 62 is 36 The word SUNFLOWER has 9 letters. 92 is 81 Like FOLLOWS has 7 letters. So 72 is 49
4.In a certain code ,'il be pee' means 'roses are blue','sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables', How is 'red' written in that code? a)hee b)sik c)be d)cannot be determined
Code Sentence Il be pee roses are blue
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Sik hee red flowers Pee mit hee flowers are vegetables In II and III code ‘hee’ stands for ‘flowers’. So ‘sik’ stands for ‘red’ 5. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl? A. Brother B. Nephew C. Uncle D. Son-in-law Explanation: The father of the boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.
6. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?
A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Data is inadequate Explanation: The man in the photograph is the son of the only son of Lata's grandfather i.e., the man is the son of Lata's father. Hence, the man is the brother of Lata.
7. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ? A. South-East B. South
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C. North D. West Explanation:
At 9.15 P.M., the minute hand will point towards west.
8. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position? A. 15 m West B. 30 m East C. 30 m West D. 45 m East Explanation:
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9.How many pairs of letters in the word 'CHAIRS' have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
A) 2 B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Explanation:
Letters in the word Letters in the alphabet
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CHA− −CHA- - CBA− −CBA- -
RS−−RS-- RS−−RS--
10.How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word?
A) None B) One
C) Two D) Three
Explanation:
Meaningful words are ROSE, SORE and EROS.
Note the meaning of the words SORE and EROS with the help of dictionary.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence . 1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime
4. Judge 5. Judgement
a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
c) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Explanation: The correct order is :
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Crime Police Judge Judgement Punishment
3 1 4 5 2
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Family 2. Community 3. Member
4. Locality 5. Country
a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
b) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
d) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Explanation: The correct order is : Member Family Community Locality Country
3 1 2 4 5
13.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
1 7 9
2 14 ?
3 105 117
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A) 26
B)20
C) 16 D)12
Explanation:
In the first column, 2 x 1 + 1 = 3. In the second column, 14 x 7 + 7 = 105. Let the missing number in the third column be y. Then, y x 9 + 9 = 117 or 9y = 108 or y = 12.
14.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly
11 6 8
17 12 ?
25 34 19
19 28 11
A) 16 B)15
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C) 13 D) 9
Explanation:
In the first column, 17 - 11 = 25 - 19 = 6. In the second column, 12 - 6 = 34 - 28 = 6. Let the missing number in the third column be y. Then, y - 8 = 19 - 11 = 8 or y = 16.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P : There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the island of Venice.
Q In this city there are no motor cars, no horses, no buses. :
R : These small islands are near one another.
S : It is not an island but a hundred and seventeen islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
The Proper sequence should be: a) PQRS
b) PRQS
c) SRPQ
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d) PQSR
16. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.
P : Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form a Hound at midnight on the moor.
Q But they spoke of it in tones of horror. :
R : Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S : This shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
The Proper sequence should be: a) SPQR
b) SPRQ
c) PSRQ
d) PQRS
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
. 17.If you need help P : promptly and politely
Q : ask for attendants
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R : to help our customers
S : who have instructions
The Proper sequence should be: a) SQPR
b) QPSR
c) QSRP
d) SQRP
18. It is easier P : to venture into space
Q : for men
R : beneath their feet
S : than to explore
The Proper sequence should be: a) QRPS
b) QPSR
c) PSRQ
d) PQSR
Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P.
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19. What is the position of T ? A. Just next to the right of Q B. Second to the left of P C. Between Q and R D. To the immediate right of V Explanation:
20. Which one is sitting just right to the V? A. P B. T C. R D. S/Q Explanation:
T is sitting just right to the V.
Set-7 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 5,6,9, 15, ?, 40
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A. 21 B. 25 C. 27 D. 33 Explanation: The pattern is + 1, + 3, + 6,....., i.e. + 1, + (1, + 2), + (1 + 2 + 3),..... So, missing term = 15 + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 25.
2. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ? A. 37 B. 44 C. 50 D. 55 Explanation: The sum of any three consecutive terms of the series gives the next term. So, missing number = 8 + 15 + 27 = 50. 3.In a certain code language : ‘dugo hui mul zo’ stans for ‘work is very hard’ ‘hui dugo ba ki’ for ‘Bingo is very smart’; ‘nano mul dugo’ for ‘cake is hard’; and ‘mul ki gu’ for ‘smart and hard’ Which of the following word stand for Bingo ? a) Jalu b) Dugo c) Ki d) Ba Code Sentence 1.dugo hui mul zo work is very hard 2.hui dugo ba ki bingo is very smart 3.nano mul dugo cake is hard 4.mul ki gu smart and hard
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From second code and its sentence neither ‘ba’ is repeated nor is ‘Bingo.
4.If rain is called water, water is called air, air is called cloud, cloud is called sky, sky is called sea, sea is called road, where do the aeroplanes fly ? a) Water b) Road c) Sea d) Cloud Aeroplanes fly in sky and as per given codes sky is sea
5. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N? A. M + O x N B. M % O x N + P C. M + O % N D. None of these Explanation: Because the sex of O is not known.
6. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statements is/are necessary? The son of D is the grandson of C. B is the sister of D. A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Either 1 or 2
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D. 1 and 2 both are required Explanation:
Given: D is the brother of B. From statement 1, we can detect that D is son of C (son of D is the grandson of C). From statement 2, we can detect that B is 'Female' (sister of D). Therefore, B is daughter of C.
7. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between two cars at this point? A. 65 km B. 75 km C. 80 km D. 85 km Explanation:
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8. Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which directions is now Jayant from X? A. 32 m, South B. 47 m, East C. 42 m, North D. 27 m, South Explanation:
9.If the first and second letters in the word DEPRESSION' were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right ?
A) R B) O
C) S D) P
Explanation:
The new letter sequence is EDRPSEISNO
The seventh letter from the right is P
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10. S L U A Y J V E I O N Q G Z B D R H
What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series :
LA UJ YI EG ?
A) ZH B) IB
C) NR D) QH
Explanation:
The first letter follows +1, +2, +3, +4, ....
The second letter follows +2, +3, +4, +5,....
11.Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death
4. Unemployment 5. Disease
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Explanation:
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The correct order is : Population Unemployment Poverty Disease Death
2 4 1 5 3
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Leaf 2. Fruit 3. Stem
4. Root 5. Flower
A. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
Explanation: The correct order is : Root Stem Leaf Flower Fruit
4 3 1 5 2
13.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
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2 4 6 ?
A)16,8 B)49,7
C)36,4 D)25,5
Explanation:
The numbers in the first row form a series 12, 22, 32. So, missing number in the first row = 42 = 16. The number in the second row from the series, 1, 2, 3, 4. The number in the third row from the series 2, 4, 6. So, missing number in the third row = 6 + 2 = 8.
14.In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. 28 60 48
5 6 7
17 30 7
7 ? 16
A) 18 B)23
C) 24 D)27
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Explanation:
The number in the second column is three times the difference between the numbers in the third and first columns. So, missing number = 3 x ( 16 - 7 ) = 3 x 9 = 27.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15.S1: A father having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny morning to slip into a pub for a glass of beer.
P : Indignant at her husband's behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson.
Q : She wheeled away the pram.
R : A little later, his wife came by, where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby.
S : Leaving the pram outside, he disappeared inside the bar.
S6: She waited for him, anticipating the white face and quivering lips which would soon appear with the news that the baby had been stolen.
The Proper sequence should be: A. SRPQ
B. RQPS
C. SPQR
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D. PQSR
16. S1: The city is almost a slum and stinks most of time.
P : The slush on the road did not deter them.
Q The occasional slips and falls were considered a small price to pay for : the trip.
R : They were excited, fascinated by the sight of fresh snow on the roads.
S : Even so, it looked beautiful to tourists of various categories.
S6: But some visitors came away with the unforgettable sight of young labours scantily clad.
The Proper sequence should be: A. RQPS
B. QPRS
C. RSQP
D. SPQR
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
17. They felt safer P : to watch the mountain
Q : of more than five miles
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R : as they settled down
S : from a distance
The Proper sequence should be: A. RPSQ
B. RSQP
C. PQSR
D. PRSQ
18. People P : at his dispensary
Q : went to him
R : of all professions
S : for medicine and treatment
The Proper sequence should be: A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. RQSP
D. QRPS
Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P.
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19. Which of the following statement is not true ? A. S is just next to the right to R B. T is just next to the right of V C. R is second to the left of T D. P is second to the right of R Explanation:
20. If P and R interchange their positions then which of the following pair will sit together ? A. RT B. PV C. VT D. QV Explanation: After changing the position of P and R
V and T are together.
Set-8 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.
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1. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ? A. 42 B. 43 C. 51 D. 52 Explanation: The given sequence is a combination of two series : I. 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ? and II. 4, 7, 13, 22, 34 The pattern in I is + 4, + 6, + 8, + 10,..... The pattern in II is + 3, + 6, + 9, + 12,..... So, missing term = 31 + 12 = 43.
2. 198, 194, 185, 169, ? A. 92 B. 112 C. 136 D. 144 Explanation: The pattern is - 4, - 9, - 16,.....i.e. - 22, - 32, - 42,..... So, missing pattern = 169 - 52 = 169 - 25 = 144. 3.If Orange is called Lemon, Lemon is called Flower, Flower is called Fish, Fish is called Tail and Tail is called Pen, what is Rose ? a) Pen b) Lemon c) Flower d) Fish
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Rose is a flower and as per given codes flower is fish.
4.In a certain code language $#* means ‘Shirt is clean’, @ D# means ‘Clean and neat’ and @ ? means ‘neat boy’, then what is the code for ‘and’ in that language a) # b) D c) @ d) Data inadequate
Code sentence $#* ‘Shirt is clean’, @ D# ‘Clean and neat’ @ ? ‘neat boy’ Here # stands for clean and @ stands for neat. D stands for ‘and’ 5. If A + B means A is the father of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the wife of B and A x B means A is the mother of B, which of the following shows that M is the maternal grandmother of T? A. M x N % S + T B. M x N - S % T C. M x S - N % T D. M x N x S % T Explanation: M x N → M is the mother of N N % S → N is the wife of S and S + T → is the father of T. Hence, M is the maternal grandmother of T. 6. Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai is related to the man in the photograph? A. Nephew B. Brother
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C. Father D. Maternal Uncle Explanation: The man in the photo is the son of the sister of Bajpai. Hence, Bajpai is the maternal uncle of the man in the photograph. 7. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing? A. North B. South C. East D. Data is inadequate Explanation:
In the evening sun sets in West. Hence then any shadow falls in the East. Since Hema's shadow was to the right of Hema. Hence Rekha was facing towards South.
8. A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially? A. 1 km B. 2 km C. 3 km
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D. 5 km Explanation:
The boy rode 2 km. Northward. The boy rode 2 km. Northward.
9.If in the word 'DISTURBANCE', the first letter is interchanged with the last letter, the second letter is interchanged with the tenth letter and so on, which letter would come after the letter T in the newly formed word ?
A) S B) I
C) T D) N
Explanation: The new letter sequence is E C N A B R U T S I D
Clearly, S comes after T
10.Tract of land used for raising crops or livestock.
A) A field B) A farm
D) None of C) Both A & B the above
Explanation: A tract of land used for raising crops or livestockcan be called a field or a farm.
11.Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
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1. Nation 2. Village 3. City
4. District 5. State
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Explanation: The correct order is : Village City District State Nation
2 3 4 5 1
. 12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Caste 2. Family 3. Newly married Couple
4. Clan 5. Species
A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
Explanation: The correct order is :
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Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species
3 2 1 4 5
13.CKOSKM1624?919?JRTXPVCK169JROS2419TXKM??PV
A) 14,21 B) 21,14
C) 56,84 D) 84,56
Answer: B) 21,14
Explanation: Putting A=1, B=2, C=3,..., M=13,....,X=24,Y=25, Z=26, we have :
JR = J + R2 + 2 = 10 + 18 2 + 2 = 16JR = J + R2 + 2 = 10 + 18 2 + 2 = 16
CK = C + K2 + 2 = 3 + 112 + 2 = 9CK = C + K2 + 2 = 3 + 112 + 2 = 9
TX = T + X2+ 2 = 20 + 242 + 2 = 24TX = T + X2+ 2 = 20 + 242 + 2 = 24
OS = O + S2 + 2 = 15 + 192 + 2 = 19OS = O + S2 + 2 = 15 + 192 + 2 = 19
So, the missing numbers are : 21 and 14
Hence, the answer is (b).
14.What value replaces " ? " in the below figure ?
A) 4 B) 3
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C) 2 D) 1
Explanation: Here it follows
426−153=2426-153=2 and 3819−2010 =03819-2010 =0
In the same way 399−93=1399-93=1
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15.S1: You know my wife, Madhavi, always urged me to give up smoking.
P : I really gave it up.
Q : And so When I went to jail I said to myself I really must give it up, if for no other reason than of being self-reliant.
R : When I emerged from jail, I wanted to tell her of my great triumph.
S : But when I met her, there she was with a packet of cigarettes.
S6: poor girl!.
The Proper sequence should be: A. PSRQ
B. SPQR
C. QPRS
D. RSPQ
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16.S1: When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins by going slowly upwards through the air.
P : However, the higher it goes, the less air it meets.
Q : As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster.
R : For the atmosphere becomes thinner.
S : As a result there is less friction.
S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hot.
The Proper sequence should be: A. QPRS
B. QSPR
C. PQRS
D. PQSR
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
17.The national unity of a free people
P : to make it impracticable
Q : for there to be an arbitrary administration
R : depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power
S : against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
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The Proper sequence should be: A. QRPS
B. QRSP
C. RPQS
D. RSPQ
18.The grocer P : did not listen to the protests of customer
Q : who was in the habit of weighing less
R : whom he had cheated
S : with great audacity
The Proper sequence should be: A. PRSQ
B. QSPR
C. QPRS
D. PQSR
In a class there are seven students (including boys and girls) A, B, C, D, E, F and G. They sit on three benches I, II and III. Such that at least two students on each bench and at least one girl on each bench. C who is a girl student, does not sit with A, E and D. F the boy student sits with only B. A sits on the bench I with his best friends. G sits on the bench III. E is the brother of C. 19. Who sits with C ? A. B B. D
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C. G D. E Explanation:
G sits with C.
20. On which bench there are three students ? A. Bench I B. Bench II C. Bench III D. Bench I or II Explanation:
There are three students in Bench I.
Set-9 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 2, 3, 5,7,11,?, 17
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A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15 Explanation: Clearly, the given series consists of prime numbers starting from 2. So, the missing term is the prime number after 11, which is 13. 2. 6, 12, 21, ?, 48 A. 33 B. 38 C. 40 D. 45 Explanation: The pattern is + 6, + 9, + 12, + 15, ..... So, missing term = 21 + 12 = 33.
3.In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code ?
A) SHFDQ B) HFDSQ
C) RSAFD D) QDFHS
Explanation: The letter of the word are written in a reverse order and then each letter is moved one step backward to obtain the code.
4.If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?
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A) EDRIRL B) DCQHQK
C) ESJFME D) DEQJQM
Explanation: The first, second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth letters of th word are respectively moved two, three, four, five, six and seven steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
5. Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to Deepak? A. Son B. Brother C. Cousin D. Brother-in-law Explanation: Father's wife → mother. Hence, the daughter of the mother means sister and sister's younger brother means brother. Therefore, the boy is the brother of Deepak. 6. Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only daughter of the father of my mother." How X is related to the person of photograph? A. Daughter B. Son C. Nephew D. Cannot be decided
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Explanation: 'The only daughter of the father of X's mother' means mother of X. Hence X is the son of the lady in the photograph. Note: Still have doubt like "How X is a male?"
7. K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K?
A. East
B. West
C. North-East
D. South
Explanation:
Hence M is in the East of K.
8. A man walks 2 km towards North. Then he turns to East and walks 10 km. After this he turns to North and walks 3 km. Again he turns towards East and walks 2 km. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 10 km
B. 13 km
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C. 15 km
D. None of these
Explanation:
9.If the first half of the English alphabet is reversed and then next portion of English alphabet is reversed so as 'A' takes the portion of 'M' and 'N' takes the portion of 'z' then which letter will be 6th to the left of 17th letter to the right of 7th leter from the left?
A) U B) V
C) C D) D
Explanation: 6th to the left of 17th letter to the right of 7th letter from the left = 6th to the left of (17+7 =) 24th letter from the left = (24-6 =) 18th letter from the left.
Thus, we have to count from the left and we have to find out 18th letter from the left that falls into the second section of English alphabet. Here, both the first half and the second half of the English alphabet have been reversed and we have to count from the left end, then the required letter can be found out using the formula given below. Suppose , the first and the second reversed sections of
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the English alphabet are αα and ββ respectively. Then, The required letter = 2α+β+1−(required position of letter from left side)2α+β+1- (required position of letter from left side)
Therefore, The required letter = 26 + 13 + 1 - 18 = 22 = V
10.LAP BUT CAR SON HID
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form a meaningful word in the new arrangement?
A) HID B) SON
C) Both LAP D) Both CAR and BUT and LAP
Explanation: When positions of first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, we have PAL TUB RAC NOS DIH
Clearly, PAL and TUB are the only meaningful words. These words are obtained from LAP and BUT respectively.
11.Arrange the following words in a logical sequence. 1. Iron 2. Copper 3. Gold 4. Silver 5. Aluminium
A.2, 1, 4, 3, 5 B.2, 1, 3, 4, 5 C.1, 2, 5, 4, 3 D.1, 5, 2, 4, 3
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Explanation:
Iron is cheaper than aluminium and aluminium is cheaper than copper. Copper is cheaper than silver and silver is cheaper than gold.
12.Arrange the following words in a logical sequence. 1. Chair 2. Wood 3. Seed 4. Plant 5. Tree
A.3, 4, 5, 2, 1 B.3, 5, 4, 2, 1 C.3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D.4, 3, 5, 2, 1
Explanation: The seed produces a plant which becomes tree as it grows. Wood is obtained from tree and wood is used to make chairs.
13. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. 1 4 9 ? 1 2 3 4 2 4 6 ? a. 16,8 b. 49, 7 c. 36, 4 d. 25, 5
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Explanation: The numbers in the first row form a series 12, 22, 32. So, missing number in the first row = 42 = 16. The number in the second row from the series, 1, 2, 3, 4. The number in the third row from the series 2, 4, 6. So, missing number in the third row = 6 + 2 = 8.
14. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. 28 60 48 5 6 7 17 30 7 7 ? 16 a. 18 b. 23 c. 24 d. 27 Explanation: The number in the second column is three times the difference between the numbers in the third and first columns. So, missing number = 3 x ( 16 – 7 ) = 3 x 9 = 27. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.
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P : The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from : the water.
R : The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S : The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.
The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. QPSR
D. QPRS
16. S1: Smoke oozed up between the planks.
P : Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.
Q : The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire.
R : Everyone now knew there was fire on board.
S : Flames broke out here and there.
S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.
The Proper sequence should be:
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A. SRQP
B. QPSR
C. RSPQ
D. QSRP
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17.Since the beginning of history
P : have managed to catch
Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians
R : by a very difficulty method
S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRPS
B. SQPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
18. A French woman
P : committed suicide
Q : where she had put up
The Proper sequence should be:
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R : who had come to Calcutta
S : by jumping from the first floor balcony of the hotel
A. PRQS
B. QSRP
C. RPSQ
D. SRQP
Set-10 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. Which term of the series 5, 10, 20, 40, ..... is 1280? A. 10th B. 9th C. 8th D. None of these Explanation: Clearly, 5 x 2 = 10, 10 x 2 = 20, 20 x 2 = 40,..... So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 5 and r = 2. Let 1280 be the rath term of the series. Then, 5x2n-1 = 1280 2n-1 = 256 = 28 n - 1 = 8 n = 9.
2. 2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27 A. 14
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B. 16 C. 18 D. 24 Explanation: The pattern is + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6,..... So, missing term = 9 + 5 = 14.
3.If the code of STEADY is 931785 and that of ENTRY is 12345, what will be the code of SE- DATE? (1) 814195 (2) 954185 (3) 614781 (4) 918731 62. If D = 4, SHE = 32, then DINESH = ? (1) 57 (2) 52 (3) 49 (4) 59 5. Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok, is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok? A. Mother-in-law
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B. Aunt C. Wife D. None of these Explanation: Ashok is the only brother of Sudeep and Veena is the sister-in-law of Ashok. Hence Veena is the wife of Sudeep. Kalyani is the mother-in-law of Veena. Kalyani is the mother of Ashok.
6. If A + B means A is the sister of B; A x B means A is the wife of B, A % B means A is the father of B and A - B means A is the brother of B. Which of the following means T is the daughter of P? A. P x Q % R + S - T B. P x Q % R - T + S C. P x Q % R + T - S D. P x Q % R + S + T Explanation: P x Q → P is the wife of Q Q % R → Q is the father of R R - T → R is the brother of T T + S → T is the sister of S. Therefore, T is the daughter of P. 7. The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How much total distance is covered by the cat? A. 10 B. 14 C. 38 D. 48
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Explanation:
8. One morning sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to the right. Now in which direction is she facing? A. North B. South C. North-East D. South-West Explanation:
Hence finally Sujata will face towards North. Hence finally Sujata will face towards North.
9.A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z.
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right?
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A) R B) I
C) J D) S
Explanation: Find out the positions of both the letters from the left and divide the sum of the positions of both the letters from the left by 2. Here 13+23=36. Now divide 36 by 2 , i.e 18. Hence R is the required letter.
10.C U B A E D E D A B E B A U C D B C A D B D U B C A C B E D A
If all the A's are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?
A) E B) C
C) D D) U
Explanation: If all the A's are dropped from the above arrangement, we get
C U B E D E D B E B U C D B C D B D U B C C B E D.
Here the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement is U
11.Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1. Arrest 2. Punishment 3. Prison 4. Crime 5. Judgment
A.4, 1, 5, 2, 3
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B.4, 1, 5, 3, 2 C.4, 5, 2, 1, 3 D.4, 5, 2, 3, 1
Explanation:
Crime happens first then the criminal is arrested and then comes the judgment after that punishment is announced and the criminal is sent to prison.
12.Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1. Dish 2. Market 3. Cooking 4. Cutting 5. Vegetable
A.5, 3, 1, 2, 4 B.2, 5,4,3,1 C.2, 5, 4, 1, 3 D.2, 5,3,4,1
Explanation:
We go to the market to buy vegetables then we cut the vegetable before cooking. After cooking is done, the dish is ready. 13. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly. 1 7 9 2 14 ? 3 105 117
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a. 26 b. 20 c. 16 d. 12 Explanation:
In the first column, 2 x 1 + 1 = 3. In the second column, 14 x 7 + 7 = 105. Let the missing number in the third column be y. Then, y x 9 + 9 = 117 or 9y = 108 or y = 12.
14. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly 11 6 8 17 12 ? 25 34 19 19 28 11 a. 16 b. 15 c. 13 d. 9 Explanation: In the first column, 17 – 11 = 25 – 19 = 6. In the second column, 12 – 6 = 34 – 28 = 6. Let the missing number in the third column be y. Then, y – 8 = 19 – 11 = 8 or y = 16.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
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15. S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.
P : As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q : It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R : They run down the centre of the road
S : To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
The Proper sequence should be: A. PRSQ
B. PSQR
C. SQRP
D. RPSQ
16. S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P : Then a chance Customer would come.
Q Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else's :
R : Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.
S : He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.
The Proper sequence should be:
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A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
.
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
17. Then P : it struck me
Q : of course
R : suitable it was
S : how eminently
The Proper sequence should be: A. SPQR
B. QSRP
C. PSRQ
D. QPSR
18. I read an advertisement that said P : posh, air-conditioned
Q : gentleman of taste
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R : are available for
S : fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS
B. PSRQ
C. PSQR
D. SRPQ
Set-11 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 2, 3, 3, 5, 10, 13, ?, 43, 172, 177 A. 23 B. 38 C. 39 D. 40 Explanation: The pattern is + 1, x 1, + 2, x 2, + 3, x 3, + 4, x 4, + 5. So, missing term = 13 x 3 = 39.
2. 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ? A. 316 B. 1135 C. 1288
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D. 2254 Explanation: The pattern is x 3, + 4, x 5, + 6, x 7,..... So, missing term = 1127 + 8 = 1135.
3. ZEBRA can be written as 2652181. How COBRA can be written? (1) 1182153 (2) 3152181 (3) 31822151 (4) 302181
4. If A = 1 and LATE = 38, what is REBUT? (1) 65 (2) 66 (3) 64 (4) 67
5. Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, "Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother." How is the woman related to Abhijit? A. Sister B. Grandmother C. Mother-in-law D. Mother Explanation:
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Daughter of Abhijit's brother → niece of Abhijit. Thus the granddaughter of the woman is Abhijit's niece. Hence, the woman is the mother of Abhijit. 6. Amit said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to the girl? A. Brother B. Grandfather C. Husband D. Father-in-law Explanation: The girl is the wife of grandson of Amit's mother i.e., the girl is the wife of son of Amit. Hence, Amit is the father-in-law of the girl. 7. X started to walk straight towards south. After walking 5 m he turned to the left and walked 3 m. After this he turned to the right and walked 5 m Now to which direction X is facing? A. North-East B. South C. North D. South-West Explanation: Hence X will face in the end towards South.
8. Hemant in order to go to university started from his house in the east and came to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the university? A. North B. South C. East
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D. West Explanation: Therefore university is in North.
9. C L R T B Q S M A P D I N F J K G Y X Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1. LBT 2.IJF 3. PID 4. BMS A) BMS B) LBT C) IJF D) PID Explanation: L→+3B→−1T I→+3J→−1F P→+2I→−1D B→+3→−1S Therefore, PID is not in the form of other patterns.
10. If the position of the first letter of English alphabet is interchanged with the position of the fourteenth letter, second letter with fifteenth letter, and so on, in such a way that M is interchanged with Z, then which of the following letters will be 7th to the right of 13th letter from the right? A) U B) G C) H D) I Explanation: It means that the first half of the alphabet is interchanged with second half of the alphabet. After making changes, nth letter from the left will be (n + 13)th letter of original series, ie English alphabet; If n is less than 14. But if n is more than 13, nth letter from left will be (n - 13)th letter from left.
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In the given equation, we have to find out (13 - 7 =) 6th letter from right => (26 - 6 + 1 =) 21st letter from the left. Hence, required letter's position is more than 13; therefore the required letter is (21 - 13 =) 8th letter from left of original series, ie H.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Probation 2. Interview 3. Selection 4. Appointment 5. Advertisement 6. Application A. 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1 B. 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1 D. 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Country 2. Furniture 3. Forest 4. Wood 5. Trees A. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 D. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
13.
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A. 535 B. 577 C. 755 D. 775 Sol. In the first column, 3 × 100 + 5 × 9 = 345. In the second column, 4 × 100 + 6 × 10 = 460. In the third column, missing number = 5 × 100 + 7 × 11 = 577.
14.
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A. 22 B. 33 C. 66 D. 77 Sol. In the first row, ( 42 - 38 ) × 11 = 44. In the second row, ( 28 - 23 ) × 11 = 55. In the third row, missing number = ( 39 - 37 ) × 11 = 2 × 11 = 22.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: Once upon atime there lived three young men in a certain town of Hindustan. P : All the people of the neighbourhood were mortally afraid of them. Q : They were so powerful that they could catch growing lions and tear them to pieces. R : Someone told them that they would become immortal if they killed Death. S : The young men believed themselves to be very good friends. S6: All of them set out in search of their foe called Death. The Proper sequence should be: A. QPRS B. SQPR
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C. RSQP D. SRPQ 16. S1: Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many applications. P : Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process making them a viable alternative to metals. Q : Polymers are essentially a long chains of hydrocarbon molecules. R : Today polymers as strong as metals have been developed. S : These have replaced the traditional chromium-plated metallic bumpers in cars. S6: Many Indian Institutes of science and Technology run special programmes on polymer science. The Proper sequence should be: A. QRSP B. RSQP C. RQSP D. QRPS
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. He sat P : through the Town Hall Park Q : which flanked a path running R : under the boughs S : of a spreading tamarind tree The Proper sequence should be: A. PQSR
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B. RSQP C. RSPQ D. PRSQ Answer: Option B
18. I don't remember P : I saw a man dying in front of a hospital Q : but when I left lucknow in 1984 R : hit apparently by a fast moving car S : the exact date The Proper sequence should be: A. SQRP B. SQPR C. QRPS D. SPRQ Explanation: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre: P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P. V is the neighbour of U. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
19. Which two of the following are not neighbours ? A. RV B. UV C. RP
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D. QW Explanation:
20. Which one is immediate right to the V ?
A. P B. U C. R D. T Answer: Option D Explanation:
T is immediate right to the V.
Set-12 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.
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1. 2, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, ? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 Explanation: The given sequence is a combination of three series : I. 1st, 4th, 7th, 10th, 13th terms i.e. 2, 4, 6, 8, ? II. 2nd, 5th, 8th, 11th terms i.e. 1, 4, 7, 10 III. 3rd, 6th, 9th, 12th terms i.e. 2, 5, 8, 11 Clearly, I consists of consecutive even numbers. So, the missing term is 10.
2. Which of the following will not be a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,.....? A. 256 B. 512 C. 729 D. 1000 Explanation: The given series consists of cubes of natural numbers only. 256 is not the cube of any natural number.
3. If A = 1, LOT = 47, then MAT = ? (1) 40 (2) 66 (3) 34
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(4) 51
4. If E = 5 and HOTEL = 12, how will you code LAMB? (1) 28 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 26
5. A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A? To answer this question which of the statements (1) and (2) is necessary? C is the brother of A and the son of E. F is the mother B. A. Only (1) B. Only (2) C. Either (1) or (2) D. (1) and (2) both Explanation: A and B are children of D. From (1), C is the brother B and son of E. Since, the sex of D and E are not known. Hence (1) is not sufficient to answer the question. From (2). F is the mother of B. Hence, F is also the mother of A. Hence D is the father of A. Thus, (2) is sufficient to answer the question.
6. Pointing towards a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?
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A. Mother B. Grandmother C. Sister D. Daughter Explanation: Only daughter of my mother → myself. Hence, the woman is the mother of the man.
7. After walking 6 km, I turned to the right and then walked 2 km. After then I turned to the left and walked 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey? A. North B. South C. East D. West Explanation:
The journey was started from the South. The journey was started from the South.
8. Ravi left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and then again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight? A. 10 km
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B. 15 km C. 20 km D. 25 km Explanation:
9. Arrange the following words will come in middle if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary? A) Savage B) Savour C) Save D) Saviour Explanation: Sausage, Savage, Save, Saviour, Savour
10. Which alphabet replaces the question mark ? 63 O 49 72 T 37 96 L 15 14 ? 58 A) A B) B C) C D) D Explanation:
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6-3 = 3 9-4 = 5 (3x5=15) 15=O 7-2 = 5 7-3 = 4 (5x4=20) 20=T 9-6 = 3 5-1 = 4 (3x4=12) 12=L Similarly, 4-1 = 3 8-5 = 1 (3x1=3) 3=C
11.Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Reading 2. Composing 3. Writing 4. Printing A. 1, 3, 2, 4 B. 2, 3, 4, 1 C. 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 3, 2, 4, 1
12.Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Hecto 2. Centi 3. Deca 4. Kilo 5. Deci A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 B. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 C. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 D. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
13.
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A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 14 Sol. Clearly, (1st row) x ( 2nd row) x (3rd row) = 4th row. In the first column, 6 x 5 x 4 = 120. In the second column, 6 x 7 x 3 = 126. Let the missing number in the third column be x. Then, 8 x 5 x X = 320. 40X =320 or X = 8.
14.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 36 D. 42 Sol. In the first column, 13 + 7 × 2 = 27. In the second column, 54 + 45 × 2 = 144.
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Let the missing number in the third column be x. Then, x + 32 × 2 = 68 or x = 68 - 64 = 4.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: There is only one monkey we can thoroughly recommend as an indoor pet. P : They quickly die from colds and coughs after the first winter fogs. Q : It is beautiful and intelligent Capuchin monkey. R : The lively little Capuchins, however, may be left for years in an English house without the least danger to their health. S : The Marmosets, it is true, are more beautiful than a Capuchins and just as pleasing, but they are too delicate for the English climate S6: Finally let me say that no other monkey has a better temper or winning ways. The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. QRPS C. QSPR D. RPSQ
16. S1: A man can be physically confined within stone walls. P : But his mind and spirit will still be free. Q : Thus his freedom of action may be restricted. R : His hopes and aspiration still remain with him. S : Hence, he will be free spiritually if not physically.
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S6: No tyranny can intimidate a lover of liberty. The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. SRQP C. QPRS D. QPSR
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. Women P : till the other day Q : who were content being housewives R : about spending their time cooking S : now sound apologetic The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS B. RSPQ C. QPSR D. RQPS
18. Though he dialled frequently P : on telephone Q : my brother could not contact me R : and had left no information
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S : as I had gone out of office The Proper sequence should be: A. QPRS B. SQRP C. QPSR D. SPQR Direction: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre: P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P. V is the neighbour of U. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
19. Which of the following is correct ?
A. P is to the immediate right of Q B. R is between U and V C. Q is to the immediate left of W D. U is between W and S Explanation:
20. What is the position of S ?
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A. Between U and V B. Second to the right of P C. To the immediate right of W D. Data inadequate. Explanation:
Set-13 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76 A. 45 B. 52 C. 54 D. 55 Explanation: The given sequence is a combination of two series: I. 13, 24, 35, 46, 57 and II. 32, 43, ?, 65, 76 The pattern in both I and II is + 11. So, missing term = 43 + 11 = 54.
2. 22, 24, 28, ?, 52, 84 A. 36
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B. 38 C. 42 D. 46 Explanation: The pattern is + 2, + 4, + 8, + 16,..... So, missing term = 28 + 8 = 36.
3. If M = 13 and MAT = 34, then WAX = ? (1) 47 (2) 25 (3) 48 (4) 23
4. If W = 23, WIN = 46, then WAY =? (1) 46 (2) 64 (3) 49 (4) 94
5. If P $ Q means P is the brother of Q; P # Q means P is the mother of Q; P * Q means P is the daughter of Q in A # B $ C * D, who is the father?
A. D B. B
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C. C D. Data is inadequate Explanation: A is the mother of B, B is the brother of C and C is the daughter of D. Hence, D is the father. A (Parents) D | | | | B - is - Brother - of – C
6. Introducing Sonia, Aamir says, "She is the wife of only nephew of only brother of my mother." How Sonia is related to Aamir? A. Wife B. Sister C. Sister-in-law D. Data is inadequate Explanation: Brother of mother means maternal uncle. Hence only nephew of Aamir's maternal uncle means Aamir himself. Therefore Sonia is the wife of Aamir.
7. Reena walked from A to B in the East 10 feet. Then she turned to the right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned to the right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from A? A. 4 feet B. 5 feet C. 24 feet D. 27 feet
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Explanation:
8. One morning after sunrise Nivedita and Niharika were talking to each other face to face at Dalphin crossing. If Niharika's shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedita, Which direction Niharika was facing? A. North B. South C. East D. Data is inadequate Explanation:
In the morning sun rises in the East. Hence then any shadow falls in the West. Since Nikharia's shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedita. Hence Nikharia is facing towards North.
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9. Correct the underlined words in the following sentence if necessary from the options below? Your admission into this university will be dependent on the marks you score in the entrance examination. A) is depending B) will depend C) depending D) depends Explanation: It is a future condition and hence 'will depend' is more appropriate.
10. A E C B % 7 D $ E B 5 C ? 3 D E 9 @ 2 # If all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the twelth from the left end of the above arrangement? A) 3 B) @ C) D D) 9 Explanation: After dropping vowels we have the following arrangement: C B % 7 D $ B 5 C ? 3 D 9 @ 2 # Hence, D is twelth from the left end of the above arrangement.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Sea 2. Rivulet 3. Ocean 4. River 5. Glacier A. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
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C. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Doctor 2. Fever 3. Prescribe 4. Diagnose 5. Medicine A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 D. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
13.
A. 5 B. 9 C. 11 D. 14 Sol. In the second row, 2 × 9 + 3 × 17 = 18 + 51 = 69. In the third row, 2 × 13+ 3 × 11 = 26 + 33 = 59. Let the missing number in the first row be x. Then, 2x + 3 × 13 = 49 or 2x = 10 or x = 5.
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14.
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 Sol. Clearly, sum of numbers in each row is 17. So, missing number = 17 � ( 4 + 7 ) = 6.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: It was a dark moonless night. P : He turned over the pages, reading passages here and there. Q : He heard them on the floor. R : The poet took down his books of poems from his shelves. S : Some of them contained his earliest writings which he had almost forgotten. S6: They all seemed to him to be poor and ordinary mere childish words. The Proper sequence should be:
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A. RPQS B. RQSP C. RSPQ D. RPSQ
16. S1: I had halted on the road. P : As soon as I saw the elephant I knew I should not shoot him. Q : It is a serious matter to shoot a working elephant. R : I knew that his 'must' was already passing off. S : The elephant was standing 8 yards from the road. S6: I decided to watch him for a while and then go home. The Proper sequence should be: A. SPQR B. PQSR C. RQPS D. SRPQ
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. By this time P : at the railway station Q : reported mass looting R : reports of violence were flooding in S : which police dispatches The Proper sequence should be:
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A. RSPQ B. SPRQ C. SQRP D. RSQP
18. Then the women P : lamenting their evil desire Q : that had brought R : wept loudly S : this sorrow upon them The Proper sequence should be: A. RPQS B. RQPS C. PQSR D. PRQS
Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary. 19. Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta ? A. Bindu B. Rani C. Mary D. Seema Explanation:
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Mary is sitting immediate right to Reeta.
20. Who is in the middle of the photograph ? A. Bindu B. Rani C. Reeta D. Seema Explanation:
Rani is in the middle of the photograph.
Set-14 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143 A. 27 B. 35 C. 45 D. 56 Explanation: The terms of the given series are (22 - 1), (42 - 1),....., (82 - 1), (102 - 1), (122 - 1). So, missing term = (62 - 1) - (36 - 1) = 35.
2. 90, 180, 12, 50, 100, 200, ?, 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3 A. 150
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B. 175 C. 225 D. 250 Explanation: Clearly, 90 = 30 x 3, 180 = 6 x 30, 12 = 2 x 6, 50 = 25 x 2, 100 = 4 x 25, 200 = 50 x 4. So, missing term = 3 x 50 = 150.
3. If P = 16, TAP = 37, then CUP = ? (1) 40 (2) 38 (3) 36 (4) 39
4. If E = 5, HEN = 27, PEN = ? (1) 53 (2) 35 (3) 36 (4) 63
5. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B. Which of the following means M is the uncle of P? A. M % N x P B. N x P % M C. M + S % R % P D. M + K % T x P Explanation: M + K → M is the brother of K
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K % T → K is the father of T T x P → T is the sister of P Therefore, K is the father of P and M is the uncle of P.
6. Pointing to Varman, Madhav said, "I am the only son of one of the sons of his father." How is Varman related to Madhav? A. Nephew B. Uncle C. Father or Uncle D. Father Explanation: Madhav is the only son of one of the sons of Varman's father → Either Varman is the father or uncle of Madhav. 7. If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is to the east of B; A - B means A is to the west of B; then in P % Q + R - S, S is in which direction with respect to Q? A. South-West B. South-East C. North-East D. North-West Explanation: According to P % Q + R - S
S is in the South-East of Q.
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8. One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing? A. East B. South C. West D. Data is inadequate
Explanation: Sun rises in the east in the morning. Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his right. So he is facing South.
9. If the first and second letters in the word 'MISFORTUNE' were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter would then be the eighth letter counting to your left ? A) O B) T C) F D) I Explanation: The new letter sequence is I M F S R O U T E N The 8th letter counting towards left is T
10. How many pairs of letter are there in the word 'BUCKET' which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet ? A) Four B) One C) More than four D) Three Explanation:
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Letters in the word C K E Letters in the alphabet C D E
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Rain 2. Monsoon 3. Rescue 4. Flood 5. Shelter 6. Relief A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6 C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6 D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Milky way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth 5. Stars A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 C. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 D. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 13.
A. 15 B. 18 C. 19 D. 20 Sol.
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In the first row, 3 × 4 + 3 = 15. In the second row, 7 × 5 + 3 = 38. Therefore, in the third row, missing number = 3 × 5 + 3 = 18.
14.
A. 19 B. 17 C. 16 D. 15 Sol. In the first column, 112 - 12 = 121 - 1 = 120. In the second column, 72 - 22 = 49 - 4 = 45. In the third column, missing number = 52 - 32 = 25 - 9 = 16.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: Duryodhana was a wicked prince. P : one day Bhima made Duryodhana fall from a tree from which Duryodhana was stealing fruits. Q : He did not like that Pandavas should be loved and respected by the people of Hastinapur
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R : Duryodhana specially hated Bhima. S : Among the Pandavas, Bhima was extraordinary strong and powerful S6: This enraged Duryodhana so much that he began to think of removing Bhima from his way. The Proper sequence should be: A. PSQR B. QPRS C. QSPR D. PSRQ
16. S1: Jawaharlal Nehru was born in Allahabad on 14 Nov 1889. P : Nehru meet Mahatma Gandhi in February 1920. Q : In 1905 he was sent to London to study at a school called Haroow. R : He became the first Prime Minister of Independent India on 15 August 1947. S : He married Kamla Kaul in 1915. S6: He died on 27 May 1964. The Proper sequence should be: A. QRPS B. QSPR C. RPQS D. SQRP
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. I was
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P : and stay fro few days in Delhi Q : when my father told me R : very excited S : that I could go with him The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. RQSP C. QRSP D. SPQR
18. work is the one thing P : and without it Q : that is necessary R : to keep the world going S : we should all die The Proper sequence should be: A. QPSR B. RPQS C. SRPQ D. QRPS
Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary. 19. Who is second from the right ? A. Mary
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B. Rani C. Reeta D. Bindu Explanation:
Reeta is sitting second from the right.
20. Who is second from the left in photograph ? A. Reeta B. Mary C. Bindu D. Seema Explanation:
Seema is sitting second from the left in photograph
Set-15 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 48, 24, 96, 48, 192, ? A. 76 B. 90 C. 96 D. 98 Explanation:
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The pattern is ÷ 2, x 4, ÷ 2, x 4, ..... So, missing term = 192 ÷ 2 = 96.
2. 2,15,41,80,? A. 111 B. 120 C. 121 D. 132 Explanation: The pattern is + 13, + 26, + 39,..... So, missing term = 80 + 52 = 132.
3. R A P D C N (1) 3 6 2 5 8 7 (2) 3 6 2 4 5 7 (3) 3 6 2 8 7 5 (4) 3 6 2 8 5 7
4. 9 1 5 2 4 7 (1) L Y C P J N (2) L Y C J P N (3) L Y P C J N (4) L Y C P R N
5. Introducing a woman, Shashank said, "She is the mother of the only daughter of my son." How that woman is related to Shashank?
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A. Daughter B. Sister-in-law C. Wife D. Daughter-in-law Explanation: The woman is the mother of Shashank's granddaughter. Hence, the woman is the daughter-in-law of Shashank.
6. If A + B means B is the brother of A; A x B means B is the husband of A; A - B means A is the mother of B and A % B means A is the father of B, which of the following relations shows that Q is the grandmother of T? A. Q - P + R % T B. P x Q % R - T C. P x Q % R + T D. P + Q % R - T Explanation: Q - P → Q is the mother of P P + R → R is the brother of P Hence, → q is the mother of R R % T → R is the father of T. Hence, Q is the grandmother of T.
7. A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle's house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?
A. 80 m
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B. 100 m C. 140 m D. 260 m Explanation:
8. Four friends A, B, C and D live in a same locality. The house of B is in the east of A's house but in the north of C's house. The house of C is in the west of D's house. D's house is in which direction of A's house? A. South-East B. North-East C. East D. Data is inadequate Explanation:
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Therefore, D's house is in the South-East direction of A.
9. How many letters are there in the word 'CREATIVE' which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet ? A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 Explanation: Letters in the word Letters in the alphabet CRE CDE ATIVE ABCDE TIV TUV
10. What letter will come in place of question mark ? L J H J P D P ? E A) K B) L C) P D) I Explanation: Sum of place value in a row is 30. So the letter which comes in place of '?' is 'I'.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Presentation 2. Recommendation 3. Arrival 4. Discussion 5. Introduction
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A. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 B. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 C. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Butterfly 2. Cocoon 3. Egg 4. Worm A. 1, 3, 4, 2 B. 1, 4, 3, 2 C. 2, 4, 1, 3 D. 3, 4, 2, 1
13.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Sol. In the first column, 12 × 6 = 72; 18 / 6 = 3. In the third column, 16 × 8 = 128; 32 / 8 = 4. In the second column, 14 × 8 = 112.
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So, the missing number = 24 / 8 = 3.
14.
A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 15 Sol. Clearly, (3rd column)2 + (2nd column)2 = (1st column)2 In the first row, 52 + 122 = 132. In the second row, 82 + 152 = 1752. Let the missing number in the third row be x. Then x2 + 242 = 252 or x2 + 576 = 625 or x2 = 49 or x = 7. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: Growing up means not only getting larger, but also using our sense and our brain is to become more aware of things around us. P : Not only does he have a memory but he is able to think and reason.
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Q : In this, man differs from all other animals. R : Before we spray our roadside plants or turn sewage in to our rivers, we should pause to think what the results of our action are likely to do. S : This is to say, he is able to plan what he is is going to do in the light of his experience before he does it. S6: In other words, we must develop and use our ability to reason, because the destruction or the preservation of the places in which we live depend on us. The Proper sequence should be: A. QRSP B. SPQR C. SPRQ D. QPSR
16. S1: Jawaharlal Nehru was the greatest plan-enthusiast. P : Under Nehru's advice, the pre-Independent congress set up National Planning Commission in 1938. Q : But he forgot that what could be achieved by force under the communist dictatorship of Russia was not possible under the democratic set up of India. R : He took the idea from Russia where Five year plans transformed a very backward country into a top power of the world. S : No free government can call for compulsory sacrifice and suffering from the whole people. S6: Nehru himself became the chairman of the commission. The Proper sequence should be:
A. PSQR B. SRQP C. QPRS
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D. RQSP
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. I saw that P : but seeing my host in this mood Q : I deemed it proper to take leave R : as I had frequently done before S : it had been my intention to pass the night there The Proper sequence should be: A. QPSR B. QRPS C. SPQR D. SRPQ
18. It is very easy P : a great deal more than one realises Q : may mean R : that a phrase that one does not quite understand S : to persuade oneself The Proper sequence should be: A. RSQP B. SPQR C. SRQP D. RQPS
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Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other. 19. Who is sitting right to Prakash ? A. Mukesh B. Deepa C. Pankaj D. Lalit Explanation:
Hence, Lalit is sitting right to Prakash.
20. Who is just right to Pankaj ? A. Deepa B. Lalit C. Prakash D. Priti Explanation:
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Hence, Deepa is sitting just right to Pankaj.
Set-16 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ? A. 42 B. 51 C. 81 D. 91 Explanation: The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + 20, ...
So, missing term = 56 + 25 = 81.
2. 563, 647, 479, 815, ? A. 672 B. 386 C. 279 D. 143 Explanation: The pattern is + 84, - 168, + 336,.....i.e. + 84, - (84 x 2), + (84 x 22), .....
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So, missing term = 815 - (84 x 23) = 815 - 672 = 143.
3. In a certain code 'CERTAIN' is coded as 'BFQUZJM'. How is 'MUNDANE' coded in that code? 1. LVMEZOD 2. NTCOMBF 3. NTOCNBF 4. LTMCZOF 5. None of these Explanation: Each letter moves -1, +1 alternately. So, M - 1 = L, U + 1 = V and so on. So code for MUNDANE will be LVMEZOD
4. In a certain code 'SEQUENCE' is coded as 'FDOFVRFT. How is 'CHILDREN' coded in that code? 1. OFESJMID 2. OFSEMJID 3. OFSEJIMD 4. OFSEJMID 5. None of these Explanation: Reverse the word and +1 to each letter. The reverse of CHILDREN is NERDLIHC. add 1 to each letter. Therefore, the code of CHILDREN becomes OFSEMJID.
5. A3P means A is the mother of P A4P means A is the brother of P A9P means A is the husband of P A5P means A is the daughter of P
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Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M? A. M9N3K4J B. M9N5K3J C. K5J9M3N D. K3J9N4M Explanation: M9N → M is the husband of N N5K → N is the daughter of K Hence, → M is the son-in-law of K K3J → K is the mother of J Hence, → K is a lady Hence, → K is the mother-in-law of M.
6. Pointing to a photograph Anjali said, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph related to Anjali? A. Brother B. Uncle C. Son D. Data is inadequate Explanation: The man in the photograph is son of Anjali's grandfather's son i.e., the son of Anjali's father. Hence, the boy is the brother of Anjali.
7. Umesh directly went from P, to Q which is 9 feet distant. Then he turns to the right and walked 4 feet. After this he turned to the right and walked a distance which is equal from P to Q. Finally he turned to the right and walked 3 feet. How far is he now from P?
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A. 6 feet B. 5 feet C. 1 feet D. 0 feet Explanation:
8. Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns right and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the starting point? A. 26 km B. 21 km C. 14 km D. 9 km Explanation:
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9. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR using each letter only once? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three Explanation: PORE and ROPE
10. Given Sequence : N O P Q Y B Z A R S H I J K L M T U V G F E W X D C What will come in place of ( ? ) the following series. NDP , QWB , ZFR , ?
A) SVI B) AFS C) IVS D) SFA Explanation: N + 3 = Q, Q + 3 = Z, Z + 3 = S D - 2 = W, W - 2 = F, F - 2 = V P + 3 = B, B + 3 = R, R + 3 =I Hence , ? = SVI
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11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job A. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 C. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 D. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Table 2. Tree 3. Wood 4. Seed 5. Plant
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 C. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 D. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
13.
.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Sol.
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In the first column, 29 - 8 = 7 × 3 = 21. In the second column, 19 - 7 = 4 × 3 = 12. Let the missing number in the third column be x. Then, 31 - 6 = 5 × x or 5x = 25 or x = 5.
14.
A. 25 B. 27 C. 32 D. 37 Sol. In the first row, 5 × 1 = 5, 6 × 1 = 6, 5 + 6 =11. In the second row, 6 × 4 = 24, 3 × 2 = 6, 24 + 6 = 30. In the third row, 3 × 5 = 15, 4 × 3 = 12. So, missing number = 15 + 12 = 27.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: This weather-vane often tops a church spire, tower or high building. P : They are only wind-vanes.
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Q : Neither alone can tell us what the weather will be. R : They are designed to point to direction from which the wind is coming. S : Just as the barometer only tells us the pressure of air, the weather-vane tells us the direction of wind. S6: The weather-vane can, however give us some indication of other. The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. PSRQ C. PRSQ D. SPQR
16. S1: But how does a new word get into the dictionary? P : When a new dictionary is being edited, a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citation slips for a particular word. Q : The dictionary makers notice it and make a note of it on a citation slip. R : The moment new word is coined, it usually enter the spoken language. S : The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing. S6: He sorts them according to their grammatical function, and carefully writes a definition. The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. PRSQ C. RQPS D. RSQP
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In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. We went P : along the railway line Q : and had a right to R : where other people not allowed to go S : but daddy belonged to the railway The Proper sequence should be: A. RPQS B. PRSQ C. RSQP D. PRQS
18. There was P : needed for it everyday life Q : a time when each family R : for itself most of the things it S : actually produced The Proper sequence should be: A. QRSP B. RQPS C. RSPQ D. QSRP
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Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other. 19. Who are the neighbours of Mukesh ? A. Prakash and Deepa B. Deepa and Priti C. Priti and Pankaj D. Lalit and Priti Explanation:
Hence, Priti and Pankaj are the neighbours of Mukesh
20. Who is sitting opposite to Priti ? A. Prakash B. Deepa C. Pankaj D. Lalit Explanation:
Hence, Deepa is sitting opposite to Priti.
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Set-17 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 13, 35, 57, 79, 911, ? A. 1110 B. 1112 C. 1113 D. 1315 Explanation: The terms of the given series are numbers formed by joining together consecutive odd numbers in order i.e. 1 and 3, 3 and 5, 5 and 7, 7 and 9, 9 and 11, ..... So, missing term = number formed by joining 11 and 13 = 1113.
2. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ? A. 64 B. 86 C. 94 D. 122 Explanation: The pattern is + 3, + 6, + 12, + 24,..... So, missing term = 46 + 48 = 94.
3. If in the English alphabet, every alternate letter from B onwards is written in small letters while others are written in capitals, then how will the 3rd day from Tuesday will be coded? 1. W e D N e S d A Y
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2. W E d n E S d A Y 3. T H U R S d A Y 4. T h U r S d A Y 5. f r I d A Y Explanation: The small letters are b, d, f, h, j, l, n, p, r, t, v, x, z. The third day from tuesday will be friday and code will be frIdAY.
4.If the letters of the word 'CYCLINDER' are arranged alphabetically, then which letter would be farthest from the first letter of word? 1. N 2. E 3. Y 4. R 5. None of these Explanation: Last letter is ‘Y’.
5. Pointing to a person, Deepak said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's father". How is the person related to Deepak? A. Father B. Grandfather C. Uncle D. Brother-in-law Explanation: Father of Deepak's daughter's father → Deepak's father. Hence, the person in the brother of Deepak's father. Therefore, the person is the uncle of Deepak.
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6. P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D; D is the father of J. How is P related to J? A. Mother B. Grandmother C. Aunt D. Data inadequate Explanation: P is the mother of K K is the sister of D D is the father of J. Therefore, J is the nephew or niece of K and P is the grandmother of J.
7. Amit started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After some time, he turned left, then turned right and towards the left again. In which direction is he going now? A. North or South B. East or West C. North or West D. South or West Explanation:
If he starts walking the morning then finally he will face towards South and if he starts in the evening then finally he will face towards North.
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8. Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction? A. 35 m East B. 35 m North C. 30 m West D. 45 m East Explanation:
9. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and mark the answer corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, mark (D) as the answer. He flew(A) / over extensively(B) / the pacific last winter(C) / No error(D) A) A B) B C) C D) D Explanation: 'Extensively' is describing the verb 'flew' and should be placed after the verb and thus the correct phrase should be 'extensively over'. The error is in the second part of the sentence.
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10. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z Which letter is in the middle between the ninth letter from the right and eighth letter from the left in the given alphabets? A) N B) O C) L D) M Explanation: 9th letter from the right means (26 - 9 + 1 =) 18th letter from the left. Now, the middle letter between 18th letter from the left and 8th letter from the left = [(18+8)/2] = 13th leter from the left = M.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Never 2. Sometimes 3. Generally 4. Seldom 5. Always A. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 D. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Index 2. Contents 3. Title 4. Chapters 5. Introduction A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 B. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 C. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 D. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
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13.
A. 18 B. 23 C. 24 D. 27
Sol. The number in the second column is three times the difference between the numbers in the third and first columns. So, missing number = 3 x ( 16 -7) = 3 × 9 = 27.
14.
A. 9 B. 13
C. 15 D. 16
Sol. In the first column, 17 - 11 = 25 - 19 = 6. In the second column, 12 - 6 = 34 - 28 = 6. Let the missing number in the third column be x. Then, x - 8 = 19 - 11 = 8 or x = 16.
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In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: Politeness is not a quality possessed by only one nation or race. P : One may observe that a man of one nation will remove his hat or fold his hands by way of greetings when he meets someone he knows. Q : A man of another country will not to do so. R : It is a quality to be found among all peoples and nations in every corner of the earth. S : Obviously, each person follows the custom of his particular country. S6: In any case, we should not mock at others habits. The Proper sequence should be: A. RPQS B. RPSQ C. PRQS D. QPRS
16. S1: Throughout history man has used energy from the sun. P : Today, when we burn wood or use electric current we are drawing an energy. Q : However we now have a new supply of energy. R : All our ordinary life depends on sun. S : This has come from the sun. S6: This energy comes from inside atoms. The Proper sequence should be: A. SQPR
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B. RQPS C. QSRP D. PSRQ
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. It would P : appear from his statement Q : about the policy of management R : in dealing with the strike S : that he was quite in the dark The Proper sequence should be: A. RPSQ B. PSQR C. RQPS D. PRQS
18. He was so kind and generous that P : he not only Q : made others do so R : but also S : helped them himself The Proper sequence should be: A. PSRQ B. SPQR
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C. PRSQ D. QPRS
In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following order : Cadillac is next to right of Fargo. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end.
19. Which of the cars are on both the sides of cadillac car ? A. Ambassador and Maruti B. Maruti and Fiat C. Fargo and Mercedes D. Ambassador and Fargo Explanation:
Fargo and Mercedes are on both the sides of cadillac car. Fargo and Mercedes are on both the sides of cadillac car.
20. Which of the following statement is correct ?
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A. Maruti is next left of Ambassador. B. Bedford is next left of Fiat. C. Bedford is at one end. D. Fiat is next second to the right of Maruti. Explanation:
Therefore, Maruti is next left of Ambassador.
Set-18 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 66, 36, 18, ? A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9 Explanation: Each term in the series is the product of the digits of the preceding term. So, missing term = 1 x 8 = 8.
2. In the series 3, 9, 15, ...... what will be the 21st term? A. 117
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B. 121 C. 123 D. 129 Explanation: Clearly, 3 + 6 = 9, 9 + 6 = 15,..... So, the series is an A.P. in which a = 3 and d = 6. Therefore 21st term = a + (21 - 1) d = a + 20d = 3 + 20 x 6 = 123.
3. In a certain code 'LIMCA' is written as 'HJLDZ'. Which of the following words is written as 'IFWJBP'? 1. M E X I C O 2. MERCURY 3. JAPAN 4. MIDNIGHT 5. H O N D U S Explanation: Each letter moves +1, -1, ....alternately except for L, which is –4. We have to find the word for the code IFWJBP. Add 4 to I then -1, +1 alternately to the remaining letters. The word will be MEXICO.
4.In certain code 'HILTON' is written as 'I H T L N O'. How is 'BILLION' written in that code? 1. IBLLION 2. IBOILLN 3. IBLLOIN 4. IBLOILN 5. IBOLLIN
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Explanation: Letters are interchanged in each pair. So code of BI become IB, IO become OI. So code BILLION will be IBLLOIN
5. If P $ Q means P is the father of Q; P # Q means P is the mother of Q and P * Q means P is the sister of Q, then N # L $ P * Q shows which of the relation of Q to N? A. Grand son B. Grand daughter C. Nephew D. Data is inadequate Explanation: As the sex of Q is not known, hence, data is inadequate.
6. If A $ B means A is the brother of B; A @ B means A is the wife of B; A # B means A is the daughter of B and A * B means A is the father of B, which of the following indicates that U is the father-in-law of P? A. P @ Q $ T # U * W B. P @ W $ Q * T # U C. P @ Q $ W * T # U D. P @ Q $ T # W * U Explanation: P @ Q → P is the wife of Q ...(1) Q $ T → Q is the brother of T ...(2) T # U → T is the daughter of U Hence, → Q is the son of U ...(3) U * W → U is the father of W. From (1) and (3), U is the father-in-law of P.
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7. Village Q is to the North of the village P. The village R is in the East of Village Q. The village S is to the left of the village P. In which direction is the village S with respect to village R? A. West B. South-West C. South D. North-West Answer: Option B Explanation:
S is to the South-West of R.
8. Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards North-West a distance of 7 km and finally she moves a distance of 4 km towards east. How far is she now from the starting point? A. 3 km B. 4 km C. 10 km D. 11 km Explanation:
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9.How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'HORIZON' which have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ? A) More than three B) Two C) Three D) One Explanation: HORIZON - HIJKLMN RIZO - OPQR RIZON - NOPQR ON - NO
10. From the word 'LAPAROSCOPY' how many independent meaningful words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once ? A) 3 B) 4 C) 1 D) 2 Explanation: The words are LAP and COPY.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
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1. Heel 2. Shoulder 3. Skull 4. Neck 5. Knee 6. Chest 7. Thigh 8. Stomach 9. Face 10. Hand A. 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1 B. 3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1 C. 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3 D. 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3 Explanation: The correct order is : Skull Face Neck Shoulder Hand Chest Stomach Thigh Knee Heel 3 9 4 2 10 6 8 7 5 1
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun 4. Happy 5. Child A. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 C. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 Explanation: The correct order is : Rain Sun Rainbow Child Happy 2 3 1 5 4
13.
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A. 535 B. 577 C. 755 D. 775 Sol. In the first column, 3 × 100 + 5 × 9 = 345. In the second column, 4 × 100 + 6 × 10 = 460. In the third column, missing number = 5 × 100 + 7 × 11 = 577.
14.
A. 22 B. 33 C. 66 D. 77 Sol. In the first row, ( 42 - 38 ) × 11 = 44. In the second row, ( 28 - 23 ) × 11 = 55.
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In the third row, missing number = ( 39 - 37 ) × 11 = 2 × 11 = 22.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. 15. S1: Once King Shantnu met a young and beautiful fisher girl. P : He went to the fisherman and asked him for her asked him for her hand in marriage. Q : The King was extremely sad and returned to his palace. R : He fell in love with the fisher girl. S : The fisherman agreed to it condition that the son of his daughter should be heir to the throne of Hastinapur. S6: Devavrata, the King's son, asked him the reason of his sadness. The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. RPSQ C. QSPR D. PSQR
16. S1: Reliogion is not a matter of mere dogmatic conformity. P : It is not merely going through the ritual prescribed to us. Q : It is not a question of ceremonial piety. R : Unless that kind of transformation occurs, you are not an authentically religious man. S : It is the remarking of your own self, the transformation of your nature. S6: A man of that character is free from fear, free from hatred. The Proper sequence should be:
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A. SPRQ B. QPSR C. PSRQ D. SPQR
17. It is easy to excuse P : but it is hard Q : in a boy of fourteen R : the mischief of early childhood S : to tolerate even unavoidable faults The Proper sequence should be: A. RPQS B. QRSP C. QRPS D. RPSQ
18. The majestic mahogany table P : belongs to an old prince Q : which has one leg missing R : who is no impoverished S : but not without some pride The Proper sequence should be: A. PQSR B. QRSP C. PRSQ D. QPRS
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In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following order : Cadillac is next to right of Fargo. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end. 19. Which one of the following statements is correct ? A. Fargo car is in between Ambassador and Fiat. B. Cadillac is next left to Mercedes car. C. Fargo is next right of Cadillac. D. Maruti is fourth right of Mercedes. Explanation:
Therefore, Cadillac is next left to Mercedes car.
20. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of Ambassador ? A. Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti B. Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo C. Maruti, Bedford and Fiat D. Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo
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Explanation:
Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo cars are to the right of Ambassador.
Set-19 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39 A. 32 B. 34 C. 38 D. 40 Explanation: The pattern is + 5, - 2, + 5, - 2,..... So, missing term = 36 - 2 = 34.
2. 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ? A. 100 B. 112 C. 121 D. 144 Explanation:
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The series consists of squares of consecutive odd numbers i.e. 12, 32, 52, 72, 92,..... So, missing term = 112 = 121.
3.In certain code 'FROZEN' is written as 'OFAPSG'. Then how would 'MOLTEN' be written in that code? 1. OFPOMN 2. OFSMPN 3. OFUMPN 4. OFUNPM 5. OFUMON Explanation: Reverse the word and move each letter +1. Reverse of MOLTEN is NETLOM add 1 to each letter of NETLOM. So code of MOLTEN become OFUMPN.
4.In a certain code 'ROAR' is written as 'URDU'. How is 'URDU' written in that code? 1. V X D Q 2. XUGX 3. ROAR 4. VSOV 5. V Z C P Explanation: Each letter moves +3. Add 3 to each letter of URDU,so code of URDU will be XUGX
5. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of the mother of my mother." How is the woman related to the man? A. Mother
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B. Sister C. Niece D. Maternal aunt Explanation: The man is the only son of the mother of the woman. Hence, the man is the maternal uncle of the woman. So, the woman is the niece of the man.
6. Pointing to Gopi, Nalni says, "I am the daughter of the only son of his grandfather." How Nalni is related to Gopi? A. Niece B. Daughter C. Sister D. Cannot be determined Explanation: Nalni is the daughter of the only son of Gopi's grandfather. Hence, it's clear that Nalni is the sister of Gopi.
7. Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to right and runs 5 m. After this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally he turns to right and 6 m. Now to which direction is Sundar facing?
A. East B. West C. North D. South Explanation:
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Therefore, it is clear that Sundar will face towards North.
8. Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He again turns left and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to the left. How far is he from his starting position? A. 20 km. B. 30 km. C. 50 km. D. 60 km. Explanation:
Required distance = 40 - 20 = 20 km. Required distance = 40 - 20 = 20 km.
9.If the following five names which name will come in the last in a telephone directory ? a) Mahinder b) Mahender c) Mahindra d) Mahendra e) Mohinder A) Mahinder B) Mahindra C) Mohinder D) Mahender
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Explanation: The given names will be arranged in the alphabetical order as : Mahender, Mahendra, Mahinder, Mahindra, Mohinder. Clearly, 'Mohinder' comes last.
10. If the sequence of the English alphabet is reversed then which letter is 7th to the left of second vowel from the right of English alphabet in the new series? A) U B) V C) L D) M Explanation: Second vowel from the right of reversed English alphabet is E and 7th letter to the left of E in the new series is L.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Presentation 2. Recommendation 3. Arrival 4. Discussion 5. Introduction A. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 B. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 C. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 D. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
Explanation:
The correct order is :
Arrival Introduction PresentationDiscussion Recommendation
3 5 1 4 2
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Income 2. Status 3. Education
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4. Well-being 5. Job
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 B. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 C. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 D. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
Explanation:
The correct order is :
Education Job Income Status Well-being
3 5 1 2 4
13.
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 Sol. Clearly, sum of numbers in each row is 17. So, missing number = 17 � ( 4 + 7 ) = 6.
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14.
.
A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 14 Sol. Clearly, (1st row) x ( 2nd row) x (3rd row) = 4th row. In the first column, 6 x 5 x 4 = 120. In the second column, 6 x 7 x 3 = 126. Let the missing number in the third column be x. Then, 8 x 5 x X = 320. 40X =320 or X = 8.
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: We speak today of self-determination in politics. P : So long as one is conscious of a restraint, it is possible to resist it or to near it as a necessary evil and to keep free in spirit.
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Q : Slavery begins when one ceases to feel that restraint and it depends on if the evil is accepted as good. R : There is, however, a subtler domination exercised in the sphere of ideas by one culture to another. S : Political subjection primarily means restraint on the outer life of people. S6: Cultural subjection is ordinarily of an unconscious character and it implies slavery from the very start. The Proper sequence should be: A. SPRQ B. RSQP C. SPQR D. RSPQ
16. S1: Once upon a time an ant lived on the bank of river. P : The dove saw the ant struggling in water in a helpless condition. Q : All its efforts to come up is failed. R : One day it suddenly slipped in to water. S : A dove lived in the tree on the bank not far from the spot. S6: She was touched. The Proper sequence should be: A. RQSP B. QRPS C. SRPQ D. PQRS
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In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. Of many artists P : those who impressed me the most Q : I was a child R : but those with unique personalities off stage S : were not always the successful ones The Proper sequence should be: A. SRQP B. QRSP C. RSPQ D. QPSR
18. As a disease P : and breaks up marriages Q : accidents and suicides R : alcoholism leads to S : affecting all ages The Proper sequence should be: A. SRPQ B. RPSQ C. SRQP D. RQPS
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Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S.
19. Which one is sitting opposite to P ? A. R B. Q C. T D. S Explanation:
S is sitting opposite to P.
20. Who is the fourth person to the left of Q ? A. P B. U C. R D. Data inadequate Explanation:
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P is the fourth person to the left of Q.
Set-20 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121 A. 64 B. 81 C. 91 D. 100 Explanation: The given series consists of squares of consecutive odd numbers i.e. 12, 32, 52, 72,..... So, missing term = 92 = 81.
2. 2,2,5, 13,28,? A. 49 B. 50 C. 51 D. 52
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Explanation: The pattern is + 0, + 3, + 8, + 15, ..... i.e. + (l2 - 1), + (22 - 1), + (32 - 1), + (42 - 1), ..... So, missing term = 28 + (52 - 1) = 28 + 24 = 52.
3. In a certain code 'MISSIONS' is written as 'MSIISNOS'. How is 'ONLINE' written in that code? 1. OLNNIE 2. ONILEN 3. NOILEN 4. LNOENI 5. ONNLIE Explanation: First and last letter remain same. The others interchange their positions in pair of two. So, NL become LN IN become NI so code of ONLINE will be OLNNIE
4. In certain code 'TIGER' is written as 'QDFHS'. How is 'FISH' written in that code? 1. GERH 2. GRHE 3. GREH 4. GHRE 5. GEHR Explanation: Reverse the word and move each letter –1. Reverse of FISH is HSIF subtract 1 from each letter of HSIF. So code of FISH become GRHE.
5. A's son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is related to A? A. Sister
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B. Daughter's-in-law C. Sister-in-law D. Cousin Explanation: Since E is the brother of B Therefore, A is the father of E but D is the wife of E. Hence, D is the daughter-in-law of A.
6. Pointing to a lady a person said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife." How is the lady related to the person? A. Maternal aunt B. Grandmother C. Sister of father-in-law D. None of these Explanation: Brother of person's wife → brother-in-law of the person. Hence, the son of lady's brother is brother-in-law of the person. Therefore, the brother of the lady is the father-in-law of the person. Hence, the lady is the sister of the person's father-in-law.
7. From his house, Lokesh went 15 km to the North. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his house? A. East B. West C. North
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D. South Explanation:
Therefore, it is clear that he is in the North from his house.
8. Which one is in the North-East of the person who is to the left of Kumar? A. Dev B. Nilesh C. Ankur D. Pintu Explanation:
Ankur is in the left of Kumar. Hence Pintu is in North-East of Ankur.
9. From the word 'ASTOUNDER', how many independent words can be made with-out changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once ? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2
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Explanation: The words formed are AT and UNDER, AS and UNDER (or) AT and SOUND
10.How many independent words can 'HEARTLESS' be divided into without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once ? A) 5 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 Explanation: The words are HE, ART and LESS.
11. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Adult 2. Child 3. Infant 4. Boy 5. Adolescent A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 B. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 D. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 Explanation: The correct order is : Infant Child Boy Adolescent Adult 3 2 4 5 1
12. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Protect 2. Pressure 3. Relief 4. Rain 5. Flood
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A. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 B. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 C. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 D. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 Explanation: The correct order is : Pressure Rain Flood Protect Relief 2 4 5 1 3
13.
A. 19 B. 17 C. 16 D. 15 Sol. In the first column, 112 - 12 = 121 - 1 = 120. In the second column, 72 - 22 = 49 - 4 = 45. In the third column, missing number = 52 - 32 = 25 - 9 = 16.
14.
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A. 5 B. 9 C. 11 D. 14 Sol. In the second row, 2 × 9 + 3 × 17 = 18 + 51 = 69. In the third row, 2 × 13+ 3 × 11 = 26 + 33 = 59. Let the missing number in the first row be x. Then, 2x + 3 × 13 = 49 or 2x = 10 or x = 5
In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
15. S1: Once King Shantnu met a young and beautiful fisher girl. P : He went to the fisherman and asked him for her asked him for her hand in marriage. Q : The King was extremely sad and returned to his palace. R : He fell in love with the fisher girl. S : The fisherman agreed to it condition that the son of his daughter should be heir to the throne of Hastinapur. S6: Devavrata, the King's son, asked him the reason of his sadness.
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The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. RPSQ C. QSPR D. PSQR
16. S1: Reliogion is not a matter of mere dogmatic conformity. P : It is not merely going through the ritual prescribed to us. Q : It is not a question of ceremonial piety. R : Unless that kind of transformation occurs, you are not an authentically religious man. S : It is the remarking of your own self, the transformation of your nature. S6: A man of that character is free from fear, free from hatred. The Proper sequence should be: A. SPRQ B. QPSR C. PSRQ D. SPQR Answer: Option B
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. 17. He knew that P : and then to save himself Q : was to save all the lives R : entrusted to his care
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S : the duty of a captain The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. SQRP C. SPRQ D. QSRP
18. It is not, therefore P : that I pay a tribute Q : to conductors as a class R : with any feeling of unfriendliness S : to a particular member of that class The Proper sequence should be: A. PQRS B. RQPS C. RSPQ D. PSRQ
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S. 19. Which of the following are the neighbours of P ? A. U and P B. T and R C. U and R D. Data inadequate
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Explanation:
T and R are the neighbours of P.
20. Which one is sitting opposite to T ? A. R B. Q C. Cannot be determined D. S Answer: Option B Explanation:
Q is sitting opposite to T.
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Current Affairs Quiz Set-1 1.The ______edition of the I-League was launched in New Delhi on 21 November 2019. A.10th B.13th C.15th D.17th Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The 13th edition of the I-League was launched in New Delhi on 21 November 2019. The league will commence on 30 November 2019 at Rajiv Gandhi stadium in Aizawl, Mizoram.
2.______State government released the new Land Policy 2019 to safeguard the interest of the indigenous people. A.Assam B.Manipur C.Tamil Nadu D.Kerala Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal released the new Land Policy 2019. It was prepared by the Revenue and Disaster Management Department. The state government has put a lot of effort into preparing the Land Policy to safeguard the interest of the indigenous people.
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3.The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) signed MoU with ______for cooperation in the field of research and development, training in Ayurveda, and traditional medicine. A.Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) B.Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS) C.Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) D.A&B Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) and Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS). Under the MoU, the institutes can cooperate in the field of research and development, training in Ayurveda, and traditional medicine.
4.What is the cash award for the International Children's Peace Prize? A.€100,000 B.€200,000 C.€300,000 D.€500,000 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: International Children's Peace Prize was instituted in 2005. It is located in Amsterdam, Netherlands. The award constitutes a cash prize of €100,000 ($123,000). The award is presented every year.
5.Who organizes the I-League? A.National Football Association
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B.All India Football Federation C.Indian Football Federation D.Indian Association of Football Federation Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). The professional football league aims to increase the player pool for India's national team.
6.Where is Varanasi located? A.Madhya Pradesh B.Uttar Pradesh C.Bihar D.Jharkhand Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Varanasi is a city in the northern Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It dates back to the 11th century B.C.. It is regarded as the spiritual capital of India, the city draws Hindu pilgrims who bathe in the Ganges River,s sacred waters and perform funeral rites.
7.When was the I-League formed? A.2000 B.2003 C.2007 D.2010 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation:
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The I-League team was formed in 2007. I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). The professional football league aims to increase the player pool for India's national team.
8.When was the first International Children's Peace Prize awarded? A.2000 B.2005 C.2010 D.2015 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: International Children's Peace Prize was instituted in 2005. It is located in Amsterdam, Netherlands. The award constitutes a cash prize of €100,000 ($123,000). The award is presented every year.
9.How many member teams generally participate in the I-League? A.11 B.14 C.15 D.22 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The I-League team was formed in 2007. I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). 11 teams generally participate in the I-League. 10.The Destination North East (NE) Festival is to be held in ______. A.Assam B.Uttar Pradesh
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C.Manipur D.Bihar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Destination North East (NE) Festival is to be held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, on 23 November 2019. The festival will be inaugurated by MoS (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Dr. Jitendra Singh. It is organized by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), Government of India. The festival will be held from 23-26 November 2019.
Set-2 1.Where is the Bilateral Maritime Exercise Za'ir-Al-Bahr held in 2019? A.Jeddah B.Doha C.Al Jahra D.Dhahran Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Bilateral Maritime Exercise Za'ir-Al-Bahr, Roar of the Sea, is being conducted from 17-21 November 2019 in Doha, Qatar. The exercise is held between the Indian Navy and Qatari Emiri Naval Forces.
2.Who supported the ISA-Steel Conclave 2019, which was organized by the Ministry of Steel? A.Indian Steel Association B.TATA Groups C.Reliance Ltd.
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D.SAIL Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Ministry of Steel is organizing the second Edition of ISA-Steel Conclave 2019 on 21-22 November 2019 at Hotel The LaLiT, New Delhi. It will be supported by the Indian Steel Association (ISA).
3.Uttar Pradesh State government is planning to rename Agra to ______. A.Arveda B.Agverdi C.Agravan D.Agrawe Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Yogi Adiyanath-led Uttar Pradesh State government is planning to rename Agra to Agravan. The state government has asked the history department of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar University in Agra to look for historical evidence if the city was known by any other name. The researchers have begun the research regarding the name change.
4.______was awarded two awards for its commendable initiatives at the 12th Urban Mobility India Conference and Expo 2019. A.Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation B.Bengaluru Metro Rail Corporation C.Chennai Metro Rail Corporation D.Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Correct Ans:Option D Explanation:
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The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) was awarded two awards for its commendable initiatives at the 12th Urban Mobility India Conference and Expo 2019 held from 15-17 November in Lucknow, DMRC. It was awarded to promote the metro as a green and sustainable mode of transport among the masses.
5.The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare signed a memorandum of cooperation (MoC) with ______provide technical, management, and program design support to the health ministry. A.AIIMS B.IIHMR UNIVERSITY C.Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation D.Deccan School of hospital management Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare signed a memorandum of cooperation (MoC) with the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF). Under the MoC, Gates Foundation will provide technical, management, and program design support to the health ministry. The Centre aims to achieve universal health coverage in the country.
6.Where was the World Conference on Access to Medical Products Achieving the SDGs 2030 for the year 2019 held? A.Taiwan B.Tashkent C.New Delhi D.Beijing Correct Ans:Option C Explanation:
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The World Conference on Access to Medical Products Achieving the SDGs 2030 for the year 2019 was held in New Delhi, India. The Conference is aimed to stir innovative thinking around issues surrounding provisioning of affordable, quality medical products as part of public health care delivery systems.
7.The Ministry of Steel is to organize the ______Edition of ISA-Steel Conclave 2019 on 21-22 November 2019 at New Delhi. A.first B.second C.fifth D.seventh Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Ministry of Steel is organizing the second Edition of ISA-Steel Conclave 2019 on 21-22 November 2019 at Hotel The LaLiT, New Delhi. It will be supported by the Indian Steel Association (ISA).
8.Which country topped the 2019 IMD World Talent Ranking? A.Switzerland B.Denmark C.Sweden D.Austria Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Switzerland topped the 2019 IMD World Talent Ranking. The ranking was based on the performance in three main categories, namely investment and development, appeal, and readiness.
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9.India ranked ______in the 2019 IMD World Talent Ranking. A.10th B.18th C.35th D.59th Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: India ranked 59 on the global annual list of 63 countries. The list was released by the Swiss-based International Institute for Management Development (IMD).
10.Which State received the Best Emerging Green Tourist Destination Award? A.Assam B.Himachal Pradesh C.Arunachal Pradesh D.Kerala Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh State tourism department and stakeholders were awarded the Best Emerging Green Tourist Destination Award at a function in New Delhi. The award was conferred by Travel & Leisure magazine. The award was received by Dia Mirza. The award recognized the tireless efforts of the department towards promoting green tourism.
Set-3 1.Who won the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2018? A.Manmohan Singh B.Indian Space Research Organisation
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C.United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees D.Centre for Science and Environment Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Centre for Science and Environment won the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2018.
2.Where is the International Principal’s Education Conference (IPEC) held? A.Jaipur B.Nagpur C.Lucknow D.Ahmedabad Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: RSS Chief Dr. Mohan Bhagwat inaugurated the International Principal’s Education Conference (IPEC) at Nagpur on 19 November 2019. The IPEC conference will be held on 19-21 November.
3.When was the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development award instituted? A.1975 B.1986 C.1992 D.1998 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation:
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Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development is awarded every year by Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust. The first award was presented to Parliamentarians for Global Action in the year 1986.
4.Which company became the first Indian firm to cross the Rs.9.5 lakh crore market capitalization mark in 2019? A.Vodafone B.RIL C.ONGC D.TCS Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) became the first Indian firm to cross the Rs.9.5 lakh crore market capitalization mark. Reliance Industries share price rose up to 3.66% to Rs.1,511.9 compared to the previous close of Rs.1,458.50 on BSE.
5.Who won the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2019? A.Ellen Johnson Sirleaf B.Angela Merkel C.David Attenborough D.Ela Bhatt Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Renowned naturalist and broadcaster Sir David Attenborough is to be conferred the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2019.
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6.What is the theme of the 2019 International Principal’s Education Conference (IPEC)? A.Relationship between Society, Organisations and Cybernetics, Cyber- Technologies B.Scripting the Legends of Human Excellence through Schools C.Cooperative learning and teaching-ULearning D.Early childhood education and Education for sustainability Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: RSS Chief Dr. Mohan Bhagwat inaugurated the International Principal’s Education Conference (IPEC) at Nagpur on 19 November 2019. The IPEC conference will be held on 19-21 November. The theme of the conference is Scripting the Legends of Human Excellence through Schools.
7.Who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces? A.President of India B.Prime Minister of India C.Minister of Defence D.Chief of Indian Armed Forces Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces. The Indian Armed Forces are under the management of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) of the Government of India.
8.When was the Naval Academy first established? A.1954 B.1961
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C.1969 D.1973 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Naval Academy was first established at Kochi in 1969 temporarily. In 1986, the strength of the trainees increased, and the institution was relocated to INS Mandovi at Goa. On 8 January 2009, the Indian Naval Academy at Ezhimala was inaugurated, and the INA found its permanent home at Ezhimala, Kerala.
9.______was awarded the President's Colour award in 2019.
A.Indian Naval Academy at Goa B.Indian Naval Academy at Cochi C.Indian Naval Academy at Ezhimala D.Indian Naval Academy at Visakhapatnam Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: President Ram Nath Kovind awarded the President's Colour to Indian Naval Academy at Ezhimala, Kerala, on 20 November. The award recognizes the yeoman service that was rendered by the institution in training and shaping Indian Naval officers over the last fifty years at three different locations, namely Kochi, Goa, and Ezhimala. 10.Which Bill will grant ownership rights to people living in unauthorized colonies in Delhi? A.National Capital Territory of Delhi (Recognition of Property Rights of Residents in Unauthorised Colonies) Bill, 2019 B.Property Rights of Unauthorised Colonies Bill, 2019 C.National Capital Territory of Delhi (Recognition of Property Rights of Residents in Unauthorised Colonies) Bill, 2018
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D.Property Rights of Unauthorised Colonies Bill, 2018 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the National Capital Territory of Delhi (Recognition of Property Rights of Residents in Unauthorised Colonies) Bill, 2019. The Bill will be presented in the winter session of Parliament. The bill will provide a legal framework to grant ownership rights to people living in unauthorized colonies in Delhi.
Set-4 1.Who held the previous record as the longest-serving PM of Japan? A.Katsura Taro B.Naruhito C.Akihito D.Taro Aso Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Prime Minister Abe Shinzo became the longest-serving prime minister in the history of Japan's constitutional government as on November 20, 2019. He has served 2,887 days so far. He surpassed the previous record held by Katsura Taro, with a total of 2,886 days in office.
2.Who conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award by the ICMR? A.Bill Gates B.Elon Musk C.PM Narendra Modi D.President Ram Nath Kovind Correct Ans:Option A
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Explanation: Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, chairperson and managing director of Biocon, has been conferred with Lifetime Achievement Award by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research. The award was given by Bill Gates, co-chair, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation at an event to mark the celebration of 108th Foundation Day of ICMR.
3.Where was the Sea phase of SITMEX 2019 exercise held? A.Visakhapatnam B.Cochin C.Mumbai D.Andaman Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The first Singapore-India-Thailand maritime exercise (SITMEX) was held in the Andaman Sea in September 2109 as part of the security and safety of Indo- Pacific sea lines. The SITMEX exercise highlighted the shared responsibility of the three countries to work together in keeping sea lines of communications open.
4.Who became the longest-serving PM of Japan? A.Abe Shinzo B.Junichiro Koizumi C.Ichiro Ozawa D.Taro Aso Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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Prime Minister Abe Shinzo became the longest-serving prime minister in the history of Japan’s constitutional government as on November 20, 2019. He has served 2,887 days so far. He surpassed the previous record held by Katsura Taro, with a total of 2,886 days in office.
5.Who was conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award for the outstanding achievement in healthcare and contribution to the society? A.Divya Jain B.Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw C.Kavita Nehemiah D.Aruna Jayanthi Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, chairperson and managing director of Biocon, has been conferred with Lifetime Achievement Award by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
6.SITMEX 2019 was a naval exercise between ______. A.India, Bangladesh, Indonesia B.Indonesia, China, India C.India, US, Sri Lanka D.India, Singapore, Thailand Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The first Singapore-India-Thailand maritime exercise (SITMEX) was held in the Andaman Sea in September 2109 as part of the security and safety of Indo- Pacific sea lines.
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7.Which company manufactured MK 45 calibre (MOD 4) naval guns? A.DynCorp International company B.Textron C.Pratt & Whitney D.BAE Systems Land & Armaments Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The State Department of the US approved the sale of the anti-surface warfare and anti-air defence MK45 5inch/62 calibre (MOD 4) naval guns for India. The US Congress has cleared the way for the deal to go through. The procurement of the guns will enhance India's naval capabilities, especially in the Arabian Sea. MK 45 has been developed and manufactured by BAE Systems Land and Armaments at its facilities in Louisville, Kentucky.
8.Singapore, India has agreed to conduct the trilateral maritime exercise with ______annually from 2020. A.Malaysia B.Thailand C.Indonesia D.Sri Lanka Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: India and Singapore have agreed to conduct the trilateral maritime exercise involving Singapore, India, and Thailand annually from 2020. The agreement was made by the Defence Minister Rajnath Singh during the 4th India-Singapore Defence Ministers' Dialogue (DMD). He held talks with his Singapore counterpart Ng Eng Hen during his visit.
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9.How many naval guns did the US approve for the sale of the anti-surface warfare and anti-air defence MK45 5inch/62 calibre (MOD 4) naval guns? A.13 B.16 C.21 D.25 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The USA has approved the sale of 13 naval guns and $1 billion worth of equipment to India. The aim of the move by the US government is to help it meet the current and future threats. The State Department of the US approved the sale of the anti-surface warfare and anti-air defence MK45 5inch/62 calibre (MOD 4) naval guns for India.
10.Rajnath Singh co-chaired the ______India-Singapore Defence Ministers' Dialogue (DMD) held at Singapore. A.4th B.6th C.9th D.12th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh co-chaired the 4th India-Singapore Defence Ministers' Dialogue (DMD) held in Singapore.
Set-5 1.The ______edition of the I-League was launched in New Delhi on 21 November 2019.
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A.10th B.13th C.15th D.17th Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The 13th edition of the I-League was launched in New Delhi on 21 November 2019. The league will commence on 30 November 2019 at Rajiv Gandhi stadium in Aizawl, Mizoram.
2.______State government released the new Land Policy 2019 to safeguard the interest of the indigenous people. A.Assam B.Manipur C.Tamil Nadu D.Kerala Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal released the new Land Policy 2019. It was prepared by the Revenue and Disaster Management Department. The state government has put a lot of effort into preparing the Land Policy to safeguard the interest of the indigenous people.
3.The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) signed MoU with ______for cooperation in the field of research and development, training in Ayurveda, and traditional medicine. A.Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) B.Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS)
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C.Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) D.A&B Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) and Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS). Under the MoU, the institutes can cooperate in the field of research and development, training in Ayurveda, and traditional medicine.
4.What is the cash award for the International Children's Peace Prize? A.€100,000 B.€200,000 C.€300,000 D.€500,000 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: International Children's Peace Prize was instituted in 2005. It is located in Amsterdam, Netherlands. The award constitutes a cash prize of €100,000 ($123,000). The award is presented every year.
5.Who organizes the I-League 2019? A.National Football Association B.All India Football Federation C.Indian Football Federation D.Indian Association of Football Federation Correct Ans:Option B Explanation:
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I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). The professional football league aims to increase the player pool for India's national team.
6.Where is Varanasi located? A.Madhya Pradesh B.Uttar Pradesh C.Bihar D.Jharkhand Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Varanasi is a city in the northern Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It dates back to the 11th century B.C.. It is regarded as the spiritual capital of India, the city draws Hindu pilgrims who bathe in the Ganges River,s sacred waters and perform funeral rites.
7.When was the I-League formed? A.2000 B.2003 C.2007 D.2010 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The I-League team was formed in 2007. I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). The professional football league aims to increase the player pool for India's national team.
8.When was the first International Children's Peace Prize awarded? A.2000
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B.2005 C.2010 D.2015 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: International Children's Peace Prize was instituted in 2005. It is located in Amsterdam, Netherlands. The award constitutes a cash prize of €100,000 ($123,000). The award is presented every year.
9.How many member teams generally participate in the I-League? A.11 B.14 C.15 D.22 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The I-League team was formed in 2007. I-league is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). 11 teams generally participate in the I-League.
10.The Destination North East (NE) Festival 2019 is to be held in ______. A.Assam B.Uttar Pradesh C.Manipur D.Bihar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation:
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The Destination North East (NE) Festival is to be held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, on 23 November 2019. The festival will be inaugurated by MoS (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Dr. Jitendra Singh. It is organized by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), Government of India. The festival will be held from 23-26 November 2019.
Set-6 1.When was UDAN RCS founded? A.25th June 2018 B.27th April 2017 C.28th August 2018 D.30th December 2018 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: 27th April 2017 UDAN RCS founded.
2.When was HRD Founded? A.26 September 1985 B.30th october 1990 C.20th January 1990 D.28th August 1995 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: HRD minister founded 26 September 1985.
3.Who is the first executive of ECI? A.Sukumar Sen
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B.Rajesh Sharma C.Vikram Singh D.Dinesh Sharma Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Sukumar Sen is the first executive of ECI.
4.When was ECI formed? A.1950 B.1952 C.1960 D.1965 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Election Commission of India formed at 1950.
5.Who is appointed as Deputy CM of Maharashtra in 2019? A.Ajit Pawar B.Sharad Pawar C.Tariq Anwar D.P. A. Sangma Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Ajit Pawar is appointed as Deputy CM of Maharashtra.
6.Where was Digital Gurukul located at?
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A.Uttar Pradesh B.Madhya Pradesh C.Odisha D.Bihar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Digital Gurukul located at Madhya Pradesh.
7.Where is the heeadquarters of Indian Army? A.New Delhi B.Hyderabad C.Chennai D.Ranchi Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The headquarters of Indian Army is New Delhi.
8.Who is the presence chief minister of Odisha? A.Naveen Patnaik B.Rajsh Sharma C.Prafulla Kumar Mallik D.Pratap Jena Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The chief minister of Odisha is Naveen Patnaik
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9.Who won 28th Bihari Puraskar Award? A.Suresh Sharma B.Manisha Kulshreshtha C.Vikram Sharath D.Ramesh Kumar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Manisha Kulshreshtha won 28th Bihari Puraskar Award.
10.Where was IFFI located? A.Goa B.Hyderabad C.Ranchi D.Chennai Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The 50th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) located at Goa.
Set-7 1.Where was All India Institute of Ayurveda located? A.New Delhi B.Chennai C.Hyderabad D.Mumbai Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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All India Institute of Ayurveda located at New Delhi
2.Who inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow? A.Rajnath Singh B.Vikram Sharma C.Dinesh Gupta D.Rajesh Singh Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow.
3.Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in ______? A.Lucknow B.Rajpur C.Haryana D.Bihar Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow.
4.Fifteenth Finance Commission Chairman ______calls for major changes in GST structure. A.Vikram Singh B.NK Singh
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C.Rajesh Sharma D.Dinesh gupta Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Fifteenth Finance Commission Chairman N K Singh calls for major changes in GST structure.
5.Bodybuilder Chitharesh Natesan crowned as ______? A.Mr. Universe B.Mr World C.Mr. Hercules D.Gold Medal in Asian Game Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Bodybuilder Chitharesh Natesan crowned as Mr Universe 2019.
6.Who claims 12th successive professional win? A.Rajesh Sharma B.Vijender Singh C.Ram Kumar D.Rajesh Kumar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Vijender Singh claims 12th successive professional win.
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7.Prime Minister addresses the inaugural session of the ______Conference of Governors A.50th B.48th C.46th D.45th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Prime Minister addresses the inaugural session of the 50th Conference of Governors.
8.Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the ______Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow? A.185th B.172nd C.175th D.180th Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow.
9.Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the ______nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow. A.172 B.180 C.184
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D.190 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh inaugurates the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Lucknow.
10.Who addressed the inaugural session of the 50th Conference of Governors? A.Shri Suresh Prabhu B.Shri Vikram Sharma C.Shri Narendra Modi D.Shri Rakesh Kumar Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Prime Minister addresses the inaugural session of the 50th Conference of Governors.
Set-8
1.Prime Minister Narendra Modi remarks at the conclusion of ______edition of Governor Conference? A.50th B.49th C.48th D.42nd Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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Prime Minister Narendra Modi remarks at the conclusion of 50th edition of Governor Conference.
2.India ranks ______in 2019 Nomuras Food Vulnerability Index? A.44 B.46 C.48 D.19 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India Ranks 44th In 2019 Nomuras Food Vulnerability Index.
3.Which international day is observed on November 25th? A.Global Day of Parents B.World Braille Day C.Zero Discrimination Day. D.International Day for the Elimination of Violence Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: International Day for the Elimination of Violence is observed on November 25th.
4.Singapore Signs MOU with ______on Cybersecurity Cooperation A.South Korea B.North korea C.Australia D.Indonesia
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Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Singapore Signs MOU with South Korea on Cybersecurity Cooperation.
5.Rafael Nadal won ______Davis Cup title in 2019. A.sixth B.seventh C.fifth D.fourth Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Rafael Nadal won sixth Davis Cup title.
6.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh to inaugurate ______Military Literature Festival 2019 in Chandigarh. A.3rd B.4th C.2nd D.5th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh to inaugurate 3rd Military Literature Festival in Chandigarh
7.______and China spar over legacy of traditional medicinal system Sowa- Rigpa A.India
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B.Iran C.Pakistan D.Iraq Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India and China spar over legacy of traditional medicinal system Sowa-Rigpa.
8.Which state launches immunisation campaign against Filaria? A.Uttar Pradesh B.Himachal Pradesh C.Kerala D.Tamil Nadu Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Uttar Pradesh state launches immunisation campaign against Filaria
9.Madhya Pradesh govt to give _____ reservation to sportspersons in jobs. A.2% B.4% C.3% D.5% Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Madhya Pradesh govt to give 5% reservation to sportspersons in jobs
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10.Astronomers Have Detected Record-Breaking Light Emissions From ______Ray Bursts A.Alpha B.Gamma C.Beta D.UV Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Astronomers Have Detected Record-Breaking Light Emissions From Gamma-Ray Bursts.
Set-9
1.When was National Milk Day celebrated? A.December 15th B.November 26th C.February 26th D.January 25th Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: National Milk Day celebrated on November 26th.
2.Shri Hardeep Singh Puri launched Credit-linked Subsidy Services Awas Portal in ______A.Haryana B.New Delhi C.Bihar
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D.Mumbai Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Shri Hardeep Singh Puri launched Credit-linked Subsidy Services Awas Portal in New Delhi.
3.World Largest Flower Carpet Made Out of Bengaluru Marigold in ______A.Singapore B.Dubai C.Australia D.Ranchi Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: World Largest Flower Carpet Made Out of Bengaluru Marigold in Dubai.
4.Who extends retention of Government Accommodation for 2019? A.Shri Vikram Sharma B.Shri Rajnath Singh C.Shri Dinesh Gupta D.Shri Rajesh Sharma Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Shri Rajnath Singh extends retention of Government Accommodation
5.Union Minister Shri Giriraj Singh addresses ______celebration.
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A.National youth Day 2019 B.National Milk Day 2019 C.National Science Day 2019 D.National Security Day 2019 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Union Minister Shri Giriraj Singh addresses National Milk Day celebration.
6.What is the helpline number launched by Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister? A.16500 B.14400 C.14560 D.14402 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy launched 14400 a citizen helpline number meant to enable people to complain about corruption in government departments.
7.Where was the headquarters of Indian railways located? A.New Delhi B.Chennai C.Hyderabad D.Mumbai Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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The headquarters of Indian railways located at New Delhi
8.Devendra Fadnavis resigned as ______chief minister in 2019. A.Maharashtra B.Kerala C.Himachal Pradesh D.Bihar Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Devendra Fadnavis resigned as Maharashtra chief minister
9.Who launched GHT-India ? A.Shri Suresh Prabhu B.Shri Nitin Gadkari C.Shri Vikram Sharma D.Shri Narendra Modi Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Shri Narendra Modi launched GHT-India.
10.Who presided as chief guest of Best Tea Garden School at the Shramik Kalyan Divas, 2019? A.Sarbananda Sonowal B.Suresh krishna C.Vikram Sharma D.Dinesh Gupta
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Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Sarbananda Sonowal presided as chief guest of Best Tea Garden School at the Shramik Kalyan Divas, 2019
Set-10 1.Who organized the first International Conference on Landslides Risk Reduction and Resilience 2019? A.National Disaster Response Force B.National Institute of Disaster Management C.Indian Institute of Disaster Management D.National Disaster Management Organization Correct Ans:Option C Learning Zone: Ministry of Home Affairs is to organize the first International Conference on Landslides Risk Reduction and Resilience in New Delhi on 28 November 2019. The conference will be inaugurated by the Union Minister of State for Home Affairs, Shri G. Kishan Reddy. It is organized by the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM).
2.Which Indian University topped among the Indian University in the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2020? A.Indian Institute of Technology Bombay B.Indian Institute of Technology Delhi C.Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati D.Indian Institute of Technology Madras Correct Ans:Option A Learning Zone:
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India has 96 universities ranked in the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2020. Out of these, 20 are new entries. The Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT-B) leads nationally at the overall 34th place, and it is followed by IIT Delhi (IIT-D) in the 43rd place and by IIT Madras (IITM) in the 50th position. The country has 31 institutes among the top 250.
3.Who is the Executive Director of the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)? A.Major General Satinder Kumar Saini B.Major General Alok Singh Kler C.Major General Pattacheruvanda C Thimayya D.Major General Manoj Kumar Bindal Correct Ans:Option D Learning Zone: Major General Manoj Kumar Bindal is the Executive Director of the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM).
4.The Supreme Court of India has recognized the transgender community as a third gender along with male and female in April ______. A.2008 B.2010 C.2012 D.2014 Correct Ans:Option D Learning Zone: The Supreme Court of India has recognized the transgender community as a third gender along with male and female in April 2014.
5.Where was the DP World Tour Championship 2019 held?
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A.Saudi Arabia B.Madrid C.Dubai D.London Correct Ans:Option C Learning Zone: DP World Tour Championship 2019 was held at Jumeirah Golf Estates, Dubai, UAE from 21-24 November 2019.
6.Who won the 2019 DP World Tour Championship? A.Tommy Fleetwood B.Jon Rahm C.Mike Lorenzo-Vera D.Randy Micheal Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Jon Rahm won the 2019 DP World Tour Championship in Dubai. This is his second title in three years. The award has crowned him as European Number One on the final day at Jumeirah Golf Estates, Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
7.How many Indian Universities ranked in the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2020? A.45 B.57 C.73 D.96 Correct Ans:Option D Learning Zone:
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India has 96 universities ranked in the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2020. Out of these, 20 are new entries. The Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT-B) leads nationally at the overall 34th place, and it is followed by IIT Delhi (IIT-D) in the 43rd place and by IIT Madras (IITM) in the 50th position. The country has 31 institutes among the top 250.
8.Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has launched the new version of the mAadhaar application for ______. A.extension B.ease of doing business C.more security D.digital transaction Correct Ans:Option C Learning Zone: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has launched the new version of the mAadhaar application, both for Android and iOS devices. The application aims to make the mAadhaar application more secure.
9.When was the National Centre of Disaster Management (NCDM) established? A.1985 B.1990 C.1995 D.2000 Correct Ans:Option C Learning Zone: National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) was established in 1995 as the National Centre of Disaster Management (NCDM). It was renamed in 2006 as the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM). 10.Which country topped the QS World University Rankings: Asia 2020?
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A.China B.Singapore C.USA D.UK Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Overall for the second consecutive year, the National University of Singapore stands top among Asia's best universities. It is followed by Nanyang Technological University, Singapore and the University of Hong Kong, China.
Set-11 1.Who is the presence President of Vietnam? A.Dang Thi Ngoc Thinh B.Nguyen Xuan Phuc C.Ngo Dinh Diem D.Nguyen Phu Trong Correct Ans:Option D Learning Zone: Nguyễn Phú Trọng is a Vietnamese politician who is the current General Secretary of the Communist Party of Vietnam, in office since 19 January 2011, and President of Vietnam, de jure head of state of Vietnam, in office since 23 October 2018.
2.How many member states are there in the World Heritage Committee? A.18 B.21 C.25 D.27
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Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: The World Heritage Committee consists of representatives from 21 member states to the convention elected by the United Nations General Assembly. The World Heritage Committee meets once every year.
3.Where was the NuGen Mobility Summit 2019 held? A.Gurugram B.Pune C.Jaipur D.Itanagar Correct Ans:Option A Learning Zone: The NuGen Mobility Summit 2019 was held at the International Centre for Automotive Technology Centre, ICAT in Gurugram, Haryana. The summit was addressed by the Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari. The summit will be held from 27-29 November 2019.
4.How many sites in Saudi Arabia are on UNESCO's World Heritage List? A.2 B.5 C.8 D.9 Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Currently, there are five sites in Saudi Arabia that are on UNESCO's World Heritage List. The sites are Al-Ahsa Oasis, Al-Hijr Archaeological Site (Madain Saleh) in AlUla, Al-Turaif district in Diriyah, Historic Jeddah, Rock art in the Hail region.
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5.India ranked ______as the country with the most diplomatic posts across the world. A.12th B.23rd C.47th D.65th Correct Ans:Option A Learning Zone: Lowy Institute, an Australian think tank, reported that India ranked 12th in the diplomatic sweepstakes in the report. India has 123 embassies and high commissions, and 54 consulates, across the world.
6.Which country was elected to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization's (UNESCO) World Heritage Committee for the first time on 27 November 2019? A.UAE B.Saudi Arabia C.Dubai D.Iran Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Saudi Arabia was elected to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization's (UNESCO) World Heritage Committee for the first time on 27 November 2019. The Kingdom was elected to the UN heritage body's executive board for the term 2019-2023. The approval confirms Saudi Arabia's international status and its role in building peace and contributing effectively to the establishment of the principles of culture and science.
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7.India signed an MoU with ______to improve the field of education. A.Afghanistan B.Greece C.Germany D.Vietnam Correct Ans:Option D Learning Zone: India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Vietnam to improve the field of education.
8.Which Country topped as the country with the most diplomatic posts across the world in 2019? A.US B.China C.India D.France Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Lowy Institute, an Australian think tank, reported that China has overtaken the United States as the country with the most diplomatic posts across the world. India ranked 12th in the diplomatic sweepstakes in the report.
9.The government has proposed to invest around ______in HLL Biotech Ltd's complex near Chennai, Tamil Nadu. A.Rs.350 crore B.Rs.450 crore C.Rs.550 crore D.Rs.650 crore
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Correct Ans:Option C Learning Zone: The government has proposed to invest around Rs.550 crore in HLL Biotech Ltd's complex near Chennai, Tamil Nadu. The government plans to divest its entire stake on HLL Biotech which is a subsidiary of state-run HLL Lifecare.
10.When was the Food Corporation of India (FCI) established? A.1956 B.1965 C.1972 D.1978 Correct Ans:Option B Learning Zone: Food Corporation of India (FCI) was established in 1965 by the government of India. It was constituted under the Food Corporations Act, 1964. It functions under the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
Set-12 1 )Which of the banking system is buying and selling of government securities to expand or contract the amount of money by RBI ?
A.Open market operations (OMO) B.Selected market operations (SMO) C.Preferred market operations (PMO) D.Secured market operations (SMO)
Learning Zone: Open market operations (OMO) refer to a central bank's buying and selling of government securities in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system. Securities' purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth, while sales of securities do the opposite and contract the economy.
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2 ) Who is the President of Kazakhstan? A.Kassym-Jomart Tokayev B.Almazbek Atambayev C.Sooronbay Jeenbekov D.Gennady Yanayev
Learning Zone: Kassym-Jomart Tokayev has sworn in as the President of Kazakhstan. He was the interim president and hand-picked successor of Nursultan Nazarbayev. He won the election, which was held on 9 June, with 70.96% of the vote which was contested against six government-approved candidates. Tokayev presidency aims to continue Nazarbayev’s policies aimed at improving the well-being of the people. He succeeded Nursultan Nazarbayev, who announced his resignation in March after 30 years in power.
3 ) The Soviet Union dissolved in?
A.December 1990 B.December 1991 C.December 2000 D.December 2008
Learning Zone: The dissolution of the Soviet Union occurred on 26 December 1991, officially granting self-governing independence to the Republics of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR). It was a result of the declaration number 142-Н of the Supreme Soviet of the Soviet Union.
4 ) Where did Mela Kheer Bhawani festival is celebrated in 2019?
A.Andhra Pradesh B.Odisha C.Jammu & Kashmir D.Tripura
Learning Zone:
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Mela Kheer Bhawani festival was celebrated in Jammu & Kashmir on Zeasht Ashtami. In 2019, the day fell on June 10. The devotees prayed at the famous Ragnya Devi temple in Ganderbal district, J&K. Zyestha Ashtami is celebrated by Kashmiri Pandits across the country and outside as the day marks commencing of annual pilgrimage.
5 ) The Kashmiri Pandits forcefully evicted from J&K Valley was in?
A.1960s B.1970s C.1980s D.1990s
Learning Zone: Mela Kheer Bhawani is one of the biggest religious functions of displaced community of Kashmiri Pandits, who were forcefully evicted from Valley in 1990s by militants.
6 ) When the IAAF was founded, what the name it was ?
A.World Amateur Athletic Federation B.World Amateur Athletic Federation C.International Amateur Athletic Federation D.International Athletic Federation
Learning Zone: When IAAF was founded in 1912, the name it had was International Amateur Athletic Federation. It was changed to International Association of Athletics Federations in 2001.
7 ) Which Insurance Company launched 'My Protection Quotient' Tool?
A.Max Life Insurance B.LIC India C.Bajaj Allianz General Insurance D.Birla Life Insurance
Learning Zone:
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Max Life Insurance launched 'My Protection Quotient' Tool.
8 ) World Day Against Child Labour observes in .
A.June 10 B.June 11 C.June 12 D.June 13
Learning Zone: World Day Against Child Labour observed on June 12.
9 ) The headquarters of ICAT is located at?
A.Manesar B.Chennai C.Mysore D.Trivandrum
Learning Zone: Manesar is the headquarters of ICAT.
10 ) The headquarters of Amazon is located at?
A.Seattle, Washington, U.S. B.Lagos,Africa C.Mumbai, India D.Taiwan, China
Learning Zone: Head Quarters of Amazon is Seattle, Washington, U.S.
Set-13 1 ) Who is the Current prime Minister of Japan ?
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A . Yoshihiko Noda B . Shinzo Abe C . Naoto Kan D . Yukio Hatoyama
Learning Zone : Shinzo Abe is the Japanese politician serving as Prime Minister of Japan and Leader of the Liberal Democratic Party since 2012.
2 ) The HSTDV missile was successfully launched from in2019.
A . Rajasthan B .Kerala C .Odisha D . Mumbai
Learning Zone : The HSTDV missile was successfully launched from Dr Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha
3 ) When is the International Albinism Awareness Day 2019 observed?
A . June 11 B . June 13 C . June 16 D . June 19
Learning Zone : International Albinism Awareness Day (IAAD) is celebrated on June 13 every year. The day aims to celebrate the human rights of persons with albinism worldwide. The theme for 2019 for the day is Still Standing Strong. The theme aims to recognize, celebrate and stand in solidarity with albinism patients around the globe. It is a call for solidarity.
4 ) Which village becomes first 100% Solar Powered Village in Karnataka ? A . Jagadal B . Kavatagi C . Amasebailu
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D . Alagur
Learning Zone : Amasebailu, a small village situated on the left bank of Haldi river in Udupi. It is the first village in Karnataka to have 100% solar-powered houses.
5 ) When was the President rule imposed in J&K?
A . December 2018 B . December 2017 C . January 2019 D . January 2018
Learning Zone : Under Section 92 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, there is no provision for further continuation of Governor's rule after six months. Hence, on the recommendation of Governor and having regard to the prevailing situation in the state, the President's rule was imposed on December 20, 2018.
6 ) IDBI Bank reduced its MCLR by 5-10 basis points to ______.
A . 5.95% B . 6.95% C . 7.95% D . 8.95%
Learning Zone : Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)-owned IDBI Bank reduced its Marginal Cost of funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) by5-10 basis points to 8.95% across various tenors with immediate effect on June 12.
7 ) Bank has reduced its MCLR by 5-10 bps across various tenors.
A . SBI B . IDBI C . PNB D . ICICI
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Learning Zone : Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)-owned IDBI Bank reduced its Marginal Cost of funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) by5-10 basis points to 8.95% across various tenors with immediate effect on June 12.
8 ) ranked 113 in the End of Childhood Index?
A . India B . Srilanka C . Pakistan D . Russia
Learning Zone : According to the 3rd End of Childhood Index 2019, a part of Changing Lives in Our Lifetime – Global Childhood Report 2019, India was ranked 113 in 176 countries on the wellbeing of children with 769 score out of 1000.
9 ) Which country planned to invest Rs 13,000 crores in Northeast India ?
A . China B . India C . Japan D . Pakistan
Learning Zone : The Government of Japan planned to invest an amount of 205.784 billion Yenequal to Rs 13000 crores to complete new projects in different states of India's North- Eastern region.
10 ) NTA to conduct IGNOU entrance exam for MBA and BEd courses for Jan ______admission
A . 2020 B . 2021 C . 2022 D . 2023
Learning Zone :
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Entrance examinations of IGNOU's MBA (OPENMAT) and B.Ed programmes are conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) across 100 cities across India. The test for admission to MBA – OPENMAT – and entrance for B.Ed programs for January 2020 admissions will both be conducted by the NTA on July 27 at more than 100 cities across India.
Set-14 1 )Who is the following to be honoured with humanitarian award by UNICEF ? A . Ramesh Kumar B . Priyanka Chopra C . Salman Khan D . Katrina Kaif
Learning Zone : Indian actress Priyanka Chopra with the Danny Kaye Humanitarian Award at the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)Snowflake
2 )Headquarters of UNICEF located at .
A . New York,United States B . Botswana, Gaborone C . Angola, Luanda D . Bulgaria, Sofia
Learning Zone : Headquarters of UNICEF located is New York,United States.
3 ) How much farmers have to pay for PM Kisan Pension Scheme 2019 ?
A . Rs 500 B . Rs 200 C . Rs 400 D . Rs 100
Learning Zone :
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Central government plans to launch a village-level campaign to enroll an additional one crore farmers in Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme over the next 100 days,The scheme urged States to ensure wider coverage of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojna (PM-Kisan) and pension schemes Currently, there are about 6.92 crore KCC holders. Around 14.5 crore operational landholdings farmers eligible for an agricultural loan of up to ₹1.6 lakh. Among the major States that have poor KCC penetration are: Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Maharashtra and West Bengal.
4 )When World Blood Donor Day is observed?
A . June 24 B . June 14 C . June 10 D . June 18
Learning Zone : World Blood Donor Day is observed as June 14.The day is celebrated to raise awareness of the need for safe blood and blood products and to thank blood donors. The theme is - Blood Donation and Universal Access to Safe Blood Transfusion The main aim is to use as a component of achieving universal health coverage.
5 ) Who claim biggest ever Women's Fifa World Cup 2019 win ?
A . Pakistan B . United States Of America C . South Africa D . Indonesia
Learning Zone : United States Of America claim biggest ever Women's Fifa World Cup win.They defeated Thailand in Group-F match at Reims in France. Alex Morgan scored five times prior to the three-time winners.
6 )Who wrote the author of the book The Circle of Reason?
A . Arundhati Roy B . Salman Rushdie
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C . Chetan Bhagat D . Amitav Ghosh
Learning Zone : The Circle of Reason is the first novel by Indian writer Amitav Ghosh. It was published in 1986.
7 )Which of the countries are the founding member of SCO?
A . China, Russia B . Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan C . Uzbekistan, Tajikistan D . All of the above
Learning Zone : SCO is a Eurasian political, economic and security alliance in which China plays an influential role. The founding member of SCO includes China, Russia, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan. India and Pakistan were admitted to Beijing-based regional security grouping in 2017.
8 ) is the latest mission proposed by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2019?
A . Gaganyaan B . Chandrayaan-2 C . Space station D . None of the above
Learning Zone : ISRO unveiled plan to set up its own space station in seven years. ISRO is to set up a very small and a separate space station. It will not be a part of the International Space Station (ISS). The project will be an extension of the Gaganyaan mission, which aims to send an Indian crew to space in 2022. The weight of the space station will be around 20 tonnes. ISRO's proposal will be sent to the government for approval by 2022 after the first Gaganyaan mission. the mission is looking at 5-7 years to execute the programme. The cost of the proposed space station was not disclosed.
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9 ) took charge as Speaker of Andhra Pradesh Assembly in 2019.
A . Rakesh Singh B . Vikram Simgh C . Tammineni Sitaram D . Vikram Kumar
Learning Zone : Tammineni Sitaram took charge as Speaker of Andhra Pradesh Assembly.
10 ) Who emerged as the most trusted brand in India in 2019 according to TRA Research Report 2019?
A . Samsung B . Flipcart C . Dell D . Reliance
Learning Zone : Dell company emerged as the most trusted brand in India in 2019 according to TRA Research Report 2019.Around 31% Brand Trust Index (BTI) difference from Dell, an auto brand Jeep attained a dramatic entry in the second spot. LIC and Amazon ranked on third and fourth spots .
Set-15
1 )Name the union minister who condemns violence against doctors in Kolkata in 2019?
A . Shri Arun Jaitley B . Shri Vikram Sinha C . Shri Suresh Krishna D . Shri Harsha Vardhan
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Learning Zone: Shri Harsha Vardhan condemns violence against doctors in Kolkata.There are some necessary and important for the doctors to get a safe work environment in all states.
2 ) The mission of NASA's OSIRIS-REx spacecraft is .
A . to study the outer Solar System B . to study asteroids C . to study the Kuiper belt D . to study pluto
Learning Zone: The OSIRIS-REx is a NASA asteroid study and sample-return mission. The mission's main goal is to obtain a sample of at least 60 grams from 101955 Bennu, a carbonaceous near-Earth asteroid, and return the sample to Earth for a detailed analysis.
3 ) The Asia Media Summit established in .
A . 2001 B . 2002 C . 2003 D . 2004
Learning Zone: Asia Media Summit was established in 2004 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. The summit was held subsequently in Malaysia until 2008. It provides opportunity for media practitioners, industry leaders, broadcasters, researchers, academia, experts and media policy makers to meet and discuss the developing media’s quality and high technological revolution.
4 ) The 16th Asia Media Summit was held on .
A . California
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B . Cambodia C . Cuba D . Canada
Learning Zone: The 16th Asia Media Summit was concluded on 13 June in Cambodia. The summit called for regulation-making to fight against fake news and cyber- crimes.The theme of the summit was Media Digitalisation - Focusing on Developing Markets.
5 ) ranked last in the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings.
A . Afghanistan B . India C . Pakistan D . Japan
Learning Zone: Iceland topped the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings which was released by Institute for Economics & Peace. Since 2008, Iceland holds the most peaceful country in the world. India ranked 141 among 163 countries. Afghanistan ranked as the least peaceful country in the world. Th has replaced Syria, which is now the second least peaceful.
6 ) What is the rank of in the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings ?
A . 140 B . 141 C . 142 D . 143
Learning Zone:
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Iceland topped the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings which was released by Institute for Economics & Peace. Since 2008, Iceland holds the most peaceful country in the world. India ranked 141 among 163 countries. In 2018, India ranked at 136th among 163 countries. The report highlighted that India, Philippines, Japan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, Indonesia, Vietnam and Pakistan are the nine countries with the highest risk of multiple climate hazards. In the overall natural hazard score, India stands 7th highest.
7 ) topped the Global Peace Index rankings 2019.
A . Austria B . India C . Russia D . Iceland
Learning Zone: Iceland topped the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings which was released by Institute for Economics & Peace. Since 2008, Iceland holds the most peaceful country in the world. India ranked 141 among 163 countries. In 2018, India ranked at 136th among 163 countries.
8 ) In March 2018, the US imposed ______tariff on steel. A . 10 % B . 25 % C . 30 % D . 41 %
Learning Zone: In March 2018, the US imposed 25% tariff on steel and 10% import duty on aluminium. India was one of the major exporters of these items.
9 ) Where will be the G20 summit held in 2019?
A . China B . Japan C . Korea
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D .Russia
Learning Zone: The 2019 G20 Osaka summit will be the fourteenth meeting of Group of Twenty. It will be held on 28–29 June 2019 at the International Exhibition Center in Osaka. It will be the first-ever G20 summit to be hosted in Japan.
10 ) Which organisation won the 2019 BBC World Service Global Champion Award? A . Mahila Dakshata Samiti B . Akshaya Patra C . Navjyoti India Foundation D . Etasha Society
Learning Zone: The Bengaluru-based NGO Akshaya Patra has been awarded the BBC World Service Global Champion Award for the programme. The award is presented at the BBC Food and Farming Awards in Bristol, London. The award recognises a project or person who is changing the way the world produces, processes, consumes or thinks about food for the better.
Set-16
1 )What is the position of India in the latest FIFA Rankings in 2019?
A .100 B .101 C .102 D .103
Learning Zone : The Indian men’s football team remained static at the 101st position in the latest FIFA rankings. India recently participated in King's Cup in Thailand, in
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which it lost one match and won the other in the tournament. The Indian team is at the 18th spot among the Asian countries.
2 ) gained the top spot in the latest overall FIFA world rankings in 2019.
A . Brazil B . France C . Belgium D . Portugal
Learning Zone : Belgium remained to top the overall FIFA world rankings, followed by France, Brazil, England, and Portugal.
3 ) will be the guest nations at the 2020 Copa America.
A . Australia and Qatar B . Qatar and Japan C . Germany and Brazil D . Kuwait and New Zealand
Learning Zone : Australia will be one of the two guest nations at the 2020 Copa America. Qatar will also return to 2020 tournament, which will be co-hosted by Argentina and Colombia. Qatar and Japan are the guest nations in 2019 Copa, which started on June 15 in Brazil.
4 ) is celebrated as LGBTQ Pride month.
A . April B . June C . August D . December
Learning Zone :
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June month is celebrated as the Lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender and queer or questioning (LGBTQ) Pride month all over the world. The LGBTQ pride month is celebrated to commemorate the anniversary of Stonewall riots at Stonewall Inn in New York, a gathering space for LGBTQ community during the 60s.
5 ) Which of the Indian State was affected by Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) in 2019?
A .Assam B .Bihar C .Odisha D . West Bengal
Learning Zone : Muzaffarpur district of Bihar reported death of 69 children due to Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES). Till now over 130 have been hospitalised in the district. The district Magistrate of Muzaffarpur has announced that for students till class eight, schools will remain closed till June 22 and for students in higher standards, classes will be held only till 10.30 am.
6 ) Encephalitis disease is caused by .
A . Bacteria B .Virus C .Fungi D .None of the above
Learning Zone : Encephalitis is an inflammation or swelling and irritation of the brain. In most cases. It is also called acute viral encephalitis or aseptic encephalitis. It is a viral disease. The viral disease causes mild flu-like symptoms such as a high fever, personality changes, convulsions (seizures), severe headache, nausea and vomiting, stiff neck, confusion, problems with speech or hearing, hallucinations, memory loss, drowsiness and coma.
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7 )Scientists install two highest weather stations to collect weather data to study the impacts of rising global temperatures on . A . Mount Manaslu B . Mount Everest C . Mount Lhotse D . Mount Manaslu
Learning Zone : Scientists from National Geographic Society and Tribhuvan University installed have installed two highest weather stations in the world in an expedition to Mount Everest that wrapped up in June 2019. The two weather monitoring stations are located at an altitude of 8,430 meters (27,657 feet) and 7,945 meters (26,066 feet). Also, three other stations have been set up across the Mount Everest.
8 ) What type of lock did RBI suggest the banks to use to operate ATM for cash replenishment? A.One Time Check locks B.One Time Combination locks C.Digital Check locks D.Digital Combination locks
Learning Zone : The Reserve Bank of India has asked the banks to ensure their ATMs are grouted to a wall, pillar, or floor by the end of September month. The ATMs shall be operated for cash replenishment only with digital One Time Combination (OTC) locks. All banks can also roll out a comprehensive e- surveillance mechanism at the ATMs. This will ensure timely alerts and quick response.
9 ) banned commercials that reinforce gender prejudices in 2019.
A . Germany B . UK C . India D . Japan
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Learning Zone : UK government has banned commercials that reinforce gender prejudices. Advertising Standards Authority (ASA), UK's advertising watchdog introduced the ban because it found evidence suggesting that adverse stereotypes could restrict the choices, aspirations and opportunities of children, young people and adults. These kinds of stereotypes can be reinforced by some advertising that plays a part in unequal gender outcomes.
10 )Encephalitis is an inflammation or swelling and irritation of the ______.
A . liver B . intestine C . pancreas D . brain
Learning Zone : Encephalitis is an inflammation or swelling and irritation of the brain. In most cases. It is also called acute viral encephalitis or aseptic encephalitis. Symptoms: The viral disease causes mild flu-like symptoms such as a high fever, personality changes, convulsions (seizures), severe headache, nausea and vomiting, stiff neck, confusion, problems with speech or hearing, hallucinations, memory loss, drowsiness and coma.
Set-17 1 ) is the new president of Slovakia? A.Alexander Dubcek B.Vladimír Meciar C.Ľudovít Štúr D.Zuzana Caputova
Learning Zone : Zuzana Caputova is the new president of Slovakia.The swearing-in ceremony took place at Constitutional Court chair Ivan Fiacan parliamentary session held
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in Bratislava,Xinhua. After her sworn in ceremony she insisted to maintain and strengthen this space of the pillars of Slovakia.
2 ) conferred with 'Save Water Hero Award' in 2019.
A.Dinesh Kumar B.Ramesh gupta C.Vivek Chopra D.Makarand Tilloo
Learning Zone : Makarand Tilloo is conferred with 'Save Water Hero Award.This award presented to him in order to encourage his efforts to raise awareness about water conservation in the city. The ceremony was held in Pune, Maharashtra.
3 ) crowned as Femina Miss India 2019.
A . Manushi Chillar B . Aditi Araya C . Neha Dupia D . Suman Rao
Learning Zone : Suman Rao is crowned as Femina Miss India 2019.The ceremony held at the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Indoor Stadium, New Delhi. Shivani Jadhav, Chhattisgarh won Femina Miss Grand India 2019 title. Shreya Shanker, Bihar won Miss India United Continents 2019 title.
4 ) can boost exports of 350 products to US, China amid trade war.
A . Indonesia B . India C . Pakistan D . Saudi Arabia
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Learning Zone : India can boost exports of 350 products to US, China amid trade war.
5 ) Which state to set up Skill University at Darrang district in 2019? A . Assam B .Bihar C .Tamilnadu D .Mumbai
Learning Zone : Assam Assam government planned to set up a Skill University at the cost of 850 crore rupees at Darrang district. The proposed institution is known as Skill City.It is the first skill university of the country with a capacity of 10 thousand seats.
6 )In , the Mann Ki Baat Indian radio programme was started.
A . June 2015 B . June 2013 C . October 2014 D . October 2015
Learning Zone : Mann Ki Baat Indian radio programme which was originally released on 3 October 2014. Mann Ki Baat Indian radio programme hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in which he addresses the people of the nation on All India Radio, DD National and DD News. Mann Ki Baat is to resume on June 30.
7 ) Mann Ki Baat is to resume on June 30, 2019. Who hosts the programme? A . President of India B . Cabinet Members C . Parliament D . Prime Minister
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Learning Zone : Mann Ki Baat Indian radio programme hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in which he addresses the people of the nation on All India Radio, DD National and DD News. Mann Ki Baat is to resume on June 30. The programme aims to deliver the Prime Minister's voice to the general masses of India. It also aims to spread joy, positivity and celebrate the strength of 130 crore Indians. People can share their questions on the NaMo App Open Forum.
8 ) India boost export products to the US and China trade war products.
A . 200 B . 250 C . 300 D . 350
Learning Zone : India boost export 350 products to the US and China trade war.Commerce Ministry of India made a study the trade war between the US and China offers an opportunity to India for boosting exports of as many 350 products such as chemicals and granite to these countries.
9 ) was removed as the Chairman of the J&K Bank.
A . R K Chibber B . Pranlal Devkaran Nanjee C . Parvez Ahmed D . Ashwani Kumar
Learning Zone : The Jammu and Kashmir government on Saturday removed J&K Bank Chairman Parvez Ahmad and appointed R K Chibber as interim Chairman.
10 ) When Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change formed? A . 1980 B . 1985
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C . 1990 D . 1995
Learning Zone : World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought day is observed every year on June 17 The theme for this year is Let's grow the future together.It is formed on 1985.
Set-18
1 ) The 13th session of the Conference of Parties (COP-13) of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) held at .
A . Dhaka, Bangladesh B . Ordos, China C . Tokyo, Japan D . London, England
Learning Zone : The 13th session of the Conference of Parties (COP-13) of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was held in Ordos, China. Around 113 countries had agreed to specify concrete targets with clear indicators, to rehabilitate more land and reverse degradation, which currently affects over a third of the world’s land resources.
2 ) Which is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested under restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by 2030. ?
A . Bonn Challenge B . Montreal Protocol C . Ramsar convention D . Kyoto protocol
Learning Zone :
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The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded land under restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by 2030.
3 ) Operation Vijay, the Indian operation to push back infiltrators in the Kargil War, happened in . A . 1997 B . 1998 C . 1999 D . 2000
Learning Zone : India is to celebrate the 20th anniversary of victory in ‘Operation VIJAY’ popularly known as the ‘Kargil War’. The Kargil War is a saga of strong political, military and diplomatic actions. The ‘Kargil Vijay Diwas’ celebrations for the year 2019 will be spread over three days from 25-27 July 2019 and will be organized at Dras and New Delhi.
4 ) What is the cause of Kargil war 1999?
A .Pakistan held 55 Indian citizens hostile B . Pakistan demanded Kashmir by war C . Pakistani soldiers infiltrated D . None of these
Learning Zone : The Kargil War was an armed conflict between India and Pakistan. It took place in Kashmir and along the Line of Control (LOC). In India, the conflict was also referred to as Operation Vijay. The Pakistani soldiers disguised as Kashmiri militants and infiltrated into positions on the Indian side of the LOC. Indian army launched "Operation Vijay" to push back infiltrators.
5 ) has recorded the 2nd highest successful chase in World Cup history in 2019.
A . West Indies B . India C . Pakistan
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D . Bangladesh
Learning Zone : Bangladesh has recorded the second highest successful chase in World Cup history. The Bangladesh cricket team chased down the target of 322 against West Indies. Bangladesh (322/3) beat West Indies (321/8) by 7 wickets in Taunton. The previous second highest successful chase in World Cup was also recorded by Bangladesh when they chased down the target of 319 against Scotland in 2015. Notably, it is also Bangladesh's highest ever chase in ODI cricket.
6 ) hosts the 2019 Cricket World Cup. A . Japan B . China C . England D . India
Learning Zone : 2019 Cricket World Cup is being held from 30 May to 14 July. It is hosted by England. 10 teams are Participating. It is the 12th edition of the Cricket World Cup.
7 ) The 48th DG level talks between India's Border Security Force (BSF) and the Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) held in in 2019 A . Dhaka, Bangladesh B . New Delhi, India C . Dispur, Assam D . Chittagong, Bangladesh
Learning Zone : India's Border Security Force (BSF) and the Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) concluded the 48th DG level talks on 15 June at Dhaka, Bangladesh. A Joint Record of Discussion was signed by DG, BSF, Rajni Kant Mishra and DG, BGB, Major General Md Shafeenul Islam.
8 ) The headquarters of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) located at .
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A . New York, the US B . Nairobi, Kenya C . Abuja, Nigeria D . London, England
Learning Zone : UNEP is Headquartered at Nairobi, Kenya. The head is Inger Andersen and Director is Erik Solheim. It was founded on 1972, Nairobi, Kenya. UNEP aims to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations.
9 ) The 2nd Meeting of India-Italy Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism held at in 2019.
A . New Delhi, India B . Milan, Italy C . Rome, Italy D . Mumbai, India
Learning Zone : The 2nd Meeting of India-Italy Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism was held at New Delhi, India on 17 June 2019. The joint working group discussed threats posed by terrorist entities globally and in their respective regions including cross border terrorism.
10 ) Who is appointed as the new Executive Director of the United Nations Environment Programme 2019?
A . Igor Ivanov B . N.R. Narayana Murthy C . Inger Andersen D . Timothy E. Wirth
Learning Zone :
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Inger Andersen of Denmark is appointed as the new Executive Director of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). She was nominated to the post by UN Secretary-General António Guterres. The nomination was approved by acclamation by the UN General Assembly on 20 February. She will serve for a period of four years.
Set-19 1 . Facebook will roll out its cryptocurrency Libra in .
A . 2019 B . 2020 C . 2021 D . 2022
Learning Zone : Facebook finally unveiled the details of Libra, its cryptocurrency. Using Libra people can buy things or send money to people with nearly zero fees. It will be rolled out for use in 2020 and allow the platform’s billions of users across the globe to make financial transactions online. The currency will be serviced by a collective of companies called the Libra Association.
2 . Why did RBI imposed penalty on HDFC Bank in 2019?
A. know your customer (KYC) norms B. prepaid payment issue (PPI) norms C. anti-money laundering (AML) norms D. A and C
Learning Zone :
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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed Rs.1 crore penalty on private sector lender HDFC Bank for violating know your customer (KYC) and anti-money laundering (AML) norms. The penalty was imposed on 18 June 2019.
3 .RBI imposed ______penalty on HDFC Bank for violating KYC/AML norms in 2019.
A . Rs.1 crore B . Rs.2 crore C . Rs.3 crore D . Rs.4 crore
Learning Zone : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed Rs.1 crore penalty on private sector lender HDFC Bank for violating know your customer (KYC) and anti-money laundering (AML) norms. The penalty was imposed on 18 June 2019.
4 . has been elected as the Speaker of Lok Sabha in 2019.
A . Virendra Kumar B . Sumitra Mahajan C . M Thambidurai D . Om Birla
Learning Zone : Om Birla has been unanimously elected as the 17th Lok Sabha Speaker with the opposition Congress coming out in support of the National Democratic Alliance (NDA)’s candidate. Birla will replace Sumitra Mahajan.
5 . was the former Speaker of Lok Sabha. A . Sumitra Mahajan B . Virendra Kumar C . Om Birla D . M Thambidurai
Learning Zone :
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Om Birla has been unanimously elected as the 17th Lok Sabha Speaker with the opposition Congress coming out in support of the National Democratic Alliance (NDA)’s candidate. Birla will replace Sumitra Mahajan.
6 . Who is the 17 th speaker of Lok Sabha ?
A . Sumitra Mahajan B . Virendra Kumar C . Om Birla D . M Thambidurai
Learning Zone : Om Birla has been unanimously elected as the 17th Lok Sabha Speaker with the opposition Congress coming out in support of the National Democratic Alliance (NDA)’s candidate. Birla will replace Sumitra Mahajan.
7 . sworn in as the Pro-tem Speaker of 17th Lok Sabha.
A . M Thambidurai B . Virendra Kumar C . Om Birla D . M. A. Ayyangar Tirupati
Learning Zone : Virendra Kumar sworn in as the Pro tem Speaker of 17th Lok Sabha.
8 . has set the world record for most sixes in an ODI.
A . Virat Kholi B . Rohit Sharma C . Eoin Morgan D . AB de Villiers
Learning Zone : England captain Eoin Morgan set the world record for most sixes (17) in an One Day International (ODI). He achieved this record during his 71-ball 148-run knock against Afghanistanin World Cup on 18 June 2019. Morgan was assisted by Joe
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Root in the 189-run partnership for the third wicket during which Root made 88 runs off 82 balls.
9 . According to Randstad Employer Brand Research (REBR) 2019, is the most attractive employer brand in India.
A . Sony B . Microsoft C . Amazon D . Mercedes-Benz
Learning Zone : According to the Randstad Employer Brand Research (REBR) 2019 reported that Amazon India, the E-commerce giant, is the most attractive employer brand in the country. Amazon scored high on financial health, utilisation of latest technologies and a strong reputation.
10 . NITI Aayog proposed that only electric vehicles should be sold after ______.
A . 2020 B . 2025 C . 2030 D . 2040
Learning Zone : NITI Aayog, the government's think tank, has proposed that only electric vehicles should be sold after 2030. The move is to expand the scope of the clean fuel technology beyond two- and three-wheelers.
11 . made GPS device mandatory for trekkers.
A . Sikkim B . Uttaranchal C . Himachal Pradesh D . Jammu & Kashmir
Learning Zone :
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The Himachal Pradesh government made it mandatory for trekkers to carry a GPS device to tackle any exigency on 18 June 2019. The decision was made in a review meeting chaired by Additional Chief Secretary Shrikant Baldi on preparedness for the monsoon in Shimla.
12 . The highest bridge in Asia at Kandror is located on river.
A . Ravi B . Sutlej C . Chenab D . Beas
Learning Zone : The highest bridge in Asia at Kandror is located on Sutlej river.
Set-20
1 . planned to ban sale of petrol and diesel cars from 2030.
A . Indonesia B . India C . South Africa D . Japan
Learning Zone : Ireland decided to ban the sale of new petrol and diesel vehicles by 2030 as part of a major strategy to protect the environment.
2 . topped the USGBC list of Top 10 States for LEED in India.
A . Maharashtra B . Andhra pradesh C . Tamilnadu D . Himachal Pradesh
Learning Zone :
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Maharashtra topped the USGBC list of Top 10 States for LEED in India
3 . Tamil Nadu got certified projects in 2019.
A . 150 B . 154 C . 157 D . 160
Learning Zone : Maharashtra bagged the top slot with 334 LEED-certified green buildings It is followed by Karnataka and Tamil Nadu with the rankings 232 and 157 buildings respectively.
4 . extended $15 million grant to Niger to organize the AU summit 2019.
A . Indonesia B . India C . South Africa D . Japan
Learning Zone : India extended USD 15 million assistance to Nigeria for organizing the African Union (AU) summit scheduled to be held in Niamey.
5 . is the President of Nigeria.
A . Emmanuel Macron B . Boko Haram C . Theresa May D . Muhammadu Buhari
Learning Zone : Muhammadu Buhari is the President of Nigeria.India extended USD 15 million assistance to Nigeria for organizing the African Union (AU) summit scheduled to be held in Niamey.
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6 . became the most expensive bowler in World Cup history.
A . Rashid Khan B . Imran Tahir C . Andile Phehlukwayo D . Mitchell Starc
Learning Zone : Afghanistan leg-spinner Rashid Khan is the most expensive bowler in World Cup history. He is the world’s No.3 ODI bowler.
7 . Unemployed Graduates Get Up to ______in Rajasthan.
A . Rs 3500 B . Rs 4500 C . Rs 5500 D . Rs 6500
Learning Zone : Unemployed Graduates Get Up to Rs 3500 in Rajasthan.Unemployed youth who completed their graduation or equivalent degree will be given unemployment allowance by the Rajasthan government.
8 . How many International delegates participated in 12th ReCAAP ISC capacity building workshop? A . 31 B . 50 C . 55 D . 65
Learning Zone : Indian Coast Guard (ICG) co-hosted the 12th Capacity Building workshop in New Delhi. The cooperation with the Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (ReCAAP) Information Sharing Centre ('SC) in New Delhi. Around 31 International delegates from 19 countries participated in the workshop.
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9 . How many countries participated in 12th ReCAAP ISC capacity building workshop?
A . 10 B . 19 C . 25 D . 35
Learning Zone : Around 19 countries participated in the workshop.Indian Coast Guard (ICG) co- hosted the 12th Capacity Building workshop in New Delhi. The cooperation with the Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (ReCAAP) Information Sharing Centre ('SC) in New Delhi. It began on June 19, 2019, and concluded on June 20, 2019.
10 . World Refugee Day observed in .
A . June 17 B . June 18 C . June 19 D . June 20
Learning Zone : World Refugee Day is observed on June 20 each year. The day is dedicated to raising awareness of the situation of refugees throughout the world. The theme for 2019 World Refugee day is #StepWithRefugees — Take A Step on World Refugee Day. The theme expects communities, schools, businesses, faith groups and people from all walks of life should take big and small steps in solidarity with refugees.
Set-21
1 . When international Day of Yoga observed?
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A . 20 June B . 21 June C . 22 June D . 23 June
Learning Zone : Nepal celebrates 5th International Day of Yoga. Government of Nepal planned to organize a yoga program in Kathmandu to celebrate the International Day of Yoga. International Day of Yoga aims to raise awareness worldwide about the benefits of practicing yoga.
2 . How many member squad did India utilized at Asian Junior Badminton Championship ?
A . 20 B . 21 C . 22 D . 23
Learning Zone : India named a 23-member squad to represent the country at the Asian Junior Badminton Championship. The tournament will be held in Suzhou, China.
3 . Who emerged as the fastest economy in Asia-Pacific: Asian Development Bank ?
A . China B . India C . Nepal D . Bangladesh
Learning Zone : Bangladesh emerged as the fastest economy in Asia-Pacific: Asian Development Bank .
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4 . government set to launch a universal health insurance scheme in 2019.
A . Kerala B . Assam C . Punjab D . Tamilnadu
Learning Zone : Punjab Punjab Health Minister Balbir Singh Sidhu State Government to launch its flagship universal health insurance scheme named "Sarbat Sehat Bima Yojana(SSBY).
5 . Indian Navy planned to build submarines.
A . 2 B . 3 C . 5 D . 6
Learning Zone : Indian Navy issued an ‘Expression of Interest’ for shortlisting potential strategic partners. The construction of six P-75 (I) submarines costing nearly ₹45,000 crore. This is the second project being undertaken under the latest Strategic Partnership (SP) Model.The procurement of 111 naval utility helicopters (NUH) are obtained recently.
6 . Fresh bill to ban Triple Talaq to be introduced in ______.
A . Supreme Court B . Lok Sabha C . Rajya Sabha D . Election Commission Of India
Learning Zone : Fresh bill to ban Triple Talaq to be introduced in Lok Sabha.The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 is been listed in the Lok Sabha's
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agenda replace an ordinance This is issued in February by the previous BJP-led NDA government.
7 . The headquarters of SEBI located at .
A . Ranchi B . Mumbai C . Chennai D . Hyderabad
Learning Zone : Headquarters of SEBI is Mumbai.
8 . is the Commander-in-Chief of Indian Navy?
A . Shri Suresh prabhu B . Shri Ram Nath Kovind C . Shri Arun Jaitley D . Shri Vivek kumar Learning Zone : Indian Navy issued an ‘Expression of Interest’ for shortlisting potential strategic partners. The construction of six P-75 (I) submarines costing nearly ₹45,000 crore. This is the second project being undertaken under the latest Strategic Partnership (SP) Model.
9 . won silver at Folksam Grand Prix 2019.
A . Vikram Sinha B . Suresh kumar C . Johnson D . Siddardath Learning Zone : Johnson won silver at Folksam Grand Prix 2019.Asian champion PU Chitra of India won a gold medal in women's 1500m at Folksam Grand Prix 2019 The
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event held in Sollentuna, Sweden. She did her clocking 4 minutes 12.65 seconds (4:12.659).
Set-22
1 . is has been nominated for inclusion in 2022 Commonwealth Games.
A .Beach Volleyball B . Women's cricket C . Shooting D . Both A & B
Learning Zone : Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF) nominated the inclusion of women's cricket in the 2022 Commonwealth Games, which is scheduled to be held in Birmingham, United Kingdom. Beach Volleyball and para table tennis were also nominated for inclusion in the 2022 edition.
2 . has emerged as the top Indian institution in the Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University Ranking 2020.
A . IIT-Kanpur B . IIT-Bombay C . IISc-Bangalore D . IIT-Delhi
Learning Zone : The Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay (IIT-Bombay), has emerged as India's best institution in the Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World University Ranking 2020. IIT Bombay which was at 162nd rank last year has moved up to 152nd rank.
3 . India extend as assistance to Niger for organising the African Union (AU) summit 2019.
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A . USD15 million B . USD20 million C . USD10 million D . USD5 million
Learning Zone : India has extended USD 15 million assistance to Niger for organising the African Union (AU) summit scheduled to be held in Niamey from July 7-8.
4 . What is the basic exemption limit in income tax?
A . Rs 2.5 lakh B . Rs 3.5 lakh C . Rs 4.5 lakh D . Rs 5 lakh
Learning Zone : At present, income up to Rs 2.5 lakh is exempt from personal income tax. However, income between Rs 2.5 to 5 lakh attracts 5 per cent tax plus 4 per cent cess, while that between Rs 5 to 10 lakh is levied with 20 per cent tax plus Rs 12,500 plus four per cent cess. Income above Rs 10 lakh is taxed at 30 per cent.
5 . fixed 4th July, 2019 as date for merger with Bharat Financial Inclusion Ltd (BFIL).
A . IndusInd Bank B . ICICI Bank C . State Bank of India D . Yes Bank
Learning Zone : Private sector lender IndusInd Bank and Bharat Financial Inclusion Ltd (BFIL) announced their merger which will be effective from July 4.
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6 . is appointed as head to sort AAI trouble in World Archery.
A . Vikram B . Suresh C . Bindra D . Krishna
Learning Zone : World Archery appointed Abhinav Bindra to sort out the ongoing mess in the Archery Association of India (AAI). AAI violated the constitution by unanimously electing two parallel bodies in Chandigarh and New Delhi.
7 . organises Capacity Building Program On Electoral Technology.
A . IIT B . IIFC C . IIIDEM (ECI) D . IIM
Learning Zone : IIIDEM (ECI) organises Capacity Building Program On Electoral Technology.
8 . CCI approves Indiabulls Housing Finance and ______merger.
A . Lakshmi Vilas bank B . Yes bank C . State Bank of India D . Dena bank
Learning Zone : CCI approves Indiabulls Housing Finance and Lakshmi Vilas bank merger
9 .Who is the President of Niger ?
A . Mohammed Saidil Moctar B . Salou Djibo C . Mamadou Tandja D . Daouda Malam Wanke
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Learning Zone : About Niger: Capital: Niamey Niger President:- Mohammed Saidil Moctar
10 . The first official Commonwealth Games were held in in .
A . 1930 , Birmingham ,UK. B . 1950 , Birmingham ,UK. C . 1930 , Hamilton, Canada. D . 1950 , Hamilton, Canada.
Learning Zone : About Commonwealth Games: 2022 Venue: Birmingham, United Kingdom Nations participating: 73 2018 Commonwealth Games was held in Gold Coast, Australia. The first official Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
Set-23
1 . Cash deposits in Canara Bank accounts of up to Rs. ______are free for 3 transactions in a month. A . 50,000 B . 60,000 C . 70,000 D . 80,000
Learning Zone : Cash deposits in Canara Bank accounts of up to Rs. 50,000 are free for 3 transactions in a month, and then there will be a service charge of ₹1 per thousand, with a minimum of ₹50 and a maximum of ₹5,000-plus GST.
2 . IMEI is .
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A . International Mobile Elight Identity B . International Mobile Equipment Identity C . Internal Mobile Equipment Identity D . Internet-based Mobile Enquiry Identification
Learning Zone : Every mobile phone comes with an IMEI number. Known as International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number, IMEI number is used to identify a device. If a phone is stolen, you can call your network provider and ask them to blacklist the device with the IMEI number. This process will make the device unusable for the thief (if stolen) even if the SIM is changed on the phone.
3 . RBI Committee suggested to increase the collateral-free loans for MSMEs from Rs 10 lakh to ______.
A . Rs 10 lakh B . Rs 20 lakh C . Rs 30 lakh D . Rs 40 lakh
Learning Zone : RBI expert committee on Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) headed by the former Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Chairman U K Sinha, has recommended doubling the capital on collateral-free loans from the current Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh, for borrowers falling under the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA), self-help groups, and MSMEs.
4 . According to Ericsson Mobility Report, had the world's highest data usage per smartphone.
A . U.S. B . Japan C . China D . India
Learning Zone : India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching 9.8 GB per month at the end of 2018, according to a new study by Swedish telecom equipment maker Ericsson.
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5 . GI tag was granted for ‘Namma Kolhapuri chappals’. The GI tag approval was jointly received by ______and ______for making these chappals.
A . Bihar and Uttar Pradesh B . Gujarat and Rajasthan C . Karnataka and Maharashtra D . Kerala and TamilNadu
Learning Zone : The controller general of patents, designs and trademarks has granted the GI (Geographical Indications) tag to Kolhapuri chappal from Kolhapur, Sangli, Satara and Solapur districts of Maharashtra and Dharwad, Belgaum, Bagalkot and Bijapur of Karnataka.
6 . Indias first solar cruise vessel will debut in ______. A .Assam B .Bihar C .Chandigarh D .Kerala
Learning Zone : Kerala is gearing up for the launch of the country’s premier solar-powered cruise boat. The initiative comes from the State Water Transport Department (SWTD), whose solar ferry Aditya in the Vaikom-Thavanakadavu route proved to be a success.
7 . ______first solar cruise vessel will debut in Kerala.
A .India B .Japan C .America D .Russia
Learning Zone : Kerala is gearing up for the launch of the country’s premier solar-powered cruise boat. The initiative comes from the State Water Transport Department (SWTD),
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whose solar ferry Aditya in the Vaikom-Thavanakadavu route proved to be a success.
8 . UN Report Unveils Involvement of Saudi Officials in the Killing of ______.
A . Khashoggi B . New york C . Mexico D . Venice
Learning Zone : UN Report Unveils Involvement of Saudi Officials in the Killing of Khashoggi
9 . PM Modi has attend G-20 summit in ____ from in 2019.
A .Pakistan , June 27-29 B .Japan , June 27-29 C .India , June 20-29 D .China , June 20-29
Learning Zone : Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has attend the G-20 summit in Osaka, Japan from June 27-29, the Ministry of External Affairs.
10 . PM Modi has attend ____summit in Japan from June 27-29, 2019 A . 18 B . 19 C . 20 D . 21
Learning Zone : Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has attend the G-20 summit in Osaka, Japan from June 27-29, the Ministry of External Affairs.
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Set-24 1 )Who is appointed to the post of Representative of India in the Council of ICAO, 2019?
A.Shefali Juneja B.Seetha Raman C.Nitya Varun D.Ramesh kumar
Learning Zone : Senior bureaucrat Shefali Juneja was appointed as India's representative in the council of International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO), a United Nations body.
2 ) Headquarters of the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) located at?
A.Brasilia,Brazil B.Tokyo,Japan C.Pune,Mumbai D.Montreal, Canada
Learning Zone : About the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) Founder: Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation Founded: 1944 Headquarters: Montreal, Canada Head: Fang Liu
3 )‘Operation Sankalp’ was launched by in 2019.
A.Indian Navy B.Indian Army C.Indian Air Force D.Indian Police
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Learning Zone : Indian Navy launched ‘Operation Sankalp’ in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
4 )What is the name of the Operation launched by Indian Navy in the Gulf of Oman?
A.Operation Polo B.Operation Vijay C.Operation Blue Star D.Operation Sankalp
Learning Zone : Operation Sankalp launched in escalating tension in Gulf of Oman.
5 )India’s first iron ore mine discovered in ______
A.Srilanka B.Bangladesh C.Nepal D.Pakistan
Learning Zone : For the first time in Bangladesh, a magnetite (iron ore) mine has been discovered at Isabpur village in Hakimpur upazila of the district, bringing new hopes for the country’s economy.
6 )Who become the firtst country to ratify 'new NAFTA' trade deal ?
A.Srilanka B. Pakistan C.Maxico D.India
Learning Zone :
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Mexico became the first country to ratify the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement agreed late last year to replace the North American Free Trade Agreement at the behest of U.S. President Donald Trump.
7 )Who won the bronze at Asian Artistic Gymnastic Champi 2019?
A.Pranati Nayak B.Prerna Nayak C.Pranjali Nayak D.Prema Nayak
Learning Zone : Indian gymnast Pranati Nayak clinched a bronze medal in vault event at the Senior Asian Artistic Gymnastics Championships in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
8 ) Which of the country has become the first Arab country to join the Financial Action?
A.Srilanka B.India C.Saudi Arabia D.Nepal
Learning Zone : Saudi Arabia became the first Arab country to get membership of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
9 ) Who signs a multi-year partnership with Cricket Australia in 2019?
A.Tech Mahindra B.HCL C.Infosys D.Cognizant
Learning Zone : Indian multinational information technology service HCL Technologies (Hindustan Computers Limited, HCL) signed a multi-year deal with Cricket Australia (CA), the administrative body of Australian Cricket.
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Set-25 1 ) What is the Currency of Mauritania ? A .Rupee B. Mauritanian ouguiya C. Renminbi D. Thai baht
Learning Zone : The ouguiya also spelled ougiya is the currency of Mauritania.
2 ) Who is the governor of RBI?
A . N S Vishwanathan B . BP Kanungo C . MK Jain. Acharya D . Shaktikanta Das
Learning Zone : Shri Shaktikanta Das, IAS Retd., former Secretary, Department of Revenue and Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India assumed charge as the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India effective December 12, 2018. Immediately prior to his current assignment, he was acting as Member, 15th Finance Commission and G20 Sherpa of India.
3 ) Who was the first governor of RBI ?
A . Sir James Braid Taylor B . Sir Osborne Smith C . Chintaman Dwarkanath Deshmukh D . Sir Benegal Rama Rau
Learning Zone : Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank. A professional banker, he served for over 20 years with the Bank of New South Wales and 10 years with the Commonwealth Bank of Australia before coming to India in 1926 as a Managing Governor of the Imperial Bank of India.
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4 ) When the RBI was Established ?
A . 1 April 1935 B . 2 April 1935 C . 3 April 1935 D . 4 April 1935
Learning Zone : Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
5 ) Who is the President of UAE ?
A . Zayed bin Sultan Al Nahyan B . Maktoum bin Rashid Al Maktoum C . Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan D . None of those
Learning Zone : The current President of UAE is Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan.
6 ) When was the National Small Industries Corporation Limited founded ?
A . 1955 B . 1982 C . 1998 D . 1970
Learning Zone : National Small Industries Corporation Limited, also known as NSIC was established in 1955 as a Government of India undertaking.
7) bagged power project order worth Rs. 7,000 crore recently.
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A . Ashok Leyland B . Oil and Natural Gas Corporation C . Larsen and Toubro Company D . Reliance Industries
Learning Zone : Larsen and Toubro Company (L&T) bagged power project order worth Rs. 7,000 crore recently.Their main aim to set up a 2x660 MW ultra-supercritical power plant in Buxar district, Bihar.
8 ) Headquarters of L and T Company situated at .
A . Bangalore B . Hyderabad C . Mumbai D . Chennai
Learning Zone : Larsen and Toubro (L&T) bagged a mega engineering, procurement and construction (EPC) order from SJVN Thermal Private Limited. Their main aim to set up a 2x660 MW ultra-supercritical power plant in Buxar district, Bihar.
Set-26 1 . gifted Manipur a peace museum.
A . Indonesia B . India C . China D . Japan
Learning Zone : Japan gifted Manipur a museum of peace built on the memories of one of the fiercest battles of the Second World War.
2 . Olympic Committee have active members.
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A . 70 B . 85 C . 95 D . 107
Learning Zone : About International Olympic Committee Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland Membership: 95 active members Honorary President: Belgium Jacques Rogge President: Germany Thomas Bach
3 .India proposed to host 2023 IOC session in .
A. Mumbai B . Assam C . Odisha D . Sikkim
Learning Zone : India proposed to host the 2023 International Olympic Committee session in Mumbai.It is expected to choose the host city for the 2030 Winter Olympics.
4 )What is the scheme planned by the central government to double farmers income by the year 2022?
A . National Food Security Mission B . Krishi Vigyan Kendras C . Antyodaya Anna Yojana D . Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
Learning Zone : Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar made central Government to decide to use digital technology across rural India to double farmers income by the year 2022. The Government set up 713 Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) and 684 Agricultural Technology Management Agencies (ATMA) at the district level in the country for dissemination of technologies among the farming community.
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5 ) What is the rank of in the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings ? A . 140 B . 141 C . 142 D . 143
Learning Zone: Iceland topped the Global Peace Index 2019 rankings which was released by Institute for Economics & Peace. Since 2008, Iceland holds the most peaceful country in the world. India ranked 141 among 163 countries. In 2018, India ranked at 136th among 163 countries. The report highlighted that India, Philippines, Japan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, Indonesia, Vietnam and Pakistan are the nine countries with the highest risk of multiple climate hazards. In the overall natural hazard score, India stands 7th highest.
6 ) When the International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed ?
A . 26 April B . 26 May C . 26 June D . 26 July
Learning Zone : The International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed annually on 26 June. The decision to mark the day was taken on 7 December 1987 via resolution 42/112 of the United Nations General Assembly in order to strengthen global action and cooperation to achieve its aim of making the international society free of drug abuse.
7 )Who is the Chairman of NITI Aayog ?
A .Narendra Modi B . Rajiv Kumar C . Amitabh Kant D . None of the above
Learning Zone :
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NITI Aayog: Formed on: 1 January 2015 Headquarters: Delhi Chairman: Narendra Modi Vice Chairman: Rajiv Kumar CEO: Amitabh Kant
8 ) Which is the smaller state in terms of incremental performance?
A . Mizoram B . Tripura C . Assam D . Manipur Learning Zone : Among the smaller states, Mizoram ranked first in overall performance, while Tripura and Manipur were top two states in terms of incremental performance.
Set-27
1 . the new director general of Indian Coast Guard.
A . Nitish Khanna B . K Natarajan C . Vikram Singh D . Ramesh kumar
Learning Zone : Krishnaswamy Natarajan has been appointed as the next director general of Indian Coast Guard and would be replacing incumbent Rajendra Singh who is retiring after three and a half years of illustrious command.
2 . World Bank issued millions for Uttarakhand Public Financial Management in order to strengthen Project.
A . 11.58
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B . 21.58 C . 31.58 D . 41.58
Learning Zone : The Government of India, the Government of Uttarakhand and the World Bank today signed a loan agreement of $31.58 million for the Uttarakhand Public Financial Management Strengthening Project that will help improve the state’s ability to manage its finances and better utilize funds for development purposes.
3 . The name of the film which won award at Shanghai International Film Festival is .
A . Poomaram B . The Predator C . Hold the Dark D . Veyilmarangal
Learning Zone : Veyil Marangal (Trees Under the Sun), directed by Bijukumar Damodaran, won the award for ‘Outstanding Artistic Achievement’ at the 22nd Shanghai International Film Festival, becoming the first Indian film to win a major award at the festival.
4 .Who is the Road Transport and Highways Minister of India?
A . Rajnath Singh B . Nitin Gadkari C . Amit Shah D . Nirmala Sitharaman
Learning Zone : "The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has decided to modify the format of driving licences to laminated card without chip or smart card type driving licences," Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari said in a written reply to the Rajya Sabha.
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5 .Who is the Union Commerce and Industry Minister of India?
A . Rajnath Singh B . Nitin Gadkari C . Piyush Goyal D . Nirmala Sitharaman
Learning Zone : Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal said the Bill, which would replace an ordinance, was aimed at improving and encouraging more investments and introducing features including single-window clearance and to ease imports and exports.
6 . World Bank signed a loan agreement of $31.58 million for the Public Financial Management Strengthening Project in 2019. A . Uttarakhand B .Bihar C .Assam D .Odisha
Learning Zone : The Government of India, the Government of Uttarakhand and the World Bank signed a loan agreement of $31.58 million for the Uttarakhand Public Financial Management Strengthening Project that will help improve the state’s ability to manage its finances and better utilize funds for development purposes.
7 .Who is appointed as the new chairman of Internet and Mobile Association of India ?
A . Amit Agarwal B . Tom Alberg C . Indra Nooyi D . Patty Stonesifer
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Learning Zone : Amit Agarwal, senior vice-president, Amazon and country manager, India, has been appointed as the new chairman of Internet and Mobile Association of India [IAMAI].
8 .Who claim Mallorca Open title 2019?
A . Sofia Kenin B . Belinda Bencic C . Tatjana Maria D . None of Above
Learning Zone :
American 20-year-old Sofia Kenin saved three match points on her way to beating third seed Belinda Bencic 6-7(2) 7-6(5) 6-4 in the Mallorca Open grass court final.
9 . Who launched CMS?
A .RBI B . UCB C . NBFC D . None of above
Learning Zone : CMS is a software application launched by RBI for lodging complaints against any regulated entity with public interface such as commercial banks, urban cooperative banks (UCBs), Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
10 . RAW is the foreign intelligence agency of .
A . Japan B . Bhutan C . India D . Russia
Learning Zone :
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Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW): ♦ Formed on: 21 September 1968 ♦ Headquarters: New Delhi, India ♦ Minister responsible: Narendra Modi, PM of India ♦ It is the foreign intelligence agency of India.
Set-28 1 .Where the 7th India and Brunei Darussalam Foreign Office Consultations was held ?
A . Hyderabad B . New Delhi C . Chennai D . Mumbai
Learning Zone: The 7th Foreign Office Consultations between India and Brunei Darussalam was held on 24th June, 2019 in New Delhi.
2 . extends ban on EU Food Imports till December 31, 2020.
A . Iran B . Pakistan C . Indonesia D . Russia
Learning Zone: Russian President Vladimir Putin has extended a ban by Moscow on food product imports from the United States, the European Union and its allies until the end of 2020, continuing its retaliation against the sanctions imposed on Russia over Ukraine.
3 . launches Crime Mitigation solution for smaller banks.
A . Wipro B . Tech Mahindra C . Oracle
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D . Cognizant
Learning Zone: Oracle is broadening availability of its Oracle Financial Services Anti-Money Laundering solution for smaller banks, the company said. 4 . Who is the Founder of Oracle ? A . Larry Ellison B . Bob Miner C . Ed Oates D .All of the above
Learning Zone: About Oracle Founded: 16 June 1977 Headquarters: Redwood City, California, U.S Founders: Larry Ellison, Bob Miner, and Ed Oates
5 .Who is the Champion of TechGig Code Gladiators 2019 ?
A . Sameer Gulati B . Madhav Sainanee C . Pranjal Jain D . Jatin Yadav
Learning Zone:
History would remember TechGig Code Gladiators 2019 as that crucial coding event where an ex-champion and a defending champion came face to face to claim the ‘world’s best coder’ title. The winner of 2017 Sameer Gulati and 2018 winner Vineet Paliwal, along with over 2.6 lakh coders fought it out tooth and nail for 87 days to claim the 2019 title, which was clinched by Sameer Gulati, ultimately.
6 .What is the Currency of Brunei ?
A . Thai baht
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B . Renminbi C .Rupee D . Brunei dollar
Learning Zone: About Brunei Brunei is an important partner of India under the framework of Act East Policy and in the Indo-Pacific region. Countries work closely in regional and multilateral fora including ASEAN and the UN. Capital: Bandar Seri Begawan Currency: Brunei dollar
7 .Who is elected as a member of the International Olympic Committee ?
A . Rajeev Mehta B . Nita Ambani C . Narinder Batra D .None of the above
Learning Zone: Indian Olympic Association president Narinder Batra was elected as a member of the International Olympic Committee. 8 .The Headquarter of Indian Olympic Association situated in .
A .New Delhi B .Bangalore C .West Bangle D .Karnataka
Learning Zone: About Indian Olympic Association Headquarters New Delhi, India President Narinder Dhruv Batra Secretary-General Rajeev Mehta
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Set-29
1.Maharaja Ranjit Singh honoured on his ______death anniversary in 2019.
A . 160th B . 170th C . 180th D . 190th
Learning Zone : On the 180th death anniversary of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the legendary ruler of Punjab, a statue was unveiled at the Lahore Fort in 2019. Around 500 people crossed the Wagah border to attend the unveiling event. The main ceremony will take place on Saturday at Gurdwara Dera Sahib.
2 . MOA signed between Ministry of Shipping and ______to set up CICMT A . IIT Guwahati B . IIT Khargapur C . IIT Roorkee D . IIR Mumbai
Learning Zone : Ministry of Shipping signed a Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) with IIT Kharagpur for setting up the Centre for Inland and Coastal Maritime Technology (CICMT) at IIT Kharagpur.
3 . Go Tribal campaign by Tribes India launched in ______.
A . New Delhi B .Tamilnadu C . Punjab D .West Bangle
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Learning Zone : Go Tribal campaign by Tribes India launched in New Delhi.Go Tribal Campaign program launched by Tribes India. Minister of State for Tribal Affairs, Smt. Renuka Singh in the presence of Shri R.C. Meena, Chairman, Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India and other dignitaries joined in New Delhi
4 . India and World Bank signed USD ______loan agreement to eliminate TB in 2019.
A . 100 Millions B . 200 Millions C . 300 Millions D . 400 Millions
Learning Zone : The World Bank and the Government of India signed here today a Loan Agreement of $400 Million to expand the coverage and the quality of interventions for the control of Tuberculosis (TB), which kills approximately half a million people in India every year
5 . Statistics Day is observed on .
A . 29th May B . 30th May C . 29th June D . 30th June
Learning Zone : Statistics Day is observed on 29th June
6 .Who introduced The Homeopathy Central Council Bill, 2019, in the Lok Sabha ?
A . Shripad Yesso Naik B . Ramjee Singh C . Ram Nath Kovind D . None of the Above
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Learning Zone : The Homeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Bill, 2019, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Shripad Yesso Naik, Minister of State, Ministry of AYUSH.
7 . The Homeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was the bill to be passed in the Lower House after the Special Economic Zone (Amendment) Bill 2019.
A .1st B .2nd C .3rd D .4th
Learning Zone :
The Homeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Bill, 2019, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Shripad Yesso Naik, Minister of State, Ministry of AYUSH. This was the second bill to be passed in the Lower House after the Special Economic Zone (Amendment) Bill 2019.
8 .The Sagarmala programme was lunched in . A . July 31, 2012 B . July 31, 2013 C . July 31, 2014 D . July 31, 2015
Learning Zone : About Sagarmala programme: It is an initiative by the government of India to enhance the performance of the country's logistics sector. Launched: July 31, 2015 9 . Who is the Minister of State for Tribal Affairs of New Delhi? A . Shri R.C. Meena B . Smt. Renuka Singh C . Shri Deepak Khandekar D . Shri Pravir Krishna
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Learning Zone : Minister of State for Tribal Affairs, Smt. Renuka Singh will launch the “Go Tribal Campaign” by Tribes India at an event. Shri R.C. Meena, Chairman, TRIFED and Shri Deepak Khandekar, Secretary, Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Shri Pravir Krishna, MD, TRIFED will be present on the occasion.
10 . When the Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was cleared ?
A . June 27 B . June 28 C . June 29 D . June 30
Learning Zone : The Rajya Sabha on June 27 cleared the Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Bill, 2019, that seeks to allow trusts to set up units in special economic zones, a day after the Lok Sabha passed the measure.
Set-30
1 .International Day of the Tropics observed on .
A . 26 June B . 27 June C . 28 June D . 29 June
Learning Zone: The United Nations observe 29 June as International Day of the Tropics. This day celebrates the extraordinary diversity of the tropics while highlighting unique challenges and opportunities the Tropical nations face.
2 . ______Union finance & Corporate Affairs minister, among '100 Most Influential in I-JK-India Relations: Celebrating Women' list A . Shri Vivek Sharma B . Shri Nirmala Sitharaman
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C . Shri Arun Jaitley D . Shri Nitish Kumar
Learning Zone: Shri Nirmala Sitharaman Union finance & Corporate Affairs minister, among '100 Most Influential in I-JK-India Relations: Celebrating Women' list.
3 . Who took over as NHB MD?
A . Sarada Kumar Hota B . Rajesh Kumar C . Ramesh Kumar D . Dinesh Kumar
Learning Zone: Sarada Kumar Hota took over as NHB MD.Government of India, Canara Bank General Manager (GM)Sarada Kumar Hota assumed charge as the National Housing Bank (NHB) Managing Director
4 .Which of the following missile has successfully test-fired indigenously developed nuclear-capable by India ? A . Agni VI B . Nirbhay C . Prithivi II D . Brahmos
Learning Zone: India successfully test-fired indigenously developed nuclear-capable missile Prithivi II.
5 .Which of the following energy saving app is launched by BYPL ? A . Green Outlet B . Energy Cost Calculator C . Ecobee Smart Thermostat D . 'Susthome'
Learning Zone:
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BYPL, a power distribution company, launched energy saving app 'Susthome'.The main aim is to cut down on electricity consumption. The behavioral app -- Susthome It is developed by BYPL and TERI.
6 . won the Miss Universe Australia 2019 title.
A . Reita Faria B . Priya Serrao C . Manushi Chhillar D . Manish Paul
Learning Zone: India born Priya Serrao has won the Miss Universe Australia title for 2019. Serrao edged past 26 other women from across the country in Melbourne to win the title on 27 June. She will now represent Australia in the Miss Universe Australia 2019.
7. Which of the following NASA's mission is to the Saturn's largest planet, Titan? A . InSights B . Dragonfly C . Curiosity D . Parker
Learning Zone: NASA announced a new mission to explore this fascinating world with a helicopter drone. The mission, called Dragonfly is the latest in NASA’s New frontier program. NASA has earlier launched explorations of Pluto, Jupiter, the asteroid Bennu, and now, Titan.
8 . is the largest moon of Saturn?
A . Dione B . Mimas C . Titan D . Phobos
Learning Zone:
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Titan, the largest moon of Saturn, has a lot in common with Earth. It has a thick, nitrogen-dense atmosphere and features like rivers, lakes, mountains, and, potentially volcanoes. The atmosphere of Titan is four times as dense as the Earth’s and there’s less gravity which makes it a prime location in the solar system to deploy a drone.
9 . is appointed as the new President of Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO).
A . Nirmal Kumar B . Arun Prasad Yadhav C . Giovanni Vincenzo D . Sharad Kumar Saraf
Learning Zone: Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO) has elected Sharad Kumar Saraf as its new president. Saraf will succeed renowned exporter Ganesh.
Set-31 1 . occupied the top position in the unemployment rate according to NSSO Survey.
A . Nagaland B . Andhra Pradesh C . Assam D . Arunachal Pradesh
Learning Zone: According to the survey, "The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for 2017-18" which is conducted by National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO).
2 . is the capital of Nagaland.
A . Dispur B . Patna
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C . Kohima D . Pune
Learning Zone: Nagaland is the captial of Kohima.
3 . to launch commemoration of four years of Digital India initiative.
A . Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad B . Shri Vivek Sharma C . Shri Nitin Gadkari D . Shri Suresh Prabhu
Learning Zone: Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad to launch commemoration of four years of Digital India initiative.
4 . introduces free crop insurance scheme Bangla Shashya Bima for farmers.
A . Andhra pradesh B . Himachal Pradesh C . West Bengal D . Bihar
Learning Zone: West Bengal introduces free crop insurance scheme Bangla Shashya Bima for farmers.West Bengal Government launched a crop insurance scheme, Bangla Shashya Bima (BSB).
5 . For how many districts the Bangla Shashya Bima scheme will be applied? A . 10 B . 15 C . 20 D . 25
Learning Zone:
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West Bengal Government launched a crop insurance scheme, Bangla Shashya Bima (BSB).This scheme is applicable for farmers in 15 districts.
6 . Govt is to introduce new GST return filing system which would replace ______. A . GSTR-3B (summary returns) only B. GSTR - 2B (summary returns) and GSTR-1 (supplies return) C . GSTR-3B (summary returns) and GSTR-1 (supplies return) D . None of these
Learning Zone: Govt is to introduce new GST return filing system which would replace GSTR-3B (summary returns) and GSTR-1 (supplies return) .
7 . is the author of the book "A Prime Minister to Remember."
A . Shri Vikram Singh B . Shri Rajesh Kumar C . Shri Sushil Kumar D . Shri Suresh Krishna
Learning Zone: Former Navy Chief Admiral Sushil Kumar Former Navy Chief Admiral Sushil Kumar authored a book named "A Prime Minister to Remember- Memories of a Military Chief" got released.
8 . Saudi Arabia increased India's Haj quota by ______.
A . 10,000 B . 20,000 C . 30,000 D . 40,000
Learning Zone: Saudi Arabia increased India's Haj quota by 30,000.Saudi Arabia increased India's Haj quota by 30,000. It was like the third hike in 3 years. It is increased from 1,70,000 to 200,000. Indians get a chance to visit annual Islamic pilgrimage to Mecca
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9 . India has signed Rs.200 crore deal with ______to acquire Strum Ataka. A . Japan B . US C . UK D . Russia
Learning Zone: India has signed Rs.200 crore deal with Russia to acquire Strum Ataka. The anti- tank missile will be added to the fleet of Mi-35 attack choppers of Indian Air Force (IAF). This deal comes in wake of an IAF’s attempt to keep itself battle- ready in situations like post-Balakot aerial strikes. The Strum Ataka anti-tank missile would give an added capability to Mi-35 attack choppers of IAF to take out enemy tanks and other armoured elements.
10 . Who was the first man to climb the Seven Summits in 1986?
A . Ed Viesturs B . Arunima Sinha C . Conrad Anker D . Patrick Morrow
Learning Zone: Canadian mountaineer Patrick Morrow was the first man to climb the Seven Summits in 1986.
Set-32
1 .When will be the 'One Nation One Ration Card' scheme available across the country?
A . July 1, 2020 B . July 1, 2021 C . July 1, 2022 D . July 1, 2023
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Learning Zone : ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ scheme, which will allow portability of food security benefits, will be available across the country from July 1, 2020.
2 . Which place did India slipped in terms of money in Swiss Banks?
A . 10th B . 20th C . 50th D . 74th
Learning Zone : India dropped one place in the annual banking statistics report released by the Swiss National Bank (SNB). India is now positioned at the 74th rank in terms of money parked by the Indian individuals and enterprises in the Swiss banks.
3 . is the chairman of Swiss National Bank.
A . Suresh Kumar B . Peter Harrys C . Thomas Jordan D . John Williams
Learning Zone : About Swiss National Bank: A central bank of Switzerland is responsible for the monetary policy of the nation of Switzerland and also for the issuing of Swiss franc banknotes Chairman: Thomas Jordan Headquarters: Bern and Zurich
4 . Which state declared 'Tamil Yeoman' or 'Tamil Maravan' as its state butterfly recently?
A . Assam B . Tamil Nadu C . Bihar D . Odisha
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Learning Zone : Tamil Nadu Government has declared Tamil Yeoman (Cirrochroa thais) as the state butterfly of the state based on the recommendation of state forest department.
5 . won 2019 Austrian Grand Prix.
A . L. Hamilton B . V. Bottas C . Max Verstappen D . C. Leclerc
Learning Zone : Max Verstappen won 2019 Austrian Grand Prix.Red Bull's Max Verstappen won the 2019 Austrian Grand Prix.He defeated Ferrari's, Charles LeclercMercedes Valtteri Bottas met continuous win and finishes with the third one.
6 . Which country bans single-use plastic shopping bags ?
A . New Zealand B . India C . Australia D . UK
Learning Zone : New Zealand bans single-use plastic shopping bags
7 . Who is the present HRD Minister?
A . Shri Arun Jaitley B . Shri Prakash Javedakar C . Shri Suresh Prabhu D . Shri Nitin Kumar
Learning Zone : Shri Prakash Javedakar is the present HRD Minister of India.
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8 . hosts the International Security Alliance (ISAs) first joint security exercise named ISALEX19.
A . Spain B . Senegal C . Slovakia D . UAE
Learning Zone : United Arab Emirates ,The International Security Alliance’s First Joint Exercise (ISALEX19) hosted by the UAE Ministry of Interior (MoI) kicked-off.
9 . How many countries are there in International Security Alliance (ISA)?
A .7 B .8 C .9 D .10
Learning Zone : The International Security Alliance (ISA) was launched in February 2017. The objective of protecting the safety of the communities and the prosperity of the countries by combating organized and transnational crimes. The alliance now comprises nine countries: United Arab Emirates, French Republic, Kingdom of Bahrain, Kingdom of Morocco, Italy, Republic of Senegal, Republic of Singapore, Spain, Slovakia.
10 . Which of the following are the member countries of ISA? A . Morocco, Spain, Senegal B . Singapore, Slovakia C . UAE, France, Italy, Bahrain D . All the above
Learning Zone : The International Security Alliance (ISA) was launched in February 2017. The objective of protecting the safety of the communities and the prosperity of the countries by combating organized and transnational crimes. The alliance now comprises nine countries: United Arab Emirates, French Republic, Kingdom of Bahrain, Kingdom of Morocco, Italy, Republic of Senegal, Republic of Singapore, Spain, Slovakia.
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Set-33
1 .Who is appointed as the CMD of BSNL ?
A . Vikram Sharma B . Suresh yadav C . Dinesh kumar D . P.K. Purwar
Learning Zone: Pravin Kumar Purwar has been appointed as the new Chairman-Managing Director (CMD) of BSNL.
2 . get Presidents award for excellent Corporate Social Responsibilty.
A . Indian oil Corporation (IOC) B . National Aluminium Company Limited NALCO C . Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited BSNL D . Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited BHEL
Learning Zone: National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO), the Navratna CPSE under Ministry of Mines, Govt. of India, has been selected for the prestigious President’s Award for Excellent CSR.
3 . When was the Aliali Jhia Scheme was initiated ?
A . 2015 B . 2016 C . 2017 D . 2018
Learning Zone:
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About Aliali Jhia Scheme It is a new scheme on the line of BETI BACHAO BETI PADHAO" It is initiated from the year 2015.
4 . The headquarters of NALCO is situated in .
A . Ranchi,Jaipur B . Bhubaneswar, Odisha C . Chennai,TamilNadu D . Pune,Mumbai
Learning Zone: About NALCO Headquarters: Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India Chairman and managing director: Dr.T.K.Chand Net income: Increase ₹ 1,732 crore
5 . How many millions did Asian Development Bank approved for Chhattisgarh Road Improvement Project?
A . $ 250 millions B . $ 350 millions C . $ 450 millions D . $ 550 millions
Learning Zone: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved USD 350 million loan for road project in the state of Chhattisgarh.
6 .Which of the following bank approved $350 Million Loan for Chhattisgarh Road Improvement Project?
A . HSBC Bank B . Asian Development Bank C . World Bank D . Bank of America (BAC)
Learning Zone:
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The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved USD 350 million loan for road project in the state of Chhattisgarh.
7 . is elected to the board of IATA.
A . Suresh Kumar B . Ramesh Kumar C . Dinesh Kumar D . Ajay Singh
Learning Zone: Ajay Singh is elected to the board of IATA.
8 . becomes the first civil servant & IPS Officer to conquer the 'Seven Summits' challenge.
A . Veena Kumar B . Srinidhi Kumar C . Aparna Kumar D . Vivek Raj
Learning Zone: Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG) Aparna Kumar became the first civil servant to scale Mount Denali It is the highest peak in North America.She is the first civil servant and IPS officer to achieve this rare feat.
9 .Which of the following country has officially resumed commercial whaling after more than 30 years?
A . India B . Japan C . China D . Russia
Learning Zone: Japan resumed commercial whaling for the first time in more than 30 years.
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10 . Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IITM) was established in .
A . 1939 B . 1949 C . 1959 D . 1969
Learning Zone: Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IITM) was established in 1959 by the Government of India as an institute of national importance.
Set-34 1 . RBI fines ______Public Sector Banks for violating KYC norms.
A .3 B .4 C .5 D .6
Learning Zone : RBI imposes fine on four public sector banks for violating KYC norms
2 .Who launches its first guidelines on self-care interventions for health? A . Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) B . World Health organisation (WHO) C . Bank for International Settlements (BIS) D . European Central Bank (ECB)
Learning Zone : WHO launches its first guidelines on self-care interventions for health
3 . is the Head of the World Health Organisation.
A . Tedros Adhanom B . Prokopis Pavlopoulos
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C . John Michael D . Ali Khamenei
Learning Zone : About WHO: Establishment: 7 April 1948 Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland Head: Tedros Adhanom
4 .Which of the following has seeked to mandate minimum wages fixed by the central government which will be implemented by states for all occupations?
A . Labour Code for Wages Bill B . Code on Wages Bill C . Industrial Disputes Act D . Industrial Wages Bill
Learning Zone : The Union Cabinet approved the Code on Wages Bill, a draft legislation, on 3 July. The Bill seeks to mandate minimum wages fixed by the central government which will be implemented by states for all occupations. It is a first step towards reviving the labour law reform process. The Bill proposed to empowerthe states to fix different minimum wages based on geography, skill and occupation, along with a national-level minimum wage which will act as a floor.
5 . Who is the Minister responsible for the Ministry of Labour and Employment? A . Santosh Gangwar B . Prahalad Singh Patel C . Jitendra Singh D . Kiren Rijiju
Learning Zone : Ministry of Labour and Employment: Headquarters: New Delhi Minister: Santosh Gangwar (independent charge)
6 . How many member States are there in North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
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A . 20 B . 25 C . 29 D. 30
Learning Zone : The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental military alliance between 29 North American and European countries. It is Headquartered at Brussels, Belgium. Secretary General is Jens Stoltenberg and the Chairman of the NATO Military Committee is Air Chief Marshal Stuart Peach, Royal Air Force.
7 . First Ever IICTF to be held in ______from October 11-13, 2019.
A . Ranchi B . Mumbai C . Chennai D . New Delhi
Learning Zone : The UIDAI has operationalised the first 'Aadhaar Seva Kendra' in Delhi and Vijayawada, setting in motion an ambitious plan to set up 114 such centres by the year-end.
8 . UIDAI stands for ______. A . Unified Identification Authority of India B . Unique Identification Authority of India C . Union Identified Authenticity of India D . Unique Intensified Authority of India
Learning Zone : UIDAI stands for Unique Identification Authority of India. UIDAI was established in January 2009 by the government of India. It functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. It is headquarters in New Delhi. It follows the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016.
9 . won AAI's bid to operate and manage airports at Ahmedabad, Lucknow and Mangaluru.
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A . IndiGo B . Adani Enterprises Ltd. C . TATA Advanced Systems D . Spice Jet Airways
Learning Zone : The government on Wednesday approved leasing out of three State-owned airports — Ahmedabad, Lucknow and Mangaluru — to Adani Enterprises Limited through a public- private partnership.
10 . UP govt to set up Committees in all ____ districts situated on the banks of river Ganga.
A .20 B .25 C .30 D .35
Learning Zone : UP govt to set up Committees in all 25 districts situated on banks of river Ganga
Set-35
1 . ranked first in NITI Aayogs AM FFR Index. A. West Bengal B. TamilNadu C. Maharashtra D. Kerala
Learning Zone : Maharashtra state ranked first in NITI Aayogs AM FFR Index.The index ranks states based on the degree of reforms they have undertaken in agricultural marketing.
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2 . IMF approves ______loan for cash strapped Pakistan. A. $ 3 millions B. $ 4 millions C. $ 5 millions D. $ 6 millions
Learning Zone : IMF approves $ 6 millions loan for cash strapped Pakistan.International Monetary Fund Executive board sanctioned a three-year $6 billion loan package for Pakistan The main aim is to rein in mounting debts and stave off a looming balance of payments crisis.
3 . joined with IndoStar Capital partner to finance commercial vehicles. A. ICICI Bank B. Dena Bank C. State Bank of India D. Bank of Baroda
Learning Zone : ICICI Bank and IndoStar Capital partner to finance commercial vehicles originate and provide service through the customers through the entire loan life-cycle including sourcing, documentation, collection and loan servicing.IndoStar originate customers in tier-II, III, IV cities.
4 . launched web tool for NPA recovery process named 'Vasool So-Ft'. A. Yes bank B. Corporation Bank C. Karnataka Bank
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D. Canara Bank
Learning Zone : Karnataka Bank launched web tool for NPA recovery process named 'Vasool So- Ft. The tool will enable easy & faster processing, real-time information and immediate decision making in the recovery area.
5. Who is awarded with Global Excellence Award 2019?
A. Lakshmi Mittal B. Ajay Banga C. Ratan Tata D. Azim Premji
Learning Zone : Ajay Banga is awarded with Global Excellence Award 2019.Indian multinational corporation Wipro's Chairman, Azim Premji, and Global Financial services company Mastercard's CEO and President, Ajaypal Singh Banga chosen for 2019 Global Excellence Award.
6 . is appointed as an additional director on the Board of Directors (BOD) of Jammu and Kashmir Bank by Reserve Bank of India.
A. AK Misra B. Dinesh Gupta C. Vikram Sharma D. Suresh Kumar
Learning Zone : AK Misra is appointed as an additional director on the Board of Directors (BOD) of Jammu and Kashmir Bank by Reserve Bank of India.
7 . Which state government launched toll-free CM helpline 1076. A. Assam B. Uttar Pradesh
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C. Kerala D. Tamil Nadu
Learning Zone : Uttar Pradesh government launched toll-free CM helpline 1076.Uttar Pradesh government launched a toll-free Chief Minister helpline 1076. This scheme will enable people from across the state to register their complaints and a time- bound action will be taken.
8 . Which Country first withdrew from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces treaty (INF)? A. USA B. Russia C. India D. Nepal
Learning Zone : US first withdrew from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces treaty (INF). The Russian President Vladimir Putin has signed a bill that suspends Russia's participation in the nuclear arms treaty. Putin's decree formalizes the withdrawal of Russia from the 1987 Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces treaty (INF) with the United States. The move comes after the withdrawal of US from the pact.
9 . Where is Rajiv Gandhi International Airport located? A. Maharashtra B. Telangana C. Andhra Pradesh D. Uttar Pradesh
Learning Zone :
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Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is an international airport that serves Hyderabad, the capital of the Indian state of Telangana. It was opened on 23 March 2008 to replace Begumpet Airport.
10 . Which of the following Ministry has introduced the Digi Yatra Policy? A. Ministry of Home Affairs B. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Learning Zone : Government releases policy on biometric based digital processing of passengers at airports. Union Ministry of Civil Aviation has released policy on biometric based digital processing of passengers at airports called Digi Yatra. The initiative seeks to promote paperless and hassle-free air travel.
Set-36
1 .Government increased the budget for drug de-addiction measures to ______
A . Rs 143 crores B . Rs 144 crores C . Rs 145 crores D . Rs 146 crores
Learning Zone : Government increased the budget for drug de-addiction measures to Rs 145 crores.The union government increased funds allocation for drug de-addiction measures to Rs 135 crore from Rs 33 crore in 2014.
2 . ranked second in the Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019.
A . Gujarat
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B . Kerala C . Himachal Pradesh D . Karnataka
Learning Zone : Gujarat state ranked second in the Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019.The main reason is to rank states and union territories based on the implementation of seven provisions proposed under the model Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act.
3 . The headquarters of BPR&D Organisation located in .
A . Gujarat B . Pune C . Allahabad D . New Delhi
Learning Zone : The headquarters of BPR&D Organisation located at New Delhi.
4 . Which rank did India obtained at Most Powerful Passport index 2019?
A . 86 B . 87 C . 88 D . 89
Learning Zone : Around 199 countries in the world based on their Visa-Free Scores showed that Indian passport ranked at 86th position with a mobility score of 58. The report which is released by Henley Passport Index 2019.
5 . French lawmakers approve ______tax on online giants.
A . 3% B . 4% C . 5% D . 6%
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Learning Zone : France, the lower house of parliament approved a small, pioneering tax on internet giants like Google, Amazon and Facebook.The French government hopes that other countries will follow suit.
6 . When BPR&D Organisation founded?
A . New Delhi B . Kolkata C . Allahabad D . Pune
Learning Zone : BPR&D Organisation founded in New Delhi.
7 . launch BJP's membership drive in Telangana.
A . Amit Shah B . Suresh Kumar C . Suresh Prabhu D . prakash Javedakar
Learning Zone : Amit Shah to launch BJP's membership drive in Telangana.He will also attend a state-level meeting with the BJP leaders at Shamshabad.
8 . Which place France obtained in the Powerful Passport index 2019?
A . 1st B . 2nd C . 3rd D . 4th
Learning Zone : France obtained 4th place in the Powerful Passport index 2019.
9 . launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019.
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A . NITI Aayog B . Atal Innovation Mission C . Operation Green D . Khelo India
Learning Zone : NITI Aayog launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019.
10 . When NITI Aayog was formed?
A . 2014 B . 2015 C . 2016 D . 2017
Learning Zone : NITI Aayog was formed in the year 2015. NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog released its "Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index" (AMFFRI) for the year 2019.
Set-37
1 . Where will be the third International Sunflower Seed & Oil Conference held ? A . Mumbai B . Chennai C . Bihar D . Kashmir Learning Zone : India will host 3rd International Sunflower Seed and Oil Conference (ISSOC) 2019 on July 19 and 20 in Mumbai.
2 . India is the chief importer of sunflower oil with imports of around tonnes.
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A . 1.8 million B . 2.8 million C . 3.0 million D . 9.7 million
Learning Zone : India is the chief importer of sunflower oil with imports of around 2.8 million tonnes.
3 . When did the European Union commission founded?
A . 1 January 1955 B . 1 January 1956 C . 1 January 1957 D . 1 January 1958
Learning Zone : About EU commission: Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium Founded: 1 January 1958
4 . is nominated by European Union leaders to lead EU Commission.
A . Ursula von der Leyen B . Charles Michel C . Mette Frederiksen C . Nicos Anastasiades
Learning Zone : European Union leader Ursula von der Leyen to lead EU Commission.
5 . acquires 9.47% stake in Eveready Industries by invoking pledged shares.
A . Dena Bank
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B. Yes Bank C . RBL Bank D . State Bank of India
Learning Zone :
Yes Bank Ltd shares dropped over 6% in early trade after the lender informed the exchanges that it has acquired 9.47% stake in Eveready Industries by invoking pledged shares.
6 . signed an MoU with NeGD to develop revamped app.
A . Indian Navy B . Indian Army C . Indian Air Force D . Indian Police
Learning Zone :
The Army and the National eGovernance Division on July 5 inked a pact for developing a revamped application to maintain the centralised database for personnel, equipment and major stores to provide management-related information to the force, a statement said. The National eGovernance Division is a part of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
7 . won a silver medal for India in World Youth Cup 2019.
A . Arinjeeta Dey B . Dinesh Kumar C . Vikram Sharma D . Ramesh Kumar
Learning Zone : Village girl from West Bengal Arinjeeta Dey has made India proud when she won a silver medal under the 12 category in the Karate World Championship held between July 1 to 5 at Umag in Croatia, according to President of Karate-Do- Association for Bengal Hanshi Premjit Sen.
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8 . Hong Kong Approves Over For Cyclone-Hit Odisha A . $700,000 B . $800,000 C . $900,000 D . $1000,000
Learning Zone :
The Hong Kong government has approved over USD 900,000 for relief and rehabilitation work in cyclone-hit Odisha that could benefit around 45,100 victims, China's official media reported.
9 . The slogan of “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” which means “Hail the soldier, Hail the farmer" was introduced by .
A . Lal Bahadur Shastri B . Jawaharlal Nehru C . Gulzarilal Nanda D . Indira Gandhi Learning Zone : The second Prime Minister of Independent India was Lal Bahadur Shastri. The slogan of “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” which means “Hail the soldier, Hail the farmer" was introduced by him. 10 . Indian economy to become a trillion dollar economy in the current financial year 2019 – 2020 according to Govt. A . 1 B . 3 C . 6 D . 9
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Learning Zone : Indian economy to become a 3 trillion dollar economy in the current financial year 2019 - 2020.
Set-38
1 . has been adjudged as one of the country's five best performing states in 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao'. A . Uttarakhand B . Kerala C . Patna D . Bihar Learning Zone : Uttarakhand has been adjudged as one of the country's five best performing states in 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao', a central scheme aimed at addressing declining child sex ratio and issues of women empowerment.
2 . When did the BBBP scheme has launched? A . 22 January 2014 B . 22 January 2015 C . 22 January 2016 D . 22 January 2017 Learning Zone : About Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme: BBBP scheme launched on 22 January 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
3 . World’s largest burn and plastic surgery institute has started in .
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A . China B . Japan C . India D . Bangladesh
Learning Zone : Bangladesh has started functioning World’s largest burn and plastic surgery institute named Sheikh Hasina National Burn and Plastic Surgery Institute in Dhaka.
4 . Where does the Prosecco hills are situated? A . Italy B .Canada C .UK D . USA Learning Zone : The Prosecco hills of Italy is added to Unesco's World Heritage list
5 . Who launched the Operation ‘Sudarshan’? A .Indian Navy B .BSF C .CRPF D . CISF Learning Zone : Operation ‘Sudarshan’ is launched by BSF which is a massive exercise, code named ‘Sudarshan’, to fortify the ‘anti-infiltration grid’ along the Pakistan border in Punjab and Jammu.
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6 . Who released the book Vivekadeepini ? A . Adi Shankaracharya B . Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu C . Amit Shah D . Rajni Kant Mishra Learning Zone : ‘Vivekadeepini’ is released by Vice President of India Venkaiah Naidu
7 . Who wrote the book Vivekadeepini ? A . Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu B . Shri Narendra Modi C . Adi Shankaracharya D . Shri S.S. Naganand ji Learning Zone :
Shri Naidu said that the pieces of wisdom initially written by Adi Shankaracharya in Prashnottara Ratnamalika have universal relevance irrespective of religion or community and they represent the ethical and moral perspectives underpinning the Indian world view.
8 . ISRO teams up with Russian company Glavkosmos for .
A . selection support
B . medical examination
C . space training
D .All of the Above
Learning Zone :
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ISRO teams up with Russian company Glavkosmos for the selection support, medical examination and space training
9 . Who beats Peru in the final to lift the Copa America 2019 title? A . Bolivia B . Argentina C . Brazil D . Ecuador Learning Zone :
The 46th Edition of Copa America held between 14 June to 7 July 2019 at 6 venues in the host country. Brazil beat Peru 3-1 to win its first South American title since 2007.
10 . Who is appointed as Director general of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guard? A . Vikram Sharma B . Dinesh Karthick C . M Nageswar Rao D . Ramesh Kumar Learning Zone : Central government appointed M Nageswar Rao, Additional Director of CBI as the Director General of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guard
Set-39
1 . launched Immunocontraception Project. A . Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) B . Ministry of Commerce C . Ministry of External Affairs
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D . Ministry of Finance
Learning Zone : Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched Immunocontraception Project.
2 .Who committed to expeditiously complete work on Kartarpur corridor? A .Pakistan B .China C .Nepal D .India Learning Zone: India is committed to completing work on the Kartarpur Corridor, dismissing reports that New Delhi was lagging behind while Pakistan has completed 70 per cent of the work. 3 . India Won medals on Commonwealth Weightlifting Championship. A .11 B .12 C .13 D .14 Learning Zone : The Indian contingent won 13 medals that included eight gold, three silver and two bronze medals in senior, junior and youth categories.
4 . Where did the two new heavy-lift Chinook helicopters for IAF arrived ? A . Visakhapatnam Port, Andhra Pradesh B . Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Maharashtra C . Tuticorin Port, Tamil Nadu
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D . Mundra port, Gujarat Learning Zone : Two new heavy-lift Chinook helicopters for IAF arrived at Mundra port, Gujarat.
5 . Which of the following operation did Delhi Police Crime Branch rescued 333 children in 7 months in 2019? A . Operation Steeplechase B . Operation Vijay C . Operation Milap D . Operation Blue Star Learning Zone : “Operation Milap”: Delhi Police Crime Branch rescued 333 children from the Capital within 7 months.
6 . holds bilateral meeting with the Indonesian Minister of Trade Enggartiasto Lukita in 2019. A . Shri Arun Jaitley B . Shri Prakash Javedakar C . Shri Piyush Goyal D . Shri Suresh Prabhu Learning Zone: Shri Piyush Goyal holds the bilateral meeting with the Indonesian Minister of Trade Enggartiasto Lukita.
7 . sworn as the new Prime minister of Greece. A . Prokopis Pavlopoulos B . Karolos Papoulias
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C . Konstantinos Karamanlis D . Kyriakos Mitsotakis Learning Zone : Kyriakos Mitsotakis of New Democratic Party has been sworn-in as the new Prime Minister of Greece
8 .Who is the Prime Minister of United Arab Emirates ? A . Maktoum bin Rashid Al Maktoum B . Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum C . Rashid bin Saeed Al Maktoum D . Saif bin Zayed Al Nahyan Learning Zone : Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum is the Prime Minister of United Arab Emirates.
9 . The Indian Air Force was Founded in . A . 8 October 1930 B . 8 October 1931 C . 8 October 1932 D . 8 October 1933 Learning Zone : About Indian Air Force : Founded: 8 October 1932, India Headquarters: New Delhi 10 .When did the Common Wealth Games was held for the first time? A . 1930 B . 1931 C . 1932
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D . 1933 Learning Zone : About the CommonWealth Games Commonwealth Games are international sport event involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations. The event was first held in 1930.
Set-40
1 .Where the India's first elephant rehabilitation centre will be set up?
A . Kottoor, Kerala B . Mukteshwar, Uttarakhand C . Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir D . Udaipur, Rajsthan
Learning Zone : India's first elephant rehabilitation centre will be set up at Kottoor, Kerala.
2 . signed MoU with IPFC and NRDC.
A . Ministry of External Affairs B . Ministry of External Affairs C . Defence Ministry D . Ministry of Internal Affairs
Learning Zone : Defence Ministry signed MoU with IPFC and NRDC.Intellectual Property Facilitation Cell (IPFC), Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence and National Research Development Corporation (NRDC), Ministry of Science and Technology signed an MoU with a vision to bridge the capacity shortfall.
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3 . New Delhis Connaught Place is the ______most expensive office location in the world
A . 6th B . 7th C . 8th D . 9th
Learning Zone : New Delhi's Connaught Place is the 9th most expensive office location in the world.
4 .RIL outpace TCS to become the most valued firm by m-cap with more than ______A . 7 lakh crore B . 8 lakh crore C . 9 lakh crore D . 10 lakh crore
Learning Zone : RIL outpace TCS to become the most valued firm by m-cap with more than 8 lakh crore.
5 . won the Northeast Frontier Railways Project Best Innovation Award on 9 July.
A . Plan Bee B . Project RDSO C . Organic Pen to manure D . Save Wildlife
Learning Zone : The Northeast Frontier Railways' (NFR) PLAN BEE won the Best Innovation Award on 9 July. It has adopted a unique strategy to keep wild elephants away from train tracks.
6 . How many railway zones are there in India?
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A . 15 B . 16 C . 17 D . 18
Learning Zone : Indian Railways divides its operations into zones, which are further sub-divided into divisions, each having a divisional headquarters. There are a total of 18 zones.
7 . is appointed as the head of aviation regulator Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
A . Arun Kumar B . Smitha Sabharwal C . B S Bhullar D . Prathiv Singh
Learning Zone : Arun Kumar is appointed as the head of aviation regulator Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) on 9 July. He is currently the additional secretary in the Ministry of Civil Aviation. His appointment was approved by the PM led- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Department of Personnel and Training issued the order of the appointment.
8 . is the Chairman of Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
A . Prime Minister B . President of India C . Minister of Home Affairs D . Minister of Employment
Learning Zone : The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) decides appointments to several top posts under the Government of India. The committee is composed of the Prime Minister of India (who is the Chairman), the Minister of Home Affairs.
9 . The headquarters of Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is located at
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.
A . New Delhi B . Bengaluru C . Jaipur D . Hyderabad
Learning Zone : The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulator of the civil aviation. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It functions under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. The body investigates the aviation accidents and incidents.
10 . Which Article of Indian Constitution provides autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
A . Article 80 B . Article 160 C . Article 370 D . Article 670
Learning Zone : Article 370 of the Indian constitution gives autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The article is drafted as Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions in Part XXI of the Constitution. The Indian Constitution still describes it as a temporary provision.
Set-41
1 .Government approved Phase-I of Bharatmala Pariyojana along Indo-Nepal Border areas with financial outlay of ______a) Rs 3,35,000 crores b) Rs 4,35,000 crores c) Rs 5,35,000 crores d) Rs 6,35,000 crores
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Learning Zone : Government approved Phase-I of Bharatmala Pariyojana along Indo-Nepal Border areas with financial outlay of Rs 5,35,000 crores.
2 . is appointed DG of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guard. a) Suresh Kumar b) MN Rao c) Dinesh Karthick d) Vikram Kumar Learning Zone : MN Rao is appointed DG of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guard.The central government appointed M Nageswar Rao, Additional Director of CBI as the Director General of Fire Services, Civil Defence and Home Guard.
3 .Which of the following has adequate number of healthcare professionals: Indian Institute of Public Health Survey 2019? a) Pakistan b) India c) Saudi Arabia d) Indonesia
Learning Zone : India has adequate number of healthcare professionals: Indian Institute of Public Health Survey
4 . Where did India and ASEAN Troika Trade Ministers Meeting was held ?
a) Chennai b) New Delhi c) Hyderabad d) Secunderabad
Learning Zone : India and ASEAN Troika Trade Ministers Meeting held in New Delhi.
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5 . Where did the second edition of India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue 2019 was held ?
a) Chennai b) New Delhi c) Pune d) Goa
Learning Zone : The Second edition of India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue 2019 held in New Delhi.
6 .Which of the following Govt announces cow welfare fund, hikes Haj committee grant?
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Himachal Pradesh c) Kerala d) Andhra Pradesh
Learning Zone : Madhya Pradesh Govt announces cow welfare fund, hikes Haj committee grant.
7 . Who launched UDIN to improve corporate governance?
a) ESIC b) BHEL c) ICSI d) NTPC
Learning Zone : ICSI launches UDIN to improve corporate governance.Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) rolled out an initiative in the form of a Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN).
8 . France will impose green tax on plane tickets from ______
a) 2019 b) 2020 c) 2021
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d) 2022
Learning Zone : France will impose green tax on plane tickets from 2020.
9 . The ______edition of India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue 2019 held in New Delhi.
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
Learning Zone : The second edition of India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue 2019 held in New Delhi.
10 .Who will impose green tax on plane tickets from 2020?
a) New Zealand b) France c) Russia d) Australia
Learning Zone : France will impose green tax on plane tickets from 2020.French government is to impose a tax of up to €18 on plane tickets for all flights from airports in France to fund less-polluting transportation projects.
Set-42
1 . India and hold high-level talks on migration, mobility. (A) EU (B) Pakistan (C) US (D) China
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Learning Zone : India and the European Union (EU held the fifth high-level dialogue on migration and mobility (HLDMM) and discussed steps aimed at realising the full potential of "further strengthening" cooperation in the key areas.
2 . Which of the following company join hands with Paisabazaar.com to offer financial products. (A) Nokia (B) Samsung (C) Verizon (D) Apple Learning Zone :
South Korean tech giant Samsung announced its partnership with Paisabazaar.com, an online marketplace for financial products in India.
3 . Which of the following has signed MoU with IIT Kanpur for research collaboration. (A) Infosys (B) Prasar Bharati (C) Dell (D) Tech Mahindra Learning Zone : Prasar Bharati and Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur today signed a Memorandum of Understanding for research collaboration in newly emerging technologies and broadcasting-related areas in New Delhi. 4 . Film Divisions to launch documentary film club in ______in 2019. (A) Mumbai (B) Chennai
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(C) Delhi (D) Kolkata Learning Zone : Film Divisions to launch documentary film club in Mumbai. An acclaimed documentary film “Secret Life of Frogs” by Ajay and Vijay Bedi screened as the inaugural film.
5 .Who announced Katrina Kaif as the new brand ambassador in 2019? (A) Reebok (B) Fastrack (C) H and M (D) Nike Learning Zone :
Fitness brand Reebok has announced Bollywood actor Katrina Kaif as its new brand ambassador in India. Katrina Kaif, who trains hard for a fitter and better self each day, embodies the brand ethos and is an inspiration for today’s generation.
6 . acqui-hired 2 startups FloCare and BigTrade. (A) Apple (B) Walmart (C) Verizon (D) Samsung Learning Zone : Walmart Labs start-up FloCare and B2B trading platform BigTrade undisclosed amount. 7 . Which state sets target of $1 trillion economy in the next three years? (A) Mumbai (B) Assam
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(C) Bihar (D) Uttar Pradesh Learning Zone : Uttar Pradesh sets target of $1 trillion economy in the next three years.
8 .Which of the following state has ranked best performing in the field of education? (A) Delhi (B) Karnataka (C) Chandigarh (D) Tamil Nadu Learning Zone : Chandigarh has been ranked best among states and Union territories in the field of education and is followed by Kerala and Gujarat, according to HRD Ministry officials. 9 . won the 2019 Croatia Grand Chess Tour title. (A) Magnus Carlsen (B) Viswanathan Anand (C) Wesley So (D) Ding Liren Learning Zone : Magnus Carlsen of Norway won the 2019 Croatia Grand Chess Tour title. He secured eight points and defeated Wesley So of United States with seven points. Viswanathan Anand ended up with 4.5 points and finished 11th.
10 . Who is the current World Chess Champion? (A) Alexander Khalifman (B) Sergey Karjakin
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(C) Ding Liren (D) Magnus Carlsen Learning Zone : Sven Magnus Carlsen is a Norwegian chess grandmaster and the current World Chess Champion. In addition to his success in classical chess, he is also a two- time World Rapid Chess Champion and four-time World Blitz Chess Champion.
Set-43
1. won fifth Wimbledon title.
A. Serena Williams
B. Novak Djokovic
C. Rafeal Nadal
D. Andre Agassi
Learning Zone :
Novak Djokovic won fifth Wimbledon title.
2. Where did the first Global Conference for Media Freedom was held?
A. Russia
B. London
C. New York
D. Malaysia
Learning Zone :
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First Global Conference for Media Freedom held in London. It is co-hosted by Chrystia Freeland, Canadian Minister of Foreign Affairs, and Jeremy Hunt, the UK Foreign Secretary.
3. KSUM to host Women Startup Summit 2019 on August 1 in ______
A. Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Kochi
D. Bihar
Learning Zone :
KSUM to host Women Startup Summit 2019 on August 1 in Kochi
4.Eleventh edition of Mekong Ganga Cooperation meet 2019 held in ______
A. Punjab
B. New Delhi
C. Kerala
D. Hyderabad
Learning Zone :
Eleventh edition of Mekong Ganga Cooperation meet 2019 held in New Delhi The meeting was attended by Senior Officials from all 6 MGC Member States.
5 . is the first woman CFO of the World Bank Group.
A. Usha Ananthasubramanian
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B. Arundhati Bhattacharya
C. Anshula Kant
D. Shikha Sharma
Learning Zone :
The World Bank Group announced that Anshula Kant, an Indian national, has been appointed as its next MD and CFO on 12 July. Anshula Kant is the first woman CFO of the Bank.
6 . coal plant to be turned into solar park.
A. Barh Super Thermal Power Station
B. Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station
C. Tiroda Thermal Power Station
D. Rajghat coal plant
Learning Zone :
Rajghat coal plant coal plant to be turned into solar park.Delhi government announced that the Rajghat thermal power plant officially shut and turned into a solar park.A 5,000 KW of solar power will be produced at the 45-acre plant site.
7 .Where did India Holds First Ever Artificial Limb Fitment Camp ?
A. Kenya
B. Tanzania
C. Somalia
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D. Uganda
Learning Zone :
India Holds First Ever Artificial Limb Fitment Camp in Tanzania.The doctrine of Humanity, India offering to the world since long ago through ‘actions’.
8 .West bengal Governor releases Bengali version of ______
A. The God of Small Think
B. Great Minds of India
C. The White tiger
D. Train to Pakistan
Learning Zone :
West bengal Governor releases Bengali version of Great Minds of India.
9 .US-India bilateral trade could reach USD 238 billion by ______
A.2020
B.2022
C.2025
D.2029
Learning Zone :
US-India bilateral trade could reach USD 238 billion by 2025.
10 . Who won the ICC World Cup 2019 ?
A . India
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B . Australia C . New Zealand D . England
Learning Zone :
England won the World Cup 2019 final by 0 runs, screamed a newspaper headline ICC Cricket World Cup 2019 final at Lord's. England were crowned world champions in one of the most dramatic cricket matches the sport has ever witnessed.
Set-44
1 . Who spearhead Indian campaign at Indonesia Open Badminton ?
A.Ashwini Ponappa
B.Saina Nehwal
C.PV Sindhu
D.Jwala Gutta
Learning Zone :
PV Sindhu to spearhead Indian campaign at Indonesia Open Badminton.The tournament took place at Jakarta. Sindhu will play her opening game against Japan's Aya Ohori tomorrow.
2 .Govt plans to set up ______Ayush wellness centres in ongoing fiscal
A.1,500
B. 3,000
C. 1,800
D. 4,200
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Learning Zone :
Govt plans to set up 4,200 Ayush wellness centres in ongoing fiscal.
3 .How many persons are enrolled under PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Scheme 2019?
A.30 lakh persons
B.20 lakh persons
C.10 lakh persons
D.15 lakh persons
Learning Zone :
Around 30 lakh persons persons enrolled under PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Scheme.They announced in the budget 2019 for unorganized sector workers. People who are at 40 years or already covered under a pension with part contribution by the government are not eligible for the scheme.
4. Who is appointed as USA cricket teams interim coach ?
A.Kiran More
B.Suresh kumar
C.Bharat Arun
D.Ramakrishnan Sridhar
Learning Zone :
Former India stumper Kiran More takes charge as the interim coach of the senior USA cricket team last month, on an interim basis. He has been handed
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the job alongside a group of advisors, including former India players Sunil Joshi and Pravin Amre, following the resignation of head coach Pubudu Dassanayake.
5 . World Bank planned to offer ______to Kerala in 2019.
A.$ 150 millions
B.$ 250 millions
C.$ 350 millions
D.$ 450 millions
Learning Zone :
World Bank planned to offer $ 250 millions to Kerala.The main aim is at enhancing the state’s resilience against the impacts of natural disasters and climate change in the wake of last year’s floods.
6. bagged with an Honorary Doctorate by Melbournes La Trobe University.
A.Anil Kapoor
B.Shah Rukh Khan
C.Rajesh Khanna
D.Shahid Kapoor
Learning Zone :
Shah Rukh Khan bagged with an Honorary Doctorate by Melbournes La Trobe University.
7 .The Reserve Bank of India has penalised State Bank of India and .
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A.ICICI Bank
B. Union Bank of India
C. Yes bank
D. Punjab National Bank
Learning Zone :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has penalised State Bank of India and Union Bank of India for violating certain regulatory guidelines.
Set-45
1 . will the 24 Hours Asia and Oceania Championships in 2020-21 be held in India.
A. Kolkata
B. Mumbai
C. Hyderabad
D. Bangalore
Learning Zone : The Indian Athletics Federation (IAF) has decided to host a 24 Hours Asia and Oceania Championships in 2020 and a 100 km Asia and Oceania Championships in 2021 in Bangalore. It aims to boost the ultra race in India.
2 .In the 24-hours Asian and Oceania Championships 2018 was held.
A. Taipei
B. Tokyo
C. Beijing
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D. Seoul
Learning Zone : IAU Asia & Oceania 24 Hour Championships took place on December 1st 2018. Taipei hosted the 18th edition of the Soochow International 24 Hours race championship.
3 . covered a distance of 250 km in 24 hours and won bronze in the 2018 24-hours Asian and Oceania Championships.
A. Sunil Sharma
B. Lallu Das
C.Ullas Narayana
D. Budhia Singh
Learning Zone : India won an individual and team medal in the 2018 24-hours Asian and Oceania Championships in Taipei. Ullas Narayana covered a distance of 250 km in 24 hours and won bronze and an Indian team composed of Ullas, Sunil Sharma and Lallu participated in the event.
4.Who has decided to host the 24 Hours Asia and Oceania Championships in 2020-21 in India?
A. Sports Authority of India
B. Indian Athletics Federation
C. Modern Pentathlon Federation of India
D. Masters Athletics Federation of India
Learning Zone :
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The Indian Athletics Federation (IAF) has decided to host a 24 Hours Asia and Oceania Championships in 2020 and a 100 km Asia and Oceania Championships in 2021 in Bangalore. It aims to boost the ultra race in India.
5 .The Reko Diq mine located in .
A. Pakistan
B.UAE
C. Iran
D. Afghanistan
Learning Zone : Reko Diq mine, which is famous for its vast gold and copper reserves, is located near Reko Diq town in Chagai District, Pakistan. It is the world’s 5th largest gold deposit.
6 . The head quarters of International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) located in .
A.UK
B. France
C. Germany
D.US
Learning Zone : ICSID was established in 1966. It is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States. ICSID arbitrates for legal dispute resolution and conciliation between international investors.
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7 .International Arbitration Court that arbitrates the international commercial disputes is a part of ______.
A. International Court of Justice
B. United Nations
C. World Bank
D. International Chamber of Commerce
Learning Zone : The International Arbitration Court is an institute that arbitrates international commercial disputes. It is a part of the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC). ICC headquarters is in Paris, France. The court consists of more than 100 members from about 90 countries.
8 .Which of the following country did the International Court of Arbitration, recently, impose a penalty of $5 billion for denying a mining lease?
A. Iran
B. Pakistan
C. Iraq
D. Saudi Arabia
Learning Zone : International Court of Arbitration has imposed a penalty of over $5 billion on Pakistan as it unlawfully denied a mining lease to a company called Tethyan Copper Company for Reko Diq project in 2011. This penalty is one of the biggest in the history of cash-strapped Pakistan.
9 .Zakir Hussain, Sonal Mansingh among ___ selected for Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowships
A.4
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B.5
C.6
D.7
Learning Zone : Zakir Hussain, Sonal Mansingh among 4 selected for Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowships.They won the awards in the field of performing arts. The two other personalities are dancer and choreographer Jatin Goswami and Bharatnatyam exponent K. Kalyanasundaram Pillai.
10 .India, ______to set up fast-track mechanism to facilitate investment
A. USA
B. China
C. Italy
D. Bangladesh
Learning Zone : India and Italy to set up fast-track mechanism to facilitate investment
Set-46
1. India, ______exchange views on combating terror financing.
A. US
B. Uzbekistan
C. Russia
D. Japan
Learning Zone : India and Uzbekistan exchange views on combating terror financing.
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2.Which type of Orchid derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi ?
A. Mycohomorotrophic type
B. Mycoheterotrophic type
C. Mycorrhizea-heterotrophic type
D. Mycophytic type
Learning Zone: Mycoheterotrophic type of Orchid derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi. 43 species in India are mycoheterotrophic.
3.The highest number of orchid species, 612 species, has been recorded from ______.
A. Meghalaya
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Tripura
D. Mizoram
Learning Zone : The highest number of orchid species has been recorded from Arunachal Pradesh with 612 species. Sikkim has 560 species of Orchids. The richest, in terms of orchid species is the Himalayan zone.
4. How many species of orchid India hosts as per BSI report?
A. 930
B. 1070
C. 1256
D. 1590
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Learning Zone : A recent report by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) that India hosts 1,256 species of orchid. It also released the census containing photographs of 775 species of Orchids.
5.Who introduced web-based application system for contribution from FFS ?
A. ESIC
B. SIDBI
C. BSNL
D. EPFO
Learning Zone : SIDBI introduced web-based application system for contribution from FFS.The applications from various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) accepted online and the status of the same shall be accessible to applicants.
6. There are international judges in Singapore international commerce court (SICC) panel.
A.12
B.10
C.20
D.16
Learning Zone : SICC is established as a part of the Supreme Court of Singapore, and is a division of Singapore High Court. SICC deals with international commercial disputes and has 16 international judges in its panel.
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7. is appointed as international judge in Singapore international commercial court judge 2019.
A. Arun Mishri
B. Abhay Kumar
C. A.K. Sikri
D. Madan Lokur
Learning Zone : Former Supreme Court judge, Justice AK Sikri appointed as an international judge of the Singapore International Commercial Court (SICC). Justice Sikri will assume charge as an international judge with effect from August 1.
8. Singapore International Commerce court (SICC) is part of ______.
A. Singapore Martial Court
B. Supreme Court of Singapore
C. Singapore Court of Commerce
D. Both B and C
Learning Zone : SICC is established as a part of the Supreme Court of Singapore, and is a division of Singapore High Court. SICC deals with international commercial disputes and has 16 international judges in its panel.
9. Where does Union Government to build India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) ?
A. Chirang, Assam
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B. Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu
C. Pottipuram, Theni District
D. Anjaw, Arunachal Pradesh
Learning Zone : Union Government to build India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) at Pottipuram, Theni District.
10. Union Cabinet extends ______Finance Commission's term up to Nov 30, 2019.
A. 13th
B. 14th
C. 15th
D. 16th
Learning Zone : Union Cabinet extends 15th Finance Commission's term up to Nov 30.This enables the commission to examine various comparable estimates for financial projections. The reforms and the new realities to finalise its recommendations for the period 2020-2025.
Set-47
1. French Tycoon Bernard Arnault overtakes Bill Gates to become ______richest person in the world
A.1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Learning Zone :
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French Tycoon Bernard Arnault Overtakes Bill Gates To Become 2nd Richest Person In The World.
2. Which of the following campiagn of the Tourism Ministry won PATA Gold Award 2019?
A. Find the Incredible You
B. Swachh Bharat
C. Make in India
D. Selfie with Daughter
Learning Zone : Find the Incredible You campiagn of the Tourism Ministry won PATA Gold Award 2019.The award is won under the “Marketing – Primary Government Destination” category. The awards got up to 198 entries from 78 organizations.
3. When the Nelson Mandela International Day is observed?
A. 16 July B. 17 July C. 18 July D. 19 July
Learning Zone : The Nelson Mandela International Day observed by United Nations every year on July 18 since 2009 following a resolution passed
4 . Which of the following country observed Nelson Mandela International Day ?
A . China B . India C . Japan D . United Nations
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Learning Zone : The Nelson Mandela International Day observed by United Nations every year on July 18 since 2009 following a resolution passed.
5. Microsoft Corp co-founder Bill Gates dropped to No. behind France’s Bernard Arnault.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D .5
Learning Zone: Microsoft Corp co-founder Bill Gates dropped to No. 3 behind France’s Bernard Arnault
6 .How many artists selected for the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2018?
A. 30 B. 31 C. 32 D. 33
Learning Zone : The Sangeet Natak Akademi, National Academy of Music, Dance and Drama, the apex body of performing arts in the country in the meeting of its General Council held on 26 June 2019 at Guwahati, Assam has selected 32 (Including one joint Awards) artists of India who have made a mark as young talents in their respective fields of the performing arts for Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2018.
7. World Bank drops million in funding for Amaravati Capital City project in 2019. A. $200 B. $300 C. $400
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D. $500 Learning Zone : World Bank drops $300 million in funding for Amaravati Capital City project.
8. Which of the following Cricket team suspended from ICC? A. Zimbabwe B. India C. Bangladesh D. Pakistan Learning Zone: Zimbabwe Cricket team has been suspended from ICC with immediate effect said in a statement on 18 July .
9. Where does the Headquarters of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Ministry located ? A. New Delhi B. Mumbai C. Bihar D. West bangle Learning Zone : The Headquarters of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Ministry located in New Delhi.
10 .When did the Ministry of AYUSH was founded in India ? A. 9 November 2012 B. 9 November 2013 C. 9 November 2014
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D. 9 November 2015 Learning Zone : The Ministry of AYUSH was founded in 9 November 2014 in India.
Set-48
1. is appointed as India's Ambassador to Israel in 2019?
A. Suresh Kumar
B .Sanjeev Kumar Singla
C. Vikram Sharma
D. Dinesh Gupta
Learning Zone : Sanjeev Kumar Singla Senior diplomat Sanjeev Kumar Singla is appointed as the next Indian Ambassador to Israel.
2. has launched Global Innovation Index 2019?
A. Shri Prakash Javedakar
B. Shri Piyush Goyal
C. Shri Arun Jaitley
D. Shri Suresh Sharma
Learning Zone : Shri Piyush Goyal has launched Global Innovation Index 2019.Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal launched the Global Innovation Index (GII) on July 24. The theme of the event is "Evaluating the Medical Innovation Scenario of the Next Decade.
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3. crore farmer families received first two instalments of under PMKSNY scheme benefits.
A. 18 crore 45 lakhs
B. 7 crore 32 lakh
C. 10 crore 25 lakh
D. 28 crore 38 lakhs
Learning Zone : Around seven crore 32 lakh farmer families across the country received the first and second installments of 2 thousand rupees under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana.
4. Nikhat Zareen got qualified to ______of Thai boxing tourney.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
Learning Zone : Nikhat Zareen got qualified to 2nd of Thai boxing tourney.Nikhat Zareen a former Junior world champion who got selected to the second round of the Thailand Open International Boxing tournament. They are in the 51-kilogram category. The boxer belongs to Hyderabad.
5. Maharashtra Sports Dept gave ______Assistance for Gold Medalist Rahi Sarnobat.
A. One crore
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B. Two crore
C. Three Crore
D. Four Crore
Learning Zone : Maharashtra Sports Dept gave One crore Assistance for Gold Medalist Rahi Sarnobat.
6. Prithu Gupta of Delhi selected as Indias_____ Grandmaster.
A. 54th
B. 64th
C. 74th
D. 84th
Learning Zone : Delhi's Prithu Gupta becomes India's 64th Grandmaster. He got Elo around 2500 points. He defeated IM Lev Yankelevich in the fifth round of the Portuguese League 2019.
7. Which of the following has been launched from Sriharikota at 2:43 pm on July 22, 2019?
A. INSAT-1C
B. Chandrayaan 2
C. SROSS-C2
D. GSAT-31
Learning Zone :
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Chandrayaan 2 has been launched from Sriharikota at 2:43 pm on July 22.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)planned to launch India's second mission Chandrayaan -2 to the Moon at 2.43 pm on July 22, 2019.
8. is appointed as CPI General Secretary?
A. Suresh kumar
B. D. Raja
C. K. Subbarayan
D.S. Sudhakar Reddy
Learning Zone : D. Raja who is the Rajya Sabha member is appointed the general secretary of the Communist Party of India (CPI). He will replace Sudhakar Reddy
9. won Mr South Asia title 2019?
A. Sunith Jadhav
B. Ravinder Malik
C. Suresh Kumar
D.Vikram Sinha
Learning Zone : Ravinder Malik won Mr South Asia Title. There are around 91 bodybuilders participated in the championship.
Set-49
1. Amarnath Yatra crosses last year's mark of 2.85 lakh in ______
A. 20 days
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B. 28 days
C. 16 days
D. 27 days
Learning Zone : Amarnath Yatra crosses last year's mark of 2.85 lakh in 16 days
2. How many Indian Boxers entered to Thailand International Tournament 2019 ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Learning Zone : There are 247 boxers from 37 countries are taking part in the tournament to test themselves against some of the world's best pugilists ahead of the World Championships slated later in the year. Five women and six men from India will meet and they will continue till July 27.
3. Central Government favors it's _____contribution to economic growth.
A. 31.8
B. 32.8
C. 33.8
D. 34.8
Learning Zone :
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Central Government favors it's 31.8 contribution to economic growth
4. breaks 57 seconds barrier and100m breaststroke world record in Swimming.
A. Grant Hackett
B. Katie Hoff
C. Michael Phelps
D. Adam Peaty
Learning Zone : Britain swimmer Adam Peaty break the world record in the men’s 100-meter breaststroke at the World Championships in Gwangju, South Korea. He compensated the previous record of 57.10 seconds.This record was made by at last year’s European Championships.
5. is appointed as Joint Secretary to the President.
A. Ajay Bhadoo
B. Suresh Kumar
C. Vikram Sharma
D. Dinesh Kumar
Learning Zone : Ajay Bhadoo is appointed as Joint Secretary to the President.
6. Adam George Peaty is a competitive swimmer from . A. England B. India
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C. China D. Japan Learning Zone : Adam George Peaty, MBE is a British competitive swimmer from England who specialises in breaststroke.
7. Basantar bridge is located in Samba district of .
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Jammu & Kashmir C. Madhya Pradesh D. Bihar
Learning Zone : Basantar bridge is located in Samba district of Jammu & Kashmir.
8. Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established on .
A. March 1969 B. February 1970 C. April 1965 D. May 1960 Learning Zone : Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established on May 1960.
9. Who inaugurated the 13th edition of the annual Global Healthcare Summit? A. Dr. Ravi Jahagirdar B. Shri Venkaiah Naidu
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C. Dr. Ravi Kolli D. None of the above Learning Zone : Shri Venkaiah Naidu inaugurated the 13th edition of the annual Global Healthcare Summit organized by the American Association of Physicians of Indian Origin (AAPI), with the lighting of the traditional lamp and delivering the keynote address at the Taj Krishna Hotel in Hyderabad
Set-50
1. to celebrate Aaykar Diwas 2019.
A. Agriculture Department
B. Income Tax Department
C. Rural Development Department
D. Industries Department
Learning Zone : Income Tax Department department to celebrate Aaykar Diwas 2019.
2. Which of the following country set to host 2020 FIFA women U-20 World cup?
A. Nigeria
B. Russia
C. Pakistan
D. North Korea
Learning Zone :
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Nigeria country set to host 2020 FIFA women U-20 World cup.
3. Which of the following state becomes first state to Reserve 75% Private Jobs for Local Youths ?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu
Learning Zone : Andhra Pradesh state becomes first state to Reserve 75% Private Jobs for Local Youths.
4. How many cost acquired for Next generation sequencing(NGS) facility Genetic project that launched in 2019 ?
A. 7 crore
B. 8 crore
C. 9 crore
D. 10 crore
Learning Zone : NGS is acquired at a cost of Rs.8 crore. It can sequence 30 human genomes a day ,It would costs around ₹1 lakh to sequence one genome using this facility
5. Which of the following organization unveils new next generation sequencing facility?
A. Centre For Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB)
B. Bioinformatics
C. Microarrays
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D. None of those
Learning Zone : The Centre For Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) received a state-of-the- art facility for its genomic studies division which was inaugurated by Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare Dr Harsh Vardhan on july 20.
6. The Motihari-Amlekhgunj pipeline is a kilometre-long pipeline.
A. 39km
B. 49km
C. 59km
D. 69km
Learning Zone : Motihari-Amlekhgunj pipeline is a 69 kilometre-long pipeline that will run from Motihari in Bihar to Amelkhgunj in Nepal.It has been constructed by India in just 15 months, which is half of its 30 months deadline.
7. Which of the following oil pipeline is ready for commercial operation between India and Nepal ?
A. Motihari-Amlekhgunj
B. Transnet pipeline
C. Sumed pipeline
D. None of those
Learning Zone : The landmark Motihari-Amlekhgunj petroleum products pipeline between India and Nepal has been completed and ready for commercial operation. Indian Oil Corporation and Nepal Oil Corporation successfully completed testing transfer of the pipeline.
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8. is the preceding Governor of Himachal Pradesh that kalraj mishra replacing on 2019.
A. Acharya Devvrat
B. Yogi adithya
C. Motihari
D. None of these
Learning Zone : Former Union Minister Kalraj Mishra took oath as the new Governor of Himachal Pradesh in Shimla.Kalraj Mishra replaced Acharya Devvrat, who has been shifted to Gujarat .
9. Which of the following is the Governor of Himachal pradesh 2019.
A. Kalraj Mishra
B. Acharya Devvrat
C. Yogi adithya
D. None of These
Learning Zone : On july 23 , Former Union Minister Kalraj Mishra took oath as the new Governor of Himachal Pradesh in Shimla.Kalraj Mishra replaced Acharya Devvrat, who has been shifted to Gujarat .
10. state tops in ATM frauds according to the recent report.
A. Assam
B. Bihar
C. Maharashtra
D. Kerala
Learning Zone :
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Maharashtra tops in ATM frauds according to the recent report.The data revealed a data showed that Delhi grabbed the second spot with 179 cases this is followed by Tamil Nadu with 147 cases In Maharashtra, people lost Rs 4.8 crore to bank fraud in Delhi people around Rs 2.9 crore is involved in bank fraud Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura are the only three states a single incident. The money lost came down from Rs 65.3 crore in 2017-18.
Set-51
1. ties up with JCB for global RuPay card.
A. PayUmoney
B. NPCI
C. HDFC Payment Gateway Services
D. EBS Payment Gateway
Learning Zone : National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and JCB International, along with domestic banks launched RuPay JCB Global Cards.
2. Which of the following is the governor of Karnataka ?
A. Raguram rajan
B. Anandibhel patel
C. ESL Narasimhan
D. Vajubhai Vala
Learning Zone : Vajubhai Vala is the Governor of Karnataka since September 2014. Vajubhai served as the Speaker of the Gujarat Legislative Assembly from 2012 to 2014.
3. was the karnataka CM resigned after cong JD’s govt falls.
A. Hardana halli
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B. Gejrival
C. Jegan mohan reddy
D. Pema khandu
Learning Zone : Amid the political crisis in the state, Karnataka Chief Minister HD Kumaraswamy resigned from the post after meeting Governor Vajubhai Vala on july 23.
4. Government constituted an Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) in ______.
A. Nov 2 2017
B. Nov 2 2018
C. Nov 2 2015
D. None of these
Learning Zone : Government had constituted an Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) on 2 November 2017 Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs for studying issues related to virtual currencies and to propose specific action to be taken in this matter.
5. Which of the following committee on Virtual Currencies headed by finance secretary Subhash Chandra Garg submitted its report to the government ?
A. Education committee
B. Central board committee
C. Inter-Ministerial Committee
D. None of these
Learning Zone : Inter-Ministerial Committee on Virtual Currencies headed by finance secretary Subhash Chandra Garg has submitted its report to the government.
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6. assigned as Deputy Governor of RBI to run the monetary policy portfolio after the resignation of Deputy Governor Viral Acharya.
A. BP Kanungo
B. Vikram kumar
C. Viswanathan
D. None of these
Learning Zone : The RBI has assigned Deputy Governor BP Kanungo to run the monetary policy portfolio after the resignation of fellow Deputy Governor Viral Acharya.
7. Which of the following bank appoints BP kanungo to run monetary policy after viral acharya resigns?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Central bank
C. State bank of India
D. None of these
Learning Zone : Reserve Bank of India appoints BP kanungo to run monetary policy after viral acharya resigns.
8. delivers Chetak helicopter to Indian Navy ahead of schedule.
A. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
C. BrahMos Aerospace
D. Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML Limited)
Learning Zone : Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) delivered a Chetak helicopter. That helicopter is scheduled to the Indian Navy.
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9. Which of the following country ranked 52nd in Global Innovation Index 2019?
A. Russia
B. India
C. Nepal
D. Japan
Learning Zone : Union Minister of Commerce & Industry and Railways Shri Piyush Goyal launched the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2019 The event was launched in New Delhi. India ranked 52nd in Global Innovation Index 2019.
10. The object of UKEIRI Mobility Programme is to fund students from to visit India.
A. Japan B. Russia C. UK D. China
Learning Zone : The object of UKEIRI Mobility Programme is to fund students from UK to visit India.
Set-52
1. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 criminalises and approves a jail term of ______for the husband.
A. 1 years
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
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Learning Zone : Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 on 25 July. The Bill was introduced by the Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad. The bill is for the justice, respect and dignity of women. The Bill criminalises instant triple talaq among Muslims. It also approves a jail term of three years for the husband.
2. Bill was passed by Lok Sabha aims for the justice, respect and dignity of women.
A. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2017
B. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019
C. Muslim Women Protection of Rights on Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2017
D. Muslim Women Protection of Rights on Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Learning Zone : Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 on 25 July. The Bill was introduced by the Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad. The bill is for the justice, respect and dignity of women.
3. DCC imposes penalty of ______crore on Airtel, Vodafone Idea on recommendations by TRAI.
A. 3000 crores
B. 3050 crores
C. 4000 crores
D. 4500 crores
Learning Zone : DCC imposes penalty of 3050 crores on Airtel, Vodafone Idea on recommendations by TRAI.
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4. released book on Former PM Chandra Shekhar.
A. Shri Suresh Prabhu
B. PM Narendra Modi
C. Shri Prakash Javedakar
D. Shri Naresh Kumar
Learning Zone : M Narendra Modi released the book "Chandra Shekhar - The Last Icon of Ideological Politics"; The book has been written by Shri Harivansh, Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha, and Shri Ravi Dutt Bajpai. The book release eats the Balayogi Auditorium, Parliament Library Building.
5. won WBA Super Welterweight title 2019.
A. Julian Williams
B. Manny Pacquiao
C. Vasyl Lomachenko
D. Regis Prograis
Learning Zone : Manny Pacquiao won WBA Super Welterweight title 2019.
6. Where is the headquarters of TRAI 2019 located ?
A. Ranchi
B. New Delhi
C. Mumbai
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D. Chennai
Learning Zone : Digital Communications Commission (DCC) on recommendations by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) approved the penalty of Rs.3050 crore This imposed on Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea.Reason : For not providing points of interconnection to Reliance.
7. Which of the following union minister to Head Panel on Workplace Sexual Harassment?
A. Shri Suresh Prabhu
B. Shri Amit Shah
C. Shri Vikram Sharma
D. Shri Prakash Javedakar
Learning Zone : Home Minister Amit Shah chaired a panel of four cabinet ministers and he examined the ways to prevent workplace sexual harassment. The activists criticized to the official response to the MeToo movement.
8. What is the maximum operating speed of the Metrolite is ______
A. 55KMPH
B. 60KMPH
C. 65KMPH
D. 70KMPH
Learning Zone : The maximum operating speed of the Metrolite is 60 KMPH. The speed is restricted to 25 Kmph.
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9. Which of the following union minister particpated in Dubai World Expo 2020?
A. Shri Prakassh Javadekar
B. Shri Suresh Prabhu
C. Shri Piyush Goyal
D. Shri Piyush Goyal
Learning Zone : Shri Piyush Goyal particpated in Dubai World Expo 2020.
10. Which of the following Congress leader appointed as PAC Chairman?
A. Suresh Sharma
B. Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury
C. Naresh Karthick
D. Jayant Sinha
Learning Zone : Congress party leader Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury appointed as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). The post was held by Congress leader Mallikarjun Kharge He recently concluded elections lost from Gulbarga constituency in Karnataka to BJP's Umesh Jadhav.
Set-53
1. won German Grand Prix 2019.
A. Michael Schumacher
B. Max Verstappen
C. Kenny Acheson
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D. Kurt Adolff
Learning Zone : Max Verstappen won German Grand Prix 2019.
2. Who is the Special Secretary in RAW appointed as New BSF DG?
A. Suresh Kumar
B. VK Johri
C. Dinesh Kumar
D. Vikram Sharma
Learning Zone : VK Johri is the Special Secretary in RAW appointed as New BSF DG.
3. Union Government to begin fieldwork for ______Economic Census from Tripura
A. 5th
B. 6th
C. 7th
D. 8th
Learning Zone : Union Government to begin fieldwork for 7th Economic Census from Tripura
4. The 7th Economic Census has been begun from . A. Assam B. Bihar
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C. Kerala D. Tripura
Learning Zone : The 7th Economic Census has been begun from Tripura on 29th July 2019, and in Puducherry soon after.
5. When the 7th Economic Census has been begun? A. 26th July 2019 B. 27th July 2019 C. 28th July 2019 D. 29th July 2019 Learning Zone : The 7th Economic Census has been begun from Tripura on 29th July 2019, and in Puducherry soon after.
6. India tallied medals at the 23rd Presidents Cup. A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 Learning Zone : India tallied 9 medals at the 23rd Presidents Cup.
7. Who is the founder of RAW ? A. R. N. Kao
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B. Indira Gandhi C. Rajiv Gandhi D. Both A & B Learning Zone: R. N. Kao and Indira Gandhi are the founders of RAW.
8. Which of the following is the capital of Iran? A. Tehran Trending B. Mashhad C. Isfahan D. Karaj Learning Zone: Tehran Trending is the capital city of Iran.
Set-54
1. Who gets GI tag for its version of Rasgulla after West Bengal?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Odisha
C. Kerala
D. West Bengal
Learning Zone: The Geographical indicator (GI) granted to Odisha for the ‘Odisha rasgulla’, more than two years after West Bengal won its own GI tag for the delectable eastern sweet. The Chennai-based GI Registry issued a formal certification for the ‘Odisha rasgulla’ on its website.
2. NITI Aayog partners with ______to promote women entrepreneurs.
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A. Twitter
B. Facebook C. Whatsapp Messenger D. Tiktok Learning Zone: NITI Aayog partners with Whatsapp Messenger to promote women entrepreneurs.
3. is sworn as new Bihar Governor.
A. D. Y. Patil
B. Fagu Chauhan
C. Suresh Sharma
D. Satya Pal Malik
Learning Zone : Uttar Pradesh Assembly Fagu Chauhan sworn as new Bihar Governor.
4. won Indian Women of Influence award 2019.
A. Surendra Kumar
B. Priya Priyadarshini Jain
C. Vikram Sharma
D. Dinesh Gupta
Learning Zone : Priya Priyadarshini Jain won Indian Women of Influence award.
5. Which colour is added for women by the Northeast Frontier Railway zone?
A. Pink
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B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red
Learning Zone : Pink coaches added for women by the Northeast Frontier Railway zone.
6. India-Nepal Logistics Summit 2019 was held in .
A. New Delhi B. Kathmandu C. Mumbai D. Pokhara Learning Zone : India-Nepal Logistics Summit 2019 was held in Kathmandu.
7. On the occasion of International Tiger Day, PM releases results of cycle of All India Tiger Estimation. A. 3rd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th Learning Zone : On the occasion of International Tiger Day, PM releases results of 4th cycle of All India Tiger Estimation
8. When was the first International Tiger Day observed?
A. 2010
B. 2011
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C. 2012
D. 2013
Learning Zone : International Tiger Day was observed on 29 July. The day was first established in 2010 at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit held at Russia. In the summit, a declaration was made that the tiger populated countries would double the tiger population by 2020.
9. When is the International Tiger Day observed?
A. 28 July
B. 29 July
C. 30 July
D. 31 July
Learning Zone : International Tiger Day was observed on 29 July. The day aims to raise awareness for the conservation of tiger conservation. It promotes a worldwide system that aims to protect the national habitats of tigers and raise public awareness regarding tiger conservation issues.
10. The Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit 2010 held in .
A. India
B. US
C. UK
D. Russia
Learning Zone : In 2010 at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit held at Russia. In the summit, a declaration was made that the tiger populated countries would double the tiger population by 2020.
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Set-55
1. Who sworn in as the 28th Governor of West Bengal?
A. Suresh Sharma
B. Jagdeep Dhankar
C. Dinesh Kumar
D. Vikram Sharma
Learning Zone :
Jagdeep Dhankhar sworn in as the 28th governor of West Bengal at the Raj Bhavan.
2. Which of the following Indian network overtakes Vodafone-Idea network and became India's largest telecom operator ?
A. Reliance Jio
B. BSNL
C. Airtel
D. Tata DoCoMo
Learning Zone :
Reliance Jio overtook Vodafone-Idea to become India's leading telecom operator. While the monthly subscriber report from the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
3. Which of the following country opened 1000-year-old Shawala Teja Singh temple in Punjab for worship after 72 years?
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A. Pakistan
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Indonesia
D. India
Learning Zone :
Pakistan opens 1000-year-old Shawala Teja Singh temple in Punjab for worship after 72 years.
4. Which of the following country topped Asia in Dell Global Women Entrepreneur Cities Index 2019?
A. Singapore
B. Indonesia
C. Pakistan
D. Saudi Arabia
Learning Zone:
According to the latest “Women Entrepreneur Cities Index 2019”, sponsored by Dell and conducted by London-based global information provider, IHS Markit, The Singapore tops in Asian city ranked at 21st position.
5. Central government aims to achieve 100% digitization of waqf properties in first ______
A. 500 days
B. 200days
C. 100 days
D. 150 days
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Learning Zone :
Union Minister of Minority Affairs, Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi examined center government set a target to achieve “100% Digitization of Waqf properties across the country in its 1st 100 days. The conference is held at the National Conference of State and Union Territories Waqf Boards organized by the Central Wakf Council, held in New Delhi.
6. Reserve Bank has slapped a fine of Rs on Mobikwik Systems and Hip Bar.
A. 25 lakhs
B. 30 lakhs
C. 26 lakhs
D. 35 lakhs
Learning Zone :
Reserve Bank has slapped a fine of Rs 25 lakh on two online payment solutions providers Mobikwik Systems and Hip Bar.
7. is the Indian Defence Minister to visit Mozambique and sign MoU to strengthen the defence cooperation.
A. Manohar Parrikar
B. Arun Jaitley
C. Nirmala Sitharaman
D. Rajnath Singh
Learning Zone :
India and Mozambique signed two Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at Maputo, Mozambique during the visit by Indian Defence Minister Rajnath Singh from 28 July to 30 July 2019. This is the first time that an Indian Defence
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Minister has visited Mozambique. It agreement aims to strengthen the defence cooperation on 29 July.
8. The India-Nepal Logistics Summit discussion focused delays of cargo from ______port to ______.
A. Visakhapatnam, Pokhara
B. Visakhapatnam, Kathmandu
C. Kolkata, Kathmandu
D. Kolkata, Pokhara
Learning Zone :
The India-Nepal Logistics Summit 2019 focused on discussing the transport delays of import cargo from Kolkata Port to Kathmandu, delays in rail transport and additional costs in handling cargo.
9. How many tigers are there in India according to the All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018?
A. 2,667
B. 2,767
C. 2,867
D. 2,967
Learning Zone :
PM Narendra Modi released the All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018. The massive tiger census is conducted every four years. India now has 2,967 tigers. The growth in the 4th cycle of the Tiger Census has been a 33%.
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10. PM Narendra Modi released the ______, the massive tiger census which is conducted every four years.
A. Indian Tiger Estimation 2019
B. Indian Wildlife Survey Report 2019
C. All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018
D. Tiger Estimation Report 2018
Learning Zone :
PM Narendra Modi released the All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018. The massive tiger census is conducted every four years. India now has 2,967 tigers.
Set-56
1. becomes the first IAF pilot to complete wingsuit skydive jump.
A. Rakesh Kumar
B. Tarun Chaudhri
C. Suresh Kumar
D. Dinesh Gupta
Learning Zone : Tarun Chaudhri becomes the first IAF pilot to complete wingsuit skydive jump.
2. is honoured with Entrepreneur of the Year Award 2019.
A. Vikram Sharma
B. Ruhan Rajput
C. Suresh Sharma
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D. Vignesh Kumar
Learning Zone : Ruhan Rajput co-founder and Director of Einfolge Technologies Pvt Ltd was awarded the prestigious Entrepreneur Award 2019. The event was held at the JW Marriot Hotel, New Delhi.
3. becomes first cricketer to reach 1000 runs, 100 wickets in T20.
A. Megan Schutt
B. Ellyse Perry
C. Rachel Haynes
D. Beth Mooney
Learning Zone : Australia all-rounder Ellyse Perry became the first cricketer to reach the rare milestone of scoring 1000 runs. She took 100 wickets in the T20 format. Perry (47 not out) and captain Meg Lanning (43 not out) to guide Australia to a seven- wicket win against England in the second T20 of the Women's Ashes tour.
4. Who is appointed as the next ambassador of India to the Republic of Paraguay?
A. Vikram Sharma
B. Dinesh Bhatia
C. Sudhakar Sharma
D. Vignesh Kumar
Learning Zone : Shri Dinesh Bhatia (IFS batch 1992) ambassador of India to the Republic of Argentina appointed as the next Ambassador of India to the Republic of Paraguay in Buenos Aires.
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5. Which of the following countries named world best student city in new rankings 2019?
A. Afghanistan
B. China
C. London
D. Angola
Learning Zone : London named the world’s best city for students. According to the rankings, India’s best student city is Bengaluru at 81st. It is followed by Mumbai (85th) and Delhi at 113 and Chennai at 115.
6. administers the oath of office to the governor of State.
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. CM of the State
D. Chief Justice of High Court
Learning Zone : Chief Justice of High Court or in his absence senior most Judge of that court administers the oath of office to the governor of State.
7. Justice A.K.Sikri was recently appointed as a judge in the ______International Commercial Court.
A. Malaysia
B. Singapore
C. UAE
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D. China
Learning Zone : Justice A.K. Sikri served as a former judge of the Supreme Court of India and was recently appointed as a judge in the Singapore International Commercial Court.
8. Which of the following Bills will provides clarity about preference to secured lenders over operational creditors.
A. Insolvency and Lenders Code Bill, 2018
B. Lenders and Creditors Code Bill, 2019
C. Lenders and Creditors Code (Amendment) Bill, 2019
D. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Learning Zone : The Rajya Sabha approved the amendments to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2019 provides clarity about preference to secured lenders over operational creditors.
9. What is the cost estimated for the Smart agricopter to eliminate manual spraying of pesticides in agricultural fields?
A. Rs 5.1 lakh
B. Rs 6.1 lakh
C. Rs 9 lakh
D. Rs 15 lakh
Learning Zone : Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras have developed a Smart agricopter. The Cost estimation of the agricopter is to be around Rs 5.1 lakh.
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10. Who developed a Smart agricopter to eliminate manual spraying of pesticides in agricultural fields?
A. AIIMS Researchers
B. IIT-Kharagpur
C. IIT-Madras
D. IIT-Kanpur
Learning Zone : Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras have developed a Smart agricopter. The innovation aims to eliminate manual spraying of pesticides in agricultural fields.
Set-57
1. Who is appointed as the Secretary of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)?
A. Guruprasad Mohapatra
B. Amitabh Prasad
C. Chetan Aggarwal
D. T. Hanumantha Rao
Learning Zone : Dr. Guruprasad Mohapatra, an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) Officer of 1986 batch charge of the office of Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPI).
2. Who is the Minister of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Minister of Commerce and Industry?
A. Piyush Goyal
B. Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey
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C. Arvind Sawant
D. Giriraj Singh
Learning Zone : Piyush Ved Prakash Goyal is the current minister of Ministry of Railways and Commerce and Industry in the Government of India. He was elevated to Cabinet Minister position on 3 September 2017.
3. Which Country was the first Country to become the member of global coalition to protect pollinators?
A. Ghana
B. Senegal
C. Burundi
D. Morocco
Learning Zone : The initiative to form a coalition was taken by the Netherlands on December 12, 2016. Morocco became a member of this group.
4. Which of the following Country becomes fourth African nation to join global coalition to protect pollinators?
A. Nigeria
B. Kenya
C. Morocco
D. Algeria
Learning Zone : Nigeria becomes fourth African nation to join global coalition to protect pollinators. It is managed by the United Nations Development Programme.
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5. When was the global coalition to protect pollinators established?
A. 2014
B. 2016
C. 2015
D. 2017
Learning Zone : The initiative to form a coalition was taken by the Netherlands on December 12, 2016 at the Conference of the Parties–Convention of Biological Diversity held in Mexico.
6. Which Country initiated the global coalition to protect pollinators?
A. Sweden
B. Denmark
C. India
D. Netherlands
Learning Zone : The initiative to form a coalition was taken by the Netherlands on December 12, 2016 at the Conference of the Parties–Convention of Biological Diversity held in Mexico.
7. Sri Lankan government exempted visa fees for tourism purposes for ______countries.
A. 25
B. 36
C. 48
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D. 52
Learning Zone : India is among 48 countries whose citizens have been exempted from visa fees for tourism purposes It is done by the Sri Lankan government. The decision was announced during a media conference in Colombo.
8. Along with which country did India launch the Innovating for Clean Air (IfCA)?
A. Germany
B. Korea
C. Japan
D. UK
Learning Zone : Innovating for Clean Air (IfCA), a two-year UK-India joint initiative providing Indian and UK stakeholders opportunities to test interventions related to air quality and EV integration.
9. The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 provides a ______to eliminate acquisition of fake driving licences.
A. mechanical driving test
B. computerised driving test
C. personal driving test
D. None of these
Learning Zone : Rajya Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 with 108 votes in favour and 13 against it. It provides a computerised driving test to eliminate acquisition of fake driving licences.
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10. Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 has been passed by ______, as on 31 July 2019.
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. A and B
D. Supreme Court
Learning Zone : Rajya Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 with 108 votes in favour and 13 against it. The amendment aims to improve road safety, enhance the penalty for traffic violations, facilitate citizens in dealing with transport departments and curb corruption. The Bill was passed in Lok Sabha on 23 July.
11. Who is to advocate the India’s first national Time Release Study (TRS) to improve the global trade?
A. World Trade Organisation
B. World Customs Organization
C. World External Trade Institution
D. Global Trade Organisation
Learning Zone : The Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance plans to conduct India’s first national Time Release Study (TRS) between 1st and 7th August, 2019. It is advocated by the World Customs Organization.
Set-58
1. CRISIL cuts India's GDP growth to ______for FY20 on weak monsoon rains, muted corporate results.
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A. 5.9%
B. 6.9 %
C. 10.9%
D. 12.9%
Learning Zone : Credit rating agency CRISIL lowered Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast for India by 20 basis points to 6.9 percent for this fiscal citing weak monsoon and slowing global growth.
2. Who appoints Cognizants Debashis Chatterjee as new CEO?
A. Mindtree
B. Cognizant
C. TCS
D. Ashok Leyland
Learning Zone : Mindtree appointed S.N. Subrahmanyan as its non-executive vice-chairman. Subrahmanyan currently serves as L&T group’s managing director and CEO. Chatterjee Cognizant’s global leader for digital systems and technology practice will be the first person outside Mindtree’s seven-member founding team to be appointed as the chief executive officer.
3.Which of the following states launch awareness campaign Save Green, Stay Clean
A. Bihar
B. West Bengal
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
Learning Zone :
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West Bengal government launched an awareness campaign named ‘Save Green, Stay Clean’ for preserving the greenery and keeping the environment clean in the state. The campaign launched State Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee in Kolkata.
4.Which of the following banks allow Bank of China to offer regular banking services in India
A. Central Bank
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Asian Development Bank
D. World Bank
Learning Zone : Reserve Bank of India allows Bank of China to offer regular banking services in India.
5. Nagar kirtan from Pakistan reaches ______for the first time since Partition.
A. Saudi Arabia
B. India
C. Indonesia
D. South Africa
Learning Zone : Nagar kirtan from Pakistan reaches India for the first time since Partition.
6. Which of the following states got top in court infrastructure facilities according to Think Tank Report ?
A. Bihar
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B. Delhi
C. Tamil Nadu
D. West Bengal
Learning Zone : Delhi got top in court infrastructure facilities according to Think Tank Report.
7. is the Minister of of Earth Sciences.
A. S Jaishankar
B. Harsh Vardhan
C. Mahendra Nath Pandey
D. Arvind Sawant
Learning Zone : Harsh Vardhan is the incumbent minister at Ministry of Science & Technology, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Earth Sciences in the BJP- led NDA government of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He represents Chandni Chowk in Delhi as a Member of Parliament in the 17th Lok Sabha.
8. Where is the headquarters of India Meteorological Department located?
A. Assam
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. New Delhi
Learning Zone : The headquarters of India Meteorological Department located at New Delhi. It was established on 1875. The IMD is responsible for the weather and climate- related forecasts in the country. It is also mandated to issue warning to people about severe weather phenomenon.
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9. When was the India Meteorological Department established?
A. 1875
B. 1885
C. 1895
D. 1905
Learning Zone : India Meteorological Department was established on 1875. The IMD is responsible for the weather and climate-related forecasts in the country. It is also mandated to issue warning to people about severe weather phenomenon.
10. India Meteorological Department functions under ______.
A. Ministry of Weather forecast
B. Ministry of Earth Sciences
C. Ministry of Research and Development
D. Ministry of Disaster Management
Learning Zone : India Meteorological Department was established on 1875. IT functions under Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Set-59
1. Which TB vaccine has been used for a 100 years to treat TB?
A. Bacille Calmette-Guerin
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide
Learning Zone :
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Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis. It is a 100 years old medicine.
2. In 2017, the Centre vowed to eliminate TB by the year ______.
A. 2022
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. 2025
Learning Zone : In 2017, the Centre vowed to eliminate TB by the year 2025. Data from Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’s Central TB division said that the TB incidence in India has touched almost 2.8 million every year along with drug-resistant TB incidence at 1,47,000 annually.
3. Which of the following Countries have the highest TB incidences of the world?
A. Japan
B. India
C. Africa
D. Pakistan
Learning Zone : Data from Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’s Central TB division said that around 27% of the world’s TB incidences are from India. It has marked the highest share at a global level.
4. What are the 2 new TB vaccines ICMR introduced for TB treatment?
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4. Which of the following Companies have played a vital role in providing e- vehicles to various Government agencies?
A. Tata Motors
B. EESL
C. Essar Steel
D. Mahindra
Learning Zone : Electric vehicle technology is an alternative to combat air pollution and to reduce carbon emission footprint. The EESL has played a vital role in providing these e-vehicles to various Government agencies. Several other Indian automobile manufacturers including Tata Motors and Mahindra have also taken the initiative in manufacturing Electric Cars.
5. Indian Army has employed electric cars (E-cars) for the use of Government officials in ______.
A. Kashmir
B. Rajasthan
C. Delhi
D. Sikkim
Learning Zone : The Indian Army has launched an ecological initiative by employing electric cars (E-cars) for the use of Government officials in Delhi. E-cars initiative was launched by the Army in partnership with Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) under the Ministry of Power.
6. Which of the following countries have the best reserves of lithium and cobalt in the world?
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A. Argentina
B. Bolivia
C. Chile
D. All the above
Learning Zone : Argentina, Bolivia and Chile are the countries which have the best reserves of lithium and cobalt in the world.
7. India has set a target to achieve an all-electric vehicle fleet by ______.
A. 2025
B. 2030
C. 2035
D. 2040
Learning Zone : India has set a target to achieve an all-electric vehicle fleet by 2030. The Union Ministry of Mines has already directed three state-owned companies to aggressively look for reserves of lithium and cobalt mines.
8. was crowned MISS ENGLAND 2019.
A. Alisha Cowie
B. Bhasha Mukherjee
C. Stephanie Hill
D. Natasha Hemmings
Learning Zone :
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Bhasha Mukherjee, an Indian-origin doctor, has been crowned MISS ENGLAND on Miss England competition in London. The event was held from 31 July to 1 August. The winners bagged over GBP 30,000 worth of prizes, which include a luxury holiday to Mauritius.
9. Which rank did secure in the World Bank data survey's global GDP rankings in 2017?
A. 6th
B. 7th
C. 8th
D. 9th
Learning Zone : According to World Bank data survey, India slipped to the 7th position from the 6th in the global GDP rankings in 2018. It stands marginally behind UK and France. Economists suggested that the reason for the fall in GDP is due to currency fluctuations and a slowdown in economic growth.
10. Which of the following counties ranked first in the World Bank data survey's global GDP rankings in 2018?
A. India
B. UK
C. US
D. Japan
Learning Zone : US ranked first in the World Bank data survey's global GDP rankings in 2018. It was followed by China, Japan and Germany.
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Set-60
1. won Gold In Umakhanov Memorial International Boxing Tournament, 2019. A. Lovlina Borgohain B. Vijendar Singh C. Satish Kumar D. Hawa Singh Learning Zone : Lovlina Borgohain won Gold In Umakhanov Memorial International Boxing Tournament, 2019.
2. ISRO is to the Space Situational Awareness Control Centre in ______. A. Bengaluru B. Hyderabad C. Mumbai D. Sriharikota Learning Zone : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman K.Sivan laid the foundation stone for the Space Situational Awareness Control Centre in Bengaluru. The Centre aims to at protect the high value space assets from space debris' close approach and collisions. It is an important milestone in the progress of ISRO.
3. The headquarters of National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC) is located at . A. Thiruvandrum B. Chennai C. Mumbai
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D. Hyderabad Learning Zone : The headquarters of National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC) is Mumbai.
4. Reserve Bank of India imposes ______fine on seven PSBs for violating norms A. 10 crores B. 11 crores C. 12 crores D. 13 crores Learning Zone : The Reserve Bank of India imposed a penalty of ₹11 crores on seven public sector banks for violating norms on current account opening.The banks which includes Allahabad Bank and Bank of Maharashtra have been imposed a fine of ₹2 crore each.
5. Which of the following banks with Shanghai becomes first Indian bank to link up with CNAPS? A. ICICI Bank B. State Bank of India C. RBL Bank D. Dena Bank Learning Zone : State Bank of India State Bank of India's Shanghai branch linked to China's National Advanced Payment System (CNAPS).
6. won Hungarian Grand Prix. A. Carlo Abate B. Lewis Hamilton
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C. Kenny Acheson D. Walt Ader Learning Zone : Lewis Hamilton won Hungarian Grand Prix.
7. How many medals does the Indian boxers fetched at the Umakhanov Memorial International Boxing Tournament 2019 ?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Learning Zone : The Indian boxers fetched six medals at the Umakhanov Memorial International Boxing Tournament 2019, including two golds, one silver and three bronze.
8. introduces distance-wise fare cap for flights leaving Srinagar till August. A. Air Asia B. IndiGo C. SpiceJet D. Vistara Learning Zone : Low-cost carrier IndiGo implemented a distance-wise cap on the fares for flights coming out of Srinagar airport .Jammu and Kashmir administration Amarnath pilgrims and tourists to leave the Valley citing terror threats.
9. restores India's water bodies in India. A. Suresh kumar B. Arun Krishnamurthy
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C. Dinesh Kumar D. Vivek Sharma Learning Zone : Arun Krishnamurthy restores India's water bodies in India.
10. Which of the following state governments launched Vhali Dikri Yojna? A. West bengal B. Gujarat C. Kerala D. Andhra Pradesh Learning Zone : Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani launched the ‘Vhali Dikri Yojna’ from his hometown Rajkot, Gujarat.
Set-61
1. Which of the following bills passed by the Lok Sabha? A. 2019 Transgender Persons Protection of Rights Bill B. Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019 C. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill D. Rajasthan Protection from Lynching Bill, 2019 Learning Zone : Lok Sabha passed the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019.
2. Which of the following States have passed an anti-lynching Bill? A. Maharashtra B. Uttar Pradesh
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C. Rajasthan D. Telangana Learning Zone : The Rajasthan State Legislative Assembly passed the Rajasthan Protection from Lynching Bill, 2019. The Parliamentary Affairs Minister Shanti Dhariwal introduced the Bill in the State Assembly. The Bill aims to provide stricter punishment to curb such Lynching incidents.
3. Which of the following states is the first State to pass an anti-lynching Bill in the country? A. Uttar Pradesh B. Tamil Nadu C. Karnataka D. Manipur Learning Zone : The first State to have an anti-lynching law in addition to other offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is Manipur.
4. ______to raise up to 1,000 crore through bonds. A. Bajaj Home Finance B. IIFL Finance C. Mamta Housing Finance Company D. Guru Raghavendra Finance Company Learning Zone : IIFL Finance to raise up to 1,000 crore through bonds.
5. ______Home Minister flags off riot control vehicle Vajra.
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A. Andhra Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. Arunchal Pradesh D. Assam Learning Zone : Andhra Pradesh Home Minister flags off riot control vehicle Vajra
6. Who celebrates 65th Foundation Day ? A. Surendra Kumar B. Lalit Kala Akademi C. Vikram Sarabhai D. Nithya Menon Learning Zone : Lalit Kala Akademi celebrates 65th Foundation Day.
7. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill 2019 has proposed to bifurcate the state of Jammu and Kashmir into ______. A. 3 Union Territories B. 2 Union Territories C. A Union Territory D. It doesn't bifurcate J&K Learning Zone : The Rajya Sabha cleared the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill 2019 on 6 August. The Bill proposed bifurcation of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories.
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8. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill 2019 proposed bifurcate the state of J&K into 2 UTs namely ______. A. Leh and Ladakh B. Kashmir and Leh C. Jammu and Leh D. Jammu-Kashmir and Ladakh Learning Zone : The Rajya Sabha cleared the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill 2019 on 6 August. The Bill proposed bifurcation of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories namely Ladakh and Jammu-Kashmir.
9. Pakistan summons Indian High Commissioner over scrapping of ______A. Article 280 B. Article 376 C. Article 370 D. Article 374 Learning Zone : Pakistan foreign secretary Sohail Mehmood in India’n High Commissioner in Islamabad Ajay Bisaria to lodge a strong protest at India’s move to revoke Article 370 of the constitution and declare Jammu and Kashmir a union territory.
10. ______briefs UN Security Council on scrapping of special status to Jammu and Kashmir A. Pakistan B. India C. Saudi Arabia D. Indonesia
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Learning Zone : India briefs UN Security Council on scrapping of special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
Set-62
1.Who gives assent to the abrogation of article 370 of Jammu and Kashmir ? A. President Ram Nath Kovind B. Shri Suresh Sharma C. Shri Arun Jaitley D. Shri Narendra Modi Learning Zone : President Ram Nath Kovind gives assent to the abrogation of article 370 of Jammu and Kashmir.
2.Which of the following cricketers become second-fastest to score 25 Test centuries ? A. Steve Smith B. David Warner C. Aaron Finch D. Matthew Wade Learning Zone : Steve Smith becomes second-fastest to score 25 Test centuries.
3. Steve Smith becomes second-fastest to score ______Test centuries. A. 15 B. 25
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C. 35 D. 45 Learning Zone : Steven Smith became the second-fastest batsman to register 25 centuries in the Test format.He achieved the feat during the second innings of the first Ashes Test match against England.
4.Which of the following countries unveils three new precision-guided missiles A. Indonesia B. Pakistan C. Iran D. Saudi Arabia
Learning Zone : Iran unveiled three precision-guided missiles with the defence minister to defend itself in the face of US "viciousness and conspiracies".
5. Iran unveils ______new precision-guided missiles in 2019. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Learning Zone : Iran unveils three new precision-guided missiles in 2019.
6. becomes Power Grid CMD. A. Dilip Kumar
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B. Kandikuppa Sreekant C. Vikram Sharma D. Suresh Kumar Learning Zone : Kandikuppa Sreekant becomes Power Grid CMD.State-owned Power Grid Corporation Director (Finance) Kandikuppa Sreekant took charge as the company's chairman and managing director. Kandikuppa Sreekant assumed the charge of the chairman and managing director of Power Grid Corporation of India.
7. Who won Miss World Diversity 2019? A. Vikram Sharma B. Naaz Joshi C. Sherin begum D. Nithya Sharma Learning Zone : Naaz Joshi made the country proud with a third successive victory in the beauty pageant Miss World Diversity. She competed against 14 other international contestants in Mauritius.
8. The National Handloom Day is observed in . A. 5 August B. 6 August C. 7 August D. 8 August Learning Zone :
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The National Handloom Day is observed on 7th August every year. To mark the occasion, the nation holds a function at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi. The Day is observed at Weavers’ Service Centres in different States.
9. Which of the following Ministers responsible for the Ministry of Textiles? A. Smriti Zubin Irani B. Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank C. D.V. Sadananda Gowda D. Nitin Jairam Gadkari Learning Zone : Smriti Zubin Irani is the Minister responsible for the MInistry of Textiles. The Ministry regulates and formulates all the policies and promotion of the textile industry in India.
10. Which of the following States passed a bill against honour killing? A. Rajasthan B. Uttar Pradesh C. Assam D. Bihar Learning Zone : Rajasthan State Legislative Assembly passed the Rajasthan Prohibition of Interference with the Freedom of Matrimonial Alliances in the Name of Honour and Tradition Bill, 2019 on 5th August. The Bill was introduced by the Parliamentary Affairs Minister Shanti Dhariwal. The Bill aims to curb incidents of honour killing in the State.
Set-63
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1. Who get its first Buddhist dominated Union Territory after Jammu and Kashmir Bifurcation? A. Saudi Arabia B. India C. Indonesia D. Iran Learning Zone : India gets its first Buddhist dominated Union Territory after Jammu and Kashmir Bifurcation.
2. Which of the following countries downgrade diplomatic ties and suspends trade with India? A. Indonesia B. Pakistan C. Saudi Arabia D. Iran Learning Zone : Pakistan downgrades diplomatic ties and suspends trade with India.
3. Which of the following football players announced retirement from professional football? A. Lionel Messi B. Diego Forlan C. Mohammed Sahab D. Sadio Mane Learning Zone : Diego Forlan football player announced retirement from professional football.
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4. Which of the following states government launched new higher education model named RACE A. Rajasthan B. Tamil Nadu C. Kerala D. Arunachal Pradesh Learning Zone : Rajasthan state government launched new higher education model named RACE.
5. Which of the following banks Expand biller categories for Bharat Bill Payment System? A. Dena Bank B. Reserve Bank of India C. Canara Bank D. Asian Development Bank Learning Zone : The Reserve Bank of India allows all categories of billers to accept prepaid recharges under the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS).
6. Where is the GIFT city located in India ? A. Bihar B. Gujarat C. Odisha D. Uttar Pradesh Learning Zone :
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Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) is an initiative led by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It is located at Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
7. Sushma Swaraj who passed away recently was the ______. A. Former Finance Minister B. Former Home Affairs Minister C. Former Defence Minister D. Former External Affairs Minister Learning Zone : Former External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj, 67 years old, passed away on 6th August. She suffered a cardiac arrest and passed away at AIIMS. She underwent a kidney transplant in 2016.
8. was the first woman to hold the office of the Ministry of External Affairs. A. Maneka Gandhi B. Indira Gandhi C. Sushma Swaraj D. Nirmala Sitharaman Learning Zone : Indira Gandh is the first woman to hold the office of the Ministry of External Affairs. She held the office from 6 September 1967 to 13 February 1969.
9. How much did the RBI cut the interest repo rate in the third bi-monthly policy review by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? A. 30 bps B. 35 bps C. 40 bps
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D. 45 bps Learning Zone : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a 35 basis points (bps) cut to the benchmark repo rate on 7th August. The announcement was made after the RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das-led third bi-monthly policy review by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) for 2019-20. This reduction is the fourth in a row since Shaktikanta Das took over as the governor in December 2018. It is the lowest since April 2010.
10. What is the Marginal Standing Facility Rate set by RBI in the third bi-monthly policy review by MPC? A. 5.55% B. 5.65% C. 5.75% D. 5.85% Learning Zone : The Marginal Standing Facility Rate set by RBI in the third bi-monthly policy review by MPC is 5.65%.
Set-64
1. tops Forbes List Of Highest-Paid Sports Women. A. Serena Williams B. Hima Das C. Swapna Barman D. Mithali Raj Learning Zone : US tennis superstar Serena Williams topped Forbes magazine's list of the highest-paid women in sports for the fourth straight year. The business
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publication calculated that the 23-time Grand Slam singles champion earned $29.2 million in the 12-month period.
2. Which of the following countries plans to utilize its share under Indus Waters Treaty? A. Indonesia B. Pakistan C. India D. Saudi Arabia Learning Zone : India plans to utilize its share under Indus Waters Treaty.
3. ______and Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance ink pact. A. State Bank of India B. Indian Bank C. Canara Bank D. RBL Bank Learning Zone : Public sector Indian Bank inked a pact with private sector insurer Aditya Birla Sun Life to offer life insurance products to the bank's customers.
4. Which of the following Insurance Company launch 'Speed Dial - your partner for life' initiative on fourth 'Protection Day'? A. United India Insurance Company Limited B. Max Life Insurance C. PNB MetLife India Insurance D. HDFC Standard Life Insurance
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Learning Zone : Max Life Insurance launches 'Speed Dial - your partner for life' initiative on fourth 'Protection Day.
5. Which of the following banks joined with SBI Life Insurance and inked Bancassurance pact? A. IDBI Bank B. State Bank of India C. Dena Bank D. Canara Bank Learning Zone : State Bank of India joined with SBI Life Insurance and inked Bancassurance pact.
6. ADB approved USD 200 millions to improve road infrastructure in ______districts of Maharashtra. A. 30 B. 34 C. 35 D. 40 Learning Zone : Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved a loan of $200 million to upgrade rural roads to all-weather standards in 34 districts of India’s Maharashtra State to better connect rural areas with markets and services.
7. Which of the following IITs partner with NIOT for ocean wave electricity harnessing? A. IIT Roorkee B. IIT Madras
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C. IIT Bombay D. IIT Bangalore Learning Zone : The two central government institutes are developing better turbines to harness energy from waves along the country's 7,500-km-long coastline, estuaries and gulfs to generate electricity.
8. India-Bangladesh home minister-level talks held in ______A. New Delhi B. Kolkatta C. Sikkim D. Karnataka Learning Zone : India-Bangladesh home minister-level talks held in New Delhi
9. Which of the following schemes is launched to spread awareness about job opportunites in Hindi? A. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan C. Jyoti Bima Yojana D. Rozgar Samachar Learning Zone : The e-version of Rozgar Samachar launched recently by Union Minister of Information & Broadcasting Shri Prakash Javadekar. The main aim is to make the aspirants aware of job opportunities in government sector including public sector enterprises
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Set-65
1. Who suspended the Archery Association of India (AAI)? A. Board of Archerywrong Image B. World Archery C. International Archery Association D. AAI is not suspended Learning Zone: World Archery (WA) has suspended the Archery Association of India (AAI). Earlier, the WA executive board had given a July 31 deadline to both AAI factions to resolve their disputes, including parallel elections. The decision by WA to suspend AAI is because the matter is now in court.
2. Which of the following state governments will launch Navodayam scheme? A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar C. Rajasthan D. Tamil Nadu Learning Zone : Andhra Pradesh govt will launch Navodayam scheme.
3. ______has launched 2 ro-pax vessels. A. Mazagon Dock Limited B. Hindustan Shipyard Limited C. Cochin Shipyard Limited D. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Learning Zone :
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The Cochin Shipyard has launched two ro-pax (roll-on roll-off passenger) vessels on 8 AUgust. The ro-pax was designed and built by the Cochin Shipyard for the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI).
4. Project Water Chakra recycles ______. A. plastic contaminated water B. chemical toxins C. urine D. polluted water Learning Zone : Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M) introduced the Project Water Chakra to recycle urine. The project was done by an IIT-M student with 3 project staff.
5. Who is the current Defence Minister of Iran? A. Imran khan B. Amir Hatami C. Alil zaba D. Mohamad Faizal Learning Zone : The current Defence Minister of Iran is Brigadier-General Amir Hatami.
6. What is the range Yasin missile which is to be introduced by Iran? A. 50km B. 60km C. 70km D. 80km
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Learning Zone: Yasin is a smart guided missile with folding wings that can be fired from a range of 50 kilometres of its target from manned or unmanned aircraft.
7. Which of the following awards are the highest award among Republic of India? A. Bharat Ratna B. Padma Shri C. Padma Busan D. None of these Learning Zone : Bharat Ratna is the highest award among Republic of India.
8. ______based startup Grexter Living acquires i2Stay A. Odisha B. Bengaluru C. TamilNadu D. Kerala Learning Zone : Bengaluru based startup Grexter Living acquires i2Stay.
9. Which of the following states signs MoU with ISRO VSSC to promote space technology in state? A. Odisha B. Kerala C. West bengal D. Andhra Pradesh
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Learning Zone: Kerala signs MoU with ISRO VSSC to promote space technology in state.
10. NITI Aayog to launch the ______of WTI Awards. A.3rd Edition B.4th Edition C.5th Edition D.6th Edition Learning Zone : NITI Aayog to launch the 4th Edition of WTI Awards.
Set-66
1. Where was the 4th edition of the National Entrepreneurship Awards held? A. New Delhi B. Punjab C. Kashmir D. Bihar Learning Zone : Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) organized the fourth edition of the National Entrepreneurship Awards at New Delhi, India.
2. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) organized the ______edition of the National Entrepreneurship Awards. A.3rd B.4th C.5th
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D.6th Learning Zone : Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) organized the fourth edition of the National Entrepreneurship Awards at New Delhi, India. The Ministry has also instituted in a bid to recognize and encourage outstanding Indian Entrepreneurs and catalyse a cultural shift in youth for entrepreneurship for nominations.
3. Virasat-e-Khalsa museum is located in ______. A. AP B. UP C. MP D. Punjab Learning Zone : Virasat-e-Khalsa is a museum of Sikhism, located in the holy town, Anandpur Sahib, near Chandigarh, the capital of the state of Punjab, India.
4. Which of the following museums have entered the Asia Book of Records for becoming the most visited museum in India? A. Salar Jung Museum B. Cowasji Jehangir Hall C. Virasat-e-Khalsa museum D. Lalbhai Dalpatbhai Museum Learning Zone : Punjab’s Virasat-e-Khalsa museum has set a place in the Asia Book of Records for becoming the most visited museum in India. The museum, had a 20,569 visitors on a single day. It will feature in the next edition of the Asia Book of Records.
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5. scheme is to promote the electric and hybrid vehicle technology to ensure the growth. A. FAME B. RISE C. RISE D. RUSA Learning Zone : FAME of India is to promote the electric and hybrid vehicle technology to ensure the growth.Phase -I is the fast adoption and manufacturing of the electric and hybrid vehicle in India from 2015. Phase -II is to boost the electrical vehicle mobility and to increase it in commercial fleets from this 2019.
6. Centre sanctioned 5595 electric buses in 64 cities under the ______scheme. A. Phase 1-Fame B. Phase 2-Fame C. Phase 3-Fame D. Phase 4-Fame Learning Zone : The Ministry of Heavy Industries and PISC has sanctioned 5595 electric buses in 64 cities for intracity and intercity operations under the second phase of FAME India scheme. The aim of this scheme is to encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicle.
7. Which of the following States are at the bottom rankings in Breastfeeding and Infant and Young Child Feeding Practices in the country? A. Kerala B. Maharashtra
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C. Bihar D. Uttrakhand Learning Zone : Health and Family Welfare Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan released a report on Breastfeeding in New Delhi. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Bihar are at the bottom positions of the report card.
8. Which of the following States topped the rankings in Breastfeeding and Infant and Young Child Feeding Practices in the country? A. Assam B. Tripura C. Manipur D. Arunachal Pradesh Learning Zone : Manipur has topped the rankings in Breastfeeding and Infant and Young Child Feeding Practices in the country.
9. Which of the following countries unveiled three precision guided missiles? A. Saudi Arabia B. Iran C. Indonesia D. Iraq Learning Zone : Iran unveiled three precision guided missiles.
10. Who unveils new transgender inclusive policy, 2019? A. Cricket Australia
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B. Cricket New Zealand C. Cricket South Africa D. Cricket India Learning Zone : Cricket Australia unveils new transgender inclusive policy.
11. Who launches onboard shopping? A. Indian Army B. Indian Railways C. Jet Airways D. Indian Navy Learning Zone : Indian Railways launches onboard shopping.
Set-67
1. Reliance Jio Fibre launch on ______, 2019, plans start at Rs 700 per month. A. Aug 25 B. Sept 5 C. Oct 25 D. Nov 5 Learning Zone : Reliance Jio Fibre launch on Sept 5 plans start at Rs 700 per month.
2. Bajrang Punia won gold in _____ at Tbilisi Grand Prix 2019. A. 55 kg category
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B. 65 kg category C. 75 kg category D. 85 kg vategory Learning Zone : Bajrang Punia won gold in 65 kg category at Tbilisi Grand Prix 2019.
3. Draft Agricultural policy released by ______Government. A. Tamil Nadu B. Odisha C. Kerala D. Bihar Learning Zone : Draft Agricultural policy released by Odisha Government.
4. Which of the following union ministers approves Child Care Leave for Male Service Personnel in Defence Forces. A. Shri Prakash Javedakar B. Shri Rajnath Singh C. Shri Arun Jaitley D. Shri Suresh Prabhu Learning Zone : Union minister Shri Rajnath Singh approves Child Care Leave for Male Service Personnel in Defence Forces.
5. Which of the following banks platform Practo launches co-branded credit card RBL Bank Practo Plus? A. Dena Bank
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B. RBL Bank C. Andhra Bank D. Canara Bank Learning Zone : RBL Bank platform Practo launches co-branded credit card RBL Bank Practo Plus.
6. ______to be the first woman president of INSA A. Aparna Dutta Gupta B. Chandrima Shaha C. Anuradha Dube D. Bamji Mahtab Sohrab Learning Zone : Chandrima Shaha Chandrima Shaha to be the first woman president of INSA.
7. won gold in 65kg category at Tbilisi Grand Prix 2019. A. Geeta Phogat B. Bajrang Punia C. Vinesh Bhogat D. Pooja Dhanda Learning Zone : Bajrang Punia won gold in 65kg category at Tbilisi Grand Prix 2019.
8. Which of the following companies launched its own Operating System Harmony OS? A.Nokia
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B.Huwaei C.Samsung D.Apple Learning Zone : Huwaei company launches its own Operating System Harmony OS.
9. wrote Listening, Learning and Leading book. A. Shri Suresh Menon B. Shri Prakash Javedakar C. Shri Vikram Sinha D. Shri Venkaiah Naidu Learning Zone : Shri Venkaiah Naidu wrote Listening, Learning and Leading book and published recently
10. Who launched the country's first corporate credit card called 'Freedom Card' for small and medium enterprises (SMEs)? A. Enkash B. Brex C. Nubank D. None of these Learning Zone : EnKash launched the country's first corporate credit card called 'Freedom Card' for small and medium enterprises (SMEs). The Freedom Card is a true commercial credit card with open acceptance.
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Set-68
1. is elected as the President of Guatemala country. A. Alejandro Giammattei B. Sandra torres C. Otto Pérez Molina D. Álvaro Colom Learning Zone : The Conservative Alejandro Giammattei was elected as Guatemala's president defeating former first lady Sandra Torres in a run-off in the country’s Supreme Electoral Council court.
2. Which of the following lakes have set a new record of being the world's highest lake? A. Kajin sara B. Tilicho C. Phewa D. Rara Learning Zone : The Kajin Sara lake in Manang district was discovered about a few months ago by a team of mountaineers in Nepal set a new record of being the world's highest lake on replacing Tilicho,Kajin Sara lake is situated at an altitude of 4,919 metres in the Himalayan nation. It is located at Singarkharka area of Chame rural municipality.
3. Who is the implementing body of Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) health insurance scheme? A. Department of Health Research Authority B. Suraksha Authority
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C. Department of Health Insurance Authority D. National Health Authority Learning Zone : The National Health Protection Scheme is an implementing body of Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) health insurance scheme.
4. Where was the 2019 Rogers Cup held? A. Toronto B. Montreal C. New York D. Rochester Learning Zone : The tournament was founded in 1881. The Rogers Cup was the 130th edition. The tournament was held in IGA Stadium & Aviva Centre at Toronto, Canada.
5. won the championship in canadian open Rogers cup 2019. A. Serena williams B. Simona Halep C. Bianca Andreescu D. Maria Sharapova Learning Zone : Bianca Andreescu won the 2019 Rogers Cup in the Women's singles event held in Toronto, Canada. She defeated Serena Williams.
6. Who is the President of South Korea? A. Rhee Syngman B. Moon Jae-in
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C. Yun Posun D. Chun Doo-hwan Learning Zone : President of South Korea is Moon Jae-in.
7. Maharashtra seeks ______crore as monetary assistance from the Centre A. Rs 2000 B. Rs 3000 C. Rs 4000 D. Rs 5000 Learning Zone : Maharashtra seeks Rs 3000 crore as monetary assistance from the Centre.
8. Vikram Sarabhais 100th birth anniversary observed on ______A. August 11 B. August 12 C. August 13 D. August 14 Learning Zone : Vikram Sarabhais 100th birth anniversary observed on August 12. 9. World elephant day celebrated on ______A. November 18 B. August 12 C. September 14 D. October 16 Learning Zone :
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World elephant day celebrated on August 12.
10. Which of the following companies remains world's most profitable company? A. Volkswagen Group B. Verizon Communications C. Saudi Aramco D. Ping An Insurance Learning Zone : Saudi Aramco remains world's most profitable company.
Set-69
1. The FIM World Cup 2019 was held in . A. Hungary B. Dubai C. Spain D. Portugal Learning Zone : FIM World Cup 2019 was held in Hungary. FIM world cup is the class of motorcycling racing which uses Electric Motorcycles with a top speed of 270km per hour.
2. Who is the first Indian to claim the FIM World Cup 2019? A. Alisha Abdullah B. Sapna Choudary C. Sonia Jain
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D. Aishwarya Pissay Learning Zone : Aishwarya Pissay claimed the world title in motorsports in the women's category in the FIM World Cup 2019 held at Varpalota in Hungary. She created the history and became the first Indian to claim the title.
3. Where is the Jamia Millia Islamia University located? A. New Delhi B. Kolkata C. Sikkim D. Odisha Learning Zone : Jamia Millia Islamia is a public central university located at New Delhi.
4. Centre introduces a partial guarantee scheme for ______. A. NBFCs B. HFCs C. Fintech companies D. Both A&B Learning Zone : Centre has announced a partial guarantee scheme in the budget for non- banking finance companies (NBFCs) and housing finance companies (HFCs). The scheme will allow the Public Sector Banks to purchase their assets.
5. BCI imposed ____ ban on opening new law colleges. A.2 years B.3 years
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C.4 years D.5 years Learning Zone : BCI imposed 3 years ban on opening new law colleges.
6. Who got appointed in AAAs Athletes Commission ? A. Seetha Suresh B. P.T. Usha C. Nithya Suresh D. Vikram Sharma Learning Zone : P.T. Usha got appointed in AAAs Athletes Commission.
7. Which of the following banks joined with State Bank of India to link home loan product to RBIs repo rate? A. Dena Bank B. Bank of Baroda C. Canara Bank D. Yes Bank Learning Zone : Bank of Baroda (BoB) planned to linked its home loan product to RBI’s (Reserve Bank of India (RBI)repo rate after State Bank of India (SBI)
8. Which of the following apps are launched by Central Government? A. My Gov B. Swachh Nagar app
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C. Online RTI D. MEA India Learning Zone : The Central Government launched a mobile application through which people will be able to get their household waste picked up by urban municipal bodies.
9. World Organ Donation day observed on ______. A. August 12 B. August 13 C. August 14 D. August 15 Learning Zone : World Organ Donation day observed on August 13.
10. GRSE launches ______FPV for Coast Guard. A. 12th B. 5th C. 8th D. 9th Learning Zone : GRSE launches fifth FPV for Coast Guard.
11. Who is the first Indian chef to receive Chevalier de lOrdre du Merite Agricoleto? A. Nita Mehta B. Priyam Chatterjee
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C. Kunal Kapoor D. Maneet Chahuan
Learning Zone : Priyam Chatterjee is the first Indian chef to receive Chevalier de lOrdre du Merite Agricoleto.
12 Which of the following channels produced a patriotic song Watan? A. Times Now B. Doordarshan C. CNN IBN D. NDTV Learning Zone : Doordarshan channel produced a patriotic song Watan
13. Which of the following banks joined with BoB to link home loan product to RBI’s repo rate? A. State Bank of India B. Canara Bank C. Dena Bank D. Corporation Bank Learning Zone : State Bank of India joined with BoB to link home loan product to RBI’s repo rate.
Set-70
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1. Which of the following teas at the GTAC was sold at Rs.75,000? A. Assam Black Gold Tea B. Golden butterfly Tea C. Order Gold Tea D. Guayaki Golden Tea Learning Zone : In Assam, a kilogram of Golden Butterfly tea struck gold at the Guwahati Tea Auction Centre (GTAC) as it was sold at Rs.75,000. This is a new international record bettering the previous high of Rs.70,501 per kg.
2. When did the Pulwama terror attack where 40 Indian CRPF jawans were killed happen? A. Jan 2019 B. Feb 2019 C. March 2019 D. April 2019 Learning Zone : The Pulwama terror attack where 40 Indian CRPF jawans were killed happened on February 14.
3. Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman is to be awarded ______. A. Vir Chakra B. Param Vir Chakra C. Mahavir Chakra D. Ashoka Chakra Learning Zone :
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Indian Air Force (IAF) Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman will be awarded the Vir Chakra gallantry medal on Independence Day. The Vir Chakra award is an Indian gallantry award for acts of Bravery on the battlefield.
4. The Civil Disobedience movement was happened in . A. 1919 B. 1924 C. 1927 D. 1933 Learning Zone : Mahatma Gandhi launched Individual civil disobedience on August 1, 1933. Civil Disobedience movement continued till April 1934 when Gandhi formally withdrawn it.
5. The Motor Vehicle (MV) Accident Fund will be audited by ______. A. Solicitor General of India B. MV authority of India C. Ministry of Finance D. Comptroller and Auditor General Learning Zone : The MV Accident fund will be managed by an authority or agency who is appointed by the Centre. The agency will have high knowledge of insurance business of the agency, capability of the agency to manage funds and any other criteria fixed by the government. Comptroller and Auditor General of India will audit the fund in regular intervals.
6. The World Education Summit (WES) 2019 was held in . A. Kolkata
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B. Jaipur C. Itanagar D. New Delhi Learning Zone : The 14th elets World Education Summit (WES) held at New Delhi. It is a 2 day summit. The summit was organised by Elets Technomedia Pvt Ltd in association with Government of Nagaland, Government of Manipur, Government of Uttarakhand and the Government of Rajasthan. The summit was powered by NoPaperForms on 9-10 August in Delhi 2019.
7. Which of the following States won the Best innovation and initiative leadership award 2019? A. Maharashtra B. kerala C. Rajasthan D. Gujarat Learning Zone : Rajasthan bagged the Best innovation and initiative leadership award 2019 in the 14th elets World Education Summit (WES) held at New Delhi. The award is for its achievements in higher education. The award was received by the Minister of State for Higher Education Bhanwar Singh Bhati.
8. Which of the following Ministries launched Swachh Nagar app? A. Ministry of Textiles B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare C. Ministry of Jal Shakti D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Learning Zone :
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Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched Swachh Nagar app, a mobile application under the Swachh Survekshan 2020. Through the app, people will be able to get their household waste that can be picked up by urban municipal bodies. The move is a part of the cleanliness rankings of cities. It was inaugurated by the Union Minister of State Hardeep Singh Puri on the same occasion.
9. What is the theme of the Swachh Survekshan 2020? A. ODF++ goals B. Cleanliness is Our Right C. Clean India 2020 D. None of the above Learning Zone : The Swachh Survekshan 2020 has the theme "Cleanliness is Our Right". To avail the service through Swachh Nagar app people will have to pay to civic bodies. Using the app, the people can also track the waste-collection vehicle and can ensure the accountability of municipal corporations.
10. Which of the following apps were launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to track the waste-collection vehicle? A. Swachh GeM app B. Swachh e-Clean app C. Swachh SBM-U app D. Swachh Nagar app Learning Zone : Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched Swachh Nagar app, a mobile application under the Swachh Survekshan 2020. Through the app, people will be able to get their household waste that can be picked up by urban municipal bodies. The move is a part of the cleanliness rankings of cities. It was
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inaugurated by the Union Minister of State Hardeep Singh Puri on the same occasion.
Set-71
1. Tamil Nadu has GI tags. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 Learning Zone : The Tamil Nadu has 30 GI tags for various products including handicrafts such as Salem fabric and Kancheepuram silk, agricultural items like Virupakshi Hill banana, Erode turmeric and Madurai Malli.
2. In which of the following States Palani Murugan temple located? A. Kerala B. Andhra Pradesh C. Karnataka D. Tamil Nadu Learning Zone : Arulmigu Dandayudhapani Swami Temple is one of the Six Abodes of Murugan. It is located in the city of Palani in Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu, India.
3. Which temple prasadam in Tamil Nadu got its first GI tag? A. Palani Panjamirtham
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B. Sri Abhirami Amirthakadeswarar Panjamirtham C. Meenakshi Amman Panjamirtham D. Brihadeeswara Panjamirtham Learning Zone : The renowned Palani panchamirtham as the prasadam at Dhandayuthapani Swamy temple in Palani has been given the Geographical Indication (GI) tag .this is the first GI tag to prasadam in Tamil Nadu.
4. How much does the ONGC plan to invest in 25 major projects to boost oil and gas production? A. Rs.53,000 crores B. Rs.63,000 crores C. Rs.73,000 crores D. Rs.83,000 crores Learning Zone : The Energy major Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) is investing around Rs 83,000 crore in 25 major projects to boost oil and gas production has stagnated in 2018.
5. CORAS will be a separate Commando Unit of ______. A. Railway Protection Force (RPF) B. Government Railway Police (GRP) C. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) D. Border Security Force (BSF) Learning Zone : CORAS will be a special Railway Unit and a separate Commando Unit of RPF. It is a result of detailed policy formulation. Railway Protection Force is always
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involved in protecting Railway passengers and Railway property in far and inaccessible threat prone areas.
6. Indian Railways has launched . A. Special force for Railway Security (SFRAS) B. Central Force Railway Security (CFRAS) C. Paramilitary for Railway Security (PRAS) D. Commando for Railway Security (CORAS) Learning Zone : Ministry of Railways and Commerce & Industry launched Commando for Railway Security (CORAS) of Indian Railways. It was launched by Shri Piyush Goyal. He also launched a new establishment manual for Railway Protection Force (RPF).
7. What is the estimated cost of the Jal Jeevan Mission scheme? A. Rs.1.5 lakh crore B. Rs.2.5 lakh crore C. Rs.3.5 lakh crore D. Rs.4.5 lakh crore Learning Zone : Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that the government is to launch the Jal Jeevan Mission scheme. The scheme aims to bring piped water to households. The estimated cost of the project is more than Rs.3.5 lakh crore.
8. Who is the Chief Minister of Punjab? A. Yogi Adityanath B. Ashok Gehlot C. Nitish Kumar
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D. Amarinder Singh Learning Zone : Captain Amarinder Singh is currently serving as the 15th and current Chief Minister of Punjab. He is an elected Member of the Legislative Assembly from Patiala.
9. Where is the Jung-E-Azadi memorial located? A. Gujarat B. Punjab C. Bihar D. Uttar Pradesh Learning Zone : The third phase of the 'Jung-E-Azadi' memorial at Kartarpur, Punjab was dedicated to the people who were killed in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the unsung heroes who were incarcerated in the Andaman Cellular jail during the freedom struggle.
10. Which of the post is to be created in the defence as per PM's announcement? A. Secretary Defence B. Chief Adviser of Defence Staff C. Chief Secretary of Defence D. Chief of Defence Staff Learning Zone : The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has announced the creation of the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) on 15 August. The rank of CDS will be a first among equals. It will be a fourth four-star officer who will be senior to the three other service chiefs. It is the most significant reform in the defence.
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11. NCAP has proposed to reduce national-level air pollution by 20-30% by ______. A.2022 B.2024 C.2026 D.2030 Learning Zone : NCAP has proposed to reduce national-level air pollution by 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2017-2024. The Centre is working towards scaling up the air quality monitoring network across the Country.
Set-72
1. is the President of Brazil. A. Afonso Pena B. Jair Bolsonaro C. Delfim Moreira D. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva Learning Zone : Jair Bolsonaro is the President of Brazil.
2. Bajrang Punia to get the ______Award. A. Dronacharya Award B. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
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C. Dhyan Chand Award D. Arjuna Award Learning Zone : Bajrang Punia to get Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award .
3. Tamil Nadu awards people on various categories on the ______Independence Day A. 70th B. 73rd C. 80th D. 83rd Learning Zone : TamilNadu awards people on various categories on the 73rd Independence Day.
4. Which of the following states government increases reservation for SC and OBC? A. West Bengal B. Bihar C. Chattisgarh D. Assam Learning Zone : Chattisgarh state government increases reservation for SC and OBC.
5. Online revenue payment system launched by CM of______A. West bengal B. Odisha
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C. Tamil Nadu D. Kerala Learning Zone : Online revenue payment system launched by CM of Odisha
6. Who to get Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019 ? A. Bajrang Punia B. Virat Kohli C. Manoj Sarkar
D. Viswanathan Anand Learning Zone : Bajrang Punia to get Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019.
7. Fifth meeting of BRICS Minister Of Environment held in . A. Dhaka, Bangladesh B. Istanbul, Turkey C. Sao Paulo, Brazil D. Tokyo, Japan Learning Zone : Fifth meeting of BRICS Minister of Environment held in Sao Paulo, Brazil.
8. Who is appointed as Head Coach of Indian Cricket Team? A. Irfan Pathan B. Ravi Shastri C. Rahul Dravid D. Virendra Sehwag
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Learning Zone : Ravi Shastri is appointed as Head Coach of Indian Cricket Team.
9. Who is appointed as the director of National Institute of Health and Family Welfare? A. Suresh Prabhuwrong Image B. Harshad Pandurang Thakur C. Dinesh Gupta D. Arjun Sharma Learning Zone : Harshad Pandurang Thakurappointed as the director of National Institute of Health and Family Welfare. The proposal of appointment was approved by the appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
10. Who launched the Swachh Survekshan Gramin 2019 (SSG 2019)? A. Shri suresh kumar B. Shri Gajendra Singh C. Shri Dinesh Karthickwrong Image D. Shri Suresh Yadav Learning Zone : Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat launched the Swachh Survekshan Gramin 2019 (SSG 2019) The scheme instituted from August 14 to September 30, 2019
11. Who is conferred with A.P.J. Abdul Kalam award in 2019? A. K Sivan B. Suresh Krishna C. K. Sridhar
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D. Nitya Anand Learning Zone : Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman K Sivan awarded the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Award by the Tamil Nadu government.
12. What is the name of the Japanese defense ship which visited Kochi in 2019? A. USS Susquehanna B. JS Sazanami C. INS Arihant D. USS Missouri Learning Zone : JS Sazanami, the fourth vessel of the Takanami class destroyers of the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force. The defence force is commanded by Commander Shoji Ishkawa. It is a 2-day goodwill visit from August 13 to 19,2019.
Set-73
1. Tirur betel vine, which recently got the GI Tag, is from ______state. A. Tripura B. Kerala C. Assam D. Bihar Learning Zone : Tirur betel vine is produced from Kerala. It is valued its medicinal properties and its mild stimulant action. It is mainly cultivated in Tirur, Tanur, Tirurangadi, Kuttippuram, Malappuram and Vengara block panchayaths of Malappuram District.
2. Mizo Puanche, which got the GI Tag in 2019, is from ______state.
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A. Kerala B. Assam C. Mizoram D. Manipur Learning Zone : Mizo Puanchei is a colourful Mizo shawl/textile from Mizoram. It is considered as the most colourful among the Mizo textiles. It is important and an essential possession for every Mizo lady. It is an important marriage outfit in the state. It is the most commonly used costume in Mizo festive dances and official ceremonies.
3. Tawlhlohpuan, which got the GI Tag in 2019, is from ______state. A. Uttar Pradesh B. Assam C. Manipur D. Mizoram Learning Zone : Tawlhlohpuan is a Mizoram made medium to heavy, compactly woven, good quality fabric. It is known for warp yarns, warping, weaving & intricate designs that are made by hand.
4. Which of the following Countries are the first to have a National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL)? A. China B. Bhutan C. India D. Japan Learning Zone :
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Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) finalised India's first National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL). India has now become the first country to compile such a list.
5. finalised India's first National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL). A. ICMR B. AIIMS C. IIM-K D. IIM-A Learning Zone : Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) finalised India's first National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL). The move comes after the challenges faced by ICMR which decided that diagnostics serve a key role in improving health and quality of life.
6. Where was the World Junior Track Cycling Championships 2019 held? A. US B. China C. UK D. Germany Learning Zone : The 2019 UCI Junior Track Cycling World Championships was held from 14 to 18 August 2019 at Frankfurt (Oder), Germany. The track cycling championship event happens every year.
7. won gold at the World Junior Track Cycling Championships 2019.
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A. Australia B. China C. India D. UK
Learning Zone : Indian men's team won the Team Sprint gold medal at the World Junior Track Cycling Championships in Frankfurt, Germany. A team of 4 members created the history by winning India's first-ever gold in a world level cycling competition.
8. Which of the following are became India's first Indian airline to operate commercial flights overflying the polar region. A. Air India B. IndiGo C. Jet Airways D. King Fisher Learning Zone : Air India became India's first Indian airline to operate commercial flights overflying the polar region. The airlines flew its Boeing 777 aircraft over the North pole. The Boeing 777 was Delhi-San Francisco flight.
9. What is the name of the train which connects India with Pakistan? A. Myanmar Rail B. Maitri Express C. Thar Link Express D. Malaysia Railway Link Learning Zone :
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India suspends Thar Link Express to Pakistan.
10. Who will conduct the 13th edition of Central Teacher Eligibility Test ? A. NTA B. CBSE C. NEET D. UGT Learning Zone : CBSE conduct the 13th edition of Central Teacher Eligibility Test.
11. India suspends Thar Link Express to ______A. Iran B. Pakistan C. Iraq D. Nepal Learning Zone : India suspends Thar Link Express to Nepal.
12. Which of the following countries won historic gold at 2019 Junior Track World Cycling Championship? A. Indonesia B. India C. Pakistan D. Saudi Arabia Learning Zone : India won historic gold at 2019 Junior Track World Cycling Championship.
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Set-74
1. Which of the following countries participation at WorldSkills International Competition as big as the Olympics? A. Indonesia B. India C. Pakistan D. Saudi Arabia Learning Zone : India participation at WorldSkills International Competition as big as the Olympics.
2. When does the World Humanitarian Day is observed ? A. August 17 B. August 18 C. August 19 D. August 20 Learning Zone : World Humanitarian Day observed on August 19.
3. What is the new name of Lucknow's iconic Hazratganj Chauraha ? A. British Residency B. Atal Chowk C. Chota Imambara D. Dilkusha Kothi Learning Zone :
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Lucknow's famous Hazratganj Chauraha renamed as "Atal Chowk" It is named in the memory of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
4. inaugurated International Conference on Teacher Education in 2019. A. Shri Dinesh Gupta B. Shri Prakash Javedakar C. Shri Suresh Prabhuwrong Image D. Shri Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank Learning Zone : Union Minister Shri Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank inaugurated International Conference on Teacher Education.
5. is the Chairman of the committee which was set up to review the Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) 2016 and Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2009. A. Governor of RBI B. Deputy Governor of RBI C. Director General (Acquisition) D. Chief of Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) Learning Zone : The Minister of Defence Rajnath Singh approved the setting up of a Committee under the Chairmanship of Director General (Acquisition). The committee is aimed to review the Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) 2016 and Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2009. The Committee will study and submit its recommendations in 6 months. The Director General (Acquisition) is the Chairman of the committee. There will be 11 other members in the committee.
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6. ______Army International Scout Masters Competition Concludes at Jaisalmer Military Station with Indian Army Emerging as Champions A. 4th B. 5th C. 6th D. 7th Learning Zone : 5th Army International Scout Masters Competition Concludes at Jaisalmer Military Station with Indian Army Emerging as Champions.
7. Who inaugurates Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Medical Sciences? A. Shri Ramesh Kumar B. Shri Arun Jaitley C. Shri Harsh Vardhan D. Shri Rajesh Sharma Learning Zone : Shri Harsh Vardhan inaugurates Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Medical Sciences.
8. PM signs MoUs during his second visit to Bhutan in 2019. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 Learning Zone : PM signs 10 MoUs during his second visit to Bhutan
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9. When World Photography Day observed on ______A. 30th November B. 19th August C. 21st August D. 22nd October Learning Zone : When World Photography Day observed on 19th August.
Set-75
1. National Radio Day is observed on . a) 20 August b) 12 June c) 22 September d) 14 July Learning Zone : Each year on August 20th, National Radio Day recognizes the great invention of the radio.
2. The 45th G7 summit will be held on , 2019. a) August 25–27 b) September 25–27 c) October 25–27 d) November 25–27 Learning Zone : The 45th G7 summit will be held on August 25–27, 2019, in Biarritz, Nouvelle- Aquitaine, France.
3. Where did the G7 summit was hold in 2019? a) India
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b) France c) Germany d) Australia Learning Zone : The 45th G7 summit was held on August 25–27, 2019, in Biarritz, Nouvelle- Aquitaine, France.
4. As per 4th Advance Estimates, the amount of production of Rice during 2018- 19 is . a) 96.42 million tonnes. b) 106.42 million tonnes. c) 116.42 million tonnes. d) 126.42 million tonnes. Learning Zone : As per 4th Advance Estimates, the amount of production of Rice during 2018-19 is 116.42 million tonnes.
5. How many member of Karnataka Cabinet took oath at Raj Bhavan in Bengaluru on 20 August ? a) 10 b) 15 c) 17 d) 23 Learning Zone : The 17-member Karnataka Cabinet took oath at Raj Bhavan in Bengaluru on 20 August
6. Who is the Chief Minister of Karnataka? a) Nitish Kumar b) BS Yediyurappa
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c) Bhupesh Baghel d) Pramod Sawant Learning Zone : Bookanakere Siddalingappa Yediyurappa is an Indian politician who is the Chief Minister of Karnataka and the Karnataka state president of BJP.
7. ray is a penetrating electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei. a) Alpha b) Beta c) Gamma d) Ultra Violet Learning Zone : A gamma ray, or gamma radiation, is a penetrating electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei.
8. Which of the following banks are planning to end the ubiquitous usage of debit cards from the banking system ? a) State Bank of India b) Punjab National Bank c) ICICI Bank d) Bank of Baroda Learning Zone : The State Bank of India is planning to end the ubiquitous usage of debit cards from the banking system.
9. YONO is an integrated digital banking platform offered by . a) State Bank of India b) Central Bank of India c) Reserve Bank of India
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d) Bandhan Bank Learning Zone : YONO is an integrated digital banking platform offered by State Bank of India.
When did the Chandrayaan 2 has been successfully manoeuvred into lunar orbit? a) 10 August 2019 b) 15 August 2019 c) 17 August 2019 d) 20 August 2019 Learning Zone : Chandrayaan 2 has been successfully manoeuvred into lunar orbit on 20 August 2019.
Set-76
1. Who implements end to travel restrictions for women ? a) Japan b) China c) America d) Saudi Arabia Learning Zone : Saudi Arabia implements end to travel restrictions for women. 2. was the Indian 1st women freedom fighter and politician. a) Begum Royeka b) Sucheta Kriplani c) Sarojini Naidu d) Kittur Rani Chennamma Learning Zone : Sucheta Kriplani was the Indian 1st women freedom fighter and politician.
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3. Who reviewed the functioning of IMAC, IFC-IOR? a) Shri Rajesh Sharma b) Shri Rajnath Singh c) Shri Arun Jaitley d) Shri Dinesh Gupta Learning Zone : Shri Rajnath Singh reviewed the functioning of IMAC, IFC-IOR.
4. Which country agree to strengthen cooperation in addressing maritime issues along with Coast Guards of India ? a) Sri Lanka b) South Africa c) Indonesia d) Saudi Arabia Learning Zone : Coast Guards of India and Sri Lanka agree to strengthen cooperation in addressing maritime issues.
5. Who launches tree plantation drive at Rashtrapati Bhavan? a) Shri Ram Nath Kovind b) Shri Suresh Kumar c) Shri Prakash Javedakar d) Shri Nitin Gadkari Learning Zone : Shri Ram Nath Kovind launches tree plantation drive at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
6. Where is the Indian Deep Space Network (IDSN) located? a) Andhra Pradesh b) Tamil Nadu c) Karnataka
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d) Maharashtra Learning Zone : Indian Deep Space Network is a network of large antennas and communication facilities operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation to support the interplanetary spacecraft missions of India. Its hub is located at Byalalu, a village about 25 kilometres from Bengaluru, India.
7. Where is the Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) located? a) Sriharikota b) Bengaluru c) Hyderabad d) Lucknow Learning Zone : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has established a comprehensive global network of ground stations to provide Telemetry, Tracking and Command (TTC) support to satellite and launch vehicle missions. These facilities are grouped under ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) with its headquarters at Bangalore, India.
8. Who is the present minister of Indian Railways? a) Shri Piyush Goyal b) Shri Suresh prabhu c) Shri Prakash Javedakar d) Shri Suresh Sharma Learning Zone : Shri Piyush Goyal is the present minister of Indian Railways.
9. Where is the headquarters of Indian Railways ? a) Ranchi b) New Delhi
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c) Chennai d) Secunderabad Learning Zone : The headquarters of Indian railways is New Delhi.
10. Shavendra Silva appointed as Commander of the ______a) Iran Army b) Sri Lankan Army c) Indian Army d) South Africa Army Learning Zone : Shavendra Silva appointed as Commander of the Sri Lankan Army.
Set-77
1. Which of the following companies partners with IISc on robotics and 5G? A. Infosys B. Wipro C. Samsung D. Nokia Learning Zone: Wipro company partners with IISc on robotics and 5G.
2. Housing for All will be achieved 2 years in advance by ______A. 2030 B. 2020 C. 2022 D. 2025 Learning Zone:
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Housing for All will be achieved 2 years in advance by 2020.
3. India holds ______Session of India-Kenya Joint Trade Committee in New Delhi in 2019. A. 7th B. 8th C. 9th D. 10th Learning Zone: India holds 9th Session of India-Kenya Joint Trade Committee in New Delhi in 2019.
4. Who launches SARAL State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index, 2019? A. Shri Suresh Sharma B. Shri RK Singh C. Shri Vikram Singh D. Shri Dinesh gupta Learning Zone: Shri RK Singh launches SARAL State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index, 2019.
5. Who to launch the book the Diary of Manu Gandhi in New Delhi? A. Shri Nitish Sharma B. Shri Prahlad Singh Patel C. Shri Vikram Sharma D. Shri Suresh Kumar Learning Zone:
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Shri Prahlad Singh Patel to launch the book the Diary of Manu Gandhi in New Delhi
6. Relics found by Archaeological Survey of India . A. Assam B. Bihar C. Maharashtra D. Odisha Learning Zone: Relics found by Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in Maharashtra’s Phupgaon
7. Ayushman Bharat helped peoples in 2019. A. 30 lakh B. 34 lakh C. 37 lakh D. 39 lakh Learning Zone: Ayushman Bharat helped 39 lakh peoples save Rs 12,000 crore
8. Which of the following force makes the nation proud in World Police and Fire Games? A. BSF B. CISF C. CRPF D. AIF Learning Zone:
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CISF makes the nation proud in World Police and Fire Games by achieving five (05) Gold, three (03) Silver & two (02) Bronze medals
9. Which of the following ministers launches NISHTHA? A. Union Human Resource Development Minister B. Defence Minister C. Road Transport and Highways Minister D. None of the above Learning Zone: Union Human Resource Development Minister Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’ launchedthe National Mission to improve Learning Outcomes at the Elementary level- NISHTHA, National Initiative for School Heads and Teachers Holistic Advancement at Dr Ambedkar International Centre in New Delhi.
10. Who Dedicates the ESIC Medical College and Hospital to the Nation? A. Shri Santosh Kumar Gangwar B. D.V. Sadananda Gowda C. Harsimrat Kaur Badal D. Thaawar Chand Gehlot Learning Zone: Shri Santosh Kumar Gangwar Dedicates the ESIC Medical College and Hospital to the Nation.
Set-78
1. Which of the following companies announce partnership with fintech ZestMoney to offer credit insurance? A. Acko General Insurance B. Reliance General Insurance
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C. Oriental Insurance Company D. Tata AIG General Insurance Learning Zone : Acko General Insurance company announces partnership with fintech ZestMoney to offer credit insurance.
2. Which of the following banks permits processing of e-mandate on credit and debit cards for recurring merchant payments? A. Reserve Bank of India B. State Bank of India C. HDFC Bank D. Canara bank Learning Zone : Reserve Bank of India bank permits processing of e-mandate on credit and debit cards for recurring merchant payments.
3. FASTags will be mandatory for all vehicles from ______A. September 2019 B. December 2019 C. November 2019 D. October 2019 Learning Zone : FASTags will be mandatory for all vehicles from December 2019.
4. Who approves proposal to declare ocean energy as Renewable Energy? A. Shri RK Singh B. Shri Suresh Kumar
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C. Shri Vikram Singh D. Shri Dinesh gupta Learning Zone : Shri RK Singh approves proposal to declare ocean energy as Renewable Energy.
5. chairs the 24th Meeting of Western Zonal Council at Panaji. A. Shri Vikram Sharma B. Shri Amit Shah C. Shri Dinesh Gupta D. Shri Prakash Javedakar Learning Zone : Union Minister for Home Affairs, Shri Amit Shah chaired the 24th meeting of the Western Zonal Council at Panaji (Goa).
6. Which of the following Rainforests are called the lungs of the planet? A. Amazon B. Congo Basin C. Papua New Guinea D. Sapo National Park Learning Zone : Amazon Rainforest is often called the lungs of the planet for their role in absorbing carbon dioxide.
7. Who Inagurates the Renovated Modern Alimco Prosthetic & Orthotic Center? A. Jaswant Singh B. Manmohan Singh
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C. Arun Jaitley D. Thawar Chand Gehlot Learning Zone : Shri Thaawarchand Gehlot Inagurates Renovated Modern Alimco Prosthetic & Orthotic Center at Kanpur.
8. 225th Meeting OF Central Board of Trustees Held at . A. Mumbai B. Kolkata C. Hyderabad D. Chennai Learning Zone : 225th Meeting OF CBT Held on 21st August, 2019 at Hyderabad.
9. When the Sabka Vishwas-Legacy Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2019 will be operationalized? A. 1st September 2019 B. 1st October 2019 C. 1st November 2019 D. 1st December 2019 Learning Zone : In the Union Budget 2019-20, the Hon’ble Finance Minister announced the Sabka Vishwas-Legacy Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2019. The Scheme has now been notified and will be operationalized from 1st September 2019.
10. Who has been appointed as Defence Secretary in the Ministry of Defence? A. Mohan Kumar
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B. Dr Ajay Kumar C. R.K. Mathur D. Shashi Kant Sharma Learning Zone : Dr Ajay Kumar, a 1985-batch IAS officer of Kerala cadre, has been appointed as Defence Secretary in the Ministry of Defence.
Set-79
1. Which of the following states allots free medicine scheme secures top rank? A. Rajasthan B. Tamil Nadu C. Kerala D. Bihar Learning Zone : Rajasthan state allots free medicine scheme secures top rank.
2. Who released the second Round of Composite Water Management Index (CWMI 2.0) in New Delhi? A. Ministry of Health and Human Welfare B. Ministry of Jal Shakthi C. NITI Aayog D. Ministry of Finance Learning Zone : NITI Aayog has released the Round of Composite Water Management Index (CWMI 2.0) in New Delhi. The report was launched by Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog and Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Jal Shakti. NITI Aayog has prepared the report to supplement the efforts of Jal Shakti
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Ministry. The CWMI 2.0 ranks varied states for the reference year 2017-18 as against 2016-17.
3. Which of the following States topped the National Health Mission (NHM) ranking? A. Karnataka B. Bihar C. Andhra Pradesh D. Rajasthan Learning Zone : Rajasthan’s free medicine scheme secured the highest position with first ranking issued by the National Health Mission (NHM) among the sixteen states of the country. NHM free drug service was introduced by the Ministry of health and family welfare (MoHFW) for all states/UTs.
4. When is the Iran's National Defence Industry Day observed? A. 15 August B. 22 August C. 16 August D. 20 August Learning Zone : The Iran's National Defence Industry Day observed on 22 August.
5. Who is the President of Iran? A. Ali Khamenei B. Mohammad Javad Zarif C. Hassan Rouhani
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D. Mahmoud Ahmadinejad Learning Zone : Hassan Rouhani is the current and seventh President of Iran since 3 August 2013. He was also a lawyer, academic, former diplomat and Islamic cleric.
6. Iran has unveiled the ______system in 2019. A. Bavar-373 B. Bavar-432 C. Iran-245 D. Ranger-575 Learning Zone : Iran has unveiled the Bavar-373 system, a defence missile system, on 22 August, 2019. The missile was unveiled by Iranian President Hassan Rouhani on Iran's National Defence Industry Day.
7. Which of the following Countries have unveiled an indigenous long-range, surface-to-air missile air defence system in 2019? A. Iran B. Russia C. US D. Pakistan Learning Zone : Iran has unveiled the Bavar-373 system, a defence missile system, on 22 August, 2019. The missile was unveiled by Iranian President Hassan Rouhani on Iran's National Defence Industry Day. Bavar-373 system is an indigenous long-range, surface-to-air missile air defence system. The missile is capable of targeting planes at more than 300 km, lock it at about 250 km and shooting down targets at a distance of 200 km. This missile is a competitor to the Russian S-300 missile system.
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8. Where is the Renovated ALIMCO Orthotics and Prosthetic Centre (AOPC) located? A. Karnataka B. Uttar Pradesh C. Odisha D. Telangana Learning Zone : The Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment Shri Thaawarchand Gehlot inaugurated the Renovated ALIMCO Orthotics and Prosthetic Centre (AOPC) and Residential complex building of ALIMCO Headquarters at Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh on 22 August.
9. Centre Organised ______for Divyangjan accessible toilets. A. PwD Hackathon B. Divyangjan Hackathon C. San-Sadhan Hackathon D. None of these Learning Zone : Centre organised San-Sadhan Hackathon on 22 August. It invites for tech enthusiasts to participate in San-Sadhan hackathon- for Divyangjan accessible toilets.
10. Who distributed the Poshan Abhiyan Awards for 2018-19? A. Shri Prakash Javedakar B. Smt Smriti Irani C. Shri Suresh Kumar D. Shri Nitish Kumar
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Learning Zone : Smt Smriti Irani distributed the Poshan Abhiyan Awards for 2018-19
11. ______confirms Europa Clipper Mission. A. Indian Institute of Chemical Technology B.NASA C. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research D. Central Institute for Cotton Research institutions Learning Zone : NASA confirms Europa Clipper Mission.
Set-80
1. Indian Army signed MoU with ______for the housing services of the Indian Army personnel. A. Housing Urban Development Corporation (HUDCO) B. Kolte Patil Developers C. Tata Realty & Housing D. Prestige Group Learning Zone: Indian Army signed a MoU with Tata Realty & Housing on 22 August 2019. It is a historic milestone achieved by the Indian Army.
2. India conducted anti-satellite test on ______satellite in March 2019. A. GSAT-15 B. Microsat-R C. CartoSat-2B D. GSAT-4
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Learning Zone: India had shot down the Microsat-R satellite on March 27, 2019. It intended to demonstrate that it can shoot down the space-based infrastructure of an enemy country. India is only the fourth country to have demonstrated this capability.
3. Which of the following countries conducted anti-satellite test in March 2019? A. UAE B. Israel C. India D. China Learning Zone: India had shot down the Microsat-R satellite on March 27, 2019. It intended to demonstrate that it can shoot down the space-based infrastructure of an enemy country. India is only the fourth country to have demonstrated this capability.
4. Akshay Kumar takes ______spot in Forbes highest paid actors list 2019. A. 3rd B. 4th C.5th D. 6th Learning Zone: Akshay Kumar takes 4th spot in Forbes highest paid actors list 2019.
5. Which of the following countries signed MoUs with France to strengthen strategic ties in Key sectors?
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A. India B. Saudi Arabia C. Pakistan D. Indonesia Learning Zone: India signed MoUs with France to strengthen strategic ties in Key sectors
6. First World Youth Conference on Kindness was held in ______in 2019. A. Chennai B. New Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Assam Learning Zone: First World Youth Conference on Kindness was held in New Delhi in 2019.
7. Odisha announces ______crore to develop Puri as World Heritage City. A. Rs 400 B. Rs 500 C. Rs 600 D. Rs 700 Learning Zone: Odisha announces Rs 500 crore to develop Puri as World Heritage City.
8. Which of the following states announce Rs. 500 crore to develop Puri as World Heritage City?
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A. Odisha B. Tamil Nadu C. Kerala D. Andhra Pradesh Learning Zone: Odisha state announces Rs. 500 crore to develop Puri as World Heritage City.
9. Which of the following teams VC discusses Rice Fortification Pilot Scheme? A. NITI Aayog B. Income Tax Department C. SEBI D. Aadhaar Learning Zone: NITI Aayog VC discusses Rice Fortification Pilot Scheme.
10. tooks 4th spot in Forbes highest paid actors list 2019. A. Bradley Cooper B. Akshay Kumar C. Adam Sandler D. Will Smith Learning Zone: Akshay Kumar took 4th spot in Forbes highest paid actors list 2019.
11. Which of the following countries would not accept interference or mediation in its internal affairs? A. Australia
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B. Pakistan C. India D. Indonesia Learning Zone: India would not accept interference or mediation in its internal affairs.
Set-81
1. holds 'fruitful discussions' with UN chief Antonio Guterres. A. Shri Hamid Ansari B. Shri Narendra Modi C. Shri Prakash Javedakar D. Shri Suresh Prabhu Learning Zone: Shri Narendra Modi holds 'fruitful discussions' with UN chief Antonio Guterres
2. Which place did India secured in the Henley Passport Index 2019? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 Learning Zone: Henley Passport Index for the year 2019 released. The report ranks India at 86th position of 189 countries in 2019. It secured a score of 58. It slipped 79th place in its previous index. The report stated that Japan and Singapore as the “world’s most powerful passport” in 2019.Japan topped the list for the second consecutive time in a row 189 countries.
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3. International dialogue on South-South and Triangular Cooperation addressed by ______A. Shri Piyush Goyal B. Shri Prakash Javedkar C. Shri Suresh Prabhu D. Shr Rajnath Singh Learning Zone: International dialogue on South-South and Triangular Cooperation addressed by Shri Piyush Goyal.
4. Who is the Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions? A. Prakash Javadekar B. Dr. Jitendra Singh C. Thawarchand Ghelot D. Piyush Goyal Learning Zone: Jitendra Singh is the Minister of State for the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region and Minister of State for Prime Minister's Office; Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions; Department of Atomic Energy and Department of Space.
5. Where was the Homeland Security 2019 conference held? A. Uttar Pradesh B. New Delhi C. Manipur D. Mizoram Learning Zone:
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Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions Dr. Jitendra Singh presented the Smart Policing Awards at the Homeland Security 2019 conference which was held in New Delhi. 35 officers were awarded the Smart policing Awards.
6. instituted the Smart Policing Awards. A. National Industrial Security Academy (NISA) B. Common Integrated Police Application C. Bharat Ke Veer D. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) Learning Zone: Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) instituted the Smart Policing in India.
7. How many officers were awarded the Smart Policing Awards 2019? A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 45 Learning Zone: Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions Dr. Jitendra Singh presented the Smart Policing Awards at the Homeland Security 2019 conference which was held in New Delhi. 35 officers were awarded the Smart policing Awards.
8. organized the first World Youth Conference on Kindness.
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A. UNESCO Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Education for Peace and Sustainable Development B. Ministry of Human Resource Development C. Ministry of Youth and Women Empowerment D. Only A and B Learning Zone: The first World Youth Conference was organised by the UNESCO Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Education for Peace and Sustainable Development, Ministry of Human Resource Development.
9. The first World Youth Conference on Kindness 2019 was held in ______. A. India B. Pakistan C. China D. Japan Learning Zone: President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated the first World Youth Conference on Kindness on 23 August, 2019 in New Delhi. The conference aimed to impart critical competencies like empathy, compassion, mindfulness and critical inquiry in global youth. It aimed to inspire, empower and enable them to transform themselves and build long-lasting peace in their communities.
10. MoEF has relaxed the mandatory charging of lease rent of ______per MW for wind power projects. A. Rs.80,000 B. Rs.75,000 C. Rs.48,000 D. Rs.30,000
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Learning Zone: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change has announced that it is to relax the mandatory charging of lease rent of Rs. 30,000/- per MW for wind power projects. The announcement was made by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Prakash Javadekar at a review held in New Delhi on 22 August.
Set-82
1. The Fourth edition of Internet of Things India Congress 2019 held in ______. A. Assam B. Karnataka C. Odisha D. Uttar Pradesh Learning Zone: The 4th edition of India’s largest confluence of digital technology, the Internet of Things (IoT) India Congress 2019 held in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
2. Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launches the commencement of work for ______City Gas Distribution. A. 8th B. 9th C. 10th D. 11th Learning Zone: Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launches the commencement of work for 10th City Gas Distribution.
3. The Seventh Community Radio Sammelan to be held in ______.
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A. Kashmir B. New Delhi C. Punjab D. Meghalaya Learning Zone: Seventh Community Radio Sammelan to be held in New Delhi.
4. Which of the following countries has launched its advanced cartography satellite, Cartosat-3 in 2019? A. China B. Russia C. USA D. India Learning Zone: India has launched its advanced cartography satellite, Cartosat-3
5. Indonesia to move capital from Jakarta to . A. Medan B. East Kalimantan C. Semarang D. Denpasar Learning Zone: Indonesia to move capital from Jakarta to East Kalimantan.
6. Which of the following countries will train 4 Indian astronauts for Gaganyaan mission?
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A. Japan B. USA C. Russia D. China Learning Zone: Russia will train 4 Indian astronauts in its first manned mission to space, Gaganyaan. A total of four Indian astronauts will go to Russia by November 2019 for a training period of 15 months at the Yuri.
7. rejects G7, 2019 aid to fight with Amazon fires. A. Japan B. America C. India D. Brazil Learning Zone: Brazil rejected aid from G7 countries to fight with Amazon fires, asking French President Emmanuel Macron to “reforest Europe” instead of showing sympathy.
8. RBI has transferred a little over Rs to the Narendra Modi government. A. 1.76 lakh crore B. 2.76 lakh crore C. 3.76 lakh crore D. 4.76 lakh crore Learning Zone: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has transferred a little over Rs 1.76 lakh crore to the Narendra Modi government
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9. City Gas Distribution bidding round will cover 50 GAs in districts. A. 100 B. 118 C. 124 D. 157 Learning Zone: City Gas Distribution bidding round will cover 50 GAs in 124 districts.
10. When the Open Acreage Licensing Programme Bid Round-IV has launched? A. 27 August B. 28 August C. 29 August D. 30 August Learning Zone: Open Acreage Licensing Programme Bid Round-IV to be launched on 27 August.
11. Where did the 7th Community Radio Sammelan to be held? A. Delhi B. Mumbai C. Hyderabad D. Guwahati Learning Zone: 7th Community Radio Sammelan to be held in Delhi.
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12. chairs meeting of State Ministers for Jal Jeevan Mission. A. Minister of State (MoS) for Human Resource Development. B. The Vice President of India. C. The Cabinet Secretary of India. D. Union Minister for Jal Shakti. Learning Zone: Union Minister for Jal Shakti, Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, chaired a Conference of State Ministers on Jal Jeevan Mission in New Delhi. State Ministers in-charge of Drinking Water from 17 States.
Set-83
1. Who holds meeting with North-Eastern States, reviews power sector in the region? A. Shri Ram Vilas Paswan B. Shri Suresh Prabhu C. Shri Prakash Javedakar D. Shri Naresh Kumar Learning Zone: Shri Ram Vilas Paswan holds meeting with North-Eastern States, reviews power sector in the region
2. What is the name of the mobile application launched for locating outlets and searching Generic medicine A. Kumbh JioPhone B. Janaushadhi Sugam C. Digicop D. Khelo India Learning Zone:
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Union Minister for Chemicals and Fertilizers, Shri D.V. Sadananda Gowda launched a mobile application “Janaushadhi Sugam” .“Jan Aushadhi Suvidha Oxo-Biodegradable Sanitary Napkin” available at only One Rupee per pad.
3. Who is the founder of Microsoft? A. Steve jobs B. Bill Gates C. Mukesh Ambhani D. Kevin Jonas Learning Zone: Bill Gates is the founder of Microsoft.
4. Which Bank has initiated OTP facility for cash withdrawals process on the YONO app on setting a six-digit PIN for the transaction? A. Allahabad Bank B. Andhra Bank C. Andhra Bank D. SBI Learning Zone: SBI customers have already initiated the cash withdrawal process on the YONO app on setting a six-digit PIN for the transaction. They will also get a six-digit reference number for the transaction on their registered mobile numbers via SMS. The cash withdrawal has to be completed within the next 30 minutes at an ATM using both the PIN and the reference number.
5. Which of the following bank introduced OTP facility for ATM withdrawals? A. Dena Bank B. Punjab National Bank
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C. Canara Bank D. Bank of Baroda Learning Zone: Canara Bank has launched India's first one-time password (OTP) facility for ATM withdrawals. The plan aims to avoid robbery in a bank’s ATM that affects ATMs users. The State-owned bank has introduced the OTPs for the safe use of ATMs. It has two vital options for the advantage of account holders.
6. Canara Bank has introduced OTP facility for ATM cash withdrawals over ______per day. A.Rs.1,00,000 B.Rs.75,000 C.Rs.50,000 D.Rs.10,000 Learning Zone: Canara Bank has launched India's first one-time password (OTP) facility for ATM withdrawals. The OTP will be activated for cash withdrawals over Rs.10,000 per day at its ATMs to protect its cardholders from unauthorized withdrawal. Indian bank also taking this process as soon.
7. Which of the following ministries meet the 15 finance commission ? A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry B. Ministries of Tourism and Culture C. Ministry of Communications D. Ministry of Corporate Affairs Learning Zone: Ministries of Tourism and Culture meet the 15th Finance Commission.
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8. Who launched the integrated NOC online Application Processing System? A. Syama Prasad Mukherjee B. Piyush Goyal C. Shri Prahlad Singh Patel D. Suresh Prabhu Learning Zone: Shri Prahlad Singh Patel launched an integrated NOC online Application Processing System for National Monuments Authority (NMA) for 517 local bodies of six states in New Delhi.
9. Indian Institute of Petroleum set up plant to convert plastic waste to . A. Chemical compost B. Petrol C. Diesel D. LPG Learning Zone: Indian Institute of Petroleum set up plant to convert plastic waste to diesel.
10. and ISB sign MoU to set up AI Digital Lab. A. Apollo B. Microsoft C. Facebook D. Whatsapp Learning Zone: Microsoft and ISB sign MoU to set up AI Digital Lab
Set-84
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1. Who presides over 49th Foundation Day of BPRD as Chief Guest? A. Amit Shah B. Nitin Gadkari C. Piyush Goyal D. Smriti Irani Learning Zone: Shri Amit Shah presides over 49th Foundation Day of BPRD as Chief Guest.
2. Which of the following countries launched world’s first Facial Biometric- based ID for seafarers? A. India B. China C. Japan D. Russia Learning Zone: India launches world’s first Facial Biometric-based ID for seafarers.
3. Who lunched the nation-wide “Fit India Movement”? A. Amit Shah B. Ramdev C. Narendra Modi D. Ram Nath Kovind Learning Zone: India´s Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the nation-wide “Fit India Movement” on August 29 and appealed to every citizen to remain healthy and fit.
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4. The International Day against Nuclear Tests is observed on . A. 26 August B. 27 August C. 28 August D. 29 August Learning Zone: The International Day against Nuclear Tests is observed on August 29.
5. How many medals does India win in WorldSkills International Competition 2019 in Kazan? A. 10 B. 13 C. 19 D. 23 Learning Zone: Blazing a trail of glory for India at the global stage, the Indian Team returned with the best-ever finish at the WorldSkills International Competition 2019 in Kazan, Russia by winning 19 medals and Medallions of Excellence.
6. The Mega Vendor Meet 2019 to be held in . A. Guwahati B. Shillong C. Lucknow D. Patna Learning Zone: The research arm of Indian Railways, Research Designs and Standards Organization (RDSO) is organizing a special Mega Vendor Meet at RDSO in a
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significant move to show-case greater business opportunities in Railway sector in Lucknow on 30th August, 2019.
7. Who presides over 49th Foundation Day of BPRD as Chief Guest? A. Narendra Modi B. Amit Shah C. Arjun Munda D. Piyush Goyal Learning Zone: Amit Shah presides over 49th Foundation Day of BPRD as Chief Guest.
8. Cabinet approves new Medical Colleges with 15,700 MBBS seats. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 110 Learning Zone: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given its approval for establishment of 75 additional Government Medical Colleges by 2021-22attached with existing district/referral hospitals under Phase-III of the ongoing Centrally Sponsored scheme. 9. About tons sugar to be export this financial year. A. 50 lakh B. 60 lakh C. 70 lakh D. 80 lakh
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Learning Zone: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given its approval for providing a lump sum export subsidy @ Rs. 10,448 per Metric Tonne (MT) to sugar mills for the sugar season 2019- 20. The total estimated expenditure of about Rs.6,268 crore will be incurred for this purpose.
10. Cabinet approves MoU between India and Guinea in the field of . A. Traditional Systems of Medicine and Homeopathy B. Defence C. Medicinal Plants D. Iron supply Learning Zone: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given ex-post facto approval for the Memorandum of Understanding between the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of the Republic of Guinea on Cooperation in the Field of Traditional Systems of Medicine and Homeopathy.
Set-85
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi to present Yoga Awards and release ______AYUSH Commemorative Postal Stamps. A.11 B.12 C.13 D.14 Learning Zone: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to present Yoga Awards and release 12 AYUSH Commemorative Postal Stamps.
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2. DoT allocates ______additional dedicated frequencies for running Community Radio. A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5 Learning Zone: DoT allocates two additional dedicated frequencies for running Community Radio.
3. Gorewada International Zoo to be set up at ______. A. Patna B. Nagpur C. Odisha D. Pune Learning Zone: Gorewada International Zoo to be set up at Nagpur.
4. signs MoU with RD Grow Green India for safer drinking water. A. IIT Madras B. IIT Bombay C. IIT Delhi D. IIT Guwahati Learning Zone: IIT Guwahati signs MoU with RD Grow Green India for safer drinking water.
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5. Who inaugurated the 26th Ladakhi Kisan Jawan Vigyan Mela in Leh? A. Narendra Modi B. Rajnath Singh C. Arjun Munda D. Piyush Goyal Learning Zone: Defence Minister Sri Rajnath Singh inaugurated the 26th Mela of Ladakhi-Kisan- Jawan-Vigyan Mela on 29 August.
6. Who launched the “angikaar” a campaign for change managementand e- Course on Vulnerability Atlas of India? A. Hardeep S Puri B. Nitin Gadkari C. Piyush Goyal D. Smriti Irani Learning Zone: Shri Hardeep S Puri, Minister of State (I/C) for Housing and Urban Affairs today launched “angikaar” a campaign for change managementand e-Course on Vulnerability Atlas of India.
7. Who participated in the concluding ceremony of “Mission Million trees” programme organized by Ahmedabad Municipal? A. Amit Shah B. Piyush Goyal C. Rajnath Singh D. Sushilkumar Shinde
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Learning Zone: On his first visit to Gujarat after scrapping various provisions of Article 370 granting special status to J&K, the Union Home Minister Amit Shah participated in the concluding ceremony of “Mission Million trees” programme organized by Ahmedabad Municipal.
8. Centre releases Rs. for afforestation to various states. A. 27436 crores B. 37436 crores C. 47436 crores D. 57436 crores Learning Zone: In a major boost towards promoting afforestation and achieving green objectives of the country, Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, handed over Rs.47,436 crores of CAMPA funds to various states, in presence of Minister of State, MoEF & CC, Shri Babul Supriyo.
9. How many households Lives in Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim improved under NERLP? A. 1 lakh B. 2 lakh C. 3 lakh D. 4 lakh Learning Zone: The North East Rural Livelihood Project (NERLP)has empowered rural poor and improved livelihoods of about 300,000 rural households in 1,645 villages under 58 development blocks across the eleven districts of four statesof Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, Under this project, the Skills development and
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placement has trained 10462 boys and girls in various job skills and a total of 5494 of them are employed.
10. chairs meeting to review ongoing projects of North East and future plans. A. Ravi Shankar Prasad B. Jitendra Singh C. Dharmendra Pradhan D. Narendra Singh Tomar Learning Zone: Jitendra Singh chairs meeting to review ongoing projects of North East and future plans.
11. Which Ministry has launched Aviation Jobs Portal? A. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs C. Ministry of Food Processing Industries. D. Ministry of Civil Aviation. Learning Zone: Ministry of Civil Aviation has launched Aviation Jobs Portal.
Set-86
1. Which Govt. has imposed a ban on wearing of jeans & t-shirts by the employees in the state secretariat? A. Mumbai B. Bihar C. Uttar Pradesh D. Delhi
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Learning Zone: The Bihar Government has imposed a ban on wearing of jeans & t-shirts by the employees in the state secretariat.
2. Who is the present Defence Minister of Japan? A. Itsunori Onodera B. Fumio Kishida C. Takeshi lwaya D. Tomomi Inada Learning Zone: Mr Takeshi lwaya is the Defence Minister of Japan.
3. Who launches Electors Verification Programme voter verification and authentication? A. Reserve Bank of India B. Election Commission of India C. National Informatics Centre D. Defence Research and Development Organisation Explanation: Election Commission of India launches Electors Verification Programme voter verification and authentication.
4. Which department does not function under the Ministry fo Finance? A.Department of Disinvestment B.Department of Economic Affairs C.Department of Financial Services D.Department of Public Accounts
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Explanation: Department of Disinvestment, Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Financial Services functions under the Ministry of Finance.
5. New Health Insurance Scheme AB-MGRSBY Launched In ______A. Kerala B. Rajasthan C. Nagaland D. Mizoram Explanation: New Health Insurance Scheme AB-MGRSBY Launched In Rajasthan.
6. Dr Harsh Vardhan addresses ______Session of the WHO Regional Committee for South-East Asia A.71th B.72nd C.73th D.74th Explanation: Dr Harsh Vardhan addresses 72nd Session of the WHO Regional Committee for South-East Asia
7. KVIC Launches Terracotta Grinder at ______to Re-use wasted pottery A. Patna B. Varanasi C. Hyderabad D. Shillong
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Explanation: KVIC Launches Terracotta Grinder at Varanasi to Re-use wasted pottery.
8. Who took Charge as Vice Chief of the Army Staff? A. Manoj Mukund Naravane B. Devraj Anbu C. Ranbir Singh D. Sandeep Singh Explanation: Lieutenant General Manoj Mukund Naravane took charge of Vice Chief of the Army Staff in New Delhi on 1 September. He replaces Lieutenant General Devraj Anbu superannuated on August 31.
9. What is the Capital of Bihar? A. Patna B. Shillong C. Gangtok D. Kochin Explanation: Bihar is an East India state in the border of Nepal. The Capital of Bihar is Patna.
10. Which government has determined to make a Special Tiger Force for Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve? A. Uttarakhand B. Gujarat C. Bihar D. Uttar pradesh
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Explanation: The Uttarakhand government has determined to make a Special Tiger Force for Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve is able to facilitate function the abundant required second layer of protection with the big cat.
Set-87
1. Whom did Election commission of India (ECI) appoint as Special Observers for Telangana SLA election? A.M.C. Joshi B.Mr. B. R. Balakrishnan C.Sudhir Chandra D.Laxman Das Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Election commission of India (ECI) has appointed Mr. B. R. Balakrishnan as Special Observers for Telangana election. The appointments are in exercise of the powers conferred on ECI under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of The Representation of the People Act 1951. 2. AIM, NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India launched ______to accelerate social entrepreneurship and innovation in young India. A.Youth Co: Lab B.Youth Enterpreneur Portal C.Youth e-service portal D.Youth Research and Resource centre Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India launched Youth Co: Lab on 5 October. AIM, NITI
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Aayog and UNDP India signed a Letter of Intent (LOI) to mark the launch of the initiative. Youth Co: Lab aims to accelerate social entrepreneurship and innovation in young India. The initiative also recognizes young people as critical drivers of sustainable development. 3.Who conducted the Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) 2019? A.Goa Maritime Agency (GMA) B.National Maritime Agency (NMA) C.National Security Agency (NSA) D.Indian Maritime Academy (IMA) Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) 2019 was held at Goa from 3 October to 4 October 2019. The conclave was inaugurated by the National Security Advisor, Shri Ajit Kumar Doval. The conclave was conducted by the Naval War College, the National Security Agency (NSA). 4.How much did the Centre approve as financial assistance for flood hit Karnataka and Bihar? A.Rs.857 crore B.Rs.1,813.75 crore C.Rs.2,950 crore D.Rs.2,185.25 crore Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Centre approved additional financial assistance of Rs.1,813.75 crore to the flood-hit Karnataka and Bihar. The approval comes after Home Minister Amit Shah reviewed the damages caused by the rains and floods in the two states and the ongoing rescue and relief work of all flood-affected states. 5.RBI imposes a ban on ______from 5 October, 2019. A.return of torn denomination
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B.cryptocurrencies C.single-use plastic D.None of the above Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to impose a ban on single-use plastic. The announcement was made by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das on 5 October. 6.When is the World Space Week observed? A.October 1-7 B.October 4-10 C.October 7-13 D.October 11-17 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: World Space Week is observed from 4 October to 10 October 2019. It is the largest space event on Earth. 7.Which State has launched the YSR Vahana Mitra scheme, 2019? A.Tamil Nadu B.Kerala C.Andhra Pradesh D.Karnataka Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Andhra Pradesh State government introduced the YSR Vahana Mitra scheme on 5 October. The scheme was launched by Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy.
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8.The new strategic disinvestment process approved by Cabinet has made ______as the nodal department for the strategic stake sale. A.Department of Investment and Public Asset Management B.Department of Income Tax and Public Asset Management C.Department of Income Tax and Private Asset Management D.Department of Indirect tax and Public Asset Management Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Cabinet has approved a new process of strategic disinvestment with a view to expediting the privatization of select Public sector undertakings (PSUs). Under the new policy, the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) has been made the nodal department for the strategic stake sale. DIPAM functions under the Ministry of Finance. 9.Whom did Election commission of India (ECI) appoint as Special Observers for SLA election in Sikkim? A.Prakash Chandra B.Mr. Suresh Kumar C.Hardeep Srivatsava D.Durgesh Shankar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Election commission of India (ECI) has appointed Mr. Suresh Kumar as Special Observers for Sikkim elections. The appointments are in exercise of the powers conferred on ECI under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of The Representation of the People Act 1951. 10.Uber Copter has launched Uber Copter to book helicopter flights to ______. A.Hartsfield–Jackson Atlanta International Airport B.Los Angeles International Airport
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C.O'Hare International Airport D.John F. Kennedy International airport Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Uber Technologies Inc (UBER.N) has launched Uber Copter, the helicopter services, in New York. The users will soon be able to book helicopter flights to John F. Kennedy (JFK) International airport through their apps. The flights are operated by HeliFlite Shares, a licensed company.
Set-88
1.Which part of the UK has passed a law to ban the smacking of children? A.Northern Ireland B.Scotland C.England D.Wales Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Scotland has become the first part of the United Kingdom to ban the smacking of children. The country introduced a law that makes smacking the children a criminal offence for parents and carers to use physical punishment against a child. 2.Who is appointed as the UNESCO's goodwill ambassador for indigenous peoples? A.Jennifer Lawrence B.Kim Kardashian C.Megan Fox D.Yalitza Aparicio Correct Ans:Option D
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Explanation: The United Nations’ cultural agency, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), has appointed Mexican actress Yalitza Aparicio as its goodwill ambassador for indigenous peoples. She will be helping the UNESCO’s work among the indigenous peoples across the world by preserving their cultural heritage and environment knowledge and fighting for equal access to education. 3.Which government Rs.60 crore for the construction of GMCH Bambolim? A.Gujarat B.Goa C.Maharashtra D.Telangana Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Goa government released Rs.60 crore for the super-specialty block being constructed at the Goa Medical College Hospital (GMCH) in Bambolim, Goa. The fund will be paid in 12 installments of Rs.12 crore each. 4.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved a hike in assistance to the next of kin for all categories of battle casualties from Rs.2 lakh to ______. A.Rs.2 lakh B.Rs.6 lakh C.Rs.8 lakh D.Rs.10 lakh Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved a 4-fold hike in assistance to the next of kin for all categories of battle casualties. The fund has been hiked from Rs.2 lakh to Rs.8 lakh. The amount will be granted under the Army Battle Casualties Welfare Fund (ABCWF).
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5.How much did the centre initially allot for the construction of Goa Medical College Hospital (GMCH) when PM Narendra Modi laidy the foundation stone in 2018? A.Rs.100 crore B.Rs.200 crore C.Rs.300 crore D.Rs.350 crore Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The foundation stone was laid by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi for the Rs.350 crore project in February 2018. The Union government's Hospital Services Consultancy Corporation Ltd is executing the project. 6.How many projects did India sign with Bangladesh during the visit of Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina in India 6 October 2019? A.7 B.9 C.10 D.14 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina met Prime Minister Narendra Modi for bilateral talks on 6 October. The two countries signed 7 pacts in core areas namely transport, connectivity, capacity building and culture. 7.When did the Prime Minister Narendra Modi lay the foundation stone for the Goa Medical College Hospital (GMCH)? A.2014 B.2016 C.2017
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D.2018 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The foundation stone was laid by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi for the Rs.350 crore project in February 2018. The Union government's Hospital Services Consultancy Corporation Ltd is executing the project. 8.Who flagged off the Tejas express, India's first private train in 2019? A.Minister of Railways Piyush Goyal B.CM Jai Ram Thakur C.UP CM Yogi Adityanath D.CM Pramod Sawant Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath flagged off Tejas express from Charbagh railway station in Lucknow on 5 October. This is India's first private train. It will run by IRCTC six days a week except for Tuesday. 9.When was Army Battle Casualties Welfare Fund (ABCWF) initiated? A.2014 B.2015 C.2016 D.2017 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The ABCWF was established in July 2017. It functions under Department of Ex- Servicemen Welfare (ESW). It was set up after a large number of people willingly offered to provide monetary assistance to the families of battle casualties following an incident in February 2016 at Siachen. 10 soldiers were buried in an avalanche.
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10.Who are the astronauts participate in the all-female spacewalk aboard the International Space Station? A.Christina Koch B.Jessica Meir C.Angelina Jake D.A&B Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: NASA has planned to conduct an all-female spacewalk again. It is conducting 6 months after the first attempt had to be canceled because of a lack of available spacesuits aboard the International Space Station. The space agency announced that Christina Koch and Jessica Meir are scheduled to participate in the spacewalk together on 21 October.
Set-89
1.The ______international conference on sleep disorders is being hosted in Nagpur from 12 October to 13 October 2019. A.5th B.8th C.12th D.31st Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The fifth international conference on sleep disorders is being hosted in Nagpur from 12 October to 13 October 2019. The conference is held under the aegis of the Southeast Asian Academy of Sleep Medicine(SEAASM). 2.Which country does not border with Turkey? A.Greece B.Armenia
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C.Algeria D.Iran Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Turkey is bordered by Greece and Bulgaria to its northwest, Georgia to its northeast, Armenia and Iran to the east, Iraq and Syria to the south 3.Which of the Squadron of IAF, to which Abhinandan Varthaman belongs to, is to be awarded a unit citation by the newly appointed IAF chief RKS Bhadauria? A.9 B.28 C.37 D.51 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The 51 Squadron of the Indian Air Force (IAF), to which Abhinandan Varthaman belongs to, is to be awarded a unit citation by the newly appointed IAF chief RKS Bhadauria. The group commanding officer of the Squadron Captain Satish Pawar will receive the award. 4.When is the national Wildlife Week celebrated in India? A.1-4 October B.1-7 October C.4-10 October D.2-8 October Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Wildlife Week is celebrated in India in the month of October from 2nd to 8th October every year. The week is celebrated with the view to preserve the fauna means the animal life of India. On this week, the government has launched
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varieties of sanctuaries and national parks have been already launched in the appropriate localities all across the country. 5.Who won the Japan Open 2019 title? A.Novak Djokovic B.Rafael Nadal C.Nicolas Mahut D.Édouard Roger-Vasselin Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Novak Djokovic, World No.1, won the 2019 Japan Open title on 6 October. He defeated the Australian qualifier John Millman to win the title. Djokovic secured 6-3, 6-2 and marked his 10th win in a tournament main draw debut in his celebrated career. 6.With which Country did India sign an MoU to set up a coastal surveillance system radar? A.Nepal B.Maldives C.Mongolia D.Bangladesh Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: India and Bangladesh have signed an MOU to set up a coastal surveillance system radar in Bangladesh on 5 October. Delhi will enable the setting up the survelliance. The countries have decided to further expand connectivity network corridors to boost Delhi's Indo-Pacific strategy with Dhaka emerging as a key pillar in that vision. 7.______unveiled the development of Smart-Engineer, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-assisted engineering system design tool to develop the motor of an electric vehicle (EV).
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A.Indian Institute of Technology-Guwahati (IIT-G) B.Indian Institute of Technology-Madras (IIT-M) C.Indian Institute of Technology-Ahmedabad (IIT-A) D.Indian Institute of Technology-Kanpur (IIT-K) Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Indian Institute of Technology-Guwahati (IIT-G) unveiled the development of Smart-Engineer, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-assisted engineering system design tool to develop the motor of an electric vehicle(EV). 8.What is the currency of Turkey? A.Turkish lira B.Turkish dinar C.Turkish Shekhel D.Turkish mart Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The currency of Turkey is Turkish lira. 9.In which State does city Nagpur located? A.Karnataka B.Maharashtra C.Uttar Pradesh D.Manipur Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Nagpur is a large city in the central Indian state of Maharashtra. The 19th- century Nagpur Central Museum displays items found locally, including fossils, sarcophagi and Mughal weaponry.
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10.Which country has announced that it is to launch a military operation in northern Syria as the United States will withdraw its troops? A.Cuba B.Somalia C.Afghanistan D.Turkey Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Turkey has announced that it is to launch a military operation in northern Syria as the United States will withdraw its troops in the area ahead of the long- planned attack. Turkey will move forward with its long-planned operation into Northern Syria.
Set-90
1.Who launched the e-Dentseva, the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination? A.Subrahmanyam Jaishankar B.Harsh Vardhan C.D. V. Sadananda Gowda D.Prakash Javadekar Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Centre launched the e-Dantseva website and mobile application, the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination. It was launched by Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare on 7 October in New Delhi. e-DantSeva is the first-ever national digital platform. It aims to provide oral health information both in the form of a website and mobile application. 2.Where is the Hindon Air Force Station located?
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A.Kerala B.Rajasthan C.Uttar Pradesh D.Goa Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Air Force Station Hindan is an Indian Air Force base under the Western Air Command. It is located in Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh. It is the biggest and largest air base in Asia and 8th in the world. Its area measured 14 km rounded and 55 square kilometres. This base celebrates Air Force Day on 8 October. 3.Who developed the e-Dentseva, the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination? A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare B.AIIMS C.IIT-Kanpur D.A&B Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Centre launched the e-Dantseva website and mobile application, the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination. e-DantSeva initiative was developed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare along with AIIMS and other stakeholders. 4.When was the Indian Air Force (IAF) founded? A.1932 B.1948 C.1956 D.1963 Correct Ans:Option A
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Explanation: The Indian Air Force (IAF) was founded on 8 October 1932. 5.Which of the following website the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination? A.e-Dentseva B.PMe-Oralhealth C.Dentalyojana D.e-Oralsensitize Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Centre launched the e-Dantseva website and mobile application, the first-ever national digital platform, on oral health information and knowledge dissemination. It was launched by Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare on 7 October in New Delhi. e-DantSeva is the first-ever national digital platform. It aims to provide oral health information both in the form of a website and mobile application. 6.India celebrated ______Indian Air Force Day on 8th October 2019? A.58th B.72nd C.87th D.93rd Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: India celebrated its 87th Air Force Day on 8th October 2019. The year 2019 is special because the Indian Air force will be receiving the first of 36 long-awaited Rafale fighter jets. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, who is on a visit to France will receive the fighter jets. 7.Which month is observed as the Breast Cancer Awareness Month?
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A.July B.August C.October D.November Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The month of october is observed as the Breast Cancer Awareness Month every year. The annual campaign aims to raise awareness of the disease. It also helps to increase attention and support for awareness, early detection, and treatment as well as palliative care of this disease. 8.When is the Indian Air Force Day observed? A.4 October B.8 October C.10 October D.15 October Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: India celebrated its 87th Air Force Day on 8th October 2019. The year 2019 is special because the Indian Air force will be receiving the first of 36 long-awaited Rafale fighter jets. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, who is on a visit to France will receive the fighter jets. 9.____Astronauts Complete 1st Of 5 Power Upgrade Spacewalks? A.USA B.Russia C.France D.Pakistan Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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US Astronauts Complete 1st Of 5 Power Upgrade Spacewalks 10.Where is the headquarters of WTO? A.New york B.Geneva C.Malaysia D.Singapore Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The headquarters of WTO is Geneva.
Set-91
1.Which State government has changed the integrated emergency number for police recently? A.Delhi B.Telangana C.Tamil Nadu D.Goa Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The Goa government launched 112 as the new integrated emergency number for police, fire and medical emergency contact. This replaces the traditional dial number 100. The announcement was made by the Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawan. The services have been launched with the help of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. 2.Cabinet has relaxed the Aadhaar seeding of data for the 3rd installment under the Pradhan Mantri KisanSamman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme until ______. A.2nd November 2019 B.4th December 2019
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C.30th November 2019 D.30th December 2019 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Union Cabinet chaired by the PM Narendra Modi approved the relaxation of the mandatory requirement of Aadhaar Seeded data as a pre-condition for release of funds to the beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri KisanSamman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme. After 1 August 2019, the 3rd installment will be released only on the basis of the Aadhaar seeded database. The mandatory requirement of Aadhaar seeding for release of benefits after 1st August 2019 has been relaxed till 30th November 2019. This will enable the immediate release of benefits to a large number of farmers who are not able to avail the same due to this requirement. 3.Who became the first woman cricketer to complete 20 years in ODI? A.Charlotte Edwards B.Mithali Raj C.Jhulan Goswami D.Alex Blackwell Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Mithali Raj completed 20 years in international cricket on 8 October. She became the first-ever woman cricketer player to achieve the milestone. She achieved this feat in the first One-day International (ODI) against South Africa at the Reliance Stadium in Vadodara, Gujarat. 4.How much did the PM-Kisan scheme provide per year to landholding families who are eligible to avail of the scheme? A.Rs.10,000 B.Rs.8,000 C.Rs.6,000
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D.Rs.5,000 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The PM-Kisan scheme provides income support of Rs.6,000 per year to landholding families who are eligible to avail of the scheme. Centre will release the amount in three installments of Rs.2,000. The fund will be released once in 4 months. The amount will be credited directly to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries through DBT mode. 5.Which State government has changed the integrated emergency number for police recently? A.Delhi B.Goa C.Telangana D.Tamil Nadu Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Goa government launched 112 as the new integrated emergency number for police, fire and medical emergency contact. This replaces the traditional dial number 100. The announcement was made by the Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawan. The services have been launched with the help of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. 6.Who won the 2019 Nobel Prize in Chemistry? A.John B. Goodenough B.M. Stanley Whittingham C.Akira Yoshino D.All the above Correct Ans:Option D Explanation:
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John B. Goodenough, M. Stanley Whittingham, and Akira Yoshino won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2019. The announcement was made by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences. 7.Cabinet approved the inclusion of ______Displaced Persons (DP) families in the Rehabilitation Package. A.3600 B.5300 C.7000 D.8200 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved the inclusion of the Displaced Persons (DP) Families out 5,300 DP families of Jammu & Kashmir-1947. These 5,300 families initially opted to move outside the State of J&K but later on, returned and settled in the State of J&K. They were not included in the Rehabilitation Package. 8.Who has been named to receive the Asia Environmental Enforcement Award in 2019? A.Ramesh Pandey B.Harsh Vardhan Shringla C.Vijay Keshav Gokhale D.Jyotindra Nath Dixit Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Senior Indian Forest Service (IFS) officer Ramesh Pandey has been selected for the prestigious Asia Environmental Enforcement Award for the year 2019. He was selected by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). He will receive the award at the United Nations Conference Centre in Bangkok on 13 November 2019. The selection panel recognized Pandey for his excellent work to combat transboundary environmental crime.
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9.Who is appointed as the India's next High Commissioner to Australia? A.Shri V Murleedharan B.Ruchi Ghanashyam C.Anumula Gitesh Sarma D.A.M Gondane Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Senior diplomat Anumula Gitesh Sarma is appointed as India's next High Commissioner to Australia. The announcement was made by the Ministry of External Affairs. He is expected to take up the assignment shortly. He replaces A.M Gondane as India's envoy in Australia. 10.To which Country did India hand over 10,000 vials of anti-rabies vaccines? A.Nepal B.Bangladesh C.Myanmar D.Thailand Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: India handed over 10,000 vials of anti-rabies vaccines to Myanmar. The move is to help Myanmar in its fight against the Rabies disease. The handing over ceremony was held in Yangon, Myanmar on 8 October. The vials of Anti-Rabies Vaccines were handed over by the Deputy Chief of Mission Sumit Seth to Myanmar's Director General of Department of Medical Research [DG(DMS)] Zaw Than Htun at the Indian Embassy in Myanmar.
Set-92
1.Which country became the first country to impose a ban on ads for the most unhealthy sugary drinks in its latest move to combat rising diabetes rates? A.Singapore
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B.Malaysia C.India D.Japan Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Singapore imposed a ban ads for the most unhealthy sugary drinks in its latest move to combat rising diabetes rates. It became the first country in the world to ban ads. The ban was announced by the health ministry of Singapore. 2.Where did the researchers discover Exiguobacterium sibiricum strain DR11 and Exiguobacterium undae strain DR14, the two strains of plastic-eating bacteria? A.Spain B.Africa C.India D.South America Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Researchers at Shiv Nadar University have discovered two strains of plastic- eating bacteria from the wetlands of Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh. It is believed that this eco-friendly alternative might be used as a clean-up method for plastic waste worldwide. The bacterial species are isolated from the unexplored wetlands adjoining the university. The name of the species are Exiguobacterium sibiricum strain DR11 and Exiguobacterium undae strain DR14. 3.Which State launched Dr YSR Kanti Velugu programme which is a free mass eye screening programme? A.Uttarakhand B.Telangana C.Bihar D.Andhra Pradesh
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Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The Andhra Pradesh State government launched Dr. YSR Kanti Velugu, a free mass eye screening programme on 10 October 2019, on World Sight Day. The aim of the initiative is to eradicate blindness. The programme was launched by the programme Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy at Anantapur, Andhra Pradesh. More than 62,000 government and private schools will be covered under the programme. 4.President Ram Nath Kovind presented the prestigious ______to the Army Aviation Corps. A.President's Colours B.Indian Army's Colours C.Chivalry Colours D.Colours for the Bravery Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: President Ram Nath Kovind presented the prestigious President's Colours to the Army Aviation Corps at Nashik, Maharashtra. The President's Colours acknowledges the meritorious service rendered by the Army Aviation Corps over the years. 5.Who launched the first World report on vision? A.The UN B.WHO C.World Vision D.International Organisation for Vision Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: World Health Organization (WHO) launched the first World report on vision on 8 October 2019. The report said that more than 1 billion people are living with
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vision impairment due to lack of care they need for conditions like short and far sightedness, glaucoma and cataract. 6.When is the World Sight Day 2019 observed? A.5 October B.10 October C.15 October D.23 October Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: World Sight Day 2019 is observed annually on 10 October. The day aims to create awareness to focus global attention on blindness and vision impairment. 7.Hindon airport will be the ______airport in Uttar Pradesh. A.2nd B.3rd C.4th D.5th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Hindon Airport is an upcoming civil airport in Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh. The airport is operated by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) at Hindan Air Force Station of the Indian Air Force. The Hindon airport will serve as the second airport in Uttar Pradesh. This airport will reduce the load at Delhi's Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport. 8.The first flight from Hindon Airport is operated by ______. A.Aviation company B.Paramount airways C.Deccan Aviation Ltd. D.Heritage Aviation company
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Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Hindon airport is all set for the first commercial flight from 11 October. The first flight from Hindon Airport is operated by the Heritage Aviation company. The 9- seater will take off to Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district from Hindon Civil Airport. The company has set the price for one seat in the aircraft at Rs.2,500. The company has planned to launch flights for Dehradun, Hubli, Shimla, Faizabad, Gulbarga, Nasik and Coonoor among other popular destinations. 9.Where is Nashik located? A.Karnataka B.Telangana C.Maharashtra D.Gujarat Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Nashik is an ancient holy city in Maharashtra, a state in western India. It’s known for its links to the “Ramayana” epic poem. On the Godavari River is Panchavati, a temple complex. 10.When was the first World report on vision released? A.8 October 2019 B.9 September 2019 C.4 November 2019 D.12 December 2019 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: World Health Organization (WHO) launched the first World report on vision on 8 October 2019. The report said that more than 1 billion people are living with vision impairment due to lack of care they need for conditions like short and far sightedness, glaucoma and cataract. Also, it said that the change in lifestyles
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and limited access to eye care are the major cause of visual impairment, particularly in low- and middle-income countries.
Set-93
1.Which Mobile app did Indian Railways launch to facilitate the passengers to register their complaints online? A.Mytrain yatra B.Myrailseva C.Sahyatri D.Railseva Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Indian Railways has launched a website and mobile app that will facilitate the passengers to register their complaints online. The website was launched by the Union minister Nityanand Rai. The passengers can loging to the website www.railways.delhipolice.gov.in and the mobile app Sahyatri can file their complaints regarding the issues they face in the railway. This will facilitate the railway police to address the complaints of passengers from across India and crime detection by integrating the criminal database online. 2.The govt. has collaborated with ______to introduce POSHAN atlas under POSHAN Abhiyan? A.World Health Organization B.Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation C.Deendayal Research Institute D.B & C Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The government is to introduce POSHAN atlas under POSHAN Abhiyan, a mission introduced to ensure the attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022. The announcement was made by Union Minister of WCD Smriti Irani at the 5th
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National Council on India’s Nutrition Challenges. POSHAN atlas is developed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD) in association with the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation and Deendayal Research Institute. 3.Who won gold medal in the women's javelin throw event at the 59th National Open Athletics Championships on 10 October in Ranchi, Jharkhand? A.Nivetha Singh B.Poonam Rani C.Annu Rani D.Sharmila Kumari Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Javelin thrower Annu Rani won a gold medal in the women's javelin throw event at the 59th National Open Athletics Championships on 10 October in Ranchi, Jharkhand. She defeated Sharmila Kumari to win the title. 4.What technology did the Scientists use to construct the face of the Indus Valley people? A.Craniofacial reconstruction (CFR) technique B.Radiographic Reconstruction (RR) Method C.Carbon dating Facial costruction (CFC) Method D.Noe of these Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: A multi-disciplinary team of 15 scientists and academics from six different institutes of South Korea, UK and India have generated an accurate facial representation of the Indus Valley Civilisation people. They reconstructed the faces of 2 of the 37 individuals who were found buried at the 4,500-year-old Rakhigarhi cemetery. The scientists applied the craniofacial reconstruction (CFR) technique using computed tomography (CT) data of 2 of the Rakhigarhi skulls and recreated their faces.
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5.Which State launched India's first Garbage Cafe? A.Telangana B.Assam C.Chhattisgarh D.Maharashtra Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Chhattisgarh State government has launched India's first-of-its-kind Garbage Cafe in Ambikapur, North Chhattisgarh. The cafe was inaugurated by State Health Minister T S Singh Deo. The Cafe was set up by the Ambikapur municipal corporation of Chhattisgarh. 6.Which Scheme was launched by the government on October 2019 for pregnant women, mothers up to 6 months after delivery, and all sick newborns will be able to avail free healthcare benefits? A.Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) scheme B.Jan Dhan Yojana C.Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBaSK) Scheme D.National Creche Scheme Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The government launched the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) scheme on 10 October 2019. The scheme was launched by Union health minister Harsh Vardhan. Under the under which pregnant women, mothers up to 6 months after delivery, and all sick newborns will be able to avail free healthcare benefits. 7.Which Organization established the International Girl Child Day? A.World Health Organization B.United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund
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C.United Nations General Assembly D.None of the above Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: On 19 December 2011, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution 66/170 to declare 11 October as the International Day of the Girl Child. The resolution recognized girl's rights and the challenges that girls face around the world. The first International Day of the Girl Child was observed on 11 October 2012 with the theme Ending Child Marriage. 8.Where did the researchers find the new species of giant meat eating Dinosaur Siamraptor suwati? A.Vietnam B.Indonesia C.China D.Thailand Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Researchers found remains of Siamraptor suwati, a new species of giant meat- eating Dinosaur in Thai province of Nakhon Ratchasima. The remains that were founded include skull, backbone, limbs and hip fossils. It belonged to four individuals of the new species. The Palaeontologists have named the new species Siamraptor suwati. It was named so to honour both Thailand and Suwat Liptapanlop, a benefactor of the research. 9.What was the theme of the International Girl Child Day of the year 2018? A.Ending Child Marriage B.Educate girl child C.A Skilled Girlforce D.Health and nutrition of girl Correct Ans:Option C
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Explanation: The theme of International Day of the Girl Child 2018 is 'A Skilled Girlforce', which lays emphasis on education and skill enhancement required for the girl child today so that she enters the workforce fully skilled, up-to-date with the technology and digitalization, a decade from now. 10.When is the World Obesity Day observed? A.4 May B.10 July C.2 September D.11 October Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: World Obesity Day is observed globally on 11 October every year. The day aims to raise awareness about the prevalence, severity, and diversity of weight stigma. The obesity often reinforces inaccurate and negative stereotypes about the weight which can lead to weight stigma.
Set-94
1.Mumbai 12th wealthiest city in the world New york won 1st place with ______billionaires in 2019? A.65 B.68 C.70 D.72 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Mumbai 12th wealthiest city in the world New york won 1st place with 65 billionaires
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2.Where is the headquarters of Union Bank of India Bank? A.Mumbai B.Chennai C.Hyderabad D.New Delhi Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The headquarters of Union Bank of India Bank is Mumbai.
3.______conferred highest Civilian Honour of Comoros A.Shri Venkaiah Naidu B.Shri Vikram Sharma C.Shri Prakash Javedakar D.Shri Nitin Gadkari Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Vice-President Venkaiah Naidu conferred highest Civilian Honour of Comoros.
4.______awarded to Ethiopian PM Abiy Ahmed A.Nobel Prize for Chemistry B.Nobel Peace Prize C.Nobel Prize for Physics D.Nobel Prize for Literature Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Nobel Peace Prize awarded to Ethiopian PM Abiy Ahmed
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5.Who becomes first Indian to smash 40 international hundreds as Indian captain? A.Rohit Sharma B.Virat Kohli C.MS Dhoni D.K L Rahul Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Virat Kohli becomes first Indian to smash 40 international hundreds as Indian captain.
6.Mary Kom secures record ____world medal? A.Eighth B.Sixth C.Fourth D.Third Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Mary Kom secures record eighth world medal
7.______to ban sugary drink ads in fight against diabetes in 2019? A.Iran B.Singapore C.Saudi Arabia D.Indonesia
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Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Singapore to ban sugary drink ads in fight against diabetes.
8.India jumps to ______spot in Brand Finance Nation Ranking, 2019? A.7th B.8th C.9th D.10th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India jumps to 7th spot in Brand Finance Nation Ranking.
9.______opens first India data centre in Mumbai? A.Infosys B.Oracle C.Wipro D.Cognizant Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Oracle opens first India data centre in Mumbai.
10.Kayakalp Awards AIIMS Delhi wins top cleanliness award bags ______? A.3 crores B.4 crores
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C.5 crores D.6 crores Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Kayakalp Awards AIIMS Delhi wins top cleanliness award bags 3 crore.
Set-95
1.Indo-Japan Joint Military Exercise ______? A.DHARMA GUARDIAN 2019 B.AUSTRA HIND 2019 C.Indra Dhanush -IV D.Desert Eagle-II Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Indo-Japan Joint Military Exercise DHARMA GUARDIAN 2019.
2.Where is the headquarters of Indian Olympic Association (IOA)? A.Chennai B.New Delhi C.Mumbai D.Hyderabad Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The headquarters of Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is New Delhi
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3.Navies of India and Bangladesh to participate in bilateral drill from Oct______to Oct 16? A.12th B.14th C.13th D.15th Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Navies of India and Bangladesh to participate in bilateral drill from Oct 12-16.
4.Who signs off with bronze in World Championships 2019? A.Mary kom B.P V Sindhu C.Dutee Chand D.Saina Nehwal Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Mary Kom signs off with bronze in World Championships.
5.Union Govt may restrict ______import from Malaysia over Kashmir stand A.palm oil B.Sugar C.coffee D.tea Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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Union Govt may restrict palm oil import from Malaysia over Kashmir stand.
6.Union Govt may restrict palm oil import from Malaysia over ______stand? A.Jammu and Kashmir B.Bihar C.TamnilNadu D.Kerala Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Union Govt may restrict palm oil import from Malaysia over Kashmir stand.
7.National Postal Week observed from October 9 to ______? A.October 15th B.October 18th C.October 19th D.October 21st Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: National Postal Week observed from October 9 to October 15.
8._____to have first Olympic Hospitality House in Tokyo? A.India B.Pakistan C.Iran D.Indonesia Correct Ans:Option A
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Explanation: India to have first Olympic Hospitality House in Tokyo.
9. Navies of India and ______to participate in bilateral drill from Oct 12-16? A.Pakistan B.Iran C.Bangladesh D.Indonesia Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Navies of India and Bangladesh to participate in bilateral drill from Oct 12-16.
10.Union Govt may restrict palm oil import from ______over Kashmir stand? A.Pakistan B.Malaysia C.Iran D.Indonesia Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Union Govt may restrict palm oil import from Malaysia over Kashmir stand.
Set-96
1.The Indian Highways Management Company Ltd (IHMCL) signed an MoU with ______to integrate Fastag with GST EWay Bill System. A.GST EWay
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B.GSTN C.GST-IoT D.NITI Aayog Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Indian Highways Management Company Ltd (IHMCL) signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) on 14 October 2019. The GST Council gave in-principle approval for this integration. The agreement aimed for the integration of FASTag with the GST e- way bill system. The MOU was signed at the One Nation, One FASTag conference.
2.What is the currency of Sierra Leone? A.Dollar B.Pounds C.Rupees D.Leone Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Sierra Leone is the Chairman of the African Union (AU) Committee of ten nations on United Nations Reforms, including UNSC reforms. The currency of Sierra Leone is Leone.
3.Where did the Advances in Sustainable Polymers (ASP-19) was held? A.Tokyo, Japan B.Kyoto, Japan C.Guwahati, India D.New Delhi, India
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Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)-Guwahati has partnered with Japan's Kyoto Institute of Technology (KIT). The partnership aims to organize an international symposium on Advances in Sustainable Polymers (ASP-19) from 14 October to 18 October at the KIT, Matsugasaki, Kyoto, Japan.
4.With which Country did India sign six agreements for rice cultivation? A.Liberia B.Ivory Coast C.Guinea D.Sierra Leone Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: India and Sierra Leone signed six agreements to achieve self-sufficiency in rice production. The agreements include extending a credit line of $30 million for rice cultivation. The agreement was signed by Vice President Venkaiah Naidu during his 5-day visit to the West African countries.
5.Which State government launched a statewide water grid project to provide a drinking water connection to every household in the State by 2022? A.Kerala B.Uttarakhand C.Punjab D.Andhra Pradesh Correct Ans:Option D Explanation:
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The Andhra Pradesh State government has launched a statewide water grid project to provide a drinking water connection to every household in the State by 2022. The announcement was made by Panchayati Raj and Rural Development Minister P Ramachandra Reddy.
6.How many medals did India win at the AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships, 2019? A.4 B.8 C.12 D.16 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India finished with one silver and three bronze medals at the AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships 2019. The tally of 4 medals has put India at the third position out of the 51 countries that participated in Championship.
7.Where was the International Think Tank Meeting (ITT), 2019 held? A.Mexico B.Moscow C.New Delhi D.Beijing Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The Indian government is to invest over $60 billion to develop natural supply and distribution infrastructure. The announcement was made by Oil Minister Dharmendra Pradhan at the International Think Tank Meeting (ITT) in New Delhi on 13 October.
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8.When was the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction was initiated? A.1963 B.1987 C.1989 D.1995 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction was initiated in 1989. The day was established by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) to promote a global culture of risk-awareness and disaster reduction.
9.The Indian government is to invest over ______to develop natural supply and distribution infrastructure. A.$20 billion B.$60 billion C.$70 billion D.$100 billion Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Indian government is to invest over $60 billion to develop natural supply and distribution infrastructure. The Modi-led Indian government has set the target to more than doubling the share of natural gas in its energy base to 15% by 2030.
10. Which Country is the most valuable nation brand in the world, according to the report by Brand Finance? A.China
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B.Switzerland C.US D.Netherlands Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The annual report on the world's most valuable nation brands was compiled by Brand Finance. As per the report, the US topped as the most valuable nation brand, with a brand value of $27,715 billion. It is followed by China and Germany ranked third.
Set-97
1.Which is the first-largest energy consumer in the world? A.US B.India C.China D.Russia Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India is the third-largest energy consumer in the world after the US and China.
2.The U.S. observes ______October as White Cane Safety Day every year. A.10 B.15 C.20 D.26 Correct Ans:Option B
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Explanation: White Cane Safety Day is observed on 15 October in the United States every year. The day aims to celebrate the success achieved by the blind and visually impaired people. The day stands as a reminder to show the important symbol of blindness and the tool of independence, the white cane.
3. Anoop Kumar Mendiratta, the new Union Law Secretary, will serve in the position till ______. A.30 March 2023 B.30 April 2023 C.30 May 2023 D.30 June 2023 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Anoop Kumar Mendiratta is appointed as the new Union Law Secretary. This is the first time such an appointment has been made. Anoop Kumar is currently the serving District and Sessions Judge in the North-East District, Karkardooma Courts, New Delhi. He will serve in the position till 30 March 2023, or until he attains the age of 60. 4.______along with DCGI Pretomanid, a medicine used to treat drug- resistant tuberculosis (TB). A.Lupin B.Mylan C.Novartis D.Sanofi Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Multinational pharmaceutical company Mylan in collaboration with Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) is to launch Pretomanid, a medicine used to
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treat drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB). Mylan NV announced a global collaboration to make the experimental drug Pretomanid for the cure of pulmonary tuberculosis in the month of April 2019.
5.Which organization launched a new scheme to promote investments in India? A.Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs B.Central Board of Direct Taxes and Customs C.Central Board of Investments and Customs D.None of the above Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) launched a new scheme to promote investments in India. The scheme also aims to enhance the ease of doing business. The scheme will enable the Make in India program.
6.Which Company was named the overall most outstanding company in India's IT services sector in Asiamoney's 2019 outstanding companies poll? A.Infosys B.Reliance Ltd C.TCS D.CTS Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has been selected as the overall most outstanding company in India's IT services sector in Asiamoney's 2019 outstanding companies poll. Asiamoney's various investor surveys recognized TCS as the most awarded company of the decade in India including awards like the best-managed companies award, the corporate governance poll.
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7.Which TB drug is only the third new anti-TB drug to get approval in more than 40 years from the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)? A.Isoniazid B.Rifampin C.Ethambutol D.Pretomanid Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Pretomanid got its approval from the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). It is only the third new anti-TB drug to get approval in more than 40 years. It is also the first to be developed and registered by a not-for-profit organization.
8.World Bank forecasts India's GDP forecast for 2019-20 from 7% to ______. A.5.75% B.6% C.6.25% D.6.75% Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: World Bank said that India's growth rate is projected to fall to 6% in 2019-20 from 7% following the deceleration in the initial quarters of this fiscal. World Bank said that India is expected to gradually recover to 6.9% in FY21 and 7.2% in FY22 in its latest edition of the South Asia Economic Focus. In April 2019, World Bank projected India's growth rate as 7.5%.
9.Under the YSR Rythu Bharosa PM-Kisaan scheme, 54 lakh farmers of Andhra Pradesh will get ______over three installments.
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A.Rs.6,500 B.Rs.7,500 C.Rs.12,500 D.Rs.13,500 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: YSR Rythu Bharosa-PM Kisaan was named after former Chief Minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy. Under the scheme, 54 lakh farmers will get Rs.13,500 over three installments.
10.Which State launched the YSR Rythu Bharosa PM-Kisaan scheme? A.Karnataka B.Telangana C.Andhra Pradesh D.Maharashtra Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Andhra Pradesh State government launched YSR Rythu Bharosa-PM Kisaan, the flagship farmer assistance scheme. The scheme was launched by the AP Chief Minister YS Jagan Reddy. YSR Rythu Bharosa-PM Kisaan was named after former Chief Minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy. Under the scheme, 54 lakh farmers will get Rs.13,500 over three installments.
Set-98
1.Where is the 36th MIPCOM 2019 held? A.Italy B.Spain
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C.France D.Germany Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Services Exports Promotion Council (SEPC) launched India Intellectual Property (IP) Guide in 36th MIPCOM 2019 on 16 October at Cannes, France. MIPCOM 2019 is being held from 14 October to 17 October for the Media and Entertainment (M&E) industry.
2.According to the RBI guidelines on 'on tap' authorization of payment systems, the operator should have ______net worth for BBPOU (Bharat Bill Payment Operating Unit). A.Rs.100 crore B.Rs.150 crore C.Rs.200 crore D.Rs.300 crore Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued guidelines on 'on tap' authorization of payment systems on 15 October. The entities that desire to function or provide platforms for BBPOU should have an Rs.100 crore net worth. The net amount should be maintained at all times.
3.Who issued guidelines on 'on tap' authorization of payment systems? A.BSE B.RBI C.SEBI D.NSE
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Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued guidelines on 'on tap' authorization of payment systems on 15 October. The guidelines, including minimum net worth criteria for different entities. The guidelines aim to encourage innovation and competition among the entities.
4.Which Space agency unveiled two new spacesuits for moonwalking? A.ISRO B.NASA C.JAXA D.ESA Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: NASA, the American space agency, unveiled two new spacesuits tailored for future moonwalking astronauts. The two new spacesuits are prepared for the upcoming Artemis program. In 2024, NASA will be sending astronauts back to the moon. Two NASA engineers staged the first zero-gravity space-wear under NASA's Artemis moon program. This is the first suit designed in about 40 years.
5.National Green Tribunal directed the Indian Railways to evolve appropriate mechanisms to curb pollution caused in ______. A.Faizabad Railway station B.Matunga Railway station C.Vile Parle Railway station D.Lucknow Railway station Correct Ans:Option A Explanation:
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National Green Tribunal directed the Indian Railways to evolve appropriate mechanisms to curb pollution caused in Faizabad Railway station, Uttar Pradesh. A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel, directed the Uttar Pradesh State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) to take steps for the assessment and recovery of environmental compensation.
6.______received the Best Airline award by Andaman Tourism Award 2019. A.Air India B.IndiGo C.Jet Airways D.GoAir Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: GoAir received the Best Airline award by Andaman Tourism Award 2019 in its first edition for its leadership in attaining on-time performance for 12 consecutive months. The Andaman Tourism Award ceremony was organized at Port Blair in association with the Andaman Ministry of tourism and Andaman Association of Tour Operators.
7.India ranked ______in 2019 on the Global Hunger Index. A.83rd B.92nd C.102nd D.113rd Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: India ranked 102nd in 2019 on the Global Hunger Index (GHI). It had slipped from 95th rank in 2010. Seventeen countries, including Belarus, Ukraine,
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Turkey, Cuba, and Kuwait, shared the top rank with GHI scores. The report said Ethiopia and Rwanda had shown notable progress.
8.International Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) Hyderabad signed MoU with ______to establish a Living Lab on the institute's campus. A.European Business & Technology Centre (EBTC) B.Asian Business & Technology Centre (ABTC) C.American Business & Technology Centre (ABTC) D.Russian Business & Technology Centre (RBTC) Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: International Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) Hyderabad signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the European Business & Technology Centre (EBTC). The agreement aimed to establish a Living Lab on the institute's campus. The lab will be set up by the end of 2020.
9.Which company is developing an Artificial intelligence (AI)-based tool for analysis of terrorist activities? A.TCS B.L&T C.BEL D.HUL Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The public-sector giant Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) has announced that it is developing an Artificial intelligence (AI)-based tool for analysis of terrorist activities. The firm aims to utilize the use of AI in the security field. The tool will be used in screening and segregating raw information and assist in generating intelligence assessments, decision-making, and operational planning.
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10.Which airlines became the first in the world to use a TaxiBot? A.Air India B.Go Airways C.Jet Airways D.Spice Jet Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: National carrier Air India (AI) became the first airline in the world to use a TaxiBot on an Airbus A320 aircraft operating a commercial flight with passengers onboard. The aircraft of AI 665 Delhi-Mumbai flight was brought to the runway at Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGI) airport's Terminal 3 using the TaxiBot. The aircraft was flagged off by Air India Chief Managing Director Ashwani Lohani. The move of Air India is towards a cleaner environment.
Set-99
1.Who launched the Team Cashless India campaign? A.Visa B.Rupay C.MasterCard D.Paytm Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Mastercard and its brand ambassador MS Dhoni have launched Team Cashless India campaign. It aims to bring more merchants and customers on board to boost digital payments in India. The move is in line with Mastercard's endeavor to create an ecosystem that encourages users to use digital payments for their day-to-day purchases.
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2.When was the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) launched? A.2014 B.2016 C.2017 D.2018 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: When was the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) was launched in September 2018. Ayushman Bharat is a healthcare scheme. The scheme aims to provide health assurance to 50 crore poor and deprived people in rural and urban areas.
3.Debayan Saha, an IIT Kharagpur graduate, has invented a device called ______to curb air pollution. A.PM 2.0 B.PM 2.5 C.PM 3.0 D.PM 3.5 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: Debayan Saha, an Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) Kharagpur graduate, has invented a device called PM 2.5. The device aims to curb air pollution. The device, when fitted near the silencer pipe in vehicles, will curb air pollution.
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4.The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) awarded ______biomedical scientists for their work in the area of health research to solve various health issues. A.25 B.46 C.58 D.70 Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) awarded 46 biomedical scientists for their work in the area of health research to solve various health issues. The awards were presented by Union Health Minister Harsh Vardhan.
5.How many Unicorns, start-ups, of Hurun Research, are present in India? A.42 B.35 C.21 D.15 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: India ranked third in the 2019 Hurun Global Unicorn List. It accounts for 21 of the world's 494 unicorns.
6.Which State is to organize India's first KHON Ramlila program? A.Andhra Pradesh B.Bihar C.Odisha
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D.Uttar Pradesh Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Uttar Pradesh State government is planning to organize India's first training and performance program of world-famous KHON Ramlila. It is a masked form of Ramlila art of Thailand. The program will be organized by the Culture Department of Uttar Pradesh in collaboration with the Thai government.
7.When was the World Maths Day instituted? A.2003 B.2005 C.2007 D.2000 Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: The World Maths Day first instituted by 3P Learning in 2007. The 3P Learning company was founded in 2003 and is headquartered in Sydney, Australia. The company partnered with United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF) to reach children with learning resources and teaching aids across the world.
8.Where was the Sangam festival 2019-20 held? A.Rajasthan B.J&K C.Himachal Pradesh D.Uttar Pradesh Correct Ans:Option B Explanation:
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Jammu University organized the five-day youth festival Sangam 2019-20. It was conducted by Jammu University's Bhaderwah campus in association with the Rashtriya Rifles. The youth festival was inaugurated by Lt. General Ranbir Singh, the General Officer Commanding-in-chief, Northern Command.
9.What is the theme for the 2019 Global Handwashing Day? A.Clean hands make the world go round B.Fight germ warfare C.Infection control is in your hands D.Clean Hands for All Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: The theme for the 2019 Global Handwashing Day is Clean Hands for All. The theme focuses that no one should be left behind in the Sustainable Development Agenda. The theme promotes handwashing programs. It should be known that it can put individuals at higher risk for diseases that impact their health, education, and economic outcomes.
10. India is the ______largest producer of coffee in the world. A.3rd B.6th C.9th D.12th Correct Ans:Option B Explanation: India is the sixth-largest producer of coffee in the world. It produces about 5% of the total world coffee production. Countries like India, Vietnam, Indonesia, Nepal account for almost 33% of the world's coffee production in Asia.
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Set-100
1.India's MiG ______to fly with Eurofighter Typhoon in Oman? A.29 B.28 C.25 D.26 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India's MiG 29 to fly with Eurofighter Typhoon in Oman.
2. India Govt organises ______foot artificial limb fitment camp in Bangladesh? A.Jaipur B.Chennai C.Bihar D.Goa Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: India Govt organises Jaipur foot artificial limb fitment camp in Bangladesh.
3.Dr Jitendra Singh chaired the ______Health 2019 Conference. A.South America B.Africa C.North America D.Asia
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Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Dr Jitendra Singh chairs the Asia Health 2019 Conference.
4.When was NITI Aayog formed? A.2013 B.2016 C.2014 D.2015 Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: NITI Aayog founded in the year 2015.
5.First Robotic restaurant ______humanoids to serve customers in Odisha. A.2 B.3 C.4 D.6 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: First Robotic restaurant two humanoids to serve customers in Odisha.
6.Who signed 30 agreements on Technology Transfer in 2019? A.Central Armed Forces B.Indian Navy C.Indian AirForce
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D.DRDO Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: DRDO signs 30 agreements on Technology Transfer.
7. Which company signed MoU for a $ 4 billion chemical venture in 2019? A.Ashok Leyland B.Reliance Communications C.Adani Group D.Tech Mahindra Correct Ans:Option C Explanation: Adani group inks MoU for a $ 4 billion chemical venture.
8.Shri G Kishan Reddy inaugurated ___ All India Conference? A.20th B.18th C.19th D.21st Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Shri G Kishan Reddy inaugurates 20th All India Conference.
9.Italy to introduce 3% web tax on digital giants from______? A.2020 B.2019
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C.2021 D.2022 Correct Ans:Option A Explanation: Italy to introduce 3% web tax on digital giants from 2020.
10.Hailakandi becomes first ______district to introduce online? A.Himachal Pradesh B.Haryana C.Bihar D.Assam Correct Ans:Option D Explanation: Hailakandi becomes first Assam district to introduce online.
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General Knowledge 1. The first conference of Assam Sahitya Sabha was held at A) Kamrup B) Sivasagar C) Barpeta D) Dhuburi Answer: Sivasagar 2. Who was the first President of Assam Sahitya Sabha A) Lakshminath Bezbaroa B) Padmanath Gohain Baruah C) Hemchandra Goswami D) Rajanikanta Bordoloi Answer: Padmanath Gohain Baruah 3. Total number of National Parks in Assam A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: 5 4. Total number of bridges over the river Brahmaputra A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 Answer: 6 5. The Naranarayan Setu connects the Pancharatna Town with which city A) Kalibor B) Tezpur C) Bongaigaon D) Jogighopa Answer: Jogighopa 6. Who was the first Chief Minister of Assam?
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A) Bishnuram Medhi B) Tarun Ram Phukan C) Gopinath Bordoloi D) None of the Above Answer: Gopinath Bordoloi 7. Who was the last king of Ahom kingdom in Assam? A) Gobar Roja B) Sutanphaa C) Purandar Singha D) Jogeswar Singha Answer: Purandar Singha 8. The Treaty of Yandabo was signed in the year A) 1802 B) 1826 C) 1830 D) 1832 Answer: 1826 9. Which one is the first assamese novel? A) Mirijiyori B) Podum Kunwari C) Bhanumati D) Sudharmar Upakhyan Answer: Bhanumati 10. The state anthem "O Mur Apunar Desh" was first published in the magazine named A) Bahi B) Jonaki C) Surabhi D) Jonbiri Answer: Bahi 11. The first Assamese magazine Orunodoi was published in the year A) 1836
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B) 1846 C) 1872 D) 1882 Answer: 1846 12. Who is the first barrister of Assam? A) Haliram Deka B) Pranab kumar Borooah C) Anundoram Borooah D) Parul Das Answer: Anundoram Borooah 13. Which one is the largest district in Assam by area wise? A) Barpeta B) Karbi Anglong C) Sivsagar D) Dibrugarh Answer: Karbi Anglong 14. In which district, Garampani Wildlife Sanctuary is located A) Golaghat B) Sivsagar C) Karbi Anglong D) Dibrugarh Answer: Karbi Anglong 15. The first Assamese to compile a dictionary named "HemKosh" is A) Dimbeswar Neog B) Chandradhar Barua C) Hemchandra Goswami D) Hemchandra Barua Answer: Hemchandra Barua 16. Who is the first Assamese to received "Jnanpith Award"? A) Indira Goswami B) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya C) Bhupen Hazarika
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D) Hemchandra Barua Answer: Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya 17. Total number of Districts in Assam A) 25 B) 26 C) 27 D) 33 Answer: 33 18. Hiuen Tsang visited Assam during the reign of A) Pushya Varman B) Mahendra Varman C) Bhaskar Varman D) Brahma Pala Answer: Bhaskar Varman 19. In which year, Sukapha established Ahom Kingdom in Charaideo? A) 1253 B) 1272 C) 1296 D) 1309 Answer: 1253 20. The war of Saraighat was fought between Ahom and Mughal in the year A) 1652 B) 1667 C) 1670 D) 1671 Answer: 1671 21. In Ancient times, Assam is also known by the name of A) Koliabor B) Guwahati C) Pragjyotishpur D) Charaideo Answer: Pragjyotishpur
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22. In which hill top, the Kamakhya Temple is located A) Nilachal Hill B) Chitrachal Hill C) Sandhyachal Hill D) Jogini Hill Answer: Nilachal Hill 23. In which year, the capital of Assam shifted from Shillong to Dispur? A) 1950 B) 1955 C) 1971 D) 1973 Answer: 1973 24. The Assam Sahitya Sabha was first founded in the year A) 1902 B) 1912 C) 1917 D) 1921 Answer: 1917 25. Mahatma Gandhi first visited Assam in the year A) 1918 B) 1919 C) 1920 D) 1921 Answer: 1921 26. The first book to win Sahitya Akademi Award is A) Iyaruingam B) Bonphool C) Alakananda D) Pita Putra Answer: Bonphool 27. The first Assamese film Joymoti was released in the year A) 1922
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B) 1935 C) 1938 D) 1942 Answer: 1935 28. The Abhiruchi Sports Day is celebrated on A) January 13th B) August 12th C) August 30th D) September 3rd Answer: September 3rd 29. Bhogeswar Baruah wins a medal in the ______Asian Games A) 1962 B) 1966 C) 1978 D) 1972 Answer: 1966 30. In which year, National Games was held in Assam? A) 2002 B) 2004 C) 2005 D) 2007 Answer: 2007 31. The Guwahati Tea Auction Centre was established in the year A) 1970 B) 1972 C) 1975 D) 1977 Answer: 1970 32. Which town is also known as the Manchester of Assam? A) Jorhat B) Sualkuchi C) Diphu
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D) Digboi Answer: Sualkuchi 33. Bhaskar-Varman issued the famous Nidhanpur Copper-plate grant after the battle: A) Pundravardhan B) Karnasuvarna C) Kamrup D) Gauda Answer: Karnasuvarna 34. The Brahmaputra Cracker and Polymer Limited Industry is located at A) Makum B) Mariani C) Lepetkata D) Nagaon Answer: Lepetkata 35. Which city of Assam has the largest dry fish market of Asia? A) Tangla B) Jagirod C) Dhuburi D) Tinsukia Answer: Jagirod 36. Guwahati University was established in the year A) 1935 B) 1942 C) 1948 D) 1950 Answer: 1948 37. Who was the first vice-chancellor of Guwahati University? A) Krishna Kanta Handique B) Hemchandra Goswami C) Padmanath Gohain Baruah D) Rajanikanta Bordoloi
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Answer: Krishna Kanta Handique 38. Total number of Parliamentary constituency in Assam A) 12 B) 13 C) 14 D) 16 Answer: 14 39. Lakshminath Bezbaroa is honoured with 'Rasaraj' by Asam Sahitya Sabha in the year A) 1917 B) 1922 C) 1928 D) 1931 Answer: 1931 40. Namghosa was written by A) Sankardev B) Madhabdev C) Madhava Kandali D) Naone of the above Answer: Madhabdev 41. "Halodhia Choraye Baodhan Khai" won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film in the year A) 1985 B) 1988 C) 1990 D) 1991 Answer: 1988 42. Gibon Wildlife Sanctury is located at A) Chirang B) Dibrugarh C) Kokrajhar D) Jorhat
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Answer: Jorhat 43. The film "Halodhia Choraye Baodhan Khai" was directed by A) Bhabendra Nath Saikia B) Jahnu Barua C) Bhupen Hazarika D) Manju Borah Answer: Jahnu Barua 44. How much percent of the Indian landmass is covered by the State of Assam? A) 3.39% B) 2.39% C) 4.39% D) 2.93% Answer: 2.93% 45. Which language is used by Sankardev to written Borgeets? A) Assamese B) Sanskrit C) Bengali D) Brajavali Answer: Brajavali 46. The literacy rate of Assam according to 2011 census is A) 72.19 % B) 72.58 % C) 73.12 % D) 73.98 % Answer: 72.19 % 47. When the uprising of Patharughat took place? A) 1857 B) 1864 C) 1889 D) 1894 Answer: 1894
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48. Who was the President of the Swaraj Party in Assam during freedom movement? A) Bishnuram Medhi B) Gopinath Bordoloi C) Tarun Ram Phookan D) Maniram Dewan Answer: Tarun Ram Phookan 49. The Gohain Kamal Ali built during the reign of Naranarayan runs from A) Dhekiajuli to Dhubri B) Koch Behar to Narayanpur C) Guwahati to Goalpara D) Kaliabor to Goalpara Answer: Koch Behar to Narayanpur 50. What was the similarity among Hem Saraswati, Kaviratna Saraswati and Hari Har Bipra? A) All were Kamrupi Spies B) All were Kamrupi Poets C) All were Kamrupi Priests D) All were Kamrupi Sadagars Answer: All were Kamrupi Poets 51. The language used in the inscription of the Koch kings was : A) Sanskrit B) Assamese C) Persian D) Bengali Answer: Sanskrit 52. In which year the Mughals Attack Ahom Kingdom for the first time? A) 1608 B) 1612 C) 1614 D) 1615 Answer: 1615
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53. What was staple crop in ancient Assam? A) Coconut B) Barley C) Rice D) Wheat Answer: Rice 54. Chandibar was the great grandfather of whom? A) Damodar Dev B) Sankardeva C) Madhava Dev D) Gopal Dev Answer: Sankardeva 55. The Silsako stone bridge of North Guwahati destroyed due to earthquake in the year: A) 1897 B) 1898 C) 1899 D) 1900 Answer: 1897 56. Which Ahom king excavated the Joysagar tank in memory of his mother Joymoti at Rangpur? A) Siva Singha B) Rajeswar Singha C) Rudra Singha D) Godhadhar Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 57. Which of the following is the great work of Sankardeva? A) Kirtan Ghosha B) Bhakti Ratnavali C) Katha Gita D) Katha Bhagavat Answer: Kirtan Ghosha
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58. The terracotta industry is located in A) Dhubri B) Karimganj C) Goalpara D) Dhemaji Answer: Dhubri 59. The Ahom Kingdom was established in the year A) 1216 B) 1228 C) 1256 D) 1272 Answer: 1228 60. The Shiv dol was constructed during the reign of A) Pramatta Singha B) Rudra Singha C) Purandar Singha D) Siba Singha Answer: Siba Singha 61. The Asssam Public Service Commission (APSC) Regulation was promulgated in exercise of the powers A) 1947 B) 1950 C) 1951 D) 1960 Answer: 1951 62. The first stadium of Assam was built in A) Jorhat B) Golaghat C) Sibsagar D) Dhemaji Answer: Jorhat 63. Sadiya Khowa Gohain was a
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A) Jamindar B) King C) Frontier Officer D) Naval Commander Answer: Naval Commander 64. Prachya Sasanavali was edited by A) Dr. Maheswar Neog B) Dr. Birinchi Kumar Barua C) Dr. surya Kumar Bhuyan D) Alexander Mackenzie Answer: Dr. Maheswar Neog 65. Which king is also known by the nickednamed as Bhagaraja? A) Sutiyampha B) Sutamla C) Surampha D) Sunyatpha Answer: Surampha 66. During freedom struggle, the "Mrityu Bahini" was formed by A) Chandraprabha Saikiani B) Pushpalata Das C) Rani Gaidinlieu D) Kanaklata Barua Answer: Pushpalata Das 67. "Rang Ghar" was constructed during the reign of A) Rudra Singha B) Rajeswar Singha C) Pramatta Singha D) Siv Singha Answer: Pramatta Singha 68. When was Assam Provincial Congress Committee formed A) 1920 B) 1921
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C) 1922 D) 1923 Answer: 1921 69. The author of "Asomiya Sahityar Buranji" is A) Nathan Brown B) Jatindranath Duara C) Devendranath Bezbarua D) Gunabhiram Barua Answer: Devendranath Bezbarua 70. The Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency as "North- East Frontier" in the year A) 1874 B) 1889 C) 1861 D) 1826 Answer: 1874 71. The illustration work of the medieval Assamese text "Hastividyarnava" was done by A) Suryakhari Daibaigya B) Sukumar Borkaith C) Dibar and Ddosai D) Rama Saraswati Answer: Sukumar Borkaith 72. The Gohain Kamal Ali road was constructed during the reign of A) Nara Narayan B) Parikshit Narayan C) Viswa Singha D) Raghu Dev Answer: Nara Narayan 73. The first Ahom Monarch to assume the Hindu title "Swarganarayan" was A) Siva Singha B) Pratap Singha
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C) Jayadhwaj Singha D) Suhungmung Answer: Suhungmung 74. The first rebellion against the British rule in Assam in 1828 was led by A) Piyali Phukan B) Maniram Dewan C) Gomdhar Knowar D) Piyali Baruah Answer: Gomdhar Knowar 75. Who was the author of the book "India against Itself" A) Dr. Hiren Gohain B) Dr. Mamani Roysom Goswami C) Homen Borgohain D) Dr. Sanjib Barua Answer: Dr. Sanjib Barua 76. The Dhodar Ali is constructed during the reign of A) Rudra Singha B) Gadadhar Singha C) Pramatta Singha D) Siva Singha Answer: Siva Singha 77. The Jaysagar Tank was excavated under the reign of which of the following Kings A) Rudra Singha B) Gadadhar Singha C) Siva Singha D) Rajeswar Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 78. The district which was separated from Assam and was given to East Pakistan in the 1947 was A) Khulna B) Sylhet
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C) Chittagong D) Sholashahar Answer: Sylhet 79. In Assam, a source of hot water spring is situated in A) Nambor Reserve Forest B) Parashuram Kunda C) Orang Wildlife Sanctuary D) Manas Nationa Park Answer: Nambor Reserve Forest 80. Kamakhya Temple was rebuilt by which one of the following Koch King A) Biswa Singha B) Raghu Deva C) Naranarayan D) Prananarayan Answer: Naranarayan 81. Kanaklata Barua became a martyr of which one of the following national movements A) Non-Cooperation Movement B) Quit India Movement C) Civil Disobedience Movement D) Swadeshi Movement Answer: Quit India Movement 82. The Patkai Bum range makes the boundary between A) India and Bhutan B) India and China C) India and Bangladesh D) India and Burma Answer: India and Burma 83. Which one of the following places is the confluence of three highly revered pilgrimage for the Hindu, Muslim and Buddhists A) Parashuram Kunda B) Dekiakhowa Namghar
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C) Hajo D) Barpeta Answer: Hajo 84. Siang, joined by Lohit and Dibang makes which of the following rivers A) Jia Bharali B) Dikhow C) Subansiri D) Brahmaputra Answer: Brahmaputra 85. Which Wildlife Sanctuary of Assam boasts of the golden langur? A) Pani Dihing B) Pobitora C) Laokhowa D) Chakrashila Answer: Pobitora 86. Which one was the first capital of Ahom Kingdom in Assam? A) Garhgaon B) Charaideo C) Jorhat D) Sivsagar Answer: Charaideo 87. The area of Kaziranga National Park is approximately A) 430 sq. km B) 500 sq. km C) 390 sq. km D) 720 sq. km Answer: 430 sq. km 88. About 91% of world population of a particular animal species found in Kaziranga National Park is which one of the following A) Asian hog deer B) Pygmy hog C) Asiatic wild buffalo
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D) Sangai deer Answer: Pygmy hog 89. Of the total production of Muga, the Golden Silk, in the world, Assam produces A) 69% B) 79% C) 89% D) 99% Answer: 99% 90. In which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries, the density of rhino population is the highest A) Manas B) Kaziranga C) Pobitora D) Nameri Answer: Pobitora 91. The highest concentration of forest in the State of Assam occurs in A) Karbi Anglong district B) Dima Hasao district C) Goalpara district D) Dhubri district Answer: Karbi Anglong district 92. Pani Dihing Bird Sanctuary is located in which one of the following districts A) Jorhat B) Sivasagar C) Golaghat D) Dhemaji Answer: Sivasagar 93. Who was the first martyr of 1942 Revolution in Assam? A) Kanaklata Barua B) Kamala Miri
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C) Kushal Konwar D) Maniram Dewan Answer: Kanaklata Barua 94. The Treaty of Yandaboo signed between East India Company and which one of the following A) Ahom King B) King of Burma C) Kachari King D) Chutiya King Answer: King of Burma 95. The first Peasant Uprising against the British was known as A) Phulaguri Dhawa B) Patharughat Raijmel C) Battle of Itakhuli D) None of the above Answer: Phulaguri Dhawa 96. The first phase of Moamoria Rebellion was started in A) 1749 B) 1759 C) 1769 D) 1779 Answer: 1769 97. In which year Gopinath Bordoloi was arrested for taking part in the freedom movement A) 1915 B) 1918 C) 1920 D) 1922 Answer: 1922 98. In addition to Assamese, which other language from the State is included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution A) Mishing
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B) Rabha C) Tiwa D) Bodo Answer: Bodo 99. The rank of Assam in literacy among the States of India is A) 9th B) 12th C) 16th D) 26th Answer: 26th 100. The Phulaguri uprising was take place A) 1848 B) 1852 C) 1861 D) 1869 Answer: 1861 101. When Bhupen Hazarika had been awarded with Dadasaheb Phalke Award A) 1990 B) 1992 C) 1993 D) 1997 Answer: 1992 102. Which of the following places is the site of rain forest in Assam and in which District? A) Sonai Rupai (Sonitpur) B) Joypur (Dibrugarh) C) Sessa (Dibrugarh) D) Manas (Kokrajhar) Answer: Joypur (Dibrugarh) 103. Who among the following from Assam joined the famous Dandi March?
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A) Nabin Chandra Bordoloi B) Tarunram Phukan C) Kuladhar Saikia D) Liladhar Baruah Answer: Liladhar Baruah 104. The historic Assam Accord was signed on A) 15th August, 1985 B) 26th Janury, 1986 C) 15th August, 1986 D) 15th August, 1990 Answer: 15th August, 1985 105. Ali-Aai-Ligang is an agri-based festival celebrated by the A) Bodo B) Khasis C) Mising D) Naga Answer: Mising 106. "Me-Dum-Me-Phi" festival is celebrated annually on A) 31st January B) 31st July C) 31st August D) 31st December Answer: 31st January 107. Assam Police Day observed on A) 13th January B) 4th April C) 8th September D) 1st October Answer: 1st October 108. Which of the following districts of Assam has been declared as first tobacco free district A) Karimganj
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B) Kamrup Metro C) Jorhat D) Golaghat Answer: Jorhat 109. Who among the following was the first Ahom ruler to officially accept Hinduism? A) Jayaditya Singha B) Jayadhwaj Singha C) Pramatta Singha D) Pratap Singha Answer: Jayadhwaj Singha 110. The oldest cannon inscriptions discovered in Assam belonged to which dynasty? A) Ahoms B) Mughals C) Koch D) English Answer: Koch 111. Rajopakhayan by Mushi Jay Nath Ghose is a chronicle of the A) Koch B) Kacharies C) Ahoms D) Chutias Answer: Koch 112. Srimanta Sankardeva was born in A) 1749 B) 1669 C) 1559 D) 1449 Answer: 1449 113. The name of the first Barbarua of Ahom kingdom was: A) Rupchand Barbarua
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B) Momai Tamuli C) Laluksola Borphukan D) None of them Answer: Momai Tamuli 114. The Sutiya Kingdom was founded by: A) Vijayadhwajpal B) Ratnadhwajpal C) Birpal D) Karmadhwajpal Answer: Birpal 115. The first local man from Mech tribe to accept Islam during the invitation Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji? A) Ismail Gazi B) Ali Mech C) Sikander Shah D) None of them Answer: Ali Mech 116. In which year was the Bodo Sahitya Shabha founded? A) 1952 B) 1956 C) 1959 D) 1978 Answer: 1952 117. Who directed the Assamese Film "Shakuntala"? A) Bhabendra Nath Saikia B) Dr Bhupen Hazarika C) Bidyut chakraborty D) Jyotiprasad Agarwala Answer: Dr Bhupen Hazarika 118. Which one was the second film directed by Jyotiprasad Agarwala? A) Joymoti B) Indramalati
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C) Monumoti D) Siraj Answer: Indramalati 119. Which one was the first Assamese film to won President's Silver Medal for Best Feature Film? A) Puberun B) Shakuntala C) Maniram Devan D) Ronga Police Answer: Ronga Police 120. In which year Assamese film "Halodhia Choraye Baodhan Khai" wins the Silver and Bronze Leopard Award in Locarno International Film Festival? A) 1987 B) 1988 C) 1989 D) 1990 Answer: 1988 121. The first film directed by Jahnu Barua A) Firingoti B) Papori C) Aparoopa D) Bonani Answer: Aparoopa 122. The book "Mariam Astin Athaba Hira Barua" is written by A) Hiren Gohain B) Rita Chowdhury C) Arupa Kalita Patinga D) Rabindra Sarkar Answer: Arupa Kalita Patinga 123. Which Assamese film bagged the National Film Award for 2014?
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A) Basundhara B) Othello C) Bandhon D) Ajeyo
Answer: Ajeyo 124. Which one is the first mobile theatre of Assam? A) Natraj Theatre B) Hangul Theatre C) Kohinoor Theatre D) Abahan Theatre
Answer: Natraj Theatre 125. Sobha Brahma was associated with A) Theatre B) Fine Arts C) Music D) Football Answer: Fine Arts 126. Lachit Divas is celebrated on A) 13th June B) 18th September C) 22nd October D) 24th November Answer: 24th November 127. The Asom Divas is celebrated on A) 5th March B) 12th August C) 23rd October D) 2nd December
Answer: 2nd December 128. Baksa district was created from the parts of which of the following districts
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A) Barpeta, Nalbari and Kamrup B) Goalpara and Kokrajhar C) Bongaigaon and Kokrajhar D) Darrang, Barpeta and Nalbari
Answer: Barpeta, Nalbari and Kamrup 129. In terms of area, the smallest district of Assam is A) Chirang B) South Salmara-Mankachar C) Kamrup Metro D) Udalguri
Answer: Kamrup Metro 130. Who is the recipient of Bishwaratna Dr. Bhupen Hazarika International Solidarity Award in 2015? A) Shyam Benegal B) Amjad Ali C) Amol Palekar D) Adoor Gopalakrishnan Answer: Adoor Gopalakrishnan 131. Who among the following is the first Assamese translator of the Ramayana? A) Ram Saraswati B) Madhab Kandali C) Ananta kandali D) Sankardeva Answer: Madhab Kandali 132. Who is the first Assamese woman to be awarded by the Sangeet Natak Akademi? A) Sudakshina Sarma B) Anupama Bhattacharya C) Pratima Pandey Barua D) Aaideo Handique
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Answer: Pratima Pandey Barua 133. The first novel by Rajanikanta Bordoloi was A) Nirmal Bhakat B) Miri Jiyori C) Manomoti D) Donduadrah Answer: Miri Jiyori 134. During which Ahom King reign, the Saraighat battle was ended with decisive win over Mughal A) Chakradhwaj Singha B) Udayaditya Singha C) Jayadhwaj Singha D) Pratap Singha Answer: Udayaditya Singha 135. Which Ahom king created the 'Borbarua' and 'Borphukan' post A) Pratap Singha B) Dihingia Raja C) Rajeswar Singha D) Lakshmi Singha Answer: Pratap Singha 136. Who wrote the book 'Bhakti Ratnavali'? A) Sankardev B) Madhava Kandali C) Madhavdev D) Hema Saraswati
Answer: Madhavdev 137. The Assam Gas Cracker project was approved in A) January 2001 B) April 2006 C) March 2008 D) January 2010
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Answer: April 2006 138. Swahid Divas is celebrated on A) 2nd September B) 30th October C) 14th November D) 10th December Answer: 10th December 139. In which district, Sainik School is located A) Golaghat B) Goalpara C) Dhuburi D) Dibrugarh Answer: Goalpara 140. Which one is the only Assamese who represented India in the First Round Table Conference held at London in 1930? A) Chandradhar Barua B) Tarun Ram Phukan C) Gopinath Bordoloi D) Krishna Nath Sarmah Answer: Chandradhar Barua 141. Ghiyashuddin Awliya associated with A) Poa Mecca of Hazo B) Panbari Masjid C) Rangamati Masjid D) Dargah of Syed Shahnur Dewan Answer: Poa Mecca of Hazo 142. Piyali Phukan was hanged in the year A) June 25, 1830 B) July 26, 1830 C) August 26, 1830 D) August 25, 1830
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Answer: July 26, 1830 143. The Ahom ruler was first to turn the Kachari Kings as Thapita and Sanchita was A) Suhungmumg B) Jaydhawj Singha C) Rudra Shingha D) Pratap Shinga Answer: Suhungmumg 144. In which year Assam region was separated from Bengal territory and was put under a chief commissioner? A) 1930 B) 1890 C) 1971 D) 1874 Answer: 1874 145. The shape of the coins of Ahom reign : A) Circular B) Square C) Octagonal D) Hexagonal Answer: Octagonal 146. Which site in Assam is the traditional burial site of the Ahom kings? A) Garhgaon B) Rangpur C) Charaideo D) None of these Answer: Charaideo 147. In which year Sir Shadulla’s Ministry formed? A) 1951 B) 1950 C) 1937 D) 1947
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Answer: 1937 148. Major part of the Kachari kingdom was occupied by the Ahoms during the reign of which of the following kings? A) Sukhampha B) Sutingpha C) Rudra Singha D) Suhungmung Answer: Suhungmung 149. The first women's university in Assam "Assam Women's University" is located in A) Dibrugarh B) Jorhat C) Nagaon D) Silchar Answer: Jorhat 150. Assam's only fishery college "College of Fisheries Science" is located in A) Morigaon B) Raha C) Nagaon D) Jorhat Answer: Raha 151. The Dhola-Sadiya bridge is built on the river A) Brahmaputra B) Lohit C) Dibang D) Siang Answer: Lohit 152. Who is also known as the father of the Bhryamyman or Mobile Theatre of Assam? A) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala
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B) Achyut Lahkar C) Ratan Lahkar D) Bishnu Prasad Rabha Answer: Achyut Lahkar 153. The school at Banduka where Madhavdeva read was maintained and taught by A) Mukunda Adhyapaka B) Jadavendra Adhyapaka C) Dhanesvara Adhyapaka D) Rajendra Adhyapaka Answer: Mukunda Adhyapaka 154. Who built Joydol on the bank of Joysagar tank? A) Rudra Singha B) Siva Singha C) Gadapani D) None of these Answer: Rudra Singha 155. The temple of Tamreswari Mai was dedicated to A) Shiva B) Somdeo C) Vishne D) The goddess Tamreswari Answer: The goddess Tamreswari 156. Sukumar Barkaith composed Hasti Vidyarnava during the reign of: A) Rajeswar Singha B) Rudra Singha C) Siva Singha D) Gadadhar Singha Answer: Siva Singha 157. Which is the tallest existing temple in Assam? A) Umananda temple at Guwahati B) Kamakhya temple at Silghat
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C) Siva temple at Sibsagar D) Siva temple at Dergaon Answer: Siva temple at Sibsagar 158. Dimapur was situated on the bank of which of the following rivers? A) Dhansiri B) Doyang C) Brahmaputra D) Dikhow Answer: Dhansiri 159. The temple of Umananda is associated with the God A) Chandika B) Durga C) Shiva D) Ganesha Answer: Shiva 160. Which singer is also popularly known as the "King of Bihu"? A) Bhupen Hazarika B) Khagen Mahanta C) Zubeen Garg D) Jayanta Hazarika Answer: Khagen Mahanta 161. Which one is the first film where Bhupen Hazarika sings as playback singer? A) Jyotimoti B) Siraj C) Indramalati D) Pioli Phukan Answer: Indramalati 162. Who is the first recipient of Asom Ratna award? A) Bhupen Hazarika B) Mamoni Raisom Goswami
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C) Jitendra Nath Goswami D) Hiren Bhattacharyya Answer: Bhupen Hazarika 163. Who was the first Principal of Cotton College? A) Miles Branson B) Nathan Brown C) William Cotton D) Frederic William Sudmerson Answer: Frederic William Sudmerson 164. Two Ahom monarchs issued coins in Persian language. One was Rajeswar Singha and the other was? A) Siva Singha B) Suhungmung C) Jayadhwij Singha D) Rudra Singha Answer: Siva Singha 165. Who was referred to as Dihingia Raja? A) Suhungmung B) Subinpha C) Sudangpha D) Suteupha Answer: Suhungmung 166. Captain Thomas Welsh recorded that the Assam Patra-Mantri was composed of A) Eight ministers B) Six ministers. C) Four ministers D) Five minister Answer: Five minister 167. The Ahom name of Gadadhar Singha was A) Supatpha B) Sulikpha
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C) Suhungmung D) Subinpha Answer: Supatpha 168. Who was the leader of the 1857 revolt in Assam? A) Lachit Barphukan B) Pioli Baruah C) Maniram Dewan D) Kanaklata Answer: Maniram Dewan 169. In which year did captain Welsh come to Assam? A) 1592 A.D. B) 1692 A.D. C) 1700 A.D. D) 1792 A.D. Answer: 1792 A.D. 170. The place where last Ahom-Mugal war fought : A) Jorhat B) Koch Behar C) Saraighat D) Itakhuli Answer: Koch Behar 171. The name of the Ahom king when Mir Jumla invaded Assam was : A) Pratap Singha B) Chakradhwaj Singha C) Jayadhwaj Singha D) Suhungmung Answer: Jayadhwaj Singha 172. Which Assamese poet is also known as "Prem aru Rodalir Kobi"? A) Dimbeswar Neog B) Amulya Barua C) Nabakanta Barua D) Hiren Bhattacharyya
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Answer: Hiren Bhattacharyya 173. In which year Mamoni Raisom Goswami win the Jnanpith Award? A) 1998 B) 2000 C) 2001 D) 2002 Answer: 2000 174. Who had written the poetry anthology 'Alakananda'? A) Nalini Bala Devi B) Raghunath Choudhary C) Nilamani Phookan D) Hem Barua Answer: Nalini Bala Devi 175. Who was the first editor of the Assamese magazine 'Jonaki'? A) Lakshminath Bezbaroa B) Chandra Kumar Agarwala C) Satyanath Bora D) Ananda Chandra Agarwala Answer: Chandra Kumar Agarwala 176. In which year Assamese magazine 'Jonaki' was first published? A) 1887 B) 1889 C) 1890 D) 1896
Answer: 1889 177. Who is also known as 'bihogi kobi'? A) Dimbeswar Neog B) Nalinidhar Bhattacharya C) Raghunath Choudhary D) Nilmoni Phukan Answer: Raghunath Choudhary
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178. The first Assamese romantic poem 'Bon Kunwori' was written by A) Dimbeswar Neog B) Chandra Kumar Agarwala C) Mahendranath Dekaphukan D) Benudhar Rajkhowa
Answer: Chandra Kumar Agarwala 179. Who was the first secretary of the Oxomiya Bhaxa Unnati Xadhini Xobha? A) Benudhar Rajkhowa B) Shivaram Sarma Bordoloi C) Lakshiprasad Chaliha D) Lakhyeswar Sarma Answer: Shivaram Sarma Bordoloi 180. Which of the following invited the Burmese to Assam? A) Peoli Phukan B) Badan Chnadra Barphukan C) Lalok Sola D) Moniram Dewan Answer: Badan Chnadra Barphukan 181. Gandhiji's first visit to Assam was in the year A) 1826 B) 1842 C) 1845 D) 1921 Answer: 1921 182. Who made weaving compulsory during the reign of Ahom king? A) Suhungmung B) Mumai Tamuli C) Rudra Singh D) Aton Burahgoain Answer: Mumai Tamuli 183. The year in which Phulaguri uprising took place:
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A) 1800 B) 1810 C) 1826 D) 1861 Answer: 1861 184. The name of the composer of the Hasti Vidyarnava: A) Sukumar Barkaith B) Bhaskar Barman C) Hari Dev D) Madhav Dev Answer: Sukumar Barkaith 185. Krishnaram Bhattacharyya popularly known as Parbatiya Gossain was settled at A) Kalapahar B) Pratap Singha C) Kamakhya hill D) Mumai Tamuli Answer: Kamakhya hill 186. Sayed Shah Milan was popularly known by which name in Assam? A) Ajan Fakir B) Jonab C) Muhammad D) Nasuriddin Answer: Ajan Fakir 187. The Ahom ruler who built the temple of Chandika at Chaygaon was: A) Siva Singha B) Rajeswar Singha C) Rudra Singha D) Pratap Singha Answer: Pratap Singha 188. Who had established the 'Barpeta Satra' in Barpeta?
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A) Sankardev B) Madhabdev C) Damodardev D) Gopal Ata
Answer: Madhabdev 189. Who had established the Varman dynasty in Assam? A) Pushya Varman B) Samudra Varman C) Mahendra Varman D) Bhuti Varman
Answer: Pushya Varman 190. Which Swargadeo shifted the capital of the Ahom Kingdom from Garhgaon to Rangpur? A) Gadadhar Singha B) Sukhrangpha C) Siva Singha D) Rudra Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 191. Which Ahom king is also known as 'Bamuni Konwar'? A) Sutuphaa B) Sudangphaa C) Susenphaa D) Suphakphaa Answer: Suphakphaa 192. Who had discovered Tea plants in Assam in the year 1823? A) Raymond W. Beaver B) Nathan Brown C) Oliver Thomas Cutter D) Robert Bruce Answer: Robert Bruce 193. Who had conferred Gopinath Bordoloi with the title "Lokapriya"?
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A) Jayram Das Daulatram B) Saiyid Fazal Ali C) Vishnu Sahay D) Braj Kumar Nehru
Answer: Jayram Das Daulatram 194. Which one is the second most populous city in Assam? A) Jorhat B) Dibrugarh C) Nagaon D) Silchar
Answer: Silchar 195. In which of the districts, the 'Jonbeel Mela' held every year? A) Kamrup B) Nagaon C) Morigaon D) Karbi Anglong Answer: Morigaon 196. Jatinga village is located in which district A) Morigaon B) Cachar C) Karimganj D) Karbi Anglong Answer: Morigaon 197. In which month, Ambubachi Mela is celebrated in Kamakhya Temple? A) Bohag B) Magh C) Ahaar D) Kati Answer: Ahaar 198. Who is also known as 'Kala Guru' of Assam?
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A) Parvati Prasad Baruva B) Bishnu Prasad Rabha C) Bhupen Hazarika D) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala
Answer: Bishnu Prasad Rabha 199. Who is also known as 'Geetikavi' of Assam? A) Parvati Prasad Baruva B) Pratima Barua Pandey C) Bhupen Hazarika D) Phani Sarma
Answer: Parvati Prasad Baruva 200. Who was the founder editor of the Assamese magazine 'Prantik'? A) Pradeep Baruah B) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya C) Homen Borgohain D) Bhabendra Nath Saikia Answer: Bhabendra Nath Saikia
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Assam History 1. Name of the first Ahom King was a. Sukapha b. Suteupha c. Subinpha d. Sukhampha Answer: Sukapha 2. The European merchant who had extensive salt trade in the Ahom kingdom was a. Daniel Raush b. Robert Clive c. Captain Welsh d. Sudmerson Answer: Daniel Raush 3. Hiuen Tsang described in his account that the circumference of Kamrupa was about a. 6,000 li b. 10,000 li c. 15,000 li d. 20,000 li Answer: 10,000 li 4. Who was the British Officer who was beaten to death during the uprising in Assam? a. Lt. Singer b. Lt. Bruce c. Lt. Welsh d. Lt. Brown Answer: Lt. Singer 5. What was the usual shape of Koch coins? a. Square b. Round c. Oval d. Hexagonal
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Answer: Round 6. Which Sutiya king built Sadiya? a. Ratnadhiraj b. Garudadhiraj c. Vijayadhiraj d. Vikramdhiraj Answer: Ratnadhiraj 7. Rang-Ghar was built during the reign of Swargadeo ______a. Rudra Singha b. Siva Singha c. Rajeshwar Singha d. Pramatta Singha Answer: Pramatta Singha 8. The advisory board of Ahom king constituted with how many ministers? a. 2 Ministers b. 3 Ministers c. 4 Ministers d. 5 Ministers Answer: 2 Ministers 9. How the name Guwahati has been derived? a. place was famous for betel-nut groves b. place was famous for coconut groves c. place was famous for sugar-cane fields d. place was famous for tea garden Answer: place was famous for betel-nut groves 10. The Posa system referred to a. confronting policy b. repauation policy c. policy of non-payment of taxes d. tribal appeasement policy Answer: tribal appeasement policy 11. The name of the Kamrupa ruler who left his seal at Nalanda:
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a. Ratnapala b. Bhaskarvarman c. Bhagadatta d. Balavarman Answer: Bhaskarvarman 12. Which Ahom king introduced the Posa system? a. Pratap Singha b. Sukapha c. Rudra Singha d. Suhungmung Answer: Pratap Singha 13. The Tamralipi in ancient times was famous as a. Grant b. Book c. Boat d. Sea-Port Answer: Sea-Port 14. Bhaskar-varman attended the great religious council at : a. Taxila b. Sanchi c. Kanauj d. Lahore Answer: Kanauj 15. Who was the earliest king of Pragjyotisha? a. Mahiranga Danava b. Narakasura c. Bhaskar-varman d. None of these Answer: Mahiranga Danava 16. When was the Matak territory annexed to the British dominion? a. 1826 b. 1842
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c. 1862 d. 1890 Answer: 1842 17. The large tank in Tezpur known as Hajara Pukhuri excavated by a. Harjaravardan b. Bana c. Bhaskarvarman d. Narakasura Answer: Harjaravardan 18. The ambassador name sent by Bhaskarvarman to Harshabardhan was a. Vayu b. Meghadut c. Hangsavega d. Varuna Answer: Hangsavega 19. The contemporary of Bhaskarvarman in northern Indian was a. Ashoka b. Harsavardhan c. Raja Prithvinarayan d. Raja Chola Answer: Harsavardhan 20. Hiuen Tsang described which Kamrupa king as the "Aristrocatic King of Eastern India"? a. Banasura b. Bhaskar-varman c. Pushya-varman d. Kalyana-varman Answer: Bhaskar-varman 21. What was the first Assamese daily newspaper? a. Assam Bandhu b. Dainik Batori c. Natun Asamiya
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d. Orunodoi Answer: Dainik Batori 22. According to Ahom legends khun-lung and Khun-lai were the grandson of a. Leng Don b. Sukapha c. Caao-Tai-Pung d. None of these Answer: Leng Don 23. The first capital of the Ahom was a. Sadiya b. Charaideo c. Garhgaon d. Rangpur Answer: Charaideo 24. The Koch coins were known as a. Tanka b. Mohar c. Mudra d. Narayani Answer: Narayani 25. The ancient name of Cachar was a. Hidimba b. Diapur c. Dhanashree d. Narayanpur Answer: Hidimba 26. The Sinagiri Ghar celebration was first held by a. Suhungmung b. Seteupha c. Gadapani d. Sukapha Answer: Gadapani
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27. Who wrote ‘Tungkhugia Buranji’? a. Visheswar Baidyadhipha b. Srinath Barbarua c. Dutiram Hazarik d. Kashinath Tamuli Phukan Answer: Srinath Barbarua 28. When did Ahoms entered in the Brahmaputra Valley? a. 1228 A.D b. 1229 A.D c. 1230 A.D d. 1128 A.D Answer: 1228 A.D 29. In which place the first battle fought by the Ahoms against the Mughals? a. Itakhuli b. Bharali c. Saraighat d. Jogighopa Answer: Bharali 30. Who was the first Assamese to fight against British? a. Kushal Knowar b. Piyoli Phukan c. Moniram dewan d. Gomdhar Knowar Answer: Gomdhar Knowar 31. Sadiyakhowa Gohain post was created during the reign of which Ahom King? a. Swargadeo Suhungmung b. Swargadeo Rudra Singha c. Swargadeo Pratap Singha d. None of them Answer: Swargadeo Suhungmung 32. Ghiyashuddin Awliya associated with
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a. Poa Mecca of Hazo b. Panbari Masjid c. Rangamati Masjid d. Dargah of Syed Shahnur Dewan Answer: Poa Mecca of Hazo 33. Piyali Phukan was hanged in the year a. June 25, 1830 b. July 26, 1830 c. August 26, 1830 d. August 25, 1830 Answer: July 26, 1830 34. The Ahom ruler was first to turn the Kachari Kings as Thapita and Sanchita was a. Suhungmumg b. Jaydhawj Singha c. Rudra Shingha d. Pratap Shinga Answer: Suhungmumg 35. In which year Assam region was separated from Bengal territory and was put under a chief commissioner? a. 1930 b. 1890 c. 1971 d. 1874 Answer: 1874 36. The shape of the coins of Ahom reign : a. Circular b. Square c. Octagonal d. Hexagonal Answer: Octagonal 37. Which site in Assam is the traditional burial site of the Ahom kings?
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a. Garhgaon b. Rangpur c. Charaideo d. None of these Answer: Charaideo 38. In which year Sir Shadulla’s Ministry formed? a. 1951 b. 1950 c. 1937 d. 1947 Answer: 1937 39. Major part of the Kachari kingdom was occupied by the Ahoms during the reign of which of the following kings? a. Sukhampha b. Sutingpha c. Rudra Singha d. Suhungmung Answer: Suhungmung 40. Rani Gaidula, a famous character of Indian Movement belonged to which tribe? a. the Lalung tribes of Assam b. the Naga tribes of Assam c. the kachari tribes of Assam d. the karbi tribes of Assam Answer: the Naga tribes of Assam 41. Mula Gabharu died fighting against a. Det Chung b. Mir Jumla c. Turbak d. Mirza Nathan Answer: Turbak 42. Darrang Desh governed by
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a. Solal Ghain b. Barbarua c. Sadiya Khowa Gohain d. Darrangi Raja Answer: Darrangi Raja 43. Provincial Self-Autonomy was introduced to Assam from a. 1935 b. 1937 c. 1940 d. 1941 Answer: 1935 44. ‘Dasya-bhab’ adopted by a. Madhab Deva b. Chandi Bar c. Sankardeva d. Khersuti Ai Answer: 1935 45. The Ahoms entered Assam through a. Diphu Pass b. Phungan Pass c. Patkai Pass d. None of these Answer: Patkai Pass 46. The Marangikhowa Gohain was the governor of a. Solal province b. Kamrup c. Marangi province d. Sadiya province Answer: Marangi province 47. The Ahom first used the saka era during the reign of a. Suhungmung b. Pratap Singha
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c. Sukapha d. Subinpha Answer: Suhungmung 48. The first Ahom Barbarua was a. Lachit b. Momai Tamuli c. Badanchandra d. Langi Panihya Answer: Momai Tamuli 49. One of the disciples of Sankardeva was a. Madhav kandali b. Mahendra Narayan c. Naranarayan d. Chand Khan Answer: Chand Khan 50. Name of the Ahom king who married the koch princess Mongaldoi a. Sukhampha b. Surampha c. Suhungmung d. Suklengmung Answer: Sukhampha 51. Name the Foreigner who recorded in his accounts that he came to Kamo- lu-po a. Plotemy b. Yuan Chwang c. Sir Edward Gait d. Alberuni Answer: Yuan Chwang 52. Darrangraj Vansavali is by a. Pandit Vidyavinod b. Kaviratna Saraswati c. Durgabor Kayastha
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d. Baladev Suryahkari Doibojna Answer: Baladev Suryahkari Doibojna 53. King Biswa Singha’s father was a. Dharmanararya b. Malladeva c. Haria Mandal d. Nilambar Answer: Haria Mandal 54. Who was the progenitor of the koches? a. Haria Mandal b. Chilarai c. Narnararyan d. Vishwa Singha Answer: Haria Mandal 55. Raghudeva was the son of a. Vishwa Singha b. Chilarai c. Haria Mandal d. Narnararyan Answer: Chilarai 56. In which year the battle of Saraighat was fought? a. 1661 b. 1671 c. 1618 d. 1616 Answer: 1671 57. During the Kamrupa king Bhaskarvarman’s period, the officer who was in charge of royal treasury was known as: a. Bhandaragaradhikara b. Ban Bhandara Barua c. Utkhetayita d. Nagar Brahman
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Answer: Bhandaragaradhikara 58. The battle of Saraighat was fought between a. The Burmas and the Koches b. The Ahoms and Mughals c. The Ahoms and the Kacharies d. The Mughals and the Koches Answer: The Ahoms and Mughals 59. What was the name of the grandmother of Sankardeva? a. Hira b. Sadhani c. Khersuti d. Jira Answer: Khersuti 60. Which Mughal general invaded Ahom kingdom and occupied Gargaon? a. Mir Jumla b. Mirza Nathan c. Raja Ram Singh d. Abu Bakar Answer: Mir Jumla 61. In 1563, the Treaty of Majuli was settled between the Koch king Nara Narayan and Ahom King. Who was the Ahom King? a. Rudra Singha b. Gadapani c. Pratap Singha d. Sukhaamphaa Answer: Sukhaamphaa 62. Which Pala king built Sri-Durjaya as the capital on the bank of Brahmaputra? a. Bhaskar Varman b. Ratnapala c. Niti Pal d. Rudra Singha
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Answer: Ratnapala 63. The two kanai Barasi Rock inscription near Manikarneswar Hill was in a. Tai b. Assamese c. Persian d. Sanskrit Answer: Assamese 64. Badan Barphukan was the governor of a. Sadiya b. Solal c. Kamrup d. Marangi Answer: Kamrup 65. From whose reign was Sanskrit language used on Ahom coins? a. Sudangpha b. Pratap Singha c. Siva Singha d. Rudra Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 66. Haria Mandal, the father of first Koch king Biswa Singha originate from which village of Goalpara district? a. Koch Behar b. Khuntaghat c. Mangaldoi d. Chiknabari(Chkengram) Answer: Chiknabari(Chkengram) 67. Which Ahom Swargadeo built the temple of Umananda? a. Rudra Singha b. Siva Singha c. Godadhar Singha d. Pramatta Singha Answer: Godadhar Singha
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68. Which of the following was famous for astrology? a. Pragjyotishpur b. Kamrup c. Charaidew d. Saumara Answer: Pragjyotishpur 69. Which Ahom king was popularly known as "Bamuni Konwar"? a. Suhungmung b. Subinpha c. Sujungpha d. Sudangphaa Answer: Sudangphaa Answer: 70. In 1585 Koch kingdom was visited by an English traveler. What was his name? a. Tavemier b. Ralph Fitch c. Nicolo Conti d. None of these Answer: Ralph Fitch 71. In the battle of Saraighat (1671) between Ahoms and Mughals, the Ahom Army was commanded by Lachit Barphukan. Who was the commander of Mughals? a. Ram Singha b. Askar Khan c. Mir Jumla d. Bakht Khan Answer: Ram Singha 72. Famous Kamrupi poet Hema Saraswati was a court poet of Kamatapur's King a. Nara Narayan b. Dharma Narayan c. Vaidyadeva
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d. Durlabh Narayan Answer: Durlabh Narayan 73. In January 1663, Treaty of Ghilajharighat was signed by Ahoms with the Mughal commander: a. Abu Bakar b. Raja Ram Singha c. Mir Jumla d. Mirza Nathan Answer: Mir Jumla 74. The Pasupatinath temple inscription in Nepal refers to “Gaudradi Kalingkashala Patti”. Who was he? a. Sri Harsha Dev b. Harshavardhan c. Bhaskar Varman d. Yasovarman Answer: Sri Harsha Dev 75. According to Ramayana, Amurtaraja was the founder of the kingdom of a. Pragjyotisha b. Srihat c. Koch Behar d. Darrang Answer: Pragjyotisha 76. The well-known Kamrupi poet of sixteenth century Chandraharati lived at: a. Tezpur b. Umanada c. Kamakhya d. North Guwahati Answer: North Guwahati 77. During Bhaskarvarman’s reign the major industry in Kamrupa was a. boat building b. arrow making
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c. furniture and cane work d. none of the above Answer: boat building 78. Who first introduced the cremation of the dead among the Ahoms? a. Suhungmung b. Phulaswari Konwari c. Siva Singha d. Mumai Tamuli Answer: Phulaswari Konwari 79. “Thapita-sanchita” the term used by Ahoms to the a. Nagas b. oran king c. Kachari king d. Chutia king Answer: Kachari king 80. Bara Larawa is a title conferred upon great fighter. Ismail Ghazi conferred it on whom? a. Bhuyan Chiefs b. Raja Koch Hajo c. Raja of Koch Behar d. Raja of Kamrupa Answer: Raja of Kamrupa 81. Sadhani was the last queen of : a. Pala king b. Moran king c. Chutia king d. Kachari king Answer: Chutia king 82. Which Ahom King built the Dhodar Ali? a. Purandar Singha b. Gadadhar Singha c. Rudra Singha
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d. Siva Singha Answer: Gadadhar Singha 83. Which dynasty made their capital at Maibong? a. Jaitias b. Khasis c. Kacharies d. Ahoms Answer: Kacharies 84. Siva Singha declared his chief queen as 'Bar Raja'. Who was she? a. Phuleswari b. Ambika c. Mula Ghabharu d. Sarbeswari Answer: Phuleswari 85. The Gohain Kamal Ali built during the reign of Naranarayan runs from a. Dhekiajuli to Dhubri b. Koch Behar to Narayanpur c. Guwahati to Goalpara d. Kaliabor to Goalpara Answer: Koch Behar to Narayanpur 86. What was the similarity among Hem Saraswati, Kaviratna Saraswati and Hari Har Bipra? a. All were Kamrupi Spies b. All were Kamrupi Poets c. All were Kamrupi Priests d. All were Kamrupi Sadagars Answer: All were Kamrupi Poets 87. The language used in the inscription of the Koch kings was : a. Sanskrit b. Assamese c. Persian d. Bengali
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Answer: Sanskrit 88. In which year the Mughals Attack Ahom Kingdom for the first time? a. 1608 b. 1612 c. 1614 d. 1615 Answer: 1615 89. What was staple crop in ancient Assam? a. Coconut b. Barley c. Rice d. Wheat Answer: Rice 90. Chandibar was the great grandfather of whom? a. Damodar Dev b. Sankardeva c. Madhava Dev d. Gopal Dev Answer: Sankardeva 91. The Silsako stone bridge of North Guwahati destroyed due to earthquake in the year: a. 1897 b. 1898 c. 1899 d. 1900 Answer: 1897 92. Which Ahom king excavated the Joysagar tank in memory of his mother Joymoti at Rangpur? a. Siva Singha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Rudra Singha d. Godhadhar Singha
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Answer: Rudra Singha 93. Which of the following is the great work of Sankardeva? a. Kirtan Ghosha b. Bhakti Ratnavali c. Katha Gita d. Katha Bhagavat Answer: Kirtan Ghosha 94. From which of the following places the Ahom came? a. Lashio in Burma b. Chiengmai in Thailand c. Chieng knowing d. Mong Mao in China Answer: Mong Mao in China 95. The school at Banduka where Madhavdeva read was maintained and taught by a. Mukunda Adhyapaka b. Jadavendra Adhyapaka c. Dhanesvara Adhyapaka d. Rajendra Adhyapaka Answer: Mukunda Adhyapaka 96. Who built Joydol on the bank of Joysagar tank? a. Rudra Singha b. Siva Singha c. Gadapani d. None of these Answer: Rudra Singha 97. Who among the following was the first Ahom ruler to officially accept Hinduism? a. Jayaditya Singha b. Jayadhwaj Singha c. Pramatta Singha d. Pratap Singha
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Answer: Jayadhwaj Singha 98. The oldest cannon inscriptions discovered in Assam belonged to which dynasty? a. Ahoms b. Mughals c. Koch d. English Answer: Koch 99. Rajopakhayan by Mushi Jay Nath Ghose is a chronicle of the a. Koch b. Kacharies c. Ahoms d. Chutias Answer: Koch 100. Srimanta Sankardeva was born in a. 1749 b. 1669 c. 1559 d. 1449 Answer: 1449 101. The name of the first Barbarua of Ahom kingdom was: a. Rupchand Barbarua b. Momai Tamuli c. Laluksola Borphukan d. None of them Answer: Momai Tamuli 102. The Sutiya Kingdom was founded by: a. Vijayadhwajpal b. Ratnadhwajpal c. Birpal d. Karmadhwajpal Answer: Birpal
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103. The first local man from Mech tribe to accept Islam during the invitation Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji? a. Ismail Gazi b. Ali Mech c. Sikander Shah d. None of them Answer: Ali Mech 104. The temple of Tamreswari Mai was dedicated to a. Shiva b. Somdeo c. Vishne d. The goddess Tamreswari Answer: The goddess Tamreswari 105. Sukumar Barkaith composed Hasti Vidyarnava during the reign of: a. Rajeswar Singha b. Rudra Singha c. Siva Singha d. Gadadhar Singha Answer: Siva Singha 106. Which is the tallest existing temple in Assam? a. Umananda temple at Guwahati b. Kamakhya temple at Silghat c. Siva temple at Sibsagar d. Siva temple at Dergaon Answer: Siva Singha 107. Dimapur was situated on the bank of which of the following rivers? a. Dhansiri b. Doyang c. Brahmaputra d. Dikhow Answer: Dhansiri 108. The temple of Umananda is associated with the God
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a. Chandika b. Durga c. Shiva d. Ganesha Answer: Shiva 109. In ancient times the big merchants of Assam were generally from the community a. Kaivatra b. Kalitas c. Koches d. Brahmins Answer: Kalitas 110. Dimapur was the capital of the a. Kachari kings b. Ahom kings c. Bhuyans d. Chutia kings Answer: Kachari kings 111. What was the usual shape of the kachari coin? a. Odagonal b. Round c. Hexahonal d. Square Answer: Round 112. The Chutia kingdom was annexed by the Ahoms during the reign of a. Sukampha b. Sukapha c. Pramatta d. Suhungmung Answer: Suhungmung 113. The last capital of Kachari kings was at a. Mahur
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b. Khaspur c. Maibong d. Dimapur Answer: Khaspur 114. The first Moamaria uprising started in the reign of a. Rudra Singha b. Pramattam Singha c. Lakshmi Singha d. Purandar Singha Answer: Lakshmi Singha 115. By what name are the burial mounds of Ahom royalty known? a. Doul b. Kabar c. Moidam d. Smashan Answer: Moidam 116. Two Ahom kings were known as Burah Raja. One was Pratap Singha among the two and the other was? a. Sukapha b. Supinpha c. Rudra Singha d. Gadadhar Singha Answer: Gadadhar Singha 117. Who married Kuranganayani? a. Jayadhwaj Singha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Pratap Singha d. Siva Singha Answer: Rajeswar Singha 118. Which of the following Ahom kings planned an invasion of Bengal? a. Rudra Singha b. Suhungmung
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c. Gadadhar Singha d. Siva Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 119. In which year did the Burmese first invade Assam? a. 1771 b. 1717 c. 1871 d. 1817 Answer: 1817 120. In which year the treaty of Yandaboo was signed? a. 1826 b. 1857 c. 1885 d. 1824 Answer: 1826, 24th Feb. 121. Which king conducted the first organised population census in Assam? a. Suhungmung b. Sukapha c. Rudra Singha d. Sukampha Answer: Suhungmung 122. Who was Bisa Nong? a. A Mughal Chief b. A Naga Chief c. A Singphou Chief d. A Kachari Chief Answer: A Singphou Chief 123. Which of the following invited the Burmese to Assam? a. Peoli Phukan b. Badan Chnadra Barphukan c. Lalok Sola
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d. Moniram Dewan Answer: Badan Chnadra Barphukan 124. Gandhiji's first visit to Assam was in the year a. 1826 b. 1842 c. 1845 d. 1921 Answer: 1921 125. Who made weaving compulsory during the reign of Ahom king? a. Suhungmung b. Mumai Tamuli c. Rudra Singh d. Aton Burahgoain Answer: Mumai Tamuli 126. Who was the first Principal of Cotton College? a. Miles Branson b. Nathan Brown c. William Cotton d. Frederic William Sudmerson Answer: Frederic William Sudmerson 127. Two Ahom monarchs issued coins in Persian language. One was Rajeswar Singha and the other was? a. Siva Singha b. Suhungmung c. Jayadhwij Singha d. Rudra Singha Answer: Siva Singha 128. Tea was first discovered by a. Mirza Nathan b. Nathan Brown c. Robert d. Captain Welsh
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Answer: Robert 129. Who was referred to as Dihingia Raja? a. Suhungmung b. Subinpha c. Sudangpha d. Suteupha Answer: Suhungmung 130. Captain Thomas Welsh recorded that the Assam Patra-Mantri was composed of a. Eight ministers b. Six ministers. c. Four ministers d. Five minister Answer: Five minister 131. The Ahom name of Gadadhar Singha was a. Supatpha b. Sulikpha c. Suhungmung d. Subinpha Answer: Supatpha 132. Who was the leader of the 1857 revolt in Assam? a. Lachit Barphukan b. Pioli Baruah c. Maniram Dewan d. Kanaklata Answer: Maniram Dewan 133. In which year did captain Welsh come to Assam? a. 1592 A.D. b. 1692 A.D. c. 1700 A.D. d. 1792 A.D. Answer: 1792 A.D.
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134. The place where last Ahom-Mugal war fought : a. Jorhat b. Koch Behar c. Saraighat d. Itakhuli Answer: Koch Behar 135. The name of the Ahom king when Mir Jumla invaded Assam was : a. Pratap Singha b. Chakradhwaj Singha c. Jayadhwaj Singha d. Suhungmung Answer: Jayadhwaj Singha 136. The year in which Phulaguri uprising took place: a. 1800 b. 1810 c. 1826 d. 1861 Answer: 1861 137. The name of the composer of the Hasti Vidyarnava: a. Sukumar Barkaith b. Bhaskar Barman c. Hari Dev d. Madhav Dev Answer: Sukumar Barkaith 138. Krishnaram Bhattacharyya popularly known as Parbatiya Gossain was settled at a. Kalapahar b. Pratap Singha c. Kamakhya hill d. Mumai Tamuli Answer: Kamakhya hill 139. Sayed Shah Milan was popularly known by which name in Assam?
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a. Ajan Fakir b. Jonab c. Muhammad d. Nasuriddin Answer: Ajan Fakir 140. The Ahom ruler who built the temple of Chandika at Chaygaon was : a. Siva Singha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Rudra Singha d. Pratap Singha Answer: Pratap Singha 141. Ahom marriage is known as a. Homa b. Chaklang c. Sayambar d. Gandharva Answer: Chaklang 142. The title used to address an Ahom king: a. Samrat b. Rajan c. Maharaj d. Swargadeo Answer: Swargadeo 143. Which of the following was known as Bhaganiya Roja? a. Jayadhwaj Singha b. Rudra Singha c. Siva Singha d. Godadhar Singha Answer: Jayadhwaj Singha 144. Which of the following introduced the Buranji written in Assam? a. The Koch
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b. The Chutias c. King Sukapha d. The Kacharies Answer: King Sukapha 145. Temple of Jayasagar was built by a. Gadadhar Singha b. Sudangpha c. Pratap Singha d. Rudra Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 146. Who built the stone bridge over the river Namdang? a. Siva Singha b. Gadadhar Singha c. Rudra Singha d. Purandar Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 147. Who is/were the prominent leader/leaders of Dandua Droh? a. Maniram Dewan b. Peoli Baruah c. Hara Dutta and Bira Dutta d. None of these Answer: Hara Dutta and Bira Dutta 148. Hadira Chokey is well known because a. near Karimgang b. Barpeta c. At Koch Beha d. At the confluence of the Manasa with the Brahmaputra Answer: At the confluence of the Manasa with the Brahmaputra 149. Name of the last Chutia king: a. Indrapal b. Nitipal c. Birpal
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d. Jashpal Answer: Nitipal 150. Three shaped coins are used in Ahom kingdom. Two of these are round and square. What was the other shape? a. Octagonal b. Traingular c. Hexagonal d. Pentagonal Answer: Octagonal 151. During the reign of which of the following king the temple of Navagraha was built? a. Rajeswar Singha b. Siva Singha c. Udayaditya d. Pramatta Singha Answer: Rajeswar Singha 152. The name of the king who shifted the Ahom capital from Gargaon to Rangpur was a. Gadadhar Singha b. Siva Singha c. Sukapha d. Rudra Singha Answer: Rudra Singha 153. In which year Jorhat was founded? a. 1818 b. 1864 c. 1884 d. 1898 Answer: 1884 154. In Mahabharata the title “Lord of the Mlechcha” was given to a. Naraka b. Bhagadutta
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c. Salastambha d. Vaidyadeva Answer: Bhagadutta 155. Where is the capital of the Pala king Ratnapala located a. Pragjyotishpur b. Harupeswar c. Kamrupanagar d. Sri Duriya Answer: Sri Duriya 156. The capital of the Salastambha dynasty located at: a. Barngar b. Chandrapur c. Harupeswar d. Pragjyotishpur Answer: Harupeswar 157. The first Assamese monthly issued by the Baptist missionary was a. Abahan b. Orunodoi c. Ramdhenu d. Bahin Answer: Orunodoi 158. Which city called “City of Eastern Astrology”? a. Pragjyotishpur b. Harupeswar c. Sri Duriya d. Tezpur Answer: Pragjyotishpur 159. In ancient Kamrup, “Brahmadeya” land was gifted to a. Gods b. Yogis c. Brahma d. Brahmans
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Answer: Brahmans 160. “Kumara Raja” title was given to a. Samudravarman b. Bhaskarvarman c. Pusyavarman d. Harsavardhan Answer: Bhaskarvarman 161. Which of the following supervised when King Naranarayan reconstructing the temple of Kamakhya? a. Chila Raj b. Gohain Kamal c. Megha Makdum d. Kalapahar Answer: Chila Raj 162. The first known king to the Varmana dynansty was a. Kalyavarman b. Ganapativarman c. Pusyavarman d. Balavarman Answer: Pusyavarman 163. During which Ahom ruler was the first emissary the Tripua sent? a. Siva Singha b. Rudra Singha c. Suhungmung d. Rani Phuleswari Answer: Rudra Singha 164. Which king performed “Ashwamedha” sacrifice in Kamrupa for the first time? a. Bhaskarvarman b. Ratnapala c. Mahendravarman d. Indrapala
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Answer: Mahendravarman 165. Sonitpur was the capital of a. Narakasur b. Bhaskarvarman c. Bhagadatta d. King Bana Answer: King Bana 166. One of the animals was widely used in wars in ancient Assam. It was a. Bull b. Camel c. Horse d. Elephant Answer: Elephant 167. Who was the first Vice-Chancellor of the Guwahati University? a. Surya Kr. Bhuyan b. Banikanta Kakati c. Kaliram Medhi d. Krishna Kanta Handique Answer: Krishna Kanta Handique 168. The tantric text 'Yogini Tantra' is dedicated to the worship of two goddesses. One is Kali and the other is a. Kamakhya b. Durga c. Lakshmi d. Saraswati Answer: Kamakhya 169. Sarbananda Singha was the king of a. The koches b. The Kacharies c. The Morans d. The Mataks
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Answer: The Mataks 170. Banasura the king of Sonitpur was a great devotee of god: a. Krishna b. Shiva c. Ganesh d. Brahma Answer: Shiva 171. On the accounts of Hiuen Tsang it is mentioned that a famous port in the Bay of Bengal was under the control of Bhaskarvarma. Which was it? a. Tamralipi b. Dhaka c. Vishakhapattam d. Chittagaon (Chattagram) Answer: Tamralipi 172. What was the reason behind the issue of Nidhanpur Grant by Bhaskarvarman? a. Kamakhya temple b. Umananda temple c. Durga Devi d. Review the land grants of Bhutivarman Answer: Review the land grants of Bhutivarman 173. Hiuen Tsang visited Kamrupa during the reign of a. Samudra-varman b. Bhaskar-varman c. Vanamala-varman d. Narakasura Answer: Bhaskar-varman 174. The ruins of the brick temple at Da-Parbatiya belong to a. Mauyryan period b. Vedic period c. Later Gupta period d. None of these
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Answer: Later Gupta period 175. The first Khasi chief to declare war against the British was : a. Tirot Singh b. Bir Singha c. Hari Singh d. Birendra Singha Answer: Tirot Singh 176. Who was the first king of Pala dynasty? a. Gopala b. Brahmapala c. Harshapala d. Indrapala Answer: Brahmapala 177. Which Kamrupa king made friendship with Harshavardhan? a. Bhaskarvarman b. Naraka c. Rampal d. Bhagadatta Answer: Bhaskarvarman 178. Which famous temple is built during the reign of Salastambha dynasty? a. Bhubaneshwari Mandir b. Sri Mahabhairab Mandir c. Kamakhya Mandir d. Mohamaya Mandir Answer: Sri Mahabhairab Mandir 179. Which king honoured Bhaskar-varman at a conference held at Kanouj? a. Rampala b. Harshavardhan c. Ashoka d. None of these
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Answer: Harshavardhan 180. The ruins of the Da-parbatiya temple is dedicated to which god/goddes? a. Visnu b. Shiva c. Durga d. Kamakhya Answer: Shiva 181. The rule of Varman dynasty came to end with the death of: a. Bhutivarman b. Mahendravarman c. Banamalavarman d. Bhaskarvarman Answer: Bhaskarvarman 182. Who was Malati Mem alias Mungri? a. First woman graduate of Assam b. First woman I.A.S. of Assam c. First woman martyr of Assam d. First woman representative of Assam to the Legislative council of the state Answer: First woman martyr of Assam 183. What was the name of the Koch king who rebuilt the Kamakhya temple? a. Naranarayan b. Biswa Singha c. Mohandra Narayan d. Balinarayan Answer: Naranarayan 184. The first Mohammedan invasion of Kamrupa took place during the reign of king: a. Vaidyadeva b. Jayapala c. Prithu
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d. Rampala Answer: Prithu 185. Muhammad-Bin-Bakhtiyar Khilji attack Kamrupa on his way to a. Burma b. Nepal c. Bhutan d. Tibet Answer: Tibet 186. What was the common language used in Kamrupa inscriptions? a. Hindi b. Bengali c. Sanskrit d. Assamese Answer: Tibet 187. Who was the first king of the Koch dynasty? a. Prithvinarayan b. Pran Narayan c. Naranarayan d. Biswa Singha Answer: Biswa Singha 188. Which of the following animals was used as the royal symbol of the ancient king of Kamrupa? a. Bull b. Lion c. Tiger d. Elephant Answer: Elephant 189. In the Sanskrit inscription the name of Naranarayan is mentioned as a. Kshatriya b. Purandar c. Malladeva
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d. Kamateswar Answer: Malladeva 190. The capital of Koch kingdom was at a. Koch Behar b. Kamrupnagar c. Kamatapur d. None of these Answer: Koch Behar 191. Which king of Varman dynasty was contemporary with Samudragupta of Gupta dynasty? a. Bhaskar Varman b. Samudra Varman c. Pushya Varman d. None of them Answer: Pushya Varman 192. In 1897, who translated the bargaon copper-plate of Ratnapala? a. Dr. Hoemle b. Dr. S.K. Bhuyan c. E.G. Glazie d. M. Kosh Answer: Dr. Hoemle 193. Which Ahom king created the post of the Bar-Phukan for the first time? a. Chakradhwaj Singha b. Rudra Singha c. Pratap Singha d. Gadadhar Singha Answer: Pratap Singha 194. The gift Yuan Chwang accepted from Bhaskarvarman was designed to protect one from and cold. What was it? a. Chameri b. Ho-la-li
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c. Chattar d. Si-yu-ki Answer: Ho-la-li 195. Which Ahom Swargadeo created the post of the Barpatra Gohain? a. Supatpha b. Sukapha c. Sudangpha d. Suhungmung Answer: Suhungmung 196. In Si-yu-ki by Yuan Chawang described that the circumference of Kamrupa was about a. 1700 miles b. 1725 miles c. 1701 miles d. 1600 miles Answer: 1700 miles 197. The persian chronicle Fathiya-i-Ibriya was compiled by a. Mir jumla b. Jahangir c. Mirza Nathan d. Shahib-ud-din Talish Answer: Shahib-ud-din Talish 198. In which year King Naranarayan died? a. 1587 b. 1589 c. 1582 d. 1580 Answer: 1587 199. The 350 miles long old Gohain Kamal Ali connects Koch Behar with a. Garhgaon b. Sala c. Narayanpur
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d. Charaikhorong Answer: Narayanpur 200. Ratnamala compiled by Purusottama Vidyavagish is a work on: a. Astrology b. Novel c. Poetry d. Grammer Answer: Grammer
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Computer Set-1 Q1. Which among the following is the system root folder for Microsoft Windows by default? (a) Windows Manager (b) C:/Windows (c) Task Manager (d) Cmd (e) Homegroup Explanation: By default, the system root folder for Microsoft Windows is C:/Windows. However, this can be changed for several reasons. The active partition on a hard drive could be designated by a letter other than C.
Q2. The process of connecting/ accessing to an account is called as: (a) Login (b) Logout (c) Sign In (d) Sign Out (e) None of these Explanation: Login is the process of connecting/ accessing to an account.
Q3. The first computers were programmed using which of the following language. (a) Assembly language (b) Machine language
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(c) Source code (d) Object code (e) None of these Explanation: First computers were programmed using machine language.
Q4. Which multiplexing technique can transmits analog signals? (a) Synchronous TOM (b) Asynchronous TOM (c) FDM (d) Both (b) and (c) (e) None of these Explanation: Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a technique by which the total bandwidth available in a communication medium is divided into a series of non- overlapping frequency sub-bands, each of which is used to carry a separate signal. This allows a single transmission medium such as the radio spectrum, a cable or optical fiber to be shared by multiple independent signals. Another use is to carry separate serial bits or segments of a higher rate signal in parallel. It can transmit analog signals.
Q5. SMTP, FTP and DNS are applications/protocols of the _____ layer. (a) Data link (b) Network (c) Transport (d) Application (e) None of these Explanation:
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SMTP, FTP and DNS are protocols of the Application layer. SMTP-Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, DNS-Domain Name System, FTP-File Transfer Protocol.
Q6. A _____ is a property of the entire relation, rather than of the individual tuples in which each tuple is unique. (a) Rows (b) Key (c) Attribute (d) Fields (e) None of these Explanation: A key is a property of the entire relation, rather than of the individual tuples in which each tuple is unique.
Q7. In table design view, which key can be used to switch between the filed names and properties panels in MS Access? (a) F6 (b) F12 (c) F1 (d) F10 (e) None of these Explanation: F6 key can be used to switch between the filed names and properties.
Q8. Which filed type can store photos in MS Access? (a) Ole (b) Hyperlink
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(c) Both of these can be used (d) Access tables can’t store photos (e) None of these Explanation: Ole type can store photos in MS Access.
Q9. Two or more computers connected to each other for sharing information form a ______. (a) Router (b) Server (c) Network (d) Tunnel (e) Pipeline Explanation: A network is interconnection of two or more computers.
Q10. An online discussion group that allows direct ‘live’ communication is known as ______. (a) Web crawler (b) Chat group (c) Regional service provider (d) Hyperlink (e) E-mail Explanation: Chat group is an online discussion group that allows direct ‘live’ communication.
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Set-2 Q1. What type of technology allows you to use your finger, eye, or voice print to secure your information resources? (a) Haptics (b) Caves (c) Biometrics (d) RFID (e) All of above Explanation: Biometrics is the measurement and statistical analysis of people's physical and behavioral characteristics. The technology is mainly used for identification and access control, or for identifying individuals that are under surveillance.
Q2. Which of the following is the communication protocol that sets the standard used by every computer that accesses web based information? (a) XML (b) DML (c) HTTP (d) HTML (e) None of these Explanation: The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems. HTTP is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
Q3. Which among the following options is the line that describes the contents of the message while sending an e-mail? (a) BCC
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(b) to (c) subject (d) cc (e) None of these Explanation: Subject line in short describes content of an e-mail.
Q4. What is Disk operating system referred for? (a) Memory management system (b) Operating system which contains the disk-oriented commands and uses disk devices for permanent storage (c) DOS (d) Both (b) and (c) (e) None of these Explanation: Both (b) and (c) are true about Disk Operating System. A disk operating system (abbreviated DOS) is a computer operating system that can use a disk storage device, such as a floppy disk, hard disk drive, or optical disc. A disk operating system must provide a file system for organizing, reading, and writing files on the storage disk.
Q5. Which among the following is a software design technique that emphasizes separating the functionality of a program into independent, interchangeable modules? (a) Programming language (b) Programming structure (c) Modular programming (d) Logic chart
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(e) None of these Explanation: Modular programming is a software design technique that emphasizes separating the functionality of a program into independent, interchangeable modules, such that each contains everything necessary to execute only one aspect of the desired functionality.
Q6. Which number system is used by computers to store data and perform calculations? (a) binary (b) octal (c) decimal (d) hexadecimal (e) None of these Explanation: Computers generally use binary number system.
Q7. C was developed by ______. (a) Ada Byron (b) Bill Gates (c) Blaise Pascale (d) Dennis Ritchie (e) None of these Explanation: Dennis Ritchie is developer of C language.
Q8. A Data Base Administrator (DBA) is a ______.
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(a) Program (b) Person (c) Application (d) Operating system (e) None of these Explanation: A DBA is a person. A database administrator (DBA) is responsible for the performance, integrity and security of a database. They will also be involved in the planning and development of the database as well as troubleshooting any issues on behalf of the users.
Q9. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called ______. (a) a chat session (b) an e-mail (c) an instant message (d) Internet telephony (e) None of these Explanation: An Internet telephony service provider (ITSP) offers digital telecommunications services based on Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) that are provisioned via the Internet. ITSPs provide services to end-users directly or as whole-sale suppliers to other ITSPs.
Q10. 30,000 bytes is nearly equal to ______. (a) 30 KB (b) 3 MB (c) 3 GB
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(d) 3 TB (e) None of these Explanation: 1024 bytes = 1KB, hence 30,000 bytes are nearly equal to 30 KB.
Set-3 Q1. What is a named area on a disk that is used to store related subfolders and files called? (a) desktop (b) folder (c) menu (d) Safari (e) explorer Explanation: A folder is a virtual location where programs, files, and other folders can be located.
Q2. The two ways to arrange multiple windows on the desktop are: (a) cascade and tile (b) drag and drop (c) point and click (d) minimize and maximize (e) copy and paste Explanation: cascade and tile are two ways to arrange multiple windows on the desktop.
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Q3. When a command is not available for selection until certain other conditions are met, it is called a(n): (a) Dimmed command (b) Unavailable command (c) Dialog box (d) all of these (e) None of the above Explanation: Dimmed command is a command is not available for selection until certain other conditions are met.
Q4. Which of the following is not an option when shutting down your computer? (a) Log Off (b) Switch User (c) Stand By (d) All of these (e) None of the above Explanation: All among the given options are available while shutting down computer.
Q5. Which of the following is not a valid version of Windows OS? (a) Windows XP Service pack 2 (b) Windows Vista (c) Windows 7 (d) Windows Mac (e) None of the above
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Explanation: Windows Mac is not a valid version.
Q6. Pressing Windows logo key + E will open which of the following? (a) My Computer (b) My document (c) Recycle Bin (d) Control Panel (e) Windows Media Player Explanation: Pressing Windows logo key + E will open My Computer.
Q7. To delete the selected item permanently, press ______. (a) Alt + Delete (b) Shift + D (c) Shift + Delete (d) Alt + D (e) None of the above Explanation: Shift + Delete will delete the selected item permanently.
Q8. A(n) ______uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system. (a) command based user interface (b) GUI (c) system utility
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(d) API (e) None of the above Explanation: GUI or graphical user interface is a type of user interface that allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators such as secondary notation, instead of text-based user interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation.
Q9. In Windows ME, what does ME stand for? (a) Millennium Edition (b) Micro-Expert (c) Macro-Expert (d) Multi-Expert (e) My-Expert Explanation: ME stand for Millennium Edition.
Q10. If you change Windows 98 to Windows XP, which action will you be performing? (a) Upgrade (b) downgrade (c) Patch (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: It will be called upgrade.
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Set-4 Q1. Which among the following was the first network with which the idea of internet began? (a) RAPANET (b) PARANET (c) ARPANET (d) APARANET (e) None of these Explanation: ARPANET was the first network in the history of Internet.
Q2. The coding language used to create documents for use on the Internet is ______. (a) HTML (b) HSMT (c) HLTM (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: HTML, Hyper Text Markup Language is used to create documents/pages for use on world wide web.
Q3. In www.google.com, www stands for (a) Web World Wide (b) World Wide Web (c) Wide World Web (d) Worlds Wide Weblinks
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(e) None of these Explanation: WWW stands for World Wide Web.
Q4.______is the basic communication language or protocol of the Internet. (a) TCTP/ITP (b) TCDP/IEP (c) TCP/IP (d) TCMP/IKP (e) None of these Explanation: TCP/IP is the basic communication protocol over the net.
Q5. Which of the following is related with 192.9.200.155? (a) Hardware address (b) Monitor address (c) IP address (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: It is an IP Address
Q6. Generally to copy data from a remote compute/internet to a local computer is called ______. (a) Upload
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(b) Editing (c) Download (d) E-mail (e) None of these Explanation: Generally to copy data from a remote compute/internet to a local computer is called downloading.
Q7.______is a web server that collects data from other web servers and puts it into a database (much like an index), it provides links to pages that contain the object of your search. (a) Search Engine (b) Browser (c) FTP (d) HTTP (e) None of these Explanation: Search Engine is a web server that collects data from other web servers and puts it into a database (much like an index), it provides links to pages that contain the object of your search.
Q8. ARPANET stands for ______. (a) Advanced Research Projects Accountancy Network (b) Advanced Research Protects Agency Newark (c) Advanced Reharse Projects Agency Network (d) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (e) None of these
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Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Network.
Q9. Which of the following is not an example of web-browser? (a) Mozilla Firefox (b) Google Chrome (c) Internet Explorer (d) Safari (e) Avast Explanation: Avast is antivirus software.
Q10. Smart card is: (a) special purpose cards (b) microprocessor cards (c) processing unit contains memory for storing data (d) processing unit for software handling (e) None of these Explanation: Smart Cards have microprocessor in them.
Set-5 Q1. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorized options? (a) Menu Bar (c) Toolbar
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(b) Status bar (d) Scroll Bar (e) None of these Explanation: The Menu Bar is the horizontal bar that contains commands and options that can be chosen.
Q2. Which among the following term is used for: Unauthorized copying of software to be used for personal gain instead of personal backups? (a) program thievery (b) data snatching (c) software piracy (d) program looting (e) data looting Explanation: Software piracy is the illegal copying, distribution, or use of software.
Q3. What is ‘Trend Micro’? (a) virus program (b) anti-virus software (c) just a program (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: Trend Micro is an antivirus.
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Q4. Which among the following organisation developed a SAGA-220 super computer in 2011? (a) ISRO (b) NASA (c) C-DAC (d) BARC (e) None of these Explanation: SAGA-220 is a supercomputer built by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Q5. In MS-DOS 6.22, which part identifies the product uniquely? (a) MS (b) DOS (c) Ms - DOS (d) 6.22 (e) None of these Explanation: 6.22 specifies its version.
Q6. Copy and X Copy are same in the sense ______. (a) Both are internal command of DOS (b) Both are external commands of DOS (c) Both can be used to copy file or group of files (d) Both a and b (e) None of these
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Explanation: Copy and X Copy both can be used to copy file or group of files.
Q7. What is a bootstrap? (a) A memory device (b) A device to support the computer (c) An error correction technique (d) A small initialization program to start up a computer (e) None of the above Explanation: A bootstrap is the process of starting up a computer. It also refers to the program that initializes the operating system (OS) during start-up.
Q8. What is a half byte also called as? (a) Nibble (b) Bit (c) Bits (d) Data (e) Information Explanation: A nibble is equal to 4 bits
Q9. Whose function is to convert computer generated result into human acceptable form? (a) Mouse (b) Input Interface
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(c) ALU (d) Output Interface (e) Memory Explanation: Output Interface makes result into human readable form.
Q10. The operating system acts as a device management that keeps track of devices. Channels and control units is called as ______. (a) I/O dispatch (b) I/O manger (c) I/O traffic controller (d) I/O receiver (e) I/O gainer Explanation: I/o Traffic Controller: Keeps track of status of all devices, control units and channels.
Set-6 Q1. Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ? (a) Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse (b) Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit (c) Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits (d) Control Unit, Monitor (e) None of the above Explanation: A central processing unit (CPU) is the electronic circuitry within a computer that carries out the instructions of a computer program by performing the basic
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arithmetic, logical, control and input/output (I/O) operations specified by the instructions.
Q2. When you cut or copy information it gets place in the ______. (a) Clipart (b) Clipboard (c) Motherboard (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) None of the Above Explanation: The clipboard is a software facility used for short-term data storage and/or data transfer between documents or applications, via copy and paste operations.
Q3. Which among following is odd one ? (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) Cache (d) Hard Disk (e) All of the above Explanation: Hard disk is secondary storage device, other are primary storage devices.
Q4. A(n) ______program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way. (a) Interpreter (b) High-level (c) Compiler
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(d) COBOL (e) Executable Explanation: An executable is a file that contains a program - that is, a particular kind of file that is capable of being executed or run as a program in the computer. In a Disk Operating System or Windows operating system, an executable file usually has a file name extension of .bat, .com, or .exe.
Q5. A _____ is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users. (a) handheld computer (b) mainframe computer (c) personal computer (d) tablet (e) None of the Above Explanation: A mainframe computer is a very large computer capable of handling and processing very large amounts of data quickly. They are used by large institutions, such as government agencies and large corporations.
Q6. What is LINUX ? (a) Malware (b) Operating System (c) Application Program (d) Firmware (e) None of the Above Explanation:
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The Linux open source operating system, or Linux OS, is a freely distributed, cross-platform operating system based on Unix.
Q7. Which among following is not an input device? (a) Mouse (b) Scanner (c) Keyboard (d) Printer (e) None of the Above Explanation: A printer is a device that accepts text and graphic output from a computer and transfers the information to paper, usually to standard size sheets of paper. Printers vary in size, speed, sophistication, and cost. In general, more expensive printers are used for higher-resolution color printing. Priter is a output Device.
Q8. Where are saved files stored in computer? (a) RAM (b) Hard disk (c) Cache (d) Any of the above (e) None of the Above Explanation: A hard disk is part of a unit, often called a "disk drive," "hard drive," or "hard disk drive," that stores and provides relatively quick access to large amounts of data.
Q9. Which program is run by BIOS to check hardware components are working properly while computer is turned ON?
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(a) POST (b) DMOS (c) CMOS (d) RIP (e) None of the Above Explanation: The BIOS includes instructions on how to load basic computer hardware and includes a test referred to as a POST (Power On Self Test) that helps verify the computer meets requirements to boot up properly. If the computer does not pass the POST, you will receive a combination of beeps indicating what is malfunctioning within the computer.
Q10. 1 Mega Byte is equal to...... ? (a) 1024 Bytes (b) 1024 Bits (c) 1024 Giga Bits (d) 1024 Kilo Bytes (e) None of the Above Explanation: A byte is 8 bits. A kilobyte is 1024 bytes. A megabyte 1,024 kilobytes or 1,048,576 bytes. A gigabyte is 1,024 megabytes or 1,048,576 kilobytes. A terabyte is 1,024 gigabytes or 1,048,576 megabytes.
Set-7 Q1. A (n) ______device is any hardware component that allows you to enter data and instruction into a computer. (a) interaction (b) input
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(c) communications (d) output (e) terminal Explanation: Input devices are for giving input (entering data/instructions) to a computer.
Q2. The device that can both feed data into and accept data from a computer is called ______. (a) ALU (b) CPU (c) input-output device (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: I/O Device or Input Output device can both feed data into and accept data from a computer.
Q3. The insert, cap lock and num lock are all examples of ______keys. (a) Control (b) Function (c) Toggle (d) Shortcut (e) None of these Explanation: The insert, cap lock and num lock are all examples of Toogle keys. A toggle key toggles the input from a group of keys on a keyboard between two different input modes.
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Q4. Speed of line printer is specified in terms of ______. (a) Line per minute (b) Character per minute (c) Dot per minute (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: Speed of line printer is specified in terms of Character per minute.
Q5. Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text? (a) DPI (b) OCR (c) OMR (d) MICR (e) None of the above Explanation: Optical Character Recognition, or OCR, is a technology that enables you to convert different types of documents, such as scanned paper documents, PDF files or images captured by a digital camera into editable and searchable data.
Q6. Which of the following groups consist of only input devices? (a) Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor (b) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner (c) Mouse, Keyboard, Printer (d) Mouse, Keyboard, Loudspeaker
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(e) None of these Explanation: Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner all are Input Devices.
Q7. Which of the following is a term related with printer? (a) DVD (b) Cartridge (c) Hard-disk (d) Keyboard (e) None of these Explanation: A cartridge may contain ink and that can be replaced in a printer. Apart from ink cartridge, there is toner cartridge, also called laser toner.
Q8. Keyboard is used: (a) for inputting text and numbers and send commands to the computer (b) to create new keys to use with your computer (c) to open the computer (d) to create pictures and images and send them to your computer (e) None of the above Explanation: Keyboard is used for inputting text and numbers and send commands to the computer
Q9. ______is also known as inkless printer. (a) Thermal printer
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(b) Inkjet printer (c) OCR (d) Dot Matrix printer (e) None of these Explanation: Thermal printers are inkless.
Q10. A ______represents approximately one billion memory location. (a) kilobyte (b) megabyte (c) gigabyte (d) terabyte (e) None of these Explanation: A gigabyte represents approximately one billion memory location.
Set-8 Q1. Microsoft Office is a ______. (a) Shareware (b) Public-domain software (c) Open source software (d) An application suit (e) Firmware Explanation: Microsoft Office is an Application suit.
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Q2. Which term is not related with font? (a) Font face (b) Font size (c) Font color (d) Font grammar (e) None of these Explanation: There is nothing such as font grammar
Q3. The valid format of MS Word is ______. (a) .jpeg (b) .png (c) .doc (d) .exe (e) None of these Explanation: MS Word file is in .doc format.
Q4. Which of the following option may be used to change page-size and margins? (a) Page Layout (b) View (c) Tools (d) Data (e) None of these Explanation:
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Page Layout is used may be used to change page-size and margins.
Q5. To justify the selected text, the shortcut key is ______. (a) Ctrl + 1 (b) Ctrl + J (c) Ctrl + U (d) Ctrl + Alt + K (e) None of these Explanation: Ctrl + J is the shortcut key to justify text.
Q6. Workbook is a collection of ______in MS Excel? (a) page set-up (b) buttons (c) diagrams (d) charts (e) worksheets Explanation: Workbook is a collection of worksheet in MS Excel
Q7. In order to move from one worksheet to another in MS-Excel workbook. One should click ______. (a) active cell (b) scroll bar (c) sheet tab (d) tab button
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(e) None of these Explanation: From sheet tab you can move from one worksheet to another in MS Excel.
Q8. In a spreadsheet, a ______is a number you will use in a calculation. (a) label (b) cell (c) field (d) value (e) None of these Explanation: In a spreadsheet, a value is a number you will use in a calculation.
Q9. In Power Point, which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view? (a) Esc key (b) The spacebar (c) The Enter key (d) The mouse button (e) None of these Explanation: A slide show or slide presentation is a series of pictures or pages of information, often displayed on a large screen using a video projector. And Esc key does not advance the slides.
Q10. In Microsoft PowerPoint, two kinds of sound effects files that can be added to the presentation are
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(a) .wav files and .mid files (b) wav files and .gif files (c) wav files and .jpg files (d) jpg files and .gif files (e) None of the above Explanation: mid files- It is a uniform format accepted by electronic music industry .wav files - This format is considered to be the official format.
Set-9 Q1.Which physical layer devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? 1.Switch 2.NIC 3.Hub 4.Repeater 5.RJ45 transceiver (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 5 only (e) None of these Explanation: A repeater operates at the physical layer. Its job is to regenerate the signal over the same network before the signal becomes too weak or corrupted so as to extend the length to which the signal can be transmitted over the same network. A hub is basically a multiport repeater. A hub connects multiple wires
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coming from different branches, for example, the connector in star topology which connects different stations.
Q2.Which of the following describe router functions? (a) Packet switching (b) Packet filtering (c) Internetwork communication (d) Path selection (e) All of the above Explanation: All of the given options are router functions.
Q3.A ______is a computer network that usually spans a city or a large campus. (a) LAN (b) DAN (c) MAN (d) WAN (e) None of these Explanation: MAN is abbreviation for Metropolitan Area Network and is a computer network that usually spans a city or a large campus.
Q4.What does MAN stands for? (a) Micro area network (b) Metropolitan area network (c) Macro area network
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(d) Mix area network (e) None of these Explanation: MAN is abbreviation for Metropolitan Area Network.
Q5.How long is an IPv6 address? (a) 32 bits (b) 128 bytes (c) 64 bits (d) 128 bits (e) None of these Explanation: IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
Q6.What does P2P stands for? (a) Peer ToPeer (b) Peek to peek (c) Past to past (d) Pair to pair (e) All of these Explanation: P2P stands for Peer To Peer.
Q7.By an intranet we mean: (a) a LAN of an organization (b) a Wide Area Network connecting all branches of an organization
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(c) a corporate computer network (d) a network connecting all computers of an organization and using the internet protocol (e) None of these Explanation: An intranet is a private network accessible only to an organization's staff.
Q8.What does LAN stands for? (a) Lane Area Network (b) Local Army Network (c) Local Area Network (d) Local Area Networking (e) None of these Explanation: LAN stands for Local Area Network.
Q9. If you wish to extend the length of the network withouthaving the signal degrade, you would use a ______. (a) repeater (b) router (c) gateway (d)switch (e) None of these Explanation: If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a repeater.
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Q10.LANs can be connected by devices called ______which operate on the data link layer. (a) hub (b) bridges (c) HDLC (d) tunnel (e) None of these Explanation: LANs can be connected by bridges. Bridge is a device used to connect two separate Ethernet networks into one extended Ethernet.
Set-10
Q1. By firmware we understand ______(a) Physical equipment used in a computer system (b) A set of instructions that causes a computer to perform one or more tasks. (c) The people involved in the computing process. (d) A set of programs that is pre-installed into the read-only memory of a computer during the time of manufacturing (e) None of these Explanation: Firmware is programming that's written to the read-only memory (ROM) of a computing device. Firmware, which is added at the time of manufacturing, is used to run user programs on the device.
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Q2. What is an ad hoc query? (a) Pre-planned question (b) Pre-scheduled question (c) Spur-of-the-moment question (d) Question that will not return any results (e) None of these Explanation: An Ad-Hoc Query is a query that cannot be determined prior to the moment the query is issued. It is created in order to get information when need arises and it consists of dynamically constructed SQL which is usually constructed by desktop-resident query tools.
Q3. A ______is used to direct and dispatch data packets between two different networks. (a) Connection (b) Bridge (c) Gateway (d) Hub (e) Router Explanation: A router is used to route data packets between two different networks. It reads the information in each packet to tell where it is going. If it is destined for an immediate network it has access to, it will strip the outer packet (IP packet for example), readdress the packet to the proper ethernet address, and transmit it on that network.
Q4. Dr. E.F. Codd represented ______rules that a database must obey if it has to be considered truly relational.
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(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 6 (e) 5 Explanation: Dr Edgar F. Codd, after his extensive research on the Relational Model of database systems, came up with twelve rules of his own, which according to him, a database must obey in order to be regarded as a true relational database.
Q5. Which of the following is a software used for Remote Connection? (a) TeamViewer (b) Picasa (c) Prisma (d) Safari (e) Intel Connect Explanation: TeamViewer is a proprietary computer software package for remote connection, desktop sharing, online meetings, web conferencing and file transfer between computers.
Q6. E-R modeling technique uses which approach? (a) Top-down approach (b) Bottom-up approach (c) Left-right approach (d) Both top-down and bottom-up
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(e) None of these Explanation: E-R model uses top-down approach
Q7. Which among the following options is the application that combines text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or animation? (a) Multimedia (b) Minimedias (c) Videoscapes (d) Motionware (e) Maxomedia Explanation: Multimedia is content that uses a combination of different content forms such as text, audio, images, animation, video and interactive content.
Q8. Commands at the top of a screen such as File-Edit, Format and Tools to operate and change things are incorporated in ______. (a) Menu bar (b) Tool bar (c) User friendly (d) Word processor (e) None of these Explanation: Those commands, options are available in menu bar.
Q9. Auxiliary memory is also called ______.
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(a) Primary memory (b) Third memory (c) Extra memory (d) Secondary memory (e) None of the above Explanation: Auxiliary memory is also called secondary memory.
Q10. The startup routine runs, when machine boots up is known as ______. (a) POST (b) BOOT up (c) Operating Routine (d) I/O operation (e) None of these Explanation: The startup routine runs, when machine boots up is BOOT up.
Set-11
Q1. COBOL is widely used in ______applications. (a) Commercial (b) Scientific (c) Space (d) Mathematical (e) None of these
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Explanation: COBOL (Common Business Oriented Language) was the first widely-used high- level programming language for business applications.
Q2. Which of the following programming language is used for creating special programs like applets? (a) Java (b) Cable (c) Domain name (d) Net (e) COBOL Explanation: An applet is a program that runs in a Web browser. An applet can be a fully functional Java application because it has the entire Java API at its disposal.
Q3. C, C++, Java, BASIC and COBOL are examples of ______languages. (a) Low level programming (b) High level programming (c) System programming (d) Computer (e) None of these Explanation: All these are the examples of high level language. A High-level language is any programming language that enables development of a program in much simpler programming context and is generally independent of the computer's hardware architecture. However, for a computer to understand and run a program created with a high-level language, it must be compiled into machine language.
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Q4. FORTRAN was introduced in the year: (a) 1945 (b) 1949 (c) 1950 (d) 1957 (e) 1959 Explanation: Fortran was originally developed by a team at IBM in 1957 for scientific calculations. Later developments made it into a high-level programming language.
Q5. COBOL was introduced in the year ______by US Government. (a) 1957 (b) 1959 (c) 1960 (d) 1971 (e) None of these Explanation: COBOL was developed by the Conference on Data Systems Languages (CODASYL) around in 1959. It was one of the first high-level programming languages created. COBOL is run on the mainframe as well as on the PC.
Q6. 4GL (4th Generation Language) is ______. (a) Non-procedural language (b) Procedural language (c) Structure language (d) All of the above
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(e) None of these Explanation: 4th Generation Language is Non- procedural language.
Q7. ______converts assembly language program to object program. (a) Complier (b) Assembler (c) RAM (d) Linker (e) None of these Explanation: Assembler a computer program which translates assembly language to an object file or machine language format.
Q8. Which of the following languages is suited to a structured program? (a) PL/1 (b) FORTRAN (c) BASIC (d) PASCAL (e) None of these Explanation: PASCAL a small, efficient language intended to encourage good programming practices using structured programming and data structuring
Q9. Which of the following statement closely associates with a Complier? (a) Translator to convert source program into object code
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(b) Name given to the computer operator (c) Part of the digital machine to store information (d) Operator of Boolean Algebra (e) Part of arithmetic logic unit Explanation: A compiler is a computer program (or a set of programs) that transforms source code written in a programming language (the source language) into another computer language (the target language), with the latter often having a binary form known as object code.
Q10. Which of the following translator is slow in execution? (a) Interpreter (b) Complier (c) Assembler (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: Computer language processor that translate a program line-by-line, so it is slow in execution.
Set-12
Q1. What is the main folder on a storage device called? (a) Platform (b) Interface (c) Root directory (d) Homepage
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(e) None of these Explanation: the root directory is the first or top-most directory in a hierarchy.
Q2. Caps lock, num-lock are known as… (a) Modifier key (b) Toggle key (c) Function key (d) Numeric key (e) None of these Explanation: A toggle key is a key that is used to turn a function on or off, or to switch between two functions. Examples of toggle keys are the caps lock key, number lock key and scroll lock key
Q3. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process is known as a______(a) digit (b) kilo byte (c) Bit (d) Byte (e) None of these Explanation: Bit is the smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process.
Q4. The general term peripheral equipment is used for ------(a) Any device that attached to a computer system
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(b) Large scale computer system (c) A program collection (d) Other office equipment (e) None of these Explanation: Peripheral equipment (also called: input and output devices) connects a computer to other things.
Q5. Which device can understand the difference between data and programs? (a) Input device (b) Output device (c) Memory (d) Processor (e) None of these Explanation: Processor can only understand the difference between data and programs.
Q6. The simultaneous execution of two or more instructions is called …………… (a) Sequential access (b) Reduced instruction set (c) Multiprocessing (d) disk mirroring (e) None Explanation: Multiprocessing operating systems enable several programs to run concurrently. UNIX is one of the most widely used multiprocessing systems
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Q7. The Width of a processor’s data path is measured in bits. Which of the following are common data paths? (a) 8 bits (b) 12 bits (c) 16 bits (d) 32 bits (e) None of these Explanation: 8 bits is a common data path.
Q8. Which of the type of memory for information that does not change on your computer? (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) ERAM (d) RW/RAM (e) None of these Explanation: ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off
Q9. Before a disk can be used to store data. It must be …………… (a) Formatted (b) Reformatted (c) Addressed (d) Readdressed
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(e) None of the above Explanation: You need to format the disk in drive before you can use it
Q10. The original ASCII code used …………… bits of each byte, reserving that last bit for error checking (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) None of these Explanation: ASCII code used 8 bits.
Set-13
Q1. Which of the following is used by the browser to connect to the location of the Internet resources? (a) Linkers (b) Protocol (c) Cable (d) URL (e) None of these Explanation: URL is the abbreviation of Uniform Resource Locator. It is the global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web
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Q2. IPv6 addressed have a size of_____ (a) 32 bits (b) 64 bits (c) 128 bits (d) 265 bits (e) None of these Explanation: The most obvious improvement in IPv6 over IPv4 is that IP addresses are lengthened from 32 bits to 128 bits.
Q3. An educational institution would generally have the following in its domain name. (a) .org (b) .edu (c) .com (d) .inst (e) .sch Explanation: The domain name edu is a sponsored top-level domain (sTLD) in the Domain Name System of the Internet
Q4. Anycast address routing datagrams from ______. (a) also called multicast address (b) is a group of nodes (c) one to many association (d) one to nearest association (e) None of the above
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Explanation: Anycast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which datagrams from a single sender are routed to the topologically nearest node in a group
Q5. Which of the following functions are not performed by servers? (a) E-mail processing (b) Database sharing (c) Processing web sites (d) Storage (e) Word processing Explanation: A server is an instance of a computer program that accepts and responds to requests made by another program, known as a client. It does not perform the functions of word processing.
Q6. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as- (a) pulling (b) pushing (c) downloading (d) transferring (e) None of these Explanation: From the Internet user's point-of-view, to download a file is to request it from another computer (or from a Web page on another computer) and to receive it.
Q7. The standard protocol of the Internet is-
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(a) TCP/IP (b) Java (c) HTML (d) Flash (e) None of these Explanation: TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is the basic communication language or protocol of the Internet
Q8. Which of the following term is associated with Internet/E-mail (a) Plotter (b) Slide presentation (c) Bookmark (d) Pei chart (e) Microsoft Excel Explanation: A bookmark is a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) that is stored for later retrieval in any of various storage formats.
Q9. The IP address 135.0.10.27 belongs to which address class- (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these Explanation:
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Class A range starts from 0.0.0.0 to 127.2555.255.255 Class B range starts from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255 Class C range starts from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 Class D range starts from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 Class E range starts from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255
Q10. With an IP address of 100, you have currently 80 subnets. What subnet mask should you use to maximize the number of available hosts? (a) 192 (b) 240 (c) 248 (d) 224 (e) 252 Explanation: A Subnet mask is a 32-bit number that masks an IP address, and divides the IP address into network address and host address.
Set-14
Q1. Windows operating system was developed by: (a) Apple Inc. (b) Microsoft (c) Wipro (d) IBM (e) Sun Enterprises Explanation:
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Microsoft Windows (or simply Windows) is a metafamily of graphical operating systems developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft. It consists of several families of operating systems
Q2. Windows 98 (codenamed : Memphis) was developed in- (a) 1989 (b) 1998 (c) 2005 (d) 2006 (e) 2007 Explanation: Windows 98 (June 1998) offers support for a number of new technologies, including FAT32, AGP, MMX, USB, DVD, and ACPI. Its most visible feature, though, is the Active Desktop, which integrates the Web browser (Internet Explorer) with the operating system
Q3. ______is when the more power-hungry components, such as the monitor and hard drive, are put in idle. (a) Hibernation (b) Powerdown (c) Standby mode (d) The shutdown procedure (e) None of the above Explanation: Stand By. Alternatively referred to as sleep mode, Standby or Stand by is a mode the computer monitor, or other device, enters when idle for too long.
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Q4. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by ______. (a) symbols (b) labels (c) graphs (d) icons (e) None of these Explanation: An icon is a small graphical representation of a program or file that, when clicked on, will be run or opened. Icons are used with Graphical User Interface (GUI) operating systems, such as Microsoft Windows and the Apple Mac OS, to help quickly identify a type of file or program associated with the icon.
Q5. A small arrow or blinking symbol on desktop is called _____ . (a) mouse (b) logo (c) hand (d) cursor (e) palm Explanation: Blinking symbol or arrow on desktop is called cursor.
Q6. Help menu is available at which button? (a) End (b) Start (c) Turn Off (d) Restart
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(e) Reboot Explanation: Help button is available at start button.
Q7. Date and time are available on the desktop at - (a) keyboard (b) recycle bin (c) my computer (d) task bar (e) None of these Explanation: The task bar was introduced with Windows 95 and has been part of every version of Windows since then. It is the bar that spans the bottom of the screen and contains the Start button on the left side and the systray on the right. The task bar also includes the current time on the far-right side and can hold shortcuts to programs directly to the right of the Start button.
Q8. Which of the following is referred as Background of screen? (a) application (b) desktop (c) window (d) frame (e) None of these Explanation: Desktop is referred as background of screen.
Q9. Menu is a part of the______.
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(a) hardware (b) user interface (c) status bar (d) monitor (e) None of these Explanation: The system menu (also called the window menu or control menu) is a popup menu in Microsoft Windows, accessible by left-clicking on the upper-left icon of most windows, or by pressing the Alt and Space keys and it is a part of the user interface.
Q10. The recycle bin stores deleted items until______. (a) another user logs on (b) the computer is shutdown (c) the end of the day (d) you empty it (e) None of the above Explanation: Recycle bin stores items until someone empty it.
Set-15
Q1. Portable computer also known as laptop computer weighing between 4 and 10 pounds is called - (a) general-purpose application (b) internet (c) scanner
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(d) printer (e) notebook computer Explanation: An extremely lightweight personal computer. Notebook computers generally weigh less than 6 pounds and are small enough to fit easily in a briefcase.
Q2. The main distinguishing feature of fifth generation digital computer will be - (a) liberal and microprocessors (b) artificial intelligence (c) extremely low cost (d) versatility (e) None of the above Explanation: Fifth generation computing devices, based on artificial intelligence, are still in development, though there are some applications, such as voice recognition, that are being used today.
Q3. A personal computer design to meet the computing needs of a(n)______. (a) individual (b) department (c) company (d) city (e) None of these Explanation:
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Personal computers or micro computers are design to meet the needs of an individual.
Q4. Dedicated Computer means_____. (a) Doesn’t have OS (b) Used by single person (c) Assigned to one and only one task (d) All of above (e) None of these Explanation: Dedicated Computers are designed to do only one task. Example of dedicated computers is “File servers" manage a large collection of computer files.
Q5. A Pixel is ______. (a) A computer program that draws picture (b) A picture stored in secondary memory (c) The smallest resolvable part of a picture (d) None of these (e) All of the above Explanation: In digital imaging, a pixel, pel, dots, or picture element is a physical point in a raster image, or the smallest addressable element in an all points addressable display device; so it is the smallest controllable element of a picture represented on the screen.
Q6. In Computer terminology ‘CAD’ is stands for____. (a) Computer and Design
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(b) Computer Algorithm in Design (c) Computer Aided Design (d) Computer and Device (e) None of the above Explanation: CAD, or computer-aided design, is the use of computer technology for design and design documentation. CAD software replaces manual drafting with an automated process.
Q7. What is Unicode? (a) Standard Font (b) Software (c) Character Encoding System (d) keyboard Layout (e) None of the above Explanation: Unicode is a character encoding standard that has widespread acceptance and it is also an international encoding standard for use with different languages and scripts, by which each letter, digit, or symbol is assigned a unique numeric value that applies across different platforms
Q8. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now? (a) Mainframe (b) Micro computer (c) Mini computer (d) Both (b) and (c) (e) None of the above
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Explanation: Personal computers are also known as micro computers.
Q9. Which of the following is generally costlier? (a) Server (b) Notebook computer (c) Personal computer (d) Laptop computer (e) Mainframe Explanation: A mainframe computer is a very large computer capable of handling and processing very large amounts of data quickly so it is costlier then other given computers.
Q10. ______processing is used in mainframe computer. (a) Batch (b) Parallel (c) Serial (d) Toggle (e) None of these Explanation: Batch processing is used in mainframe computers. Set-16
Q1. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a _____. (a) Repeater
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(b) Router (c) Gateway (d) Switch (e) None of these Explanation: A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and re-transmits it at a higher level or higher power, or onto the other side of an obstruction, so that the signal can cover longer distances.
Q2. What is a Firewall in Computer Network? (a) The physical boundary of Network (b) An operating System of Computer Network (c) A system designed to prevent unauthorized access (d) A web browsing Software (e) None of these Explanation: Firewall in Computer Network is a system designed to prevent unauthorized access.
Q3. The process of trading goods over the internet is known as ______. (a) E-selling-n-buying (b) E-trading (c) E-finance (d) E-salesmanship (e) E-commerce Explanation: E-commerce is the process of trading goods over the internet.
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Q4. C was developed by ______. (a) Ada Byron (b) Bill Gates (c) Blaise Pascale (d) Dennis Ritchie (e) None of these Explanation: Dennis Ritchie is developer of C language.
Q5. Which of the following is a programming language? (a) Lotus (b) Pascal (c) MS-Excel (d) Netscape (e) None of these Explanation: Pascal is the only programming language among given options.
Q6. The term is used to describe the intangible instructions that tell the computer what to do is known as______. (a) Hardware (b) Software (c) Storage (d) Input/output (e) None of these
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Explanation: Software is the intangible component through which a computer may receive instructions.
Q7. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called______. (a) Mentor (b) Instructor (c) Complier (d) Program (e) Debugger Explanation: A program is a set of instructions that govern functioning of a computer.
Q8. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called_____. (a) Operating system (b) Helper software (c) System software (d) Application software (e) Utility software Explanation: Application software are designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources
Q9. _____ is a Windows utility program that located and eliminates unnecessary fragments and rearranges filed and unused to disk space to optimise operations.
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(a) Backup (b) Disk cleanup (c) Disk defragmenter (d) Restore (e) Disk restorer Explanation: Disk defragmenter is a Windows utility program that located and eliminates unnecessary fragments and rearranges filed and unused to disk space to optimise operations.
Q10. Which command is used to set a name to a disk in DOS? (a) VOLUME (b) VOL (c) LABEL (d) DISKLABEL (e) None of these Explanation: label (command) In computing, label is a command included with some operating systems (e.g., DOS, OS/2 and Microsoft Windows). It is used to create, change, or delete a volume label on a logical drive, such as a hard disk partition or a floppy disk. corresponding main memory location at the same time. The cached data allows for fast retrieval on demand, while the same data in main memory ensures that nothing will get lost if a crash, power failure, or other system disruption occurs.
Set-17
Q1. Which among the following is also known as Number cruncher?
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(a) Mini computer (b) Super computer (c) Micro computer (d) Mainframe computer (e) None of these Explanation: Supercomputers are designed to be excellent number crunchers.
Q2. ______is usually recorded and played, displayed, or accessed by information content processing devices, such as computerized and electronic devices, but can also be part of a live performance. (a) Virus (b) BIOS software (c) Multimedia (d) C++ (e) None of these Explanation: Multimedia is content that uses a combination of different content forms such as text, audio, images, animation, video and interactive content. Multimedia can be recorded and played, displayed, dynamic, interacted with or accessed by information content processing devices, such as computerized and electronic devices, but can also be part of a live performance.
Q3. Which among the following is a symbol on the screen that represents a disk, document or program that you can select? (a) Keys (b) Caps (c) Icon
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(d) Monitor (e) None of these Explanation: An icon is a small graphical representation of a program or file that, when clicked on, will be run or opened. Icons are used with Graphical User Interface (GUI) operating systems, such as Microsoft Windows and the Apple Mac OS, to help quickly identify a type of file or program associated with the icon.
Q4. What does a Bug mean? (a) Logical error in a program (b) Syntax error in a program (c) Run time error (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) None of the above Explanation: In computer programming, a logic error is a bug in a program that causes it to operate incorrectly, but not to terminate abnormally (or crash). A logic error produces unintended or undesired output or other behavior, although it may not immediately be recognized as such.
Q5. The number of function keys in a keyboard is (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) 15 (e) 16 Explanation: There are 12 function keys in a keyboard F1 to F12.
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Q6. What is Direct X? (a) Operating system (b) Software that drives graphics hardware (c) Web browser (d) Word processing software (e) None of these Explanation: Microsoft DirectX is a collection of application programming interfaces (APIs) for handling tasks related to multimedia, especially game programming and video, on Microsoft platforms.
Q7. The barcode which is used on all types of items, is read by a scanning device directly into the computer. What is the name of this scanning device? (a) Laser scanner (b) Wand (c) OCR (d) MICR (e) Dot Matrix Explanation: Laser scanner can scan and read bar code.
Q8. A key that will erase information from the computer’s memory and characters on the screen. (a) Edit (b) Delete key (c) Dummy out
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(d) Trust key (e) None of these Explanation: Delete key is used to delete data.
Q9. Hybrid computer used the combined feature of ______and ______machine. (a) analogue, digital (b) super, sub (c) client, server (d) warehouse, mining (e) RAM, ROM Explanation: Hybrid computers are computers that exhibit features of analog computers and digital computers. The digital component normally serves as the controller and provides logical and numerical operations, while the analog component often serves as a solver of differential equations and other mathematically complex equations.
Q10. Which program, installed on the user’s computer help him to communicate or send request on the network? (a) Paint (b) File Manager (c) Browser (d) Word (e) None of the above Explanation:
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A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web.
Set-18
Q1. ______is a conceptual entity which is a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation concerned with the operation of a data processing system. (a) Software (b) Hardware (c) CPU (d) Hard disk (e) None of these Explanation: Software is a general term for the various kinds of programs used to operate computers and related devices.
Q2. Circuits, displays, power supplies, cables, keyboards and printers all are ______. (a) Software (b) Application (c) Hardware (d) Circuits (e) None of these
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Explanation: Computer hardware is the physical parts or components of a computer, such as monitor, keyboard, computer data storage, hard disk drive (HDD), graphic card, sound card, memory (RAM), motherboard, and so on.
Q3. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ______software to work together. (a) Management (b) Processing (c) Utility (d) Application (e) None of these Explanation: System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and application software to work together.
Q4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into- (a) websites (b) information (c) programs (d) objects (e) None of these Explanation: Because data itself is not useful but by processing it using some software we change it into information. Which can be useful.
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Q5. Among them which is not a software- (a) Internet Explorer (b) MS – DOS (c) MS Word (d) Printer (e) None of these Explanation: Printer is a hardware device.
Q6. Word processor is a(n) ______. (a) Application software (b) System software (c) Programmable software (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: Word processor is an Application software.
Q7. This can be another name for program______. (a) USB (b) Hard-disk (c) Hardware (d) Software (e) None of these
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Explanation: Software is a general term for the various kinds of programs used to operate computers and related devices.
Q8. ______software is all the computer software that causes a computer to perform useful tasks beyond the running of the computer itself. (a) Application (b) Word processing (c) DTP (d) CorelDraw (e) None of these Explanation: An application program (app or application for short) is a computer program designed to perform a group of coordinated functions, tasks, or activities for the benefit of the user.
Q9. What is a collection of programs written to provide services to other programs? (a) Real time software (b) Business software (c) System software (d) Embedded software (e) None of these Explanation: System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs.
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Q10. In recent years, the abbreviation ______has specifically come of mean application software written for mobile devices, with the abbreviation in particular representing both the smaller size and smaller scope of the software. (a) APPL (b) APP (c) APL (d) APN (e) None of these Explanation: In recent years, the abbreviation "app" has specifically come to mean application software written for mobile devices, with the abbreviation in particular representing both the smaller size and smaller scope of the software (i.e. an app whose sole purpose is to display an image representation of the current weather).
Set-19
Q1. In DOS, which of the following command is used to delete all the files as well as sub-directories of a directory? (a) DELETE (b) DEL (c) DELTREE (d) MOVE (e) None of these Explanation: Is a command line command in some operating systems that recursively deletes an entire subdirectory of files.
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Q2. What is/are the feature(s) of a Multi-processor? (a) it increases reliability (b) it distributes tasks (c) it saves money compared to multiple single system (d) All of the above (e) None of the above Explanation: A multiprocessor is a computer system with two or more central processing units (CPUs)- Benefits of using a multiprocessor include: Enhanced performance Multiple applications Multiple users Multi-tasking inside an application High throughput and/or responsiveness Hardware sharing among CPUs
Q3. ______is not the category of operating system’s task. (a) Virus protection (b) Processor management (c) Memory management (d) File management (e) Device management Explanation: Virus protection is not the category of operating system task.
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Q4. A thread shares its resources with: (a) other threads that belong to the same process (b) other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to (c) other threads that belong to similar processes (d) All of the above (e) None of the above Explanation: A thread shares its resources with other threads that belong to the same process
Q5. Multi-programming systems- (a) execute each job faster (b) execute more jobs at the same time (c) are used only on large mainframe computers (d) are easier to develop than single programming systems (e) All of the above Explanation: Multi-programming systems execute more jobs at same time.
Q6. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system? (a) User interface (b) Language translator (c) Platform (d) Screen saver (e) None of the above
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Explanation: User interface is the means by which the user and a computer system interact, in particular the use of input devices and software.
Q7. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as: (a) Application Programming Interfaces (APIs). (b) complimentary Metal-Oxide Conductors (CMOS). (c) Device drivers. (d) Bootstrap loaders. (e) None of these Explanation: An API specifies how software components should interact.
Q8. ______is called as program in execution. (a) instruction (b) procedure (c) function (d) process (e) All of these Explanation: Program in execution is called the process.
Q9. Embedded operating system used: (a) On a PDA (b) On a desktop operating system
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(c) On a networked PC (d) On a network server (e) On a mainframe Explanation: An embedded system is a computer that is part of a different kind of machine. Examples include computers in cars, traffic lights, digital televisions, ATMs, airplane controls, point of sale (POS) terminals, digital cameras, GPS navigation systems, elevators, digital media receivers and smart meters, among many other possibilities.
Q10. Linux is a type of software- (a) shareware (b) commercial (c) proprietary (d) open source (e) Both (a) and (d) Explanation: Open-source software (OSS) is computer software with its source code made available with a license in which the copyright holder provides the rights to study, change, and distribute the software to anyone and for any purpose.
Set-20 Q1. A (n) ______device is any hardware component that allows you to enter data and instruction into a computer. (a) interaction (b) input (c) communications (d) output
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(e) terminal Explanation: Input devices are for giving input (entering data/instructions) to a computer.
Q2. The device that can both feed data into and accept data from a computer is called ______. (a) ALU (b) CPU (c) input-output device (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: I/O Device or Input Output device can both feed data into and accept data from a computer.
Q3. The insert, cap lock and num lock all are examples of ______keys. (a) Control (b) Function (c) Toggle (d) Shortcut (e) None of these Explanation: The insert, cap lock and num lock are all examples of Toogle keys. A toggle key toggles the input from a group of keys on a keyboard between two different input modes.
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Q4. An electronic device, operating under the control of instruction that can accept and process the data, produce output and store the results for future use is called ______. (a) Input (b) Computer (c) Software (d) Hardware (e) None of these Explanation: Computer is an electronic device operating under the control of instruction that can accept and process the data, produce output and store the results.
Q5. Computer gathers data, which means that it allow users to ______data. (a) Present (b) Input (c) Output (d) Process (e) None of these Explanation: Computer allows user to input data, and by user’s inputs it gathers data.
Q6. The smallest unit of information, a computer can understand and process is known as ______. (a) Digit (b) Byte (c) Megabyte
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(d) Bit Explanation: Bit is the smallest unit of information.
Q7. Computers use the ______number system to store data and perform calculations. (a) Binary (b) Decimal (c) Octal (d) Hexadecimal (e) None of these Explanation: Computer uses binary number system.
Q8. Mozilla Firefox is a _____. (a) Spreadsheet (b) Word processing software (c) Web browser (d) Programming software (e) None of these Explanation: Mozilla Firefox is a web browser.
Q9. _____ is usually recorded and played, displayed, or accessed by information content processing devices, which as computerized and electronic devices, but can also be part of live performance. (a) Virus
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(b) BIOS software (c) Multimedia (d) C++ (e) None of these Explanation: Multimedia is the field concerned with the computer-controlled integration of text, graphics, drawings, still and moving images (Video), animation, audio, and any other media where every type of information can be represented, stored, transmitted and processed digitally.
Q10. Which of the following appropriately relates with starting up an operating system? (a) Starting (b) Entering (c) Formatting (d) Booting (e) None of these Explanation: Booting is a startup sequence that starts the operating system of a computer when it is turned on. A boot sequence is the initial set of operations that the computer performs when it is switched on. Every computer has a boot sequence. Set-21
Q1. A ______is a collection of computers and device connected together. (a) Network (b) Protocol
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(c) Memory card (d) CPU (e) None of these Explanation: A computer network is a set of computers connected together for the purpose of sharing resources. The most common resource shared today is connection to the Internet.
Q2. To create a ______, personal computers can be connected together. (a) Server (b) Super computer (c) Enterprise (d) Network (e) None of these Explanation: To create a network personal computers can connect together.
Q3. Servers are computers that provide resources to the other computers connected to a ______. (a) Network (b) Mainframe (c) Super computer (d) Clients (e) None of these Explanation: Servers are computers that provide resources to the other computers connected to a network.
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Q4. Which of the following terms is associated with network? (a) MS Excel (b) Mouse (c) Word (d) Connectivity (e) Plotter Explanation: Network connectivity is also a kind of metric to discuss how well parts of the network connect to one another.
Q5. If refers to a set of rules that co-ordinates the exchange of information. (a) Transmission mode (b) Protocol (c) Half-duplex (d) Full-duplex (e) None of these Explanation: A set of guidelines for implementing networking communications between computers is called computers.
Q6. ______is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line. (a) Digital transmission (b) Infrared transmission (c) Digitising (d) Streaming
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(e) Multi-plexing Explanation: Multiplexing (or muxing) is a way of sending multiple signals or streams of information over a communications link at the same time in the form of a single, complex signal;
Q7. In a client/server network, the user’s computer is considered as the- (a) Client (b) Website (c) Library (d) Server (e) Hoster Explanation: In a client/server network, the user’s computer is considered as the client.
Q8. The OSI model consists of _____ layers. (a) Nine (b) Eight (c) Seven (d) Five (e) Eleven Explanation: OSI model consist of 7 layers.
Q9. The advantage of a LAN is- (a) Sharing peripherals
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(b) Backing up your data (c) Saving all your data (d) Accessing the web (e) Automatic printing of data Explanation: LAN can be used for sharing the peripherals (such as external hard drives and printers). You can share one microphone and set of speakers between all your connected computers.
Q10. Full form of NIC- (a) Network Interface Card (b) Network International Connection (c) Network Inter Connection (d) National Interface Card (e) None of these Explanation: A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card that is installed in a computer so that it can be connected to a network.
Set-22
Q1. Windows operating system was developed by: (a) Apple Inc. (b) Microsoft (c) Wipro (d) IBM (e) Sun Enterprises
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Explanation: Microsoft Windows (or simply Windows) is a metafamily of graphical operating systems developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft. It consists of several families of operating systems
Q2. Windows 98 (codename : Memphis) was developed in- (a) 1989 (b) 1998 (c) 2005 (d) 2006 (e) 2007 Explanation: Windows 98 (June 1998) offers support for a number of new technologies, including FAT32, AGP, MMX, USB, DVD, and ACPI. Its most visible feature, though, is the Active Desktop, which integrates the Web browser (Internet Explorer) with the operating system
Q3. ______is when the more power-hungry components, such as the monitor and hard drive, are put on idle. (a) Hibernation (b) Powerdown (c) Standby mode (d) The shutdown procedure (e) None of the above Explanation: Stand By. Alternatively referred to as sleep mode, Standby or Stand by is a mode the computer monitor, or other device, enters when idle for too long.
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Q4. The general term peripheral equipment is used for ------(a) Any device that attached to a computer system (b) Large scale computer system (c) A program collection (d) Other office equipment (e) None of these Explanation: Peripheral equipment (also called: input and output devices) connects a computer to other things.
Q5. Which device can understand the difference between data and programs? (a) Input device (b) Output device (c) Memory (d) Processor (e) None of these Explanation: Processor can only understand the difference between data and programs.
Q6. The simultaneous execution of two or more instructions is called …………… (a) Sequential access (b) Reduced instruction set (c) Multiprocessing (d) disk mirroring (e) None Explanation:
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Multiprocessing operating systems enable several programs to run concurrently. UNIX is one of the most widely used multiprocessing systems
Q7. The standard protocol of the Internet is (a) TCP/IP (b) Java (c) HTML (d) Flash (e) None of these Explanation: TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is the basic communication language or protocol of the Internet
Q8. Which of the following term is associated with Internet/E-mail (a) Plotter (b) Slide presentation (c) Bookmark (d) Pei chart (e) Microsoft Excel Explanation: A bookmark is a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) that is stored for later retrieval in any of various storage formats.
Q9. The IP address 135.0.10.27 belongs to address class (a) A (b) B (c) C
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(d) D (e) None of these Explanation: Class A range starts from 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255 Class B range starts from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255 Class C range starts from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 Class D range starts from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 Class E range starts from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255
Q10. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently travel from system to system and disrupt computer communication? (a) Trojans (b) Viruses (c) Worm (d) Droppers (e) All of these Explanation: A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it.
Set-23
Q1. Android is a mobile operating system designed primarily for touchscreen mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets. Which among the following was the first Android Operating System? (a) Cupcake
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(b) Alpha (c) Gingerbread (d) Doughnut (e) Eclair Explanation: Alpha was android version 1.0 released on 23rd September 2008. Android is continually developed by Google and the Open Handset Alliance (OHA), and has seen a number of updates to its base operating system since the initial release.
Q2. Which among the following key combination can be used to search in Windows Explorer? (a) Ctrl+F (b) Ctrl+S (c) Ctrl+G (d) Alt+S (e) None of the above Explanation: Ctrl+F is the short cut key combination that can be used to search in Windows Explorer.
Q3. A router is a networking device that forwards data packets and is connected to two or more data lines from different networks. Which among the following was the earliest device which had almost the same functionality as that of a router? (a) Interface Delay Device (b) Interface Traffic Manager (c) Interface Routing Processor (d) Interface Message Processor
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(e) Interface Data Manager Explanation: The very first device that had fundamentally the same functionality as a router does today was the Interface Message Processor (IMP); IMPs were the devices that made up the ARPANET, the first TCP/IP network.
Q4. A vacuum tube (also called a VT, electron tube or, in the UK, a valve ) is a device sometimes used to amplify electronic signals. Vacuum Tubes were used in which generation of Computers? (a) 1st Generation (b) 2nd Generation (c) 3rd Generation (d) 4th Generation (e) 5th Generation Explanation: First Generation computers are characterized by the use of vacuum tubes. These vacuum tubes were used for calculation as well as storage and control. Later, magnetic tapes and magnetic drums were implemented as storage media. The first vacuum tube computer, ENIAC, was developed by US army ordinance to calculate ballistic firing tables in WWII. It had about 17 000 vacuum tubes.
Q5. In Computer programming API is set of subroutine definitions, protocols, and tools for building software and applications. Which among the following is an application programming interface for the programming language Java, which defines how a client may access a database? (a) J2EE (b) JDK (c) JAVA SE
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(d) JDBC (e) JSX Explanation: Java Database Connectivity (JDBC) is an application programming interface (API) for the programming language Java, which defines how a client may access a database. It is part of the Java Standard Edition platform, from Oracle Corporation.
Q6. Which of the following error occurs when software tries to access protected memory? (a) Segmentation Fault (b) Displaytime Error (c) IO Error (d) Runtime Error (e) Zero Division Error Explanation: A segmentation fault is a common condition that causes programs to crash; they are often associated with a file named core. They are caused by a program trying to read or write an illegal memory location. In other words, this is a memory access violation error.
Q7. Which among the following is a term representing unit of data storage in computer memory? (a) Pixel (b) Decimal (c) Octet (d) Point (e) Fragment
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Explanation: Octet is another name for a byte=8bits
Q8. Microsoft PowerPoint is a slide show presentation program for use on both Microsoft and Apple Macintosh operating systems. In MS PowerPoint Broadcast is a feature available in which tab? (a) File (b) View (c) Slide Show (d) Transitions (e) Review Explanation: Broadcast slideshow is a feature available under Slide Show Tab in PowerPoint.
Q9. Which among the following carries signals that control the actions of the computer? (a) Control Bus (b) Data Bus (c) Memory Unit (d) NIC (e) Address Bus Explanation: Communication between the CPU and control bus is necessary for running a proficient and functional system. Without the control bus the CPU cannot determine whether the system is receiving or sending data. It is the control bus that regulates which direction the write and read information need to go.
Q10. Which among the following is not a secondary memory?
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(a) Cache (b) Pen Drive (c) Hard Disk (d) Memory Card (e) Memory Stick Explanation: Cache is not secondary memory. Set-24
Q1. Which of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage? (a) Floppy Disk (b) RAM (c) Flash Drive (d) Hard Disk (e) Optical Disk Explanation: Random Access Memory (RAM) cannot store information permanently; therefore, it is not a secondary storage device.
Q2. While surfing the internet, the storage area that compensates for the varying speeds of data flow of timings of events by storing a block of data temporarily that is in queue to be processed is known as- (a) buffer (b) cache (c) flash (d) trash
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(e) None of these Explanation: Buffer refers to the area of a physical memory storage that stores data temporarily while transferring data from one location to another.
Q3. Name the CPU that is created particularly to handle the process of communication. Its main purpose is to reduce the job of communication processing from the host system so that it can handle applications and jobs related to processing of data. (a) Backend processor (b) Front-end processor (c) Node processor (d) Files-server (e) None of these Explanation: The front-End Processor (FEP) is used to manage I/O communications to decrease load from a mainframe computer.
Q4. Which of the following is sued to transfer data intended for a peripheral device into a disk so that it can be transmitted to the peripheral device at a more suitable time or in bulk? (a) Virtual programming (b) Multi programming (c) Caching (d) Multitasking (e) Spooling Explanation:
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Spooling is a technique to hold data temporarily in the computer memory and provide to devices when they need it. The temporary holding area of the memory is sometimes referred to as the buffer. One common example of spooling is printing, where files are stored in the buffer and sent to the printer when it is ready.
Q5. The device that forwards message/data packets between networks is known as ______. (a) Backbone (b) Router (c) Node (d) Server (e) Bridge Explanation: A router refers to a networking device that can forward packets between same or different network.
Q6. Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides access control? (a) Physical (b) Presentation (c) Session (d) Data Link (e) None of these Explanation: Data link layer is the second layer of the OSI model that transmits error-free data over the physical layer. It is divided into two sublayers namely media access control (MAC) sublayer and logical link control (LLC) sublayer. The MAC sublayer is responsible for sharing the network connectivity between the
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computers in the network. This sublayer provides addressing and access control features.
Q7. What do you mean by an octet? (a) A protocol (b) An encryption technique (c) A unit of digital information (d) A unit of speed (e) None of these Explanation: Octet is a unit of digital information used in computing and telecommunications.
Q8. The SubSeven is an example of - (a) Antivirus (b) Spyware (c) Spam (d) Adware (e) Trojan horse Explanation: SubSeven is a Trojan horse program that appears or pretends to be a genuine application, but actually causes damage to the executable files on the computer.
Q9. Which type of network would phone lines use? (a) WAN (b) LAN
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(c) WWAN (d) Wireless (e) None of these Explanation: Wide Area Network (WAN) usually uses telephone lines or connectivity, as WAN is spread over a large area and offers Internet-related services such as browsing, email, chatting etc.
Q10. Which amongst the following is not a valid domain extension? (a) .biz (b) .co.in (c) .net (d) .bij (e) .cn Explanation: Domain extension or top-level domain specifies the type of website. The .biz represents the business website. The .co.in specifies the commercial website of India. The .net is used for networking. The .cn is the country code top-level domain for China.
Set-25
Q1. What does 'GIF' Stands for? (a) Graphics Interchange Format (b) Geo Interchange Format (c) Graphical Interconnection Format
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(d) Graphics Interlace Format (e) Graphics Interchange File Explanation: The Graphics Interchange Format is a bitmap image format that was introduced by CompuServe in 1987 and has since come into widespread usage on the World Wide Web due to its wide support and portability.
Q2. Which tracking program records every keystroke you make on the computer? (a) ITrack/ULead (b) eFollow (c) Key logger (d) Stalking software (e) None of the above Explanation: Keystroke logging, often referred to as key logger or keyboard capturing, is the action of recording (logging) the keys struck on a keyboard, typically covertly, so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored.
Q3. What is the cyber-attack called when you are rerouted from your requested internet site to another, undesired site? (a) Phishing (b) Pharming (c) Redirecting (d) Hijacking (e) None of the above Explanation:
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Pharming is a cyber-attack intended to redirect a website's traffic to another, fake site. Pharming can be conducted either by changing the hosts file on a victim's computer or by exploitation of a vulnerability in DNS server software. DNS servers are computers responsible for resolving Internet names into their real IP addresses.
Q4. Processing involves ______. (a) inputting data into a computer system (b) transforming input into output (c) displaying output in a useful manner (d) providing relevant answers (e) None of the above Explanation: In processing given data input is transformed into an output.
Q5. What is the term that refers to an ad hidden inside software that you downloaded from an internet site? (a) Spam (b) Phish (c) Cookie (d) Adware (e) None of the above Explanation: Adware is often bundled within software a computer owner purchases or downloads. Adware is a form of software that downloads or displays unwanted ads when a user is online, collects marketing data and other information without the user's knowledge or redirects search requests to certain advertising websites.
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Q6. What is SQL? (a) Language used to communicate with database (b) Language used for object oriented programming (c) Language used to program system software (d) Language used to hack into other systems (e) Language used for programming devices Explanation: SQL is a language used to communicate with database.
Q7. Changing cardinality in a database is____? (a) A common database design task (b) A rare database design task, but does occur (c) A database design task that never occurs (d) Is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it (e) Not a database design task Explanation: In the context of databases, cardinality refers to the uniqueness of data values contained in a column. High cardinality means that the column contains a large percentage of totally unique values. Low cardinality means that the column contains a lot of “repeats” in its data range.
Q8. Who is the father of computers? (a) John von Neumann (b) Albert Einstein (c) Charles Babbage
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(d) Joseph Eckert (e) None of the above Explanation: Charles Babbage was considered to be the father of computing after his invention and concept of the Analytical Engine in 1837. The Analytical Engine contained an Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU), basic flow control, and integrated memory; hailed as the first general-purpose computer concept.
Q9. What is the shortcut key to move one word to the left in MS Word? (a) Tab + Left Arrow (b) Alt + Left Arrow (c) Shift + Left Arrow (d) Ctrl + Left Arrow (e) None of the above Explanation: Ctrl + Left Arrow is the shortcut key combination to move one word to the left.
Q10. Who is said to be the first computer programmer? (a) Ada Lovelace (b) Charles Babbage (c) John Mauchly (d) Douglas Engelbart (e) None of the above Explanation: Ada Lovelace found a language of her own and wrote the world’s first computer program, long before the advent of the first computer. Set-26
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Q1. Select all the text in MS Word document by (a) Ctrl + S (b) Ctrl + 1 (c) Shift + A (d) Ctrl + A (e) None of these Explanation: Ctrl + A is used to select all the text.
Q2. MS Word is ______software. (a) System (b) Application (c) Programming (d) Compiler (e) None of these Explanation: MS word is an Application software. An Application software is a program or group of programs designed for end users,
Q3. The shortcut key for paste selected text/picture in MS Word is ______. (a) Ctrl + X (b) Ctrl + C (c) Ctrl + V (d) Ctrl + Z (e) None of these
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Explanation: Ctrl + V is a shortcut key used to paste text or image in MS Word
Q4. Which of the following is not an input device? (a) Mouse (b) Monitor (c) Keyboard (d) Microphone (e) None of these Explanation: Monitor is an output device.
Q5. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called _____ keys. (a) Modifier (b) Function (c) Alphanumeric (d) Adjustment (e) None of these Explanation: "Modifier keys are commonly used to enter keyboard shortcuts." A modifier key is a key that modifies the action of another key when the two are pressed together. Common modifier keys include Shift, Control, Alt, Command, Option, and Function
Q6. A button that makes characters either upper to a lower case and numbers to symbols is- (a) Monitor
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(b) Shift key (c) Icon (d) Mouse (e) None of these Explanation: The shift key is a modifier key on a keyboard, used to type capital letters and other alternate "upper" characters. There are typically two shift keys, on the left and right sides of the row below the home row.
Q7. A US standard keyboard follows (a) QWERTY model (b) 104-model (c) 108-model (d) All of these (e) None of these Explanation: QWERTY model used by US standard.
Q8. C++, Java, and PHP are ______programming language. (a) Procedure-oriented (b) Object oriented (c) Font oriented (d) Visual Basic (e) None of these Explanation: C++, Java, and PHP are Object-oriented programming language. Object-oriented programming (OOP) refers to a type of computer programming (software
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design) in which programmers define not only the data type of a data structure, but also the types of operations (functions) that can be applied to the data structure. In this way, the data structure becomes an object that includes both data and functions
Q9. Which of the following is a programming language? (a) Lotus (b) Pascal (c) MS-Excel (d) Netscape (e) None of these Explanation: In all these options Pascal is the programming language.
Q10. FORTRAN programming language is more suitable for ______. (a) Business Applications (b) Marketing Applications (c) Scientific Applications (d) None of the above (e) None of these Explanation: FORTRAN is a general-purpose, imperative programming language that is especially suited to numeric computation and scientific computing.
Set-27
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Q1. Which is the part of the computer system that one can physically touch? (a) data (b) operating system (c) hardware (d) software (e) None of these Explanation: hardware is tangible component in a computer system.
Q2. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets? (a) Java (b) cable (c) domain name (d) Net (e) COBOL Explanation: Java can be used to create applets. Applet is a very small application, especially a utility program performing one or a few simple functions.
Q3. What is the term to denote the smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process? (a) digit (b) byte (c) megabyte (d) bit (e) MB
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Explanation: A bit is the smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process.
Q4. Which among the following is not an operation of an operating system? (a) Communication manager (b) Processor manager (c) Device manager (d) Memory manager (e) None of the above Explanation: OS is not a Communication manager.
Q5. Which among the following term is used for: Unauthorized copying of software to be used for personal gain instead of personal backups? (a) program thievery (b) data snatching (c) software piracy (d) program looting (e) data looting Explanation: Software piracy is the illegal copying, distribution, or use of software.
Q6. In first generation of computers, they used ______. (a) batch processing (b) multithreading
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(c) multiprogramming (d) networking (e) All of the above Explanation: In First Generation mainly batch processing operating system were used.
Q7. Term referring to a person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage? (a) hacker (b) analyst (c) instant messenger (d) programmer (e) spammer Explanation: Hacker is someone who seeks and exploits weaknesses in a computer system.
Q8. To allow someone else schedule your meetings and appointments, ______feature of Outlook is used (a) Monthly calendar (b) Event manager (c) Appointments (d) Delegate Access (e) None of these Explanation: Delegate Access is a more advanced feature than just sharing your Outlook folders. If you want to grant additional permissions, such as allowing a delegate
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the ability to create e-mail messages or respond to meeting requests on your behalf, you must use Delegate Access.
Q9. Which of the following device used ‘set of beads’ to represent the unit of data? (a) ENIAC (b) EDVAC (c) Abacus (d) MARK-I (e) None of these Explanation: The abacus (plural abaci or abacuses), also called a counting frame, is a calculating tool with a set of beads for counting.
Q10. Antikythera mechanism was mainly used to perform which computation? (a) Astronomical calculation (b) Logarithm (c) Trigonometry (d) Time calculation (e) All of these Explanation: The Antikythera mechanism is an ancient analogue computer and orrery used to predict astronomical positions and eclipses for calendrical and astrological purposes, as well as the Olympiads, the cycles of the ancient Olympic Games.
Set-28
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Q1. Windows operating system was developed by: (a) Apple Inc. (b) Microsoft (c) Wipro (d) IBM (e) Sun Enterprises Explanation: Microsoft Windows (or simply Windows) is a metafamily of graphical operating systems developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft. It consists of several families of operating systems
Q2. Windows 98 (codenamed: Memphis) was developed in- (a) 1989 (b) 1998 (c) 2005 (d) 2006 (e) 2007 Explanation: Windows 98 (June 1998) offers support for a number of new technologies, including FAT32, AGP, MMX, USB, DVD, and ACPI. Its most visible feature, though, is the Active Desktop, which integrates the Web browser (Internet Explorer) with the operating system
Q3. ______is when the more power-hungry components, such as the monitor and hard drive, are put in idle. (a) Hibernation (b) Powerdown (c) Standby mode
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(d) The shutdown procedure (e) None of the above Explanation: Stand By. Alternatively referred to as sleep mode, Standby or Stand by is a mode the computer monitor, or other device, enters when idle for too long.
Q4. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by ______. (a) symbols (b) labels (c) graphs (d) icons (e) None of these Explanation: An icon is a small graphical representation of a program or file that, when clicked on, will be run or opened. Icons are used with Graphical User Interface (GUI) operating systems, such as Microsoft Windows and the Apple Mac OS, to help quickly identify a type of file or program associated with the icon.
Q5. Which was the computer designed by Babbage? (a) Analytical engine (b) Arithmetic machine (c) Donald knuth (d) All of the above (e) None of these Explanation: The Analytical Engine was a proposed mechanical general-purpose computer designed by English mathematician and computer pioneer Charles Babbage
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Q6. Computer’s basic architecture was developed by____ (a) Charles Babbage (b) Blaise Pascal (c) Steve Newton (d) John Von Neumann (e) Henery Johns Explanation: John Von Neumann wrote an incomplete set of notes, titled the First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC. This widely distributed paper laid foundations of a computer architecture in which the data and the program are both stored in the computer's memory.
Q7. ______is the father of punched card. (a) Herman Hollerith (b) Joanthan lva (c) Charles Babbage (d) Blaise Pascal (e) None of these Explanation: Herman Hollerith was an American inventor who developed an electromechanical punched card.
Q8. The person contributing the idea of stored program was____ (a) John Neumann (b) Howard Aiken (c) Dennis Ritchie
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(d) Charles Babbage (e) Denial Thomas Explanation: John Von Neumann wrote an incomplete set of notes, titled the First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC. This widely distributed paper laid foundations of a computer architecture in which the data and the program are both stored in the computer's memory.
Q9. EPROM is generally erased by using ______. (a) ultraviolet rays (b) infrared rays (c) 12V electrical pulse (d) 24V electrical pulse (e) None of the above Explanation: EPROM is generally erased by using ultraviolet rays.
Q10. Which of the following extension refers to System files? (a) .COM (b) .EXE (c) .SYS (d). PRG (e) None of these Explanation: ‘.SYS’ extension refers to System files Set-29
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Q1. Which among the following term is used for those hardware devices that are not part of the main computer system and are often added later to the system? (a) clip art (b) highlight (c) execute (d) peripheral (e) None of these Explanation: A peripheral device is generally defined as any auxiliary device such as a computer mouse or keyboard that connects to and works with the computer in some way.
Q2. A device that provides emergency power to your computer, conditions the voltage, and protects against power surges is called a ______.
(a) Power Supply Unit (b) Universal Surge Protector (c) Universal Power Protection and Supply (d) Uninterruptible Power Supply (e) None of the above Explanation: Uninterruptible Power Supply is a device that provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level.
Q3. A joystick is primarily used to/for ______. (a) Control sound on the screen (b) Computer gaming
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(c) Enter text (d) Draw pictures (e) Print text Explanation: Joystick is used for gaming.
Q4. Which of the following is true regarding Dumb Terminal in computer terminology? (a) It is a computer terminal that consists mostly of just a display monitor and a keyboard (b) It has no hard disk drive (HDD) (c) It has no internal CPU and thus has little or no processing power (d) All of the above (e) None of these Explanation: All the statements are true about Dumb Terminal.
Q5. Which among the following is a software design technique that emphasizes separating the functionality of a program into independent, interchangeable modules? (a) Programming language (b) Programming structure (c) Modular programming (d) Logic chart (e) None of the above Explanation:
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Modular programming is a software design technique that emphasizes separating the functionality of a program into independent, interchangeable modules, such that each contains everything necessary to execute only one aspect of the desired functionality.
Q6. Each box in a spreadsheet is called a ______. (a) Cell (b) Block (c) Field (d) Table (e) Empty space Explanation: Each box in a spreadsheet is called a cell.
Q7. ______key is the example of Toggle key (a) Alt (b) Shift (c) Control (d) Escape (e) Caps Lock Explanation: A Toggle key is a key that is operated the same way but with opposite effect on successive occasions
Q8. Which among the following is one of the category of the programs of system software? (a) Utility Programs
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(b) Operating System (c) Language Translator (d) All of the above (e) None of these Explanation: All are types of system software.
Q9. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends? (a) It is not unethical, because it is legal. (b) It is unethical because the files are being given for free. (c) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws. (d) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free. (e) It is not unethical - anyone can access a computer Explanation: It is illegal to break copyright laws. Copyright infringement is the use of works protected by copyright law without permission, infringing certain exclusive rights granted to the copyright holder, such as the right to reproduce, distribute, display or perform the protected work, or to make derivative works. Copyright infringement disputes are usually resolved through direct negotiation, a notice and take down process, or litigation in civil court.
Q10. Some viruses have delayed payload, which is sometimes called a ____. (a) time (b) anti-virus (c) bomb (d) action (e) call
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Explanation: Some viruses have a delayed payload, which is sometimes called a bomb. For example, a virus might display a message on a specific day or wait until it has infected a certain number of hosts. A time bomb occurs during a particular date or time, and a logic bomb occurs when the user of a computer takes an action that triggers the bomb.
Set-30
Q1. Which key should you use to indent the first paragraph of your report? (a) tab key (b) return key (c) space bar (d) shift key (e) None of these Explanation: Tab Key can be used for indentation.
Q2. Which of the following is true about Assembly language? (a) It is an Object Oriented Programming Language (b) It is a High-level programming language (c) It is a low-level programming language (d) It is a language for assembling computers (e) It is latest flash memory language Explanation: An assembly (or assembler) language, is a low-level programming language for a computer, or other programmable device
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Q3. Changing desktop wallpaper is a simple task which can be accessed through ______section of all control panel items. (a) Personalize (b) Image (c) Graphics (d) Windows (e) None of these Explanation: Wallpapers can be changed by the personalize section of all control panel items.
Q4. Different icons of application software can be found in which bar in latest version of Microsoft Windows? (a) Start Menu (b) Browser (c) Status (d) Control Panel (e) None of these Explanation: Microsoft re-introduced Start Menu bar and you can access various application software like paint or Word.
Q5. WORM stands for? (a) Write Once Read Many (b) Wanted Once Read Memory (c) Wanted Original Read Memory (d) Write Original Read Memory
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(e) None of the above Explanation: In computer storage media, WORM (write once, read many) is a data storage technology that allows information to be written to a disc a single time and prevents the drive from erasing the data. The discs are intentionally not rewritable, because they are especially intended to store data that the user does not want to erase accidentally.
Q6. The ______button on the Quick Access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or activities. (a) Search (b) Cut (c) Undo (d) Redo (e) Shift Explanation: To undo an action Click Undo Button on the Quick Access Toolbar. Keyboard shortcut Press CTRL+Z or F2. For the F2 function key to undo your last action, you might need to press the F-Lock key.
Q7. Which among the following is the system root folder for Microsoft Windows by default? (a) Windows Manager (b) C:/Windows (c) Task Manager (d) Cmd (e) Homegroup Explanation:
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By default, the system root folder for Microsoft Windows is C:/Windows. However, this can be changed for several reasons. The active partition on a hard drive could be designated by a letter other than C.
Q8.The process of connecting/ accessing to an account is called as: (a) Login (b) Logout (c) Sign In (d) Sign Out (e) None of these Explanation: Login is the process of connecting/ accessing to an account.
Q9. The first computers were programmed using which of the following language. (a) Assembly language (b) Machine language (c) Source code (d) Object code (e) None of the above Explanation: First computers were programmed using machine language.
Q10. Which one of the following is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record? (a) Candidate key (b) Sub key
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(c) Super key (d) Foreign key (e) None of these Explanation: Super key is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.
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