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INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT

COMPREHENSIVE TEST – 2

(FULL MOCK TEST)

1. C

Statement 1 is correct: Young Bengal Movement was launched during the late 1820s under the influence of a radical teacher Henry Louis Vivian Derozio. The Movement originated in the Hindu college, Calcutta where Derozio worked as an assistant headmaster and taught History. Derozio propounded the idea of free thinking. He urged his students to question everything around them which led to an intellectual revolution in Bengal. This is called the Young Bengal Movement. The patrons of the movement were called Derozians. Derozians questioned everything in the society including the religious norms, social morals. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Prarthana Samaj (also ‘Prayer Society’ in english) was founded in by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 under the influence of Brahmo leader Keshab Chandra Sen. Later, Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade and historian Ramkrishna Bhandarkar also joined the Prarthana Samaj. Statement 3 is incorrect: Satyashodhak Samaj is a social reform society founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, , on 24 September 1873. Its purpose was to liberate the less privileged in society from exploitation and oppression. The membership was not confined to any particular caste or communities but it was kept open for all sections of society including Brahmins, Mangs and Mahars. In its starting even some of the members were Jews and Muslims. Thus, Option C is correct. 2. B Statement 1 is incorrect: The centenary of Mahatma ’s first in India is being marked this April. It was undertaken in the erstwhile undivided Champaran district in northern . He went there in April, 1917 on learning about the abuses suffered by the cultivators of the district, forced into growing indigo by British planters/estate owners. ‘The Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every twenty parts of his land with indigo for his landlord’. This system was called Tinkathia. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Champaran Inquiry Committee was announced with Gandhi as the member and not as the chairman of the committee. Statement 3 is correct: Gandhi arrived in Champaran 10 April 1917 with a team of eminent lawyers: , , Anugrah Narayan Sinha and others including J B Kriplani. Thus, Option B is correct. 3. C Statement 1 is correct: Tropical Cyclones are irregular wind movements involving closed circulation of air around a low pressure center. This closed air circulation (whirling motion) is a result of rapid upward movement of hot air which is subjected to Coriolis Force. Tropical cyclones do not form near the Equator (within 5 degrees latitude) because the Coriolis force is zero and air tends to flow straight into low pressure centers, so it feels up before the pressure can drop enough. Central : 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Statement 2 is correct: The horizontal winds near the Earth Surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the Pressure Gradient Force, the Frictional Force and the Coriolis force. Pressure Gradient Force operates from the high pressure area to a low pressure area and causes wind movement. The wind direction follows the direction of change of pressure, i.e. perpendicular to the isobars. Due to the earth’s rotation, winds do not cross the isobars at right angles as the pressure gradient force directs, but get deflected from their original path. This deviation is the result of the earth’s rotation and is called the Coriolis Effect or Coriolis force. Due to this effect, winds in the northern hemisphere get deflected to the right of their path and those in the southern hemisphere to their left, following Farrell’s Law (the law that wind is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, derived from the application of the Coriolis effect to air masses). Statement 3 is incorrect: The formation of local winds is not dependent on the Coriolis force but the direction of local winds is dependent on Coriolis force. Thus, Option C is correct. 4. B Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Government Summit is an annual event held in Dubai, UAE. It brings together leaders in government for a global dialogue about governmental process and policies with a focus on the issues of futurism, technology and innovation, as well as other topics. Statement 2 is correct: The summit acts as a knowledge exchange hub between government officials, thought leaders, policy makers and private sector leaders, and as an analysis platform for the future trends, issues and opportunities facing humanity. Thus, Option B is correct. 5. A Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 22 countries and the European Union to dramatically accelerate global clean energy innovation. As part of the initiative, participating countries have committed to seek to double their government’s clean energy research and development (R&D) investments over five years while encouraging greater levels of private sector investment in transformative clean energy technologies. These additional resources will dramatically accelerate the availability of the advanced technologies that will define a future global energy mix that is clean, affordable, and reliable. Mission Innovation was announced on November 30, 2015, as world leaders came together in Paris to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change. Thus, Option A is correct. 6. B Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Rev Stanislaus vs Madhya Pradesh Case observed that the word ‘propagate’ has been used in Article 25(1) of the Indian Constitution but that does not give the right to convert another person to one's own religion, but to transmit or spread one's religion by an exposition of its tenets. The Bench also observed that while propagating religion was allowed, converting does not form part of fundamental

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT rights. What the Article grants is not the right to convert another person to one's own religion, but to transmit or spread one's religion by an exposition of its tenets. While the forced conversion is banned through this judgment, voluntary conversion is permitted to an individual under this right. Thus, convertibility of religion is not completely disallowed under this right. Statement 2 is correct: Article 25 mandates that subject to public order, morality and health, all persons enjoy the freedom of conscience and have the right to entertain any religious belief and propagate it. This means that Article 25 & 26 is not absolute. No person can do such religious things which affect the public order, morality and health. For example no one has right to conduct human sacrifice. Statement 3 is incorrect: The rights available under Freedom of Religion are available to all persons - citizens as well as non-citizens. Thus, Option B is correct. 7. B Chauth was one fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas in order to avoid the Maratha raids. Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of ten percent on those lands which the Marathas claimed heredi•tary rights. Chauth and sardeshmukhi were the two instruments used by Shivaji to obtain treasure frame the enemy country he invaded. Thus, Option B is correct. 8. B Statement 1 is correct: The CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Statement 2 is correct: He can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 3 is correct: He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. Thus, Option B is correct. 9. A Statement 1 is correct: Article 139 of the Indian Constitution confer power on the Supreme Court to issue writs for issues other than Fundamental Rights. Statement 2 is correct: The writ jurisdictions of the Supreme Court and High Courts are original in nature but not exclusive. The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Also, the appellate jurisdiction powers are not excusive and neither original in nature. Thus, Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 10. D  The Cool Temperate Western Margins are under the permanent influence of the Westerlies all round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain, and are thus said to experience the British type of climate.  From Britain, the climatic belt stretches far inland into the lowlands of North-West Europe, including such regions as northern and western France, Belgium, the Nether•lands, Denmark, western Norway and also north•western Iberia.  The climate of the maritime regions as a whole may be described as equable with moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters.  The climate is ideal for maximum comfort and mental alertness. People can work for long hours without feeling drowsy and lethargic as they do in the tropics. Thus, Option D is correct. 11. B  Rig-Veda is known as the oldest religious text in the world. It is also known as “First testament” of mankind. It was composed around 1700 BC. Last hymns were composed between 1500-1200 BC. It’s a collection of hymns by a number of priest families. It is organized in 10 books which are called Mandalas. The first and 10th Mandalas are the youngest and the longest books.  “Yajus” means “sacrificial formula” and Yajurveda is the book of sacrificial prayers. It contains the rituals of the Yajnas.  “Saman” means melody and it contains the Rythmic compilation of Hymns for Rigveda.  Atharva-Veda is entirely different from the other three Vedas and is chronologtically the last of the four. It is important and interesting as it describes the popular beliefs and superstitions of the humble folk. Atharvaveda contains the magic spells, incorporates much of early traditions of healing and magic that are paralleled in other Indo-European literatures. Thus, Option B is correct. 12. B The GDP for a particular year includes only goods and services produced within the year. Sales of items produced in previous years are explicitly excluded. Thus, the resale values of houses do not count in GDP because they were counted in the years they were built. Thus, Option B is correct. 13. C Statement 1 is incorrect: TAPI gas pipeline project is a proposed trans-country natural gas pipeline from Caspian Sea, Turkmenistan to India through Afghanistan and Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct: The estimated construction cost of the project is 10 billion US dollars and is being funded by Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Statement 3 is incorrect: The quartet aims to complete the 1,840-km (1,143-mile) pipeline and begin pumping natural gas from Turkmenistan’s giant Galkynysh gas fields by the beginning of 2020. Out of the total 1,814 km., the pipeline will run for 214 km in Turkmenistan, 774 km in Afghanistan along the Kandahar-Herat highway, 826 km in Pakistan through Quetta and Multan and finally reaching the settlement of Fazilka, in India located near the India-Pakistan border. The Trans-Mediterranean (Transmed) is a 2,475 km-long natural gas pipeline built to transport natural gas from Algeria to Italy via Tunisia and Sicily. Built in 1983, it is one of the longest international gas pipeline systems and has the capacity to deliver 30.2bcm/y (billion cubic metres per annum) of natural gas. China’s 8,700-kilometre-long natural gas pipeline, which is the world’s longest, was operationalised in 2011. The pipeline, which linked Turkmenistan with southern China, will boost supplies to the country’s booming industrial zones in Shanghai, Guangzhou and Hong Kong. Thus, Option C is correct. 14. B Statement 1 is correct: Black Carbon (BC) is produced both naturally and by human activities as a result of the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels and biomass. Primary sources include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Aeroplanes may be ejecting significant amounts of black carbon (BC) — a pollutant known to aggravate breathing disorders, upset the monsoon and quicken glacier melt — and may be depleting the ozone layer, according to a study by climate researchers from multiple institutions in the country. Though airborne, BC is known to dissipate and settle down in a few months under the influence of rain and wind and is unlikely to travel upward of 4 km. However, a group of scientists — including from the Indian Institute of Science and ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre — say they now have evidence of such particles existing up to 18 km into the stratosphere and there are about 10,000 of them in every cubic centimetre. Thus, Option B is correct. 15. B Statement 1 is correct: The Shore Temple is the icon of the ancient monuments of Mahabalipuram. The temple gets its name from its location on the Coromandel shore overseeing the Bay of Bengal. The sculptural excellence symbolizes the heights of Pallava architecture. The Dravidian style of architecture dates back to the 7-8th century. It was built under the rule of King Narsimha Varma. It has been an UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1984. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kailasanatha temple and the Vaikunthaperumal temple located at Kanchipuram were built by Pallava rulers. The Kailasanathar temple is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram. Located in , India, it is a Hindu temple in the Dravidian architectural style. It is dedicated to the Lord Shiva and is known for its historical importance. The temple was built from 685-705 AD by Rajasimha (Narasimhavarman II) ruler of the Pallava Dynasty. Vaikunta Perumal Temple is one of the important Vishnu temples built by the Pallava king Nandhivarman Pallavamalla in the 7th Century A.D. This temple was built a few years after the construction of Kailasanathar temple.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Statement 3 is incorrect: Pallavas temples are an example of Dravidian style of Temple Architecture. Thus, Option B is correct. 16. C

Vegetation of African Continent Thus, Option C is correct. 17. B National Board for Wild Life (NBWL) is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. Theoretically, the board is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country. However, it is a very important body because it serves as apex body to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister. Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Specific provisions in the WLPA include:  S 33 (a): No construction of commercial lodges, hotels… shall be undertaken except with the prior approval of the National Board  S 35(5): No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park except on a recommendation of the National Board;  S 35(6): No destruction, removal of wildlife or forest produce from a National Park or diversion of habitat unless State Government in consultation with the National Board authorizes the issue of such permit  S 38-O (g): Ensure Tiger Reserves and areas linking one protected area with another are not diverted for ecologically unsustainable uses except in public interest and with the approval of the National Board  S 38-W(1) & (2): No alteration or denotification of Tiger Reserves without the approval of the National Board for Wildlife Thus, Option B is correct. 18. A A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more). In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs). G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI. Auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called the E-Kuber, the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform of RBI. Thus, Option A is correct. 19. C Statement 1 is correct: Under Art. 67, a resolution seeking the removal of the Vice-President can originate only in the Rajya Sabha. After the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution by a majority of the then members of the House, it goes for approval of the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: All the subjects/areas regarding legislation have been divided into three Lists - Union List, State List and concurrent List. Union and State Lists are mutually exclusive - one cannot legislate on a matter placed in the sphere of the other. However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution further. Thus, Option C is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 20. D The Mangroves are the tropical trees or shrubs bearing fruit that germinates while still on the tree and having numerous prop roots that eventually form an impenetrable mass and are important in land building. They are halophytes and adapt life in harsh coastal conditions because they contain a complex salt filtration system and complex root system to cope with salt water immersion and wave action. Mangroves Forests are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barriers islands. The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.

Mangrove Sites State/Union Territories Sunderbans West Bengal Bhaitarkanika Orissa Mahanadi Subarnarekha Devi-Kauda Dhamra Mangrove Genetic Resources Centre Chilka Lake Coringa East Andhra Pradesh Godavari Krishna North Andaman Andaman & Nicobar Nicobar Pichavaram Tamil Nadu Muthupet Ramnad Pulicat Kaznuveli Vembanad Kannur (North Kerala) Coondapur Dakshin Kannada/ Hannavar Karwar

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Mangalore Forest Division Goa Achra-Ratnagiri Maharashtra Dev garh-Vijay Durg Veldur Kundalika-Revdnada Mumbra-Diva Vikroli Shreevardhan Vaitarna Vasai-Manori Malvan Gulf of Kutchh Gulf of Khambhat Dumas-Ubhrat Thus, Option D is correct. 21. B Statement 1 is incorrect: Remittances comes under the category of Transfers in Current Account. Statement 2 is correct: Purchase of shares of an Indian Company comes under the category of Investment in Capital Account. Statement 3 is incorrect: Profits accrued by Indian company from its operations abroad comes under the category of Income in Current Account. Thus, Option B is correct. 22. A  Death of Lala Lajpat Rai – 17th November, 1928  Assassination of Saunders – 17th December 1928  Bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly by Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt – 8th April, 1929  Arrest of 31 labour leaders – March 1929 Thus, Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 23. A The Battle of Koregaon was fought on 1 January 1818 between the British East India Company and the Peshwa faction of the Maratha Confederacy, at Koregaon Bhima. Thus, Option A is correct. 24. A The term “Equalization Levy” colloquially called “Google Tax” had made its first appearance in the 2016 budget documents. The Government has put a 6% equalization levy on the income accrued to a foreign E-commerce company which is not a resident of India. This would affect Google, Amazon, Facebook etc. This tax is applicable to B2B services and goods only and NOT on B2C {Business to Consumer} goods and services. The tax is applicable to only those companies which have no permanent establishment in India. The tax has to be withheld by the buyer and deposited by him to the government. Thus, Option A is correct. 25. B A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

 Admission or establishment of new states.  Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.  Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.  Second Schedule-emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.  Quorum in Parliament.  Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.  Rules of procedure in Parliament.  Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.  Use of English language in Parliament.  Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.  Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.  Use of official language.  Citizenship-acquisition and termination.  Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.  Delimitation of constituencies.  Union territories.  Fifth Schedule-administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.  Sixth Schedule-administration of tribal areas. Thus, Option B is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 26. D

 Irrawaddy Dolphin – Endangered  Black Necked Crane - Vulnerable Thus, Option D is correct. 27. C Statement 1 is correct: Provincial Legislative Councils were further expanded - 70% of the members were to be elected. Statement 2 is incorrect: Dyarchy, i.e., rule of two—executive councillors and popular ministers—was introduced at the provincial level. The governor was to be the executive head in the province. Subjects were divided into two lists: “reserved” which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and “transferred” subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. The “reserved” subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the “transferred” subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council. Statement 3 is incorrect: The central legislature was empowered to consider, pass or reject legislation on any of the subjects enumerated in the Central list. But, the Governor-General had the last word on any Bill passed by the Legislature. The financial powers of the central legislature were also very much limited. The budget was to be divided into two categories, votable and non-votable. The votable items covered only one third of the total expenditure. Even in this sphere the Governor-General was empowered to restore any grant refused or reduced by the legislature, if in his opinion the demand was essential for the discharge of his responsibilities. Thus, Option C is correct. 28. A The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. Thus, Option A is correct 29. D Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own; shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. Thus, Option D is correct. Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 30. C Hills of - Ambanad Hills Selbari Range Palni Hills Trimbakeshwar Range. Mikir Hills is a part of the Karbi Anglong Plateau. Thus, Option C is correct. 31. C  Butler Committee - The Indian States committee appointed a committee under the Chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler which was popularly known as ‘the Butler Committee’ to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and the Princes of Princely States in AD 1927.  Hartog Committee - This Committee was appointed to survey the growth of education in British India.  Hunter Committee - The 7 member Hunter Committee which was set up to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy was also known as Disorders Inquiry Committee.  Muddiman Committee - To meet the demand of the Indian Leaders and in view of the resolution adopted by Party in early 1920s, the British Government had set up a committee under Sir Alexander Muddiman (Muddiman Committee), along with 4 Indian members, to go into the provisions of the Government of India Act 1919 and pinpoint the defects. Thus, Option C is correct. 32. D Statement 1 is incorrect: The upper boundary of the layer, known as the tropopause, ranges in height from 5 miles (8 km) near the poles up to 11 miles (18 km) above the equator. Since temperature decreases upward at the rate of 6.5oC per 1000m and hence it is natural that that temperature at the height of 18 km over the Equator becomes much lower than at the height of around 8 km over the poles. Statement 2 is incorrect: The temperature declines with increasing altitude in the troposphere at the rate of 6.5oC per 1000m. This rate of decrease of temperature is called normal lapse rate. This occurs because the troposphere is mostly heated through energy transfer from the surface. Thus, the lowest part of the troposphere (i.e., Earth's surface) is typically the warmest section of the troposphere, which promotes vertical mixing. Thus, Option D is correct. 33. D Pratyush, India’s fastest supercomputer was unveiled recently at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune. It is a collection of several computers that can deliver a peak power of 6.8 petaflops, facilitating the weather forecasting and climate monitoring in the country. Thus, Option D is correct. 34. B The IEF is an inter-governmental arrangement set up in 1991 and based (Secretariat) in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. It serves as neutral facilitator of informal, open, informed and continuing global energy dialogue among its

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT member countries. There are 72 member countries of IEF (comprising of energy producing and energy consuming states, including transit countries) including India, covering all six continents. Its membership accounts for 90% of global supply and demand for oil and gas. IEF’s Executive Board (EB) was set up in 2002 and comprises of 31 designated representatives of Ministers of the member states. It meets twice a year. International Energy Agency (IEA) and Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) are non-voting members of the Executive Board. Thus, Option B is correct. 35. A Statement 1 is correct: Khan was a Pashtun independence activist and a spiritual leader nicknamed as “Frontier Gandhi” due to his political activities and close association with the Indian leader, . Statement 2 is incorrect: He led Movement in North Western Frontier Province. Statement 3 is incorrect: Through his leadership as a teacher and organizer, he developed a non-violent army called the Khudai Khidmatgars (Servants of God) to resist the British. Over 100,000 Pashtuns joined this red- shirted army who swore an oath to live a simple life of service, refraining from violence or any form of revenge. Ghaffar Khan spoke of this form of struggle as a jihad conducted with only the enemy holding swords. Thus, Option A is correct. 36. D Option D is correct. 37. D Article 13 of Indian Constitution 13. Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights (1) All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void (2) The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void (3) In this article, unless the context otherwise requires law includes any Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force includes laws passed or made by Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas (4) Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368 of the Constitution. Thus, Option D is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 38. B The means of Deficit Financing are given below in order of their suggested and tried preferences.  External Aids are the best money as a means to fulfil a government’s deficit requirements even if it is coming with soft interest. If they are coming without interest nothing could be better. External Grants are even better elements in this case (which comes free—neither interest nor any repayments).  External Borrowings are the next best way to manage fiscal deficit with the condition that the external loans are comparatively cheaper and long-term. Though external loans are considered an erosion in the nation’s sovereign decision making process, this has its own benefit and is considered better than the internal borrowings due to two reasons:  External borrowing bring in foreign currency/hard currency which gives extra edge to the government spending as by this the government may fulfil its developmental requirements inside the country as well as from outside the country.  It is prefered over the internal borrowings due to ‘crowding out effect’. If the government itself goes on borrowing from the banks of the country, from where will others borrow for investment purposes?  Internal Borrowings come as the third preferred route of fiscal deficit management. But going for it in a huge way hampers the investment prospects of the public and the corporate sector.  Printing Currency is the last resort for the government in managing its deficit. Even if the government is satisfied on this front, printing fresh currencies increases inflation proportionally this has a damaging effect on the economy. Thus, Option B is correct. 39. D Statement 1 is correct: Preventive detention laws may be passed by both the Central and the State governments. The Union Government enacts preventive detention acts when required for defence, foreign affairs or security of India. State governments may pass such laws to maintain public order and to maintain essential supplies and services. Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection against preventive detention is available to both Indian and foreign citizens. Statement 3 is correct: No democratic country in the world has made preventive detention as an integral part of the Constitution as has been done in India. It is unknown in USA. Thus, Option D is correct. 40. C Statement 1 is correct: Ahrar Movement was a movement founded in 1910 under the leadership of Maulana Muhammed Ali Hakim Ajmal Khan. This movement was in opposition to the loyalist politics of the Aligarh movement, its members advocated active participation in the nationalist movement. Ahrar movement was moved by the modern ideas of self-government. Its member advocated active participation in the nationalist movement.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Statement 2 is incorrect: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, the founder of Aligarh Movement, along with Khuda Baksh Khan, Raja Shiva Prasad, Munshi Naval Kishore Lal, Maulvi Mohannad Hasan of , and Kazi Syed Raza Husain of Patna were opposing the Congress. Statement 3 is incorrect: All India Muslim League supported the partition of Bengal, because Muslims in East Bengal were in majority. Thus, Option C is correct. 41. D Option D is correct. 42. A Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Sabha includes all the voters registered in the electoral rolls of the village. These will include person below 25 yrs of age. Minimum qualification of being member of Lok Sabha is 25 yrs and Rajya Sabha is 30 yrs. Thus, he can't become Member of Parliament and hence can't be appointed as PM. Statement 2 is correct: There is no condition mentioned in the Constitution regarding selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. But for being appointed as PM, a person has be member of any of the house of the parliament or become the member of either house within 6 months of appointment. Thus, any citizen may be appointed as PM provided he attains membership of parliament within 6 months. Statement 3 is correct: A Civil Servant has to resign to be appointed as PM, provided he attains membership of any of the house of parliament. Thus, Option A is correct. 43. B The Brahmaputra receives numerous tributaries in its 750 km long journey through the Assam valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the Burhi Dihing, Dhansari (South) and Kalang whereas the important right bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng, Manas and Sankosh. Thus, Option B is correct. 44. D Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the Attorney General of India and Union Ministers. It must be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Thus, Option D is correct. 45. A  Swang – Haryana  Maach – Madhya Pradesh Thus, Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 46. A Fog and mist are both created by water droplets, differing only in their overall locations and density. Fog is a cloud that reaches ground level, even if that "ground" is a hill or mountaintop. Mist forms wherever water droplets are suspended in the air by temperature inversion, volcanic activity, or changes in humidity. Mists are frequent over mountains as the rising warm air up the slopes meets a cold surface. Fog is denser than mist and tends to last longer. In terms of visibility, fog reduces it to less than one kilometer (0.6 miles), while mist can reduce visibility to between 1 and 2 kilometers (0.6 - 1.2 miles). Thus, Option A is correct. 47. C Tripitaka or Three Baskets is a traditional term used for various Buddhist scriptures. It is known as pali Canon in English. The three pitakas are Sutta Pitaka, Vinaya Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.  The subject matter of Vinaya Pitaka is the monastic rules for monks and nuns. It can also be called as Book of Discipline.  Sutta Pitaka contains over 10 thousand suttas or sutras related to Buddha and his close companions. This also deals with the first Buddhist council which was held shortly after Buddha’s death, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BC, under the patronage of king Ajatasatru with the monk Mahakasyapa presiding, at Rajgir.  Abhidhammapitaka deals with the philosophy and doctrine of Buddhism appearing in the suttas. However, it does not contain the systematic philosophical treatises. Thus, Option C is correct. 48. D Option D is correct. 49. C Option C is correct. 50. A Option A is correct. 51. B  Al-beruni is a foreign envoy who visited India along with Ghazni at the time of his Indian raids. Al-beruni is the first muslim scholar who studied Inida. He travelled all over India. He is popularly known as Founder of Indology. His famous book was ‘Tahqiq-i-Hind’ which explains about India.  Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese official in India, who worked as an interpreter of Francisco Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor of Goa in India. He served the Portuguese government in India from 1500 to 1516. During the period he visited the mighty Hindu kingdom of Vijayanagar in South India. He has left a detailed account of the VIjayanagar rulers, economic and social life of the empire which has its capital at Hampi. His travel compilation ‘Book of Duarte Barbosa’ was completed in 1516 and is a valuable source of the history of the medieval South India.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT  One of the most famous was the French jeweller Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, who travelled to India at least six times. He was particularly fascinated with the trading conditions in India, and compared India to Iran and the Ottoman Empire. Thus, Option B is correct. 52. D Option D is correct. 53. A Digital therapeutic products, commonly referred to as Digiceuticals, represent a new era in healthcare. They are clinically-validated solutions used either as standalone interventions or in association with other treatments to improve health outcomes. Digiceuticals represent a growing number of apps, approved by regulatory agencies, to treat a range of conditions from diabetes to substance abuse. Digiceuticals work by gathering data (by using sensors or by asking patients for information) and providing real- time guidance. The products undergo rigorous clinical testing through randomized clinical trials and real-world studies. Unlike other digital health apps they have been tested for safety and efficacy and are prescribed by doctors. Thus, Option A is correct. 54. B The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI; known as the International Coordinating Committee of National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights until March 2016) is a representative body of national human rights institutions from all parts of the globe. Its aim is to assist in establishing and strengthening independent and effective NHRIs, which meet the international standards set out in the Paris Principles. The National Human Rights Commission retained its ‘A’ status of accreditation with the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) for the fourth consecutive term of five years, during the annual meet of GANHRI in Geneva. The ‘A’ status is given to those national human rights bodies, which, after a rigorous process of review every five years, are found fully compliant with the UN mandated Paris principles. Thus, Option B is correct. 55. C The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the Union Territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures. This means that the legislative power of Parliament for the Union Territories on subjects of the State List remain unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the State List and the Concurrent List. In the case of Puducherry also, the' President can' legislate by making regulations but only when the assembly is suspended or dissolved. A regulation made by the President has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament and can also repeal or amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories. Thus, Option C is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 56. D Bioremediation is the application of a biological treatment, mainly microbes, to the cleanup hazardous contaminants in soil and surface or subsurface waters These microorganisms can be used to transform them to less harmful forms. Some examples of bioremediation technologies are phytoremediation, bioventing, bioleaching, landfarming, bioreactor, composting, bioaugmentation, rhizofiltration, and biostimulation.  Phytoremediation is a bioremediation process that uses various types of plants to remove, transfer, stabilize, and/or destroy contaminants in the soil and groundwater.  The technology involving the bacteria which can assist in the conversion of the sulphides to sulphates and in the liberation of metals and generation of heat is called as Bioleaching.  Bioaugmentation is a process where selected, standardized bacteria (microbes) are added to an area that has been contaminated with an unwanted substance. These bacteria breakdown the contaminants.  Land farming is a bioremediation treatment process that is performed in the upper soil zone or in biotreatment cells. Contaminated soils, sediments, or sludges are incorporated into the soil surface and periodically turned over or tilled to aerate the mixture.  Rhizofiltration is the adsorption onto plant roots or absorption into plant roots of contaminants that are in solution surrounding the root zone (rhizosphere). Rhizofiltration is used to decontaminate groundwater. Plants are grown in greenhouses in water instead of soil. Contaminated water from the site is used to acclimatize the plants to the environment. The plants are then planted on the site of contaminated groundwater where the roots take up the water and contaminants. Once the roots are saturated with the contaminant, the plants are harvested including the roots. Thus, Option D is correct. 57. C Option C is correct. (Explained in the Class) 58. A Statement 3 is incorrect: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) is formulated, controlled and supervised by the office of the Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India. Thus, Option A is correct. 59. A India is the first country to have received the status of a pioneer investor in 1987 and was allocated an exclusive area in Central Indian Ocean Basin by United Nations (UN) for exploration and utilization of nodules. India is one among the top 8-countries/ contractors and is implementing a long–term programme on exploration and utilization of Polymetallic Nodules through Ministry of Earth Sciences. The estimated polymetallic nodule resource potential is 380 million tonnes, containing 4.7 million tonnes of nickel, 4.29 million tonnes of copper and 0.55 million tonnes of cobalt and 92.59 million tonnes of manganese. Thus, Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 60. A  Meerabai belonged to the Sagunabhakti thought who believed in the worship of form. Thus, Option A is correct. 61. C Option C is correct. 62. A The Supreme Court decides the disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice-President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority. Election petitions for the elections of Parliament, State Legislatures and Local Government are filed in the High Court of the particular state in which the election was conducted. Therefore, only the High Courts have the original jurisdiction on deciding on election petitions. Thus, Option A is correct. 63. C  Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a Governor for two or more states.  The Governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time. The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.  The judges of a High Court are appointed by the President. The Chief Justice of HC is appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court is also consulted. In case of a common' high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president.  In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the President. Thus, Option C is correct. 64. D The Ramsar Convention uses a broad definition of the types of wetlands covered in its mission, including swamps and marshes, lakes and rivers, wet grasslands and peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, near-shore marine areas, mangroves and coral reefs, and human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs, and salt pans. CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, also known as the Washington Convention) was adopted in 193 and entered into force in 1975, Its aims is to ensure that international trade in endangered species (including coral reefs) does not threaten their survival in the wild. The Convention of Biological Diversity is an international legally binding convention which aims to lead to the development of national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, including coral

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT reefs. It was finalized at the 1992 Earth Summit and is known as one of the ‘Rio Conventions’. Its Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada. Since 1972, the UNESCO World Heritage Convention has united the world around a shared responsibility to protect natural and cultural places of Outstanding Universal Value (OUV). The World Heritage List includes 29 natural, marine properties that contain coral reef systems. Thus, Option D is correct. 65. B Option B is correct. 66. D he office of 'whip', on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Every Political Party whether ruling or opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the WHIP otherwise against them disciplinary action can be initiated. Thus, Option D is correct. 67. C Twin Balance Sheet Problem (TBS) deals with two balance sheet problems. One, with Indian companies and the other, with Indian Banks. Thus, TBS is two two-fold problem for Indian economy which deals with:  Overleveraged companies – Debt accumulation on companies is very high and thus they are unable to pay interest payments on loans. Note: 40% of corporate debt is owed by companies who are not earning enough to pay back their interest payments. In technical terms, this means that they have an interest coverage ratio less than 1.  Bad-loan-encumbered-banks – Non Performing Assets (NPA) of the banks is 9% for the total banking system of India. It is as high as 12.1% for Public Sector Banks. As companies fail to pay back principal or interest, banks are also in trouble. Thus, Option C is correct. 68. D Coal Bed Methane (CBM) is natural gas found in coal seams. It mainly consists of Methane (CH4) with minor amounts of nitrogen, carbon dioxide and heavier hydrocarbons like ethane. Coalbed Methane (CBM), an unconventional source of natural gas is now considered as an alternative source for augmenting India’s energy resource. India has the fifth largest proven coal reserves in the world and thus holds significant prospects for exploration and exploitation of CBM. The prognosticated CBM resources in the country are about 92 TCF (2600 BCM) in 12 states of India. In order to harness CBM potential in the country, the

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Government of India formulated CBM policy in 1997 wherein CBM being Natural Gas is explored and exploited under the provisions of OIL Fields (Regulation & Development) Act 1948 (ORD Act 1948) and Petroleum & Natural Gas Rules 1959 (P&NG Rules 1959) administered by Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MOP&NG). CBM is an environmentally safe gas: Methane has been labelled as a Green House Gas (GHG) by United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Its global warming potential is 21 times more than that of the Carbon Dioxide. But CBM is considered as a clean fuel which on combustion emits only carbon dioxide and water. So, is not only considered as an efficient fuel. Using CBM as a fuel will halt its emission into environment and thus reducing emission of green house gas from coal mining. Thus, Option D is correct. 69. B The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, DIPP has finally announced the launch of the much-awaited State startup ranking framework. The key objective of the Startup States and UTs Ranking Framework is to encourage States and UTs to take proactive steps towards strengthening the Startup ecosystems at the local level. The Ranking Framework will measure the impact of each step initiated at the local level for building a strong Startup ecosystem. The Ranking Framework will also enable continuous learning through the dissemination of good practices. The State and UT Ranking Framework is based on the feedback collected from Startup ecosystem stakeholders, which include startups, mentors, investors, accelerators, incubators and the government bodies. Areas which should be given greater thrust like seed funding support, women entrepreneurship are given more score. Thus, Option B is correct. 70. D The revolutionaries failed to mobilise the masses. In fact it had no base among the people. The methodology of revolutionaries included individual heroic actions such as organizing assassinations of unpopular British officials and of traitors and informers among the revolutionaries themselves; conducting swadeshidacoities to raise funds for revolutionary activities; and during the First World War organizing military conspiracies with expectation to help from the enemies of the British. Thus, Option D is correct. 71. A Statement 1 is correct: The Sangrai dance is a traditional Indian dance performed by the Mog tribal community on the occasion of Sangrai festival during the month of Chaitra (in April) of the Bengali calendar year. It originated in Tripura, India. Mogs are Buddhist and have the close affinity with Burmese Buddhism. Statement 2 is incorrect: Central government is likely to declare Medaram’s Sammakka-Sarakka/Saralamma Jatara a national festival this year. Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara held by forest dwelling Koya tribe of Telangana and surrounding States, is the biggest Tribal festival in Asia which is attended by one crore people on an average. Once declared a national festival, Jatara can be considered for ‘intangible cultural heritage of humanity’ tag of

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). UNESCO had given the tag to Kumbh Mela, which is world’s biggest festival which sees participation by up to 10 crore persons. Thus, Option A is correct. 72. A  Kawal Tiger Reserve – Telangana  Dampa Tiger Reserve - Mizoram Thus, Option A is correct. 73. A A merchant bank is a financial institution that engages in underwriting and business loans, catering primarily to the needs of large enterprises and high net worth individuals. Thus, Option A is correct. 74. D The Supreme Court has prohibited the use of five chemicals, labelled as toxic by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), in the manufacture of firecrackers. The banned chemicals include antimony, lithium, mercury, arsenic and lead in any form whatsoever. Thus, Option D is correct. 75. B Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister. In accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary System of government, the Governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: The salaries and' allowances of ministers are determined by the State Legislature from time to time. A minister gets the salary and allowances which are payable to a member of the state legislature. Thus, Option B is correct. 76. C The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is a voluntary mechanism to highlight specific wetlands of international importance that are facing immediate challenges. Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record viz. Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur. Further, Chilka Lake was placed in the record but was later removed from it. Thus, Option C is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 77. D A novel small molecule, designed and synthesised by Indian researchers, has shown promise in targeted killing of cancer cells. The molecule (Disarib) works by binding itself to a protein called BCL2, which suppresses the death of cancerous cells. While BCL2 protein is produced in excess in cancer cells, its expression is almost undetectable in normal cells. Hence, Disarib targets and kills only cancer cells while sparing normal cells. Thus, Option D is correct. 78. A Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: No grazing of any livestock shall be permitted in a National Park and no livestock shall be allowed to enter in the national park. Statement 3 is incorrect: No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the Legislature of the State. Thus, Option A is correct. 79. A In order to address rising incidence of Vitamin ‘D’ Deficiencies (VDD), particularly amongst the young people, FSSAI has launched a unique initiative, ‘Project Dhoop’ in association with NCERT, NDMC and North MCD Schools. Supported by Kwality and conceptualised by McCann Health, the initiative urges schools to shift their morning assembly to noon time mainly between 11 am and 1 pm to ensure maximum absorption of Vitamin D in students through natural sunlight. Thus, Option A is correct. 80. C  One section led by C R Das, Motilal Nehru and Ajmal Khan wanted an end to the boycott of legislative councils so that the nationalists could enter them to expose the basic weaknesses of these assemblies and use these councils as an arena of political struggle.  They wanted to ‘end or mend’ these councils, i.e., if the Government did not respond to the nationalists’ demands, then they would obstruct the working of these councils.  Their only intention was to use the councils as arena of political struggle; they had no intention to use the councils as organs for gradual transformation of colonial rule.  Those advocating entry into legislative councils came to be known as the Swarajists. Thus, Option C is correct. 81. A Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 82. D In terms of transpiration, or plant water use, an increase in atmospheric CO2 means that stomata, or the pores on leaves that exchange gases between the leaf and the atmosphere, do not need to open as much. This means that, at the scale of a leaf, less water is lost and there is lower transpiration. Thus, Option D is correct. 83. A Option A is correct. 84. D Article 169 states: Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States (1) Notwithstanding anything in Article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting, (2) Any law referred to in clause (1) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary. (3) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Thus, Option D is correct. 85. A An international team of scientists led by the University of Illinois, Chicago, has discovered a new class of naturally produced, ribosome-targeting antibacterial agents, odilorhabdins, produced by a nematode-symbiotic bacterium. Odilorhabdins are produced by a symbiotic bacterium found in soil-dwelling nematode worms. Called Xenorhabdus nematophila, the bacterial symbiont produces toxins and immuno-modulators, enabling the nematode to colonize and kill insects. The bacteria further benefit the host nematode by releasing antibiotics that prevent the invasion of the insect’s carcass by other competing bacteria and fungi. Thus, Option A is correct. 86. A The Kisan Sabha movement started in Bihar under the leadership of Sahajanand who had formed in 1929 the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in order to mobilise peasant grievances against the zamindari attacks on their occupancy rights, and thus sparking the farmers' movements in India. All India Kisan Sabha (All India Peasants Union, also known as the Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha), was the name of the peasants front of the undivided Communist Party of India, an important peasant movement formed by at the Lucknow Session of the on 11 April 1936.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT It involved people such as Ranga, Namboodiripad, Karyanand Sharma, Yamuna Karjee, Yadunandan (Jadunandan) Sharma, Rahul Sankrityayan, P. Sundarayya, Ram Manohar Lohia, , Acharya Narendra Dev and Bankim Mukherjee. The Kisan Manifesto released in August 1936, demanded abolition of the zamindari system and cancellation of rural debts, and in October 1937, it adopted red flag as its banner. Thus, Option A is correct. 87. B In a bid to ease recovery of oil from marine spills scientists from the Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER), Thiruvananthapuram have developed a compound named gelator that has the capability to congeal oil from an oil and water mixture. Thus, Option B is correct. 88. B Statement 1 is incorrect: BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organisations (NGOs) that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Together we are 121 BirdLife Partners worldwide – one per country or territory – and growing. Thus, Option B is correct. 89. C Statement 1 is correct: A financial intelligence unit (FIU) is a central agency of a government that:  Receives financial information pursuant to country's anti-money laundering laws  Analyzes and processes such information and  Ddisseminates the information to appropriate national and international authorities, to support efforts for anti-money laundering and combating financing of terrorism Statement 2 is incorrect: FIU-IND is an independent body reporting directly to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister. Statement 3 is incorrect: it is not a statutory body. Thus, Option C is correct. 90. A Seven major commodities are covered under the Essential Commodities Act. Some of them are:  Petroleum and its products, including petrol, diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents etc  Food stuff, including edible oil and seeds, vanaspati, pulses, sugarcane and its products like, khandsari and sugar, rice paddy  Jute and textiles  Drugs- prices of essential drugs are still controlled by the DPCO  Fertilisers- the Fertiliser Control Order prescribes restrictions on transfer and stock of fertilizers apart from prices Thus, Option A is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 91. C  Duncan pass is located between South and little Andaman. Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km (30 mi) wide; it separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) to the north, and Little Andaman to the south.  Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island (India) from Maldives.  Ten Degree Channel separates Andamans from Nicobars (Little Andaman from Car Nicobar) Thus, Option C is correct. 92. B Option B is correct. (Explained in the Class) 93. A The Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs Shri Arun Jaitley launched CriSidEx , India’s first sentiment index for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) developed jointly by CRISIL & SIDBI. CriSidEx is a composite index based on a diffusion index of 8 parameters and measures MSE business sentiment on a scale of 0 (extremely negative) to 200 (extremely positive). The parametric feedback was captured through a survey of 1100 MSEs in November - December. Thus, Option A is correct. 94. A The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants; it is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. Thus, Option A is correct. 95. C Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth. Thus, Option C is correct. 96. B Statement 1 is correct: William Bentinck adopted a policy of non-intervention and non-aggression with Indian states. If at all he interfered in the affairs of the Indian states, it was only to end any form of misgovernment and never to annex any territory. Statement 2 is correct: William Bentinck is famous for his social reforms in Indian. By the abolition of the systems of ‘Sati’ and human sacrifice he freed the society from two of the worst superstitions. By the suppression of the system of Thugee he freed the people from one of their worst fears. By the end of 1834 Thugee System was completely stopped. Statement 3 is incorrect: Prior to the arrival of Bentick a great controversy was going on regarding the medium of education in the schools and colleges. Was it to be given through the Indian language or through English language? The orientalists led by Heyman Wilson and H.T. Princes expressed their opinion in favour of Sanskrit, Arabic and Persian as the medium of education. The Angliasts led by Sir Charles Trevelyan supported by Indian liberals like Raja Rammohan Ray expressed their views in favour of English Language.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT Lord Macauley, the law member of the Council gave a definite shape to the controversy. On his recommendations the decision was taken that the amount which was kept for education should be spent on the education of the Indians and the education be imparted through English medium.

Macauley’s proposals were accepted by Bentick and embodied in a resolution of March 7, 1835.

Thus, Option B is correct.

97. C

Life Saving Dot- Jeevan Bindi is the new weapon to fight Iodine Deficiency among rural women in India.

Bindi, one of the significant shringaar (beauty) items of Indian women, is no longer just a decorative piece but a life saving dot (Jivan Bindi), thanks to the commendable effort by Grey Group.

The Singapore based company has come up with an innovative idea to overcome the widespread problem of iodine deficiency among rural women in India, who cannot afford the nutrients and supplements.

Knowing the fact that every Indian woman wears a decorative bindi on forehead, Grey partnered with NGO The Neelvasant Medical Foundation and Research Center to develop an iodine patch bindi under the Talwar Bindi brand.

Thus, Option C is correct.

98. B

The India Health Fund (IHF), an initiative by Tata Trusts, in collaboration with the Global Fund has come forward to financially support innovations and technologies designed to combat tuberculosis and malaria.

The IHF aims to support new products and strategies that impact the entire lifecycle of TB and malaria, from prevention to post-cure recovery. It has recently invited project proposals.

Thus, Option B is correct.

99. B

Under Article 201, when the Governor sends a bill to the President for reconsideration, the President has to declare whether he is giving or withholding his assent. In cases of non-money bills, the President, if he is not giving his assent, can ask the Governor to send the bill back to the House or Houses as the case may be.

The House or Houses will reconsider this bill, sent by the President, within a period of six months from the date of receipt of such message and, if it is again passed by the House or Houses, with or without amendment, it shall be presented again to the President for his consideration.

The President must give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. Thus, there is no power of Absolute Veto in this case.

Thus, Option B is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382 INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT 100. C Statement 2 is incorrect: The moon's gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun's gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counter balance the gravity. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth. Statement 3 is incorrect: Tides are more pronounced in larger water bodies than smaller ones. Thus, Option C is correct.

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60 North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09 Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382