DAMB 711 Microbiology Final Exam B 100 points December 15, 2010 Your name (Print Clearly): _____________________________________________ I. Matching: The questions below consist of headings followed by a list of phrases. For each phrase select the heading that best describes that phrase. The headings may be used once, more than once or not at all. Mark the answer in Part 2 of your answer sheet. 1. capsid 7. CD4 2. Chlamydia pneumoniae 8. Enterococcus faecalis 3. oncogenic 9. hyaluronidase 4. pyruvate 10. interferon 5. Koplik’s spot 11. hydrophilic viruses 6. congenital Treponema pallidum 12. Streptococcus pyogenes 91. “spreading factor” produced by members of the staphylococci, streptococci and clostridia 12. viral protein coat 43. central intermediate in bacterial fermentation 84. causes persistant endodontic infections 25. a cause of atypical pneumonia 106. non-specific defense against viral infection 27. has a rudimentary life cycle 78. HIV receptor 69. Hutchinson’s Triad 510. measles 1111. resistant to disinfection 1212. -hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive, cause of suppurative pharyngitis 2 Matching (Continued): The questions below consist of diseases followed by a list of etiologic agents. Match each disease with the etiologic agent. Continue using Part 2 of your answer sheet. 1. dysentery 6. Legionnaire’s 2. botulism 7. gas gangrene 3. cholera 8. tuberculosis 4. diphtheria 9. summer outbreaks of meningitis 5. enteric fever 10. pneumoniae/meningitis 213. Clostridium botulinum 314. Vibrio cholera 815. Mycobacterium bovis 116. Shigella species 1017. Streptococcus pneumoniae 718. Clostridium perfringens 519. Salmonella typhi 920. Echo virus 3 II. Multiple Choice: Choose the ONE BEST answer. Mark the correct answer on Part 1 of the answer sheet. Use a #2 pencil. 1. A toxin derived from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is: A. lipopolysaccharide B. leukotoxin C. aflatoxin D. ergosterol E. TSST 2. The Staphylococcus aureus toxin that is heat resistant and survives high osmotic pressure: A. TSST1 B. enterotoxin C. exfoliative toxin D. alpha toxin E. lipopolysaccharide 3. Which of the following is an untrue statement about ornithosis? A. close association with parrots can be a risk factor B. it is also called psittacosis C. it is transmitted to humans via inhalation of Chlamydia psittaci D. it is transmitted to humans via inhalation of Coxiella burnettii E. B and C are untrue statements. 4. Which of the following induces a granulomatous lesion in the lung and is diagnosed with a skin test that is like tuberculosis? A. Pneumocystis carinii B. Candida albicans C. Blastomyces dermatiditis D. Coccidiodies immitis E. Histoplasma capsulatum 5. Complication of influenzae that occurs in children in conjunction with aspirin therapy: A. viral pneumonia B. bacterial pneumonia C. Reye’s syndrome D. croup 6. Dental equipment that penetrates intact skin: A. Is critical and should be disinfected with a high level disinfectant. B. Is semi-critical and should be disinfected with a low level disinfectant. C. Is critical and should be sterilized. D. Is non-critical and can be disinfected with a low level disinfectant. E. Is semi-critical and can be sterilized or disinfected with a high level disinfectant. 4 7. One of the bacteria listed below is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis and eye diseases. In addition, it often causes coinfections with Neisseria gonorrhoea. Which one? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Coxiella burnetii C. Chlamydia pneumoniae D. Chlamydia trachomatis Use the following choices to answer questions 8 and 9 A. Treponema denticola B. Dialister invisus C. Pseudoramibacter alactolyticus D. Bacteriodetes clone X083 E. Porphyromonas endodontalis E8. Is not among the top four species of bacteria that cause acute apical periodontitis. A9. Is not among the top four species of bacteria that cause chronic apical periodontitis 10. The streptococci that cause human caries are: A. Streptococcus cricetus and S. ferus B. S. gordonii and S. mutans C. S. salivarius and S. sobrinus D. S. mutans and S. sobrinus 11. The most important polymer that comprises the extracellular matrix of a persistent cariogenic biofilm will be the: A. alpha-1,3-branched levan B. alpha-1,3-branched mutan C. alpha-1,6-banched glucan D. alpha-1,6-branched mutan 12. A child that suffers from a pyogenic cellulitis is predisposed to this sequelae of S. pyogenes infections. A. toxic shock syndrome B. acute glomerulonephritis C. rheumatic fever D. rheumatoid arthritis 13. The antigen used to subdivide S. pyogenes into serotypes is: A. the Lancefield carbohydrate B. the hemolysin C. the M protein D. the teichoic acid E. A, C, and D. 5 14. A coagulase negative species of staphylococcus that cannot produce coagulase but is a cause of urinary tract infections, mostly in hospitalized patients. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. A and B E. B and C 15. Members of the genus Mycoplasma are unique among bacteria because they: A. have a rudimentary life cycle. B. have a primary arthropod host that is both a vector and a reservoir C. lack a cell wall and instead have a trilaminar membrane D. have a human intermediate host 16. Hepatitis D cannot cause disease except in a coinfection with: A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HSV1 E. HHV7 17. A shift in the environment of subgingival plaque that would favor the development of a periodontal pocket would be to ________________ conditions. A. aerobic B. acidic C. microaerophilic D. anaerobic E. hypertonic 18. A Staphylococcus aureus that cannot produce this enzyme is avirulent. A. catalase B. lipase C. coagulase D. hyaluronidase E. staphylokinase 19. One of the following viruses is not oncogenic, which one? A. HAV B. HCV C. HBV D. Papilloma virus E. Epstein Barr virus 6 20. This rickettsial pathogen is transmitted in aerosols of dried animal waste. A. Campylobacter fetus B. Rickettsia typhi C. Coxiella burnettii D. Rickettsia rickettsii E. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 21. A shift in the environment of supra-gingival plaque that would favor the development of caries would be to ______________________ conditions. A. aerobic B. acidic C. microaerophilic D. anaerobic E. hypertonic 22. The following is a virulence factor for Vibrio cholera, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Neisseria gonorrhoea: A. n-methylphenylalanine pilus B. a polysaccharide capsule C. an alginate capsule D. filamentous hemagglutinin E. AB toxin 23. One of the following is not a common cause of meningitis in newborns. Which one? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Escherichia coli C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Streptococcus agalactiae 24. Two of these bacteria cause significant percentages of both chronic periodontitis and pulp necrosis with acute apical abscess: A. Treponema denticola and Tannerella forsythia B. Porphyromonas endodontalis and Treponema denticola C. Dialister pneumosintes and Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Treponema denticola and Porphyromonas gingivalis E. A and D are true 25. Neonatal diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes are spread through: A. respiratory droplets B. transplacental passage C. consumption of contaminated milk D. contact with family pets E. B and C 7 26. Which of the following is the best description of the symptoms of diseases caused by the Rickettsiales? A. intense headache, fever and rash B. a soft gummy tumor that may form in any organ in the body C. patchy infiltrates in the lungs D. consolidation of the lungs 27. If the portal of exit and portal of entry of a disease is on the same person: A. this is an endogenous infection. B. this is evidence that the disease is spread by a fomite. C. this is evidence of spread by a biological vector. D. the individual must be immunocompromised. 28. Form of bacterial gene transfer in which either a fragment of DNA or a plasmid from the donor bacterium is transferred across the cell membrane of the recipient bacterium This nuclear material is not contained in a viral coat, and it is not passed through a pilus. A. conjugation B. transduction C. transformation D. locomotion 29. Synergistic action of these anthrax toxins will cause death of the affected cell: A. EF and LF. B. PA and EF. C. LF and PA. D. PA. 30. HAART is used to treat _________ it consists of __________________: A. HIV: two reverse transcriptase inhibitors and one protease inhibitor B. HIV: one reverse transcriptase inhibitor and two protease inhibitors C. HBV: two reverse transcriptase inhibitors and one protease inhibitor D. HIV: indinavir, zidovudine and didanosine E. A and D 31. The infectious form of tuberculosis is: A. Disseminated (miliary) tuberculosis B. Secondary (active) tuberculosis C. The tubercle D. Latent tuberculosis 32. Mutations in the influenzae virus that result in a new strain of virus are: A. antigenic drift B. the result of mixed infection with two or more strains of influenzae virus one of which is an avian strain C. antigenic shift D. possible because the segmented ssRNA genome allows reassortment of the genes that encode the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase E. All except A 8 33. This bacterium is never transmitted from human to human; instead it is transmitted from water sources where it may be parasitic on amoebae. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumophilia D. Rickettsia typhii 34. Meningitis may occur following a respiratory infection with this microorganism. Transmission of this organism is through inhalation of dried avian (pigeon) feces. What is the pathogen? A. Chalmydia psittaci B. Echovirus C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Streptococcus pneumoniae 35. A non-infectious syphilis lesion is: A. gumma B. chancre C. maculopapule D. furuncle 36. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one of the following virus groups? A. Polioviruses B. Herpesviruses C. Rhinoviruses D. Influenza viruses 37. An opportunistic cancer that is associated with human herpes virus 8: A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. B cell lymphoma D. Burkitt’s lymphoma 38. A viral disease has symptoms of water filled vesicles that disappear without crusting when the disease has resolved.