B DAMB 721 Microbiology Final Exam B 100 points December 11, 2006 Your name (Print Clearly): _____________________________________________ I. Matching: The questions below consist of headings followed by a list of phrases. For each phrase select the heading that best describes that phrase. The headings may be used once, more than once or not at all. Mark the answer in Part 2 of your answer sheet. 1. capsid 7. CD4 2. Chlamydia pneumoniae 8. Enterococcus faecalis 3. oncogenic 9. hyaluronidase 4. pyruvate 10. interferon 5. Koplik’s spot 11. hydrophilic viruses 6. congenital Treponema pallidum 12. Streptococcus pyogenes 1. “spreading factor” produced by members of the staphylococci, streptococci and clostridia 2. viral protein coat 3. central intermediate in bacterial fermentation 4. persistant endodontic infections 5. a cause of atypical pneumonia 6. nonspecific defense against viral infection 7. has a rudimentary life cycle 8. HIV receptor 9. Hutchinson’s Triad 10. measles 11. resistant to disinfection 12. β-hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive, cause of suppurative pharyngitis 2 Matching (Continued): The questions below consist of diseases followed by a list of etiologic agents. Match each disease with the etiologic agent. Continue using Part 2 of your answer sheet. 1. dysentery 6. Legionnaire’s 2. botulism 7. gas gangrene 3. cholera 8. tuberculosis 4. diphtheria 9. necrotizing fascitis 5. enteric fever 10. pneumoniae/meningitis 13. Clostridium botulinum 14. Vibrio cholera 15. Mycobacterium bovis 16. Shigella species 17. Streptococcus pneumoniae 18. Clostridium perfringens 19. Salmonella typhi 20. Streptococcus pyogenes 3 II. Multiple Choice: Choose the ONE BEST answer. Mark the correct answer on Part 1 of the answer sheet. Use a #2 pencil. 1. The effector cell in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is a/an: A. macrophage B. Langerhans cell C. IgE opsonized mast cell D. lymphocyte E. IgE opsonized erythrocyte 2. Characteristics of the Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin that make it a dangerous cause of food poisoning: A. It resists heat. B. Staphylococcus aureus grows in high salt environments. C. It resists proteases such as trypsin. D. A and C. E. A, B and C. 3. Which of the following is an untrue statement about ornithosis? A. close association with parrots can be a risk factor B. it is also called psittacosis C. it is transmitted to humans via inhalation of Chlamydia psittaci D. it is transmitted to humans via inhalation of Coxiella burnettii E. B and C are untrue statements. 4. Which of the following is a skin test that: takes 24 to 72 hours to develop; is characterized by a lesion that is red, swollen and indurated; is mediated by activated macrophages? A. tuberculin B. coccidioidin C. histoplasmin D. A, B and C E. A and C 5. Complication of influenzae that occurs in children in conjunction with aspirin therapy: A. viral pneumonia B. bacterial pneumonia C. Reye’s syndrome D. croup 6. Dental equipment that penetrates intact skin: 4 A. Is critical and should be disinfected with a high level disinfectant. B. Is semi-critical and should be disinfected with a low level disinfectant. C. Is critical and should be sterilized. D. Is non-critical and can be disinfected with a low level disinfectant. E. Is semi-critical and can be sterilized or disinfected with a high level disinfectant. 7. One of the bacteria listed below is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis and eye diseases. In addition, it often causes coinfections with Neisseria gonorrhoea. Which one? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Coxiella burnetii C. Chlamydia pneumoniae D. Chlamydia trachomatis 8. Which of the following complement factors will opsonize antigen? A. C3a, C4a and C5a B. C5a C. C3b, C4b D. C5b through 9 9. Bacteria that grow in low oxygen levels of 5 to 10% are: A. facultative anaerobes B. microaerophilic C. aerobes D. facultative aerobes E. capneic 10. The streptococci that cause human caries are: A. Streptococcus cricetus and S. ferus B. S. gordonii and S. mutans C. S. mutans and S. sobrinus D. S. salivarius and S. sobrinus 11. The most important polymer that comprises the extracellular matrix of a persistent cariogenic biofilm will be the: A. alpha-1,3-branched levan B. alpha-1,3-branched mutan C. alpha-1,6-banched glucan D. alpha-1,6-branched mutan 12. A child that suffers from a pyogenic cellulitis is predisposed to this sequelae of S. pyogenes infections. A. toxic shock syndrome B. acute glomerulonephritis C. rheumatic fever D. rheumatoid arthritis 5 13. The antigen used to subdivide S. pyogenes into serotypes is: A. the Lancefield carbohydrate B. the β hemolysin C. the M protein D. the teichoic acid E. A, C, and D. 14. A coagulase negative species of staphylococcus that cannot produce coagulase but is a cause of urinary tract infections, mostly in hospitalized patients. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. A and B E. B and C 15. Members of the genus Mycoplasma are unique among bacteria because they: A. have a rudimentary life cycle. B. have a primary arthropod host that is both a vector and a reservoir C. lack a cell wall and instead have a trilaminar membrane D. have human intermediate host 16. Hepatitis D cannot cause disease except in a coinfection with: A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HSV1 E. HHV7 17. Compared to the periodontal pathogens more of the bacteria that cause endodontic infections are: A. mesophiles B. Gram positive C. Gram negative D. aerobic 18. A Staphylococcus aureus that cannot produce this enzyme is avirulent. A. catalase B. lipase C. coagulase D. hyaluronidase E. staphylokinase 19. One of the following viruses is not oncogenic, which one? A. HAV 6 B. HCV C. HBV D. Papilloma virus E. Epstein Barr virus 20. This rickettsial pathogen is transmitted in aerosols of dried animal waste. A. Campylobacter fetus B. Rickettsia typhi C. Coxiella burnettii D. Rickettsia rickettsii E. Ehrlichia chaffeensis 21. Reagins are antibodies that: A. can be used to screen for previous infection with Treponema pallidum. B. are cross reactive with cardiolipin. C. can be used to measure the effectiveness of a treatment for syphilis D. A, B and C. E. A and B. 22. The following is a virulence factor for Vibrio cholera, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Neisseria gonorrhoea: A. n-methylphenylalanine pilus B. a polysaccharide capsule C. an alginate capsule D. filamentous hemagglutinin E. AB toxin 23. One of the following is not a common cause of meningitis in newborns. Which one? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Escherichia coli C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Streptococcus agalactiae 24. Activation of the Hageman Factor (XII) can result in initiation of all of these inflammatory cascades, but one is indirect and secondary to the activation of a cell. Which one? A. fibrin B. arachidonic acid cascade C. plasmin D. complement E. bradykinin 25. Neonatal diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes are spread through: A. respiratory droplets B. transplacental passage 7 C. consumption of contaminated milk D. contact with family pets E. B and C 26. Which of the following is the best description of the symptoms of diseases caused by the Rickettsiales? A. intense headache, fever and rash B. a soft gummy tumor that may form in any organ in the body C. patchy infiltrates in the lungs D. consolidation of the lungs 27. If the portal of exit and portal of entry of a disease is on the same person: A. this is an endogenous infection. B. this is evidence that the disease is spread by a fomite. C. this is evidence of spread by a biological vector. D. the individual must be immunocompromised. 28. Form of bacterial gene transfer in which either a fragment of DNA or a plasmid from the donor bacterium is transferred across the cell membrane of the recipient bacterium This nuclear material is not contained in a viral coat, and it is not passed through a pilus. A. conjugation B. transduction C. transformation D. locomotion 29. A vaccine for anthrax is: A. EF and LF. B. PA and EF. C. LF and PA. D. PA. 30. A mild form of C. perfringens infection that does not have any associated pathology is: A. enterotoxic. B. cellulitis. C. histotoxic. D. pseudomembranous.colitis E. myonecrosis. 31. The infectious form of tuberculosis is: A. Disseminated (miliary) tuberculosis B. Secondary (active) tuberculosis C. The tubercle D. Latent tuberculosis 8 32. Mutations in the influenzae virus that result in a new strain of virus are: A. antigenic drift B. the result of mixed infection with two or more strains of influenzae virus one of which is an avian strain C. antigenic shift D. possible because the segmented ssRNA genome allows reassortment of the genes that encode the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase E. All except A 33. This bacterium is never transmitted from human to human; instead it is transmitted from water sources where it may be parasitic on amoebae. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumophilia D. Rickettsia typhii 34. Meningitis may occur following a respiratory infection with this microorganism. Transmission of one form of meningitis is thought to result from inhalation of dried avian feces. What is the pathogen? A. Chalmydia psittaci B. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Echovirus D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Streptococcus pneumoniae 35. A non-infectious syphilis lesion is: A. gumma B. chancre C. maculopapule D. furuncle 36. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one of the following virus groups? A. Polioviruses B. Herpesviruses C. Rhinoviruses D. Influenza viruses 37. An opportunistic cancer that is associated with human herpes virus 8: A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. B cell lymphoma D. Burkitt’s lymphoma 9 38. When a Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test is done on a patient’s serum using cardiolipin-coated latex beads as an antigen, the latex beads agglutinate.