Emergency Medical Technician Test 2

Emergency Medical Technician Test 21. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered:Your answer: displaced nondisplaced rotated complicated2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is:Your answer: point tenderness a contusion a bruise ecchymosis3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a:Your answer: lateral splint rigid splint trauma splint soft splint4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as:Your answer: crepitus epiphyses deformity costal grating 5. A sling and swathe is an example of a:Your answer: rigid splint mobile splint compound splint soft splint6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include:Your answer: deformity swelling and dislocation lose of use all of the above7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the:Your answer: colles splint wire ladder splint full leg air splint hare splint8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the:Your answer: proximal radius distal tibia proximal fibula distal radius9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by: Your answer: an outward rotation of the foot lengthening of the injured leg knee dislocations associated ankle fractures10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is:Your answer: sciatic nerve injury an outward rotation of the thigh loss of all distal pulses extension of the limb11. A strain involves:Your answer: tendons muscles ligaments all of the above12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the:Your answer: shoulder elbow ankle knee13. The most common location for strains is the: Your answer: back ankle shoulder knee14. A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to:Your answer:250cc100cc1000cc3000cc15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of:Your answer: lumbar vertebrae 1-3 thoracic vertebrae 2-5 cervical vertebrae 3-5 cervical vertebrae 6-716. Clues to congestive heart failure include:Your answer: swelling and dyspnea embolism bradycardia and anxiety pain and discomfort17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include: Your answer: aphasia decreased pulse rate chest pain wheezing sounds18. Which of the following is a true emergency?Your answer: hyperventilation tension pneumothorax angina pectoris spontaneous pneumothorax19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often:Your answer: warn and dry cold and clammy cyanotic red20. The pancreas produces a hormone called:Your answer: progesterone insulin glucose pancreatitis21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and: Your answer: generalized postictal partial psychomotor22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as:Your answer: jacksonian seizures status epilepticus grand mal seizures petit mal seizures23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause:Your answer: hyperglycemia diabetes mellitus elipespy hypoxia24. A fetus grows in the mother'sYour answer: placenta cervix uterus vagina25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should: Your answer: untie the cord transport immediately reclamp the cord apply another tie or clamp26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very:Your answer: spongy mascular compact vascular27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth?Your answer: gloved finger gauze tissues cotton packets28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are:Your answer: dilated unequal constricted pale orange 29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus?Your answer: spine sternum ulna mandible30. Which of the following muscle types move bones?Your answer: voluntary unstriated involuntary smooth31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is?Your answer:6-7 minutes15-17 minutes23-25 minutes2-3 minutes32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT:Your answer: hold a bandage in place prevent further contamination protect the wound from further injury help control bleeding33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of: Your answer: gastritis an abdominal aneurysm appendicitis bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is:Your answer: aspirin insulin dilantin epinephrine35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that:Your answer: there is no blood pressure drop it is not related to trauma there is no pallor or rapid pulse it cannot be corrected with the MAST garment36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:Your answer: severe blood loss airway obstruction chest trauma spinal injury37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to: Your answer: anaphylactic shock neurogenic shock metabolic shock psychogenic shock38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be:Your answer: hyperoxic hyperbaric hypoxic anabolic39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:Your answer: frail chest punctured pleura punctured lung fractured ribs40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs?Your answer: stomach, spleen, gallbladder, pancreas urinary bladder, gallbladder, stomach, uterus spleen, pancreas, liver, kidney gallbladder, pancreas, liver, small intestine41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because: Your answer: a "rupture" could occur the blood supply to the intestine could be shut off due to constriction vomitus may be aspirated shock is always a possibility42. Emergency care for an inguinal hernia includes:Your answer: pushing the hernia back inside the abdominal wall placing the patient on his stomach applying an ice pack to the hernia site all of the above43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide:Your answer: immediate transport100% oxygen assistance with ventilations, if necessary all of the above44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is:Your answer: an IV bag aluminum foil plastic wrap all of the above45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising oxygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a head injury helps: Your answer: stop bleeding clear the airway reduce brain tissue swelling all of the above46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the:Your answer: molar maxillae septum mandible47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a:Your answer: hip fracture femur dislocation femur fracture hip dislocation48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the:Your answer: glucose erythrocyte leukocyte isotonic49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water? Your answer: intravascular fluid interstitial fluid intercellular fluid extercellular fluid50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is:Your answer:15 lpm via blow-by6 lpm via blow-by2 lpm via nasal cannula15 lpm via nasal cannula51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition?Your answer: cerebrovascular accident diabetic coma insulin shock internal hemorrhage52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen?Your answer:28%4%48%40% 53. A full portable D cylinder contains:Your answer:350 liters of oxygen625 liters of oxygen200 liters of oxygen500 liters of oxygen54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately?Your answer:25,00010,000100,00050055. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients:Your answer: without a gag reflex<12 years old with an EOA in place who are breathing56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention, bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of:Your answer: narrowing pulse pressure simple pneumothorax traumatic asphyxia tension pneumothorax 57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position from transport should be:Your answer: left laterally recumbent right laterally recumbent semi-fowler's position supine and secured to a long backboard58. The ______is the bone in the anterior leg.Your answer: femur fibula patella tibia59. In layman's terms, the ______is called the shoulder blade.Your answer: radius scapula ulna clavicle60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:Your answer: a comminuted fracture a transverse fracture an impacted fracture an oblique fracture 61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ______pulse.Your answer: dorsalis pedis medial tibial posterior fibial popiteal62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called:Your answer: a laceration an incision an abrasion a hematoma63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:Your answer: a third-degree burn a fourth-degree burn a second-degree burn a first-degree burn64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned?Your answer:4.5%11%18%1% 65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately>Your answer:4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area1 percent of the patient's body surface area5 percent of the patient's body surface area2 percent of the patient's body surface area66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the anterior leg represents:Your answer:7 percent of the patient's body surface area1 percent of the patient's body surface area18 percent of the patient's body surface area4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT:Your answer: hypothermia hypovolemia plasma protein loss hyperthermia68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:Your answer: hypoxia and hypercarbia hypotension and bradycardia hypotension and hypoxia hypotension and hypercarbia 69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey?Your answer: level of consciousness breathing blood pressure airway70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:Your answer: kidneys stomach liver spleen71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:Your answer: ventilatory compromise cardiovascular compromise(a) and (b) worsening of thoracic bleeding72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the:Your answer: esophagus trachea left mainstem bronchus right mainstem bronchus73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as: Your answer: bradycardia irregular normocardia tachycardia74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How fast will you run it?Your answer:400 drops/min33 drops/min1 drop/min100 drops/min75. The primary concern with facial fractures is:Your answer: airway edema bleeding disfigurement76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through next?Your answer: tricuspid valve aortic valve mitral valve pulmonary valve77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent: Your answer: new cells will replace scar tissue function is lost, but can be restored function is loss and cannot be restored new cells will grow back with drug treatment78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:Your answer: left ventricle left atria right ventricle right atria79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus?Your answer: ulna scapula ischium femur80. The common name "wrist bones)", has what anatomical name?Your answer: metacarpals carpalges carpals phalanges81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be injured? Your answer: upper arm abdomen neck upper leg82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT:Your answer: sabaceous gland lesser omentum pappilla bulb83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT:Your answer: cochlea vestibular nerve stapes none of the above84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT:Your answer: hepatic flexure cystic duct pyloric sphincter ductus deferens85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT: Your answer: seminal vesicle labium minus uterus psoas muscle86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury.Your answer: objective examination secondary survey patient assessment primary survey87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is:Your answer:80-15060-90120-18060-12088. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized?Your answer:25% - 33%12% - 25%25% - 50%18% - 33%89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen? Your answer:35% - 60%80% - 95%24% - 40%24% - 44%90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsyYour answer:1,3,4,5,61,3,5,61,2,4,51,2,3,5,691. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. post-ictal 2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousnessYour answer:4,5,2,3,13,5,2,4,13,5,4,2,11,3,2,4,592. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pituitary glands may lead to what kind of shock?Your answer: psychogenic cardiogenic metabolic neurogenic 93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be of greater significance than the fracture.Your answer:True False 94. Synovial joints are highly movable.Your answer:True False 95. Poisons that are swallowed are:Your answer: inhaled absorbed ingested injected96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than:Your answer:100 ml500 ml10 ml25 ml97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply:Your answer: aluminum loose gauze dressing sterile pressure dressing plastic seal 98. The membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the:Your answer: peritoneum pleura mesentery meninges99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity?Your answer: closed fracture dislocation angulated fracture sprain100. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called:Your answer: albumins red blood cells white blood cells plateletsAnswers: Emergency Medical Technician Test 2001. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered: Your answer: displaced CORRECT! 2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is: Your answer: point tenderness CORRECT! 3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a: Your answer: rigid splint CORRECT! 4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as: Your answer: crepitus CORRECT! 5. A sling and swathe is an example of a: Your answer: soft splint CORRECT! 6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the: Your answer: hare splint CORRECT! 8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the: Your answer: distal radius CORRECT! 9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by: Your answer: an outward rotation of the foot CORRECT! 10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is: Your answer: sciatic nerve injury CORRECT! 11. A strain involves: Your answer: muscles CORRECT! 12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the: Your answer: shoulder CORRECT! 13. The most common location for strains is the: Your answer: back CORRECT! 14. A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to: Your answer: 1000cc CORRECT! 15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of: Your answer: cervical vertebrae 3-5 CORRECT! 16. Clues to congestive heart failure include: Your answer: swelling and dyspnea CORRECT! 17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include: Your answer: wheezing sounds CORRECT! 18. Which of the following is a true emergency? Your answer: tension pneumothorax CORRECT! 19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often: Your answer: cold and clammy CORRECT! 20. The pancreas produces a hormone called: Your answer: insulin CORRECT! 21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and: Your answer: postictal CORRECT! 22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as: Your answer: status epilepticus CORRECT! 23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause: Your answer: hypoxia CORRECT! 24. A fetus grows in the mother's Your answer: uterus CORRECT! 25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should: Your answer: apply another tie or clamp CORRECT! 26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very: Your answer: vascular CORRECT! 27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth? Your answer: gauze CORRECT! 28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are: Your answer: unequal CORRECT! 29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus? Your answer: ulna CORRECT! 30. Which of the following muscle types move bones? Your answer: voluntary CORRECT! 31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is? Your answer: 6-7 minutes CORRECT! 32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hold a bandage in place CORRECT! 33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of: Your answer: bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon CORRECT! 34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is: Your answer: epinephrine CORRECT! 35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that: Your answer: there is no pallor or rapid pulse CORRECT! 36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: severe blood loss CORRECT! 37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to: Your answer: metabolic shock CORRECT! 38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be: Your answer: hypoxic CORRECT! 39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates: Your answer: punctured lung CORRECT! 40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs? Your answer: spleen, pancreas, liver, kindey CORRECT! 41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because: Your answer: a "rupture" could occur CORRECT! 42. Emergency care for an ingunial hernia includes: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is: Your answer: aluminum foil CORRECT! 45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising osygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a head injury helps: Your answer: reduce brain tissue swelling CORRECT! 46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the: Your answer: mandible CORRECT! 47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a: Your answer: hip dislocation CORRECT! 48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the: Your answer: erythrocyte CORRECT! 49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water? Your answer: intercellular fluid CORRECT! 50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is: Your answer: 15 lpm via blow-by CORRECT! 51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition? Your answer: insulin shock CORRECT! 52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen? Your answer: 28% CORRECT! 53. A full portable D cylinder contains: Your answer: 350 liters of oxygen CORRECT! 54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately? Your answer: 100,000 CORRECT! 55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients: Your answer: <12 years old CORRECT! 56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention, bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of: Your answer: traumatic asphyxia CORRECT! 57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position from transport should be: Your answer: right laterally recumbent CORRECT! 58. The ______is the bone in the anterior leg. Your answer: tibia CORRECT! 59. In layman's terms, the ______is called the shoulder blade. Your answer: scapula CORRECT! 60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called: Your answer: a comminuted fracture CORRECT! 61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ______pulse. Your answer: dorsalis pedis CORRECT! 62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called: Your answer: an incision CORRECT! 63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with: Your answer: a third-degree burn CORRECT! 64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned? Your answer: 18% CORRECT! 65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately> Your answer: 1 percent of the patient's body surface area CORRECT! 66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the anterior leg represents: Your answer: 7 percent of the patient's body surface area CORRECT! 67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hyperthermia CORRECT! 68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are: Your answer: hypoxia and hypercarbia CORRECT! 69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey? Your answer: blood pressure CORRECT! 70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the: Your answer: stomach CORRECT! 71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in: Your answer: (a) and (b) CORRECT! 72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the: Your answer: right mainstem bronchus CORRECT! 73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as: Your answer: bradycardia CORRECT! 74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How fast will you run it? Your answer: 100 drops/min CORRECT! 75. The primary concern with facial fractures is: Your answer: airway CORRECT! 76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through next? Your answer: tricuspid valve CORRECT! 77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent: Your answer: function is loss and cannot be restored CORRECT! 78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the: Your answer: left ventricle CORRECT! 79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus? Your answer: femur CORRECT! 80. The common name "wrist bones", has what anatomical name? Your answer: carpals CORRECT! 81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be injured? Your answer: upper leg CORRECT! 82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT: Your answer: lesser omentum CORRECT! 83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT: Your answer: none of the above CORRECT! 84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT: Your answer: ductus deferens CORRECT! 85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT: Your answer: psoas muscle CORRECT! 86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury. Your answer: patient assessment CORRECT! 87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is: Your answer: 80-150 CORRECT! 88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized? Your answer: 25% - 33% CORRECT! 89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen? Your answer: 35% - 60% CORRECT! 90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy Your answer: 1,3,4,5,6 CORRECT! 91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. post-ictal 2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness Your answer: 1,3,2,4,5 CORRECT! 92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pitutary glands may lead to what kind of shock? Your answer: metabolic CORRECT! 93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be of greater significance than the fracture. Your answer: True CORRECT! 94. Synovial joints are highly movable. Your answer: True CORRECT! 95. Poisons that are swallowed are: Your answer: ingested CORRECT! 96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than: Your answer: 25 ml CORRECT! 97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply: Your answer: loose gauze dressing CORRECT! 98. The membrance surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the: Your answer: meninges CORRECT! 99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity? Your answer: sprain CORRECT! 100.The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called: Your answer: red blood cells CORRECT!

Emergency Medical Technician Test 2

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