Emergency Medical Technician Test 2

1. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered:

Your answer:

displaced

nondisplaced

rotated

complicated

2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is:

Your answer:

point tenderness

a contusion

a bruise

ecchymosis

3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a:

Your answer:

lateral splint

rigid splint

trauma splint

soft splint

4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as:

Your answer:

crepitus

epiphyses

deformity

costal grating 5. A sling and swathe is an example of a:

Your answer:

rigid splint

mobile splint

compound splint

soft splint

6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include:

Your answer:

deformity

swelling and dislocation

lose of use

all of the above

7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the:

Your answer:

colles splint

wire ladder splint

full leg air splint

hare splint

8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the:

Your answer:

proximal radius

distal tibia

proximal fibula

distal radius

9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by: Your answer:

an outward rotation of the foot

lengthening of the injured leg

knee dislocations

associated ankle fractures

10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is:

Your answer:

sciatic nerve injury

an outward rotation of the thigh

loss of all distal pulses

extension of the limb

11. A strain involves:

Your answer:

tendons

muscles

ligaments

all of the above

12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the:

Your answer:

shoulder

13. The most common location for strains is the: Your answer:

shoulder

14. A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to:

Your answer:

1000cc

3000cc

15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of:

Your answer:

lumbar vertebrae 1-3

thoracic vertebrae 2-5

cervical vertebrae 3-5

cervical vertebrae 6-7

16. Clues to congestive heart failure include:

Your answer:

swelling and dyspnea

embolism

bradycardia and anxiety

pain and discomfort

17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include: Your answer:

aphasia

decreased pulse rate

chest pain

wheezing sounds

18. Which of the following is a true emergency?

Your answer:

hyperventilation

tension pneumothorax

angina pectoris

spontaneous pneumothorax

19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often:

Your answer:

warn and dry

cold and clammy

cyanotic

20. The pancreas produces a hormone called:

Your answer:

progesterone

insulin

glucose

pancreatitis

21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and: Your answer:

generalized

postictal

partial

psychomotor

22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as:

Your answer:

jacksonian seizures

status epilepticus

grand mal seizures

petit mal seizures

23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause:

Your answer:

hyperglycemia

diabetes mellitus

elipespy

hypoxia

24. A fetus grows in the mother's

Your answer:

placenta

cervix

uterus

vagina

25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should: Your answer:

untie the cord

transport immediately

reclamp the cord

apply another tie or clamp

26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very:

Your answer:

spongy

mascular

compact

vascular

27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth?

Your answer:

gloved finger

tissues

cotton packets

28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are:

Your answer:

dilated

unequal

constricted

pale orange 29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus?

Your answer:

sternum

mandible

30. Which of the following muscle types move bones?

Your answer:

voluntary

unstriated

involuntary

smooth

31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is?

Your answer:

6-7 minutes

15-17 minutes

23-25 minutes

2-3 minutes

32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT:

Your answer:

hold a bandage in place

prevent further contamination

protect the wound from further injury

help control bleeding

33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of: Your answer:

gastritis

an abdominal aneurysm

appendicitis

bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon

34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is:

Your answer:

aspirin

insulin

dilantin

epinephrine

35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that:

Your answer:

there is no blood pressure drop

it is not related to trauma

there is no pallor or rapid pulse

it cannot be corrected with the MAST garment

36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

Your answer:

severe blood loss

airway obstruction

chest trauma

spinal injury

37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to: Your answer:

anaphylactic shock

neurogenic shock

metabolic shock

psychogenic shock

38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be:

Your answer:

hyperoxic

hyperbaric

hypoxic

anabolic

39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:

Your answer:

frail chest

punctured pleura

punctured lung

fractured ribs

40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs?

Your answer:

stomach, spleen, gallbladder, pancreas

urinary bladder, gallbladder, stomach, uterus

spleen, pancreas, liver, kidney

gallbladder, pancreas, liver, small intestine

41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because: Your answer:

a "rupture" could occur

the blood supply to the intestine could be shut off due to constriction

vomitus may be aspirated

shock is always a possibility

42. Emergency care for an inguinal hernia includes:

Your answer:

pushing the hernia back inside the abdominal wall

placing the patient on his stomach

applying an ice pack to the hernia site

all of the above

43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide:

Your answer:

immediate transport

100% oxygen

assistance with ventilations, if necessary

all of the above

44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is:

Your answer:

an IV bag

aluminum foil

plastic wrap

all of the above

45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising oxygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a head injury helps: Your answer:

stop bleeding

clear the airway

reduce brain tissue swelling

all of the above

46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the:

Your answer:

maxillae

septum

mandible

47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a:

Your answer:

hip fracture

femur dislocation

femur fracture

hip dislocation

48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the:

Your answer:

glucose

erythrocyte

leukocyte

isotonic

49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water? Your answer:

intravascular fluid

interstitial fluid

intercellular fluid

extercellular fluid

50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is:

Your answer:

15 lpm via blow-by

6 lpm via blow-by

2 lpm via nasal cannula

15 lpm via nasal cannula

51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition?

Your answer:

cerebrovascular accident

diabetic coma

insulin shock

internal hemorrhage

52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen?

Your answer:

40% 53. A full portable D cylinder contains:

Your answer:

350 liters of oxygen

54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately?

Your answer:

25,000

10,000

100,000

55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients:

Your answer:

without a gag reflex

<12 years old

with an EOA in place

who are breathing

56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention, bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of:

Your answer:

narrowing pulse pressure

simple pneumothorax

traumatic asphyxia

tension pneumothorax 57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position from transport should be:

Your answer:

left laterally recumbent

right laterally recumbent

semi-fowler's position

supine and secured to a long backboard

58. The ______is the bone in the anterior leg.

Your answer:

fibula

patella

59. In layman's terms, the ______is called the shoulder blade.

Your answer:

radius

scapula

clavicle

60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:

Your answer:

a comminuted fracture

a transverse fracture

an impacted fracture

an oblique fracture 61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ______pulse.

Your answer:

dorsalis pedis

medial tibial

posterior fibial

popiteal

62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called:

Your answer:

a laceration

an incision

an abrasion

a hematoma

63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:

Your answer:

a third-degree burn

a fourth-degree burn

a second-degree burn

a first-degree burn

64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned?

Your answer:

1% 65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately>

Your answer:

4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area

1 percent of the patient's body surface area

66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the anterior leg represents:

Your answer:

4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area

67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT:

Your answer:

hypothermia

hypovolemia

plasma protein loss

hyperthermia

68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:

Your answer:

hypoxia and hypercarbia

hypotension and bradycardia

hypotension and hypoxia

hypotension and hypercarbia 69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey?

Your answer:

level of consciousness

breathing

blood pressure

airway

70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:

Your answer:

kidneys

stomach

spleen

71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:

Your answer:

ventilatory compromise

cardiovascular compromise

(a) and (b)

worsening of thoracic bleeding

72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the:

Your answer:

esophagus

trachea

left mainstem bronchus

right mainstem bronchus

73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as: Your answer:

bradycardia

irregular

normocardia

tachycardia

74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How fast will you run it?

Your answer:

400 drops/min

33 drops/min

1 drop/min

100 drops/min

75. The primary concern with facial fractures is:

Your answer:

airway

bleeding

disfigurement

76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through next?

Your answer:

tricuspid valve

aortic valve

mitral valve

pulmonary valve

77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent: Your answer:

new cells will replace scar tissue

function is lost, but can be restored

function is loss and cannot be restored

new cells will grow back with drug treatment

78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:

Your answer:

left ventricle

left atria

right ventricle

right atria

79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus?

Your answer:

scapula

ischium

80. The common name "wrist bones)", has what anatomical name?

Your answer:

metacarpals

carpalges

carpals

phalanges

81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be injured? Your answer:

upper arm

abdomen

upper leg

82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT:

Your answer:

sabaceous gland

lesser omentum

pappilla

83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT:

Your answer:

cochlea

vestibular nerve

stapes

none of the above

84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT:

Your answer:

hepatic flexure

cystic duct

pyloric sphincter

ductus deferens

85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT: Your answer:

seminal vesicle

labium minus

uterus

psoas muscle

86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury.

Your answer:

objective examination

secondary survey

patient assessment

primary survey

87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is:

Your answer:

80-150

120-180

60-120

88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized?

Your answer:

25% - 33%

12% - 25%

25% - 50%

18% - 33%

89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen? Your answer:

35% - 60%

80% - 95%

24% - 40%

24% - 44%

90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy

Your answer:

1,3,4,5,6

1,3,5,6

1,2,4,5

1,2,3,5,6

91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. post-ictal 2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness

Your answer:

4,5,2,3,1

3,5,2,4,1

3,5,4,2,1

1,3,2,4,5

92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pituitary glands may lead to what kind of shock?

Your answer:

psychogenic

cardiogenic

metabolic

neurogenic 93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be of greater significance than the fracture.

Your answer:

True False

94. Synovial joints are highly movable.

Your answer:

True False

95. Poisons that are swallowed are:

Your answer:

inhaled

absorbed

ingested

injected

96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than:

Your answer:

100 ml

500 ml

97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply:

Your answer:

aluminum

loose gauze dressing

sterile pressure dressing

plastic seal 98. The membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the:

Your answer:

peritoneum

pleura

mesentery

meninges

99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity?

Your answer:

closed fracture

dislocation

angulated fracture

sprain

100. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called:

Your answer:

albumins

red blood cells

white blood cells

platelets

Answers: Emergency Medical Technician Test 200

1. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered: Your answer: displaced CORRECT! 2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is: Your answer: point tenderness CORRECT! 3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a: Your answer: rigid splint CORRECT! 4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as: Your answer: crepitus CORRECT! 5. A sling and swathe is an example of a: Your answer: soft splint CORRECT! 6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the: Your answer: hare splint CORRECT! 8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the: Your answer: distal radius CORRECT! 9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by: Your answer: an outward rotation of the foot CORRECT! 10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is: Your answer: sciatic nerve injury CORRECT! 11. A strain involves: Your answer: muscles CORRECT! 12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the: Your answer: shoulder CORRECT! 13. The most common location for strains is the: Your answer: back CORRECT! 14. A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to: Your answer: 1000cc CORRECT! 15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of: Your answer: cervical vertebrae 3-5 CORRECT! 16. Clues to congestive heart failure include: Your answer: swelling and dyspnea CORRECT! 17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include: Your answer: wheezing sounds CORRECT! 18. Which of the following is a true emergency? Your answer: tension pneumothorax CORRECT! 19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often: Your answer: cold and clammy CORRECT! 20. The pancreas produces a hormone called: Your answer: insulin CORRECT! 21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and: Your answer: postictal CORRECT! 22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as: Your answer: status epilepticus CORRECT! 23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause: Your answer: hypoxia CORRECT! 24. A fetus grows in the mother's Your answer: uterus CORRECT! 25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should: Your answer: apply another tie or clamp CORRECT! 26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very: Your answer: vascular CORRECT! 27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth? Your answer: gauze CORRECT! 28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are: Your answer: unequal CORRECT! 29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus? Your answer: ulna CORRECT! 30. Which of the following muscle types move bones? Your answer: voluntary CORRECT! 31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is? Your answer: 6-7 minutes CORRECT! 32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hold a bandage in place CORRECT! 33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of: Your answer: bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon CORRECT! 34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is: Your answer: epinephrine CORRECT! 35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that: Your answer: there is no pallor or rapid pulse CORRECT! 36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: severe blood loss CORRECT! 37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to: Your answer: metabolic shock CORRECT! 38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be: Your answer: hypoxic CORRECT! 39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates: Your answer: punctured lung CORRECT! 40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs? Your answer: spleen, pancreas, liver, kindey CORRECT! 41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because: Your answer: a "rupture" could occur CORRECT! 42. Emergency care for an ingunial hernia includes: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is: Your answer: aluminum foil CORRECT! 45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising osygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a head injury helps: Your answer: reduce brain tissue swelling CORRECT! 46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the: Your answer: mandible CORRECT! 47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a: Your answer: hip dislocation CORRECT! 48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the: Your answer: erythrocyte CORRECT! 49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water? Your answer: intercellular fluid CORRECT! 50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is: Your answer: 15 lpm via blow-by CORRECT! 51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition? Your answer: insulin shock CORRECT! 52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen? Your answer: 28% CORRECT! 53. A full portable D cylinder contains: Your answer: 350 liters of oxygen CORRECT! 54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately? Your answer: 100,000 CORRECT! 55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients: Your answer: <12 years old CORRECT! 56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention, bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of: Your answer: traumatic asphyxia CORRECT! 57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position from transport should be: Your answer: right laterally recumbent CORRECT! 58. The ______is the bone in the anterior leg. Your answer: tibia CORRECT! 59. In layman's terms, the ______is called the shoulder blade. Your answer: scapula CORRECT! 60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called: Your answer: a comminuted fracture CORRECT! 61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ______pulse. Your answer: dorsalis pedis CORRECT! 62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called: Your answer: an incision CORRECT! 63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with: Your answer: a third-degree burn CORRECT! 64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned? Your answer: 18% CORRECT! 65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately> Your answer: 1 percent of the patient's body surface area CORRECT! 66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the anterior leg represents: Your answer: 7 percent of the patient's body surface area CORRECT! 67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hyperthermia CORRECT! 68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are: Your answer: hypoxia and hypercarbia CORRECT! 69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey? Your answer: blood pressure CORRECT! 70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the: Your answer: stomach CORRECT! 71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in: Your answer: (a) and (b) CORRECT! 72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the: Your answer: right mainstem bronchus CORRECT! 73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as: Your answer: bradycardia CORRECT! 74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How fast will you run it? Your answer: 100 drops/min CORRECT! 75. The primary concern with facial fractures is: Your answer: airway CORRECT! 76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through next? Your answer: tricuspid valve CORRECT! 77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent: Your answer: function is loss and cannot be restored CORRECT! 78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the: Your answer: left ventricle CORRECT! 79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus? Your answer: femur CORRECT! 80. The common name "wrist bones", has what anatomical name? Your answer: carpals CORRECT! 81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be injured? Your answer: upper leg CORRECT! 82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT: Your answer: lesser omentum CORRECT! 83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT: Your answer: none of the above CORRECT! 84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT: Your answer: ductus deferens CORRECT! 85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT: Your answer: psoas muscle CORRECT! 86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury. Your answer: patient assessment CORRECT! 87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is: Your answer: 80-150 CORRECT! 88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized? Your answer: 25% - 33% CORRECT! 89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen? Your answer: 35% - 60% CORRECT! 90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy Your answer: 1,3,4,5,6 CORRECT! 91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. post-ictal 2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness Your answer: 1,3,2,4,5 CORRECT! 92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pitutary glands may lead to what kind of shock? Your answer: metabolic CORRECT! 93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be of greater significance than the fracture. Your answer: True CORRECT! 94. Synovial joints are highly movable. Your answer: True CORRECT! 95. Poisons that are swallowed are: Your answer: ingested CORRECT! 96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than: Your answer: 25 ml CORRECT! 97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply: Your answer: loose gauze dressing CORRECT! 98. The membrance surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the: Your answer: meninges CORRECT! 99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity? Your answer: sprain CORRECT! 100.The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called: Your answer: red blood cells CORRECT!