SARTHI – PUNE – UPSC – CET - 2019B
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GENERAL STUDIES PAPER – I - ANSWER KEY AND EXPLAINATION
QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER NUMBER NUMBER NUMBER 1 D 26 A 51 D 2 D 27 D 52 A 3 D 28 D 53 D 4 C 29 D 54 A 5 C 30 B 55 B 6 B 31 B 56 D 7 D 32 A 57 D 8 A 33 D 58 C 9 A 34 A 59 A 10 D 35 A 60 B 11 B 36 D 61 C 12 D 37 B 62 A 13 D 38 A 63 D 14 C 39 D 64 B 15 A 40 D 65 A 16 C 41 C 66 C 17 C 42 C 67 B 18 B 43 D 68 A 19 C 44 B 69 D 20 A 45 A 70 A 21 C 46 C 71 C 22 B 47 C 72 A 23 C 48 A 73 A 24 C 49 D 74 B 25 A 50 B 75 A
Que. 1 d
C. Rajagopalachari, the veteran congress leader, prepared a formula for Congress league cooperation in 1944. It was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the formula. The main points in the CR Plan were: i. The League was to endorse the Indian demand for independence and to co-operate with the Congress in formation of Provisional Interim Government for a transitional period. ii. At the end of the War, a commission would be appointed to demarcate the districts having a Muslim population in absolute majority and in those areas plebiscite to be conducted on all inhabitants (including the non-Muslims) on basis of adult suffrage. iii. All parties would be allowed to express their stance on the partition and their views before the plebiscite. iv. In the event of separation, a mutual agreement would be entered into for safeguarding essential matters such as defense, communication and commerce and for other essential services. v. The transfer of population, if any would be absolutely on a voluntary basis. vi. The terms of the binding will be applicable only in case of full transfer of power by Britain to Government of India.
Que. 2 d
Bose met Hitler and with his help, the ‘Freedom Army’ was formed which consisted of all the prisoners of war of Indian origin captured by Germany and Italy. Dresden, Germany was made the office of the freedom army. Bose came to be called ‘Netaji’ by the people of the Germany. He gave the famous slogan, ‘Jai Hind’ from the free India, Germany. On October 21, 1943 Bose formed the provisional govt. for free India at Singapore with S. C. Chatterjee , M.A. Aiyar, Lakshmi Swaminathan, etc. the famous slogan, “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” was given in Malaya. On July 6, 1944 Bose addressed Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of Nation’ from the Azad Hind Radio station (the first person to call Gandhi, ‘Father of Nation’).
Que. 3 d
The Republican Party of India is a political party in India. It has its roots in the Scheduled Castes Federation led by B. R. Ambedkar. The 'Training School for Entrance to Politics' was established by Ambedkar in 1956 which was to serve as an entry point to the Republican Party of India.
In June, 1951 Indian National Congress dissidents led by Jivatram Kripalani founded the KMPP. Its 2 leaders: Prafulla Chandra Ghosh and Tanguturi Prakasam, had been chief ministers of West Bengal and Madras respectively. It contested the very first parliamentary elections in 1951 in India.
Syama Prasad Mukherjee (6 July 1901 – 23 June 1953) was an Indian politician, barrister and academician, who served as the Minister for Industry and Supply in Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet. After falling out with Nehru, Mukherjee quit the Indian National Congress because of differences of opinion with Nehru led government on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir. With the help of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, he founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, the predecessor to the Bharatiya Janata Party, in 1951.
Que . 4 c
Fazl Ali Commission
Chairman : Fazl Ali
Members: Hridaynath Kunzru and K.M.Panikkar
After the formation of Andhra Pradesh on the basis of linguistic factor, all hell breaks loose. The other regions also started demanding for creation of separate states on the basis of linguistic factor. The intense pressure forced the Indian Government to form a new commission to visit the whole question of whether the linguistic basis of separation of states can be considered or not. It led to the formation of Fazl Ali Commission in December 1953.
The commission submitted its report on September 1955 and acknowledged 4 major factors to be taken into account in any scheme of reorganization of states:
1. Linguistic and Cultural homogeneity.
2. Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the nation.
3. Financial, Economic and Administrative considerations.
4. Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the Nation as a whole.
It suggested the reorganization of 27 states of various categories into 16 states and 3 Union Territories. The recommendations of the Fazl Ali Commission were accepted by the Indian Government with minor modifications. As a result, the State Reorganization Act of 1956 was passed by the Parliament to give effect to the recommendation of the commission. It led to the formation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories on 1st November, 1956.
Que. 5 c
The Instrument of Accession is a legal document executed by Maharaja Hari Singh, ruler of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, on 26 October 1947. By executing this document under the provisions of the Indian Independence Act 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh agreed to accede to the Dominion of India.
John Mathai presented the first Railway Budget for independent India in November 1947.
Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on 30 January 1948 in the compound of Birla House (now Gandhi Smite), a large mansion in New Delhi.
The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized with effect from 1st January, 1949 on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948. All shares in the capital of the Bank were deemed transferred to the Central Government on payment of a suitable compensation.
Que. 6 b
On December 31, 1929 at the Lahore (Pakistan, after independence)) Congress, Pandit Nehru hoisted the Swaraj flag on the banks of the River Ravi and declared Purna Swaraj as the goal of freedom movement with a fervent call to observe next January 26, 1930 as Independence Day. The Lucknow session of Indian National Congress, presided over by a Moderate, Ambika Charan Mujumdar finally readmitted the extremists led by Tilak to the congress fold. Another significant development to take place at Lucknow was the coming together of the Muslim League and the Congress and the presentation of common demands by them to the govt. this happened at a time when the Muslim League now dominated by the younger militant nationalist, was coming closer to the Congress objectives and turning increasingly anti-imperialist.
Que. 7 d
Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations made to the Imperial Legislative Council by the Rowlatt Commission, headed by the British Judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt, to investigate the ‘seditious conspiracy’ of the Indian people. ( The committee had recommended that activists should be deported or imprisoned without trial for two years, and that even possession of seditious newspapers would be adequate evidence of guilt).
1. The Act allowed political activists to be tried without juries or even imprisoned without trial.
2. It allowed arrest of Indians without warrant on the mere suspicion of ‘treason’. Such suspects could be tried in secrecy without recourse to legal help.
3. A special cell consisting of three high court judges was to try such suspects and there was no court of appeal above the panel. This panel could even accept evidence not acceptable under the Indian Evidences Act.
4. The law of Habeas Corpus, the basis of civil liberty, was sought to be suspended.
Que. 8 a
Shreemati Nathibai Damodar Thackersey Women’s University (SNDT), Mumbai is the first Women’s university in India as well as in South-East Asia. It was founded in 1916.
Que. 9 a
Zamindari Association, the reckoned to be the first political association of modern India. Formally launched in Calcutta in March 1838, it was renamed the Landholders' Society shortly afterwards. Landed magnates like Raja Radhakant dev, Dwarkanath Tagore, Prasanna Kumar Tagore, Rajkamal Sen and Bhabani Charan Mitra were its leading members.
British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at Calcutta with Raja Radhakanta Dev and Debendranath Tagore as its President and Secretary respectively. Other members of the Association included Ramgopal Ghosh, Peary Chand Mitra and Krishnadas Pal. Its membership was kept exclusive to Indians.
Indian National Association was the first declared Nationalist Organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876 at Culcutta. It was originally established as Bharat Sabha and held its first annual conference in Culcutta. It merged in INC in 1885.
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1867 by Mahadev Govind Ranade and others in Bombay with the object of serving as a bridge between the govt. and the people.
Que. 10 d
The statement - “The only hope of India is from the masses. The upper classes are physically and morally dead.” - was made by Swami Vivekananda in the context of the need for mass action by the Indian people.
Que. 11 b
Banskhera or Banskheda , meaning the land bearing Bamboo, is an ancient village in in Uttar Pradesh or Bihar. Banskhera is known in the Indian history for the discovery of Banskhera copper plate of Harshavardhana. The copper plate bears the signature the great king of kings, Harshavardhana. It was issued in 22nd year of Harsha's reign i.e. 628-629 AD. This copper plate gives the ancestry of Harsha. It is important that this plate bears signature of Harsha. This inscription was issued from place named Vardhamanakoti.
The Madhuben plate inscription and the Sonpat inscription are also helpful to know the chronology of Harsha.
Que. 12 d
According to the scriptures of all Buddhist schools, the first Buddhist Council was held soon after the death of the Buddha, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE, under the patronage of the king Ajatashatru with the monk Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapanni caves Rajgriha (now Rajgir).
The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaisali (or Vaishali), an ancient city in what is now the state of Bihar in northern India, bordering Nepal under the patronage of King Kalasoka while it was presided by Sabakami. This Council probably was held about a century after the first one, or about 383 BCE.
The Third Buddhist council was convened in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Pataliputra, supposedly under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka. This is however disputed, as mention of the council never appears in the Edicts of Ashoka.
The fourth Buddhist council was held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Kashmir. It was presided by Vasumitra, while Asvaghosa was his deputy. The council was held under the patronage of Kushan King Kanishka of Kushan Empire. Buddhism was divided into two sects namely Mahayan and Hinayan.
Que. 13 d
Storm Centres and Leaders of the Revolt.
Delhi – General Khan
Kanpur – Nana Saheb
Lucknow – Begum Hazrat Mahal
Bareilly – Khan Bahadur
Bihar – Kunwar Singh
Faizabad – Maulvi Ahmadullah
Jhansi – Rani Laxmibai Que. 14 c
Konark Sun Temple is a 13th century Temple also known as the Black Pagoda built at Konark, in Odisha, India. It was built by King Narasimha Deva of Eastern Ganga Dynasty around 1250.
Puri is one of the most popular pilgrimage destinations in Orissa and in India. The Jagannath Temple, known as the White Pagoda, dates back to the 12th century. It is situated in a huge complex, and the 200 feet high temple dominates the Puri skyline. Puri is famous for its chariot festival or the rath yatra which attracts thousands of pilgrims. Puri is a great center of Vaishnavism.
Que. 15 a
Buddhacharita ("Acts of the Buddha"; Buddhacaritam, Devanagari बुद्धचरितम्) is an epic poem in the Sanskrit mahakavya style on the life of Gautama Buddha by Asvaghoṣa, composed in the early second century CE.
Asvaghosa also wrote a Sanskrit Drama “Sariputra Prakaran” which deals about Sariputta or Sariputra the disciple of Buddha.
He also wrote Saundarananda, a kavya poem with the theme of conversion of Nanda, Buddha's half- brother, so that he might reach salvation. The first half of the work describes Nanda's life, and the second half of the work describes Buddhist doctrines and ascetic practices.
Svapnavasavadattam is a Sanskrit play in six acts written by the ancient Indian poet Bhasa. It is probably the best known of Bhasa's works.
Que. 16 c
Sattriya introduced by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva.
Sattriya Nritya is accompanied by musical compositions called borgeets.
The costumes are usually made of pat – a silk produced in Assam which is derived from the mulberry plant.
There are 2 types of costumes: the male costume comprising the dhoti and chadar and the female costume comprising the ghuri and chadar.
Que. 17 c
Right knowledge, right faith, and right conduct are the three most essentials for attaining liberation in Jainism. In order to acquire these, one must observe the five great principles:
Non-violence - Ahimsa
Truth - Satya
Non-stealing - Achaurya or Asteya
Celibacy/Chastity - Brahmacharya
Non-attachment/Non-possession – Aparigraha
Que. 18 b
The Battle of Bedara (1759) was fought between the English and Dutch army in Bengal, India. In this battle, the Dutch force was decisively defeated by the British forces and that helped British East India Company to assert their supremacy in India.
The Battle of Wandiwash was a decisive battle in India during the Seven Years' War. The Count de Lally's army, burdened by a lack of naval support and funds, attempted to regain the fort at Vandavasi, now in Tamil Nadu. He was attacked by Sir Eyre Coote's forces and decisively defeated.
Fort Saint George, citadel built by the British East India Company in Madras (now Chennai), India, later becoming the British capital in south India. The fort, named in honour of Britain’s patron saint, is well preserved by the state of Tamil Nadu (formerly Madras).The East India Company’s original trading station in south India was at Masulipatam, established in 1611. It was moved to Madras, where permission to build a fort was obtained from the raja of Chandragiri in 1639, mainly because it was nearer the weaving centres from which the company obtained goods for export to Persia and the East Indies. It became the headquarters of the company in south India in 1641, and it was the first company settlement in India to be fortified.
The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle that ended the war made provision for Madras to be returned to the British in exchange for Louisbourg in Acadia which had been captured by British forces in 1745. The French besieged Madras again in 1759, this time without success.
Que. 19 c
Chauth (from Sanskrit meaning one-fourth) was a regular tax or tribute imposed, from early 18th century, by the Maratha Empire in India. It was an annual tax nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name. It was levied on the lands which were under nominal Mughal rule.
The sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% levy on top of the chauth. It is a tribute paid to the king. It was started by Raja Som Shah of Ramnagar State.
Que. 20 a
Black Hole of Calcutta, scene of an incident on June 20, 1756, in which a number of Europeans were imprisoned in Calcutta (now Kolkata) and many died. The Europeans were the remaining defenders of Calcutta following the capture of the city by the nawab (ruler) Siraj al-Dawlah, of Bengal, and the surrender of the East India Company’s garrison under the self-proclaimed governor of Bengal, John Z. Holwell. The incident became a cause celebre in the idealization of British imperialism in India and a subject of controversy.
Que. 21 c
According to this, any princely state under the direct or indirect (as a vassal) control of the East India Company where the ruler did not have a legal male heir would be annexed by the company.
This was not introduced by Lord Dalhousie even though it was he who documented it, and used it widely to acquire territories for the British.
As per this, any adopted son of the Indian ruler could not be proclaimed as heir to the kingdom. The adopted son would only inherit his foster father’s personal property and estates. The adopted son would also not be entitled to any pension that his father had been receiving or to any of his father’s titles.
This challenged the Indian ruler’s long-held authority to appoint an heir of their choice.
Que. 22 b
On 6 October 1839, Debendranath Tagore established Tattvaranjini Sabha which was shortly thereafter renamed the Tattwabodhini (Truth-seekers) Sabha. Initially confined to immediate members of the Tagore family, in 2 years it mustered over 500 members.
The objective of Tattvabodhini Sabha was to encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the essence of Upanishads. On 21 December 1841, Debendranath Tagore and his around 20 associates joined the Brahmo Samaj and thus the mission of Raja Ram Mohan Roy got a fresh blood.
Que. 23 c
Vijayawada lies on the banks of Krishna River, covered by hills and canals. It is 18.5 km (11.5 mi) from the state capital, Amravati.
Ahmadabad is located on the banks of the Sabarmati River, 30 km (19 mi) from the state capital Gandhinagar, which is its twin city. Ahmedabad has emerged as an important economic and industrial hub in India.
Srinagar is the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir. It is situated in the Kashmir Valley and lies on the banks of the Jhelum River, a tributary of the Indus. The city is famous for its gardens, lakes and houseboats.
Varanasi, also called Benares, Banaras, or Kashi, city, southeastern Uttar Pradesh state, northern India. It is located on the left bank of the Ganges (Ganga) River and is one of the seven sacred cities of Hinduism.
Que. 24 c
Coromandal Coast is the Southern part between Krishna and Kaveri Rivers.
Northern part of the Western Coast is called Konkan (Mumbai-Goa).
Chilka Lake is a brackish water lake along the Eastern Coastal plain.
Que. 25 a
Anshi National Park is located in a pristine part of the Western Ghats and is known for the richness of its flora and fauna. It is located at a distance of 60 km from Karwar in Uttar Kannada district, Karnataka. The park spans across an area of 340 sq. km and is believed to be India’s most endangered Wildlife Park.
Valmiki National Park, Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary is located at the India-Nepal border in the West Champaran district of Bihar, India on the bank of river Gandak. It is the only National park in Bihar.
The Orang National Park also known as Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park which is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of Assam, India, covers an area of 78.81 square kilometres.
Que. 26 a
The Tungabhadra project also known as Pampa Sagar is constructed across the Tungabhadra River, a tributary of the Krishna River. The dam is in Hosapete, Ballari district of Karnataka.
Rihand project is the most important multi-purpose project in Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the borders of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. The Rihand River flows across a narrow gorge in the Vindhyan ranges in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh.
The Bheema irrigation project or Rajiv Bheema Project is a lift irrigation canal project located in Mahbubnagar district in Telangana, India.
Tawa Reservoir is a reservoir on the Tawa River in central India. It is located in Itarsi of Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh state, above Betul district.
Que. 27 d
6 degree channel – separates Indira Point and Indonesia.
8 degree channel – separates Maldives and Minicoy.
9 degree channel – separates Lakshadweep and Minicoy islands.
10 degree channel – separates Andaman and Nicobar.
Que. 28 d
Methods like Solar winds, Degassing, Photosynthesis adds up in the modification and formation of present atmosphere. All these methods helps in making the environment pollution free and healthy. These methods also supports the survival of living beings.
One of the methods which is not related to the modification of the atmosphere is the method of differentiation. There is no such method introduced yet.
Differentiation: The process by which earth forming material got separated into different layers is called differentiation. Starting from the surface to the central parts, we have the layers like crust, mantle, outer core and inner core. From the crust to the core, density of the material increases.
Que. 29 d
Mulching is a simple process of using garden leftovers such as straw, leaves, grass clippings and shredded trees to cover any bare soil in the garden. Mulching returns organic materials and nutrients to the soil and it has the added benefit of preventing weeds or unwanted grass growth. An ideal place for mulch is around the base of trees and shrubs.
Advantages of mulching
The introduction of mulching into your garden will provide the following rewards:
• protection of the soil from harsh environmental conditions.
• prevention of weed growth.
• soil will retain more moisture. • prevention of erosion.
• improved soil conditions and healthier plants.
• will encourage beneficial organisms such as earthworms to the soil.
• the mulch acts as a fertiliser. • less weeding and watering necessary
Some methods of soil conservation is listed below:
Intercropping: Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash
Contour ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope. If ploughing in done at right angles to the hill slope, following the natural contours of the hill, the ridges and furrows break the flow of water down the hill This prevents excessive soil loss as gullies are less likely to develop and also reduce run-off so that plants receive more water. Thus by growing crops in contour pattern, plants can absorb much of the rain water and erosion is minimised. When viewed from above, the field looks like a contour map.
Shelter belt: In the coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect the soil cover. Shelter belts are rows of trees, usually along fence lines.
Terrace farming: Terrace farming is the practice of cutting flat areas out of a hilly or mountainous landscape in order to grow crops. Steps are cut out on the slopes of the hills making terraces. Crops are then grown over it. Terrace farming reduces soil erosion.
Rock dam: Rocks are piled up across a channel to slow down the flow of water. This prevents gullies and further soil loss
Mulching: The bare ground between plant is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture.
Contour barrier: stones, grass, soil are used to build barrier along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water. They intercept downslope flowing water and soil particles. These barriers slow down the water movement and reduce its erosive force. They also filter out and trap many of the suspended soil particles, keeping them from being washed out of the field.
Strip Cropping: Crops may be cultivated in alternate strips, parallel to one another. Some strips may be allowed to lie fallow while in other different crops may be sown. Various crops are harvested at different intervals. This ensures that at no time of the year the entire area is left bare or exposed. The tall growing crops act as windbreaks and the strips which are often parallel to the contours help in increasing water absorption by the soil by slowing down runoff.
Crop Rotation: Crop rotation is a practice in which a different crop is cultivated on a piece of land each year. This helps to conserve soil fertility as different crops require different nutrients from the soil. Crop rotation will provide enough time to restore lost nutrients.
Que. 30 b
Petrology: Petrology is a science that deals with the origin, history, occurrence, structure, chemical composition, mineral composition, texture, alteration, relationship with other rocks, and classification of rocks. It is the branch of geology that studies rocks and the conditions under which they form. Petrology has three subdivisions: igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary petrology. Igneous and metamorphic petrology are commonly taught together because they both contain heavy use of chemistry, chemical methods, and phase diagrams. Sedimentary petrology is, on the other hand, commonly taught together with stratigraphy because it deals with the processes that form sedimentary rock.
Que.31 b
Census is the basis for reviewing the country's progress in the past decade, monitoring the on-going schemes of the Government and most importantly, plan for the future. That is why the slogan of Census 2011 is "Our Census, Our Future".
The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. While it has been undertaken every 10 years, beginning in 1872 under british Viceroy Lord Mayo, the first complete census was taken in 1881.[1] Post 1949, it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act. The last census was held in 2011. The next will be held in 2021. Also it was 1st conducted at the time of industrial revolutions too.
Census of India prior to Independence:
I. 1872 Census of india
II. 1881 Census of India
III. 1891 Census of India
IV. 1901 Census of India
V. 1911 Census of India
VI. 1921 Census of India
VII. 1931 Census of India
VIII. 1941 Census of India
Census of independent India
I. 1951 Census of India
II. 1961 Census of India
III. 1971 Census of India
IV. 1981 Census of India
VII. 2011 Census of India
VIII. 2021 Census of India
Que.32 a
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
It was agreed on 26 August 1987, and entered into force on 16 September 1989, following a first meeting in Helsinki, May 1989. Since then, it has undergone nine revisions, in 1990 (London), 1991 (Nairobi), 1992 (Copenhagen), 1993 (Bangkok), 1995 (Vienna), 1997 (Montreal), 1998 (Australia), 1999 (Beijing) and 2016 (Kigali).
As a result of the international agreement, the ozone hole in Antarctica is slowly recovering. Climate projections indicate that the ozone layer will return to 1980 levels between 2050 and 2070. Due to its widespread adoption and implementation it has been hailed as an example of exceptional international co-operation, with Kofi Annan quoted as saying that "perhaps the single most successful international agreement to date has been the Montreal Protocol". In comparison, effective burden sharing and solution proposals mitigating regional conflicts of interest have been among the success factors for the ozone depletion challenge, where global regulation based on the Kyoto Protocol has failed to do so. In this case of the ozone depletion challenge, there was global regulation already being installed before a scientific consensus was established. Also, overall public opinion was convinced of possible imminent risks.
The two ozone treaties have been ratified by 197 parties (196 states and the European Union), making them the first universally ratified treaties in United Nations history.
Kigali Agreement: Paris Agreement to mitigate climate change was followed by another major global agreement – Kigali Agreement.
Kigali Agreement: Important Points
I. It is a legally binding agreement between the signatory parties with non-compliance measures.
II. It will come into effect from 1st January 2019.
III. It has shown a considerable flexibility in approach while setting phase-down targets for different economies accommodating their developmental aspirations, different socio-economic compulsions, and scientific & technological capabilities.
IV. It has divided the signatory parties into three groups-
1. The first group consists of rich and developed economies like USA, UK and EU countries who will start to phase down HFCs by 2019 and reduce it to 15% of 2012 levels by 2036.
2. The second group consists of emerging economies like China, Brazil as well as some African countries who will start phase down by 2024 and reduce it to 20% of 2021 levels by 2045.
3. The third group consists of developing economies and some of the hottest climatic countries like India, Pakistan, Iran, Saudi Arabia who will start phasing down HFCs by 2028 and reduce it to 15% of 2024-2026 levels till 2047.
Que. 33 d
(i) National Waterway-1: Allahabad-Haldia stretch of the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river (1620 Km) declared as NW in 1986 in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
ii) National Waterway-2: Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra river (891 Km) declared as National Waterway in 1988 in the state of Assam.
iii) National Waterway-3: Kollam-Kottapuram stretch of West Coast Canal and Champakara and Udyogmandal canals (205 Km) declared as National Waterway in 1993 in the state of Kerala
iv) National Waterway-4: Kakinada-Pudducherry stretch of canals and Kaluvelly tank, Bhadrachalam- Rajahmundry stretch of river Godavari and Wazirabad-Vijayawada stretch of river Krishna (1078 Km) declared as National Waterway in 2008 in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Union Territory of Puducherry.
v) National Waterway-5: Talcher-Dhamra stretch of Rivers, Geonkhali-Charbatia stretch of East Coast Canal, Charbatia-Dhamra stretch of Matai river and Mahanadi Delta Rivers (588 Km) declared as National Waterway in 2008 in the states of West Bengal and Orissa.
Que. 34 a
The land frontier of India is about 15200 KM. The neighbouring countries of India in decreasing order of border length are : Bangladesh-China-Pakistan-Nepal-Myanmar-Bhutan-Afghanistan.
India is located in South Asia. It is largest country in South Asia in area and population. There are seven neighbouring countries on the frontiers of India. 17 states of India have common land borders with neighbouring countries.
Sr. No. Neighbouring Length of the No. of Indian Names of Indian states country common border states having having common borders ( in km) common borders Bangladesh 4096.7 5 West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram China 3488 5 Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh Pakistan 3323 4 Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat Nepal 1751 5 Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Sikkim Myanmar 1643 4 Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram Bhutan 699 4 Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh Afghanistan 106 1 Jammu & Kashmir (POK)
Radcliffe Line-Border line between India and Pakistan, and India and Bangladesh. The border between India and Pakistan was decided by Sir Cyril Radcliffe in 1947. Since Bangladesh was East Pakistan at that time, the border between India and Bangladesh is still decided by the Radcliffe Line.
McMahon Line-Border line between India and China. This line was decided by Sir Henry McMahon in 1914 Durand Line-Border line between India and Afghanistan. This line was decided by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand in 1896.
Since India and Pakistan both were called India at that time, the border line between Pakistan and Afghanistan, at present is decided by the same line, i.e., Durand line. The border between India and Afghanistan is very short. At present this line is between Pak Occupied Kashmir (POK) and Afghanistan. In 1947, after independence Pakistan invaded the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir with the help of local tribesmen and occupied some of its areas. Later on the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir declared accession to India. India did not take back the occupied territory because the matter had been referred to the UNO. Thus, this territory of Jammu & Kashmir which belongs properly to India, is still under the control of Pakistan and is known as Pak Occupied Kashmir (POK).
Que. 35 a
Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is about 1500m with the height increasing from North to South.
Annaimudi (2695m), the highest peak of Peninsular Plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats.
Que. 36 d
E-type (Polar type) of climate as per Koeppen’s classification:
Higher areas of Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh in which the temperature of the warmest month varies from 0° to 10°C. Precipitation occurs in the form of snow.
Que. 37 b
Cabinet approves Umbrella scheme “Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources, Modelling and Science (O-SMART)” of Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Implementation of O-SMART will help in addressing issues relating to Sustainable Development Goal-14, which aims to conserve use of oceans, marine resources for sustainable development.
This scheme (O-SMART) also provides necessary scientific and technological background required for implementation of various aspects of Blue Economy.
Que. 38 a
The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a report by the International Monetary Fund that analyzes key parts of the IMF's surveillance of economic developments and policies in its member countries. It also projects developments in the global financial markets and economic systems.
Que. 39 d
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is a 100% government owned payments bank operating under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, which aims to utilize all of India's 155,015 post offices as access points and 3 lakh postal postmen and Grameen Dak Sewaks to provide house to house banking services. IPPB will offer demand deposits such as savings and current accounts up to a balance of Rs. 1 Lac, digitally enabled payments and remittance services of all kinds between entities and individuals.
Provide access to third-party financial services such as insurance, mutual funds, pension, credit products, forex, and more, in partnership with insurance companies, mutual fund houses, pension providers, banks, international money transfer organizations, etc.
Issuance of ATM/Debit Cards. Payments banks, however, cannot issue credit cards.
Payments banks will be permitted to handle cross border remittance transactions in the nature of personal payments or remittances on the current account.
Que. 40 d
The basic structure of Basel III remains unchanged with three mutually reinforcing pillars.
Pillar 1 : Minimum Regulatory Capital Requirements based on Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) : Maintaining capital calculated through credit, market and operational risk areas.
Pillar 2 : Supervisory Review Process : Regulating tools and frameworks for dealing with peripheral risks that banks face.
Pillar 3 : Market Discipline : Increasing the disclosures that banks must provide to increase the transparency of banks.
Que. 41 c
A regressive tax is a tax applied uniformly, taking a larger percentage of income from low-income earners than from high-income earners. It is in opposition to a progressive tax, which takes a larger percentage from high-income earners. A regressive tax affects people with low incomes more severely than people with high incomes because it is applied uniformly to all situations, regardless of the taxpayers. While it may be fair in some instances to tax everyone at the same rate, it is seen as unjust in other cases.
Que. 42 c
On December 8, 1951, the Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru presented the first five-year plan to the Parliament of India. This was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
Que. 43 d
The closed economy is self-sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no exports leave the country. The purpose of a closed economy is to provide domestic consumers with everything they need from within the country's borders.
Que. 44 b
Sectors which come under the ' 100%' category are:
Agriculture & Animal Husbandry, Air-Transport Services (non-scheduled and other services under civil aviation sector), Airports (Greenfield + Brownfield), Asset Reconstruction Companies, Auto-components, Automobiles, Biotechnology (Greenfield), Broadcast Content Services (Up-linking & down-linking of TV channels, Broadcasting Carriage Services, Capital Goods, Cash & Carry Wholesale Trading (including sourcing from MSEs), Chemicals, Coal & Lignite, Construction Development, Construction of Hospitals, Credit Information Companies, Duty Free Shops, E-commerce Activities, Electronic Systems, Food Processing, Gems & Jewellery, Healthcare, Industrial Parks, IT & BPM, Leather, Manufacturing, Mining & Exploration of metals & non-metal ores, Other Financial Services, Services under Civil Aviation Services such as Maintenance & Repair Organizations, Petroleum & Natural gas, Pharmaceuticals, Plantation sector, Ports & Shipping, Railway Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, Roads & Highways, Single Brand Retail Trading, Textiles & Garments, Thermal Power, Tourism & Hospitality and White Label ATM Operations.
Que. 45 a
The GDP deflator is a measure of the price level of all domestically produced final goods and services in an economy. It is sometimes also referred to as the GDP Price Deflator or the Implicit Price Deflator. It can be calculated as the ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP times 100 ([nominal GDP/real GDP]*100).
Que. 46 c
Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY) with an aim to uplift the urban poor folks by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development. Keeping in view the objective of Make in India, Skill Development is essential for socio economic betterment. Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana was launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA). Government of India has provisioned Rs.500 crore for the scheme.
The scheme is integration of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) and National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).
National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) is renamed as Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-(DAY-NULM) and in Hindi as - Rashtriya Shahri Aajeevika Mission. Under the scheme urban areas extends the coverage to all the 4041 statutory cities and towns, there by covering almost the entire urban population. Currently, all the urban poverty alleviating programmes covered only 790 towns and cities.
MAIN HIGHLIGHTS OF THE SCHEME:
Employment through Skill Training and Placement - An expenditure of Rs.15, 000 per person is allowed on training of urban poor which is Rs.18, 000 in North-East and J&K. Moreover, training urban poor to meet the enormous demand from urban citizens by imparting market-oriented skills through City Livelihood Centers.
Social Mobilization and Institution Development - It will be done through formation of Self-Help Groups (SHG) for training members and hand holding, an initial support of 10, 000 is given for each group. Assistance of Rs.50, 000 is provided to Registered Area Level Federations.
Subsidy to urban poor - An interest subsidy of 5% - 7% for setting up individual micro-enterprises with a loan of up to 2 lakh and for group enterprises with a loan limit of up to Rs.10 lakhs.
Shelters for urban homeless - Cost of construction of shelters for urban homeless is fully funded under the Scheme.
Other means - Development of vendor markets and also the promotion of skills for the vendors through setting up infrastructure and special projects for the rag picker and differently abled etc.
Que. 47 c
It appears that India’s finance ministry wants its youth and people well versed in financial and economic terms before it launches its interim budget. It has started a string of tweets to educate the general public on the budgetary process.
The ‘know your budget’ twitter series appears to be aimed at explaining the basic definitions of budgetary terms.
Que. 48 a
Targeted at the idea of paperless governance, DigiLocker is a platform for issuance and verification of documents & certificates in a digital way, thus eliminating the use of physical documents. Indian citizens who sign up for a DigiLocker account get a dedicated cloud storage space that is linked to their Aadhaar (UIDAI) number. Organizations that are registered with Digital Locker can push electronic copies of documents and certificates (e.g. driving license, Voter ID, School certificates) directly into citizen’s lockers. Citizens can also upload scanned copies of their legacy documents in their accounts. These legacy documents can be electronically signed using the e-Sign facility.
Que. 49 d
Ductility - The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called ductility.
Malleability – The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability. This is a characteristic property of metals.
The materials which generally possess these properties such as hardness, malleability, ductility, sonorous and good conductors of heat and electricity are called metals. The examples of metals are iron, copper, aluminium, calcium, magnesium, etc.
Que. 50 b
Mutualism – Both species benefit
Commensalism – One specie benefits and other is unaffected.
Que. 51 d
Large scale applications include its use as a precursor to forestry products, in colourless glass production, and in electronics. Being the main compound of arsenic, the trioxide is the precursor to elemental arsenic, arsenic alloys, and arsenide semiconductors.
A variety of applications exploit arsenic's toxicity, including the use of the oxide as a wood preservative. Arsenic trioxide is a cancer medication that interferes with the growth and spread of cancer cells in the body. Arsenic trioxide is used to treat a cancer of the blood and bone marrow called acute promyelocytic leukaemia, or APL.
Que. 52 a
POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission – NNM)
POSHAN Abhiyaan is a flagship programme of the ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), Government of India, which ensures convergence with various programmes i.e.,Anganwadi Services, Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana ( PMMVY), Scheme for Adolescent Girls (SAG) of MWCD Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), National Health Mission (NHM), Swachh-Bharat Mission, Public Distribution System (PDS), Department Food & Public Distribution, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) and Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation.
The goals of NNM are to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time bound manner during the next three years beginning 2017-18.
It aims to reduce the level of stunting, under nutrition, anaemia and low birth weight babies.
Under POSHAN Abhiyaan, the government has fixed targets to reduce stunting, under nutrition, anaemia and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3%, and 2% per annum respectively.
Mission also strives to achieve reduction in stunting from 38.4% to 25% by 2022
Monitoring is done under POSHAN Abhiyaan through ICDS-CAS aimed to augment system strengthening including improving the coverage and quality of nutrition services.
Que. 53 d
Poliovirus:
Poliomyelitis (polio) is highly infectious viral disease, which mainly affects young children below age of 5. The virus is transmitted from person to person. After entering body, it multiplies in the intestine, from where it can invade the nervous system and can cause paralysis. Its initial symptoms include fever, fatigue, headache, vomiting, stiffness in the neck, and pain in the limbs. In some cases, it causes permanent paralysis. There is no cure for polio; however it can only be prevented by immunization.
Que. 54 a
The central part of an atom is called nucleus. Particles present inside the nucleus are called nucleons and they include mainly protons and neutrons. Due to the presence of protons nucleus has a positive charge.
Que. 55 b
Cloning is the process of producing genetically identical individuals of an organism either naturally or artificially. In nature, many organisms produce clones through asexual reproduction. Cloning in biotechnology refers to the process of creating clones of organisms or copies of cells or DNA fragments (molecular cloning)
Reproductive cloning generally uses "somatic cell nuclear transfer" (SCNT) to create animals that are genetically identical. This process entails the transfer of a nucleus from a donor adult cell (somatic cell) to an egg from which the nucleus has been removed, or to a cell from a blastocyst from which the nucleus has been removed. If the egg begins to divide normally it is transferred into the uterus of the surrogate mother. Such clones are not strictly identical since the somatic cells may contain mutations in their nuclear DNA. Additionally, the mitochondria in the cytoplasm also contains DNA and during SCNT this mitochondrial DNA is wholly from the cytoplasmic donor's egg, thus the mitochondrial genome is not the same as that of the nucleus donor cell from which it was produced. Dolly was the first mammal to have been successfully cloned from an adult somatic cell.
Que. 56 d
Mission Indradhanush is a health mission of the government of India. The ultimate goal of Mission Indradhanush is to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to two years of age and pregnant women. It aims to immunize all children under the age of 2 years, as well as all pregnant women, against eight vaccine preventable diseases. The diseases being targeted are diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, measles, meningitis and Hepatitis B. In addition to these, vaccines for Japanese encephalitis and Haemophilus influenzae type B are also being provided in selected states. In 2016, four new additions have been made namely Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis, Injectable Polio Vaccine Bivalent and Rotavirus. In 2017, Pneumonia was added to the Mission by incorporating Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine under Universal Immunization Programme. The special drive will focus on improving immunisation coverage in select districts and cities to ensure full immunisation to more than 90% by December 2018.
Que. 57 d
Ozone molecules in the stratosphere are constantly being produced and destroyed by different types of UV radiation from the sun. However, scientists have discovered that certain chemicals react with UV radiation in the stratosphere, which causes them to break apart and release chlorine or bromine atoms. These atoms, in turn destroy ozone molecules. A single chlorine atom can break apart more than 100,000 ozone molecules.
Ozone depleting substances include:
• chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
• hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
• hydrobromoflurocarbons (HBFCs)
• halons
• methyl bromide
• Methyl chloroform.
They have been used as:
• refrigerants in commercial, home and vehicle air conditioners and refrigerators
• foam blowing agents
• components in electrical equipment
• industrial solvents
• Fumigants.
As methyl bromide and halons are broken apart they release bromine atoms, which are 60 times more destructive to ozone molecules than chlorine atoms.
Que. 58 c
ARTICLE 31A : SAVING OF LAWS PROVIDING FOR ACQUISITION OF ESTATES, ETC.
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in article 13, no law providing for –
(a) The acquisition by the State of any estate or of any rights therein or the extinguishment or modification of any such rights, or
(b) The taking over of the management of any property by the State for a limited period either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of the property, or
(c) The amalgamation of two or more corporations either in the public interest or in order to secure the proper management of any of the corporations, or
(d) The extinguishment or modification of any rights of managing agents, secretaries and treasurers, managing directors, directors or managers of corporations, or of any voting rights of share-holders thereof, or
(e) The extinguishment or modification of any rights accruing by virtue of any agreement, lease or license for the purpose of searching for, or winning, any mineral or mineral oil, or the premature termination or cancellation of and such agreement, lease or license, shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by article 14 or article 19: Provided that where such law is a law made by the Legislature of a State, the provisions of this article shall not apply thereto unless such law, having been reserved for the consideration of the President, has received his assent:
Provided further that where any law makes any provision for the acquisition by the State of any estate and where any land comprised therein is held by a person under his personal cultivation, it shall not be lawful for the State to acquire any portion of such land as is within the ceiling limit applicable to him under any law for the time being in force or any building or structure standing thereon or appurtenant thereto, unless the law relating to the acquisition of such land, building or structure, provides for payment of compensation at a rate which shall not be less than the market value thereof.
(2) In this article, –
(a) the expression “estate” shall, in relation to any local area, have the same meaning as that expression or its local equivalent has in the existing law relating to land tenure in force in that area and shall also include –
(i) Any jagir, inam or muafi or other similar grant and in the States of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, any janmam right;
(ii) Any land held under ryotwari settlement;
(iii) Any land held or let for purposes of agriculture of for purposes ancillary thereto, including waste land, forest land, land for pasture or sites of buildings and other structures occupied by cultivators of land, agricultural laborers and village artisans;
(b) The expression “rights”, in relation to an estate, shall include any rights vesting in a proprietor, sub- proprietor, under-proprietor, tenure-holder, raiyat, under-raiyat or other intermediary and any rights or privileges in respect of land revenue.
ARTICLE 31B : VALIDATION OF CERTAIN ACTS AND REGULATIONS
Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions contained in article 31A, none of the Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule nor any of the provision thereof shall be deemed to be void, or even to have become void, on the ground that such Act, Regulation or provision is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by, any provisions of this part, and notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court or tribunal to the contrary, each of the said Acts and Regulations shall, subject to the power of any competent Legislature to repeal or amend it, continue in force.
ARTICLE 31C : SAVING OF LAWS GIVING EFFECT TO CERTAIN DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES
Notwithstanding anything contained in article 13, no law giving effect to the policy of the State towards securing all or any of the principles laid down in Part IV shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by article 14 or article 19; and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy:
Provided that where such law is made by the Legislature of a State, the provisions of this article shall not apply thereto unless such law, having been reserved for the consideration of the President, has received his assent.
Que. 59 a
Some of its recommendations were - a) 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system. b) That would include zila parishad at the district level, and mandal panchayat consisting of a group of villages having a total population of 15,000 to 20,000. c) A district should be the first point for decentralization under popular supervision below the state level. d) Zila parishad should be the executive body. e) It should be made responsible for planning at the district level. f) Political parties should officially participate at all levels of Panchayat elections. g) Panchayati Raj institutions should have compulsory powers of taxation so as to mobilize their own financial resources. h) Regular social audit by a district level agency and by a committee of legislators to check proper use of funds allotted for the vulnerable social and economic groups. i) The state government should not supersede the Panchayati Raj institutions. j) In case of super session, elections should be held within six months from the date of super session. k) Nyayan panchayats should be separate bodies from that of development Panchayats. l) Nyaya panchayats should be presided over by a qualified judge. m) Organizing and conducting the Panchayati Raj elections would be by the Chief Electoral Officer of a state in consultation with the chief election commissioner. n) Development functions should be transferred to the zila parishad. o) All development staff should work under ZP’s control and supervision. p) The voluntary agencies should play an important role in mobilizing the support of the people or Panchayati Raj. q) To look after the affairs of the Panchayati Raj institutions, a minister for Panchayati Raj should be appointed in the state council of ministers. r) Seats for SCs and STs should be reserved on the basis of their population. s) Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj institutions - This would give them the required status and a guarantee of continuous functioning.
Que.60 b
Appointment and Term of office:
The President appoints the Attorney General (AG). The person who is appointed should be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. That means, he should be a citizen of India and a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or should be an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
The constitution does not provide for fixed tenure to the AG. So, he holds office during the pleasure of the president. He can be removed by the president at any time. There is no procedure or ground mentioned in the constitution for his removal.
Following are the Rights of the AG:
(1) In the performance of his duties, he has right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
(2) He has the right to speak or to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings, but without a right to vote.
(3) He has the right to speak or to take part in the meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a member, but without a right to vote.
(4) He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of parliament.
Que. 61 c
The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of federation, viz., two government, division of power, written constitution, supremacy of constitution, division of powers, written constitution, supremacy of constitution, rigidity of constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism. However the Indian constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features such as a strong centre, single constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the centre, all – india services, emergency provisions, and so on.
Que. 62 a
The emergency provisions are contained in part XVIII of the constitution, from articles 352 to 360. i. National Emergency on the ground of war or external aggression or armed rebellion is mentioned in the article 352 ii. State emergency (President’s rule) on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery in the state is mentioned in article 356 or failure to comply with the directions of the centre is mentioned in article 365 . iii. Financial Emergency due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India is mentioned in article 360. This type of emergency is never proclaimed in India.
During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
Difference between the national Emergency and president’s rule is given below:
S.N. National Emergency (352) President’s Rule (356) 1. It can be proclaimed only when the It can be proclaimed when the government security of India or a part of it is of a state cannot be carried on in threatened by war, external accordance with the provisions of the aggression or armed rebellion. Constitution due to reasons which may not have any connection with war, external aggression or armed rebellion. 2. During its operation, the state During its operation, the state executive is executive and legislature continue to dismissed and the state legislature is either function and exercise the powers suspended or dissolved. The president assigned to them under administers the state through the governor the Constitution. Its effect is that the and the Parliament makes laws for the Centre gets concurrent powers of state. In brief, the executive and administration and legislation in the legislative powers of the state are assumed state. by the Centre. 3. The Parliament can make laws on the The Parliament can delegate the power to subjects enumerated in the State List make laws for the state to the President or only by itself, i.e. it can’t delegate the to any other authority specified by him. So same to any other body or authority. far, the practice has been for the president to make laws for the state in consultation with the members of Parliament from that state. 4. There is no maximum period There is a maximum period prescribed for prescribed for its operation. It can be its operation, that is, three years. continued indefinitely with the Thereafter, it must come to an end and the approval of Parliament for every six normal constitutional machinery must be months. restored in the state. 5. Under this, the relationship of the Under this, the relationship of only the Centre with all the states undergoes a state under emergency with the Centre modification. undergoes a modification. 6. It affects fundamental rights (FR) of It has no effect on Fundamental Rights the citizens. (FR) of the citizens. 7. Every resolution of Parliament Every resolution of Parliament approving approving its proclamation or its its proclamation or its continuance can be continuance must be passed by a passed only by a simple majority. special majority. 8. Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for There is no such provision. It can be its revocation. revoked by the President only on his own discretion.
Que. 63 d
President Ramnath Kovind has given the assent to the 124th constitutional Amendment Bill (which is now Constitution 103rd amendment Act) providing 10 per cent reservation for economically weaker sections.
Criterion for Reservation • People who have an annual income of less than Rs.8 lakhs, or • People who own less than five acres of farm land, or • People who have a house lesser than 1,000 sq feet in a town (or 100 sq yard in a notified municipal area).
Constitutional provisions of the Act:
The Act amends Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution, by adding a clause which allows states to make "special provision for the advancement of any Economically Weaker Section ( EWS) of citizens".
Article 15 prohibit the state from discriminating any citizen on ground of any religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. However, the government may make special provisions for advancement of socially and educationally backwards or for SC/STs. The bill amend article 15 to additionally permit the government to provide for the advancement of Economically Weaker Section ( EWS). It also said the reservation would be "in addition to the existing reservations and subject to a maximum of 10 per cent of the total seats in each category".
These "special provisions" would relate to "their admission to educational institutions, including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, other than the minority educational institutions".
Article 16 prohibit discrimination in employment in any government office, However the government can allow reservation for any “backward class of citizens”, if they are not adequately represented in the services under the state. The bill amend article 16 to permit the government to reserve up to 10 % of all posts for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens. The reservation of upto 10 % for Economically Weaker Sections in educational institution and public employment will be in addition to existing reservation.
Que. 64 b
Prime Minister – Part of both Planning commission and NITI Aayog
Chief Minister of all states: Part of NITI Aayog but not in planning commission
Lt. Governors of Union Territories: Part of NITI Aayog but not in planning commission
Chief Secretaries of all states: Not a part of NITI Aayog
The composition of NITI Aayog is as under:
a. Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson
b. Governing Council comprising the Chief Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories
c. Regional Councils will be formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These will be formed for a specified tenure. The Regional Councils will be convened by the Prime Minister and will comprise of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. These will be chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
d. Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister
e. The full-time organizational framework will comprise of, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:
i. Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime Minister ii. Members: Full-time iii. Part-time members: Maximum of 2 from leading universities research organizations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part time members will be on a rotational basis. iv. Ex Officio members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister. v. Chief Executive Officer : To be appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. vi. Secretariat as deemed necessary.
The composition of the Planning Commission has been mentioned below:
(1) Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the commission. He presides over the meetings of the commission.
(2) Deputy Chairman is the de-facto chairman of the commission. He is given the rank of a Cabinet Minister. He is responsible to formulate and submit the draft Five Year Plan to central cabinet.
(3) The Finance Minister and the Planning Minister are the ex-officio members of the commission. In addition, some other central ministers may be appointed as part-time members of the commission.
(4) The commission has four to seven full-time members who are experts in various fields such as economics, industry, science and general administration. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
(5) The commission has a member-secretary who is usually a senior IAS officer.
Planning Commission NITI Aayog Enjoyed the powers to allocate funds To be an advisory body, or a think- to ministries and state governments. tank. The powers to allocate funds might be vested in the finance ministry. The last Commission had eight full- The number of full-time members could time members be fewer than Planning Commission States' role was limited to the State governments are expected to play a National Development Council and more significant role than they did in the annual interaction during Plan Planning Commission. meetings. Secretaries or member secretaries Secretaries to be known as the CEO and were appointment through the usual to be appointed by the prime minister. process Full Planning Commission had no To have a number of part-time provision for part-time members. members, depending on the need from time to time. The commission reported to National Governing Council has state chief Development Council that had state ministers and lieutenant chief ministers and lieutenant governors. governors. Had deputy chairperson, a member New posts of CEO, of secretary rank, and secretary and full-time members Vice-Chairperson. Will also have five full- time members and two part-time members. Four cabinet ministers will serve as ex-officio members. Policy was formed by the commission Consulting states while making policy and states were then consulted about and deciding on funds allocation. Final allocation of funds. policy would be a result of that. Had power to decide allocation of No power to allocate funds government funds for various programmes at national and state levels. Imposed policies on states and tied NITI is a think-tank and does not have allocation of funds with projects it the power to impose policies. approved.
Que. 65 a
A Lokpal is an anti-corruption ombudsman who represents the public interest. The concept of an ombudsman is borrowed from Sweden which was the world’s first country to introduce the Ombudsmen concept.
Que. 66 c
Federalism is a system of government in which powers have been divided between the centre and its constituent parts such as states or provinces. It is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics, one at the centre or national level and second at the regional or provincial level. Both the sets of power are autonomous in their own spheres. A federal system is different from a unitary system in that sovereignty is constitutionally split between two territorial levels so that each level can act independently of each other in some areas. There are two kinds of federations:
Holding Together Federation – in this type, powers are shared between various constituent parts to accommodate the diversity in the whole entity. Here, powers are generally tilted towards the central authority. Example: India, Spain, Belgium.
Coming Together Federation – in this type, independent states come together to form a larger unit. Here, states enjoy more autonomy as compared to the holding together kind of federation. Example: USA, Australia, Switzerland.
Features of the federal system
1. Governments at least two levels 2. Division of powers between various levels 3. Rigidity of constitution 4. Independence judiciary 5. Dual citizenship 6. Bicameralism
All federations might not have all the above features. Some of them may be incorporated depending on what type of federation it is.
Federalism in India India is a federal system but with more tilt towards a unitary system of government. It is sometimes considered a quasi-federal system as it has features of both a federal and a unitary system. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states, ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states’. The word federation is not mentioned in the constitution.
Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919 which separated powers between the centre and the provincial legislatures.
Federal features of the Indian Union
• Governments at two levels – centre and states • Division of powers between the centre and states – there are three lists given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution which gives the subjects each level has jurisdiction in: • Union List • State List • Concurrent List • Supremacy of the constitution – the basic structure of the constitution is indestructible as laid out by the judiciary. The constitution is the supreme law in India. • Independent judiciary – the constitution provides for an independent and integrated judiciary. The lower and district courts are at the bottom levels, the high courts are at the state levels and at the topmost position is the Supreme Court. All courts are subordinate to the Supreme Court.
Unitary features of the Indian Union • The flexibility of the constitution – the constitution is a blend of flexibility and rigidity. Certain provisions of the constitution can be easily amended. In case the amendments seek to change aspects of federalism in India, the provision to bring about such amendments is not easy. • More power vests with the Centre – the constitution guarantees more powers with the Union List. On the Concurrent List, the parliament can make laws that can override the laws made by a state legislature on some matters. The parliament can also make laws regarding certain subjects in the State List. • Unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha – the representation of the states in the upper house is based on the states’ populations. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats and Goa, 1 in the Rajya Sabha. In an ideal federal system, all the states should have equal representation. • The executive is a part of the legislature – in India, the executive in both the centre and the states is a part of the legislature. This goes against the principle of division of powers between the different organs of the government. • Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha – in our system, the lower house is more powerful than the upper house and unequal powers to two houses is against the principle of federalism. • Emergency powers – the centre is provided with emergency powers. When an emergency is imposed, the centre has increased control over states. This undermines the autonomy of the states. • Integrated judiciary – the judiciary in India is integrated. There is no separate judiciary at the centre and the state levels. • Single citizenship – in India, only single citizenship is available to citizens. They cannot be citizens of the state as well. This helps in increasing the feeling of nationality as it forges unity amidst regional and cultural differences. It also augments fundamental rights such as the freedom of movement and residence in any part of the nation. • Governor’s appointment – the governor of a state acts as the centre’s representative in the state. The state government does not appoint the governor, the centre does. • New states formation – the parliament has the power to alter the territory of a state by increasing or reducing the area of the state. It can also change the name of a state. • All India Services – through the All India Services such as the IAS, IPS, IRS, etc. the centre interferes in the executive powers of the states. These services also offer uniformity in administration throughout the nation. • Integrated election machinery – the Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting free and fair elections at both the centre and the state levels in India. The members of the EC is appointed by the president. • Veto over states bills – The governor of a state can reserve certain kinds of bills for the president’s consideration. The president enjoys absolute veto on these bills. He can even reject the bill at the second instance that is, when the bill is sent after reconsideration by the state legislature. This provision is a departure from the principles of federalism. • Integrated audit machinery – the president of the country appoints the CAG who audits accounts of both the centre and the states. • Power to remove key officials – the state government or state legislature does not have the authority to remove certain key government officials even at the state level like the election commissioner of a state, judges of the high courts, or the chairman of the state public service commissions.
Que. 67 b
Article 1 (3) says the territory of India comprises the following: i. Territories of the states. ii. Union territories and iii. other territories that may be acquired by Government of India at any time.
The concept of union territories was not in the original version of the constitution, but was added by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956.
Que. 68 a
Liberty means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals. and at the same time, provide opportunities for the development of individual personalities.
The preamble secure to all citizen of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, it is enforceable in court of law, in case of violation.
Liberty is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system. However, liberty does not mean license to do what one likes, and has to enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the constitution. I.e, to say that the liberty conceived by the preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified
The idea of Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity as laid down in the preamble to the constitution of India have been borrowed from French constitution.
Que. 69 d
Agriculture, including agricultural education and research, comes under State List. a, b and c are a part of Concurrent List.
Que. 70 a
Union Minister Prakash Javadekar announced the approval for the new Gorewada International Zoo to be inaugurated in Nagpur district of Maharashtra. bAccording to Forest Development Corporation of Maharashtra Limited (FDCML), the Government of Maharashtra has already issued its Government Resolution, for establishing International Standard Zoo and Rescue Centre at Gorewada village, Nagpur District on 1914 hectares of Forest Land through FDCML.
Que. 71 c
PM- KISAN Scheme:
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
The Scheme is effective from 1.12.2018.
Under the Scheme an income support of Rs.6000/- per year is provided to all farmer families across the country in three equal installments of Rs.2000/- each every four months.
Definition of family for the Scheme is husband, wife and minor children.
The entire responsibility of identification of beneficiary farmer families rests with the State / UT Governments. The fund is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
Farmers covered under the Exclusion Criteria of the Operational Guidelines are not eligible for the benefit of the Scheme.
For enrollment, the farmer is required to approach the local patwari / revenue officer / Nodal Officer (PM-Kisan) nominated by the State Government.
The Common Service Centres (CSCs) have also been authorized to do registration of the farmers for the Scheme upon payment of fees.
Farmers can also do their self-registration through the Farmers Corner in the portal.
Farmers can also edit their names in PM-Kisan database as per their Aadhaar database / card through the Farmers Corner in the portal.
Farmers can also know the status of their payment through the Farmers Corner in the portal.
Exclusion Categories:
The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefit under the scheme.
(a) All Institutional Land holders.
(b) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories i) Former and present holders of constitutional posts ii) Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils,former and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats. iii) All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies (Excluding Multi-Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees) iv) All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is Rs.10,000/-or more
(Excluding Multi-Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees) of above category v) All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year vi) Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.
Que.72 a
NITI Aayog has launched “Pitch to MOVE”. “Pitch to MOVE” is organised by NITI Aayog in collaboration with Invest India and Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM) a mobility pitch competition that aims to provide budding entrepreneurs of India a unique opportunity to pitch their business ideas to a distinguished jury.
"Pitch to MOVE aims to identify and incentivise the startups, which will help the Government realize its vision of Shared, Connected, Intermodal and Environment Friendly Mobility for India. The objective is to harness the latest disruption for generating employment and growth in our country.
The competition aims to identify and reward the start-ups offering innovative solutions for shared, connected, and environment friendly mobility.
Que. 73 a
Joint Military Exercise MAITREE-2019 between India and Thailand will be conducted at Foreign Training Node, Umroi (Meghalaya) from 16-29 Sep 2019.. Indian and Royal Thailand Army (RTA) comprising 50 soldiers each will participate in the exercise with an aim to share experience gained during various counter terrorism operations in their respective countries. MAITREE is an annual training event which is being conducted alternatively in Thailand and India since 2006.
Que. 74 b
Union Minister for Information and Broadcasting Prakash Javadekar flagged off a vehicle ‘Jaldoot’ to spread the message of water conservation.Jaldoot, a travelling exhibition arranged by Pune-based Regional Outreach Bureau of I&B ministry, will tour eight districts of Maharashtra in the next two months. It will take the message of water conservation to the masses and highlight work done in this connection by the Narendra Modi government in the first 100 days of its second term. Water was top priority for the Centre and it had set up a separate ministry called Jalshakti for the purpose, adding that it was committed to provide piped water to every household by 2024.
Que. 75 a
Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina conferred the Dr. Kalam Smriti International Excellence Award 2019 in Dhaka. The award citation lauded Prime Minister Hasina for her vision of a peaceful and prosperous South Asia, free of tension, conflicts and terrorism. The award has been instituted in the memory of former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. The award is given every year to honors statesmen or leaders who have shown excellence in respective fields to achieve the best for their countries. The Presidents of the Maldives, Ghana and Mauritius earlier received the prestigious award since its introduction in 2015.
SARTHI – PUNE – UPSC – CET - 2019B
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER – II - ANSWER KEY AND EXPLAINATION
QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER NUMBER NUMBER NUMBER 1 D 21 D 41 B
2 A 22 A 42 A
3 B 23 A 43 C
4 A 24 D 44 C
5 A 25 A 45 B
6 C 26 D 46 A
7 B 27 C 47 A
8 A 28 D 48 B
9 D 29 B 49 B
10 A 30 B 50 B
11 D 31 C 51 D
12 D 32 B 52 A
13 D 33 D 53 B
14 C 34 B 54 A
15 B 35 C 55 A
16 D 36 A 56 B
17 A 37 C 57 A
18 D 38 D 58 A
19 D 39 D 59 A
20 A 40 D 60 B
QUE.1. (d)
Buying specialized products make us save our time as the example of American shows. Better quality of products and more options are directly co-related. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
QUE.2. (a)
Free trade offers consumers best choices and it fosters competition. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.3. (b)
Example of Americans has been given to show that American strive for better quality and products and more focused towards their standard of living. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.4. (a)
Food security promotes availability of food with adequate quantity, quality and nutrition. Thus, (1) is correct. Food security is acceptable as per the given culture. Thus, (2) is incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.5. (a)
Rights approach of food security puts pressure of public action. Thus, (a) is correct. Food court may not be justiciable as per the passage. Thus, (b) is incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.6. (c)
Food security involves quality, quantity and nutrition of food products. Hence, (c) is correct option.
QUE.7. (b)
We cannot say that Right to food is more required for India or it is an offshoot or a byproduct of some type of human rights. Similarly, we cannot co-relate that human rights are justiciable and right to food is not. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.8. (a)
Second paragraph of passage tells poverty as a central reason for early marriage and paragraph three mentions the consequences of early marriages, that how it thwarts the chances of education, and adversely affect the process of growth & development of girl which can further lead to poverty, so it forms a vicious circle. Hence (1) is right.
The last lines of Para 3 provides the fact that risk of death in pregnancy & delivery for girls under age 15 is five times higher than for women in their 20s. So (2) is incorrect.
Hence option (a) is correct. QUE.9. (d)
Paragraph Three, clearly mentions that “poverty plays a central role in causing & perpetuating early marriage”. But none of the option contains this point. So no one is correct answer in mentioned options. Hence (d) is correct answer
QUE.10. (a)
As per the facts provided in passage, more than 60 million girls under the age of 18 are already married. And if child marriage will continue at its present rate it is estimated that 100 million more girls will be married in next decade. It means 160 million by 2030, so (a) is correct.
QUE.11. (d)
Second paragraph mentions that girls who are young married at age have an increased change of being poor and remaining poor. Paragraph 3, mentions the high risk of death in case of girls below the age of 15 during pregnancy & delivery. And it also tells that how it put curb on development & growth of women. Finally the concluding line of passage describes the inability of such society to progress where child marriage is present. Hence (d) is correct option.
QUE.12 (d)
In second paragraph of passage meaning of “staying in programme” is given according to which bureaucrat is supposed to think of his/her assigned task and how best to accomplish it. So as per passage ‘staying in programme’ is related to accomplishment that is completion of task and not with efficiency. So (d) is correct.
QUE.13. (d)
It is clearly mentioned in the passage that ‘bureaucratic mindset’ emerges from compartmentalised environment so (1) is correct. Similarly in last paragraph it is written that compartmentalised environment is structured in forms of rank & myriad. Which suggests about hierarchy model? Hence (3) is also correct. But (2) is not correct as in third para only it is exclusively mentioned that bureaucracy thinking must always be within box. Hence (d) is correct.
QUE.14. (c)
In third para of passage it is straightly written that ‘Max weber's’ model is “firmly ordered system of superiority & subordination in which there is a supervision of lower officer by the higher officer”. This line clearly meant that ‘Max weber’s’ theory of Bureaucracy promote hierarchy model. Hence (c) is correct. The passage says that Bureaucrat is suppossed to think of his/her assigned taste and how best to accomplish it. This means bureaucrats do not enjoy absolute authority. Also they have to complete (accomplish) their task within prescribed format. So option (a) & (b) are incorrect.
Hence (c) is the correct option QUE. 15-19
Order of speak: I. Pratham → Prakash → Mayank II. Prasunn → Vivek → Gautam III. Sahil → Rajni → Prasunn IV. Mayank → Sahil I + II + III + IV:
Pratham → Prakash → Mayank → Sahil → Rajni → Prasunn → Vivek → Gautam
Time: I. Prasunn < Prakash II. Vivek < Mayank III. Mayank < Rajni < Sahil IV. Sahil < Prasunn I + II + III + IV: Vivek < Mayank < Rajni < Sahil < Prasunn < Prakash
QUE.15. (b) longest time duration for the speech was of Prakash.
QUE.16. (d) Gautam was spoke at the end.
QUE.17. (a) Pratham was spoken at the beginning.
QUE.18. (d) shortest duration of speech was of Vivek.
QUE.19. (d) Mayank was spoke first before Sahil.
QUE.20-24
Sunday D Monday No Play Tuesday B D* Wednesday E A* Thursday F Friday C Saturday A QUE.20. (a) Monday
QUE.21. (d) Three
QUE.22. (a) Thursday
QUE.23. (a) A is the last play in the series.
QUE.24. (d) All required. QUE.25. (a)
As written in the third paragraph, that Members of an organization may not internalized with the organizational values. Thus, (1) is incorrect. In second paragraph it is written that values are what we judge to be right. Thus, (2) is correct. (3) is correct as any organization cannot afford to have different value's other than the individuals. Since, we are supposed to find out incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.26. (d)
In second paragraph it is written that organizational vision must be consistent with organization core values. Thus, (d) is correct. (a) and (c) are very specific leaders and decision makers are not alone responsible for organizational values. (b) is only showing the problem not a solution. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
QUE.27. (c)
Example of Army's organizational values shows that stated values are sometimes different than the operating values and few people in the organization may not follow the organization values. Whenever there is a discount between stated and operating value, it is difficult to determine 'acceptable' norm of value. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
QUE.28. (d)
Passage is only showing the problem, not a single solution has been shared to avoid disconnect between organizational values and individual's values. Hence, (d) is the correct option.
QUE.29. (b)
According to passage, social reform movements bring some changes which gained momentum through Indian National Movement, when it became mass based. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.30. (b)
Impact of social change is not materialism but cross materialism. Thus, (1) is incorrect. (2) and (3) directly given. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.31. (c)
In the last paragraph, it is written that particular social change will be evaluated in the light of the ideals and change implies continuity. Thus, (c) is correct. (b) is not even the theme. (a) and (d) are very ordinary as per the theme of the passage. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
QUE.32. (b)
Not every social change brings disturbance in the society. Thus, (3) is incorrect. (1) and (2) are directly co-related with the passage theme. Hence, (b) is the correct option. QUE.33. (d)
Passage is all about Mughal Era architecture and its special characteristics.
Thus, (d) is the correct option.
QUE.34. (b)
We cannot say through passages that whether domes were semi-circular or onion shaped, but mosaic pattern were speciality of Mughal architecture. Thus, (2) and (3) are correct.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.35. (c)
Jahangir’s quadrangle and figures of living beings were special features but not geometrical design. Hence, (c) is the correct option.
QUE.36. (a)
Author is admiring Mughal Architecture, praising its artistic value.
Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.37. (c)
We cannot say specifically that economic federalism is all about handling environment problem and that too about by government as the authority. Thus, (1) ruled out. Passage is not discussing about any consensus between authorities it only talks about distribution of powers between authority. Thus, (3) ruled out. If local and sovereign powers are equally focussed so as to improve social welfare will act as economic federalism. Similarly if environmental problem are handled in this way it would be called environmental federalism.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.
QUE.38. (d)
Wealth of Nations endorses about the local and quality of local services and how it can maintained properly. Similarly issues like defense should be taken care by sovereign bodies. Thus, wealth of nations is all about distribution of power but not economic power. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
QUE.39. (d)
Decentralized approach can be compromised if it is likely to improve social welfare or remove inefficiency of decentralization. Over jurisdiction is the problem of decentralization not jurisdiction per se.
Hence, (d) is the correct option. QUE.40. (d)
M = 2W
M – 20 = W + 5
⇒ 2W – 20 = W + 5
W = 25
M = 50
Total = 75 Hence, (d) is the correct option.
QUE.41. (b)
Required ratio = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
QUE.42. (a)
If two kids, there are four possibilities: {(B, B), (B, G), (G, B), (G, G)}
But given one kid is girl, therefore possibilities are:
S = {(B, G) (G, B) (G, G)} n(S) = 3
E = (G, G) ⇒ n(E) = 1
P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 1/3
Hence, the correct option is (a).
QUE.43. (c)
29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 25
1 odd days + 3 odd days + 2 odd days + 3 odd days + 3 odd days +
2 odd days + 3 odd days + 4 odd days = 21/7 odd days
* Remainder is 0.
Now, Monday = 0 Tuesday = 1 Wednesday = 2 Thursday = 3 Friday = 4
Saturday = 5 Sunday = 6
Therefore, Monday is the correct answer.
QUE.44. (c)
Because selling price is equal then,
% change = x + y + x y /100
= 10 + (–10) + 10(-10) /100
= - 1% i.e., 1% loss
Hence, the correct option is (c).
QUE.45. (b)
Let the highest score = x and lowest score = x – 100
According to question,
40 × 28 + x + (x – 100) = 42 × 30
1120 + 2x – 100 = 1260
2x = 1260 – 1020
2x = 240
x = 120 Hence, the correct option is (b) QUE.46. (a)
Given: A = 2/9 (B + C)
⇒ A/(B+C) = 2/9
A : (B+C) = 2:9
∴ A = 770 × (2/11) = 140
Hence, the correct option is (a).
QUE.47. (a)
Number of students study languages = 410 – 25 = 385
⇒ n (F ∪ S) = 385
⇒ n (F) = 180
⇒ n (S) = 240
⇒ n (F ∩ S) = ? n (F ∪ S) = n (F) + n (S) – n (F ∩ S)
⇒ 385 = 180 + 240 – n (F ∩ S)
⇒ n (F ∩ S) = 420 – 385 n (F ∩ S) = 35
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Que.48. (b)
(1/2)×5 = 3
⇒ (1/3) ×5 = 2
By multiplying with 2 both sides,
⇒ 1/3 × 5 × 2 = 2 × 2
⇒ 1/3 × 10 = 4
Hence, the correct option is (b).
QUE.49 (b)
We know that, Profit (P) = SP – CP ...... (i)
3P = 2SP – CP (According to question) ...... (ii)
3(SP – CP) = 2SP – CP
3SP – 3CP = 2SP – CP
SP = 2CP
P = 2CP – CP
P = CP or
SP = 2CP
If SP is double the CP then profit % is 100%.
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.50 (b)
Total routes connecting A to B is 6 and from B to C is 5.
There are two ways to go from B to C.
(i) Directly = 5 ways
(ii) B to A and then from A to C = 6 × 2 = 12 ways.
Total = 17 ways
Hence, (b) is the correct option.
QUE.51-53
Correct sequence would be
QUE.51. (d) F is sitting at extreme left end.
QUE.52. (a) B is sitting to the right of D.
QUE.53. (b) E is sitting between F and C. QUE.54. (a)
It can be easily observed that all tigers are horses, tigers are not monkeys, at least one lion is a tiger and monkeys are not tigers. Hence, (a) is the correct option.
QUE.55. (a)
OR
From above Venn diagrams, it is evident that some shoes are gloves (may/may not be). No pants are shoes (may/may not be) and all gloves are shirts (may/may not be). But those shirts which are pants can always be gloves. Hence, (a) is the correct option. QUE.56. (b)
Number of students admitted in engineering = 400
⇒ (100 – 20) i.e., 80% of engineering students = 400
∴ Total number of engineering students = (400/80)× 100 = 500
Hence, the correct option is (b).
QUE.57. (a)
Value of 88% = 430
∴ Value of 1% = 430/88
∴ Value of 12% = (430/88) × 12 = 58.63 ≈ 59
Hence, the correct option is (a).
QUE.58. (a)
In Engineering:
= (400/80) × 100 = 500
In Commerce:
= (380/78) × 100 = 487.17 ≈ 487
In Science:
= (380/84) × 100 = 452.38 ≈ 452
In Arts:
= (400/82) × 100 = 487.8 ≈ 488
In Home Science:
= (430/88) × 100 = 488.6 ≈ 489
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Que.59. (a)
Let the population of the village in 2019 = x
According to question,
50000 /60000 = 60000/ x
5/ 6 = 60000/ x x = 60000 × 6/5 = 72000
Hence, the correct option is (a).
QUE.60. (b)
Cost of motorcycle = Rs.54000
Paid amount = Rs.24000
Unpaid amount = 54000 – 24000 = Rs.30000
10% of 30000, 10% of 24000, ...... , 10% of 6000 = 3000, 2400, 1800, 1200, 600
Total interest = 3000 + 2400 + 1800 + 1200 + 600 = 9000
Total cost pay for motorcycle = 24000 + 5 × 6000 + 9000 = 24000 + 30000 + 9000 = Rs. 63000 Hence, the correct option is (b).