Univ. Beograd. Publ. Elektrotehn. Fak.
Ser. Mat. 7 (1996), 9{17.
A GENERALIZATION OF THE KY FAN
INEQUALITY
Zhen Wang, Ji Chen, Guang{Xing Li
Dedicated to the memory of Professor Dragoslav S. Mitrinovic
A certain extension of the Ky Fan inequality is proved by means of elementary
calculus.
1. INTRODUCTION
The following inequality due to Ky Fan was recorded in [1]:
0 1
1=n
n n
P Q
x x
i i
B C
i=1 i=1
B C
< (0 x 1=2); (1)
i
n n
@ A
Q P
(1 x ) (1 x )
i i
i=1 i=1
unless x = x = ::: = x :
1 2 m
With the notation
1=p 1=n
n n
P Q
1
p
M (x)= x (x > 0) and M (x) = lim M (x)= x ;
p i i 0 p i
p!0
n
i=1 i=1
(1) b ecomes
M (x) M (x)
1 0
< : (2)
M (1 x) M (1 x)
0 1
D. Segaiman [2] conjectured that
M (x) M (x)
p q
(3) (p q ):
M (1 x) M (1 x)
p q
F. Chan, D. Goldberg and S. Gonek [2]gave some counter examples
p q
when 0 < 2 =p < 2 =q or p + q>9:In addition, they proved that (3) is true for
p + q =0>p or 0 p 1 q 2:
Recently the case p = 1 and q =0was proved to b e true by Wan{Lan
Wang and Peng{Fei Wang [3]. And the case 1 p 0 1was proved
0
1991 Mathematics Sub ject Classi cation: 26D15 9
10 Zhen Wang, Ji Chen, Guang{Xing Li
by Guang{Xing Li and Ji Chen [4]. Zhen Wang and Ji Chen [5] proved
that the function R(p)= M (x)=M (1 x) is strictly increasing on [ 1; 1]; unless
p p
x = ::: = x ; and if (3) holds for (p; q ); then also for ( q; p):
1 n
In this pap er, we determine all exp onents p and q such that (3) is true.
Theorem. For arbitrary n; p < q ; the inequality
1 1 0 0
1=p 1=q
n n
P P
p q
x x
i i
C C B B
i=1 i=1
C C B B
(4) (0 i n n A A @ @ P P p q (1 x ) (1 x ) i i i=1 i=1 p q p q holds if and only if jp + q j3; 2 =p 2 =q when p> 0;p2 q2 when q<0: The pro of of the suciency is contained in Sections 3, 4 and 5. In the pro of we assume pq 6=0; otherwise by letting p or q ! 0; it is easy to see that (4) is also true. In Section 2, we will prove the necessity. 2. PROOF OF THE NECESSITY In [2], it is proved that (4) and p p q (4) holds, then 2 =p 2 =q for p> 0: When q<0;take x = x = = x = " (0 <" <1=2) and x =1=2: 1 2 n 1 n Then (4) b ecomes 1=p 1=q q q p p (n 1)" +(1=2) (n 1)" +(1=2) ; (5) p p q q (n 1)(1 ") +(1=2) (n 1)(1 ") +(1=2) or 1=p 1=p 1 1 p p " + (1 ") + p p 2 (n 1) 2 (n 1) (6) : 1=q 1=q 1 1 q q " + (1 ") + q q 2 (n 1) 2 (n 1) Letting " ! 0; (6) yields 1=p 1 1+ p 2 (n 1) ; (7) 1 1=q 1 1+ q 2 (n 1) hence 1=p 1=q 1 1 (8) 1+ 1+ : p q 2 (n 1) 2 (n 1) By using the Maclaurin expansion in 1=n; we obtain p 1 2 q 1 2 (9) 1+ (p2 n) +o(1=n ) 1+(q2 n) + o(1=n ): A generalization of the Ky Fan inequality 11 p q So if p 2 >q2 ; (4) would b e false for suciently large n: In the equivalent inequality of (4): 0 1 1 0 1=p 1=q n n P P p q (1 u ) (1 u ) i i B C C B i=1 i=1 B C C B (10) (0 u < 1); i n n @ A A @ P P p q (1 + u ) (1 + u ) i i i=1 i=1 let u = u = = u = 0 and u = u (0 1 2 n 1 n 1=p 1=q p q (n 1) + (1 u) (n 1)+(1 u) : (11) p q (n 1)+(1+ u) (n 1)+(1+ u) Take the Maclaurin expansion of (11) in u: