Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Seven friends – Gopal, Saurabh, Prashant, Aniket, Neeraj, Meena and Vidushi who work in career power live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in same order. Lowermost floor of building is numbered 1, one above that is numbered 2 and so on till top most floor is numbered 7. Each one of them also likes a different food recipe, namely South Indian, North Indian, Seafood, French food, Continental, Italian and Chinese.(but not necessarily in same order). i.Gopal lives an odd numbered floor but not on floor numbered three. Only two persons live between Aniket and the one who likes Continental. The One who likes Seafood lives immediately above Prashant. ii.The one who likes North Indian lives on odd numbered floors above Aniket. Saurabh lives on the floors above Neeraj. Only three persons live between Prashant and the one who likes North Indian. iii.The one who likes South Indian lives immediately above the one who likes Chinese. Vidushi lives on an odd numbered floor. Neeraj does not like Seafood. iv.Only one person lives between Saurabh and Neeraj. The one who likes Continental lives immediately above Gopal. Neither Prashant nor Gopal likes French food.
1.Which of the following food recipe does Gopal like? A. Italian B. Chinese C. Seafood D. North Indian E. South Indian 2.Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement? A. Italian – Prashant B. North Indian – Meena C. Chinese – Vidushi D. Continental – Aniket E. French food – Saurabh
3.If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, positions of how many persons will remain unchanged? A. Four B. None C. Two D. One E. Three 4.Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement? A. The one who likes Chinese immediately below Gopal. B. Meena likes North Indian C. None of the given options is true. D. Only four persons live between Aniket and Vidushi E. Vidushi lives immediately below Neeraj. 5.Who among the following lives on the floor numbered 2? A. Saurabh B. The one who likes South Indian C. The one who likes Chinese D. Aniket E. Meena
A professor said yesterday that linking Sanskrit with religion and a certain political ideology is "stupid" and "detrimental to the cause" of preserving its rich heritage. It is because the original Sanskrit texts contain some of the earliest thoughts and discoveries of human beings. Even the core thoughts of Buddhism were in the Sanskrit language. To better understand the genesis of oriental philosophy, history, languages, sciences and culture, it's essential to read the original Sanskrit texts.
6.Which of the following is an assumption of the professor's argument? A. If we do not read the original texts, we cannot understand the Indian philosophy, history, and culture. B. People would not like to promote Sanskrit if it is linked to a particular ideology or religion. C. People would lose interest in Sanskrit. D. Sanskrit is a language of the religion. E. None of these
7.Over 20,000 pieces of precious Indian art and art facts have been smuggled out of India in the last three decades. The total value of such smuggled items could be in excess of 10 billion US dollars, although many of these art facts are priceless from a cultural perspective. What have our governments been doing while priceless art was being smuggled out of India? Beyond isolated, small and ineffective measures the government has largely been a spectator. A damning CAG report from 2013 states that India had not recovered even one piece of stolenheritage between 2001 and 2012. Frustrated with the state of awairs, a group of volunteers organized themselves to track, lobby and bring back art works smuggled out of India. They call themselves the India Pride Project. Which of the following brings out the relationship between the two highlighted sentences?
A. While the first sentence presents a question, the second one answers the question. B. While the first sentence suggests the governments’ inaction against the art smugglers, the second sentence talks about the action being taken by a group of volunteers. C. While the first sentence blames the government, the second sentence suggests a solution to curb the smuggling of precious Indian art facts. D. While the former shows the cause for frustration, the latter talks about what the frustration is. E. Both (a) and (b)
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement: Input: about 25 next cat Ear 36 long over 41 jug under 40 Step I: cat next Ear 36 long over 41 jug under 40 about 25 Step II: cat jug next long over 41 under 40 about 25 Ear 36 Step III: cat jug long next under 39 about 25 Ear 36 over 41 Step IV: cat jug long next about 25 Ear 36 over 41 under 40 Step IV is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, 囷nd out the approximate step for the given input. Input: poet turn cat every 22 order 34 fat key inside 29 aptitude 41 hat 8.What is the position of ‘hat’ in Step III? A. Fifth from the left B. Third from the left C. Eighth from the right D. Ninth from the right E. None of these
9.Which step would be the following output? “cat fat hat power turn order 34 key aptitude 41 every 22 inside 29” A. II B. V C. There is no such step D. None of these E. III 10.How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement of the above input? A. Four B. Six C. Three D. Five E. None of these 11.Which of the following words/numbers would be at the eighth position from the right end in the penultimate step?
A. Order B. 34 C. 41 D. aptitude E. None of these 12.How many elements are there between ‘34’ and ‘inside’ in Step IV? A. One B. Three C. Five D. Two E. None of these
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven athletes of Career Power participated in a race competition. There were two types of race in the competition - one was of 100m and the other of 200m. The athletes who participated in both the races were Prashant, Swati, Kamal, Sikha, Yashita, Subham and Preeti. Each athlete completed each race in diwerent time periods, i.e. no race was completed by any two or more athletes in the same time period. Each athlete was given a particular position according to his performance. The one who got the top position performed better than others while one who got the lowest position performed worse. Prashant position in 100m race was just above Subham but in 200m race just below Kamal. Sikha position in 200m race was just above Preeti but in 100 m race just below Yashita. No persons were assigned positions between Prashant and Sikha. At least four persons got positions above Prashant in 100m race and at least four persons below in 200m race. Kamal did not get the highest or the lowest position in any race. Subham performance was better than Preeti in any race.
13.How many persons got position below Prashant when the performance of all persons in 100 m race is taken into consideration? A. Two B. Five C. Four D. One E. None of these 14.In 200m race, how many persons performed better than Prashant? A. Six B. Five C. Four D. Two E. None of these 15.Who among the following got the same position both in 100m and 200m races?
A. Only Kamal B. Only Sikha C. Both Kamal and Sikha D. Can't say E. None of these
16.Who among the following persons showed very dismal performance in 100m race? A. Swati B. Yashita C. Preeti D. Can't say E. None of these 17.Who got the position, just above Kamal in the 100 m race? A. Yashita B. Prashant C. Preeti D. Swati E. None of these To drive an electric economy, there must be some forms of energy generation that are flexible enough to be adjusted to meet fluctuations in demand. Nuclear isn't one of these, being suitable for providing a steady base load output but not rapidly adjustable. Wind and solar provide constantly fluctuating outputs. To make fullest use of these abundant but non-nuclear forms of energy we will need another flexible form of generation to complement their fluctuations and match the changing demand cycles. Gas has been touted as the answer to this but fossil fuel gas will only make the climate problem worse.
18.Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage above? A. Storing energy generated at times when renewable provide a surplus, and using it when they fall short is likely to be the sustainable alternative. B. We have no clear vision of energy generation. C. We are obsessed with conventional energy generation. D. Storage, a vital component of energy generation, is completely missing from our energy systems. E. None of these
Black collar crimes are pursued vigorously and punishment meted out. But when it comes to white collar crimes, society is very indulgent. An ecosystem has been built that actually encourages white collar crimes. Very few of these crimes are actually punished and when they are, the punishment is marginal. The criminal continues to be a full citizen of society and life goes on uninterrupted. So, over 500 big corporations, which were found to have committed crimes last year, continue to be fancied in the stock market.
19.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
A. White collar crimes are done for personal enrichment. B. It is not for the stealing that one is punished, but for getting caught. C. In their pursuit of money, investors do not seem to care about sullied reputations. D. Criminals can be found in big corporations too. E. None of these
Study the following information to answer the given questions. Eight top managements of Career Power i.e. Anil, Saurabh, Paresh, Atul, Sushil, Gopal, Yash and Alok are seated in a straight line but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing south while some are facing north. Anil sits fourth to left of Gopal. Gopal sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Both the immediate neighbours of Anil face north. Saurabh sits second to left of Alok. Alok is not an immediate neighbor of Anil. Neither Alok nor Paresh sits at the extreme end of the line. Paresh faces opposite direction to Atul. Both the immediate neighbors of Paresh face north. Sushil sits to immediate left of yash. Immediate neighbours of Atul face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour of Atul faces north then the other faces south and vice-versa). Immediate neighbours of Saurabh face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbor of Saurabh faces North then the other faces South and vice-versa). People sitting at the extreme ends face the opposite directions (i.e. if one person faces North then the other faces South and vice-versa). Atul faces to south direction.
20.Which of the following pairs represents immediate neighbours of the persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line? A. Yash, Gopal B. Saurabh, Yash C. Sushil, Alok D. Paresh, Alok E. Anil, Saurabh 21.How many person(s) are seated between Saurabh and Gopal? A. Four B. More than four C. One D. Three E. Two 22.If each of the people is made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating arrangement? A. One B. Two C. Four D. None E. Three 23.Who amongst the following sits exactly between Alok and Saurabh? A. Paresh B. Atul C. Yash D. Gopal E. Sushil 24.Who amongst the following sits third to the left of Alok? A. Paresh B. Sushil C. Anil D. Saurabh E. None of these
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are su߾cient to answer the question, Read both the statements. Give answer:
25.What is the position of T with respect to V in a round table seating arrangement facing the centre? I. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sat around a round table where P sat between U and V, S sat adjacent to V and R did not sit adjacent to S. II. T sat on the immediate right of U. A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the Question
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
26.How many children does Mr P has? I. Mr P has eight sons and each has one sister. II. Number of sons of Mr P is eight times the number of his daughter(s). A. If the data in statement I alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su߾cient to answer the question
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
27.The Director of a Tata Motors, visits one department on Monday of every week except for the Monday of third week of every month. When did he visit Marketing department? I. He visited Sale department in the second week of September after having visited Marketing department on the earlier occasion. II. He had visited Marketing department immediately after visiting Stores department but before visiting Sale department.
A. If the data in statement I alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the Question
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su߾cient to answer the question
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
28.Among P, Q, R, S, and T whose salary is the highest? I. Combined salary of P and Q is more than the combined salary of R and S but T's salary is more than both P's and Q's. II. Diwerence between P's salary and R's salary is more than the diwerence between S's and Q's salaries where P's salary and S's salary are higher than R's and Q's respectively.
A. If the data in statement I alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not su߾cient to answer the question C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su߾cient to answer the question
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
29.What is the code for ‘laptop’ in the code language in which, ‘he wrote third books’ is written as ‘git fat 囷t gat’? I. In that code language ‘third laptop he pleased us’ is written as ‘kat kit mit git 囷t’. II. In that code language ‘he wrote double books is written as ‘gat fat zat git’ and ‘give us laptop’ is written as ‘mat mit kit’.
A. If the data in statement I alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not su߾cient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not su߾cient to answer the question C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are su߾cient to answer the question
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su߾cient to answer the question
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
30.A critical gap in the modern understanding of terrorism is a complete lack of appreciation of the fact that South India was where the modern concept of suicide attacks had its roots for several centuries — from the Chera dynasty to the beginning of the 19th century. Here, the history of suicide squads is part of folklore. It may well explain why a socialist group fighting for Tamil nationalism, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam, ended up giving rise to a high number of suicide terrorists. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? A. We need the mightiest militaries and the finest weapons to fight terrorists. B. Deep political and cultural understanding can improve our efforts to find a lasting solution to violent insurgencies. C. Our understanding of the past suggests that certain ideologies have widespread empathy and a deep network across continents. D. We should not be ignorant of our past history. E. Both (A) & (B)
. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V work in the same company on diwerent profile viz; Team leader, Legal advisor, Manager, Accountant, Vice President, DGM and H.R but not necessarily in the same order. Also each person belongs to different cities namely Hyderabad, Pune, Bangalore, Chennai, Mumbai, Gurgaon and Noida but not in necessarily same order .They all go in the company on different days starting from Monday to Sunday(of the same week), but not necessarily in same order. P belongs to Hyderabad and works in the company either as Team leader or DGM. The person who goes on the seventh day of the week belongs to Noida and he works in the company as H.R. R does not work in the company as DGM. Q goes on Wednesday and He does not work in the company as Accountant and Team leader. The person who works in the company as Vice President goes on Thursday and neither he belongs to Pune nor from Gurgaon. S works in the company as Manager and he belongs to Chennai and goes in the company except on Monday and Tuesday. R belongs to Bangalore and goes company before S. V does not go on Thursday. On the second day of the week U goes in the company and he belongs to Gurgaon. The person who goes on Friday does not work in the company as Accountant, DGM and Team leader. R works in the company as a legal advisor.
31.In which of the following profile does P works? A. Accountant B. Manager C. H.R D. Legal advisor E. Team leader 32.Which of the following combinations of “City – Day” is True with respect to the given arrangement? A. Chennai – Friday B. Noida -Saturday C. Mumbai – Thursday D. Noida – Friday E. Chennai – Thursday
33.Q works in the company at which of the following profile?
A. Accountant B. Manager C. H.R D. DGM E. Team leader
34.In this arrangement, P is related to Monday, U is related to Tuesday then R is related to? A. Thursday B. Friday C. None of the given options is true. D. Saturday E. Sunday 35.Who among the following person belongs to Gurgaon? A. P B. R C. S D. T E. U
One hypothesis advanced about the missing of Malaysian Airlines Flight 370 is that the plane’s transponders, the Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System, and radio failed more or less at the same time. But experts say it is highly improbable that the systems malfunctioned without any attempt being made to convey distress and that, at the same time, the plane continued flying without being detected for hours after that. The other speculation is that the crew changed the course. This theory gains credibility because the plane made three course changes and two altitude changes.
36.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above? A. Technical flaws and human subversion caused Malaysian Airlines Flight 370 disaster. B. The missing of Malaysian Airlines Flight 370 was, in all probability, a deliberate act by the crew. C. Airworthiness of commercial airline crew has often been ignored while investigating the causes of an air disaster. D. Changing course mid-way of Malaysian Airlines Flight 370 is a mystery. E. None of these
In each group of questions below are two conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions. Given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
37.Conclusions: Some pen are not cat. No Book is cat. All the pen can be mobile. All the bottle can be mobile. Statements:
A. Some pen are bottle. No bottle is cat. No cat is Book. All the Book are mobile. All the cat are mobile.
B. All the Book are mobile. All the cat are mobile. Some pen are bottle. No bottle is cat. All cat are Book.
C. No bottle is cat. No cat is Book. All the Book are mobile. All the cat are mobile. All bottle are pen. No pen is mobile.
D. Some pen are bottle. No bottle is cat. Some cat are Book. All the Book are mobile. All the cat are mobile.
E. No cat is Book. All the Book are mobile. All the cat are mobile. All pen are cat. All book are bottle.
38.Conclusions: No Cat is a Dog Some pig is Dogs. Statements: Statements – 1: No Cat is cow. No cow is a Dog. Some Dogs are pig. Statements – 2: All Cats are cows. All cows are Dog. No Dog is pig. Statements – 3: All Cats are cows. No cow is a Dog. Some Dogs are pig. Statements – 4: All Cats are cows. No cow is a Dog. No Dog is pig. Statements – 5: All Cats are cows. All cows are Dog. Some Dogs are pig. A. Only Statements – 1 B. Only Statements – 2 C. Only Statements – 3 D. Only Statements – 4 E. Only Statements – 5
39. Conclusion: Some patna are darbhanga is a possibility. Some delhi are not lucknow Statements: Statements – 1: All darbhanga are kanpur. All kanpur are delhi. No kanpur is lucknow. No patna is delhi. Statements s – 2: Some darbhanga are kanpur. All kanpur are delhi. Some kanpur are lucknow. No patna is delhi. Statements – 3: All darbhanga are kanpur. All kanpur are delhi. No kanpur is lucknow. All patna are delhi Statements – 4: All darbhanga are kanpur. All kanpur are delhi. No patna is a delhi. Some patna are Lucknow Statements – 5: Some darbhanga are kanpur. All kanpur are delhi. No kanpur is lucknow. Some patna are Lucknow.
A. Only statements – 1 and 2 B. Only statements – 2 and 3 C. Only statements – 5 D. Only statements – 4 and 5 E. Only statements – 3 and 5
Sixteen million children in the US live in homes where there is consistently not enough food, according to the Agriculture Department. Those children get sick more often, have poorer overall health and are hospitalized more frequently than peers who are adequately nourished. Food insecurity has also been linked to behavioral and emotional problems from preschool through adolescence. 40.Which of the following can be inferred from the above statements? A. Managing childhood hunger is very crucial to the well-being of any nation. B. Food insecurity can drive up health care costs. C. Poor families should make use of local food banks and national food programmes to ensure the well-being of their children. D. It is shocking that a developed nation like the US cannot feed all its population. E. None of these
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions There are six boys M, N, O, P, Q and R. They went out with six girls S, T, U, V, W and X, not necessarily in the same order. The pair’s likes diwerent colours i.e. Red, Pink, Purple, Brown and two pair of them likes Black. Also they are going for diwerent movies, viz Junoon, Noor, Humsafar and Jagga jasoos. But Junoon and Noor are preferred by two pairs. M and P likes Black colour but do not going for movie either Junoon or Jagga jasoos. R does not go out with W and both of them do not going for movie Humsafar. V and U like Red and Purple colour respectively. The persons like Pink colour going for the same movie as N going. O goes out with X and likes Pink colour but does not going for movie either Noor or Jagga jasoos. N likes Red and going for movie Junoon. Q does not go out either with S or T also he does not like Purple colour. Q neither going for movie Humsafar nor Noor.
41.Who among the following like Red colour? A. PS B. WQ C. OX D. NV E. None of these 42.If M goes with S then who among the following goes with P? A. V B. U C. T D. W E. None of these 43.Who among the following likes Pink colour? A. X B. U C. V D. W E. None of these 44.O is going for which of the following movie? A. Junoon B. Jagga jasoos C. Noor D. Humsafar E. None of these 45.Which of the following is correct? A. O-Black-Humsafar B. R-Red-Jagga jasoos C. U-Pink-Noor D. Q-Brown-Jagga jasoos E. None of these
A car travelled a distance of 900 km. It developed an engine problem after travelling for some distance. It travelled the remaining distance at 3/5th of its speed. It reached 2 hours late. If the engine problem had developed after it had travelled for another 150 km, it would have reached 1 hour earlier than the time it actually reached.
46.Find the distance it travelled without any problem?(in km). A. 500 B. 400 C. 600 D. 700 E. None of these 47. Find its original speed for the journey? (in kmph). A. 100 B. 75 C. 100
D. 75 E. None of these
In a school there are a total of 50 students in class X, who are divided into three sections A, B and C. A and B have an equal number of students. All the students of the class wrote a test. The average marks obtained by the students of sections A and B together is 52.5. The average marks obtained by the students of sections A and C together is 60. The average marks obtained by the students of seconds B and C together is 70. The average marks obtained by the students of sections A, B and C together is 60.
48.How many students are there in section C? A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these 49.How many students are there in all of the three sections? A. 40 B. 30 C. 45 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
50.A so-called great gambler started playing a card game. In the first round he tripled his amount and he gave away Rs. p to his friend. In the second round he doubled the amount with him and gave away an amount 3p to his friend. In the third round he quadrupled the amount with him and gave away an amount 2p to his friend and was finally left with no money. If he gave away a total of Rs. 360 to his friend, then what was the money that he started with? A. Rs. 50 B. Rs. 55 C. Rs. 60 D. Rs. 66 E. None of these
51.X and Y entered into partnership with Rs. 700 and Rs. 600 respectively. After 3 months, X withdrew two-sevenths of his stock but after 3 months, he puts back three-fifths of what he had withdrawn. The profit at the end of the year is Rs. 726. How much of this should X receive? A. Rs. 336 B. Rs. 366 C. Rs. 633 D. Rs. 663 E. None of these
52.Eleven years earlier the average age of a family of 4 members was 28 years. Now the age of the same family with six members is yet the same, even when 2 children were born in this period. If they belong to the same parents and the age of the 囷rst child at the time of the birth of the younger child was same as there were total family members just after the birth of the youngest members of this family, then the present age of the youngest member of the family is A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 6 years D. Can’t determine E. None of these
53. Quantity I - Time taken by A to complete a work alone if A can complete a work in 5 more days than B while A does the same work in 9 more days than C. If A and B can complete the whole work in same time as time taken by C alone to do the whole work. Quantity II - Time taken by 8 men and 14 women to reap 7/12 part of 360 hectare land by working 7 hrs per day if 6 men and 10 women can reap 5/12 part of the land in 15 days by working 6 hrs per day. It is also given that work of 2 men is equal to that of 3 women.
54.Quantity I - Diwerence between the speeds of P and Q if 2 places A and B are 60 km apart. P and Q start from A at same time & meet 1st time at a place 12 km from B & they reach A after immediate return from B. The speed of slower person is 48 km/hr. Quantity II - Average speed of train if a distance of 600 km is to be covered in 2 parts. In 1st phase 120 km is travelled by train and rest by car and it took total of 8 hrs, but if 200 km is covered by train and rest by car it takes 20 min more. 55. Quantity I - Cost price of motor bike if a man promises to pay the price of the motorbike in 3 equal annual installments of 10,800 Rs. at the compound interest rate of 20% per annum. Quantity II -240% of the value of each installment if a man borrowed a sum of Rs. 25220 from a bank and promise to pay the amount in 3 equal installments at the compound interest rate of 5% per annum.
56.
The following questions are accompanied by three statements (A) or (I) and (B) or (II),You have to determine which statement(s) is/are su߾cient/necessary to answer the questions.
Kumud’s marks in Geography is 20 more than the average marks obtained by him in English, History, Geography and Mathematics. What is the diwerence between the marks obtained by him in History and Mathematics? To answer the above question, which of the following information given in the statements I and II is/are sufficient? 57.I. Total marks obtained by him in Geography and History is 160 II. The total marks obtained by him in History Geography and Mathematics is 210. A. Both I and II together are not sufficient B. Both I and II together are needed. C. Only I alone is sufficient. D. Only II alone is sufficient. E. Either I or II alone is sufficient.
58.What is the minimum passing percentage in a test? I. Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than that of Raman. II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks. A. Both I and II together are not sufficient. B. Both I and II together are needed. C. Only I alone is sufficient. D. Only II alone is sufficient.. E. Either I or II alone is sufficient.
59.Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap? I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have diwerent weights. A. Both I and II together are not sufficient. B. Both I and II together are needed. C. Only I alone is sufficient. D. Only II alone is sufficient. E. Either I or II alone is sufficient.
60.What is the population of the city A? I. The ratio of the population of males and females in city A is 27 : 23 and the difference between their population is 100000. II. The population of city A is 80% of that of city B. The difference between populations of city A and city B is 312500. A. Both I and II together are not sufficient. B. Both I and II together are needed. C. Only I alone is sufficient. D. Only II alone is sufficient. E. Either I or II alone is sufficient.
Given below is the line graph showing the percentage profit of 2 manufacturing firms, Reliance and Wipro from year 2006 to 2010. The pie charts show the percentage distribution of total income of each company in different years. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions. 61.The expenditure of Reliance in 2008 is approximately how much percent less/more than that of Wipro in 2009 ? A. 3% B. 4% C. 5% D. 7% E. 8% 62.The total income of Reliance in years 2006, 2007 and 2008 together is what percent more than the total income of Wipro for the same years ? (Calculate up to two decimal points) A. 16.66% B. 18.51% C. 27.4% D. 20.4% E. 22.22%
63.The income of Wipro in 2010 is approximately how much less/more than the average expenditure of Reliance for years 2009, 2010 and 2007 ? A. 107%
B. 407% C. 307% D. 207% E. 507% 64.What is approximately the collective profit of Reliance and Wipro for years 2009 and 2010 ? A. 350 cr. B. 270 cr. C. 290 cr. D. 307 cr. E. 298 cr.
65.Calculate the difference of expenditures of Reliance and Wipro in 2011 if their expenditure in 2011 is 80% and 90% of their income in 2010 respectively ? A. 567 cr.
B. 257 cr. C. 447 cr. D. 120 cr. E. None of these
Study the following table carefully and answer the following question. The table represents the cost of production and profit percentages of sports utility companies Adidas and Nike over the years from 2001 to 2005 Note: - A few values are missing. It is expected that the candidate should calculate the missing values, if it is required to find answer for the questions given below. Profit = Sales – cost of production
66.If total sale of Adidas and Nike together in 2001 is 798 lakh, then find the cost of production of Nike ? A. 250 lakh B. 300 lakh C. 200 lakh D. 400 lakh E. None of these
67.If total sales of Adidas and Nike together in 2002 is 1150 lakh, and cost of production of Adidas to that of Nike is 5 : 4, then find the difference in the cost of production of the two companies in 2002 ? A. 300 lakh B. 100 lakh C. 400 lakh D. 200 lakh E. None of these
68.The average sales of Adidas in years 2004 and 2005 is approximately what percent of the average sales of Nike in years 2003 and 2004 ? A. 120% B. 110% C. 114% D. 121% E. 108% 69.If total sales of Adidas and Nike together in 2005 is 1330 lakh, then find the profit% of Nike in 2005 ? A. 18% B. 21% C. 12% D. 15% E. None of these 70.What is the ratio of sales of Adidas in 2003 to that of Nike in 2004 ? A. 41 : 43 B. 42 : 47 C. 39 : 47 D. 43 : 41 E. None of these Study the following line graph and table carefully to answer the given questions. Total production under various heads(in tons)
Percentage of total production used only under these three heads-
71.The average production of wheat and Mazes in 2011 is what percent of the supply in open market in year 2009 ? A. 162.5% B. 150.4% C. 170% D. 165.4% E. None of these 72.What is the ratio of export in 2012 to PDS supply in 2014 ? A. 31 : 19 B. 31 : 17 C. 41 : 31 D. 19 : 13 E. None of these 73.What is the difference between the overall production of maize in years 2009 to 2014 and production that exported in 2012 ? A. 3000 tons B. 2500 tons C. 2550 tons D. 2200 tons E. None of these
74.The average production of all four crops in 2012 is what percent less than the average export in year 2009 and 2014 ? (Calculate up to two decimal points) A. 52.8% B. 40.46% C. 53.71% D. 43.18% E. None of these 75.If 20% of the supply in open market in 2011 is retained and stored, then calculate the approximate percent decrease/increase in supply in open market in 2011 as compared to 2010 ? A. 10% B. 13% C. 12% D. 15% E. 9%
Study the following charts carefully and answer the questions given below: Discipline wise breakup of number of candidates appeared in interview and Total no. of candidates selected after interview by the organization.
76.The number of candidates who were selected after interview from commerce is what percent of number of candidates who were not selected after interview from Agriculture ? (Rounded ow to two decimal points) A. 37.75% B. 46.43% C. 42.5% D. 52.5% E. 55.55% 77.Calculate the average number of candidates who got selected after interview from Science, Engineering and Agriculture as a percentage of the number of candidates who did not get selected from same three disciplines ? (Rounded ow to two decimal points) A. 35.16% B. 32.34% C. 30.46% D. 37.42% E. 33.43%
78.The average number of candidates selected after interview from ‘others’ and Management is what percent of the number of candidates who appeared in interview from Engineering ? (Rounded flow to two decimal points) A. 24.26% B. 28.18% C. 30.12% D. 34.17% E. 29.14% 79.What percent of the total appeared candidates is the sum of the students who were selected after interview from Science and those who were not selected from others ? (Rounded ow to two decimal points) A. 25.45% B. 21.26% C. 12.74% D. 17.10% E. 17.89%
80.What is the ratio of students appeared in interviews from Management and those who got selected in interview from Commerce, others and Engineering together ? A. 3017 : 2747 B. 3015 : 2991 C. 3090 : 2993 D. 3417 : 2817 E. None of these
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Attempting to understand science and scientific reasoning in terms of the subjective beliefs of scientists would seem to be a disappointing departure for those who seek an objective account of science. Howsom and Urbach have an answer to that charge. They insist that the Bayesian theory constitutes an objective theory of scientific inference. That is, given a set of prior probabilities and some new evidence, Bayes’ theorem dictates in an objective way what the new, posterior probabilities must be in the light of that evidence. There is no difference in this respect between Bayesianism and deductive logic, because logic has nothing to say about the source of the propositions that constitute the premises of a deduction either. It simply dictates what follows from those propositions once they are given. The Bayesian deffence can be taken a stage further. It can be argued that the beliefs of individual scientists, however much they might diwer at the outset, can be made to converge given that appropriate input of evidence. It is easy to see in an informal way how this can come about. Suppose two scientists start out by disagreeing greatly about the probable truth of hypothesis h which predicts otherwise unexpected experimental outcome e. The one who attributes a high probability to h will regard e as less unlikely than the one who attributes a low probability to h. So P (e) will be high for the former and low for the latter. Suppose now that e is experimentally confirmed. Each scientist will have to adjust the probabilities for h by the factor P (e/h)/P (e). However, since we are assuming that e follows from h, P (e/h) is 1 and the scaling factor is 1/P (e). Consequently, the scientist who started with a low probability for h will scale up that probability by a larger factor than the scientist who started with a higher probability for h. As more positive evidence comes in, the original doubter is forced to scale up the probability in such a way that it eventually approaches that of the already convinced scientist. In this way, argue the Bayesians, widely diwering subjective opinions can be brought into conformity in response to evidence in an objective way. 81.Using the idea explicated in the passage above, the only scientific way to deny the validity of a counterhypothesis put forward to explain a natural phenomenon would be to A. take the counter-hypothesis and try to find flaws in its components. B. question the source of alternative hypothesis. C. question the authority of the scientist stating the alternative hypothesis. D. take the alternative explanation and ask for its fullest development in terms of possible ramifications other than the already existent outcome (E). E. None of the above.
82.The subjective beliefs of scientists referred to in the passage could be due to A. multiple scientists studying multiple phenomena and putting forth multiple hypotheses. B. propositions offered by scientists being backed only by one's beliefs about their validity. C. scientists presenting data selectively in support of their own favourite hypothesis over competing hypotheses. D. scientists allowing their subjective opinions to bias their testing of hypothesis. E. none of these
83.Scientists’ beliefs which differ at the outset are related to A. different outcomes only. B. different hypotheses only. C. different hypotheses about different outcomes. D. differences in explanatory power of competing hypotheses. E. none of these.
84.Strictly following the idea put forward in the article which one of the following is a logical possibility?
A. The idea that astrologers can predict stock market movements better than economists, if astrologers’ hypothesis (h) is more consistently followed by outcomes (E) than that of economists.
B. The fact that stock-market movements are in sync with the movement of the heavenly bodies: both (h) and (E) contained in the same statement.
C. That certain astrological phenomena can inuence thinking of humans (E) which is manifested in stock market booms and crashes (h).
D. That certain astrological phenomena (h) can inuence thinking of humans (E1) which is manifested in stock-market booms and crashes (E2).
E. None of these.
Choose the word which is similar in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 85.Posterior A. Expedite B. Preclude C. Exacerbate D. Perturb E. Dorsal 86.Conformity A. Clamor B. Clinker C. Acquiescence D. Embroilment E. Skirmish
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 87.Proposition A. Recommendation B. Approach C. Entice D. Recourse E. Verisimilitude
88.Converge A. Disseminate B. Divulge C. Impend D. Compact E. Rendezvous Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Two divergent definitions have dominated sociologists’ discussions of the nature of ethnicity. The first emphasizes the primordial and unchanging character of ethnicity. In this view, people have an essential need for belonging that is satisfied by membership in groups based on shared ancestry and culture. A different conception of ethnicity de-emphasizes the cultural component and defines ethnic groups as interest groups. In view, ethnicity serves as a way of mobilizing a certain population behind issues relating to its economic position. While both of these definitions are useful, neither fully captures the dynamic and changing aspects of ethnicity in the United States. Rather, ethnicity is more satisfactorily conceived of as a process in which pre-existing communal bonds and common cultural attributes are adapted for instrumental purposes according to changing real-life situations. One example of this process is the rise of participation by Native American people in the broader United States political system since the Civil Rights movement of the 1960’s. Besides leading Native Americans to participate more actively in politics (the number of Native American legislative o߾ceholders more than doubled), this movement also evoked increased interest in tribal history and traditional culture. Cultural and instrumental components of ethnicity are not mutually exclusive, but rather reinforce one another. The Civil Rights movement also brought changes in the uses to which ethnicity was put by Mexican American people. In the 1960’s, Mexican Americans formed community-based political groups that emphasized ancestral heritage as a way of mobilizing constituents. Such emerging issues as immigration and voting rights gave Mexican American advocacy groups the means by which to promote ethnic solidarity. Like European ethnic groups in the nineteenth-century United States, late-twentieth-century Mexican American leaders combined ethnic with contemporary civic symbols. In 1968 Henry Censors, then mayor of San Antonio, Texas, cited Mexican leader Benito Juarez as a model for Mexican Americans in their fight for contemporary civil rights. And every-year, Mexican Americans celebrate Cinco de Mayo as fervently as many Irish American people embrace St. Patrick’s Day (both are major holidays in the countries of origin), with both holidays having been reinvented in the context of the United States and linked to ideals, symbols, and heroes of the United States.
89.Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage? A. In their definitions of the nature of ethnicity, sociologists have underestimated the power of the primordial human need to belong.
B. Ethnicity is best defined as a dynamic process that combines cultural components with shared political and economic interests.
C. In the United States in the twentieth century, ethnic groups have begun to organize in order to further their political and economic interests.
D. Ethnicity in the United States has been significantly changed by the Civil Rights movement. E. The two definitions of ethnicity that have dominated sociologists discussions are incompatible and should be replaced by an entirely new approach.
90.The passage supports which of the following statements about the Mexican American community?
A. In the 1960’s the Mexican American community began to incorporate the customs of another ethnic group in the United States into the observation of its own ethnic holidays.
B. In the 1960’s Mexican American community groups promoted ethnic solidarity primarily in order to ewect economic change.
C. In the 1960’s leader of the Mexican American community concentrated their eworts on promoting a renaissance of ethnic history and culture.
D. In the 1960’s members of the Mexican American community were becoming increasingly concerned about the issue of voting rights.
E. In the 1960’s the Mexican American community had greater success in the mobilizing constituents than did other ethnic groups in the United States. 91.Information in the passage supports which of the following statements about many European ethnic groups in the nineteenth-century United States? A. They emphasized economic interests as a way of mobilizing constituents behind certain issues. B. They conceived of their own ethnicity as being primordial in nature. C. They created cultural traditions that fused United States symbols with those of their countries of origin. D. The de-emphasized the culture components of their communities in favour of political interests. E. They organized formal community groups designed to promote a renaissance of ethnic history and culture.
92.The passage suggests that in 1968 Henry Censors most likely believed that A. many Mexican American would respond positively to the example of Benito Juarez. B. many Mexican American were insu߾ciently educated in Mexican history. C. the fight for civil rights in the United States had many strong parallels in both Mexican and Irish history. D. The quickest way of organizing community-based groups was to emulate the tactics of Benito Juarez. E. Mexican Americans should emulate the strategies of Native American political leaders.
Choose the word which is similar in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 93.Primordial A. Logical B. Primeval C. Concrete D. Oracular E. Wavering Choose the word which is similar in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 94.Fervently A. Gravely B. Laggardly C. Composedly D. Torpidly E. Ardently
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 95.Reinforce A. Prop B. Notoriety C. Subvert D. Ministration E. Blaze
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does not it into the theme of the paragraph. 96.A. Unfortunately, it is not just the airline that is in a mess, but also the banks (including the venerable State Bank of India) that have lent to it. B. So they restructure debt, ower better terms, extend repayment periods, and provide more credit to keep the unit aoat. C. If they withdraw they invite default of the large volume of debt they have already provided.
D. The dangers associated with restructuring was brought to public attention in the Kingfisher Airlines case, which is now facing the prospect of liquidation as a result of a combination of bad strategy, bad acquisitions, proigacy and obvious mismanagement.
E. The largest chunk of bank debt to infrastructure (estimated at Rs. 269196 crore as of March 2011) is to the power sector.
97.A. In the rural areas, male usual (principal and subsidiary) status employment increased by only 13.4 million between 2004-05 and 2009-10, as compared with 20.2 million between 1999-2000 and 2004-05. B. This points to a structural shift in employment generation since most of the additional male employment generated in this age group during the 1999-2000 to 2004-05 period was in the self-employment category. C. The corresponding figures for the urban areas were 9.8 million and 15 million respectively. D. Thus there is clear evidence of deceleration here as well. E. To deal with the criticism that the figures on female employment are gross underestimates, and get on with the task at hand, we can restrict the analysis to movements in male employment.
98.A. The Survey sees the services sector, which recorded a marginal deceleration of growth in 2013-14, as poised for revival and as being an important contributor to growth in the future as well. B. Though India ranks low in terms of per capita income, its share of services in GDP is approaching the global average. C. This would imply that the relative per worker value added in services vis-à-vis the commodity producing sectors and construction, was higher in India than elsewhere. D. Interestingly, however, the contribution of services to employment was significantly lower than the world average. E. As the Economic Survey noted, while at the global level services accounted for 65.9 per cent of GDP and as much as 44 per cent of employment in 2012, in India’s case the sector, with 56.3 per cent of GDP, accounted for just 28.1 per cent of employment.
99.A. It may appear counter-intuitive, but research shows that imposing stricter penalties tends to reduce the level of enforcement of road rules. B. As the IIT Delhi’s Road Safety in India report of 2015 points out, the deterrent ewect of law depends on the severity and swiftness of penalties, but also the perception that the possibility of being caught for violations is high. C. The amendments to the MV Act set enhanced penalties for several owences, notably drunken driving, speeding, jumping red lights and so on, but periodic and inewective enforcement, which is the norm, makes it less likely that these will be uniformly applied. D. The bottleneck created by their lack of capacity has stied regulatory reform in the transport sector and only encouraged corruption. E. Without an accountable and professional police force, the ghastly record of tra߾c fatalities, which stood at 1,46,133 in 2015, is unlikely to change.
100.A. Without such oversight, unethical commercial entities would have easy backdoor access to public funds in the form of state-backed insurance. B. But this requires accountability, both on the quality and cost of care. C. Against such a laggardly record, the policy now owers an opportunity to systematically rectify well-known deficiencies through a stronger National Health Mission. D. No more time should be lost in forming regulatory and accreditation agencies for healthcare providers at the national and State levels as suggested by the expert group on universal health coverage of the Planning Commission more than five years ago. E. Contracting of health services from the private sector may be inevitable in the short term, given that about 70% of all outpatient care and 60% of inpatient treatments are provided by it.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
101.Physical violence is addictive and infectious. Like some deadly drug, once you partake of it you want a second (forgive the terrible pun) hit, and once you start doing it regularly you want more and more. With ingested substances your interaction is only with yourself, but violence always needs a target, or — if you must be libtardish about it — a victim. Now, as your blow transfers from your brain to the hand that pulls ow your slipper to the recipient, you transfer not only the pain but also the infection from which you are suwering. Perhaps not immediately, especially if they’re reeling from serious bodily damage, but sooner or later, the person who’s hit will want to hit back. ______A. If your target is dead, the infection will spread to their loved ones and comrades. B. Despite limited experience I would suggest that a human being has two contradictory reactions when he visits physical harm on someone. C. These violent ideologies tend to get hungrier for sanctioned targets; the definitions of the enemy get wider, consciously and subconsciously. D. How can someone who hits you tell you not to do it to others? E. With parents it is di߾cult to hit back, especially when you’re very small.
102.In a recent and fascinating book called The Islamic Enlightenment: The Struggle between Faith and Reason: 1798 to Modern Times by Christopher de Bellaigue, there is an interesting counterfactual that is posed. Could the most advanced societies of the Islamic world in the early 19th century — the Ottoman empire — have understood Jane Eyre? ______. To “get” Jane Eyre, not just as a cultural product but also as a viable, believable story, the Ottomans would have had to “get” the social infrastructure in which the novel unfolds. This would mean recognising a post-feudal society, understanding institutions like the postal services or newspapers, and the idea that a “respectable” single woman could make life choices on her own.
A. The answer is not clear. B. Even within the democratic context of India, we 囷nd elaborately architected visions of linguistic chauvinism, imaginary sanctities, textual literalism, and genetic ‘purity’. C. Jane Eyre is a novel by Charlotte Brontë, published in 1847, about a young woman’s journey through life and love at the cusp of modernity. D. One can try to keep in mind that the ideas we hold to be self-evident and eternal were born out of contingent circumstances. E. At best, we can only point to a set of responses that shows how our present culture is born out of a complex set of exchanges and reactions.
103.The question is what defines headline inflation? For long, point-to-point changes in the wholesale price index (WPI) were considered the headline inflation rate. The WPI is a weighted average of the prices of most goods produced in the economy, with the weights being their shares in domestic output and their prices those prevailing in wholesale markets. ______. Internationally consumer price indices rather than producer price indices are the standard for measuring inflation, since they reflect the prices that ordinary citizens face and pay.
A. The release was supposed to mark the transition to the use by the government and the central bank of this new index rather than the wholesale price index (WPI) to compute the headline inflation rate. B. The reason for this significant difference partly lies in the substantial difference in rates of inflation across commodity groups as measured by the WPI. C. This does indeed make a difference. D. It is closer to a producer price index, reflecting more what producers charge their immediate buyers, rather than the prices that prevail at the end of the trading chain, in retail markets. E. Since many of these primary goods are likely to be consumed by the ordinary citizen and, therefore, feature in the CPI with a large weight, that index shows inflation to be much higher.
104.Is this China story true? And if so would India be among the countries that benefit? International comparisons of unit labour costs are difficult to come by, but some numbers are available from a few sources. This discussion is based on estimates made by the Bureau of Labour Statistics (BLS) of the US government. Despite the dificulty involved in generating comparable numbers the BLS has (till recently) routinely put out figures on unit labour costs in different countries as part of its International Labour Comparison programme. ______A. However, what matters from the point of view of competitiveness is not just compensation but unit labour costs in a common currency, which depends on compensation, productivity and the exchange rate. B. China and India were not part of the regular programme, but the BLS conducted special studies of labour compensation in these countries, being careful to underscore the dangers of comparing data that are diwerent in terms of method, coverage and reliability across countries. C. There are several aspects of the Chinese experience that need to be taken note of. D. Given the evidence on labour compensation costs, conventionally seen as an important determinant of competitiveness, this diwerential in performance calls for an explanation. E. While China was recording a lower level of compensation costs when compared with India (though the two were close to each other), matters had changed signi囷cantly by 2009 with Chinese compensation costs racing ahead.
105.The International Telecommunications Union (ITU) also estimates that around 18 per cent of individuals in India were using the Internet in 2014, as compared with 49.3 per cent in China, 90 per cent in Japan and 87.4 per cent in the US. ______. Since services provided by the government are likely to be accessed by households, this improves the initial condition from which the government is working. But still, a quarter of households is a long way from the near universal access to cloud-based services that the government is hoping to ensure.
A. One problem is, of course, that of providing access to the hardware through which individuals get access to the Internet. B. Almost a decade back it announced a policy initiative to bridge India’s widening digital divide by increasing physical access to computers connected to the Internet. C. The NSS survey quoted earlier suggests that there is an unusual relationship between internet access, computer access and literacy. D. If we go by figures from Internet World Stats, Internet penetration within the population in India amounted to 19.7 per cent at the end of June 2014, as compared with 86.9 per cent in the U. S., 86.2 per cent in Japan, and 47.4 per cent in China. E. But, as noted earlier, the NSS figures suggest that the proportion of households with Internet access is much higher than the “non-official” numbers on the proportion of individuals who are Internet users.
106.In each of the following questions, five options are given and you have to choose the one which has some or any grammatical error in it. In the questions where the fifth option is “all are correct” and all the given four options are correct choose option (E) as your choice. A. He was probably a Greek, but he did not accord with anything of his time. B. Their husbands are not likely ever to be rich men, and will probably be poor for some years to come. C. Had there been, he probably would have invited the visitor to walk to the fire and partake. D. The individual whom I address is probably the most popular beggar in the town. E. Between you and I, he probably won’t come at all.
107.A. Let no one remain with doubt that India is getting stronger and stronger. B. Only I made it stronger and more explicit than that, and knew they would comply if such a thing were humanly possible.
C. The comfort she enjoyed and could always look forward to was making her stronger.
D. It seems to me that the breeze is stronger here than it was out at sea.
E. All are correct.
108.A. It was late in the afternoon when I set foot on solid earth, but I did not stay in the town. B. Almost as soon as he set foot in his home he was informed of the news by Trim. C. After many an adventure the explorer finally set foot on the English soil. D. She was resolved to leave Atlamalco on the first opportunity and never to set foot within the Republic again. E. All are correct. 109.A. They are at the same time modest and impudent, attack and careful retreat. B. The child was then careful to avoid what had been pronounced "wrong" in others. C. There are many a slips between the cup and the lip and so one has to be careful. D. Now lower the fire and be careful not to allow the compound to be overdone. E. Be careful not to overcook it, and it will not be pasty, but firm and tender.
110.A. They discussed their chances of contacting Space Academy with the communications set they had left hidden in the storeroom. B. He wondered how they'd go about contacting the commissioner. C. I will appreciate your contacting any of the girls who might be interested in joining our air line as stewardesses. D. No sooner I received the telegram from Avinash than I started contacting my friends on phone.
E. All are correct.
Which of the words/phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the words/phrases given in bold in the following sentences to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
111.The water crisis has its origin in extensive deforestation, proliferation of bore wells, violent urbanisation, and unplanned development, which has vented havoc with the hydrological cycle, leading to the erosion of many rivers. A. Bases, limited, unleashed, aꗻiction B. Roots, rampant, wreaked, deterioration C. Center, widespread, perpetrate, contamination D. Cause, robust, produced, spoilage E. No correction required
112.The fact that cases pile up in the courts of law has emboldened the terrorists. Some of the owences for which military courts can try civilians are: attacking military officers or installations; kidnapping for ransom; possessing and storing explosives and firearms, creating terror and insecurity in Pakistan and waging war against the State. A. Dissuaded, coronations, compensation, engaging B. Kindled, deputations, deliverance, ceasing C. Incited, induction, tamper, enduring D. Fortified, devolution, money, executing E. No correction required.
113.Su߾ce it tocertify that the patron-client relationship has benefited Trinamul, as it once did the CPI-M through the panchayati raj and Operation Barga. For now, the dominion of the BJP, if on a limited scale, advance a new scope to West Bengal politics. A. File, reign, conceals, extent B. Report, sovereignty, withhold, purview C. Record, jurisdiction, presents, territory D. Register, ascendancy, lends, dimension E. No correction required.
114.In the roman novel Heart of Darkness by Joseph Conrad, the protagonist tells the tale of his steamboat cruise up the Congo River to a destination of plausible danger. Having to choose between unavoidable evils on his journey, he tries to assist the lesser one, recognising that he has to be “loyal to the nightmare of (his) choice”. A. Classic, voyage, unimaginable, pursue B. Typical, excursion, doubtful, plague C. Majestic, journey, customary, shun D. Latin, navigation, remarkable, eschew E. No correction required 115.There have been claims by various media that North Korea has not yet created nuclear shield small enough to it in a missile. But there have been other expert-based reports suggesting that North Korea already has abbreviated warheads, with some estimates introducing this number at around 20. A. Diverse, barrier, diminished, eclipsing B. Several, weapon, stretched, concluding C. Numerous, warheads, miniaturized, capping D. Populous, missile, abridged, oppressing E. No correction required
116.The Union government will launch an umbrella programme______for food processing sector with______crore outlay to integrate current and new schemes. A. BHOJAN,8000 Crore B. SAMPADA, 5000 Crore C. ALPAHAR, 6000 Crore D. SAMPADA,6000 Crore E. SARDA,6000 Crore
117.Which movie has won the Best Hindi Film award in the 64th National Awards-2017? A. Rustom B. Ventilator C. Dangal D. Neerja E. Kasaav
118.According to SEBI’s new slew of reforms all listed companies including PSUs must have public shareholding of______. The decisions were taken at a board meeting of Sebi here and included many reform measures to boost ______. A. 20%, Share Market B. 24%, Capital Market C. 25%, Primary Market D. 25%, Secondary Market E. None of these
119.Name the novel authored by Colson Whitehead that has won the Pulitzer Prize for 囷ction. A. The Underground Railroad B. Don Quixote C. The Odyssey by Homer D. In Search of Time E. The Divine Comedy
Which of the following is/are true about the ‘’Sub- prime Crisis?(the term was very much in news recently).
120.I. It is Mortgage Crisis referring to Credit default by the borrowers II. Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers III.The crisis originated of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers A. Only I B. Only II C. Only III D. All of the above E. None of these
121.As per the recent announcement, North India will get its 囷rst Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) bank for wildlife in which city? A. Chandigarh B. Bareilly C. Varanasi D. Allahabad E. Agra
122.UNHCR, the UN Refugee Agency has appointed ______as its Goodwill Ambassador. A. Kristin Davis B. Priyanka Chopra C. Yao Cheng D. Sachin Tendulkar E. Praya Lunber 123.Kisan Vikas Patra is a saving scheme that was announced by the Government of India that doubles the money invested in eight years and seven months. Kisan Vikas Patra can be purchased from any Post O߾ce by filling a form and depositing the amount in cash or by cheques or demand drafts with the filled form and your photographs.Which of the following denominations of Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) are not available to the investors? A. Rs.1000 B. Rs. 5000 C. Rs. 10,000 D. Rs.25, 000 E. Rs. 50,000 124.Which company has been named the official Innovation Partner for the 2017 ICC Champions Trophy 2017? A. VIVO B. IBM C. Google D. HCL E. Intel 125.Which of the following pairs of countries,capitals and currencies is not matched correctly?These countries were recently visited by Indian dignitaries. A. Ghana—Accra—Ghanaian Cedi B. Mexico—Mexico City—Mexican Dollar C. Namibia—Windhoek—Namibian dollar D. Ivory Coast—Yamoussoukro—West African CFA franc E. None of these
126.Who has been conferred with the 2016 Saraswati Samman? A. Govind Mishra B. Padma Sachdev C. Sughatakumari D. Mahabaleshwar Sail E. None of these 127.Which of the following is issued by the govt. on discount to face value, while the holder gets the face value on maturity and the return on them is the difference between the issue price and face value? A. Commercial Paper B. Treasury Bills C. Certificate of Deposit D. PPF E. None of these
128.Which Indian bank has launched a mobile banking app “Mera iMobile” for rural customers? A. YES Bank B. ICICI Bank C. HDFC Bank D. State Bank of India (SBI) E. IndusInd Bank 129.______is a quick and easy way of transferring personal remittances from abroad to beneficiaries in India. Only inward personal remittances into India such as remittances towards family maintenance and remittances favoring foreign tourists visiting India are permissible. A. Money Transfer Service Scheme B. Money Transfer Scheme for Service C. Minimum Transfer Service Scheme D. Money Transfer Service Strategy E. None of these 130.Which cricket team has won the 2017 Vijay Hazare Trophy? A. Karnataka B. Baroda C. Mumbai D. Tamil Nadu E. None of these
131.A note which,has become dirty due to usage and also includes a two piece note pasted together wherein both the pieces presented belong to the same note,and form the entire note: A. Mutilated note B. Imperfect note C. Soiled note D. Mismatched Note E. None of these
132.The Prime Minister ShriNarendraModi finally inaugurated an exhibition titled ______in the New Delhi to mark the 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi’s 囷rst experiment of Satyagraha in Champaran. A. Satyagraha-Bapuko Shraddhanjali-EkNayiSoch B. Swachhagraha-Bapuko Bhavanjali-EkNayaAbhiyan C. Satyagraha-Bapuko Shraddhanjali-EkPradarshani D. None of the given options is true E. Swachhagraha–BapuKoKaryanjali-EkAbhiyan, EkPradarshani
133.Truecaller has partnered with which bank to launch its UPI-based mobile payment service “Truecaller Pay”? A. HDFC Bank B. ICICI Bank C. IndusInd Bank D. SBI E. None of these
134.According to RBI circular demand draft for______should be issued by the bank only by debit to the customer’s account A. Rs.10, 000 or above B. Upto Rs. 20,000 C. Upto Rs. 50,000 D. 50,000 or above E. None of these
135.What is the India’s rank in the 2017 World Happiness Index (WHI)? A. 116th B. 122nd C. 131th D. 155th E. 121th
136.On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any company in India? 1. Violation of Banking Regulation Act. 2. Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines. 3. for violation of negotiable Instrument Act. A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3 E. All of the above 137.Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly? A. RBI-Banker of last resort B. AMFI-Mutual Fund C. SEBI-Market Regulator D. NHB- GOI E. None of these
138.Who of the following has won the 2017 Abel Prize? A. Andrew J. Wiles B. Louis Nirenberg C. Yves Meyer D. John F. Nash E. None of these
139.World Sparrow Day is a day designated to raise awareness of the house sparrow and other common birds to urban environments celebrated on? A. 20th March B. 21 March C. 22 March D. 23 March E. None of these
140.Which of the following countries are top three largest shareholders in The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)? A. China , India, Australia B. China, Russia, France C. China, India, Russia D. China, Russia, India E. None of these
141.An ECS Transaction gets bounced and you are unable to recover your money from your customer Under which Act, criminal action can be initiated? A. Negotiable Instrument Act B. Indian Penal Code C. Criminal Procedure Code D. Payment and Settlement Act E. Indian Contract Act
142.Ministry of Rural development has released nearly Rs. ______to the States under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). A. Rs. 17,500 crore B. Rs. 25,500 crore C. Rs. 23,500 crore D. Rs. 22,500 crore
143.The 2020 Summer Olympics are scheduled to be held in A. Sydney (Australia) B. Tokyo (Japan) C. Beijing (China) D. Sochi (Russia) E. None of these
144.Under SARFAESI Act, borrower is required to be given a notice of days by the bank, for taking possession of the security A. 30 days from date of notice B. 60 days from date of notice C. 30 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower D. 60 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower E. None of the above 145.RBI has asked banks to provide loans to women self-help groups in rural areas at how much per cent per annum, as per the government's revised guidelines for the current 囷nancial year.? A. 3 per cent B. 15 per cent C. 7 per cent D. 12 per cent E. 11 per cent
146.An agreement which in fact is a contract,between the RBI and banks for the sale and repurchase of Govt securities and short-term treasury bills at a future date and for which the RBI indicates “The interest rate” is generally known as A. Repo Rate B. Bank Rate C. Reverse Repo Rate D. Prime Lending Rate E. None of these
147.The Reserve Bank of India has planned to open the Unified Payment Interface platform for which of the following under digitization campaign? A. Online Classified Ads Firms B. Online Transport Firms C. E-Commerce Firms D. Digital Wallets E. None of these
148.Bhitarkanika National Park is located in which of the following state? A. Bihar B. West Bengal C. Jharkhand D. Odisha E. Assam
149.The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) was established in 2001 and is spread across the two states of ______and______. A. Kerala and Andhra Pradesh B. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu C. Tamil Nadu and Odisha D. Kerala and Tamil Nadu E. None of these
150.The Ntangki National Park is located in which state? A. Sikkim B. Kohima C. Manipur D. Tripura E. Nagaland
151.My Talent mobile app has been launched by which Indian state to help skilled and semi-skilled workers in the state find jobs? A. Haryana B. Uttar Pradesh C. Himachal Pradesh D. Madhya Pradesh E. Bihar
152.The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) is a scientific institution based in India for expanding research in meteorology of the tropics in general with special reference to monsoon meteorology of India. Where is the headquarter of IITM? A. New Delhi B. Bangalore C. Hyderabad D. Pune E. None of the above
153.What is the full form of CVV? A. Call Verification Value B. Card Verification Value C. Credit Verification Value D. Card Validity Value E. None of the above 154.The minimum amount of a certificate of deposit can be A. Rs.1 lakh B. Rs.2 lakh C. Rs.3 lakh D. Rs.5 lakh E. Rs.10 lakh
155.Hojagiri dance is a folk dance performed in which of the following Indian states? A. Assam B. Meghalaya C. Bihar D. West Bengal E. Tripura