Series A

Medical Science

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

I N S T R U C T I O N S

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET SEAL UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

1. The OMR Sheet is separately supplied to you. Fill in all the entries in the OMR Sheet correctly, failing which your OMR Sheet shall not be evaluated. 2. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select ONLY ONE response which you consider the best and mark it on the OMR Sheet. 3. You must check the Question Booklet and ensure that it contains all the questions and see that no page is missing or repeated. Discrepancies, if any in the Question Booklet or in the OMR Sheet, you must be reported to the invigilator immediately and Question Booklet / OMR Sheet shall be replaced. 4. Encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the OMR Sheet. 5. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt ALL questions. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the OMR Sheet. 6. Rough work must not be done on the OMR Sheet. Use the blank space at the last page of the Question Booklet for rough work. 7. Once you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR Sheet and the exami- nation has concluded, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator. In no case you should leave the Examination Hall without returning the OMR Sheet. Candidates are allowed to take away their Question Booklets. The duplicate OMR Sheet may also be taken away by the candidates. 8. There is no penalty for wrong answers. 1. Cori's cycle transfers: 6. To calculate the proper power of the a. Glucose from muscles to liver intraocular lens, which measurement is most essential? b. Lactate from muscles to liver a. Preoperative refraction c. Lactate from liver to muscles b. Corneal thickness d. Pyruvate from liver to muscles c. Horizontal ‘white-to-white’ 2. The enzymes of urea synthesis are corneal measurement found in: d. Axial length a. Mitochondria only 7. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is seen b. Cytosol only in: c. Both mitochondria and cytosol a. Soft contact lens wearers d. Nucleus b. Ocular prosthesis 3. The presence of bilirubin in the urine c. Hard contact lens wearers without urobilinogen suggests: d. All of the above a. Obstructive jaundice 8. A 45-year old welder comes to the b. Hemolytic jaundice emergency directly from work and c. Pernicious anemia complains of bilateral pain and photophobia. The most likely cause is: d. Damage to the hepatic parenchyma a. Infrared burn to the eyes b. Acute photic keratitis 4. Ketone bodies are synthesized in: c. Ultraviolet absorption by lens a. Adipose tissue d. Retinal toxicity b. Liver c. Muscles 9. Elevated intraocular pressure may be associated with uveitis because of: d. Brain a. Trabeculitis 5. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a b. Iris stromal edema deficiency of: c. Keratic precipitates a. Vitamin B6 d. All of the above b. Folic acid 10. Which of the following is the c. Thiamin most common presentation of d. Vitamin B12 retinoblastoma? a. Pseudohypopyon

2 (Contd.) b. A red eye 16. Anti-LKM antibodies are found in: c. Leukokoria a. Inflammmatory Myopathies d. Neovascular glaucoma b. Behcet' Syndrome 11. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur in c. HCV Infection following sites except: d. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis a. Oesophageal opening 17. Fragile X syndrome is: b. Bochdalek triangle a. autosomal dominant c. Foramen of Morgagni b. autosomal recessive d. Inferior vena cava opening c. X linked dominant 12. Locking of knee joint is caused by: d. X linked recessive a. Quadriceps femoris 18. Which of the follwing is not an action b. Gastrocnemius of bradykinin? c. Popliteus a. Bronchodilation d. Rectus femoris b. Vasodilation 13. Common peroneal nerve can be rolled c. Pain against the: d. Increase in vascular permeability a. Neck of fibula b. Neck of tibia 19. M a r k e r f o r l a n g e r h a n ' s c e l l histiocytosis is: c. Lower end of fibula d. Lower end of tibia a. CD5 b. CD1a 14. All of the following nerves contribute c. CD22 to sensory supply of face except: d. CD30 a. Facial b. Maxillary 20. A person who is heterozygous for c. Mandibular sickle cell anaemia has increased resistance for: d. Ophthalmic a. Malaria 15. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is caused by b. Filariasis compression of which nerve: c. Dengue haemorrhagic fever a. Ulnar d. Thalassemia b. Radial c. Median d. Musculocutaneous

3 (Contd.) 21. A 26 years old woman has history 25. Which of the following is the most of 4 first trimester abortions. common type of anemia in Indian Hysterosalpingography shows a pregnant women ? thin uterine septum. Which of the a. Megaloblastic anemia following is the right management for her? b. Iron deficiency anemia a. No active intervention c. Sickle cell anemia b. Hysteroscopic resection d. Hemolytic anemia c. Strassmann operation 26. During a menstrual cycle, when does d. Tompkins operation Ovulation occur? a. Immediately after LH surge 22. Which of the following is the most common acquired heart disease lesion b. 12 hours after LH surge found in pregnancy ? c. 24 hours after LH surge a. Mitral stenosis d. 36 hours after LH surge b. Mitral regurgitation 27. Insulin requirements of pregnant c. Aortic stenosis diabetic women are greatest during: d. Aortic regurgitation a. The 1st half of pregnancy

nd 23. Which of the following Tocolytic b. The 2 half of pregnancy agent causes maternal respiratory c. During lactation depression? d. The immediate postpartum period a. Calcium channel blockers b. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors 28. Which of the following is the (indomethacin) Karyotype of complete mole? c. Magnesium sulphate a. 46, XX d. Isoxsuprine b. 46, XY c. 47, XXY 24. The most common cause of post d. 47, XYY partum hemorrhage is: a. Traumatic 29. Which of the following is the Obstetric b. Atonic uterus cause of DIC? c. Coagulopathy a. Diabetes mellitus d. Retained placenta b. Abruptio placentae c. Anemia d. Epilepsy

4 (Contd.) 30. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s There is slight bleeding per vaginum. characteristically associated with The plan of management will be: Oligohydroamnios ? a. Expectant line of treatment a. Rh isoimmunization b. Double setup examination b. Renal agenesis c. Gentle speculum examination to c. Diabetes mellitus exclude local causes d. Hypothyroidism d. Emergency caesarean section to avoid risk of hemmorhage 31. A 24 years old primipara suddenly develops dyspnoea, chest pain, 34. A 28 year old woman presented with cyanosis associated with a fall in blood infertility, hysterosalpingogram pressure, rapid pulse and restlessness showed beaded fallopian tubes with on 2nd postoperative day of caesarean clubbing of ampullary end. Which of section. The most probable diagnosis the following infection can produce is: this picture? a. Acute pulmonary atelectasis a. Gonococcal b. Pulmonary embolism b. Chlamydial c. Pneumonitis c. d. Myocardial infarction d. Streptococcal

32. A 35 years old infertile woman 35. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically undergoes laparoscopic evaluation. At starts with the onset of contraction, laparascopy, the uterus and tubes are peaks with the peak of contraction and normal. The peritoneum of the pelvis lasts till the contraction is over is and broad ligament are studded with called: small reddish-purple excrescences. a. Early declaration The diagnosis is: b. Late declaration a. Endometriosis c. Variable declaration b. d. Prolonged declaration c. Lymphoma d. Hemangioma. 36. As per WHO, Severe anemia is defined as Hb level less than: 33. A G2P1 gets admitted as emergency at a. 4gm/dl 34 weeks of gestation with painless bleeding per vaginum. She is b. 5gm/dl haemodynamically stable, the uterus c. 6gm/dl size corresponds to 34 weeks, is soft d. 7gm/dl and relaxed , FHS is 154/min, regular.

5 (Contd.) 37. The most frequent presentation in twin c. Asherman syndrome pregnancy: d. Sheehan syndrome a. Vertex and breech 42. Which of the following is the most b. Vertex and vertex common cause of first trimester c. Breech and breech abortion ? d. Breech and shoulder a. TORCH infection

38. Couvelaire uterus is seen in: b. APLA[Antiphospholipid antibodies] a. Vasa previa c. Chromosomal aberration b. Placenta accreta d. Diabetes mellitus c. Abruptio placentae d. Placenta previa 43. The most common indication for emergency hysterectomy for 39. Which of the following malformation postpartum hemorrhage is: in a newborn is specific for diabetic a. Placenta accrete mother ? b. Uterine rupture a. Tracheo-esophageal Fistula c. Uterine atony b. Caudal regression d. Extension of a low transverse c. Duodenal atresia incision d. Meningomyelocele 44. In which of the following Gynecological surgeries, Ureteric 40. The most frequent cause of acute pelvic injuries are most likely to occur? inflammatory disease is : a. Wertheim hysterectomy a. Staphylococcus b. Manchester operation b. Tubercular bacilli c. Vaginal hysterectomy c. Gonococcus d. Sacrospinous fixation of the vault d. 45. Which of the following is the most 41. A 25 years old women is having common type of carcinoma cervix? amenorrhoea since she underwent curettage for incomplete septic a. Squamous cell carcinoma abortion 6 months back. Urine for b. Adeno carcinoma pregnancy test is negative. Her c. Adeno squamous carcinoma possible diagnosis is: d. Clear cell carcinoma a. Tuberculosis b. Hypothyroidism

6 (Contd.) 46. Uterine artery is a branch of: d. Internal podalic version followed a. Common iliac arteries by breech extraction b. Internal iliac arteries 50. A 22 year old P1 visits her doctor 7 days c. External iliac arteries postpartum because she is concerned that she is still bleeding from the d. Abdominal aorta vagina. The doctor reassured her after examination that bloody lochia can last 47. In which of the following conditions, upto misoprostol is not to be used for Induction of labor ? a. One week a. Preeclampsia b. Two weeks b. Postmaturity c. Three weeks c. Previous caesarean section d. Four weeks

d. Intra uterine death. 51. V a c c i n e a s s o c i a t e d w i t h Intussusception is: 48. A primigravida had a forceps delivery and she gave birth to a 3.7 Kg baby. The a. Varicella Vaccine episiotomy tear was found to have b. Rota virus Vaccine extended through sphincter of the rectum but the rectal mucosa was c. Hepatitis A Vaccine intact. How would you classify this d. Oral Polio Vaccine extension of episiotomy? 52. Which of the following is stigmata of a. First degree tear Varicella-Zoster Virus fetopathy? b. Second degree tear a. Congenital heart disease c. Third degree tear b. Cicatricial skin lesions d. Fourth degree tear c. Hepatosplenomegaly 49. In a primigravida in labor at term with a d. Neural tube defects non-rotated vertex presentation at station +2, cord prolapse occurs with 53. In which of the following infections, the cervix fully dilated and the fetus face is spared ? alive. Treatment of choice is: a. Measles a. Ventouse assisted delivery b. Rickettsial disease b. Caesarean section c. c. Forceps delivery d. Infectious mononucleosis

7 (Contd.) 54. Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease is a. Ataxia telangiectasia caused by: b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome a. Coxsackie virus c. Severe Combined Immuno- b. Cytomegalovirus deficiency Syndrome c. Adeno virus d. Di-George syndrome d. Ebola virus. 59. Which of the following bacterial 55. Which of the following is an important infections produce most lethal extramedullary site of relapse in a 6 poisonous toxin? year old child suffering from Acute a. tetani Lymphoblastic Leukemia? b. Clostridium botulinum a. Testes c. Clostridium difficile b. Lungs d. Clostridium butyricum c. Liver 60. Most useful anti-bacterial in the d. Lymph node treatment of is 56. Commonest complication of mumps a. Clarithromycin is: b. Doxycycline a. Meningoencephalitis c. Third generation Cephalosporins b. Orchitis d. Gentamycin c. Arthritis 61. Hitselberger’s sign may be present in: d. Myocarditis a. Angiofibroma 57. A patient has anti-mongoloid slant, b. Otosclerosis low-set notched ears, hypoplasia of thymus, VSD, esophageal atresia and c. Acoustic Neuroma hypocalcaemic seizures. The diagnosis d. Meniere's Disease is: 62. Which antibiotic should be avoided in a. Down Syndrome infectious mononucleosis: b. Pierre Robin Syndrome a. Azithromycin c. Di George Syndrome b. Ampicillin d. Vater anomaly c. Ciprofloxacin 58. Which of the following immuno- d. Clindamycin deficiency syndromes is X-linked recessive ?

8 (Contd.) 63. Heimlich's maneuver may be needed c. Generally yields only estimate of in: relative risk a. Foreign body in larynx d. Not suitable when the disease b. Foreign body in right bronchus under investigation is rare c. Foreign body in oesophagus 68. Serial interval is a measure of: d. Foreign body in nose a. Gap between the onset of primary case and secondary cases 64. Fungal ball is most commonly seen in: b. Gap between minimum and a. Sphenoid sinus maximum incubation period b. Frontal sinus c. Difference between specificity and c. Ethmoid sinus sensitivity d. Maxillary sinus d. Secondary attack rate

65. Distance of posterior ethmoidal artery 69. All of the following are examples of from anterior lacrimal crest is: nominal scale except: a. 36 mm a. Age b. 45 mm b. Sex c. 18 mm c. Body weight d. 9 mm d. Socioeconomic status

66. Which of the following indicators is 70. Which out of the following is not alive not considered for Physical Quality of attenuated vaccine? Life Index? a. BCG a. Life expectancy at birth b. Oral polio b. Life expectancy at age one c. c. Infant mortality d. Measles d. Literacy 71. Specificity of a test is its ability to 67. Which of the following is not true for a identify correctly the: case control study? a. True positives a. Proceeds from effect to cause b. False positives b. Starts with the disease c. True negatives d. False negatives

9 (Contd.) 72. A child aged 12 months upto 5 years is 77. Which of the following is regarded as labeled as having fast breathing when the most sensitive index of recent the respiratory rate is: transmission o f m a l a r i a i n a a. 60 breaths per minute or more locality? b. 50 breaths per minute or more a. Spleen rate c. 45 breaths per minute or more b. Parasite rate d. 40 breaths per minute or more c. Infant parasite rate d. Proportional case rate 73. Percentage of individuals who show a positive reaction to standard tuberculin 78. Which out of the following pathogens test denotes: causes ? a. Prevalence of infection a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Prevalence of disease b. Treponema pallidum c. Incidence of infection c. Haemophilus ducreyi d. Incidence of new cases d. Candida albicans

74. Which out of the following is not a 79. For patients with tuberculosis, which bactericidal drug? of the following signs for case a. Rifampicin definition of AIDS surveillance is not considered as a minor sign? b. INH a. Persistent cough for more than one c. Ethambutol month d. Pyrazinamide b. Generalized 75. Indicator for prevalence of hepatitis c. Oropharyngeal candidiasis B virus is: d. Chronic progressive herpes a. HBs Ag simplex infection b. Anti HBs 80. For prevention of CHD, the c. HBc Ag consumption of saturated fats must be limited to: d. Anti HBc a. less than 10 per cent of the total 76. What is the concentration of sodium in energy intake reduced osmolarity ORS? b. less than 20 per cent of the total a. 10 mmol/litre energy intake b. 20 mmol/litre c. less than 30 per cent of the total c. 65 mmol/litre energy intake d. 75 mmol/litre

10 (Contd.) d. less than 40 per cent of the total b. 933 energy intake c. 934 81. Which of the following is associated d. 940 with Epstein-Barr virus? 86. Mala D contains: a. Hepatocellular carcinoma a. Levonorgestrel b. Burkitt's lymphoma b. Norethisterone acetate c. Kaposi's sarcoma c. Desogestrel d. Cancer cervix d. Lynestrenol 82. Height in centimetres minus 100 gives you: 87. Uterine fundus can be felt at the lower border of umbelicus at: a. Quetelet's index a. 12 weeks of pregnancy b. Ponderal index b. 20 weeks of pregnancy c. Brocca index c. 24 weeks of pregnancy d. Corpulence index d. 28 weeks of pregnancy 83. Which of the following would mean severe visual impairment? 88. Which of the following statements is not ,true about breast milk? a. Visual acuity worse than 6/18 a. Contains more cystine than cow's b. Visual acuity worse than 6/60 milk c. Visual acuity worse than 3/60 b. Contains more methionine than d. Visual acuity worse than 1/60 cow's milk c. Contains more linoleic acid than 84. Which of the following conditions in a cow's milk child calls for immediate tranfer to Special Newborn Care Unit? d. Contains more lactose than cow's milk a. Severe pallor b. Irritability 89. Which out of the following food items c. Weight less than 1800 g has a low glycaemic index? d. Central cyanosis a. Whole grains b. Corn flakes 85. What is the sex ratio in India as per c. Baked potato the 2011 Census? d. White bread a. 927

11 (Contd.) 90. Which out of the following has been c. Chemical treatment found to be a sensitive indicator of d. Disposal in secured landfill environmental iodine deficiency? a. Prevalence of cretinism 95. Which out of the following is not a measure of dispersion? b. Measurement of thyroid function a. Range c. Neonatal hypothyroidism b. Median d. Adult hypothyroidism c. Average deviation 91. Softening of water is recommended d. Standard deviation when the hardness exceeds: a. 50 mg per litre 96. Diatoms in bone-marrow are characteristic of death due to: b. 75 mg per litre a. Putrefaction c. 150 mg per litre b. Choking d. 300 mg per litre c. Strangulation 92. What is the maximum sound pressure d. Drowning limit people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing? 97. Jouleburns are seen in: a. 40 dB a. Lightening stroke b. 65 dB b. Electrocution c. 85 dB c. Flame burns d. 120 dB d. Blast injuries

93. Which of the following insecticides is 98. The common site of rupture of hymen not a synthetic pyrethroid? in a virgin is: a. Pyrethrum a. Anterior b. Resethrin b. Posterior c. Tetramethrin c. Postero-lateral d. Prothrin d. Antero-lateral

94. The recommended treatment option for 99. Time limit for exhumation in India is: black plastic bags meant for categories a. 1 year '5', '9' & '10' of bio-medical waste is: b. 10 Years a. Autoclaving c. 20Years b. Microwaving d. No limit

12 (Contd.) 100. “Lefacis sympathique” is seen in: b. Acute subdural haemorrhage a. Hanging c. Chronic subdural b. Strangulation haemorrhage c. Smothering d. Extradural haemorrhage d. Electrocution 106. A tingling or shock like sensation which radiates into the arms, down in 101. Spalding Sign is diagnostic of: the back when the patient flexes the a. Prematurity head is known as: b. Postmaturity a. Laseque's sign c. Foetal death b. Fabere sign d. Hydrocephalus c. Romberg's sign d. Barber chair sign 102. Burking is combination of smothering and: 107. Levodopa is most effective in a. Throttling relieving: b. Gagging a. Tremors c. Mugging b. Rigidity d. Traumatic asphyxia c. Hypokinesis d. All of the above 103. Whip lash injury is seen in: a. Brain 108. Tram line calcification is seen in: b. Spine a. Ependymoma c. Lungs b. Meningioma d. Heart c. Glioblatoma multiforme d. Struge Weber Syndrome 104. Counter-coup injury is seen in: a. Brain 109. All may produce neuropathy except: b. Stomach a. Chloroquine c. Spleen b. Pyrazinamide d. Heart c. Nitrofurantoin d. Emetine 105. Lucid interval is seen in: a. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

13 (Contd.) 110. Normal pressure hydrocephalous is 115. Lumbago Sciatica Syndrome results in characterized by all of the following numbness in the distribution of nerve except: root: a. Dementia a. L4 b. Seizures b. L5 c. Incontinence c. S1 d. Ataxic- apraxic gait d. S2

111. Ophthalmoplegia is a sign in all except: 116. Injury to ulnar nerve results in: a. Tangier's disease a. Wrist Drop b. Leigh Syndrome b. Inability to appose the thumb c. Ataxia telangiectasia c. Impaired adduction and abduction d. Xeroderma pigmentosum of the fingers d. Atrophy of muscles of the thinar 112. Wernicke's encephalopathy is due to eminence deficiency of: a. Thiamine 117. The term Pancake heart is used in reference to: b. Riboflavin a. ASD c. Niacin b. Mild Pulmonary Stenosis d. Biotin c. VSD 113. All of the following are autosornal d. Straight back syndrome dominant except: a. Wilson disease 118. Tumor plop sound is: b. Huntington's chorea a. Early systolic sound b. Early diastolic sound c. Acute Intermittent porphyria c. Mid diastolic sound d. Familial Alzheimer disease d. Late diastolic sound 114. Diabetic Pseudotabes is: 119. Is not a feature of Metabolic a. Distral Sensorimotor Syndrome: polynueropathy a. Fasting serum glucose >110 mg/dl b. Diabetic amytrophy b. Abdominal obesity c. Sensory Neuropathy c. Hypertension d. Autonomic Neuropathy d. Serum Low density Lipoprotein > 140 mg/dl

14 (Contd.) 120. Ewart's sign suggest the diagnosis of: c. Takayasa Aortitis a. Aortic aneurysm d. Cystic medial degeneration b. Constrictive effusive pericarditis 125. Characterstic pathophysiologic c. Pericardial Effusion abnormality in hypertrophic d. Plueral Effusion cardiomyopathy is:

121. Is not a component of Beck's Triad: a. Systolic dysfunction b. Diastolic dysfunction a. A decline in systolic arterial pressure c. Outflow tract gradient b. A rising venous pressure d. All of the above c. A quiet heart 126. Major cause of nonischaemic dilated d. Cardiomegaly as X ray chest cardiomyopathy is:

122. Most common major manifestation of a. Idiopathic acute Rheumatic Fever is: b. Alcohol

a. Carditis c. Cocaine abuse b. Arthritis d. Anthracycline toxicity c. Erythema marginatum 127. Commonest site of defect in ventricular d. Chorea septum is:

123. All of the following conditions are a. Membranous septum associated with normal ESR in b. The inlet septum rheumatic heart disease except: c. The trabecular septum a. Without Rheumatic activity d. The infundibular septum b. Chorea 128. MVP is associated most commonly c. CHF with: d. Anemia a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome 124. Most common cause of aneurysm of b. Osteogenesis imperfecta ascending aorta is: c. Rubella syndrome a. Atherosclerosis d. Noonan's syndrome b. Syphilis

15 (Contd.) 129. The following tending during exercise 134. Is not an opoid Receptor? test is associated with multivessel (or a. Mu left main) coronary disease except: b. Kappa a. Early onset of ST segment depression c. Delta b. Persistence of ST segment changes d. Gamma Late into the recovery phase 135. Kleptomania is: c. Sustained Ventricular tachycardia a. Delusion d. ST segment elevation in lead aVR b. Obsession 130. Munchausen syndrome is: c. Impulse a. Factitious disorder d. Hallucination b. Conversion 136. Drug of choice in OCD: c. Dissociation a. Fluoxetine d. Malingering b. Imipramine 131. Suicidal risk is seen in all except: c. Alprazolam a. Personality disorder d. Chlorpromazine b. Major depression 137. Is not a schizophrenia subtypes? c. Schizophrenia a. Catatonic d. Somatisation disorder b. Atonic 132. The most prevalent excitatory c. Paranoid transmitter in brain is: d. Residual a. GABA 138. Antimalarial that should not be pre- b. Glutamate scribed to patients of schizophrenia: c. Serotonin a. Quinine d. Dopamine b. Lumefantrine 133. Agoraphobea is: c. Mefloquine a. Anxiety disorder d. Primaquine b. Panic disorder 139. Treatment for vaginal warts is all, c. Obsessive – Compulsive disorder except: d. All of the above a. Podophyllin

16 (Contd.) b. Miconazole 145. Most common form of contact c. Imiquimod dermatitis is : d. Surgery a. Allergic contact dermatitis b. Irritant contact dermatitis 140. Bowen’s disease is caused by : c. Cumulative irritant dermatitis a. Cold d. Acute irritant dermatitis b. Lead c. Sulfonamide 146. Lepromin test is positive in: d. Arsenic a. Lepromatous b. Indeterminate leprosy 141. Vagabond’s disease is: c. a. Pediculosis corporis d. Histoid leprosy b. Scabies c. Eczema 147. Culture medium for M. tuberculosis is: d. Ringworm a. L J medium b. NIH medium 142. Chloroquine cause exacerbation of: c. LSS medium a. Malaria d. SDA medium b. Psoriasis c. DLE 148. Most common organism causing UTI is: d. Photosensitivity a. E.coli 143. Tuberculosis of skin is called as: b. Proteus a. c. Klebsiella b. Lupus perino d. Staphylococcus c. Lupus profundus 149. Which of the following bacteria act by d. increasing cAMP ? 144. All are antifibrotics except: a. Vibrio cholera a. Penicillamine b. Staphylococcus aureus b. Colchicine c. E.coli c. Nifedipine d. Salmonella d. Relaxin

17 (Contd.) 150. Neil-Mooser reaction is used to b. Enterobius diagnose: c. Echinococcus a. Rickettsia d. Ascaris b. Chlamydiae 156. Alkaline diuresis is done for treatment c. of poisoning due to : d. Legionella a. Morphine 151. Which of the following is transmitted b. Amphetamine by Rat urine? c. Phenobarbitone a. Listeria d. Atropine b. Leptospira 157. Which of the following drug is best for c. Legionella reducing protein urea in a diabetic d. Mycoplasma patient?

152. Which of the following viral infection a. Metoprolol is transmitted by tick? b. Perindopril a. Japanese encephalitis c. Chlorthiazide b. Dengue fever d. Clonidine c. Kyasanur Forest disease 158. All are used in the treatment of hot d. Yellow fever flushes except :

153. Hepatitis C virus is a: a. Tamoxifen a. Togavirus b. Vanlafaxine b. Flavivirus c. Gabapentin c. Filovirus d. Clonidine d. Retrovirus 159. Which among the following antiepileptic drugs does not produce 154. True yeast is: h e p a t i c m i c r o s o m a l e n z y m e a. Candida induction? b. Cryptococcus a. Phenobarbitone c. Trichosporon b. Carbamazepine d. Geotrichum c. Phenytoin d. Sodium valproate 155. Autoinfection is seen with: a. Ankylostoma

18 (Contd.) 160. Which of the following statement b. Ipratropium bromide about erythropoietin is false? c. Montelukast a. It is used for treatment of anemia d. Hydrocortisone due to chronic renal failure b. It results in decrease in reticulocyte 165. Which of the following drug is a long count acting beta-2 agonist? c. It decrease the requirement of a. Albuterol blood transfusion b. Salmeterol d. It can cause hypertension c. Pirbuterol 161. Drugs commonly used against enteric d. Orciprenalin fever are all except : 166. Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause a. Amikacin all of the following, except: b. Ciprofloxacin a. Incoordination c. Ceftriaxone b. Intention tremor d. Azithromycin c. Resting tremor 162. Drug of choice in a patient with severe d. Ataxia complicated falciparum malaria is : 167. Stability of alveoloi is maintained by: a. Chloroquine a. Compliance of the lungs b. Quinine b. Residual air in alveoli c. Artesunate c. Negative intrapleural pressure d. Artemether d. Reduce surface tension by 163. Which of the following proton pump surfactant inhibitor has enzyme inhibitory activity? 168. Memory cells do not undergo apoptosis a. Rabeprazole due to presence of which growth factor: b. Lansoprazole a. Platelet derived growth factor c. Pentoprazole b. Nerve growth factor d. Omeprazole c. Insulin like growth factor 164. The drug not used in acute asthma is : d. Fibroblast growth factor a. Salbutamol

19 (Contd.) 169. Transection at mid pons level results in: 174. Which of the following statements a. Asphyxia is/are true of the epidemiology and etiology of melanoma? b. Hyperventilation a. Most patients are diagnosed after c. Rapid and shallow breathing 60 years of age d. Apneusis b. Skin color has no association with risk of melanoma 170. In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance P: c. Sun exposure is the only risk factor for melanoma a. Plasma cell d. The per capita incidence of b. Mast cell melanoma is highest in Australia c. Nerve terminal 175. All of the following are true regarding d. Vascular endothelium appendicitis, except: 171. Cytotoxic T cells (CTL) are capable of a. McBurney's point lies one third of recognizing: the way along a line drawn from the a. Peptide antigens associated with umbilicus to the right anterior major histocompatibility complex superior iliac spine (MHC) molecules b. The presence of an appendix mass b. Membrane-bound antigens necessitates immediate surgical intervention c. Cytoplasmic antigens c. A normal white cell count excludes d. All of the above appendicitis 172. Treatment for bleeding duodenal d. Loss of appetite is a common diverticulum is: feature of acute appendicitis

a. Diverticulectomy 176. With respect to gallstones which b. Diverticulopexy statement is true ? c. Diverticulization a. Most people with gallstones are d. Subtotal diverticulectomy asymptomatic b. CT is the imaging modality of 173. Which of the following hormones choice in diagnosing gallstones are not released in duodenum? c. Approximately 90% of gallstones a. Gastrin are visible on plain abdominal x- b. Motilin ray c. Somatostatin d. Mirizzi's syndrome is caused by a stone in the common bile duct d. Pancreatic YY

20 (Contd.) 177. About peptic ulcer disease, which c. Free air under the right hemi- statement is true? diaphragm can be mistaken for gas a. A significant number of duodenal within the stomach ulcers are caused by Helicobacter d. A raised serum amylase is Pylori infection diagnostic of acute pancreatitis b. A raised serum creatinine is a sign 180. Which of the following statement is of a significant upper GI bleed true about testicular pain? c. Triple therapy for H. Pylori a. Testicular torsion can present with e r a d i c a t i o n i n v o l v e s t h e lower abdominal pain combination of an H2 receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor b. Testicular pain in children is and an antibiotic commonly due to epididymo- orchitis d. Following endoscopic therapy for a bleeding ulcer, a rebleed c. Torsion can be easily excluded on warrants immediate open surgical careful clinical examination alone intervention d. A varicocoele will readily transilluminate 178. True statement about inguinal hernia is: 181. Which of the following statement is a. A direct hernia passes through the true about colorectal cancer? deep inguinal ring into the inguinal a. Most tumours occur in the right canal side of the colon b. A femoral hernia is more common b. Neo-adjuvant radiotherapy has no than an inguinal hernia in females role in the management of rectal c. The inferior epigastric vessels lie tumours medial to the deep inguinal ring c. Left sided tumours are more likely d. The floor of the inguinal canal is to obstruct than right sided tumours formed by the conjoint tendon d. Colorectal cancer has been associated with a diet high in fibre 179. Which of the following statement is and low in saturated fat true about acute abdomen? a. Mesenteric adenitis is a common 182. Which of the following statement is cause of abdominal pain in true about obstructive jaundice? children a. Obstructive jaundice is suggested b. The absence of free air on an erect by raised AST and ALT chest x-ray excludes an intra- b. Malabsorption of vitamin D in abdominal perforation jaundiced patients can affect the synthesis of coagulation factors

21 (Contd.) c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio- injury do not include which of the pancreatography (ERCP) is of following? diagnostic and therapeutic value in a. Hypermetabolism jaundiced patients b. Fever d. Pale urine and dark stools are suggestive of obstructive jaundice c. Tachypnea d. Hyperphagia 183. Which of the following statement is true about thyroid disease ? 187. Which of the following condition is a. Anaplastic carcinoma generally associated with increased risk of breast has a poor prognosis cancer? b. Thyroid swelling characteristi- a. Fibrocystic mastopathy cally do not move on swallowing b. Severe hyperplasia c. Hypocalcaemia following a total c. Atypical hyperplasia thyroidectomy is rare d. Papillomatosis d. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the phrenic nerve 188. Which of the following breast lesion is noninvasive malignancy ? 184. Which of the following statement is a. Intra ductal carcinoma of the true about intestinal stomas? comedo type a. Ileostomies should have a spout b. Tubular carcinoma and mucinous b. A right sided stoma is invariably an carcinoma ileostomy c. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma and c. A Hartmann's procedure involves lobular carcinoma resection of a segment of colon and d. Medullary carcinoma, including formation of an ileostomy atypical medullary lesions d. A loop ileostomy is usually permanent 189. Which of the following statement about thyroid is true ? 185. In “catabolic” surgical patients, which a. Thyroid is located anteriorly in the of the following changes in body upper neck composition do not occur? b. Thyroid is located posteriorly in a. Lean body mass increases the upper neck b. Total body water increases c. Thyroid is located anteriorly in the c. Adipose tissue decreases lower neck d. Body weight decreases d. Thyroid is located posteriorly in the lower neck 186. The characteristic changes that follow a major operation or moderate to severe 22 (Contd.) 190. What is the vertical extension of the 195. Presence of Reed Stenberg cell is the thyroid in relation to the vertebrae ? characteristics of : a. C4 to T1 a. Non Hodgkin Lymphoma b. C5 to T1 b. Hodgkin's Lymphoma c. C6 to T1 c. Multiple myeloma d. C3 to T1 d. None of the above

191. Painful ulcers in tongue are except: 196. True about cervical rib except: a. Dental ulcers a. Commonly unilateral and in some b. Gummatous ulcers cases it is bilateral c. Aphthous ulcers b. It is more frequently encountered in the neck in right side d. Tubercular ulcers c. It is an extra rib present in the neck 192. Which of the following extra ocular in about 5-10% of cases muscles is not supplied by third cranial d. It is the anterior tubercle of the nerve? transverse process of the 7th a. Superior oblique cervical vertebra:

b. Inferior oblique 197. Which of the statement is false c. Superior rectus regarding spinal anaesthesia? d. Inferior rectus a. A small amount of local anaesthetic is used 193. Clubbing of fingers is the symptom of: b. All the nerves are blocked below a. Cardiovascular disease the level of anaesthesia b. Respiratory disease c. Can be done in thoracic region also c. Hematological disease d. Postural puncture headache d. Urinary tract disease possible

194. Most frequently fractured carpal bone 198. Which of the following statement is is : false about epidydimis? a. Lunate a. It is 6 meter in length b. Pisiform b. Has head body and tail c. Scaphoid c. It is lined by small columnar epithelium d. Hamate d. It is supplied by a branch of testicular artery

23 (Contd.) 199. Acid phosphatase is increased in the 200. True about male urethra except: following except: a. Male urethra is divided in to a. Carcinoma prostate anterior and posterior urethra b. Carcinoma of liver b. Average length of male urethra is c. Benign enlargement of prostate about 20 cms d. Acute prostatitis c. Narrowest part is external meatus d. It is supplied by external pudendal artery

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