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Spectrum Management and Telecommunications 17 December, 2019

Advanced Qualification Question Bank for Amateur Radio Operator Certificate Examinations Foreword: This question bank contains the questions that will be used effective the date printed on the title page, for making Advanced Qualification examinations for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. The correct choice of the four suggested answers appears in brackets following each question identifier. i.e. A-001-001-001 (D)

While every reasonable effort has been made to ensure accuracy in this document, no warranty is expressed or implied.

Candidates for amateur radio operator certificate examinations are encouraged to contact the following amateur radio organizations for information on study material.

Radio Amateurs of Canada 720 Belfast Road, Suite 217 Ottawa, Ontario K1G 0Z5 www.rac.ca

Radio Amateur du Québec inc. 4545 Pierre-de-Coubertin Avenue C.P. 1000, Succursale M Montréal, Quebec H1V 3R2 www.raqi.qc.ca

Instructions for examiners are contained in Radiocommunication Information Circular RIC-1, Guide for Examiners Accredited to Conduct Examinations for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate.

For additional information, please contact the Amateur Radio Service Centre:

Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada A-001-001-001 (A) A-001-001-006 (C) What is the meaning of the term "time After two time constants, the capacitor in an constant" in an RL circuit ? RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the A 95% maximum value B 36.8% B The time required for the current in the C 86.5% circuit to build up to 36.8% of the D 63.2% maximum value C The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the A-001-001-007 (A) maximum value After two time constants, the capacitor in an D The time required for the voltage in the RC circuit is discharged to what percentage circuit to build up to 36.8% of the of the starting voltage? maximum value A 13.5% B A-001-001-002 (B) 36.8% C 86.5% What is the term for the time required for D 63.2% the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A-001-001-008 (C) A One exponential period B One time constant What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100 microfarad capacitor in series with a C An exponential rate of one 470 kilohm resistor? D A time factor of one A 470 seconds B A-001-001-003 (D) 0.47 seconds C 47 seconds What is the term for the time required for D 4700 seconds the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A-001-001-009 (A) A An exponential period of one B A time factor of one What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470 microfarad capacitor in series with a C One exponential rate 470 kilohm resistor? D One time constant A 221 seconds B A-001-001-004 (D) 221 000 seconds C 47 000 seconds What is the term for the time it takes for a D 470 seconds charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? A-001-001-010 (A) A A discharge factor of one What is the time constant of a circuit having B An exponential discharge of one a 220 microfarad capacitor in series with a 470 kilohm resistor? C One discharge period D One time constant A 103 seconds B 470 000 seconds A-001-001-005 (D) C 470 seconds D 220 seconds What is meant by "back EMF"?

A A current that opposes the applied EMF B An opposing EMF equal to R times C percent of the applied EMF C A current equal to the applied EMF D A voltage that opposes the applied EMF A-001-002-001 (B) A-001-002-006 (C) What is the result of skin effect? What unit measures the ability of a capacitor to store electrical charge? A Thermal effects on the surface of the A Watt conductor decrease impedance B Volt B As frequency increases, RF current C flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, Farad closer to the surface D Coulomb C As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, A-001-002-007 (D) closer to the surface A wire has a current passing through it. D Thermal effects on the surface of the Surrounding this wire there is: conductor increase impedance A an electrostatic field A-001-002-002 (D) B a cloud of electrons What effect causes most of an RF current C a skin effect that diminishes with to flow along the surface of a conductor? distance D an electromagnetic field A Piezoelectric effect B Resonance effect A-001-002-008 (D) C Layer effect D Skin effect In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? A-001-002-003 (D) A In all directions Where does almost all RF current flow in a B In the same direction as the current conductor? C In the direct opposite to the current A In a magnetic field in the centre of the D In the direction determined by the left- conductor hand rule B In a magnetic field around the conductor C In the centre of the conductor A-001-002-009 (B) D Along the surface of the conductor What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A-001-002-004 (A) A Joule-coulombs Why does most of an RF current flow within B Potential energy a very thin layer under the conductor's C Kinetic energy surface? D Ampere-joules A Because of skin effect B Because the RF resistance of a A-001-002-010 (D) conductor is much less than the DC resistance Between the charged plates of a capacitor C Because a conductor has AC resistance there is: due to self-inductance A a magnetic field D Because of heating of the conductor's B a cloud of electrons interior C an electric current D an electrostatic field A-001-002-005 (A) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? A Because of skin effect B Because of the Hertzberg effect C Because conductors are non-linear devices D Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies A-001-002-011 (B) A-001-003-005 (C) Energy is stored within an inductor that is What is the resonant frequency of a series carrying a current. The amount of energy RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 depends on this current, but it also depends microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? on a property of the inductor. This property A has the following unit: 13.1 kHz B 14.5 kHz A watt C 14.5 MHz B henry D 13.1 MHz C coulomb D farad A-001-003-006 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series A-001-003-001 (C) RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 What is the resonant frequency of a series microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads? RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 A microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? 19.9 kHz B 17.8 kHz A 7.96 MHz C 17.8 MHz B 79.6 MHz D 19.9 MHz C 3.56 MHz D 1.78 MHz A-001-003-007 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series A-001-003-002 (B) RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 8 What is the resonant frequency of a series microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads? RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 40 A microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? 21.3 MHz B 28.4 MHz A 1.78 kHz C 2.84 MHz B 1.78 MHz D 2.13 MHz C 1.99 kHz D 1.99 MHz A-001-003-008 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series A-001-003-003 (D) RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 What is the resonant frequency of a series microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 A microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? 23.7 kHz B 23.7 MHz A 7.12 kHz C 35.4 MHz B 3.18 MHz D 35.4 kHz C 3.18 kHz D 7.12 MHz A-001-003-009 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series A-001-003-004 (D) RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 What is the resonant frequency of a series microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads? RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 A microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? 49.7 kHz B 28.1 kHz A 63.7 MHz C 28.1 MHz B 10.1 kHz D 49.7 MHz C 63.7 kHz D 10.1 MHz A-001-003-010 (C) A-001-004-004 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit, if R is 47 ohms, L is 1 RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 2 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads? microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads? A 17.7 MHz A 20.5 kHz B 1.77 MHz B 20.5 MHz C 53.1 MHz C 2.65 MHz D 5.31 MHz D 2.65 kHz

A-001-003-011 (C) A-001-004-005 (B) What is the value of capacitance (C) in a What is the resonant frequency of a parallel series R-L-C circuit, if the circuit resonant RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 15 frequency is 14.25 MHz and L is 2.84 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads? microhenrys? A 18.4 kHz A 44 microfarads B 18.4 MHz B 2.2 picofarads C 2.12 kHz C 44 picofarads D 2.12 MHz D 2.2 microfarads A-001-004-006 (A) A-001-004-001 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 3 RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 1 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? microhenry and C is 10 picofarads? A 14.5 MHz A 15.9 MHz B 1.33 kHz B 50.3 MHz C 1.33 MHz C 15.9 kHz D 14.5 kHz D 50.3 kHz A-001-004-007 (B) A-001-004-002 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 40 RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads? microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? A 10.3 kHz A 5.31 kHz B 10.3 MHz B 29.1 MHz C 6.63 MHz C 29.1 kHz D 6.63 kHz D 5.31 MHz A-001-004-008 (D) A-001-004-003 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 10 RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 5 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads? microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads? A 7.12 kHz A 23.7 MHz B 3.18 MHz B 23.7 kHz C 3.18 kHz C 3.54 MHz D 7.12 MHz D 3.54 kHz A-001-004-009 (A) A-001-005-003 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 200 is resonant at 4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? microhenrys and R is 180 ohms? A 3.56 MHz A 13.3 B 3.56 kHz B 0.136 C 7.96 MHz C 7.35 D 7.96 kHz D 0.00735

A-001-004-010 (C) A-001-005-004 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it RLC circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 90 is resonant at 14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads? microhenrys and R is 10 kilohms? A 1.77 MHz A 7.35 B 1.68 kHz B 0.0319 C 1.68 MHz C 71.5 D 1.77 kHz D 31.9

A-001-004-011 (A) A-001-005-005 (D) What is the value of inductance (L) in a What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it parallel RLC circuit, if the resonant is resonant at 7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 frequency is 14.25 MHz and C is 44 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm? picofarads? A 36.8 A 2.8 microhenrys B 0.368 B 253.8 millihenrys C 0.273 C 3.9 millihenrys D 2.73 D 0.353 microhenry A-001-005-006 (A) A-001-005-001 (A) What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it is resonant at 7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 is resonant at 14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 100 ohms? microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms? A 0.221 A 75.1 B 22.1 B 7.51 C 0.00452 C 0.013 D 4.52 D 71.5 A-001-005-007 (B) A-001-005-002 (D) What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it is resonant at 7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 is resonant at 14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms? microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms? A 25.6 A 13.3 B 39 B 0.023 C 22.1 C 4.31 D 0.0256 D 43.1 A-001-005-008 (C) A-002-001-002 (A) What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it In what application is gallium-arsenide used is resonant at 3.625 MHz, L is 3 as a semiconductor material in preference microhenrys and R is 2.2 kilohms? to germanium or silicon? A 31.1 A At microwave frequencies B 0.031 B In high-power circuits C 32.2 C At very low frequencies D 25.6 D In bipolar transistors

A-001-005-009 (D) A-002-001-003 (B) What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it What type of semiconductor material is resonant at 3.625 MHz, L is 42 contains fewer free electrons than pure microhenrys and R is 220 ohms? germanium or silicon crystals? A 2.3 A Superconductor type B 4.35 B P-type C 0.00435 C N-type D 0.23 D Bipolar type

A-001-005-010 (B) A-002-001-004 (C) What is the Q of a parallel RLC circuit, if it What type of semiconductor material is resonant at 3.625 MHz, L is 43 contains more free electrons than pure microhenrys and R is 1.8 kilohms? germanium or silicon crystals? A 23 A Bipolar B 1.84 B Superconductor C 0.543 C N-type D 54.3 D P-type

A-001-005-011 (D) A-002-001-005 (D) Why is a resistor often included in a parallel What are the majority charge carriers in P- resonant circuit ? type semiconductor material? A To increase the Q and decrease the skin A Free electrons effect B Free protons B To decrease the Q and increase the C Free neutrons resonant frequency D Holes C To increase the Q and decrease bandwidth A-002-001-006 (C) D To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidth What are the majority charge carriers in N- type semiconductor material? A-002-001-001 (D) A Free protons What two elements widely used in B Free neutrons semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic C Free electrons and non-metallic characteristics? D Holes A Galena and germanium B Galena and bismuth A-002-001-007 (B) C Silicon and gold Silicon, in its pure form, is: D Silicon and germanium A a conductor B an insulator C a superconductor D a semiconductor A-002-001-008 (B) A-002-002-002 (C) An element which is sometimes an What type of semiconductor diode varies its insulator and sometimes a conductor is internal capacitance as the voltage applied called a: to its terminals varies? A P-type conductor A Silicon-controlled rectifier B semiconductor B Hot-carrier (Schottky) C intrinsic conductor C Varactor D N-type conductor D Zener

A-002-001-009 (D) A-002-002-003 (D) Which of the following materials is used to What is a common use for the hot-carrier make a semiconductor? (Schottky) diode? A Tantalum A As balanced mixers in FM generation B Copper B As a variable capacitance in an C Sulphur automatic frequency control (AFC) circuit D Silicon C As a constant voltage reference in a power supply A-002-001-010 (D) D As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors Substances such as silicon in a pure state are usually good: A-002-002-004 (A) A conductors What limits the maximum forward current in B tuned circuits a junction diode? C inductors A Junction temperature D insulators B Forward voltage C Back EMF A-002-001-011 (B) D Peak inverse voltage A semiconductor is said to be doped when it has added to it small quantities of: A-002-002-005 (A) A electrons What are the major ratings for junction B impurities diodes? C protons A Maximum forward current and peak D ions inverse voltage (PIV) B Maximum reverse current and A-002-002-001 (D) capacitance What is the principal characteristic of a C Maximum forward current and Zener diode? capacitance D A Maximum reverse current and peak A constant current under conditions of inverse voltage (PIV) varying voltage B A negative resistance region A-002-002-006 (C) C An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? D A constant voltage under conditions of varying current A Electrolytic and point contact B Electrolytic and junction C Junction and point contact D Vacuum and point contact A-002-002-007 (D) A-002-003-001 (A) What is a common use for point contact What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor? diodes? A A As a constant current source The change of collector current with respect to emitter current B As a constant voltage source B The change of collector current with C As a high voltage rectifier respect to base current D As an RF detector C The change of base current with respect to collector current A-002-002-008 (A) D The change of collector current with What is one common use for PIN diodes? respect to gate current

A As an RF switch A-002-003-002 (A) B As a constant current source What is the beta of a bipolar transistor? C As a high voltage rectifier A D As a constant voltage source The change of collector current with respect to base current B The change of base current with respect A-002-002-009 (D) to emitter current A Zener diode is a device used to: C The change of collector current with respect to emitter current A dissipate voltage D The change of base current with respect B decrease current to gate current C increase current D regulate voltage A-002-003-003 (D) Which component conducts electricity from A-002-002-010 (D) a negative emitter to a positive collector when its base voltage is made positive? If a Zener diode rated at 10 V and 50 watts was operated at maximum dissipation A A varactor rating, it would conduct ____ amperes: B A triode vacuum tube A 50 C A PNP transistor B 0.05 D An NPN transistor C 0.5 D 5 A-002-003-004 (A) What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor in A-002-002-011 (B) common base configuration? The power-handling capability of most A Forward current gain Zener diodes is rated at 25 degrees C or B Forward voltage gain approximately room temperature. If the C Reverse current gain temperature is increased, the power D handling capability is: Reverse voltage gain A slightly greater A-002-003-005 (C) B less In a bipolar transistor, the change of C the same collector current with respect to base D much greater current is called: A delta B alpha C beta D gamma A-002-003-006 (D) A-002-004-001 (B) The alpha of a bipolar transistor is specified What is an enhancement-mode FET? for what configuration? A A Common collector An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate B Common gate B An FET without a channel; no current C Common emitter occurs with zero gate voltage D Common base C An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate A-002-003-007 (B) D An FET with a channel that allows The beta of a bipolar transistor is specified current when the gate voltage is zero for what configurations? A-002-004-002 (D) A Common base or common emitter What is a depletion-mode FET? B Common emitter or common collector C Common emitter or common gate A An FET without a channel; no current D Common base or common collector flows with zero gate voltage B An FET without a channel to hinder A-002-003-008 (B) current through the gate Which component conducts electricity from C An FET that has a channel that blocks a positive emitter to a negative collector current when the gate voltage is zero when its base is made negative? D An FET that has a channel with no gate A voltage applied; a current flows with zero An NPN transistor gate voltage B A PNP transistor C A triode vacuum tube A-002-004-003 (D) D A varactor Why do many MOSFET devices have built- in gate protective Zener diodes? A-002-003-009 (A) A The gate-protective Zener diode keeps Alpha of a bipolar transistor is equal to: the gate voltage within specifications to prevent the device from overheating A beta / (1 + beta) B The gate-protective Zener diode protects B beta x (1 + beta) the substrate from excessive voltages C beta x (1 - beta) C The gate-protective Zener diode D beta / (1 - beta) provides a voltage reference to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage A-002-003-010 (B) D The gate-protective Zener diode The current gain of a bipolar transistor in prevents the gate insulation from being common emitter or common collector punctured by small static charges or compared to common base configuration excessive voltages is: A usually about half A-002-004-004 (B) B high to very high Why are special precautions necessary in C very low handling FET and CMOS devices? D usually about double A They have fragile leads that may break off A-002-003-011 (C) B They are susceptible to damage from static charges Beta of a bipolar transistor is equal to: C They are light-sensitive D A alpha x (1 - alpha) They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to B alpha x (1 + alpha) breakage C alpha / (1 - alpha) D alpha / (1 + alpha) A-002-004-005 (C) A-002-004-010 (D) How does the input impedance of a field- Hole conduction in a p-channel depletion effect transistor (FET) compare with that of type MOSFET is associated with: a bipolar transistor? A n-channel enhancement A An FET has low input impedance; a B q-channel depletion bipolar transistor has high input C impedance n-channel depletion D p-channel depletion B The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same C An FET has high input impedance; a A-002-004-011 (B) bipolar transistor has low input Hole conduction in a p-channel impedance enhancement type MOSFET is associated D One cannot compare input impedance with: without knowing supply voltage A q-channel depletion B A-002-004-006 (B) p-channel enhancement C n-channel depletion What are the three terminals of a junction D n-channel enhancement field-effect transistor (JFET)? A Gate 1, gate 2, drain A-002-005-001 (A) B Gate, drain, source What are the three terminals of a silicon C Emitter, base 1, base 2 controlled rectifier (SCR)? D Emitter, base, collector A Anode, cathode and gate B A-002-004-007 (A) Gate, base 1 and base 2 C Base, collector and emitter What are the two basic types of junction D Gate, source and sink field-effect transistors (JFET)? A N-channel and P-channel A-002-005-002 (B) B High power and low power What are the two stable operating C MOSFET and GaAsFET conditions of a silicon controlled rectifier D Silicon and germanium (SCR)? A Oscillating and quiescent A-002-004-008 (B) B Conducting and non-conducting Electron conduction in an n-channel C Forward conducting and reverse depletion type MOSFET is associated with: conducting A q-channel enhancement D NPN conduction and PNP conduction B n-channel depletion C p-channel depletion A-002-005-003 (A) D p-channel enhancement When a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is triggered, to what other semiconductor A-002-004-009 (A) diode are its electrical characteristics similar (as measured between its cathode Electron conduction in an n-channel and anode)? enhancement MOSFET is associated with: A The junction diode A n-channel enhancement B The PIN diode B q-channel depletion C The hot-carrier (Schottky) diode C p-channel enhancement D The varactor diode D p-channel depletion A-002-005-004 (C) A-002-005-009 (C) Under what operating condition does a Which of the following devices has anode, silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) exhibit cathode, and gate? electrical characteristics similar to a A forward-biased silicon rectifier? The field effect transistor B The triode vacuum tube A When it is used as a detector C The silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) B During a switching transition D The bipolar transistor C When it is gated "on" D When it is gated "off" A-002-005-010 (B) When it is gated "on", the silicon controlled A-002-005-005 (A) rectifier (SCR) exhibits electrical The silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is what characteristics similar to a: type of device? A reverse-biased hot-carrier (Schottky) A PNPN diode B NPPN B forward-biased silicon rectifier C PNNP C reverse-biased silicon rectifier D PPNN D forward-biased PIN diode

A-002-005-006 (D) A-002-005-011 (A) The control element in the silicon controlled Which of the following is a PNPN device? rectifier (SCR) is called the: A A anode Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) B B cathode PIN diode C C emitter Hot carrier (Schottky) diode D D gate Zener diode

A-002-005-007 (C) A-002-006-001 (C) The silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a For what portion of a signal cycle does a member of which family? Class A amplifier operate? A A Varactors More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees B Varistors B Less than 180 degrees C Thyristors C The entire cycle D Phase locked loops D Exactly 180 degrees

A-002-005-008 (A) A-002-006-002 (B) In amateur radio equipment, which is the major application for the silicon controlled Which class of amplifier has the highest rectifier (SCR)? linearity and least distortion? A A Power supply overvoltage "crowbar" Class C circuit B Class A B Class C amplifier circuit C Class AB C Microphone preamplifier circuit D Class B D SWR detector circuit A-002-006-003 (D) For what portion of a cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate? A Exactly 180 degrees B The entire cycle C Less than 180 degrees D More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees A-002-006-004 (D) A-002-006-009 (B) For what portion of a cycle does a Class B Which class of amplifier has the poorest amplifier operate? linearity and the most distortion? A Less than 180 degrees A Class B B More than 180 degrees but less than B Class C 360 degrees C Class AB C The entire cycle D Class A D 180 degrees A-002-006-010 (D) A-002-006-005 (C) Which class of amplifier operates over the For what portion of a signal cycle does a full cycle? Class C amplifier operate? A Class AB A The entire cycle B Class B B 180 degrees C Class C C Less than 180 degrees D Class A D More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees A-002-006-011 (A)

A-002-006-006 (D) Which class of amplifier operates over less than 180 degrees of the cycle? Which of the following classes of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A Class C B Class AB A Class A C Class A B Class AB D Class B C Class B D Class C A-002-007-001 (D)

A-002-006-007 (A) What determines the input impedance of a FET common-source amplifier? Which of the following classes of amplifier would provide the highest efficiency in the A The input impedance is essentially output stage of a CW, RTTY or FM determined by the resistance between transmitter? the source and substrate B The input impedance is essentially A Class C determined by the resistance between B Class AB the source and the drain C Class B C The input impedance is essentially D Class A determined by the resistance between the drain and substrate A-002-006-008 (C) D The input impedance is essentially determined by the gate biasing network Which class of amplifier provides the least efficiency? A-002-007-002 (A) A Class B What determines the output impedance of B Class AB a FET common-source amplifier? C Class A A The output impedance is essentially D Class C determined by the drain resistor B The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain supply voltage C The output impedance is essentially determined by the gate supply voltage D The output impedance is essentially determined by the input impedance of the FET A-002-007-003 (B) A-002-007-008 (B) What are the advantages of a Darlington The FET amplifier source follower circuit is pair audio amplifier? another name for: A Low output impedance, high mutual A common gate circuit impedance and low output current B common drain circuit B High gain, high input impedance and low C common source circuit output impedance D common mode circuit C Mutual gain, high stability and low mutual inductance A-002-007-009 (A) D Mutual gain, low input impedance and low output impedance The FET amplifier common source circuit is similar to which of the following bipolar A-002-007-004 (B) transistor amplifier circuits? In the common base amplifier, when the A Common emitter input and output signals are compared: B Common collector A the signals are 180 degrees out of C Common base phase D Common mode B the signals are in phase C the output signal lags the input signal by A-002-007-010 (C) 90 degrees The FET amplifier common drain circuit is D the output signals leads the input signal similar to which of the following bipolar by 90 degrees transistor amplifier circuits? A Common base A-002-007-005 (A) B Common mode In the common base amplifier, the input C Common collector impedance, when compared to the output D impedance is: Common emitter A very low A-002-007-011 (B) B only slightly higher The FET amplifier common gate circuit is C only slightly lower similar to which of the following bipolar D very high transistor amplifier circuits? A Common emitter A-002-007-006 (D) B Common base In the common emitter amplifier, when the C Common mode input and output signals are compared: D Common collector A the output signal leads the input signal by 90 degrees A-002-008-001 (C) B the output signal lags the input signal by 90 degrees What is an operational amplifier (op-amp)? C the signals are in phase A An amplifier used to increase the D the signals are 180 degrees out of average output of frequency modulated phase amateur signals to the legal limit B A program subroutine that calculates the A-002-007-007 (C) gain of an RF amplifier In the common collector amplifier, when the C A high-gain, direct-coupled differential input and output signals are compared: amplifier whose characteristics are A the output signal lags the input signal by determined by components mounted 90 degrees externally D A high-gain, direct-coupled audio B the signals are 180 degrees out of amplifier whose characteristics are phase determined by internal components of C the signals are in phase the device D the output signal leads the input signal by 90 degrees A-002-008-002 (B) A-002-008-006 (A) What would be the characteristics of the What is the output impedance of a ideal op-amp? theoretically ideal op-amp? A Zero input impedance, infinite output A Very low impedance, infinite gain, and flat B Very high frequency response C Exactly 100 ohms B Infinite input impedance, zero output D Exactly 1000 ohms impedance, infinite gain, and flat frequency response C Zero input impedance, zero output A-002-008-007 (B) impedance, infinite gain, and flat What are the advantages of using an op- frequency response amp instead of LC elements in an audio D Infinite input impedance, infinite output filter? impedance, infinite gain and flat A frequency response Op-amps are fixed at one frequency B Op-amps exhibit gain rather than A-002-008-003 (D) insertion loss C Op-amps are more rugged and can What determines the gain of a closed-loop withstand more abuse than can LC op-amp circuit? elements A The PNP collector load D Op-amps are available in more styles B The voltage applied to the circuit and types than are LC elements C The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage A-002-008-008 (C) D The external feedback network What are the principal uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur circuitry? A-002-008-004 (C) A Op-amp circuits are used as filters for What is meant by the term op-amp offset smoothing power supply output voltage? B Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to block RFI at the input of A The potential between the amplifier input receivers terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop C condition Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for receivers B The output voltage of the op-amp minus D Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass its input voltage filters at the output of transmitters C The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in a closed-loop A-002-008-009 (D) condition D The difference between the output What is an inverting op-amp circuit? voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required for the next stage A An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output A-002-008-005 (B) signals are in phase B An operational amplifier circuit What is the input impedance of a connected such that the input and output theoretically ideal op-amp? signals are 90 degrees out of phase A Exactly 1000 ohms C An operational amplifier circuit B Very high connected such that the input C Very low impedance is held to zero, while the output impedance is high D Exactly 100 ohms D An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase A-002-008-010 (D) A-002-009-003 (B) What is a non-inverting op-amp circuit? What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? A An operational amplifier circuit A Mixer blanking occurs connected such that the input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase B Spurious signals are generated C B An operational amplifier circuit Automatic limiting occurs connected such that the input D A beat frequency is generated impedance is held low, and the output impedance is high A-002-009-004 (A) C An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output In a frequency multiplier circuit, the input signals are 180 degrees out of phase signal is coupled to the base of a transistor through a capacitor. A radio frequency D An operational amplifier circuit choke is connected between the base of connected such that the input and output the transistor and ground. The capacitor is: signals are in phase A a DC blocking capacitor A-002-008-011 (A) B part of the input tuned circuit What term is most appropriate for a high C a by-pass for the circuit gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier D part of the output tank circuit whose characteristics are determined by components mounted externally? A-002-009-005 (D) A Operational amplifier A frequency multiplier circuit must be B Difference amplifier operated in: C High gain audio amplifier A class AB D Summing amplifier B class B C class A A-002-009-001 (C) D class C What is the mixing process? A-002-009-006 (D) A The recovery of intelligence from a modulated signal In a frequency multiplier circuit, an inductance (L1) and a variable capacitor B The elimination of noise in a wideband (C2) are connected in series between receiver by phase comparison VCC+ and ground. The collector of a C The combination of two signals to transistor is connected to a tap on L1. The produce sum and difference frequencies purpose of the variable capacitor is to: D The elimination of noise in a wideband A receiver by phase differentiation by-pass RF B tune L1 to the frequency applied to the A-002-009-002 (A) base C provide positive feedback What are the principal frequencies that D tune L1 to the desired harmonic appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies B 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequencies C The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies D Two and four times the original frequency A-002-009-007 (C) A-002-009-011 (C) In a frequency multiplier circuit, an What stage in a transmitter would change a inductance (L1) and a variable capacitor 5.3-MHz input signal to 14.3 MHz? (C2) are connected in series between A VCC+ and ground. The collector of a A frequency multiplier transistor is connected to a tap on L1. A B A beat frequency oscillator fixed capacitor (C3) is connected between C A mixer the VCC+ side of L1 and ground. The D A linear translator purpose of C3 is to:

A resonate with L1 A-002-010-001 (D) B by-pass any audio components What is a NAND gate? C provide an RF ground at the VCC connection point of L1 A A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its D form a pi filter with L1 and C2 output only when all inputs are logic "1" B A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its A-002-009-008 (D) output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" In a frequency multiplier circuit, an inductance (L1) and a variable capacitor C A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its (C2) are connected in series between output only when all inputs are logic "0" VCC+ and ground. The collector of a D A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its transistor is connected to a tap on L1. C2 in output only when all inputs are logic "1" conjunction with L1 operate as a: A frequency divider A-002-010-002 (B) B voltage divider What is an OR gate? C voltage doubler A D frequency multiplier A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is logic "1" B A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its A-002-009-009 (A) output if any input is logic "1" In a circuit where the components are C A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its tuned to resonate at a higher frequency output if all inputs are logic "1" than applied, the circuit is most likely a: D A circuit that produces logic "1" at its A a frequency multiplier output if all inputs are logic "0" B a VHF/UHF amplifier A-002-010-003 (C) C a linear amplifier D a frequency divider What is a NOR gate?

A A-002-009-010 (A) A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" In a frequency multiplier circuit, an B A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its inductance (L1) and a variable capacitor output if some but not all of its inputs are (C2) are connected in series between logic "1" VCC+ and ground. The collector of a C transistor is connected to a tap on L1. A A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its fixed capacitor (C3) is connected between output if any or all inputs are logic "1" the VCC+ side of L1 and ground. C3 is a: D A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0" A RF by-pass capacitor B DC blocking capacitor C tuning capacitor D coupling capacitor A-002-010-004 (B) A-002-010-008 (B) What is a NOT gate (also known as an What is a flip-flop circuit? INVERTER)? A A A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its A binary sequential logic element with output when the input is logic "1" one stable state B B A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its A binary sequential logic element with output when the input is logic "1" two stable states C C A circuit that does not allow data A binary sequential logic element with transmission when its input is high eight stable states D D A circuit that allows data transmission A binary sequential logic element with only when its input is high four stable states

A-002-010-009 A-002-010-005 (C) (C) What is an EXCLUSIVE OR gate? What is a bistable multivibrator? A A A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its An AND gate output when all of the inputs are logic "1" B A clock B A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its C A flip-flop output when all of the inputs are logic "0" D An OR gate C A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output when only one of the inputs is A-002-010-010 (C) logic "1" D A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its What type of digital logic is also known as a output when only one of the inputs is latch? logic "1" A An OR gate B An op-amp A-002-010-006 (C) C A flip-flop What is an EXCLUSIVE NOR gate? D A decade counter

A A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its A-002-010-011 (C) output when only one of the inputs are logic "1" In a multivibrator circuit, when one B A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its transistor conducts, the other is: output when all of the inputs are logic "1" A reverse-biased C A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its B forward-biased output when all of the inputs are logic "1" C cut off D A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its D saturated output when only one of the inputs is logic "0" A-002-011-001 (B) A-002-010-007 (B) What is a crystal lattice filter? What is an AND gate? A A power supply filter made with A A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its interlaced quartz crystals output if all inputs are logic "0" B A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep B A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its skirts made using quartz crystals output only if all its inputs are logic "1" C A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow C A circuit that produces a logic "1" at the skirts made using quartz crystals output if at least one input is a logic "0" D An audio filter made with four quartz D A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals output only if one of its inputs is logic "1" A-002-011-002 (A) A-002-011-007 (B) What factor determines the bandwidth and Electrically, what does a crystal look like? response shape of a crystal lattice filter? A A The relative frequencies of the individual A variable tuned circuit crystals B A very high Q tuned circuit B The centre frequency chosen for the C A very low Q tuned circuit filter D A variable capacitance C The gain of the RF stage following the filter A-002-011-008 (A) D The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter Crystals are sometimes used in a circuit which has an output close to an integral multiple of the crystal frequency. This circuit A-002-011-003 (B) is called: For single-sideband phone emissions, what A an overtone oscillator would be the bandwidth of a good crystal B lattice filter? a crystal multiplier C a crystal lattice A 6 kHz D a crystal ladder B 2.4 kHz C 15 kHz A-002-011-009 (A) D 500 Hz Which of the following properties does not apply to a crystal when used in an oscillator A-002-011-004 (A) circuit? The main advantage of a crystal oscillator A High power output over a tuned LC oscillator is: B Good frequency stability A much greater frequency stability C Very low noise because of high Q B longer life under severe operating use D Good frequency accuracy C freedom from harmonic emissions D simplicity A-002-011-010 (B) Crystal oscillators, filters and microphones A-002-011-005 (A) depend upon which principle? A quartz crystal filter is superior to an LC A Overtone effect filter for narrow bandpass applications B because of the: Piezoelectric effect C Hertzberg effect A crystal's high Q D Ferro-resonance B crystal's low Q C LC circuit's high Q A-002-011-011 (B) D crystal's simplicity Crystals are not applicable to which of the following? A-002-011-006 (A) A Oscillators Piezoelectricity is generated by: B Active filters A deforming certain crystals C Microphones D B touching crystals with magnets Lattice filters C adding impurities to a crystal D moving a magnet near a crystal A-002-012-001 (D) What are the three general groupings of filters? A Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce B Audio, radio and capacitive C Inductive, capacitive and resistive D High-pass, low-pass and band-pass A-002-012-002 (B) A-002-012-007 (D) What are the distinguishing features of a A device which helps with receiver overload Butterworth filter? and spurious responses at VHF, UHF and above may be installed in the receiver front A It only requires capacitors end. It is called a: B It has a maximally flat response over its A pass-band diplexer C The product of its series and shunt- B directional coupler element impedances is a constant for all C duplexer frequencies D helical resonator D It only requires conductors A-002-012-008 (A) A-002-012-003 (D) Where you require bandwidth at VHF and Which filter type is described as having higher frequencies about equal to a ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? television channel, a good choice of filter is the: A An active LC filter A B A passive op-amp filter none of the other answers C A Butterworth filter B resonant cavity D A Chebyshev filter C Butterworth D Chebyshev A-002-012-004 (A) A-002-012-009 (A) What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? What is the primary advantage of the Butterworth filter over the Chebyshev filter? A It allows ripple in the passband in return for steeper skirts A It has maximally flat response over its B It requires only inductors passband C It requires only capacitors B It allows ripple in the passband in return for steeper skirts D It has a maximally flat response in the passband C It requires only inductors D It requires only capacitors A-002-012-005 (C) Resonant cavities are used by amateurs as A-002-012-010 (C) a: What is the primary advantage of the A low-pass filter below 30 MHz Chebyshev filter over the Butterworth filter? B high-pass filter above 30 MHz A It requires only inductors C narrow bandpass filter at VHF and B It has maximally flat response over the higher frequencies passband D power line filter C It allows ripple in the passband in return for steeper skirts A-002-012-006 (B) D It requires only capacitors On VHF and above, 1/4 wavelength coaxial cavities are used to give protection from A-002-012-011 (B) high-level signals. For a frequency of Which of the following filter types is not approximately 50 MHz, the diameter of suitable for use at audio and low radio such a device would be about 10 cm (4 in). frequencies? What would be its approximate length? A Butterworth A 3.7 metres (12 ft) B Cavity B 1.5 metres (5 ft) C Elliptical C 0.6 metres (2 ft) D Chebyshev D 2.4 metres (8 ft) A-003-001-001 (A) A-003-001-006 (A) What is the easiest amplitude dimension to The effective value of a sine wave of measure by viewing a pure sine wave on an voltage or current is: oscilloscope? A 70.7% of the maximum value A Peak-to-peak voltage B 50% of the maximum value B Peak voltage C 100% of the maximum value C RMS voltage D 63.6% of the maximum value D Average voltage A-003-001-007 (B) A-003-001-002 (C) AC voltmeter scales are usually calibrated What is the RMS value of a 340 volt peak- to read: to-peak pure sine wave? A average voltage A 240 volts B RMS voltage B 300 volts C peak voltage C 120 volts D instantaneous voltage D 170 volts A-003-001-008 (C) A-003-001-003 (B) An AC voltmeter is calibrated to read the: What is the equivalent to the RMS value of an AC voltage? A average value A The AC voltage found by taking the B peak value square root of the average AC value C effective value B The AC voltage causing the same D peak-to-peak value heating of a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value A-003-001-009 (D) C The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the peak AC voltage Which AC voltage value will produce the D The DC voltage causing the same same amount of heat as a DC voltage, heating of a given resistor as the peak when applied to the same resistance? AC voltage A The average value B The peak value A-003-001-004 (D) C The peak-to-peak value If the peak value of a 100 Hz sinusoidal D The RMS value waveform is 20 volts, the RMS value is: A 28.28 volts A-003-001-010 (B) B 7.07 volts What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine C 16.38 volts wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 D 14.14 volts volts? A 204.8 volts A-003-001-005 (D) B 339.5 volts In applying Ohm's law to AC circuits, C 84.8 volts current and voltage values are: D 169.7 volts A average values B average values times 1.414 A-003-001-011 (B) C none of the proposed answers A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent D peak values times 0.707 to how many volts RMS? A 8.5 volts B 12 volts C 24 volts D 34 volts A-003-002-001 (C) A-003-002-006 (A) The power supplied to the antenna What is the output PEP from a transmitter if transmission line by a transmitter during an an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak- RF cycle at the highest crest of the to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load modulation envelope is known as: connected to the transmitter output? A carrier power A 100 watts B full power B 400 watts C peak-envelope power C 1000 watts D mean power D 200 watts

A-003-002-002 (A) A-003-002-007 (C) To compute one of the following, multiply What is the output PEP from a transmitter if the peak-envelope voltage by 0.707 to an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak- obtain the RMS value, square the result to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load and divide by the load resistance. Which is connected to the transmitter output? the correct answer? A 2500 watts A PEP B 500 watts B PIV C 625 watts C ERP D 1250 watts D power factor A-003-002-008 (C) A-003-002-003 (D) What is the output PEP of an unmodulated Peak-Envelope Power (PEP) for SSB carrier transmitter if a wattmeter connected transmission is: to the transmitter output indicates an average reading of 1060 watts? A peak-voltage multiplied by peak current A B equal to the RMS power 1500 watts C a hypothetical measurement B 530 watts D Peak-Envelope Voltage (PEV) multiplied C 1060 watts by 0.707, squared and divided by the D 2120 watts load resistance A-003-002-009 (D) A-003-002-004 (D) What is the output PEP from a transmitter, The formula to be used to calculate the if an oscilloscope measures 400 volts peak- power output of a transmitter into a resistor to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load load using a voltmeter is: connected to the transmitter output? A P = EI/R A 200 watts B P = EI cos 0 B 600 watts C P = IR C 1000 watts D P = (E exponent 2) /R D 400 watts

A-003-002-005 (A) A-003-002-010 (B) How is the output Peak-Envelope Power of What is the output PEP from a transmitter, a transmitter calculated if an oscilloscope is if an oscilloscope measures 800 volts peak- used to measure the Peak-Envelope to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load Voltage across a dummy resistive load connected to the transmitter output? (where PEP = Peak-Envelope Power, PEV = Peak-Envelope Voltage, Vp = peak- A 3200 watts voltage, RL = load resistance)? B 1600 watts A PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL C 800 watts D B PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL) 6400 watts C PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL) D PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL A-003-002-011 (C) A-003-003-005 (D) An oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak- A dip meter may not be used directly to: to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output during A align transmitter-tuned circuits unmodulated carrier conditions. What B determine the frequency of oscillations would an average-reading power meter indicate under the same transmitter C align receiver-tuned circuits conditions? D measure the value of capacitance or inductance A 884 watts B 442 watts A-003-003-006 (A) C 625 watts D The dial calibration on the output attenuator 427.5 watts of a signal generator: A reads accurately only when the A-003-003-001 (B) attenuator is properly terminated What is a dip meter? B always reads the true output of the signal generator A A field-strength meter C reads twice the true output when the B A variable frequency oscillator with attenuator is properly terminated metered feedback current D reads half the true output when the C An SWR meter attenuator is properly terminated D A marker generator A-003-003-007 (A) A-003-003-002 (C) What is a signal generator? What does a dip meter do? A A high-stability oscillator which can A It measures field strength accurately produce a wide range of frequencies and amplitudes B It measures frequency accurately B A low-stability oscillator which sweeps C It gives an indication of the resonant through a range of frequencies frequency of a circuit C A low-stability oscillator used to inject a D It measures transmitter output power signal into a circuit under test accurately D A high-stability oscillator which generates reference signals at exact A-003-003-003 (B) frequency intervals What two ways could a dip meter be used in an amateur station? A-003-003-008 (D) A To measure resonant frequency of A dip meter: antenna traps and percentage modulation A should be tightly coupled to the circuit B To measure resonant frequencies of under test antenna traps and to measure a tuned B may be used only with series tuned circuit resonant frequency circuits C To measure antenna resonance and C accurately measures frequencies impedance D should be loosely coupled to the circuit D To measure antenna resonance and under test percentage modulation

A-003-003-004 (A) A dip meter supplies the radio frequency energy which enables you to check: A the resonant frequency of a circuit B the calibration of an absorption-type wavemeter C the impedance mismatch in a circuit D the adjustment of an inductor A-003-003-009 (C) A-003-004-003 (C) Which two instruments are needed to How can the accuracy of a frequency measure FM receiver sensitivity for a 12 dB counter be improved? SINAD ratio (signal + noise + distortion over A noise + distortion)? By using faster digital logic B By improving the accuracy of the A Oscilloscope and spectrum analyzer frequency response B Receiver noise bridge and total C By increasing the accuracy of the time harmonic distortion analyser base C Calibrated RF signal generator with FM D By using slower digital logic tone modulation and total harmonic distortion (THD) analyzer A-003-004-004 (D) D RF signal generator with FM tone modulation and a deviation meter If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 PPM (parts per million) A-003-003-010 (A) reads 146 520 000 Hz, what is the most that the actual frequency being measured The dip meter is most directly applicable to: could differ from that reading? A A parallel tuned circuits 0.1 MHz B B operational amplifier circuits 1.4652 Hz C C digital logic circuits 1.4652 kHz D D series tuned circuits 14.652 Hz

A-003-003-011 (A) A-003-004-005 (A) Which of the following is not a factor If a frequency counter, with a time base affecting the frequency accuracy of a dip accuracy of 10 PPM (parts per million) meter? reads 146 520 000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could A Transmitter power output differ from that reading? B Hand capacity A 1465.2 Hz C Stray capacity B 146.52 Hz D Over coupling C 146.52 kHz D 1465.2 kHz A-003-004-001 (C) What does a frequency counter do? A-003-004-006 (B)

A The clock in a frequency counter normally It generates broad-band white noise for uses a: calibration A B It produces a reference frequency free-running multivibrator C It makes frequency measurements B crystal oscillator D It measures frequency deviation C self-oscillating Hartley oscillator D mechanical tuning fork A-003-004-002 (C) A-003-004-007 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency The frequency accuracy of a frequency counter? counter is determined by: A Number of digits in the readout, speed of A the number of digits displayed the logic, and time base stability B the characteristics of the internal time- B Number of digits in the readout, external base generator frequency reference and temperature C the size of the frequency counter coefficient of the logic D type of display used in the counter C Time base accuracy, speed of the logic, and time base stability D Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability A-003-004-008 (D) A-003-005-001 (C) Which device relies on a stable low- If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal frequency oscillator, with harmonic output, input of an oscilloscope and a 150 Hz to facilitate the frequency calibration of signal is fed to the vertical input, what type receiver dial settings? of pattern should be displayed on the screen? A Signal generator A B Harmonic calibrator An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high C Frequency counter B D Frequency-marker generator A looping pattern with 100 horizontal loops and 150 vertical loops C A looping pattern with 3 horizontal loops, A-003-004-009 (C) and 2 vertical loops What is the traditional way of verifying the D A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and accuracy of a crystal calibrator? 150 mm high A Use a dip-meter to determine the oscillator's fundamental frequency A-003-005-002 (C) B Compare the oscillator with your receiver What factors limit the accuracy, frequency C Zero-beat the crystal oscillator against a response and stability of an oscilloscope? standard frequency station such as A Accuracy and linearity of the time base WWV and tube face voltage increments D Compare the oscillator with your B Tube face voltage increments and transmitter deflection amplifier voltages C Accuracy of the time base and the A-003-004-010 (C) linearity and bandwidth of the deflection Out of the following oscillators, one is NOT, amplifiers by itself, considered a high-stability D Deflection amplifier output impedance reference: and tube face frequency increments A oven-controlled crystal oscillator (OCXO) A-003-005-003 (B) B GPS disciplined oscillator (GPSDO) How can the frequency response of an C voltage-controlled crystal oscillator oscilloscope be improved? (VCXO) A By using triggered sweep and a crystal D temperature compensated crystal oscillator for the timebase oscillator (TCXO) B By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency A-003-004-011 (A) response You want to calibrate your station frequency C By using a crystal oscillator as the time reference to the WWV signal on your base and increasing the vertical sweep receiver. The resulting beat tone must be: rate D A By increasing the vertical sweep rate of a frequency as low as possible and and the horizontal amplifier frequency with a period as long as possible response B a combined frequency above both C the mathematical mean of both A-003-005-004 (B) frequencies You can use an oscilloscope to display the D at the highest audio frequency possible input and output of a circuit at the same time by: A measuring the input on the Y axis and the output on the X axis B utilizing a dual trace oscilloscope C measuring the input on the X axis and the output on the Y axis D measuring the input on the X axis and the output on the Z axis A-003-005-005 (C) A-003-005-010 (B) An oscilloscope cannot be used to: What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW or single- A measure DC voltage sideband phone transmitter? B determine the amplitude of complex A A field-strength meter voltage wave forms B An oscilloscope C determine FM carrier deviation directly C A sidetone monitor D measure frequency D A signal tracer and an audio amplifier

A-003-005-006 (A) A-003-005-011 (D) The bandwidth of an oscilloscope is: What is the best signal source to connect to the vertical input of an oscilloscope for A the highest frequency signal the scope checking the quality of a transmitted signal? can display A The RF signals of a nearby receiving B directly related to gain compression antenna C indirectly related to screen persistence B The IF output of a monitoring receiver D a function of the time-base accuracy C The audio input of the transmitter D The RF output of the transmitter through A-003-005-007 (D) a sampling device When using Lissajous figures to determine phase differences, an indication of zero or A-003-006-001 (D) 180 degrees is represented on the screen of an oscilloscope by: A meter has a full-scale deflection of 40 microamperes and an internal resistance of A a horizontal straight line 96 ohms. You want it to read 0 to 1 mA. B an ellipse The value of the shunt to be used is: C a circle A 24 ohms D a diagonal straight line B 16 ohms C 40 ohms A-003-005-008 (B) D 4 ohms A 100-kHz signal is applied to the horizontal channel of an oscilloscope. A signal of A-003-006-002 (C) unknown frequency is applied to the vertical channel. The resultant wave form has 5 A moving-coil milliammeter having a full- loops displayed vertically and 2 loops scale deflection of 1 mA and an internal horizontally. The unknown frequency is: resistance of 0.5 ohms is to be converted to a voltmeter of 20 volts full-scale deflection. A 30 kHz It would be necessary to insert a: B 40 kHz A shunt resistance of 19 999.5 ohms C 20 kHz B shunt resistance of 19.5 ohms D 50 kHz C series resistance of 19 999.5 ohms D series resistance of 1 999.5 ohms A-003-005-009 (B) An oscilloscope probe must be A-003-006-003 (A) compensated: A voltmeter having a range of 150 volts and A when measuring a signal whose an internal resistance of 150 000 ohms is to frequency varies be extended to read 750 volts. The required B every time the probe is usde with a multiplier resistor would have a value of: different oscilloscope A 600 000 ohms C when measuring a sine wave B 1 500 ohms D through the addition of a high-value C 750 000 ohms series resistor D 1 200 000 ohms A-003-006-004 (B) A-003-006-009 (A) The sensitivity of an ammeter is an How can the range of an ammeter be expression of: increased? A the value of the shunt resistor A By adding resistance in parallel with the B the amount of current causing full-scale meter deflection B By adding resistance in series with the C the resistance of the meter circuit under test D the loading effect the meter will have on C By adding resistance in parallel with the a circuit circuit under test D By adding resistance in series with the A-003-006-005 (D) meter Voltmeter sensitivity is usually expressed in A-003-006-010 (A) ohms per volt. This means that a voltmeter with a sensitivity of 20 kilohms per volt Where should an RF wattmeter be would be a: connected for the most accurate readings of transmitter output power? A 1 milliampere meter B 50 milliampere meter A At the transmitter output connector C 100 milliampere meter B One-half wavelength from the D 50 microampere meter transmitter output C One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point A-003-006-006 (A) D At the antenna feed point The sensitivity of a voltmeter, whose resistance is 150 000 ohms on the 150-volt A-003-006-011 (C) range, is: At what line impedance do most RF A 1000 ohms per volt wattmeters usually operate? B 100 000 ohms per volt A 100 ohms C 10 000 ohms per volt B D 150 ohms per volt 300 ohms C 50 ohms D A-003-006-007 (C) 25 ohms The range of a DC ammeter can easily be A-004-001-001 (B) extended by: For the same transformer secondary A changing the internal inductance of the voltage, which rectifier has the highest meter average output voltage? B changing the internal capacitance of the meter to resonance A Full-wave centre-tap C connecting an external resistance in B Bridge parallel with the internal resistance C Half-wave D connecting an external resistance in D Quarter-wave series with the internal resistance A-004-001-002 (D) A-003-006-008 (D) In a half-wave power supply with a What happens inside a multimeter when capacitor input filter and a load drawing little you switch it from a lower to a higher or no current, the peak inverse voltage voltage range? (PIV) across the diode can reach _____ A Resistance is reduced in series with the times the RMS voltage. meter A 0.45 B Resistance is reduced in parallel with the B 5.6 meter C 1.4 C Resistance is added in parallel with the D 2.8 meter D Resistance is added in series with the meter A-004-001-003 (D) A-004-001-008 (C) In a full-wave centre-tap power supply, Full-wave voltage doublers: regardless of load conditions, the peak inverse voltage (PIV) will be _____ times A use less power than half-wave doublers the RMS voltage: B are used only in high-frequency power A 0.636 supplies B 0.707 C use both halves of an AC wave C 1.4 D create four times the output voltage of D 2.8 half-wave doublers

A-004-001-009 (C) A-004-001-004 (A) What are the two major ratings that must A full-wave bridge rectifier circuit makes not be exceeded for silicon-diode rectifiers use of both halves of the AC cycle, but used in power-supply circuits? unlike the full-wave centre-tap rectifier circuit it does not require: A Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage A a centre-tapped secondary on the B Peak load impedance; peak voltage transformer C Peak inverse voltage; average forward B any output filtering current D C a centre-tapped primary on the Average power; average voltage transformer D diodes across each leg of the A-004-001-010 (A) transformer In a high voltage power supply, why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel A-004-001-005 (D) with the power-supply rectifier diodes? For a given transformer the maximum A To equalize voltage drops and guard output voltage available from a full-wave against transient voltage spikes bridge rectifier circuit will be: B To smooth the output waveform A half that of the full-wave centre-tap C To decrease the output voltage rectifier D To ensure that the current through each B the same as the full-wave centre-tap diode is about the same rectifier C the same as the half-wave rectifier A-004-001-011 (C) D double that of the full-wave centre-tap What is the output waveform of an rectifier unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? A-004-001-006 (C) A A sine wave at half the frequency of the The ripple frequency produced by a full- AC input wave power supply connected to a normal B A series of pulses at the same frequency household circuit is: as the AC input A 90 Hz C A series of pulses at twice the frequency B 30 Hz of the AC input C 120 Hz D A steady DC voltage D 60 Hz A-004-002-001 (A) A-004-001-007 (D) Filter chokes are rated according to: The ripple frequency produced by a half- wave power supply connected to a normal A inductance and current-handling household circuit is: capacity B reactance at 1000 Hz A 90 Hz C power loss B 120 Hz D breakdown voltage C 30 Hz D 60 Hz A-004-002-002 (B) A-004-002-007 (A) Which of the following circuits gives the In a power supply, series chokes will: best regulation, under similar load conditions? A readily pass the DC but will impede the A A full-wave rectifier with a capacitor input flow of the AC component filter B readily pass the DC and the AC B A full-wave rectifier with a choke input component filter C impede the passage of DC but will pass C A half-wave bridge rectifier with a the AC component capacitor input filter D impede both DC and AC D A half-wave rectifier with a choke input filter A-004-002-008 (D) When using a choke input filter, a minimum A-004-002-003 (B) current should be drawn all the time when The advantage of the capacitor input filter the device is switched on. This can be over the choke input filter is: accomplished by: A lower peak rectifier currents A utilizing a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit B a higher terminal voltage output B placing an ammeter in the output circuit C better filtering action or smaller ripple C increasing the value of the output voltage capacitor D improved voltage regulation D including a suitable bleeder resistance

A-004-002-004 (B) A-004-002-009 (C) With a normal load, the choke input filter In the design of a power supply, the will give the: designer must be careful of resonance effects because the ripple voltage could A highest output voltage build up to a high value. The components B best regulated output that must be carefully selected are: C greatest percentage of ripple A first capacitor and second capacitor D greatest ripple frequency B first choke and second capacitor C first choke and first capacitor A-004-002-005 (C) D the bleeder resistor and the first choke There are two types of filters in general use in a power supply. They are called: A-004-002-010 (D) A choke input and capacitor output Excessive rectifier peak current and B choke output and capacitor input abnormally high peak inverse voltages can C choke input and capacitor input be caused in a power supply by the filter forming a: D choke output and capacitor output A short circuit across the bleeder A-004-002-006 (C) B parallel resonant circuit with the first choke and second capacitor The main function of the bleeder resistor in C tuned inductance in the filter choke a power supply is to provide a discharge path for the capacitor in the power supply. D series resonant circuit with the first But it may also be used for a secondary choke and first capacitor function, which is to: A inhibit the flow of current through the supply B act as a secondary smoothing device in conjunction with the filter C improve voltage regulation D provide a ground return for the transformer A-004-002-011 (A) A-004-003-004 (B) In a properly designed choke input filter What type of linear regulator is used in power supply, the no-load voltage across applications requiring efficient utilization of the filter capacitor will be about nine-tenths the primary power source? of the AC RMS voltage; yet it is advisable to A use capacitors rated at the peak A shunt current source transformer voltage. Why is this large B A series regulator safety margin suggested? C A shunt regulator A Under no-load conditions and a burned- D A constant current source out bleeder, voltages could reach the peak transformer voltage A-004-003-005 (C) B Resonance can be set up in the filter What type of linear voltage regulator is producing high voltages used in applications requiring a constant C Under heavy load, high currents and load on the unregulated voltage source? voltages are produced A D Under no-load conditions, the current A shunt current source could reach a high level B A series regulator C A shunt regulator A-004-003-001 (A) D A constant current source What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator? A-004-003-006 (C) A The conduction of a control element is How is remote sensing accomplished in a varied in direct proportion to the line linear voltage regulator? voltage or load current A A load connection is made outside the B It has a ramp voltage at its output feedback loop C A pass transistor switches from its "on" B By wireless inductive loops state to its "off" state C A feedback connection to an error D The control device is switched on or off, amplifier is made directly to the load with the duty cycle proportional to the D An error amplifier compares the input line or load conditions voltage to the reference voltage

A-004-003-002 (C) A-004-003-007 (A) What is one characteristic of a switching What is a three-terminal regulator? voltage regulator? A It provides more than one output voltage A A regulator containing a voltage B It gives a ramp voltage at its output reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass C The control device is switched on and element off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions B A regulator that supplies three voltages D The conduction of a control element is at a constant current varied in direct proportion to the line C A regulator containing three error voltage or load current amplifiers and sensing transistors D A regulator that supplies three voltages A-004-003-003 (B) with variable current What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A A junction diode B A Zener diode C An SCR D A varactor diode A-004-003-008 (D) A-004-004-001 (A) In addition to an input voltage range what In a series-regulated power supply, the are the important characteristics of a three- power dissipation of the pass transistor is: terminal regulator? A directly proportional to the load current A Maximum output voltage and minimum and the input/output voltage differential output current B the inverse of the load current and the B Minimum output voltage and maximum input/output voltage differential output current C dependent upon the peak inverse C Output voltage and minimum output voltage appearing across the Zener current diode D Output voltage and maximum output D indirectly proportional to the load voltage current and the input/output voltage differential

A-004-003-009 (B) A-004-004-002 (A) What type of voltage regulator contains a In any regulated power supply, the output is voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing cleanest and the regulation is best: resistors and transistors, and a pass A element in one package? at the point where the sampling network or error amplifier is connected A A Zener regulator B across the secondary of the pass B A three-terminal regulator transistor C An op-amp regulator C across the load D A switching regulator D at the output of the pass transistor

A-004-003-010 (C) A-004-004-003 (B) When extremely low ripple is required, or When discussing a power supply when the voltage supplied to the load must the______resistance is equal to the remain constant under conditions of large output voltage divided by the total current fluctuations of current and line voltage, a drawn, including the current drawn by the closed-loop amplifier is used to regulate the bleeder resistor: power supply. There are two main A categories of electronic regulators. They differential are: B load C A linear and non-linear ideal D rectifier B stiff and switching C linear and switching A-004-004-004 (A) D non-linear and switching The regulation of long-term changes in the A-004-003-011 (A) load resistance of a power supply is called: A A modern type of regulator, which features static regulation a reference, high-gain amplifier, B active regulation temperature-compensated voltage sensing C analog regulation resistors and transistors as well as a pass D dynamic regulation element is commonly referred to as a:

A three-terminal regulator A-004-004-005 (A) B nine-pin terminal regulator The regulation of short-term changes in the C twenty-four pin terminal load resistance of a power supply is called: D regulator six-terminal regulator A dynamic regulation B static regulation C analog regulation D active regulation A-004-004-006 (D) A-004-004-011 (A) The dynamic regulation of a power supply In a regulated power supply, a diode is improved by increasing the value of: connected across the input and output terminals of a regulator is used to: A the choke A B the input capacitor protect the regulator from reverse voltages C the bleeder resistor B D the output capacitor provide an RF by-pass for the voltage control C provide additional capacity A-004-004-007 (C) D protect the regulator from voltage The output capacitor, in a power supply fluctuations in the primary of the filter used to provide power for an SSB or transformer CW transmitter, will give better dynamic regulation if: A-005-001-001 (C) A a battery is placed in series with the How is the positive feedback coupled to the output capacitor input in a Hartley oscillator? B it is placed in series with other A Through link coupling capacitors B C the output capacitance is increased Through a neutralizing capacitor C D the negative terminal of the electrolytic Through a tapped coil capacitor is connected to the positive D Through a capacitive divider and the positive terminal to ground A-005-001-002 (D) A-004-004-008 (D) How is positive feedback coupled to the In a regulated power supply, four diodes input in a Colpitts oscillator? connected together in a BRIDGE act as: A Through a tapped coil A equalization across the transformer B Through a neutralizing capacitor B matching between the secondary of the C Through a link coupling power transformer and the filter D Through a capacitive divider C a tuning network D a rectifier A-005-001-003 (B) How is positive feedback coupled to the A-004-004-009 (C) input in a Pierce oscillator? In a regulated power supply, components A that conduct alternating current at the input Through a tapped coil before the transformer and direct current B Through capacitive coupling before the output are: C Through a neutralizing capacitor A diodes D Through link coupling B chokes C fuses A-005-001-004 (C) D capacitors Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? A-004-004-010 (B) A The frequency is a linear function with In a regulated power supply, the output of load impedance the electrolytic filter capacitor is connected B It has high output power to the: C It is stable A matching circuit for the load D It can be used with or without crystal lock-in B voltage regulator C pi filter D solid-state by-pass circuit A-005-001-005 (A) A-005-001-010 (D) Why must a very stable reference oscillator An apparatus with an oscillator and a class be used as part of a phase-locked loop C amplifier would be: (PLL) frequency synthesizer? A a fixed-frequency single-sideband A Any phase variations in the reference transmitter oscillator signal will produce phase noise B a two-stage frequency-modulated in the synthesizer output transmitter B Any phase variations in the reference C a two-stage regenerative receiver oscillator signal will produce harmonic D a two-stage CW transmitter distortion in the modulating signal C Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop A-005-001-011 (B) from changing frequency In an oscillator where positive feedback is D Any amplitude variations in the reference provided through a capacitor in series with oscillator signal will prevent the loop a crystal, that type of oscillator is a: from locking to the desired signal A Franklin B A-005-001-006 (C) Pierce C Colpitts Positive feedback from a capacitive divider D Hartley indicates the oscillator type is: A Hartley A-005-002-001 (A) B Miller The output tuning controls on a transmitter C Colpitts power amplifier with an adjustable PI D Pierce network: A allow efficient transfer of power to the A-005-001-007 (A) antenna In an RF oscillator circuit designed for high B allow switching to different antennas stability, the positive feedback is drawn C reduce the possibility of cross- from two capacitors connected in series. modulation in adjunct receivers These two capacitors would most likely be: D are involved with frequency A silver mica multiplication in the previous stage B ceramic C electrolytics A-005-002-002 (A) D Mylar The purpose of using a centre-tap return connection on the secondary of transmitting tube's filament transformer is to: A-005-001-008 (D) A In an oscillator circuit where positive prevent modulation of the emitted wave feedback is obtained through a single by the alternating current filament supply capacitor in series with the crystal, the type B reduce the possibility of harmonic of oscillator is: emissions C A Colpitts keep the output voltage constant with a varying load B Hartley D obtain optimum power output C Miller D Pierce A-005-002-003 (C)

A-005-001-009 (A) In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode vacuum tube, the input signal is applied to: A circuit depending on positive feedback for A its operation would be a: the control grid B the filament leads A variable-frequency oscillator C the cathode B mixer D the plate C detector D audio amplifier A-005-002-004 (A) A-005-002-009 (C) In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode vacuum tube, the plate is connected to the vacuum tube, each side of the filament is pi-network through a: connected to a capacitor whose other end is connected to ground. These are: A blocking capacitor A B by-pass capacitor electrolytic capacitors C tuning capacitor B blocking capacitors D electrolytic capacitor C by-pass capacitors D tuning capacitors A-005-002-005 (B) A-005-002-010 (D) In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode vacuum tube, the plate is connected to a After you have opened a VHF power radio frequency choke. The other end of the amplifier to make internal tuning radio frequency choke connects to the: adjustments, what should you do before you turn the amplifier on? A B- (bias) A B B+ (high voltage) Make sure that the power interlock C switch is bypassed so you can test the filament voltage amplifier D ground B Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause any interference A-005-002-006 (A) C Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode maximum cooling vacuum tube, the cathode is connected to a D Be certain all amplifier shielding is radio frequency choke. The other end of the fastened in place radio frequency choke connects to the: A B- (bias) A-005-002-011 (C) B ground Harmonics produced in an early stage of a C filament voltage transmitter may be reduced in a later stage by: D B+ (high voltage) A greater input to the final stage A-005-002-007 (D) B transistors instead of tubes C In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode tuned circuit coupling between stages vacuum tube, the secondary winding of a D larger value coupling capacitors transformer is connected directly to the vacuum tube. This transformer provides: A-005-003-001 (A) A B- (bias) In a simple 2 stage CW transmitter circuit, B B+ (high voltage) the oscillator stage and the class C C Screen voltage amplifier stage are inductively coupled by a RF transformer. Another role of the RF D filament voltage transformer is to: A A-005-002-008 (C) be part of a tuned circuit B act as part of a pi filter In a grounded grid amplifier using a triode C vacuum tube, what would be the provide the necessary feedback for approximate B+ voltage required for an oscillation output of 400 watts at 400 mA with D act as part of a balanced mixer approximately 50 percent efficiency? A 3000 volts B 1000 volts C 2000 volts D 500 volts A-005-003-002 (D) A-005-003-007 (D) In a simple 2 stage CW transmitter, current What is the reason for neutralizing the final to the collector of the transistor in the class amplifier stage of a transmitter? C amplifier stage flows through a radio A frequency choke (RFC) and a tapped To limit the modulation index inductor. The RFC, on the tapped inductor B To cut off the final amplifier during side, is also connected to grounded standby periods capacitors. The purpose of the RFC and C To keep the carrier on frequency capacitors is to: D To eliminate parasitic oscillations A provide negative feedback B form a key-click filter A-005-003-008 (A) C form a RF-tuned circuit Parasitic oscillations are usually generated D form a low-pass filter due to: A accidental resonant frequencies in the A-005-003-003 (D) power amplifier In a simple 2 stage CW transmitter, the B harmonics from some earlier multiplier transistor in the second stage would act as: stage C A a frequency multiplier excessive drive or excitation to the power amplifier B the master oscillator D a mismatch between power amplifier C an audio oscillator and transmission line D a power amplifier A-005-003-009 (A) A-005-003-004 (D) Parasitic oscillations would tend to occur An advantage of keying the buffer stage in mostly in: a transmitter is that: A RF power output stages A key clicks are eliminated B high gain audio output stages B the radiated bandwidth is restricted C high voltage rectifiers C high RF voltages are not present D mixer stages D changes in oscillator frequency are less likely A-005-003-010 (A)

A-005-003-005 (B) Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers? As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading A on its grid current meter indicates the best To cancel oscillation caused by the neutralization? effects of interelectrode capacitance B To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage A A maximum change in grid current as C the output circuit is changed To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer B A minimum change in grid current as the D To reduce the limits of loaded Q output circuit is changed C Minimum grid current A-005-003-011 (C) D Maximum grid current Parasitic oscillations in an RF power A-005-003-006 (C) amplifier may be caused by: A What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF poor voltage regulation amplifier? B excessive harmonic production C A It reduces incidental grid modulation lack of neutralization D overdriven stages B It controls differential gain C It cancels the effects of positive feedback D It eliminates AC hum from the power supply A-005-004-001 (D) A-005-004-006 (D) What type of signal does a balanced What kind of input signal is used to test the modulator produce? amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output A FM with balanced deviation on an oscilloscope? B Full carrier A An audio-frequency sine wave C Single sideband, suppressed carrier B An audio-frequency square wave D Double sideband, suppressed carrier C Normal speech D Two audio-frequency sine waves A-005-004-002 (A) How can a single-sideband phone signal be A-005-004-007 (A) produced? When testing the amplitude linearity of a A By using a balanced modulator followed single-sideband transmitter what audio by a filter tones are fed into the microphone input and B By driving a product detector with a DSB on what kind of kind of instrument is the signal output observed? C By using a loop modulator followed by a A Two non-harmonically related tones are mixer fed in, and the output is observed on an D By using a reactance modulator followed oscilloscope by a mixer B Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on an A-005-004-003 (A) oscilloscope Carrier suppression in a single-sideband C Two harmonically related tones are fed transmitter takes place in: in, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer A the balanced modulator stage D Two non-harmonically related tones are B the carrier decouple stage fed in, and the output is observed on a C the mechanical filter distortion analyzer D the frequency multiplier stage A-005-004-008 (A) A-005-004-004 (B) What audio frequencies are used in a two- Transmission with SSB, as compared to tone test of the linearity of a single- conventional AM transmission, results in: sideband phone transmitter? A A 3 dB gain in the transmitter Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio B 6 dB gain in the transmitter and 3 dB passband, and should not be gain in the receiver harmonically related C 6 dB gain in the receiver B 20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used D a greater bandpass requirement in the C 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be receiver used D Any two audio tones may be used, but A-005-004-005 (A) they must be within the transmitter audio The peak power output of a single- passband, and must be harmonically sideband transmitter, when being tested by related a two-tone generator is: A-005-004-009 (D) A twice the RF power output of any of the tones What measurement can be made of a B equal to the RF peak output power of single-sideband phone transmitter's any of the tones amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an oscilloscope? C one-half of the RF peak output power of any of the tones A Its frequency deviation D one-quarter of the RF peak output power B Its percent of carrier phase shift of any of the tones C Its percent of frequency modulation D Its linearity A-005-004-010 (B) A-005-005-004 (C) How much is the carrier suppressed below What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone peak output power in a single-sideband transmitter having a maximum frequency phone transmission? swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of A At least 60 dB 3.5 kHz? B At least 40 dB A 47 C No more than 20 dB B 0.214 D No more than 30 dB C 2.14 D 0.47 A-005-004-011 (A) What is meant by "flat topping" in a single- A-005-005-005 (B) sideband phone transmission? When the transmitter is not modulated, or A Signal distortion caused by excessive the amplitude of the modulating signal is drive zero, the frequency of the carrier is called B Signal distortion caused by insufficient its: collector current A modulating frequency C The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted B centre frequency D The transmitter's carrier is properly C frequency deviation suppressed D frequency shift

A-005-005-001 (B) A-005-005-006 (D) In an FM phone signal having a maximum In an FM transmitter system, the amount of frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side deviation from the centre frequency is of the carrier frequency, what is the determined solely by the: modulation index, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A frequency of the modulating frequency B amplitude and the frequency of the A 1000 modulating frequency B 3 C modulating frequency and the amplitude C 0.3 of the centre frequency D 3000 D amplitude of the modulating frequency

A-005-005-002 (A) A-005-005-007 (A) What is the modulation index of an FM Any FM wave with single-tone modulation phone transmitter producing an has: instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating A an infinite number of sideband frequency? frequencies B two sideband frequencies A 3 C four sideband frequencies B 0.333 D one sideband frequency C 2000 D 6000 A-005-005-008 (D)

A-005-005-003 (C) Some types of deviation meters work on the principle of: What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone transmitter having a maximum frequency A detecting the frequencies in the swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting sidebands a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? B the amplitude of power in the sidebands A 0.16 C a carrier peak and dividing by the modulation index B 0.6 D a carrier null and multiplying the C 1.66 modulation frequency by the modulation D 60 index A-005-005-009 (C) A-005-006-002 (A) When using some deviation meters, it is How does intermodulation interference important to know: between two repeater transmitters usually occur? A modulating frequency A B pass-band of the IF filter When they are in close proximity and the C signals mix in one or both of their final modulating frequency and the amplifiers modulation index B D modulation index When the signals are reflected in phase by aircraft passing overhead C When they are in close proximity and the A-005-005-010 (A) signals cause feedback in one or both of What is the significant bandwidth of an FM- their final amplifiers phone transmission having a +/- 5-kHz D When the signals are reflected out of deviation and a 3-kHz modulating phase by aircraft passing overhead frequency? A 16 kHz A-005-006-003 (C) B 8 kHz How can intermodulation interference C 5 kHz between two repeater transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? D 3 kHz A By installing a high-pass filter in the A-005-005-011 (A) antenna transmission line B By using a Class C final amplifier with What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21- high driving power MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a +/- C 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone By installing a terminated circulator or transmitter? ferrite isolator in the transmission line to the transmitter and duplexer A +/- 416.7 Hz D By installing a low-pass filter in the B +/- 12 kHz antenna transmission line C +/- 5 kHz D +/- 41.67 Hz A-005-006-004 (D) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives A-005-006-001 (C) an intermodulation product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52, If the signals of two repeater transmitters what are the two most likely frequencies for mix together in one or both of their final the other interfering signal? amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original A 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz signals are generated and radiated, what is B 146.01 MHz and 147.30 MHz this called? C 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz A Adjacent channel interference D 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B Amplifier desensitization C Intermodulation interference A-005-006-005 (B) D Neutralization What type of circuit varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce FM signals? A An audio modulator B A phase modulator C A balanced modulator D A double balanced mixer A-005-006-006 (B) A-005-006-011 (C) What audio shaping network is added at an Intermodulation interference products are FM transmitter to attenuate the lower audio not typically associated with which of the frequencies? following: A A de-emphasis network A receiver frontend B A pre-emphasis network B passive intermodulation C An audio prescaler C intermediate frequency stage D A heterodyne suppressor D final amplifier stage

A-005-006-007 (B) A-005-007-001 (D) Which type of filter would be best to use in Maintaining the peak RF output of a SSB a 2-metre repeater duplexer? transmitter at a relatively constant level requires a circuit called the: A A crystal filter A B A cavity filter automatic gain control (AGC) C A DSP filter B automatic output control (AOC) D An L-C filter C automatic volume control (AVC) D automatic level control (ALC) A-005-006-008 (A) A-005-007-002 (A) The characteristic difference between a phase modulator and a frequency Speech compression associated with SSB modulator is: transmission implies: A pre-emphasis A full amplification of low level signals and B the centre frequency reducing or eliminating amplification of high level signals C de-emphasis B D frequency inversion full amplification of high level signals and reducing or eliminating signals amplification of low level A-005-006-009 (B) C a lower signal-to-noise ratio In most modern FM transmitters, to D circuit level instability produce a better sound, a compressor and a clipper are placed: A-005-007-003 (C) A in the microphone circuit, before the Which of the following functions is not audio amplifier included in a typical digital signal B between the audio amplifier and the processor? modulator A Digital to analog converter C between the multiplier and the PA B Mathematical transform D between the modulator and the oscillator C Aliasing amplifier D Analog to digital converter A-005-006-010 (D) Three important parameters to be verified A-005-007-004 (B) in an FM transmitter are: How many bits are required to provide 256 A distortion, bandwidth and sideband discrete levels, or a ratio of 256:1? power A B modulation, pre-emphasis and carrier 4 bits suppression B 8 bits C frequency stability, de-emphasis and C 6 bits linearity D 16 bits D power, frequency deviation and frequency stability A-005-007-005 (D) A-005-007-010 (C) Adding one bit to the word length, is Which description is not correct? You are equivalent to adding ____ dB to the planning to build a speech processor for dynamic range of the digitizer: your transceiver. Compared to AF clipping, RF clipping: A 1 dB A B 4 dB is more expensive to implement C 3 dB B is more difficult to implement D 6 dB C is easier to implement D has less distortion A-005-007-006 (D) A-005-007-011 (C) What do you call the circuit which employs an analog to digital converter, a Automatic Level Control (ALC) is another mathematical transform, a digital to analog name for: converter and a low pass filter? A RF clipping A Digital formatter B AF clipping B Mathematical transformer C RF compression C Digital transformer D AF compression D Digital signal processor A-005-008-001 (A) A-005-007-007 (D) What digital code consists of elements Which principle is not associated with having unequal length? analog signal processing? A Varicode A Compression B AX.25 B Bandwidth limiting C Baudot C Clipping D ASCII D Frequency division A-005-008-002 (C) A-005-007-008 (B) Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model Which of the following is not a method used standardizes communications functions as for peak limiting, in a signal processor? layers within a data communications system. Amateur digital radio systems A AF clipping often follow the OSI model in structure. B Frequency clipping What is the base layer of the OSI model C RF clipping involving the interconnection of a packet D Compression radio TNC to a computer terminal? A The network layer A-005-007-009 (A) B The transport layer What is the undesirable result of AF C The physical layer clipping in a speech processor? D The link layer A Increased harmonic distortion A-005-008-003 (D) B Reduced average power C Increased average power What is the purpose of a Cyclic D Reduction in peak amplitude Redundancy Check (CRC)? A Lossy compression B Error correction C Lossless compression D Error detection A-005-008-004 (A) A-005-008-009 (B) What is one advantage of using ASCII The designator AX.25 is associated with rather than Baudot code? which amateur radio mode? A It includes both upper and lower case A spread spectrum speech text characters in the code B packet B ASCII includes built-in error correction C RTTY C ASCII characters contain fewer D ASCII information bits D The larger character set allows store- A-005-008-010 (C) and-forward How many information bits are included in A-005-008-005 (B) the Baudot code? What type of error control system is used in A 8 AMTOR ARQ (Mode A)? B 6 A Mode A AMTOR does not include an C 5 error control system D 7 B The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed A-005-008-011 (B) C The receiving station checks the frame How many information bits are included in check sequence (FCS) against the the ISO-8859 extension to the ASCII code? transmitted FCS D Each character is sent twice A 5 B 8 A-005-008-006 (A) C 7 D 6 What error-correction system is used in AMTOR FEC (Mode B)? A-005-009-001 (A) A Each character is sent twice B Mode B AMTOR does not include an What term describes a wide-band error-correction system communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some C The receiving station automatically predetermined sequence? requests repeats when needed D The receiving station checks the frame A Spread spectrum communication check sequence (FCS) against the B Amplitude-companded single sideband transmitted FCS C AMTOR D Time domain frequency modulation A-005-008-007 (B) APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting A-005-009-002 (D) System) does NOT support which one of these functions? What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where A Amateur-specific local information the centre frequency of a conventional broadcast carrier is changed many times per second B Automatic link establishment in accordance with a pseudorandom list of channels? C Two-way messaging D Telemetry A Direct sequence B Time-domain frequency modulation A-005-008-008 (A) C Frequency companded spread spectrum D Which algorithm may be used to create a Frequency hopping Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)? A Hash function B Dynamic Huffman code C Convolution code D Lempel-Ziv routine A-005-009-003 (A) A-005-009-008 (D) What term is used to describe a spread What is frequency hopping spread spectrum communications system in which spectrum? a very fast binary bit stream is used to shift A the phase of an RF carrier? The carrier is amplitude-modulated over a wide range called the spread A Direct sequence B The carrier is frequency-companded B Frequency hopping C The carrier is phase-shifted by a fast C Phase companded spread spectrum binary bit stream D Binary phase-shift keying D The carrier frequency is changed in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels A-005-009-004 (B)

Frequency hopping is used with which type A-005-009-009 (C) of transmission? What is direct-sequence spread spectrum? A RTTY B Spread spectrum A The carrier is frequency-companded C AMTOR B The carrier is altered in accordance with D Packet a pseudo-random list of channels C The carrier is phase-shifted by a fast A-005-009-005 (D) binary bit stream D The carrier is amplitude modulated over Direct sequence is used with which type of a range called the spread transmission? A AMTOR A-005-009-010 (D) B Packet Why are received spread-spectrum signals C RTTY so resistant to interference? D Spread spectrum A The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal processor (DSP) A-005-009-006 (A) interference filter Which type of signal is used to produce a B If interference is detected by the predetermined alteration in the carrier for receiver, it will signal the transmitter to spread spectrum communication? change frequencies C The high power used by a spread- A Pseudo-random sequence spectrum transmitter keeps its signal B Frequency-companded sequence from being easily overpowered C Quantizing noise D Signals not using the spectrum- D Random noise sequence spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver A-005-009-007 (D) A-005-009-011 (A) Why is it difficult to monitor a spread spectrum transmission? How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work? A It requires narrower bandwidth than most receivers have A The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according to a B It varies too quickly in amplitude particular pseudo-random sequence C The signal is too distorted for B If interference is detected by the comfortable listening receiver, it will signal the transmitter to D Your receiver must be frequency- change frequency synchronized to the transmitter C If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear D A pseudo-random bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence A-006-001-001 (B) A-006-001-005 (B) What are the advantages of the frequency A multiple conversion superheterodyne conversion process in a superheterodyne receiver is more susceptible to spurious receiver? responses than a single-conversion receiver because of the: A Automatic squelching and increased sensitivity A AGC being forced to work harder B Increased selectivity and optimal tuned causing the stages concerned to circuit design overload C Automatic detection in the RF amplifier B additional oscillators and mixing and increased sensitivity frequencies involved in the design D Automatic soft-limiting and automatic C poorer selectivity in the IF caused by the squelching multitude of frequency changes D greater sensitivity introducing higher A-006-001-002 (A) levels of RF to the receiver What factors should be considered when A-006-001-006 (D) selecting an intermediate frequency? In a dual-conversion superheterodyne A Image rejection and responses to receiver what are the respective aims of the unwanted signals first and second conversion: B Noise figure and distortion A selectivity and image rejection C Interference to other services B selectivity and dynamic range D Cross-modulation distortion and interference C image rejection and noise figure D image rejection and selectivity A-006-001-003 (D) One of the greatest advantages of the A-006-001-007 (C) double-conversion over the single- Which stage of a receiver has its input and conversion receiver is that it: output circuits tuned to the received A is much more stable frequency? B is much more sensitive A The audio frequency amplifier C produces a louder signal at the output B The detector D greater reduction of image interference C The RF amplifier for a given front end selectivity D The local oscillator

A-006-001-004 (A) A-006-001-008 (A) In a communications receiver, a crystal Which stage of a superheterodyne receiver filter would be located in the: lies between a tuneable stage and a fixed A IF circuits tuned stage? B local oscillator A Mixer C audio output stage B Radio frequency amplifier D detector C Intermediate frequency amplifier D Local oscillator

A-006-001-009 (A) A single conversion receiver with a 9 MHz IF has a local oscillator operating at 16 MHz. The frequency it is tuned to is: A 7 MHz B 16 MHz C 21 MHz D 9 MHz A-006-001-010 (B) A-006-002-004 (A) A double conversion receiver designed for If the incoming signal to the mixer is 3 600 SSB reception has a beat frequency kHz and the first IF is 9 MHz, at which one oscillator and: of the following frequencies would the local oscillator (LO) operate? A two IF stages and one local oscillator A B two IF stages and two local oscillators 5 400 kHz C one IF stage and one local oscillator B 3 400 kHz D two IF stages and three local oscillators C 10 600 kHz D 21 600 kHz A-006-001-011 (B) A-006-002-005 (A) The advantage of a double conversion receiver over a single conversion receiver is The BFO is off-set slightly (500 - 1 500 Hz) that it: from the incoming signal to the detector. This is required: A produces a louder audio signal A B suffers less from image interference for to beat with the incoming signal a given front end sensitivity B to pass the signal without interruption C does not drift off frequency C to provide additional amplification D is a more sensitive receiver D to protect the incoming signal from interference A-006-002-001 (A) A-006-002-006 (A) The mixer stage of a superheterodyne receiver is used to: It is very important that the oscillators contained in a superheterodyne receiver A change the frequency of the incoming are: signal to that of the IF A stable and spectrally pure B allow a number of IF frequencies to be used B sensitive and selective C remove image signals from the receiver C stable and sensitive D produce an audio frequency for the D selective and spectrally pure speaker A-006-002-007 (C) A-006-002-002 (B) In a superheterodyne receiver, a stage A superheterodyne receiver designed for before the IF amplifier has a variable SSB reception must have a beat-frequency capacitor in parallel with a trimmer oscillator (BFO) because: capacitor and an inductance. The variable capacitor is for: A it beats with the receiver carrier to produce the missing sideband A tuning of the beat-frequency oscillator B the suppressed carrier must be replaced (BFO) for detection B tuning both the antenna and the LO C it phases out the unwanted sideband C tuning of the local oscillator (LO) signal D tuning both the antenna and the BFO D it reduces the pass-band of the IF stages A-006-002-008 (B)

A-006-002-003 (D) In a superheterodyne receiver without an RF amplifier, the input to the mixer stage The first mixer in the receiver mixes the has a variable capacitor in parallel with an incoming signal with the local oscillator to inductance. The variable capacitor is for: produce: A tuning both the antenna and the local A an audio frequency oscillator B a radio frequency B tuning the receiver preselector to the C a high frequency oscillator (HFO) reception frequency frequency C tuning both the antenna and the beat- D an intermediate frequency frequency oscillator D tuning the beat-frequency oscillator A-006-002-009 (A) A-006-003-003 (D) What receiver stage combines a 14.25- How much gain should be used in the RF MHz input signal with a 13.795-MHz amplifier stage of a receiver? oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz A intermediate frequency (IF) signal? As much gain as possible, short of self- oscillation A Mixer B It depends on the amplification factor of B BFO the first IF stage C VFO C Sufficient gain to keep weak signals D Multiplier below the noise of the first mixer stage D Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first A-006-002-010 (D) mixer stage Which two stages in a superheterodyne receiver have input tuned circuits tuned to A-006-003-004 (B) the same frequency? What is the primary purpose of an RF A IF and local oscillator amplifier in a receiver? B RF and IF A To provide most of the receiver gain C RF and local oscillator B To improve the receiver noise figure D RF and first mixer C To vary the receiver image rejection by using the AGC A-006-002-011 (A) D To develop the AGC voltage The mixer stage of a superheterodyne receiver: A-006-003-005 (C) A produces an intermediate frequency How is receiver sensitivity often expressed B produces spurious signals for UHF FM receivers? C acts as a buffer stage A Noise Figure in decibels D demodulates SSB signals B Overall gain in decibels C RF level for 12 dB SINAD A-006-003-001 (C) D RF level for a given Bit Error Rate (BER) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver? A-006-003-006 (D) A The minimum level of noise that will What is the term used for the decibel overload the receiver RF amplifier stage difference (or ratio) between the largest B The amount of noise generated by the tolerable receiver input signal (without receiver local oscillator causing audible distortion products) and the C The weakest signal that can be detected minimum discernible signal (sensitivity)? above the receiver internal noise A Design parameter D The weakest signal that can be detected B Stability under noisy atmospheric conditions C Noise figure D Dynamic range A-006-003-002 (D) Which of the following is a purpose of the A-006-003-007 (D) first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? The lower the receiver noise figure A To tune out cross-modulation distortion becomes, the greater will be the receiver's B To increase dynamic response ______: C To improve noise figure performance A rejection of unwanted signals D To improve selectivity and gain B selectivity C stability D sensitivity A-006-003-008 (D) A-006-004-002 (B) The noise generated in a receiver of good What does a product detector do? design originates in the: A A detector and AF amplifier It detects cross-modulation products B B BFO and detector It mixes an incoming signal with a locally generated carrier C IF amplifier and detector C It provides local oscillations for input to a D RF amplifier and mixer mixer D It amplifies and narrows band-pass A-006-003-009 (D) frequencies Why are very low noise figures relatively unimportant for a high frequency receiver? A-006-004-003 (C) A Ionospheric distortion of the received Distortion in a receiver that only affects signal creates high noise levels strong signals usually indicates a defect in or mis-adjustment of the: B The use of SSB and CW on the HF bands overcomes the noise A AF amplifier C Regardless of the front end, the B RF amplifier succeeding stages when used on HF C automatic gain control (AGC) are very noisy D IF amplifier D External HF noise, man-made and natural, are higher than the internal noise generated by the receiver A-006-004-004 (C) In a superheterodyne receiver with A-006-003-010 (A) automatic gain control (AGC), as the The term which relates specifically to the strength of the signal increases, the AGC: amplitude levels of multiple signals that can A distorts the signal be accommodated during reception is B introduces limiting called: C reduces the receiver gain A dynamic range D increases the receiver gain B AGC C cross-modulation index A-006-004-005 (D) D noise figure The amplified IF signal is applied to the ______stage in a superheterodyne A-006-003-011 (B) receiver: Normally, front-end selectivity is provided A RF amplifier by the resonant networks both before and B audio output after the RF stage in a superheterodyne receiver. This whole section of the receiver C LO is often referred to as the: D detector A pass-selector A-006-004-006 (B) B preselector C preamble The low-level output of a detector is: D preamplifier A applied to the RF amplifier B A-006-004-001 (D) applied to the AF amplifier C grounded via the chassis What audio shaping network is added at an D fed directly to the speaker FM receiver to restore proportionally attenuated lower audio frequencies? A A pre-emphasis network B An audio prescaler C A heterodyne suppressor D A de-emphasis network A-006-004-007 (A) A-006-005-001 (C) The overall output of an AM/CW/SSB What part of a superheterodyne receiver receiver can be adjusted by means of determines the image rejection ratio of the manual controls on the receiver or by use receiver? of a circuit known as: A AGC loop A automatic gain control B IF filter B automatic frequency control C RF amplifier pre-selector C inverse gain control D Product detector D automatic load control A-006-005-002 (C) A-006-004-008 (B) What is the term for the reduction in AGC voltage is applied to the: receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A detector and AF amplifiers A Squelch gain rollback B RF and IF amplifiers B Quieting C AF and IF amplifiers C Desensitization D RF and AF amplifiers D Cross-modulation interference

A-006-004-009 (D) A-006-005-003 (C) AGC is derived in a receiver from one of What causes receiver desensitization? two circuits. Depending on the method used, it is called: A Squelch gain adjusted too low A RF derived or audio derived B Audio gain adjusted too low B IF derived or RF derived C Strong near frequency signals C detector derived or audio derived D Squelch gain adjusted too high D IF derived or audio derived A-006-005-004 (C) A-006-004-010 (D) What is one way receiver desensitization Which two variables primarily determine the can be reduced? behaviour of an automatic gain control A (AGC) loop? Increase the receiver bandwidth B Increase the transmitter audio gain A Blanking level and slope C Use a cavity filter B Slope and bandwidth D Decrease the receiver squelch gain C Clipping level and hang time D Threshold and decay time A-006-005-005 (C) What causes intermodulation in an A-006-004-011 (C) electronic circuit? What circuit combines signals from an IF A amplifier stage and a beat-frequency Positive feedback oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio B Lack of neutralization signal? C Nonlinear circuits or devices A A power supply circuit D Too little gain B A VFO circuit C A product detector circuit D An AGC circuit A-006-005-006 (D) A-006-005-011 (A) Which of the following is an important Which of these measurements is a good reason for using a VHF intermediate indicator of VHF receiver performance in an frequency in an HF receiver? environment of strong out-of-band signals? A To provide a greater tuning range A Two-tone Third-Order IMD Dynamic B To tune out cross-modulation distortion Range, 10 MHz spacing C To prevent the generation of spurious B Third-Order Intercept Point mixer products C Blocking Dynamic Range D To move the image response far away D Intermediate frequency rejection ratio from the filter passband A-007-001-001 (A) A-006-005-007 (C) For an antenna tuner of the "Transformer" Intermodulation interference is produced type, which of the following statements is by: FALSE? A the high-voltage stages in the final A The circuit is known as a Pi-type amplifier of an amplitude or frequency- antenna tuner modulated transmitter B The input is suitable for 50 ohm B the mixing of more than one signal in the impedance first or second intermediate frequency C The output is suitable for impedances amplifiers of a receiver from low to high C the mixing of two or more signals in the D The circuit is known as a transformer- front-end of a superheterodyne receiver type antenna tuner D the interaction of products from high- powered transmitters in the area A-007-001-002 (D)

A-006-005-008 (A) For an antenna tuner of the "Series" type, which of the following statements is false? Which of the following is NOT a direct cause of instability in a receiver? A The circuit is known as a Series-type antenna tuner A Dial display accuracy B The output is suitable for impedances B Mechanical rigidity from low to high C Feedback components C The input is suitable for impedance of 50 D Temperature variations ohms D The circuit is known as a Pi-type A-006-005-009 (C) antenna tuner Poor frequency stability in a receiver usually A-007-001-003 (B) originates in the: For an antenna tuner of the "L" type, which A RF amplifier of the following statements is false? B mixer A The circuit is known as an L-type C local oscillator and power supply antenna tuner D detector B The circuit is suitable for matching to a vertical ground plane antenna A-006-005-010 (D) C The transmitter input is suitable for 50 Poor dynamic range of a receiver can ohms impedance cause many problems when a strong signal D The antenna output is high impedance appears within or near the front-end bandpass. Which of the following is NOT caused as a direct result? A Desensitization B Intermodulation C Cross-modulation D Feedback A-007-001-004 (D) A-007-001-009 (A) For an antenna tuner of the "Pi" type, which What advantage does a pi-L network have of the following statements is false? over a pi-network for impedance matching between a vacuum tube linear amplifier and A The transmitter input is suitable for a multiband antenna? impedance of 50 ohms A B The antenna output is suitable for Greater harmonic suppression impedances from low to high B Higher efficiency C The circuit is a Pi-type antenna tuner C Lower losses D The circuit is a series-type antenna tuner D Greater transformation range

A-007-001-005 (B) A-007-001-010 (D) What is a pi-network? Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A A power incidence network A Inverse pi-network B A network consisting of one inductor and B Pi-network two capacitors or two inductors and one C capacitor L-network D C An antenna matching network that is Pi-L network isolated from ground D A network consisting of four inductors or A-007-001-011 (D) four capacitors A Smith Chart is useful:

A-007-001-006 (B) A only to solve matching and transmission Which type of network offers the greatest line problems transformation ratio? B to solve problems in direct current circuits A L-network C because it only works with complex B Pi-network numbers C Chebyshev D because it simplifies mathematical D Butterworth operations

A-007-001-007 (B) A-007-002-001 (B) Why is an L-network of limited utility in What kind of impedance does a quarter impedance matching? wavelength transmission line present to the source when the line is shorted at the far A It has limited power handling capability end? B It matches only a small impedance A range A very low impedance C It is thermally unstable B A very high impedance D It is prone to self-resonance C The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line D The same as the output impedance of A-007-001-008 (D) the source How does a network transform one impedance to another? A-007-002-002 (B) A It produces transconductance to cancel What kind of impedance does a quarter the reactive part of an impedance wavelength transmission line present to the B It introduces negative resistance to source if the line is open at the far end? cancel the resistive part of an A The same as the characteristic impedance impedance of the transmission line C Network resistances substitute for load B A very low impedance resistances C D It cancels the reactive part of an A very high impedance impedance and changes the resistive D The same as the output impedance of part the source A-007-002-003 (D) A-007-002-007 (B) What kind of impedance does a half What is a typical velocity factor for coaxial wavelength transmission line present to the cable with polyethylene dielectric? source when the line is open at the far end? A 2.7 A The same as the characteristic B 0.66 impedance of the transmission line C 0.33 B The same as the output impedance of D 0.1 the source C A very low impedance A-007-002-008 (C) D A very high impedance What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A-007-002-004 (D) A What kind of impedance does a half The centre conductor resistivity wavelength transmission line present to the B The terminal impedance source when the line is shorted at the far C Dielectrics in the line end? D The line length A A very high impedance B The same as the characteristic A-007-002-009 (B) impedance of the transmission line Why is the physical length of a coaxial C The same as the output impedance of cable shorter than its electrical length? the source A D A very low impedance The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel transmission line B RF energy moves slower along the A-007-002-005 (A) coaxial cable than in air What is the velocity factor of a transmission C The surge impedance is higher in the line? parallel transmission line A The velocity of the wave on the D Skin effect is less pronounced in the transmission line divided by the velocity coaxial cable of light B The velocity of the wave on the A-007-002-010 (D) transmission line multiplied by the The reciprocal of the square root of the velocity of light in a vacuum dielectric constant of the material used to C The index of shielding for coaxial cable separate the conductors in a transmission D The ratio of the characteristic line gives the ______of the line: impedance of the line to the terminating A VSWR impedance B impedance C A-007-002-006 (C) hermetic losses D velocity factor What is the term for the ratio of the actual velocity at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a A-007-002-011 (D) vacuum? The velocity factor of a transmission line is A Surge impedance the: B Standing wave ratio A impedance of the line, e.g. 50 ohm, 75 C Velocity factor ohm, etc. D Characteristic impedance B speed at which the signal travels in free space C speed to which the standing waves are reflected back to the transmitter D ratio of the velocity of propagation in the transmission line to the velocity of propagation in free space A-007-003-001 (B) A-007-003-005 (C) What term describes a method used to The driven element of a Yagi antenna is match a high-impedance transmission line connected to a coaxial transmission line. to a lower impedance antenna by The coax braid is connected to the centre connecting the line to the driven element in of the driven element and the centre two places, spaced a fraction of a conductor is connected to a variable wavelength on each side of the driven capacitor in series with an adjustable element centre? mechanical arrangement on one side of the driven element. The type of matching is: A The stub match A B The T match T match C The gamma match B zeta match D The omega match C gamma match D lambda match A-007-003-002 (D) A-007-003-006 (A) What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which the driven element of an A quarter-wave stub, for use at 15 MHz, is antenna is fed both at the centre and a made from a coaxial cable having a velocity fraction of a wavelength to one side of factor of 0.8. Its physical length will be: centre? A 4 m (13.1 ft) A The omega match B 12 m (39.4 ft) B The stub match C 8 m (26.2 ft) C The T match D 7.5 m (24.6 ft) D The gamma match A-007-003-007 (A) A-007-003-003 (A) The matching of a driven element with a What term describes a method of antenna single adjustable mechanical and impedance matching that uses a short capacitive arrangement is descriptive of: section of transmission line connected to A the antenna transmission line near the a "gamma" match antenna and perpendicular to the B a "T" match transmission line? C an "omega" match A The stub match D a "Y" match B The omega match C The delta match A-007-003-008 (C) D The gamma match A Yagi antenna uses a gamma match. The coaxial braid connects to: A-007-003-004 (B) A the adjustable gamma rod Assuming a velocity factor of 0.66 what B the centre of the reflector would be the physical length of a typical C the centre of the driven element coaxial stub that is electrically one quarter D the variable capacitor wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

A 0.25 metre (0.82 foot) A-007-003-009 (C) B 3.51 metres (11.5 feet) A Yagi antenna uses a gamma match. The C 20 metres (65.6 feet) centre of the driven element connects to: D 2.33 metres (7.64 feet) A the adjustable gamma rod B a variable capacitor C the coaxial line braid D the coaxial line centre conductor A-007-003-010 (D) A-007-004-005 (C) A Yagi antenna uses a gamma match. The In a half-wave dipole, the highest adjustable gamma rod connects to: distribution of ______occurs at the middle. A the coaxial line centre conductor A B an adjustable point on the reflector voltage C the centre of the driven element B capacity D the variable capacitor C current D inductance A-007-003-011 (B) A-007-004-006 (C) A Yagi antenna uses a gamma match. The variable capacitor connects to the: A half-wave dipole antenna is normally fed at the point where: A coaxial line braid A B adjustable gamma rod the resistance is maximum C an adjustable point on the director B the antenna is resonant D center of the driven element C the current is maximum D the voltage is maximum A-007-004-001 (C) A-007-004-007 (B) In a half-wave dipole, the distribution of ______is highest at each end. At the ends of a half-wave dipole: A inductance A voltage is low and current is high B capacitance B voltage is high and current is low C voltage C voltage and current are both high D current D voltage and current are both low

A-007-004-002 (B) A-007-004-008 (D) In a half-wave dipole, the distribution of ______is lowest at each end. The impedance of a half-wave antenna at its centre is low, because at this point: A capacitance A voltage and current are both high B current B voltage and current are both low C voltage C voltage is high and current is low D inductance D voltage is low and current is high

A-007-004-003 (A) A-007-004-009 (D) The feed point in a centre-fed half-wave antenna is at the point of: In a half-wave dipole, where does minimum voltage occur? A maximum current A At the right end B minimum current B It is equal at all points C minimum voltage and current C Both ends D maximum voltage D The centre

A-007-004-004 (C) A-007-004-010 (C) In a half-wave dipole, the lowest distribution of ______occurs at the middle. In a half-wave dipole, where does the minimum current occur? A inductance A It is equal at all points B current B At the right end C voltage C At both ends D capacity D At the centre A-007-004-011 (C) A-007-005-005 (B) In a half-wave dipole, where does the For VHF and UHF signals over a fixed path, minimum impedance occur? what extra loss can be expected when linearly-polarized antennas are crossed- A At the right end polarized (90 degrees)? B At both ends A 10 dB C At the centre B D It is the same at all points 20 dB or more C 3 dB D 6 dB A-007-005-001 (D) What is meant by circularly polarized A-007-005-006 (C) electromagnetic waves? Which of the following is NOT a valid A Waves with an electric field bent into parabolic dish illumination arrangement? circular shape A B Waves that circle the earth Offset feed C Waves produced by a circular loop B Cassegrain antenna C Newtonian D Waves with a rotating electric field D Front feed

A-007-005-002 (B) A-007-005-007 (C) What type of polarization is produced by A parabolic antenna is very efficient crossed dipoles fed 90 degrees out of because: phase? A no impedance matching is required A None of the other answers, the two B a horn-type radiator can be used to trap fields cancel out the received energy B Circular polarization C all the received energy is focused to a C Cross-polarization point where the pick-up antenna is D Perpendicular polarization located D a dipole antenna can be used to pick up the received energy A-007-005-003 (A)

Which of these antennas does not produce A-007-005-008 (D) circular polarization? A helical-beam antenna with right-hand A Loaded helical-wound antenna polarization will best receive signals with: B Crossed dipoles fed 90 degrees out of A left-hand polarization phase B vertical polarization only C Lindenblad antenna C D Axial-mode helical antenna horizontal polarization D right-hand polarization A-007-005-004 (D) A-007-005-009 (D) On VHF/UHF frequencies, Doppler shift becomes of consequence on which type of One antenna which will respond communication? simultaneously to vertically- and horizontally-polarized signals is the: A Contact through a hilltop repeater A folded dipole antenna B Simplex line-of-sight contact between hand-held transceivers B ground-plane antenna C Contact with terrestrial mobile stations C quad antenna D Contact via satellite D helical-beam antenna A-007-005-010 (A) A-007-006-004 (A) In amateur work, what is the surface error Effective Radiated Power means the: upper limit you should try not to exceed on a parabolic reflector? A transmitter output power, minus line A 0.1 lambda losses, plus antenna gain relative to a dipole B 0.25 lambda B power supplied to the antenna before C 5 mm (0.2 in) regardless of frequency the modulation of the carrier D 1% of the diameter C power supplied to the transmission line plus antenna gain A-007-005-011 (D) D ratio of signal output power to signal You want to convert a surplus parabolic input power dish for amateur radio use, the gain of this antenna depends on: A-007-006-005 (A) A the polarization of the feed device A transmitter has an output power of 200 illuminating it watts. The coaxial and connector losses are 3 dB in total, and the antenna gain is 9 B the focal length of the antenna dBd. What is the approximate Effective C the material composition of the dish Radiated Power of this system? D the diameter of the antenna in A wavelengths 800 watts B 3200 watts A-007-006-001 (C) C 1600 watts D A transmitter has an output of 100 watts. 400 watts The cable and connectors have a composite loss of 3 dB, and the antenna A-007-006-006 (C) has a gain of 6 dBd. What is the Effective Radiated Power? A transmitter has a power output of 100 watts. There is a loss of 1.30 dB in the A 400 watts transmission line, a loss of 0.2 dB through B 300 watts the antenna tuner, and a gain of 4.50 dBd in the antenna. The Effective Radiated C 200 watts Power (ERP) is: D 350 watts A 400 watts B A-007-006-002 (D) 100 watts C 200 watts As standing wave ratio rises, so does the D loss in the transmission line. This is caused 800 watts by: A-007-006-007 (A) A high antenna currents B high antenna voltage If the overall gain of an amateur station is increased by 3 dB the ERP (Effective C leakage to ground through the dielectric Radiated Power) will: D dielectric and conductor heat losses A double B A-007-006-003 (B) decrease by 3 watts C remain the same What is the Effective Radiated Power of an D amateur transmitter, if the transmitter be cut in half output power is 200 watts, the transmission line loss is 5 watts, and the antenna power gain is 3 dBd? A 178 watts B 390 watts C 197 watts D 228 watts A-007-006-008 (A) A-007-007-001 (B) A transmitter has a power output of 125 For a 3-element Yagi antenna with watts. There is a loss of 0.8 dB in the horizontally mounted elements, how does transmission line, 0.2 dB in the antenna the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height tuner, and a gain of 10 dBd in the antenna. above flat ground? The Effective Radiated Power (ERP) is: A It depends on E-region height, not A 1000 antenna height B 1250 B It decreases with increasing height C 1125 C It increases with increasing height D 134 D It does not vary with height

A-007-006-009 (A) A-007-007-002 (A) If a 3 dBd gain antenna is replaced with a 9 Most simple horizontally polarized antennas dBd gain antenna, with no other changes, do not exhibit significant directivity unless the Effective Radiated Power (ERP) will they are: increase by: A a half wavelength or more above the A 4 ground B 6 B an eighth of a wavelength above the C 1.5 ground D 2 C a quarter wavelength above the ground D three-eighths of a wavelength above the ground A-007-006-010 (B)

A transmitter has an output of 2000 watts A-007-007-003 (C) PEP. The transmission line, connectors and antenna tuner have a composite loss of 1 The plane from which ground reflections dB, and the gain from the stacked Yagi can be considered to take place, or the antenna is 10 dBd. What is the Effective effective ground plane for an antenna is: Radiated Power (ERP) in watts PEP? A as much as a meter above ground A 2009 B at ground level exactly B 16 000 C several centimeters to as much as 2 C 18 000 meters below ground, depending upon D 20 000 soil conditions D as much as 6 cm below ground depending upon soil conditions A-007-006-011 (C) A transmitter has an output of 1000 watts A-007-007-004 (B) PEP. The coaxial cable, connectors and antenna tuner have a composite loss of 1 Why is a ground-mounted vertical quarter- dB, and the antenna gain is 10 dBd. What wave antenna in reasonably open is the Effective Radiated Power (ERP) in surroundings better for long distance watts PEP? contacts than a half-wave dipole at a quarter wavelength above ground? A 10 000 A It uses vertical polarization B 9000 B The vertical radiation angle is lower C 8000 C The radiation resistance is lower D 1009 D It has an omnidirectional characteristic A-007-007-005 (B) A-007-007-009 (B) When a half-wave dipole antenna is The impedance at the centre of a dipole installed one-half wavelength above antenna more than 3 wavelengths above ground, the: ground would be nearest to: A radiation pattern is unaffected A 600 ohms B vertical or upward radiation is effectively B 75 ohms cancelled C 25 ohms C radiation pattern changes to produce D 300 ohms side lobes at 15 and 50 degrees D side lobe radiation is cancelled A-007-007-010 (D) Why can a horizontal antenna closer to A-007-007-006 (C) ground be advantageous for close range How does antenna height affect the communications on lower HF bands? horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a A horizontal dipole HF antenna? Lower antenna noise temperature B Low radiation angle for closer distances A If the antenna is less than one-half C The radiation resistance is higher wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated D The ground tends to act as a reflector B If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable A-007-007-011 (B) C If the antenna is less than one-half Which antenna system and operating wavelength high, reflected radio waves frequency are most suitable for Near from the ground significantly distort the Vertical Incidence (NVIS) communications? pattern A D Antenna height has no effect on the A vertical antenna and a frequency pattern above the lowest usable frequency B A horizontal antenna less than 1/4 A-007-007-007 (A) wavelength above ground and a frequency below the current critical For long distance propagation, the vertical frequency radiation angle of the energy from the C A horizontal antenna at a height of half a antenna should be: wavelength and an operating frequency A less than 30 degrees at the optimum working frequency D B more than 45 degrees but less than 90 A vertical antenna and a frequency degrees below the maximum usable frequency C 90 degrees A-007-008-001 (A) D more than 30 degrees but less than 45 degrees What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna? A-007-007-008 (D) A The equivalent resistance that would Greater distance can be covered with dissipate the same amount of power as multiple-hop transmissions by decreasing that radiated from an antenna the: B The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to A power applied to the antenna radiate a signal B main height of the antenna C The specific impedance of an antenna C length of the antenna D The combined losses of the antenna D vertical radiation angle of the antenna elements and transmission line A-007-008-002 (A) A-007-008-006 (A) Why would one need to know the radiation How can the approximate beamwidth of a resistance of an antenna? beam antenna be determined? A To match impedances for maximum A Note the two points where the signal power transfer strength is down 3 dB from the B To measure the near-field radiation maximum signal point and compute the density from a transmitting antenna angular difference C To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the B Draw two imaginary lines through the antenna ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines D To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna C Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna A-007-008-003 (D) D Measure the ratio of the signal strengths What factors determine the radiation of the radiated power lobes from the resistance of an antenna? front and rear of the antenna A Transmission line length and antenna height A-007-008-007 (A) B Sunspot activity and time of day How is antenna percent efficiency C It is a physical constant and is the same calculated? for all antennas A (radiation resistance / total resistance) x D Antenna location with respect to nearby 100 objects and the conductors B (radiation resistance / transmission length/diameter ratio resistance) x 100 C (total resistance / radiation resistance) x A-007-008-004 (A) 100 What is the term for the ratio of the D (effective radiated power / transmitter radiation resistance of an antenna to the output) x 100 total resistance of the system? A Antenna efficiency A-007-008-008 (B) B Beamwidth What is the term used for an equivalent C Effective Radiated Power resistance which would dissipate the same D Radiation conversion loss amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna?

A-007-008-005 (B) A K factor B Radiation resistance What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? C j factor D Antenna resistance A Radiation resistance plus space impedance A-007-008-009 (A) B Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance Antenna beamwidth is the angular distance C Radiation resistance plus transmission between: resistance A the points on the major lobe at the half- D Transmission line resistance plus power points radiation resistance B the maximum lobe spread points on the major lobe C the 6 dB power points on the major lobe D the 3 dB power points on the first minor lobe A-007-008-010 (D) A-007-009-004 (A) If the ohmic resistance of a half-wave For rectangular waveguide to transfer dipole is 2 ohms, and the radiation energy, the cross-section should be at resistance is 72 ohms, what is the antenna least: efficiency? A one-half wavelength A 74% B three-eighths wavelength B 72% C one-eighth wavelength C 100% D one-quarter wavelength D 97.3% A-007-009-005 (D) A-007-008-011 (D) Which of the following statements about If the ohmic resistance of a miniloop waveguide IS NOT correct? antenna is 2 milliohms and the radiation A resistance is 50 milliohms, what is the In the transverse electric mode, a antenna efficiency? component of the magnetic field is in the direction of propagation A 52% B In the transverse magnetic mode, a B 25% component of the electric field is in the C 50% direction of propagation D 96.15% C Waveguide has low loss at high frequencies, but high loss below cutoff frequency A-007-009-001 (B) D Waveguide has high loss at high Waveguide is typically used: frequencies, but low loss below cutoff frequency A at frequencies below 1500 MHz B at frequencies above 3000 MHz A-007-009-006 (D) C at frequencies above 2 MHz Which of the following is a major advantage D at frequencies below 150 MHz of waveguide over coaxial cable for use at microwave frequencies? A-007-009-002 (A) A Frequency response from 1.8 MHz to 24GHz Which of the following is not correct? Waveguide is an efficient transmission B Easy to install medium because it features: C Inexpensive to install D A low hysteresis loss Very low losses B low radiation loss A-007-009-007 C low dielectric loss (D) D low copper loss What is printed circuit transmission line called? A-007-009-003 (D) A Dielectric substrate Which of the following is an advantage of B Dielectric imprinting waveguide as a transmission line? C Ground plane D A Frequency sensitive based on Microstripline dimensions B Expensive A-007-009-008 (B) C Heavy and difficult to install Compared with coaxial cable, D Low loss microstripline: A must have much higher characteristic impedance B has poorer shielding C has superior shielding D must have much lower characteristic impedance A-007-009-009 (D) A section of waveguide:

A operates like a low-pass filter B operates like a band-stop filter C is lightweight and easy to install D operates like a high-pass filter

A-007-009-010 (A) Stripline is a:

A printed circuit transmission line B small semiconductor family C high power microwave antenna D family of fluids for removing coatings from small parts

A-007-009-011 (D) What precautions should you take before beginning repairs on a microwave feed horn or waveguide? A Be sure the weather is dry and sunny B Be sure propagation conditions are unfavourable for tropospheric ducting C Be sure to wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect your body and hands from sharp edges D Be sure the transmitter is turned off and the power source is disconnected