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1 Naturalism Charles R Pigden What Naturalism Is In Philosophy not only the doctrines but the definitions of the doctrines are subject to dispute. Thus it is with ethical naturalism. My definition, therefore, is personal but not, I hope, idiosyncratic. By naturalism I mean more or less what other philosophers have in mind — though the more and the less will vary from case to case. Naturalism, then, is a cognitivist doctrine (or family of doctrines). It states that moral judgements are propositions, capable of truth and falsity. Moral judgements purport to tell it like it is. Naturalism is thus opposed to non-cognitivism, to emotivism and prescriptivism, which represent moral judgements variously as exclamations, psychological prods and quasi-commands. It is also (in a weak sense) a realist doctrine; that is, it takes some moral judgements to be true. It is thus opposed to the error-theory of J. L. Mackie which agrees that moral judgements make claims that are either true or false, but denies that any of them are true. Morality, for the naturalist, is not a fiction, a mistake or a myth but a body of knowledge, or at least, of information. Finally, naturalism is (in a loose sense) a reductive doctrine. Though there are moral truths (i.e. true propositions) there are no peculiarly moral facts or properties (no distinctively moral states of affairs) over and above the facts and properties that can be specified using non-moral terminology. The contrast here is with 'intuitionist' philosophers such as G.E Moore (1874-1958): 'If I am asked "What is good?", my answer is that good is good and that is the end of the matter. Or if I am asked "How is good to be defined?", my answer is that it cannot be defined and that is all I have to say about it' (Moore, 1903, p. 6). Moore does not mean he cannot tell you what things are good. (He thinks for example that friendship and the contemplation of beauty are good.) No, he is making a metaphysical or ontological point: the goodness of good things consists in their possessing the property of goodness, a basic feature of reality which cannot be further analyzed or explained. Naturalists disagree. For them, goodness can be further analyzed or explained; reduced to something else or identified with some other property. Indeed naturalists think that goodness as Moore conceives it, a unique and sui generis property, does not exist. (And the same goes, naturally, for badness, rightness and wrongness.) But there consensus ends. Naturalists differ as to what good, evil etc. are to be reduced to, and how this reduction is to be carried out. There are hedonistic naturalists who reduce facts about goodness to facts about pleasure and pain. (The goodness of friendship consists in its conduciveness to pleasure.) There are Aristotelian naturalists who prefer (alleged) facts about human nature and human flourishing. (Friendship is good in that it is somehow consonant with human needs or human nature.) There are even theological naturalists, who think the goodness of friendship amounts to its being sanctioned by God. Naturalists, in short, resort to all sorts of supposed facts — sociological, psychological, scientific, even metaphysical and theological — so long as they are not driven back on a realm of irreducibly moral facts or properties. 2 Since some of these facts are metaphysical or supernatural, rather than natural in any ordinary sense of the word (facts about the natural world) you may well wonder how such a disparate group of moral theories came to wear the same label. The answer is historical. According to G. E. Moore they all stand accused of the naturalistic fallacy (of which, more later). He called this (supposed) fallacy naturalistic because it was more common among philosophers of a narrowly naturalistic stamp — those who wished to base morals on the kinds of facts that science could countenance. But these were only a subclass of those who — according to Moore — commit the fallacy. Nevertheless the name has stuck. What is the impetus behind naturalism — what makes it attractive as a theoretical option? This is a difficult question to deal with since naturalism is not so much a doctrine as a family of doctrines held together by some shared theses. But a rough answer is this. Naturalists combine a yen for moral truth, that is, a conviction that some things really are right and others wrong, with a distaste for Moore's non-natural qualities of goodness, badness etc. Often this distaste is due to the scientific outlook and the conviction that nothing exists beyond what science licenses us to suppose. But it can be due to religious convictions, e.g. the belief that value springs from God and cannot be separated from what he wills. Either way, Moore's peculiarly moral properties are unwelcome, and a reduction must be sought which bases moral truths on the preferred metaphysic. 3 1. Moral judgements are propositions. (They Non-cognitivism in its various forms (emotivism are true or false.) and prescriptivism) is false. 2. Some moral judgements are true. Nihilism or the 'error-theory' (due to J.L (Morality not a fiction.) Mackie) is false. 3.No irreducible moral facts or properties. Intuitionism(Moore's doctrine) is false. Figure 1 2. No-'ought'-from-'is', or the autonomy of ethics If morality can be boiled down to truths of some other kind, ethics is not 'autonomous'. Truth in morals is determined by the goings-on in some other realm. However, when naturalists and anti-naturalists quarrel about the autonomy of ethics, this is not (usually) what they have in mind. By 'the autonomy of ethics' they mean some such thesis as that 'ought' cannot be derived from 'is', or more generally that moral conclusions cannot be derived from non-moral premises, values from facts. This is often mixed up with the idea that moral words do not mean the same as non-moral words; that they lack 'naturalistic' synonyms. The issue is thus about inference rather than reduction; about what can be inferred from what. However, it is often assumed that if moral judgements can be derived from non-moral propositions, naturalism is true. If not, naturalism is false. This last claim is a mistake as I hope to show. Anti-naturalists take as their text a famous passage from Hume (1711-1776). Moralists (complains Hume) 'proceed for some time in the ordinary way of reasoning' with proofs 'of the being of God' or 'observations concerning human affairs', 'when of a sudden, I am surprised to find that instead of the usual copulations of propositions is and is not, I meet with no proposition that is not connected with an ought, or an ought not ... as this ought or ought not expresses some new relation or affirmation 'tis necessary that it be observed and explained; and at the same time a reason should be given for what seems altogether inconceivable, how this new relation can be a deduction from others which are entirely different from it' (Hume, 1738, Book III, Part 1). This passage is often summed up in the slogan 'no-"ought"-from-"is"' and deified as 'Hume's Law'. It is alleged to do wonders — to point up a fundamental distinction between facts and values, to prove non- cognitivism and (above all) to refute naturalism. (This last is an odd claim, since Hume himself was a naturalist.) In fact it can do none of these things. For Hume is making a simple logical point. A conclusion containing 'ought' cannot (as a matter of logic) be derived from 'ought'-free premises. (The same, of course, goes for the other moral words.) Logic is conservative; the conclusions of a valid inference are contained 4 within the premises. You don't get out what you haven't put in. Hence if 'ought' appears in the conclusion of an argument but not in the premises, the inference is not logically valid. Some anti-naturalists (notably R. M. Hare) have taken this 'is'/'ought' gap as a datum and sought to explain it by means of non-cognitivism. The reason you can't derive an 'ought' from an 'is', or, more generally, a moral conclusion from non-moral premises, is because moral judgements differ fundamentally from factual propositions. They don't (primarily) describe how the world is but prescribe how it should be — they are, in short, akin to orders. But we need not resort to non-cognitivism to explain this logical gulf. For there is a similar gap between conclusions about hedgehogs and premises which make no mention of them. You can't get 'hedgehog' conclusions from hedgehog-free premises (at least, not by logic alone). Yet nobody proposes a fact/hedgehog distinction or alleges that propositions about hedgehogs are not really propositions but a quaint subclass of commands. In both cases it is the conservativeness of logic that creates the gap, not any arcane difference in semantic kind. There is thus no more reason to convert moral judgements into quasi-commands than to subject hedgehog- propositions to the same fate. Ethics may be logically autonomous, but it shares this trait with every other kind of talk. But even this innocuous thesis has been challenged. A. N. Prior (1914-1969) proposed a number of logically valid inferences in which 'ought' does appear in the conclusion but not in the premises. Here is one: (1) Tea-drinking is common in England. Therefore (2) Either tea-drinking is common in England or all New Zealanders ought to be shot. (Prior, 1976) There is something very fishy about this inference.