PROMOTION GUIDE-2018
STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE, RAJINDER NAGAR,BANTALAB,
JAMMU PHONE: 0191-2597623, 2597629 email:[email protected]
I am happy to learn that State Bank Learning Centre, Jammu is bringing out the new In-House publication “Promotion Guide-2018” for the benefit of candidates who will appear in the ensuing promotion tests. This book is updated up to Jan.2018.
I am sanguine that this book will enrich the knowledge of our Bank Staff and will be helpful to those appearing in the coming exams. I compliment the entire team of SBLC, Jammu associated with the publication of this “Promotion Guide-2018”.
I wish you all the best in your endeavours.
ANIL KISHORA Chief General Manager Local Head Office Chandigarh
Page | 2
It gives me great pleasure in presenting before you the new and updated version of promotion guide, aptly named "Promotion Guide-2018", prepared by State Bank Learning Centre, Jammu. This book is updated till 15/01/2018.
The book presents comprehensive information relevant from the point of view of Bank's promotion tests. Indian economy in general and our Bank in particular has been going through fast changes in recent times. It is essential for all prospective candidates to keep themselves abreast with the latest data and information to come out successful in the promotional examinations. Every attempt has been made by the faculty members of SBLC, Jammu, to present the most relevant and latest information in this guide.
I am sure you will benefit immensely from this book not only in your ensuing promotional tests, but also in refreshing your job knowledge.
I wish you all success in your future endeavors.
D.B.SINGH Deputy General Manager & Circle Development Officer Local Head Office Chandigarh
Page | 3
It gives me immense pleasure to bring out the 3rd Edition of our in-house publication ‘Promotion Guide-2018” for the benefit of our colleagues who have to appear in exams for promotion. Our Bank has always been in the forefront of updating the skills, knowledge etc. of our Staff through various training programmes. “Promotion Guide-2018” is an initiative of SBLC Jammu to enhance the knowledge of our Staff in different segments of Banking. While we have a wealth of information available on the various sites, this book shall act as a readymade guide for our staff for updating their knowledge and augmenting their preparedness for appearing in the exam.
Our sincere thanks to Sh. D.B.Singh, DGM & CDO, Local Head Office, Chandigarh for having reposed confidence in SBLC Jammu in providing us an opportunity to bring out this publication.
We also earnestly request all our readers to send their valuable suggestions/feedback for constant updating of this book.
Let the success be with our readers throughout their career.
Pushkar Kumar Abrol ASSISTANT GENERAL MANAGER STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE JAMMU
Page | 4
INDEX Topics Page No. Current Affairs 6-36 Organisation Structures of SBI 37-40 Loan Policy Guidelines 41-47 Any time Channels 48-60 SME Liabilty Products 61-69 CBS related MCQ 70-81 Govt. MCQ 82-87 IT related MCQ 88-94 Cash Deptt Procedures 95-101 KYC and AML Guidelines 102-108 Settlement of Deceased Constituents 109-111 NPA/ IRAC Norms 112-119 Customer Service & Complaint Management 120-130 Fatca/CRS 131-134 Forex related MCQ 135-145 Safe Deposit Lockers and Safe Custody 146-151 General Banking 152-160 Legal Aspects of Banking 161-170 SME Asset Products 171-185 Personal Segement Deposit Products 186-195 P-Segment Asset Products 196-237 Agriculture Advances 238-250 Essay Writing 251-267
Page | 5
Union budget 2017-18 (MCQ) Compiled by Sh. Raj Kumar, Chief Manager (Training)
1. The Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) credit has been carried forward from the current10 years to how many years in the Budget Estimates in 2017-18? A.15 Years B.20 Years C.17 Years D.12 Years
2. As mentioned in the Union Budget 2017-18, the Indian Railways coaches would be completely fitted with bio-toilets by which year? A.2020 B.2018 C.2022 D.2019
3. What is the expected growth rate of agricultural sector for the last quarter of the fiscal year 2016-17 ending March 2017? A.4.1 Percent B.4.5 Percent C.3.6 Percent D.3.2 Percent
4. Consider the following statements and based on the Budget Estimates 2017 identify which among the given points are correct? i.Foreign Investment Promotion Board will be abolished in 2017-18 ii.Second phase of Solar Park development will be taken up for additional 20,000 MW capacity. iii.A Computer Emergency Response Team for Financial Sector (CERT-Fin) will be established A.Only i & ii B.Only ii & iii C.Only i & iii D.All Are Correct
5. What is the name of the single window interface, to be launched by the Union government to register all coach related complaints and requirements A.Coach For All B.Coach Mitra C.Best Coach D.My Coach
6. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, what is the total allocation made under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana? A.Rs. 2.44 Lakh crore B.Rs. 1.20 Lakh crore C.Rs. 2.50 Lakh crore D.Rs. 1.75 Lakh crore
7. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, NABARD will computerize and integrate ______Primary Agriculture Credit Societies with the Core Banking System of District Central Cooperative Banks to ensure flow of credit to small farmers. A.60,000 B.61,750 C.63,000 D.62,500
Page | 6
8. What is the total allocation made for rural, agriculture and allied sectors as per the Union Budget 2017-18? A.Rs. 188,111 crores B.Rs. 184,222 crores C.Rs. 185,551 crores D.Rs. 187223 crores
9. As proposed in the Budget 2017, the total amount allocated to the BharatNet Project for digitally connected India is______A.Rs.12,000 B.Rs.15,000 C.Rs.10,000 D.Rs.17,000
10. NABARD will set up dedicated micro-irrigation fund to achieve Per Drop More Cropmission. What is the initial corpus of the fund? A.Rs. 5000 Crore B.Rs. 4500 Crore C.Rs. 5500 Crore D.Rs. 4200 Crore
11. What is the total allocation made under the Fasal Bima Yojana in the Union Budget2017-18? A.Rs. 7500 crore B.Rs. 9000 crore C.Rs. 5500 crore D.Rs. 8000 crore
12. Coverage under National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) has been increased from 250 Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) to ______APMCs. A.375 B.550 C.455 D.585
13. Which of the following statements are true in context to the Union Budget 2017-18? i.100 stations will be made differently abled friendly by providing lifts and escalators in 2017-18. ii.By 2019, all coaches of Indian Railways will be fitted with bio toilets. iii.It is proposed to feed about 7,000 stations with solar power in the medium term iv.Railway lines of 3,500 kms will be commissioned in 2017-18. A.Only i, iii & iv B.Only ii, iii & iv C.Only i, ii, iv D.Only ii & iii
14.The tax rate for individuals with income between Rs. 2.5 Lakh and Rs.5 lakh has been reduced from 10 Percent to ______Percent. A.7 Percent B.4 Percent C.5 Percent D.8 Percent
Page | 7
15.What percent of surcharge on income tax would be levied on individuals with income between Rs. 50 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore A.10 Percent B.9 Percent C.7 Percent D.8 Percent 16 .Government plans to have single page income tax return filing form for taxable income up to Rs. ______. A.Rs. 2 Lakh B.Rs. 3 Lakh C.Rs. 4 Lakh D.Rs. 5 Lakh
17. Small firms with turnover up to Rs.50 crore will need to pay a tax of _____ percent instead of 30 percent A.20 Percent B.25 Percent C.22 Percent D.21 Percent
18. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, a surcharge of ______percent on income tax would be applicable on total income above Rs. 1 crore. A.20 Percent B.10 Percent C.15 Percent D.12 Percent
19. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, a tax rebate of how much amount would be provided to individuals having income up to Rs 3.5 lakh? A.Rs. 1500 B.Rs. 2100 C.Rs. 2000 D.Rs. 2500
20. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, government has proposed to set up 2 strategic crude oil reserves in which of the following locations? A.Cuttack in Odisha and Kota in Rajasthan B.Chandikhole in Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan C.Cuttack in Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan D.Chandikhole in Odisha and Kota in Rajasthan
21. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the government aims to eliminate unmanned level crossings on Broad Gauge lines by which year? A.2022 B.2018 C.2019 D.2020
22. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the allowable provision for Non- Performing Asset of Banks has been increased from 7.5 percent to ______percent? A.8.5 Percent B.8 Percent C.9 Percent D.7.9 Percent
Page | 8
23. The total allocation under MGNREGA has been increased to all time high at Rs. ______in the Budget Estimate 2017. A.Rs. 45500 crore B.Rs. 50000 crore C.Rs. 48000 crore D.Rs. 38600 crore
24.The government aims to bring one crore households out of poverty and 50,000 Gram Panchayats poverty free by which year? A.2019 B.2022 C.2021 D.2020
25. How much amount of assistance would be provided to the National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) as per the Union Budget 2017-18? A.Rs. 65 Lakhs B.Rs. 69 Lakhs C.Rs. 75 Lakhs D.Rs. 72 Lakhs
26. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin), government aims to complete 1crore houses for the houseless and those living in kutcha houses by which year? A.2019 B.2021 C.2022 D.2020
27. As proposed in the Union Budget 2017-18, three new All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) will be established in which states? A. Karnataka and Odisha B. Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat C.Jharkhand and Gujarat D. Jharkhand and Rajasthan
28. The Union Government aims to achieve 100 percent electrification of all the villagesof India by which year? A.May 1, 2018 B.March 31, 2019 C.April 1, 2018 D.March 1, 2020
29. How much amount has been proposed under Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin) in the Union Budget 2017-18? A.Rs. 25,000 crores B.Rs. 23,000 crores C.Rs. 27,000 crores D.Rs. 31,000 crores
30. The National Housing Bank will refinance individual housing loans of about Rs. ______in 2017-18 A.Rs. 55,000 crores B.Rs. 25,000 crores C.Rs. 36,000 crores D.Rs. 20,000 crores
Page | 9
31. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, centre has allocated how much amount to set up Mahila Shakti Kendra? A.Rs. 500 crores B.Rs. 750 crores C.Rs. 600 crores D.Rs. 825 crores 32. The union government aims to achieve a target of how many digital transactions in 2017-18 through UPI, USSD, Aadhar Pay, IMPS and debit cards? A.3000 crore B.2500 crore C.1700 crore D.2900 crore
33. The Union government aims to create how many additional Post Graduate seats per annum in Medical colleges to ensure adequate availability of specialist doctors to strengthen Secondary and Tertiary levels of health care? A.5000 B.2500 C.7500 D.3000
34. The Basic customs duty on LNG has been reduced from 5 percent to ______percent. A.3 Percent B.2 Percent C.4.5 Percent D.2.5 Percent
35. How many new All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) would be set up in 2017-18 as per the Union Budget 2017? A.5 B.7 C.2 D.3
36. Banks have targeted to introduce how many Aadhar based Point-Of-Sales (POS) machines by September 2017? A.25 Lakh B.19 Lakh C.32 Lakh D.20 Lakh
37. Banks have targeted to introduce additional 10 lakh new POS terminals by which year? A.March 2017 B.April 2018 C.February 2020 D.March 2019
38. How much amount has been allocated for recapitalization of Banks provided in 2017-18 as per the estimates of Union Budget 2017-18? A.Rs. 12,000 crores B.Rs. 10,000 crores C.Rs. 15,500 crores D.Rs. 11,250 crores
Page | 10
39. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, transaction above how much will not be permitted in cash? A.Rs. 3 Lakhs B.Rs. 4 Lakhs C.Rs. 5 Lakhs D.Rs. 6 Lakhs
40. Which national agency will be phased out in the next fiscal, as per the Budget 2017? A.NITI Aayog B.Foreign Investment Promotion Board C.Securities Exchange Board of India D.Confederation of Indian Industry
41. Which facility was announced for senior citizens in Budget 2017-2018? A.Aadhaar-enabled smart cards B.BHIM app C.Shakti Kendras D.None of the above
42. The Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has given the Agenda for 2017-18 Buget as TEC India. Expand TEC India. A.Target, Economic and Cultural India B.Transparency, Energy and Clear India C.Transform, Energise and Clean India D.True, Economical and Clean India
43. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, which schemes would be launched by the government to promote usage of BHIM App? A.Referal Bonus Scheme and Cashback Scheme B.Digital Litracy Scheme & Digital Lottery scheme C.Free Recharge Scheme & Supersaver Scheme D.Luckydraw Scheme & Random Selection Scheme
44. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the holding period for the long term capital gains has been reduced from 3 years to how many years? A.9 Months B.1 Year C.2 Years D.7 Months
45. As proposed in the Budget 2017, high speed Broadband connectivity on optical fiber will be made available in nearly ______gram panchayats by the end of 2017-18? A.100000 B.110000 C.120000 D.150000
46. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the capital gains tax has been exempted for persons holding the land which was pooled for creation of the state capital ______A.Telangana B.Uttarakhand C.Jharkhand D.Chhattisgarh
Page | 11
47. Which initiative has been proposed in the Union Budget 2017-18 by the government to provide tele-medicine, education and skills through digital technology? A.SANKALP B.STRIVE C.DigiGaon D.SWAYAM
48. As per the data in Union Budget 2017-18, more than ______percent of FDI inflows are through automated route. A.85 Percent B.90 Percent C.72 Percent D.88 Percent
49. The government aims to launch SWAYAM Platform to provide at-least 350 online courses for enabling students to virtually attend courses. What does SWAYAM stands for? A.Skill for Web based Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds B.Study Webs of Active –Learning for Young Aspiring Minds C.Scientific and Web Activated Learning for Youth and Aspiring Minds D.Scholarship in Web Active Learning for Young Achieving Members
50. As per the data in the Budget 2017-18, World Bank has projected India’s GDP growth rate at ______percent for Financial Year 2018. A.7.6 Percent B.8.1 Percent C.6.9 Percent D.7.2 Percent
51. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, a tax rate of 25 percent would be levied on small and medium sized enterprises which have an annual turnover of up to Rs.______A.25 crore B.50 crore C.45 crore D.35 crore
52. Which of the following campaign will be launched by the Union Government to promote tourism and employment, as per the Union Budget 2017? A.Incredible India 2.0 B.Revolutionary India C.Incredibly Superior India D.Pride of the World
53. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, LIC will implement a scheme to provide a guaranteed rate of return of ______percent per annum for 10 years to senior citizens. A.9 Percent B.10 Percent C.8 Percent D.7 Percent
Page | 12
54. As per the budget how many Railway stations will be made differently abled friendly by providing lifts and escalators? A.550 B.500 C.450 D.390
55. As per the Union Budget 2017-18, which of the given Railway subsidiaries will be listed in the Stock exchange? A.IRFC B.IRCTC C.IRCON D.All the above
56. As proposed by the government, which of the following will be established to safeguard the financial sector from cyber crime? A.E-Security B.CERT-Fin C.Secure-Fin D.Cybersafe
57. The Union Budget 2017-18 contains 3 major reforms. Which among the following reforms is not one of them? A.Presentation of Budget advanced to 1st February B.Removal of Plan and Non-Plan Classification of expenditure C.Merger of Railways Budget with Finance Budget D.All Are Correct
ANSWER 1 A 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 A 51 B 2 D 12 D 22 A 32 B 42 C 52 A 3 A 13 B 23 C 33 A 43 A 53 C 4 D 14 C 24 A 34 D 44 C 54 B 5 B 15 A 25 C 35 C 45 D 55 D 6 A 16 D 26 A 36 D 46 A 56 B 7 C 17 B 27 C 37 A 47 C 57 D 8 D 18 C 28 A 38 B 48 B 9 C 19 D 29 B 39 A 49 B 10 A 20 B 30 D 40 B 50 A
Page | 13
CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Compiled by Raj Kumar, C.M.(L)
1. Which Payments Bank has appointed former ICICI Bank executive Sudhanshu Jain as its chief financial officer? a) Airtel Payments Bank b) Paytm Payments Bank c) Indian Post Payments Bank d) Fino Payments Bank
2.Who was named the most powerful woman in India as she ranked 32nd in World’s 100 Most Powerful Women list by Forbes? a) Priyanka Chopra b) Shobhana Bhartia c) Shikha Sharma d) Chanda Kochhar
3. Who becomes Asia’s richest person with a total wealth of $42.1 billion? a) Mukesh Ambani b) Azim Premji c) Anil Ambani d) Lakshmi Mittal
4. Which state has been ranked at the top spot by Plan India when it comes to safety of women? a) Haryana b) Gujarat c) Andra Pradesh d) Goa
5. Which state government has announced lifetime monthly pension of Rs 10,000 for ‘Hindi Satyagrahis’ and those from the state who were jailed during the Emergency? a) Bihar b) Haryana c) Jharkhand d) Rajasthan
6.Royal Opera House has been awarded the UNESCO Asia-Pacific Award for Cultural Heritage Conservation; Royal Opera House was located in ______a) New Delhi b) Hyderabad c) Bangalore d) Mumbai
7. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is set to launch its ‘One Nation One Food Law’ initiative, head quarters of FSSAI located in ______a) New Delhi b) Mumbai c) Bangalore d) Hyderabad
8. The government set up a ministerial panel, led by______, to consider and oversee mergers among the country’s 21 state-run banks a) Piyush Goyal b) Nitin Gadkari c) Arun Jaitley d) Urjit Patel
Page | 14
9.. Who won the Senior National Badminton Championships? a) PV Sindhu b) Saina Nehwal c) Jwala Gutta d) Ashwini Ponnappa
10.. Astronaut Richard Gordon who passed away recently, he was from ______a) UK b) Russia c) USA d) France
11.Who has been named as the chairperson of the World Hindu Congress to be held in Chicago next year? a) Kamala Harris b) Mazie Hirono c) Tulsi Gabbard d) Nikki Haley
12. Which state launched new tourism product ‘AyurBodha’, which blends tourism and learning about ayurveda for those visiting the state? a) Karnataka b) Kerala c) Haryana d) Punjab
13. India and ______have jointly launched bilateral connectivity projects for the mutual benefit of both countries a) Nepal b) China c) Japan d) Bangladesh
14. Which state government has launched “SHE PAD” a scheme to distribute free sanitary napkins to female students from classes VI to XII in government as well as aided private schools? a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu c) West Bengal d) Gujarat
15.Union Minister Radha Mohan Singh inaugurated the 1st ever World organic event in India – 19th Organic World Congress 2017 held in ______a) Pune b) Jaipur c) Noida d) Kolkata
16. Which Indian city ranked 1st in Confidence of Business in Digital Transformation? a) Mumbai b) Bangalore c) Chennai d) Hyderabad
17. Which private bank has obtained RBI approval to open representative offices at Kuwait and Singapore recently? a) Federal Bank b) South Indian Bank c) Yes Bank d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
18.. First international AYUSH conference and exhibition held in ______a) Moscow b) Washington c) Beijing d) Dubai
Page | 15
19. Which state government has signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoUs) and Terms of Reference (ToR) with Singapore for skilling youth of the state? a) Assam b) Gujarat c) Rajasthan d) Maharashtra
20. India ranked ____ in the World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap index a) 105 b) 108 c) 114 d) 121
21. The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi inaugurated World Food India 2017, World Food India 2017 held in ______a) Bangalore b) Hyderabad c) New Delhi d) Mumbai
22. Indiana, a State in the US, and ______have signed an agreement to establish sister-state ties for cooperation in economic, educational and cultural fields a) Andra Pradesh b) Karnataka c) Maharashtra d) Rajasthan
23. National Stress Awareness Day was observed on? a) November 01 b) November 02 c) November 03 d) November 04
24.The ninth edition of CMS Vatavaran – an international film festival on environment and wildlife – has begun in ______a) Jaipur b) New Delhi c) Mumbai d) Gurugram
25.Which bank approved USD 2 million loan (Rs. 13,000 crores) for five projects in Andhra Pradesh? a) Asian Development Bank b) World Bank c) New Development Bank d) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
26. A 45 member contingent of the Indian Air Force had left for ______to participate in exercise‘Blue Flag-17’ a) Indonesia b) Iran c) Israel d) Iraq
27.Which bank has launched voice-based international remittance service on its Money2India Application? a) HDFC Bank b) ICICI Bank c) Yes Bank d) Axis Bank
28. India has appointed Ajay Bisaria as the next high commissioner to a) China b) Pakistan c) Australia d) Chile
Page | 16
29.The President of India, Shri Ram Nath Kovind, inaugurated the 21st World Congress of Mental Health in ______a) Pune b) Jaipur c) New Delhi d) Hyderabad
30. A fourteen day joint training exercise “PRABAL DOSTYK – 2017” between the Indian Army and the ______Army commenced with the Opening Ceremony at Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh a) Kazakhstan b) Indonesia c) Sri Lanka d) UK
31.The Dubai-based Bin Zayed group has proposed to invest about ₹12,500 crore in the infrastructure sector in ______a) Rajasthan b) Jharkhand c) Telangana d) West Bengal
32.Which state government announced a cash reward of ₹2 crore to world number two badminton player Kidambi Srikanth for winning four Superseries titles this year? a) Andhra Pradesh b) Gujarat c) Bihar d) Telangana
33. Who has been chosen for this year’s Jnanpith Award? a) Amrita Pritam b) Mannu Bhandari c) Mahadevi Varma d) Krishna Sobti
34. Who was appointed as part-time member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)? a) Sushma Roy b) Shamika Ravi c) Geetha Sindhu d) Suganya Devi
35. Who was named ambassador of the AIBA Women’s Youth World Championships to be held in Guwahati from November 19 to 26? a) Kavita Goyat b) Laishram Sarita Devi c) M C Mary Kom d) Kavita Chahal
36. Which state government has decided to make India’s first conservation reserve for black buck in Allahabad’s Meja? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Himachal Pradesh c) Gujarat d) Assam
37. Which telecom company will shut down voice call service from December 1? a) Docomo b) Idea c) Aircel d) Reliance
Page | 17
38.Which state government has rolled out 647 schemes entailing an investment of Rs 24.57 crore for development of the world’s largest river island Majuli? a) Haryana b) Bihar c) Assam d) Jharkhand
39.Digital payments platform Paytm has launched an in-app messaging service called ______, which allows users to chat with others as well as send and request money a) Inbox b) Message box c) Chat box d) Draft box
40.Which bank unveiled a superior payment wallet service, BHIM Yes Pay by fully integrating the application with all the IndiaStack APIs and NPCI Products? a) Federal Bank b) Yes Bank c) HDFC Bank d) ICICI Bank
41. Walmart India launched its first fulfillment centre in ______a) Hyderabad b) Bangalore c) Mumbai d) Chennai
42.Which state government has decided to formulate a trauma-care scheme in the State wherein all emergency care and treatment will be provided to accident victims free-of-cost for the first 48 hours once the person has been admitted to a hospital? a) Kerala b) Maharashtra c) Karnataka d) Haryana
43.The Indian Air Force, along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully tested an indigenously developed light weight ‘Glide’ bomb in ______a) Rajasthan b) Andra Pradesh c) Gujarat d) Odisha
44. World’s Third Largest Book Fair Opens in ______a) Sharjah b) Dubai c) Abu Dhabi d) Riyadh
Page | 18
45.Which state government and German Asia-Pacific Business Association (OAV) signed a memorandum of understanding in New Delhi to establish a task force to support its state in its development of food and agriculture sectors? a) Maharashtra b) Andra Pradesh c) Kerala d) Haryana
46. How many Indian women’s have featured on the list of the world’s 100 most powerful women compiled by Forbes? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
47. Which bank has signed an agreement with the government to provide Rs 1,000 crore financing for food processing projects? a) Kotak Mahindra Bank b) ICICI Bank c) Axis Bank d) Yes Bank
48. American digital payments company PayPal launched domestic operations in ______a) Sri Lanka b) India c) China d) Pakistan
49. 7th Asia Ministerial Energy Roundtable (AMER) held in ______a) Iran b) China c) Thailand d) Malaysia
50. The first-ever Seoul- India Friendship Festival will be held in ______a) Jaipur b) Mumbai c) Hyderabad d) Gurugram
51. Prime Minister Saad Hariri has resigned from his post, he was the Prime Minister of a) Lebanon b) Jordan c) Egypt d) Libya
52. Gagan Narang won ______medal in the men’s 50m rifle prone event of the Commonwealth Shooting Championships in Gold Coast a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) None of these
53. Shahzar Rizvi and Omkar Singh related to which sports? a) Boxing b) Hockey c) Badminton d) Shooting
Page | 19
54. India’s Achanta Sharath Kamal and G Sathiyan won a ______medal each at the prestigious 2017 Challenge Belgium Open Table Tennis tournament in De Haan (Belgium) a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) None of these
55. Who won the Fatima Bin Mubarak Ladies Open golf title 2017? a) Shanshan Feng b) Aditi Ashok c) Michelle Wie d) Brooke Henderson
56.National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) organised a cultural evening – “Ek Shaam Ganga ke Naam” in ______a) Mumbai b) Kanpur c) Jaipur d) New Delhi
57.______Skill Development Authority (OSDA) and Singapore-based ITE Education Services (ITEES) signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) for skill development in the State a) Haryana b) Odisha c) Jharkhand d) Gujarat
58.The 1st Heli Expo India and International Civil Helicopter Conclave-2017 is inaugurated in a) Mumbai b) Bangalore c) Hyderabad d) New Delhi
59.The two-day Coastal Security Exercise ‘Sagar Kavach’ is scheduled on November 8 and 9 in a) Goa b) Tamil Nadu c) Maharashtra d) Kerala
60. “FIPSPHYSIOCON 2017”, Conference on Human Physiology – VII Congress held in ______a) Bangalore b) Pune c) New Delhi d) Hyderabad
61. Which of the following biryani gets its own India Post Stamp recently? a) Hyderabadi biryani b) Ambur biryani c) Malabar biryani d) Kolkata biryani
62. Which state to Host Nobel Prize Event in February 2018? a) Andra Pradesh b) Goa c) Telangana d) Maharashtra
Page | 20
63.The Indian and the Bangladeshi army are all set to take part in an intensive combat exercise______at India’s Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School at Vairengte in Mizoram a) Surya Kiran b) Mithra Shakti c) Khanjar d) Sampriti
64. World Tsunami Awareness Day was observed on? a) November 05 b) November 06 c) November 07 d) November 08
65. Which country will begin construction of the world’s highest planetarium next year? a) India b) China c) Russia d) USA
66. Which country won the women’s Asia Cup hockey title? a) Malaysia b) China c) India d) Pakistan
67.Who was felicitated with the prestigious Vishnudas Bhave award for his contribution to theatre? a) Anil Nagrath b) Mukesh Rishi c) Mohan Joshi d) Shakti Kapoor
68. Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple in Srirangam has won the UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit 2017 for cultural heritage conservation, the temple located in ______a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala c) Andra Pradesh d) Karnataka
69. Who has been appointed as Finance Secretary? a) Pradeep Kumar Sinha b) Nripendra Misra c) Santosh Gangwar d) Hasmukh Adhia
70.The Indian Railways has launched the main arch of the world’s highest bridge on the River______in Jammu and Kashmir a) Jhelum b) Chenab c) Indus d) Ganges
71. A memorandum of understanding (MoU) of ______Crore was signed between the Government of India (GoI) and Patanjali at the World Food India 2017 a) 3000 b) 5000 c) 8000 d) 10000
Page | 21
72. Tata Steel has established India’s largest Coke Dry Quenching (CDQ) facility at its state-of-the-art steel plant in ______a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat c) Odisha d) Rajasthan
73.Which Bank has made online transactions through RTGS and NEFT free of cost from November 1, with an aim to promote a digital economy? a) HDFC Bank b) ICICI Bank c) Yes Bank d) Axis Bank
74. Which Bank announced the launch of India’s first voice-based international remittance service to enable non-resident Indians (NRIs) to send money to any bank in India? a) Axis Bank b) Yes Bank c) State Bank of India d) ICICI Bank
75.Which country will introduce biometric checks nationwide for mobile telephone users to register their SIM cards? a) China b) Japan c) Thailand d) Russia
76.The Minister of State (Independent Charge) Youth Affairs and Sports Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore attend World Youth Forum in ______a) Israel b) Egypt c) Chile d) Germany
77. Anjum Moudgil won ______medal in the women’s 50m Rifle Prone a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) None of these
78.Actor Vettoor Purushan who passed away recently, he was a famous actor in ______film industry a) Tamil b) Telugu c) Kannada d) Malayalam
79. Karen Ibasco won hearts Miss Earth 2017, she belongs to ______a) USA b) Russia c) Philippines d) Spain
80.Who has been awarded Israel’s 2018 Genesis Prize? a) Mila Kunis b) Natalie Portman c) Keira Knightley d) Emma Stone
Page | 22
81.Who has been chosen by the Prague Writers Festival (PWF) to represent India at its annual literary conclave to be held at the European city of Spires? a) Inderjit Badhwar b) Palagummi Sainath c) Arun Shourie d) Rajdeep Sardesai
82. In which state all coaching institutions in the state will be prohibited from functioning after 8 pm in order to ensure the safety of students? a) Punjab b) Maharashtra c) Madya Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh
83. Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu will inaugurate the 9th Agrovision Summit in ______a) Jaipur b) Kolkata c) Hyderabad d) Nagpur
84. India has pledged an additional ______million US Dollar towards the UN partnership fund, significantly scaling up it support to sustainable development projects across the developing world a) 100 b) 250 c) 300 d) 500
85.The India Pavilion at Conference of Parties (COP) 23 was inaugurated by Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Dr. Harsh Vardhan in ______a) USA b) Germany c) Canada d) Russia
86. ______has launched the ‘Grahak Sadak Koyla Vitaran App’ aimed at benefitting customers of the company that are being supplied coal by road a) Bharat Cooking Coal b)Eastern Coalfields c) Coal India d) Western Coalfields
87. The National Association of Software and Services Companies (Nasscom) will be hosting ninth edition of Nasscom Game Developer Conference (NGDC) — 2017 in ______a) Hyderabad b) Mumbai c) Chennai d) Bangalore
Page | 23
88. India has conducted a flight test of its indigenously designed and developed long-range sub-sonic cruise missile ‘Nirbhay’ in ______a) Andra Pradesh b) Maharashtra c) Tamil Nadu d) Odisha
89. Who won the Panasonic Open golf title 2017? a) Anirban Lahiri b) Gaganjeet Bhullar c) Shiv Kapur d) Jeev Milkha Singh
90. Hockey India has announced a cash award of ______each to the 18- member Indian women's hockey team following their Asia Cup triumph a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 500000 d) 1000000
91. India won total of _____ medals in the Commonwealth Shooting Championship 2017 a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 20
92. The Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh chaired the second meeting of Island Development Agency (IDA) in ______a) Bangalore b) Hyderabad c) New Delhi d) Chennai
93______is the third Indian city on the list of UNESCO Creative Cities list after Jaipur and Varanasi a) Pune b) Kolkata c) Bangalore d) Chennai
94.Second Technology and Innovation Support Center (TISC) of India established in a) Chennai b) Kochi c) Jaipur d) Hyderabad
95. Which city was the world's 21st most visited city of 2016 with 7.4 million international travellers, according to market research firm Euromonitor International? a) Mumbai b) Delhi c) Bangalore d) Hyderabad
Page | 24
96. Which ministry launched an online complaint management system titled Sexual Harassment electronic–Box (SHe-Box) for registering complaints related to sexual harassment at workplace? a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare b) Ministry of Labour and Employment c) Ministry of Women and Child Development d) Ministry of Minority Affairs
97. Which state will be the first state to use EVMs with VVPAT machines on all booths during assembly elections? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Haryana c) Gujarat d) Himachal Pradesh
98. In ‘Business Optimism’ index India ranked _____ in the September quarter, from the 2nd slot in the previous three months a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
99. Which city has banned begging for two months, starting November 7 till January 7, citing danger to safety of vehicular traffic and general public? a) Hyderabad b) Bangalore c) New Delhi d) Jaipur
100.The US has announced a grant of nearly USD 500,000 for a non- governmental organisation to come up with proposals to develop early warning systems for “reducing religiously-motivated violence and discrimination” in ______a) Pakistan b) India c) China d) Bangladesh
101.Which insurance company was conferred with the 21st Asia Insurance Industry Awards in the “General Insurance Company of the Year” category? a) HDFC ERGO General Insurance Company b) Bajaj Allianz General Insurance c) Star Health and Allied Insurance d) Apollo Munich Health Insurance Company
102. Which city retained its spot as the world's most visited city for the 9th consecutive year? a) Hong Kong b) Washington c) Paris d) London
103. Which Indian short film has won the ‘Best Short Film Award’ at the South Asian Film Festival of Montreal (SAFFM)? a) Black Mirror b) Bypass c) The School Bag d) Rastaa
Page | 25
104. Which country becomes new member of International Solar Alliance? a) Sweden b) Poland c) Ukraine d) Guinea
105. Mary Kom won the ______medal in the Asian Boxing Championships in the Light Flyweight category a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) None of these
ANSWER KEY
1 B 11 c 21 c 31 c 41 c 51 a 61 a 71 d 81 a 91 d 101 d 2 D 12 b 22 b 32 a 42 a 52 b 62 b 72 c 82 c 92 c 102 a 3 A 13 d 23 a 33 d 43 d 53 d 63 d 73 a 83 d 93 d 103 c 4 D 14 a 24 b 34 b 44 a 54 c 64 a 74 d 84 a 94 a 104 d 5 B 15 c 25 d 35 c 45 b 55 b 65 b 75 c 85 b 95 b 105 a 6 D 16 b 26 c 36 a 46 c 56 d 66 c 76 b 86 c 96 c 7 A 17 a 27 b 37 d 47 d 57 b 67 c 77 c 87 a 97 d 8 C 18 d 28 b 38 c 48 b 58 d 68 a 78 d 88 d 98 a 9 B 19 a 29 c 39 a 49 c 59 a 69 d 79 c 89 c 99 a 10 C 20 b 30 a 40 b 50 d 60 c 70 b 80 b 90 b 100 b
Page | 26
CURRENT AFFAIRS Compiled by Raj Kumar , Chief Manager (L) 1.Who has been unanimously elected President of the India Chapter of the International Advertising Association (IAA)? a) Santhosh Kumar b) Harish Venkat c) Ramesh Narayan d) Dinesh Bangar
2. India and the European Union hold their 14th summit talks on ______a) Mumbai b) New Delhi c) Hyderabad d) Bangalore
3.India will receive its first ever shipment of US crude oil when a very large crude carrier (VLCC) docks at Paradip port in ______a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra c) Andra Pradesh d) Odisha
4. Which country ban the wearing of Islamic face veils in public places came into effect? a) Austria b) Sweden c) USA d) Japan
5.All India Radio (AIR) has announced plans to expand its global operations and launch new services in ______a) Japan b) Canada c) Germany d) All of the above
6. Which country celebrated its 68th national day on October 1? a) Nepal b) Singapore c) China d) Canada
7. International Day of Older Persons was observed on? a) October 04 b) October 03 c) October 02 d) October 01
8. Who won the Malaysian Grand Prix title 2017? a) Max Verstappen b) Lewis Hamilton
Page | 27 c) Sebastian Vettel d) Nico Rosberg
9.President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the Shirdi airport in Ahmednagar district of a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra c) Kerala d) Jharkhand
10.Who won the World Open Under-16 Snooker Championship titles in women’s category? a) Vidya Pillai b) Arantxa Sanchis c) Anupama Ramachandran d) Priya Agarwal
11.______won the 2017 Nobel Medicine Prize for their work on internal biological clocks known as the circadian rhythm a) Jeffrey C Hall b) Michael Rosbash c) Michael W Young d) All of the above
12. Brenda Hale has been sworn in as first female president of the _____ Supreme Court a) USA b) UK c) Australia d) Saudi Arabia
13. The Meenakshi Sundareswarar Temple has been adjudged best ‘Swachh Iconic Place’ in India as on October 1, the temple located in ______a) Coimbatore b) Chennai c) Madurai d) Trichy
14.The World Health Organisation announced ______as its Deputy Director General, the second-highest position at the UN's health agency a) Soumya Swaminathan b) Priya Maheshwaran c) Gayathri Krishnan d) Ramya Ranganathan
15.Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City)’s International Financial Services Centre(IFSC) has bagged the ____ spot in the latest edition of Global Financial Centres Index a) Fifth b) Seventh c) Ninth d) Tenth
Page | 28
16.Which state government has launched the Mathru Poorna scheme meant to meet the nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating mothers? a) Karnataka b) Kerala c) Punjab d) Haryana
17. ______have been awarded the 2017 Nobel Prize in Physics a) Rainer Weiss b) Barry C Barish c) Kip S Thorne d) All of the above
18. Global Entrepreneurship Summit, which will be held November 28-30 in ______a) Bangalore b) Mumbai c) Hyderabad d) New Delhi
19.President Ram Nath Kovind has appointed a five-member Committee to examine sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes, the Committee will be headed by ______a) B Archana b) G Rohini c) K Ramya d) D Nafeesa
20. ______has been recognised as the country’s best Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) company in the food sector a) Kwality b) Aavin c) Amul d) Mother
21. Reserve Bank has opened a banking ombudsman office in _____ recently a) Pune b) Kochi c) Lucknow d) Dehradun
22.The Railways Ministry has decided to extend service charge exemption on train tickets booked online till ______a) March 2018 b) January 2018 c) December 2017 d) November 2017
23. International Non-Violence Day was observed on? a) October 01 b) October 02 c) October 03 d) October 04
24.______and India will undertake a joint tiger census next month in their national parks, forests and protected areas adjoining the two countries using a globally-recognised method a) China b) Bangladesh c) Nepal d) Sri Lanka
25.Former Indian cricketer ______has reportedly been approached by the Afghanistan Cricket Board (ACB) for the post of the team's head coach a) Anil Kumble b) Mohammad Kaif
Page | 29 c) Rahul Dravid d) Virender Sehwag
26.______won the 2017 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for developing cryo-electron microscopy, which simplifies and improves the imaging of biomolecules a) Jacques Dubochet b) Joachim Frank c) Richard Henderson d) All of the above
27.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) announced appointment of______as the new Director for the United Kingdom (UK) operations a) Param Shah b) Vinay Mishra c) Milan Vikram d) Harish Rawat
28. Who has been appointed as new chairman of State Bank of India? a) Arun Kumar b) Rajnish Kumar c) Naveen Kumar d) Kamlesh Kumar
29. The Centre has approved setting up a turtle sanctuary in ______a) Varanasi b) Lucknow c) Allahabad d) Pune
30.The Union Cabinet has given its approval for the signing and ratification of the Extradition Treaty between India and ______a) Sweden b) Germany c) Bangladesh d) Lithuania
31.Cabinet apprised of the MoU between India and ______on technical cooperation in rail sector a) Switzerland b) Australia c) Japan d) China
32.Cabinet approved MoU on upgradation of the women's police training centre at Yamethin, a) Malaysia b) Maldives c) Myanmar d) Nepal
33.Which country has launched the world’s largest nuclear-powered icebreaker ship in a bid to expand its strategic presence in the resource- rich, terrain of the Arctic? a) India b) Russia c) USA d) UK
34. What is the Repo Rate on October 07 2017? a) 6.50% b) 6.25% c) 6.00% d) 5.75%
Page | 30
35.______has signed USD 4.5 billion third line of credit (LoC) agreement with India for its infrastructure and social sector development a) Nepal b) Bangladesh c) Singapore d) Sri Lanka
36.Which country designed a law to combat hate speech on social media platforms has come into force? a) Germany b) Japan c) North Korea d) Australia
37. Jalal Talabani who passed away recently, he was a former president of a) Iran b) Indonesia c) Qatar d) Iraq
38. Who won the Nobel Literature Prize 2017? a) Mark Romanek b) Kazuo Ishiguro c) Ian McEwan d) Julian Barnes
39. The 2017 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to ______a) American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) b) UN high commission for refugees c)Lions Club International d) International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN)
40. Who becomes first Indian journalist to win Anna Politkovskaya Award? a) Gauri Lankesh b) Barkha Dutt c) Nidhi Razdan d) Madhu Trehan
41. Zafar Mehmood Abbasi has took charge as new naval chief Admiral of ______a) Bangladesh b) Nepal c) Pakistan d) Saudi Arabia
42.In an attempt to boost cultural ties, a memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed by______under the ‘Ek Bharat, Shrestha Bharat’ programme a) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala b) Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya c) Madya Pradesh, Andra Pradesh and Manipur d) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu
Page | 31
43. Centre has set up a high-level committee for proper management of water resources in the North-Eastern region. The Committee will be headed by a) Rajiv Kumar b) Arvind Panagariya c) Pravin Krishna d) Amitabh Kant
44. First Edition of the ASEAN India Music Festival held in ______a) Bangalore b) Mumbai c) New Delhi d) Hyderabad
45. Which bank has entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) for enabling all HPCL retail outlets with BHIM/UPI merchant solutions? a) Canara Bank b) Vijaya Bank c) UCO Bank d) Andra Bank
46.The 8th conference of the Association of SAARC Speakers and Parliamentarians (ASSP) took place from October 4 to 6 in ______a) India b) Bhutan c) Nepal d) Sri Lanka
47. Matam Venkata Rao took charge as Executive Director of ______a) Canara Bank b) Dena Bank c) Syndicate Bank d) Vijaya Bank
48..Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu inaugurated the third International Conference on Yoga in a) Mumbai b) Hyderabad c) Bangalore d) New Delhi
49. Which insurance company has announced the launch of ‘Eazy Connect’ that will extend online customer service to social media platforms? a) HDFC Life b) SBI Life c) Tata AIA Life d) IDBI Federal Life
Page | 32
50.The World Government Summit announced that ______is a guest country in its upcoming gathering a) Australia b) Bangladesh c) China d) India
51.Digital payments firm ______has announced its partnership with IRCTC Rail connect app, which will allow customers book railway tickets using the former’s payment gateway a) Freecharge b) Paytm c) Mobikwik d) Recharge
52. ______has announced the launch of India’s first online bidding platform for residential and commercial properties a) Magicbricks b) Housing.com c) Quikr d) Property Wala
53.______is the first law firm to have opened an office at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) a) Luthra & Luthra b) S&R Associates c) AZB & Partners d) J Sagar Associates
54. World Teachers’ Day was observed on? a) October 05 b) October 06 c) October 07 d) October 08
55.The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) will set up a research centre in ______for start ups, academicians, environmentalists and entrepreneurs
a) Chennai b) Patna c) Guwahati d) Kochi
56.Pooja Kadian has bagged India’s first ever ______medal at Wushu World Championships in Russia a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) None of these
57. Kundan Shah who passed away recently was a/an a) Politician b) Author c) Movie Director d) Economist
58. Purushottam Lal Kaushik who passed away recently was a/an a) Journalist b) Scientist c) Actor d) Politician
59. Who has been appointed as CEO of Freecharge? a) Harish Singh b) Sangram Singh c) Vivekram Singh d) Dineshram Singh
Page | 33
60. President launched 100 crore rupees Mata Amritanandamayi Math Project “Jeevamritham “to provide filtration system for cleaning drinking water to 5000 villages in ______a) Kerala b) Maharashtra c) Meghalaya d) Karnataka
61.The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has unveiled a plaque to mark the laying of Foundation Stone of Bhadbhut Barrage over the River ______a) Ganges b) Yamuna c) Narmada d) Godavari
62. The First Meeting of India-Australia Joint Steering Committee was held in ______a) Bangalore b) Hyderabad c) Mumbai d) New Delhi
63.Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has launched the Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) in ______a) Gujarat b) Haryana c) Jharkhand d) Uttar Pradesh
64.Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the setting up of India's first marine police training institute in ______a) Punjab b) Rajasthan c) Madya Pradesh d) Gujarat
65. The Indian Air Force (IAF) is celebrating its 85th anniversary day on ______a) October 08 b) October 07 c) October 06 d) October 05
66. The world’s top oil exporter Saudi Aramco has opened an office in India in ______a) Hyderabad b) Kochi c) Gurugram d) Chennai
67.______is reportedly planning to start selling medicines online, according to an email from the e-commerce giant a) Amazon b) Flipkart c) Snapdeal d) Shopclues
68. India and ______have signed agreements on trade, communication and media a) Kazakhstan b) Ethiopia c) Libya d) Indonesia
Page | 34
69. Who won the China open title 2017? a) Roger Federer b) Andy Murray c) Rafael Nadal d) Novak Djokovic
70. Who won the Japan grand prix title 2017? a) Sebastian Vettel b) Nico Rosberg c) Max Verstappen d) Lewis Hamilton
71. Who won the Nobel Prize in Economics 2017? a) Dale Jorgenson b) Robert Barro c) Richard H. Thaler d) Martin Feldstein
72. Who has been conferred with the ‘Cross of the Order of Merit’, the highest civilian honour awarded to individuals for their services to Germany? a) Rajesh Nath b) Mukesh Nath c) Sanjay Nath d) Charan Nath
73.Which state government providing financial assistance of ₹2 lakh to widows who want to remarry? a) Andra Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh c) Rajasthan d) Madhya Pradesh
74.Who has been appointed as MD and CEO of PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd (PNB MetLife)? a) Ragunath Mishra b) Ashish Srivastava c) Gowtham Krishna d) Yokesh Varma
75.The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated e-commerce firms to settle seller payments within ______days from the date of intimation of completion of transaction a) Seven b) Five c) Three d) Two
76.Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu inaugurated a two-day International Blockchain Business Conference in ______a) Vijayawada b) Hyderabad c) Vishakhapatnam d) Nandyal
Page | 35
77.In which state, the Department of Tourism has launched a three-year long Continuous Tourist Survey (CTS) from this year? a) Maharashtra b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Andra Pradesh
78. The country’s first portal dedicated to para-sports was launched named a) nationspride.com b) nationsports.com c) nationsgame.com d) nationswealth.com
79. International conference on “Dialogue of Civilizations – IV” held in ______a) Mumbai b) Indore c) Chennai d) New Delhi
ANSWER KEY
1 C 11 d 21 d 31 a 41 c 51 c 61 c 71 c 2 b 12 b 22 a 32 c 42 b 52 a 62 d 72 a 3 d 13 c 23 b 33 b 43 a 53 d 63 a 73 d 4 a 14 a 24 c 34 c 44 c 54 a 64 d 74 b 5 d 15 d 25 b 35 b 45 d 55 c 65 a 75 d 6 c 16 a 26 d 36 a 46 b 56 a 66 c 76 c 7 d 17 d 27 a 37 d 47 a 57 c 67 a 77 b 8 a 18 c 28 b 38 b 48 d 58 d 68 b 78 a 9 b 19 b 29 c 39 d 49 c 59 b 69 c 79 d 10 c 20 c 30 d 40 a 50 d 60 a 70 d
Page | 36
QUESTIONNAIRE ON OUR ORGANISATION STRUCTURE Compiled by Raj Kumar Chief Manager(Learning)
1. SBI’s Registered office and Central Accounts Office situated at………. a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Chennai
2. SBI’s Corporate Centre office situated at…… a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Chennai
3. Corporate Centre is Headed by…… a) Chairman b) DMD c) MD d) CGM
4. Bank’s Domestic Operational area is divided how many circles ? a) 10 b) 11 c) 13 d) 16
5. Presently how many foreign Banking Subsidiaries we have? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
6. Presently how many Non banking Subsidiaries we have? a) 20 b) 18 c) 19 d) 17
7. How many joint ventures we have? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
8. How many Business Groups formed in the corporate centre? a) 10 b) 4 c) 5 d) 9
9. How many strategic business units consist in Corporate Banking Group (CBG)? a)2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
10.How many regional centers we have for Corporate Accounting Group (CAG) a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
11.Corporate Accounting Group (CAG)Headed By ……… a) CGM b) GM c) DGM d) AGM
12.Corporate Accounting Group Deals with ------credit. a) Large b) Small and Marginal c) Medium d) Marginal
Page | 37
13.What is the percentage of CAG Fund based outstanding in total credit portfolio of the Bank? a) 10 b) 15 c) 21 d) 25
14.In “SBI FAST” what is full form of FAST? a) Funds Available in Short Term b) Financial Availability in System Term c) Funds Availability in Short Time d) Financial Availability of Short Time
15. SBI FAST is Cash Management Product (CMP) under control of______a) National Banking Group (NBG) b) Mid Corporate Group c)Transaction Banking Group (TBG) d) Global Market Department
16. How many strategic units in National Banking Group(NBG)? a) 6 b) 9 c) 14 d) 5
17. How many Managing Directors (MD) under Chairman? a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7
18. LHO headed by…….. a) CGM b) GM c) MD d) DMD
19. How many Apex Training Institutes (ATI) available in our bank? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
20. How many SBLC’s across the country? a) 47 b) 48 c) 49 d) 54
21. International Banking Group (IBG) is spread across how many countries? a) 37 b) 46 c) 56 d) 66
22. How many foreign offices across the globe we have? a) 180 b) 198 c) 200 d) 210
23. Inspection and Management Audit in corporate centre headed by______a) MD b) DMD c) CGM d) GM 24. Module headed by______a) DGM(CDO) b) DGM(B&O) c) DGM(CCO) d) DGM(CFO)
Page | 38
25. RBO’s headed by______a) Regional Manager b) DGM c) Chief Manager (admin) d) Chief Manager (sanctions)
26. “All India Rural Credit Survey Committee” known as ______Committee? a) Gorawala Committee b) Godbole committee c) Chore Committee d) Goiporia Committee
27. Who is the chairman of Executive Committee of Central Board (ECCB) ? a) Chairman b) DMD c) CGM d) MD
28. Who is Chief Executive Officer of the Bank? a) Chairman b) DMD c) MD d) CGM
29. Who is presiding Executive of Central Management Committee (CENMAC)? a) MD b) DMD c) Chairman d) CGM
30. Circle Management Committee (Cir MAC) presided by______a) CGM b) GM c) DGM&CDO d) DGM(CFO)
31. Who is the largest non promoter shareholder in SBI a) LIC b) Tata India Ltd c) IDBI d) ICICI
32. Which is not a Strategic Business Unit of Corporate Accounts Group? a) Project Finance & Leasing SBU, b) Transaction Banking Unit c)Corporate Accounts Group d) SMEBU
33. Transaction Banking Unit has a special focus on ------. a)Cash Management Product, b)Trade Finance c)Supply Chain (Dealer/Vendor) Finance d) All of these
34. Mid Corporate Group (MCG) primarily caters to the banking needs of Mid Corporate, with a turnover of Rs.------crore and above or whose Fund based and Non Fund Based requirements exceeds.------crore. a) 50, 10 b) 100, 20 c) 20, 5 d) 40, 10
35. Stressed Assets Management Group (SAMG), has been set up to take over all NPAs with outstanding of Rs.------crore and above. a)10 b)20 c)25 d) 50
Page | 39
36 SBI General is a joint venture between SBI and a) IAG Australia b) GE Capital c) SBI Caps d) Society General
37. SBI cards and Payment services Ltd is a joint venture with a) BNP Paribas b) GE Capital c) IAG Australia d) Indian Railway
38. SBI Life Insurance is a joint venture between the State Bank of India and ______. a) BNP Paribas b) GE Capital c) IAG Australia d) Society General
39. Cross Selling Department is a part of ------Group at Corporate Level. a)NBG b)CAG c)RBU d)MCG
40. Bank's customer contact centre is not located in ______
a) Bangalore b) Hyderabad c) Kolkata d) Mumbai
ANSWER KEY
1 a 11 b 21 a 31 a 2 a 12 a 22 c 32 d 3 a 13 c 23 b 33 d 4 d 14 a 24 b 34 a 5 d 15 c 25 a 35 a 6 a 16 d 26 a 36 a 7 d 17 b 27 a 37 b 8 c 18 a 28 a 38 a 9 b 19 b 29 c 39 a 10 a 20 d 30 a 40 c
Page | 40
LOAN POLICY 2017-2018 Compiled by Sh. Upinder Singh , C. M. (L)
1 Provisions of Bank's loan policy are applicable to - a. The Domestic Operations b. The International Operations c. Both of the above d. None of the above
2. Bank's loan policy is approved by a. The Chairman b. MD (NBG) c. The Central Board d. None of the above
3. Bank's loan policy may be reviewed a. Once in a Year b. Twice in a Year c. Thrice in a Year d. Can not be reviewed
4. How many chapters are there in Loan policy 2017-2018 a. 12 b. 18 c. 20 d. 22
5. All new Loan Products are approved by___ a. Credit Policy and Procedure Department b. Risk Management Department c. Respective Business Units d. Central Recruitment & Promotion Deptt
6. NBG Branches would normally handle - a. Personal Segment Products b. Agricultural loans under RBU c. SME segment upto Rs.50 crores. d. All of the above
7. MCG Branches shall normally handle proposals for exposure of - a. Above Rs. 25 crores and up to Rs. 500 crores. b. Above Rs. 50 crores and up to Rs. 500 crores. c. Above Rs. 25 crores and up to Rs. 250 crores. d. Above Rs. 50 crores and up to Rs. 250 crores.
8. CAG Branches shall normally handle proposals for exposure of - a. Above Rs. 100 crores and up to Rs. 2500 crores b. Above Rs. 250 crores and up to Rs. 5000 crores c. Above Rs. 500 crores and up to Rs. 5000 crores d. Above Rs. 500 crores
Page | 41
9. The cut off limit for classifying a borrower as non-cooperative is aggregate fund- based and non-fund based facilities of Rs. _____ crores from the Bank. a. 5.00 b. 10.00 c. 1.00 d. No such cut off Limit
10. In terms of _____of ______, the Bank cannot grant any loans and advances on the security of its own shares. a. Section 20 of RBI Act b. Section 18 of Company Act 2013 c. Section 21 of NI Act d. Section 20(1) of the BR Act
11. In terms of _____of ______, the Bank cannot grant loans and advances to the directors a. Section 20 of RBI Act b. Section 18 of The Companies Act 2013 c. Section 21 of NI Act d. Section 20(1) of the BR Act
12. Can Advances against Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) issued by other banks be granted a. Yes b. No c. Can be granted after taking approval from the Controller d. Can be granted if Loan Amount is upto Rs.10.00 lakhs
13. If a company holds 51% or more shareholding in another company, the other company becomes its______a. Subsidiary b. Associate c. Both of the above d. None of the above
14. If a company holds significant shareholding (say 20% or more but less than 50%) in another, the other company becomes its ______a. Subsidiary b. Associate c. Both of the above d. None of the above
15. What is ceiling of Exposure in case of a single borrower. a.5% of Bank’s Capital Funds + an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects. b.10% of Bank’s Capital Funds + an additional 5% for infrastructure projects. c.10% of Bank’s Capital Funds + an additional 10% for infrastructure projects d.15% of Bank’s Capital Funds + an additional 5% for credit to infrastructure projects. 16. As per Bank’s Loan Policy, what is the exposure ceiling in case of a “borrower group.”
Page | 42
a. 10% of Bank’s capital Funds plus an additional 10% for infrastructure projects b. 20% of Bank’s capital Funds plus an additional 10% for infrastructure projects c. 30% of Bank’s capital Funds plus an additional 10% for infrastructure projects d. 40% of Bank’s capital Funds plus an additional 10% for infrastructure projects
17. Non-corporate borrower includes… a. Partnership, Trust, JHFs & Clubs b. Partnership, Trust, JHFs & Societies c. Partnership, Trust, JHFs & LLPs d. Partnership, Trust, JHFs & Associations
18. Maxium Ceiling on Aggregate Exposure prescribed for Individual Borrowers is Rs. ____crores. However, for Ship Breaking and Diamond Industry the cap shall be Rs. ____ crores. a. 25; 50 b. 50; 100 c. 100; 200 d. As per prudential norms prescribed by RBI.
19. Maxium Ceiling on Aggregate Exposure prescribed for Non-Corporate Borrowers is Rs. ____crores. However, for Renewable Energy Projects the cap shall be Rs. ____ crores, and for Ship Breaking and Diamond Industry the cap shall be Rs. ____ crores. a. 100; 50; 200 b. 50; 100; 200 c. 200; 50; 100 d. As per prudential norms prescribed by RBI.
20. Maxium Ceiling on Aggregate Exposure prescribed for Corporate Borrowers is Rs. ____crores. a. 1000 b. 5000 c.10000 d. As per prudential norms prescribed by RBI.
21. ____ is excluded from the purview of exposure ceiling a. Loans against shares and bonds b. Asset Backed Loan c. Loans against NSC/KVP d. Loans against Bank’s own TDR/STDRs.
22. ______will fix the actual exposure level for ‘Specific industry’ based on the near term outlook for that industry a. Credit Policy and Procedure Department b. Risk Management Department c. Respective Business Units d. Central Recruitment & Promotion Deptt
Page | 43
23. Loans to individuals against equity oriented securities shall not exceed Rs.___lakhs if securities are held in physical form and Rs.____ lakhs if held in demat form. a. 5 , 10 b. 30 , 50 c. 10 , 20 d. 20 , 30
24. The assessment of working Capital Finance is done through – 1. PBS Method 2. Cash Budget Method and 3. Turnover Method a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
25. Cash Budget method is used for assessing WC finance for industries like – 1. Trade 2. Manufacturing 3. Seasonal Industries 4. Services a. 2 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 only d. 3 and 4
26. The turnover method, where WC requirement is computed at a minimum of 25% of turnover is applicable for sanction of fund based WC Limit upto Rs______a. 1 Crore b. 5 Crores c. 10 Crores d. 25 Crores
27. The working capital facilities sanctioned but not availed within a period of ____ months from the date of sanction would lapse, and require revalidation. a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. No need of revalidation
28. Collateral free loan to eligible borrower under CGTMSE are provided by Bank. Loan upto Rs.____ are mandatorily covered under CGTMSE a. 25 lakhs b. 50 lakhs c. 100 lakhs d. 200 lakhs
29. The desired indicative level of liquidity (Current) Ratio for manufacturing unit is a. 1.00 b. 1.17 c. 1.20 d. 1.33
30. The desired indicative level of liquidity (Current) Ratio for trading unit is a. 1.00 b. 1.17 c. 1.20 d. 1.33
Page | 44
31. Banks guarantees are generally issued/ renewed valid for a period not exceeding ____ months at any one instance. a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 60 months
32. Bank Guarantees can be issued up to a maximum period of _____. a. 36 months b. 60 months c. 84 months d. 120 months
33. Maturity of Term Loans normally should not exceed___ . a. 5 years b. 6 years c. 8 years d. 10 years
34. CERSAI- Central Electronic Registry is formed under which Act ? a. DRT ACT b. SARFAESI ACT c. INDIAN CONTRACT ACT d. N I ACT
35. Bank has the right to cancel the sanctioned limit without referring to the borrower- What is this called? a. Right of Recompense b.Bankers right of lien c. Unconditional cancelability clause d.Right to Set-Off
36. It is mandatory to obtain External Credit Rating for all exposures of Rs._____and above a. 1 Crore b. 5 Crores c. 10 Crores d. 25 Crores
37. Working Capital facilities are generally granted for a period of __ from the date of sanction a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 18 months
38. While taking over of advance under AGRI segment, the account should be standard asset in the books of Other bank/FI during preceding______a. 1 Year b. 2 years c. 3 Years d. 4 years
39. Accounts sanctioned/disbursed and where repayment has commenced during the financial year and slipped into NPA category within the first 2 years of sanction/repayment fall in the category of- a. SMA b. AUCA c. Quick Mortality d. Doubtful Assets
Page | 45
40. RBI guidelines and instructions on WILFUL Defaulters applies to all loan accounts where outstanding is Rs.____and above. a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs c. 25 lakhs d. 50 lakhs
41. What would you classify a Limited Liability Partnership Concern as a. Individual b. Corporate c. Non Corporate d. Partnership
42. On foreclosure of Home loan the prepayment penalty is – a. 1% of the o/s b. 2% of the o/s c. 0.5 % of the o/s d. NIL 43. Under Agri segment waiver of collateral is permitted upto Rs. ____lakhs a. 1 lakh b. 2 lakhs c. 3 lakhs d. 5 lakhs
44. Standalone Term Loan need to be reviewed every a. 6 months b. year c. 2 years d. Need not be reviewed
45. Term Loans sanctioned and not availed within ____ months from the date of sanction need revalidation. a. One Month b. Three Months c. Six Months d. No need of revalidation
46. The cost of guarantee cover for WC Limits (upto Rs. 50.00 lakhs) is borne by the ____. a. Bank b. Borrower c. Both in ratio of 50:50 d. None of the above
47. Working capital limits above Rs. 50 lakhs and upto Rs. _____ lakhs are also to be covered under CGTMSE provided the Borrower agrees to bear the guarantee fee. a. 100.00 b. 200.00 c. 250.00 d. No cap on amount
48. The guarantee fee for term loans irrespective of loan amount is to be borne by the ______. a. Bank b. Borrower c. Both in ratio of 50:50 d. None of the above
Page | 46
49. ESR covers review of all loans above Rs. _____ lakhs and upto Rs. ____ lakhs a. 50; 500 b. 25; 500 c. 50; 1000 d. 25; 1000
50. ESR is overseen by - a. Controller b. Inspection & Management Audit Deptt c. RBI d. DGM (B & O)
51. LRM is overseen by - a. Controller b. Inspection & Management Audit Deptt c. RBI d. DGM (B & O)
52. Data upload for LRM must be ensured in all cases latest within ____ days of sanction. a. 7 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30
53. Credit Audit Covers all Accounts with total credit exposure (FB+NFB limits) of Rs. _____ crores and above. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30
54. Legal Audit has been introduced for all exposures of Rs. ____ crores and above a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30 Answers
1 c 12 b 23 c 34 b 45 c 2 c 13 a 24 c 35 c 46 a 3 a 14 b 25 c 36 c 47 b 4 a 15 d 26 b 37 c 48 b 5 a 16 d 27 c 38 b 49 a 6 d 17 d 28 d 39 c 50 b 7 b 18 b 29 d 40 c 51 b 8 d 19 a 30 c 41 b 52 b 9 a 20 d 31 b 42 d 53 b 10 d 21 d 32 d 43 a 54 a 11 d 22 b 33 d 44 b 55
Page | 47
ALTERNATE CHANNELS Compiled by Raj Kumar Chief Manager(Learning)
1.Digital Signature Certificate for online payments is available to which of the following varients of CINB? a)Vyaapar b) Vistar c) Saral d) All of the above 2. Now RINB customer whose PAN is not available in CBS, can request for PAN updation online, The request will land to MIT screen of CIF home branch for verification and updation to be completed within ___ days. a) 3 b)5 c)7 d)15 3. Under “Money Transfer Service Scheme”, a beneficiary can receive a maximum of…...... in a calendar year (Maximum limit per transaction is USD 2,500) a. 12 transactions b. 18 transactions c. 24 transactions d. 30 transactions
4. If a visually challenged customer opts for Braille PPK for INB, the branch will relay the request to ...... for issuing “Braille Pre Printed Kit” after verification of details. a. Service Desk b. Respective RBOs c. INB department d. No INB given to VC customer
5. In mCash what is the per transaction limit a. 1100/- b.1102/- c. 2501/- d.5101/-
6. In mCash what is the day Limit. a. 2200/- b.2202/- c.5100/- d. 5101/-
7. What is monthly limit cap in mCash a.10000/- b.11101/- c.5101/- d.6100/-
8. Maximum …...... withdrawals in a month, including ATM withdrawals at own and other Banks’ ATMs shall be allowed on both Basic Savings Bank Account & Small Account? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
Page | 48
9. A card launched by bank for the purpose of depositing cash in a Non-Home Branch: a. Platinum Card b. e-Z Pay Card c. Green Remit Card d. SBI Global Card
10. Which of the following is a Prepaid Card? a. Green Remit Card b. Yuva Debit Card c. e-Z Pay Card d. Silver International Card
11. Under “Pos Linked Clean Overdraft” scheme, the minimum and maximum loan amounts are…….and………respectively. a. Rs. 0.25 lacs & Rs. 5 lacs b. Rs. 0.25 lacs & Rs. 10 lacs c. Rs. 25 lacs & Rs. 50 lacs d. Rs. 0.25 lacs & Rs. 25 lacs
12. The Daily Domestic Pos Limit of State Bank Global Debit Card is...... a. Rs. 40000/- b. Rs 50000/- c. Rs. 75000/- d. Rs. 100000/-
13. What is the maximum cash withdrawal limit from ATM for SME Sahaj Customers? a) Rs.15000/- b) Rs. 10000/- c) Rs. 20000/- d) Rs. 1000/-
14.“Ru-Pay” ATM cards are meant for a) Foreign tourists visiting India b) Indian tourists visiting foreign countries c) Replacing existing visa cards d) For no- frill account holders
15. DD request RINB can be made to ____ Branch a)Home b) Non Home c)Both a & b d)None of these
16. The software used by ATM Switch Centre, Belapur for running of ATMs is a). Base 20 b). Base 24 c). Bank 24 d). Bank 20
17. ATMs linked to the National Financial Switch (NFS) network are managed by ______a. IDRBT b. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) c. State Bank of India d. National Payments Corporation of India
Page | 49
18. Jointly operated accounts are eligible for a. ATM Banking b. Internet Banking c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of these
19.What is the daily limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout? a) $ 2000 b)$5000 c)$ 8000 d)$20000 20. What is the monthly limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout? a)$ 8000 b)$ 20000 c)$ 100000 d)$ 240000 21. What is the yearly limit for international fund transfer using RINB under Remxout? a)$ 240000 b)$ 120000 c)$ 250000 d)$ 125000 22. IMPS facility is available through RINB customers is ______? a) During business hours of the home Branch b) 8:00 am to 8:00 pm c)10:00 am to 6:00 pm d) 24/7 23. What is night limit between 8:00pm to 8:00 am for transfers under IMPS for RINB customers? a)Rs. 200000 b)Rs. 100000 c)Rs. 40000 d)Rs. 20000 24.For select customers, EMI through Internet Banking and ATM card is provided on purchase transaction from which online shopping portal? a)Amazon b)Snapdeal c)Flipkart d)E-Bay 25. When an existing customer forgets his „Profile Password‟ and gives a request for resetting his Profile Password, the Maker has to a. In the Branch interface, go to ‗Requests ‗ >> ‗Reissue Login Password‘ b. Send an e-mail to the INB department c. Issue a new PPK d. In the Branch Interface, go to ‗Requests‘ >> ‗Reset Profile Password‘ & Checker has to approve
26. Salary package customers can change their Sweep limits _____ a)Only Home branch b)only RINB c)Both a & b d)Neither a nor b
Page | 50
27. If a INB customer has forgotten the user name and approaches the INB officer with his account number, the INB officer can find the user name by a. Selecting the link ‗Find Username‘ under ‗ Requests‘ b. Taking up the matter with Alternate Channels Department c. Placing a request in Service Desk d. None
28. A customer can be registered for INB facility by a. The Home Branch only b. Any Branch in the City c. Any Branch d. None
29. The type of transaction that can be carried out by INB customers is a. Straight Through Processing Transactions b. Manual Intervention Transactions c. Both of the above d. None
30. Which of the following is not a manual intervention transaction? a. Request for DD b. e-Tdr/Stdr c. Request for opening of new account d. PPF a/c
31. To facilitate hassle free payment of monthly telephone bills/electricity bills etc., the facility available in INB is a. Fast bill b. Auto Pay facility c. e-Bill pay d. None
32. Phishing is a. A form of terrorist attack b. A form of internet piracy c. An animation software d. None
33. An INB customer can apply for an Initial Public Offer using a. Demat b. Third Party Transfer c. ApplicationSupport By blocked Amt(ASBA). d. None
34. In the website of online banking of SBI, https://www.onlinesbi.com, the letter “s” stands for: a. Secure b. Strong c. State Bank d. None
35. What is the maximum limit under ASBA for individual category of investor in online banking can apply? a. 2,50,000- b. 2,00,000- c.1,50,000- d. 1,00,000-
Page | 51
36. For utilising services under SBI-Oxipay for Mobile Top-Up, DTH Recharge.. a. Prior Registration is required b. Prior Registration not required c. Cannot be done unless authorised by the Branch d. None
37. Term Deposit accounts opened through Online Banking will be opened in the name(s) of a. Any name specified by the user b. will be same as in debit account from which is is funded c. will be decided by the branch d. None
38. What is the cut off time for creating e-TDR / e-STDR online banking? a. 8:00 AM IST to 8:00 PM IST b. 7:00 AM IST to 7:00 PM IST c. 24 hrs d. None
39. Virtual card is a. a one time use card and can be used online websites that accept any Credit Cards. b. a one time use card and can be used online websites that accept any VISA Credit Cards. c. a general purpose card can used for online as well as offline purchases d. None
40.Under e-Services of RINB, a link ―Online Locker‘ is provided to enquire the availability of locker by customer for _____ a)No such facility is available b)Any branch c)Only Home branch d)Only selected branches 41. Buddy KYC upgrade can be done through? a)Only Buddy app b)Only RINB c)Only Branch d)Both a & b 42.After powerup of Buddy, the maximum amount in Buddy will be ? a)Rs. 50000 b)Rs. 100000 c)Rs. 20000 d)Rs. 10000 43After power-up of Buddy, what is the daily limit for transactions? a)Rs. 15000 b)Rs. 20000 c)Rs. 50000 d)Rs. 100000
Page | 52
44.After power-up of Buddy, what is the monthly limit for transactions? a)Rs. 50000 b)Rs. 200000 c)Rs. 20000 d)No such limit
45.After power-up of Buddy, what is the monthly limit for fund transfer? a)Rs. 25000 b)Rs. 50000 c)Rs. 100000 d)No such limit
46. To whom should a customer report in case of receipt of email/SMS or calls over phone requesting for the details of personal information, password or one time SMS (high security) password related to SBI Online Banking? a. [email protected] b. [email protected] c. [email protected] d. None
47.------an Internet banking based android application which has been recently launched on Google play store a. State Bank Samadhan b. State Bank Buddy c. State Bank ANYWHERE d. YONO
48. What is the minimum and maximum amount that can be transacted under SBI Online Banking for fund transfer other than own account? a. No Minimum No Maximum b. Re 1/- and Rs.25,00,000/- c. Re 1/- and Rs.10,00,000/- d. None
49.What is the minimum and maximum amount of e-TDR / e-STDR that can be created under SBI Online Banking? a. Rs.1,000/- and Rs.99,99,999/- b. Rs.1,000/- and No Maximum c. Rs.100/- and Rs.25,00,000/- d. None
50. What is the validity period of e-Card(Virtual Card) created under SBI Online Banking? a. 48 hours b. No Time Limit Prescribed c. Valid for single transaction d. 48 hours or till the transaction is complete, whichever is earlier.
51. What is the minimum and maximum amount that can be issued under Virtual Card using SBI Online Banking? a. Min : 100/- and Max : 25,000/- b. Min : 100/- and Max : 50,000/- c. No Min and No Maximum d. None
Page | 53
52. Fund transfer limit to own account through Retail Internet Banking has been enhanced to …...... a. Rs 74,99,999/- b. Rs 99,99,999/- c. Rs 85.00 Lacs d Rs 100.00 Lacs
53. For Linking of PPF or Loan Accounts opened under different CIF to the existing INB username, the concerned user has to.. a.Give a request to INB department b. Approach the branch which has given him INB facility c. Not Possible d. None
54. For Linking of PPF or Loan Accounts opened under different CIF to the existing INB username, the INB officer have to select.. a. ―Link PPF/Loan Accounts under ―requests tab in Branch Interface b. ―Link PPF/Loan Accounts under ―requests tab in user Interface c. Link cannot be done d. Done
55. To overcome the generic risks (Role or Name specific) and not employee specific risks, Bank introduced Branch INB interface ID‟s, which are... a. Authorised by the concerned Regional Manager b. PF index based user id‘s c. Branch Specific user id‘s d. None
56. Each PPK packet comprises of ____ PPKs? a)25 b)50 c)75 d)100 57. Each PPK Packet has a unique ___ digit number labelled on it. a)3 b)5 c)10 d)16
58. In case a RINB user after creation of e-TDR/e-STDR wants a nomination other than the nominee in the debit account, he/she is required to a. Send a email to the INB department b. Visit Home Branch for making the nomination c. Cannot be changed d. Online nomination available through INB
Page | 54
59. Requests for opening of e-TDR/STD beyond 20:00 HRS IST under SBI online Banking are scheduled for... a. Next opening hours if user opts for the same b. To be given fresh after 08:00 HRS IST on the next day c. Not possible d. None
60. When a customer makes request through INB for issue of Draft or Loan account closure, the Branch has to a. Verify for any ―Unprocessed transactions through Manual Intervention Transaction menu at CBS b. Login in to Branch interface and check for Ticket numbers and clear the request c. Contact the concerned customer and sort out the issue. d. None
61. SBI‟s Internet Banking categories are:- a. Retail INB b. Company INB c. Corporate INB d. Both (a) and (c)
62. To prevent somebody from guessing your password and getting unauthorized access to your account your User ID is locked immediately in case of ______consecutive wrong password entries. a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 4 times d. Never unlocked
63. Websites identified as fraudulent and a phishing site, or as having a revoked or expired validation certificate, will display a ______address bar. a. Green b. Red c. White d. None
64. Our SBI‟s Internet Banking site is certified by: a. Very Sign b. TCS c. Satyam Computers Limited d. Verisign
65.Customer may cancel the request of m-cash request within ___ days of creation. a)11 b)21 c)31 d)51
66. Minor can also be given INB facility with a. Only viewing Rights b. View & Transaction Rights c. Limited Transaction Rights d. None
Page | 55
67. How many times third party funds transfer can be effected in a single day using SBI Online Banking facility? a. 3 Times with a ceiling of 5 lakhs b. Any number of Transactions in a day for amount aggregating 10 lakhs c. No limit on Transaction d. None
68.What is the maximum amount that can be remitted under SBI Quick per day (per user) to the beneficiaries maintaining account in SBI or other Bank without adding them as beneficiary under ‗Profile‘ section. a)3000 b)5000 c)10000 d)25000
69. Which company in association with SBI offers DEMAT A/c and state of the art online trading product to investors and traders. a. Motilal Oswal b.SBICAP Securities Limited c. Geojit Caps d. None
70. What is the minimum and maximum amount of denominations a customer can apply for Gift Card through SBI Online Banking? a. Rs.500/- and Rs.50000/- b. Rs.50/- and Rs.50000/- c. No Min No Max d. None
71. Khata, Vyapar and Vistar are the terms associated with a. Retail internet banking b. Corporate internet banking c. RTGS d. NEFT
72.The height of our Corporate Internet Banking is? a. Khata (Advantage) b. Khatha (advantage) Plus c. Vyapar (Privilege) d. Vistaar
73.Only Vistaar (Freedom) type of CINB is having this user a. Regulator b. Administrator c. Authoriser d. Cheque Writer
74.Internet Banking Department has developed a generic e payment module named as STATE BANK collect for CINB customers for: a. Loan Repayments through CINB b. Collecting the funds from the receiver of goods/ services c. Forex services for CINB customers d. Tax payments
Page | 56
75.The CINB-Saral user will be able to transfer an amount not exceeding in the aggregate…………..to the newly added beneficiary during the first 4 days after activation (by user) a.25,000/- b. 50,000/- c.1,00,000/- d. 2,00,000/-
76.Which category of branches of SBI can provide CINB facility? a. Metro Branches b. Semi Urban Branches c. Rural Branches d. All the above
77. If approval is done through the ………….., the activation of the beneficiary in “CINB-Saral” will be instant and cooling period of 4 days and amount cap of 100,000/- will not be applicable. a. Branch b. RINB user c. CINB-Saral user d. All of these
78.Customer may cancel the request of m-cash request within _...... days of creation. a)5 b)6 c)11 d)21 79. Beneficiary can claim money in which of the following ways under M-cash? a)Branch b)StateBank M-cash app c)Prelogin page of onlinesbi.com, in d)Either B or C
80. Multiple role holders like „Administrator‟, „Regulator‟,‟Maker‟ and Authoriser are not required for: a. Khata, Khata plus & Saral b. Vyapaar c. Vistaar d. None of the above
81. A single user enquiry product meant for small firms or institutions who maintain accounts with only one branch of SBI and who wish to do only online enquiry and downloading of account statements. Online Transactions are not allowed in this product. a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Saral d. Vyapaar
82. A multi-user enquiry product meant for slightly larger firms or institutions banking with multiple branches of SBI. This provides enquiry facility to multiple users of the organization. Online transactions are not allowed in this product. a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Saral d. Vyapaar
Page | 57
83. A simplified single user transactional product ideally suited for sole proprietorship concerns, micro enterprises or individual businessmen who require online transaction facility in their business accounts. Both intra and inter bank transactions are supported a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Saral d. Vyapaar
84. CINB Saral product provides transaction rights to the user involving transfer of funds to own or third party accounts up to a limit of ------lakhs per day. a. 10.00 lac b. 2.00 lacs c. 2.50 lacs d. 5.00 lacs
85. A multi-user transactional product meant for small and medium enterprises and organisations maintaining accounts with a single branch of SBI and who wish to provide discretionary access/ transaction rights to their users. a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Saral d. Vyapaar
86. In Vyapaar facility maximum transaction amount of Rs. ____ is allowed per transaction. There will not be any ceiling on the number of transactions per day. a. 5.00 lacs b. 10.00 lacs c. 25.00 lacs d. 50.00 lacs
87. A complete internet banking suite for large and very large corporates, Government organisations and Institutions. The facility enables multiple users to have discretionary access / transaction rights across accounts with various branches. a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Vistaar d. Vyapaar
88. In Vistaar facility maximum transaction(Non Tax) amount of Rs. ____ is allowed per transaction. There will not be any ceiling on the number of transactions per day. a. 500.00 lacs b. 1000.00 lacs c. 2000.00 cr. d. 500.00 cr.
89. Registration form for CINB Vyapaar is a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4
90. Form for Registration for Regulator (Vistaar) is a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4
91. Form for Registration for Administrator for both Vyapaar and Vistaar is a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4
92. Terms of service is given in Form. a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4
Page | 58
93. Format for Board Resolution is given in Form a. C 2 b. C 3 c. C 4 d. C 5
94. CINB User Manual form is a. C 3 b. C 4 c. C 5 d. C 6
95. Form for Request for Preprinted Kit for Registration is a. C 4 b. C 5 c. C 6 d. C 7
96. Form for Acknowledgement of Receipt of PPK is a. C 5 b. C 6 c. C 7 d. C 8
97. In Vistaar facility maximum transaction(Tax Related) amount of Rs. ____ is allowed per transaction. There will not be any ceiling on the number of transactions per day. a. 1000.00 Cr b. 2000.00 Cr c. 5000.00 cr. d. 10000.00 cr.
98.In the new state bank Anywhere, customers should set their password in _____? a) 6 number MPIN b) 6 Alfa/special/number MPIN c) 6alpha-numeric-special characters with atleast 1 alphabet and special charector as MPIN d) MPIN is not required
99. What is the transaction limit for third parties per day through SB Any where, login using Mpin ? a)Rs. 10.00 lacs b)Rs. 5.00 lacs c)Rs. 0.50 lacs d)Rs. 1.00 lacs
100.what is the full form of INFINET? a)International Financial Network b)Indian Financial Network c)Indian Freight & insurance Network d)None of these
Page | 59
ANSWER KEY 1 d 11 a 21 a 31 c 41 d 51 b 61 d 71 b 81 a 91 c 2 c 12 c 22 d 32 b 42 b 52 d 62 b 72 d 82 b 92 d 3 d 13 a 23 c 33 c 43 c 53 b 63 b 73 a 83 c 93 d 4 c 14 d 24 c 34 a 44 b 54 a 64 d 74 b 84 a 94 d 5 c 15 c 25 d 35 b 45 b 55 b 65 b 75 c 85 d 95 d 6 d 16 b 26 c 36 b 46 b 56 d 66 c 76 d 86 d 96 d 7 b 17 d 27 a 37 b 47 d 57 b 67 b 77 a 87 c 97 d 8 a 18 d 28 c 38 a 48 c 58 d 68 c 78 d 88 c 98 a 9 c 19 b 29 c 39 b 49 a 59 a 69 b 79 d 89 a 99 d 10 c 20 b 30 b 40 b 50 d 60 a 70 a 80 a 90 b 100 b
Page | 60
SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS Compiled by Raj Kumar , Chief Manager (L)
1. MAB under the SME Power Variants Current Accounts can range from __ to __ a) Rs 20000, Rs 5.00lacs b) Rs 25000, Rs 2.00lacs c) Rs 10000, Rs 2.00lacs d) Rs 25000, Rs 5.00lacs
2. Which Facility is not available in SME Power Variants Current Accounts a) Free internet banking b) Unlimited free cash withdrawal at home branch c) Cheque return protection facility d) Issue of multicity cheques free of charge
3. RTGS facility is not free for which of the following SME power CAs a) Power gain b) Power Base c) Power Pack d) None of these
4. Penalty for closure of account within 12 months in case of SME Power Pack is a) Rs 2000 +G.S.T b) Rs 5000+ G.S.T c) Rs 10000 +G.S.T d) 1000+ GST
5. The charges for non maintenance of MAB varies from minimum of ____ to maximum of _____ depending upon the type of power CA. a) Rs 3000/-, Rs 7000/- b) Rs 2000/- , Rs 10000/- c) Rs 3000/- , Rs 10000/- d) Rs 500/- , Rs 2500/-
6. Which of the following is not true in respect of deposit of cash at home branch a) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 25000/- per day in case of Power Base. b) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 15.00 lacs per month in case of Power Gain c) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 60.00 lacs per month in case of Power Pack d) All are true
Page | 61
7. All categories of salary accounts are permitted to be opened in case of which of the following SME power accounts. a) SME power Gain b) SME power Base c) SME power Pack d) All of the above
8. Which of the following is not true in respect of SME Power Base a) Cheques drawn on non home branch and collected at home branch is free b) RTGS is free c) ATM card provided is ATM Pride d) CINB is free
9. POWER JYOTI is a a) Home Loan product for Power sector employees b) Current account for fee collection c) Education loan for students pursuing studies in prestigious institutes d) Financing scheme for rural electrification projects
10. What is MAB in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account? a) Rs 5000/- b) Rs 50,000/- c) Rs 1,00,000/- d) Rs 25,000/-
11. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of MAB in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account? a) Rs 1000 + GST b) Rs 2500 + GST c) Rs 3500 + GST d) Rs 4000 + GST
12. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account? a) Rs 500 + GST b) Rs 1000 + GST c) Rs 400 + GST d) No charges
13. One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current Account a) Transactions other than fee collection/donation are not permitted b) Cheque book facility is not available c) No fee collection charges are taken from the person Remitting Fee d) Cash handling charges waived
14. For activation of fee collection module under the POWER JYOTI Current Account scheme the option to be chosen in core while opening the account is. a) Statement/mail option/fee collection b) Term a/c options c) Govt/PPF/Cr card details d) Core options
Page | 62
15. One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current account a) No cheque book is issued on the account b) Cash, transfer and clearing transactions are permitted c) No overdraft is permissible d) There are charges for CINB facility
16. Surabhi is a combination of fixed deposit and a) current account b) saving bank account c) either a or b d) neither a nor b
17. The amount of loan available under SBI Surabhi scheme is a) Rs 10000/- b) 80% of deposit c) 75% of deposit d) Nil
18. SBI Surabhi deposit account can be opened by a) Corporate b) Institutions c) Trusts d) Small & Medium Enterprises who manage the PF e) All of the above
19. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, any surplus funds in the account exceeding the threshold limit are transferred to a) Multi Option Deposits b) Special Term Deposits c) Corporate Liquid Term Deposits d) Recurring Deposits
20. Minimum & maximum period of fixed deposit under SBI Surbahi is a) 12 months & 60 months b) 24months & 48 months c) 12 month & 36 months d) 12months & 24 months .
21. Under SBI Surabhi, minimum amount of deposit to be maintained in Current Account and Saving Account is Rs. ____ & Rs. _____ a) 10,000/-, 1000/- b) 15,000/-, 2000/- c) 10,000/-, 5000/- d) 17,000/-, 4000/-
22. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, the threshold balance required is Rs.____ over which sweep will take place. a) Rs.25,000 b) 1,00,000 c) Rs.50,000 d) Rs.1,000
23. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, funds can be deposited for a period ranging from a) 1 to 2 years b) 1 to 3 years c) 2 to 5 years d)1 to 5 years
Page | 63
24. For CLTD – Initial deposits would be i.e. for the first sweep is Rs. 1,00,000/- and above, and subsequent deposits would be in multiples of Rs. _____ a) Rs 1000/- b) Rs 10,000/- c) Rs 5000/- d) Rs 50,000/-
25. Penalty for non maintenance of Minimum Balance in Current account in case of Surbhi is a) Rs 750/- + GST b) Rs 500/- + GST c)Rs 1000/- + GST d) Rs 5000/- + GST
26. What is the required MAB for SME POWERGAIN? a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 2,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement
27. What is the required MAB for SME POWERPACK? a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 1,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement
28. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of MAB for SME POWERGAIN a) Rs. 1500/- + GST b) Rs 5,000/- + GST c) Rs 4,000/- + GST d) Rs. 6,000/- + GST
29. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of MAB for SME POWERPACK a) Rs. 5,000/- + GST b) Rs. 6,000/- + GST c) Rs.10,000/- + GST d) Rs. 2500/- + GST
30. What concession in charges is available for sending remittance under RTGS under SME POWERGAIN a) No Concession b) 25% c) 50% d) 100%
31. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME POWERGAIN a) Rs 1000/- + GST. b) Rs 1500/- + GST c) Rs 5000/- + GST. d) No charges
32. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME POWERPACK (a) Rs 2500/- + GST. (b) Rs 1000/- + GST (c) Rs 5000/- + GST (d) No charges
Page | 64
33. One of the following facilities is not free either in SME POWERGAIN or POWERPACK a) Issuing of duplicate statement b) Standing Instructions c) Cash withdrawal in home branch d) Collection of cheques drawn on other Banks
34. MAB required to be maintained for SME power pack is? a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 1,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement
35. Which of the following is not true in respect of SME power pack a) Cash deposit in home branch is free upto Rs 60.00 Lacs or 12 times last quarter Balance which ever is higher b) Issue of draft and banker cheque is free c) RTGS /NEFT is free d) Outstation cheque collection is free
36. Multicity cheques are not issued free for which of the following? a) SME Power Gain b) SME Power Pack c) SME power Base d) None of the above
37. Cash deposit in home branch is free upto maximum of Rs____Lac in SME Power Base, per day a) 2.50 b) 5.00 c) 15.00 d) 0.25 lac
38. Cash deposit in home branch is free upto maximum of Rs_____Lac in SME Power Gain, in a month. a) 2.50 b) 5.00 c) 15.00 d) 60.00
39. Charges for cash withdrawal at home branch in case of SME power base is a) Rs 25/- b) Rs 20/- c) Rs 15/- d) Nil
40. Standing instructions charges are not free in case of which of the following accounts a) SME Power Gain b) SME Power Base c) SME Power Pack d) None of the above
Page | 65
41. Which of the following is not true about SME Power Pack a) Issuing of duplicate statement is free b) Pre approved car loan for promoters is there c) Business Debit Card given is Premium d) There are no charges for NEFT
42. SAHAJ is a: a) Home Loan product for Power sector employees b) Current account for SME Entrepreneurs having small means c) Education loan for students pursuing studies in prestigious institutes d) Financing scheme for rural electrification
43. What is MAB in respect of SAHAJ Current Account? a) Rs 500/- b) Rs 750/- c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 2000/-
44. SAHAJ Current Account can be opened by a) Individual customers b) Proprietorship Firms c) Partnership Firms d) Any of these
45. The cheque book facility is extended to SME Sahaj current accounts with one of the following conditions. a) Number of cheque leaves to be issued per financial year to be restricted to 25 leaves with a charge of Rs. 5 per leaf b) Additional requirement of further cheque leaves may be permitted with a charge of Rs.10 per leaf. c) Drawings per cheque to be limited to Rs. 15,000/- Each cheque leaf to carry this inscription. d) All of the above
46. What is MAB in respect of SME Power POS Current Account? a) Rs 5000/- b) Rs 25000/- c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 2000/-
47. Penalty for closure of Account within 12 months in case of SME Power POS is a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 500/- c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 5000/-
Page | 66
48. Maximum Overdraft which can be given in case of SME Power POS account is a) 5 Lacs b) 2 Lacs c) 10 Lacs d) No overdraft Facility available
49. OD Facility in SME Power POS is available after ____ Months after installation. a) 2 Months b) 3 Months c) 6 Months d) 8 Months
50. Eligible OD Amount in case of Power POS Account will be ___% of last 6 months transactions a) 25 b) 50 c) 10 d) 40
51. The objective of Launching State Bank SME Insta Deposit Card a) To withdraw the cash b) For transfer transaction. c) To deposit cash d) All of the above
52. Which machine is used to deposit the cash by using State Bank SME Insta deposit Card a) ATM b) CDM c) GCC d) Both B & C
53. Which customers are eligible for issuing State Bank SME Insta deposit Card a) All current account holders b) SME loan account holders c) All customers d) All SME customers of Non personal entities including CSPs
54. The facilities available to the SME Insta Deposit Card holders a) To deposit cash b) Balance Enquiry c) Mini statement of account d) All of the above
55. Maximum number of pieces of currency notes to be deposited per transaction a) 100 b)200 c) 300 d)400
56.‘Validity period of SME Insta Deposit Card Is a) 5 Years b) 10 Years c) 12 Years d) 15 Years
Page | 67
57. Customer by using SME Insta Deposit Card to which accounts deposit the cash a) Only designated account as given in application b) All the accounts with the bank c) Both a & b d) Accounts of other bank
58. SBI has Launched State Bank Business Debit Card In which of The following Variants: a) State Bank Pride (Gold) b) State Bank Premium (Platinum) c) Both a & b d) None of above
59. “State Bank Pride” Business Debit Card is Issued to Customers having: a) Current Account With Bal.>= INR 25000< INR 500000 & Loan Limit Of > 100000 < 2500000 b) Current Account With Bal. > 100000 c) Current Account With Bal. > 50000 d) No Minimum Balance Required
60. State Bank Premium Business Debit Card is Issued to: a) Current Account With Bal. Upto 100000 b) Current Account With Bal. > 500000 c) Current Account With Bal. < 500000 d) Current Account With Bal. > 1000000
61. Which of The following can Issue Business Debit Card to All Existing Current Account holder a) All Circles Through Their Branches b) Mid Corporate Group Only c) CAG Only d) All The Above
62. The target Customers for State Bank Business Debit Card are: a) Current Account Holders in Proprietorships b) Current Account Holders in Partnership c) Current Account Holders Of Public & Private Ltd. Companies d) All The Above
63. The Prime requirement for Issuance Of Business Debit Card is a) Current Account in Non Personal Segment b) Cash Credit Limit c) Current Account d) b & c Only
Page | 68
64. The Facility Of Personal Accident Insurance available for State Bank Business Debit Card holder a) 2 Lac in State Bank Pride And 1 Lac In State Bank Premium b) 2 Lac in State Bank Premium And 1 Lac In State Bank Pride c) 5 Lac in State Bank Pride And 2 Lac In State Bank Premium d) 2 Lac in State Bank Pride And 5 Lac In State Bank Premium
ANSWER KEY
1 a 11 a 21 c 31 a 41 b 51 c 61 d 2 c 12 b 22 b 32 b 42 b 52 d 62 d 3 b 13 c 23 b 33 d 43 c 53 d 63 a 4 d 14 a 24 b 34 c 44 d 54 d 64 d 5 d 15 d 25 b 35 d 45 d 55 b 6 d 16 c 26 b 36 d 46 a 56 b 7 c 17 d 27 c 37 d 47 c 57 a 8 b 18 e 28 a 38 c 48 a 58 c 9 b 19 c 29 d 39 d 49 c 59 d 10 b 20 c 30 d 40 b 50 a 60 b
Page | 69
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS on CBS Compiled by Raj Kumar, C.M. (Learning)
1. A password is best described as a method of user a. Identification b. Auhtorisation c. Authentication d. Confirmation
2. In a Computer network an IP address specifies a : a. Network connection b. Router gateway c. Computer in the network d. Device on the network
3. The software that is being used in our foreign offices of our bank is called a. B@ncs24 b. I-Flex c. FINNACLE d. BANKCOM
4. SB Connect, the dedicated lease line connectivity is maintained by a. FNS Australia b. DDIL c. TCS India d. HP System USA
5. Minimum length of password in CBS has ------characters a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
6. Disaster Recovery Centre of the Bank is located at a. Bangalore b. Chennai c. Delhi d. Kolkatta
7. Which of the following software is used for preparing Corporate General Ledger(CGL)? a. B@ncslink b. B@ancs24 c. Finance One d. Exim Bills
8. Which of the following combinations is/are correct? a. TCS – System Integrating Agency for Core Banking Solution(CBS) b. Tech Mahindra – Internet Banking c. Infosys - Finnacle Software for foreign Offices d. All are correct
9. Which is the shortcut key to obtain previously used Customer no.(CIF) / Account Number? a. F7 b. F10 c.. F12 d.. Alt+T
Page | 70
10. CIF (Customer Information File) creation has to be validated with a minimum score of ----- for free operation of accounts created under the said customer a. 11 b. 99 c. 100 d. 110
11. Who is a Vault Teller in CBS ? a. A Vault Teller is the Joint custodian i.e. the Accountant of the Branch b. A Vault Teller is the user who replenishes cash in ATM. c. A Vault Teller is the user is working in cash department of a branch. d. A Vault Teller is the user is working in CPC
12. Bank plans to implement BAS – Biometric Authentication System in a. CBS login b. RINB login c. CINB login d. MBS login
13. What is a Check Digit? a. it is used by the system to verify the correctness of the Customer/ Account number. b. it is used for checking the balance in the account c. it is the number used by Finance one for EOD d. it is the internal server reconciliation mechanism for Yearend processing
14. Who Is a Teller in CBS? a. All Staff handling cash in any branch b. Any user in Core Banking system c. Sales force members of Housing loans one who tells the details to the customer
15. What are User types in CBS ? a. They represent the roles or different functionaries in a branch b. They represent the types of menus in CBS c. They represent the users in corporate internet banking d. They represent the types of reports in CBS
16. What is user capability level in CBS? a. It refer to various reports in CBS b. It represent the users in corporate internet banking c. It refers to the powers assigned to each user for performing financial transactions in the system. d. None of these
17. IBTS in CBS refers to a. Inter Branch Transfer System b. Inter Branch Technical System
Page | 71 c. Inland Bill Transfer System d. Inter Bank Technical System
18. VPS – Vendor Payment System is used in CBS for a. Customer Transaction b. Inter Branch Transactions c. Non-Customer Transactions d. Charges – Expenses payment transactions
19. B@ncs24, Software we use in CBS, has been purchased from ------a. M/S Comlink Services, USA b. M/S Financial Network Services, Australia c. M/S Oracle Corporation, USA d. HP Systems, USA
20. What is the expansion of VPIS ? a. Valuable Persons In System b. Variable Products Information Software c. Valuable Paper Inventory System d. Very Popular Information Software
21. EOD in CBS is done by ------a. Central Office, Mumbai b. GITC, Belapur c. Concerned LHO d. Concerned Branch
22. What is GLIF? a. General Ledger Information File b. General Ledger Interest File c. General Ledger Intermediate File d. General Ledger Interface File
23. What is Queue under CBS environment ? a. The queue formed by customers in front of a counter b. To control the flow of transactions for authorisation, rejection, acceptance c. It is the system functionality in clearing module d. None of these
24. What is Trace Number in CBS ? a. Refers to committed transactions that are accepted in Database at CDC b. Refers to clearing system of transactions that are rejected by CBS c. Refers to CIF number rejected by CBS d. None of these
Page | 72
25. CBS de-activates a teller when he /she does not log in to system for ____ many days continuously a. 7 days b. 21 days c. 30 days d. 15 days
26. FTP in CBS refers to a. File Transfer Protocol b. Fixed Term Product c. Fixed Transfer protocol d. None of the above
27. Which is the shortcut key to obtain image of the Customer/ Account Number? a)F7 b) F10 c. F12 d. Alt+T
28. In CBS for Trickle feed file upload (SAL), the following is used a. File Hash Generation. b. Transfer Batch c. Encryption d. Decryption
29. Hash Generation Utility for Corporate Clients for Trickle feed file upload (SAL) works on a. JAVA b. DOTNET c. COBAL d. Web based
30. In CBS, Housing Loan Interest certificates are generated and sent to the customer from a. Centralised Mailing System, Mumbai b. Branch c. LHO d. Administrative Unit
31. For Opening STAFF CIF in CBS, the validation of the following is must a. Name of the Employee b. Branch Name c. PF Index number d. Date of Appointment
32.Under “Online Savings Bank Account Application”, applicant will be given time period of……………….to apply to the branch with KYC documents otherwise application will be discarded by the system automatically. a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days
33. TCRN in Online Savings Bank Account Application refers to a. Temporary Account Reference Number b. Temporary Customer Reference Number c. Transaction Customer Reference Number d. Temporary Client Reference number
Page | 73
34. IN CBS if the branch is having cash difference then the same will appear in which of the following reports? a. GLCOMP b. GLCNTR c. List of Suspense Account d. Cash Difference Report
35. Printing of VVR (hardcopies) been discontinued with effect from 01.10.2012. The Branches are required to keep the soft copy of…………………………for inspection by Inspecting officials a. Allocation Status Report b. EOD Status Report c. Last Seven Days Pending Report d. All of these
36. In CBS, VPS has been introduced to capture the details for which of the following tax? a. SERVICE TAX b. Income Tax c. BCTT d. STT
37. For CBS related Issues the user will lodge a request in a. CMS b. SERVICEDESK c. SBI TIMES d. eLearning
38. The data related to “On-Line VVR” allotment and checking would be available online in the CBS upto…………..and beyond this, it will be stored on magnetic tape and would be retrievable on request through service desk a. 5 years b. 4 years c. 3 years d. 2 years
39. The OVVR allotment and checking reports needs to be stored in separate server for retrieval purpose as and when required as per record retention period of ……………….. a. 10 years b. 8 years c. 6 years d. 4 years
40. BGL Accounts in CBS refers to a. Customer Type Accounts b. Government Accounts c. Non-Customer type Accounts d. None of the above
41. KYC deficient inoperative “Customer Information Files” and where the aggregate balance in all accounts linked to each CIF is less than or equal to…………….…… should be closed after giving a notice of 30 days. a. 500 b. 1,000 c. 5,000 d. 10,000
Page | 74
42. When Hanging transactions are found during the transactions in CBS, the user has to go for which screen to verify and take corrective steps a. SCR 01010 b. SCR 11010 c. SCR 20010 d. SCR 08083
43. The maximum USER capability level given to the branch users is a. Capability level 5 b. Capability level 7 c. Capability level 9 d. Capability level 16
44 In IBCH enabled branches, the teller who handles cash has to necessarily perform the following transactions before sign-off a. Close the Cash Drawer b. Reconcile the Cash Drawer c. LOCK the Cash Drawer d. None of the above
45. In CBS environment, Cheque book for customers are despatched from a. Branch b. CCPC c. LHO d. LCPC
46. Which is the shortcut key used to verify the customer account number and name? a. F7 b. F10 c. F12 d. F8
47. To have a competitive paper based payment mechanism and to leverage the capabilities of CBS, SBI introduced ______a. Multi City Cheque b. IOI c. Bankers Cheque d. Draft
48. To provide fee collection facility for institutions through our CBS platform, SBI introduced ______a. Power Jyoti Account b. SURABHI Account c. MOD Account d. CLTD account
49. For Setting up SWEEP for SB plus account, the User will select the following Cycle in the SWEEP screen a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Either B or C
50. In CBS all the product codes are containing ______digits a. 4 digit b. 6 digit c. 8 digit d. 16 digit
Page | 75
51. In CBS, When the user forgets his password or has made 3 unsuccessful attempts to login with invalid password, then the following is to be performed a. Change USER Status b. Forced Closure c. USER RESET d. Change Capability level
52. NPA tracking in CBS happens a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Annually 53. IRAC Status in CBS is applicable to which type of the following Account? a. BGL Account b. NPA Accounts c. CTA Accounts d. None of the above
54. GLCC in Finance one refers to a. General Ledger Classification Code b. General Ledger Chart of Code c. General Ledger Cash Code d. None of the Above
55. Finance One purchased from a. FNS, Australia b. Comlink USA c. TCS d. Infosys
56. Stamping of NPA accounts in CBS is based on a. Arrear Condition b. Overdue amount c. Limit expiry d. KYC deficient
57. In CBS, Collateral means a. Security b. Document capture c. Authorisation of transactions d. None of the above 252
58. CDC refers to a. Computer Data Centre b. Customer Data Centre c. Central Data Centre d. Core Data Centre
59. Front end software used in CBS a. B@NCS24 b. Core c. CGL d. Bancslink
60. Password structure in B@ncs24 in CBS is a. Password should contain only numerals and special characters b. Password should contain only alphabets, and special character c. Password should contain at-least one alphabet in capital letter, one numeral and one special character d. Password should contain only alphabets and numerals
Page | 76
61. In CBS, If the customer has not got required KYC marks, then the account opened by system will have the following status a. STOP b. HOLD c. LIEN d. INACTIVE
62. The movement of Security forms in CBS is controlled through which menu? a. TDS b. VPS c. VPIS d. CTS
63. What does B@ncs24 mean? a. Bank‘s Automation and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours b. Bank‘s Automation and Networking Control System for 24 hours c. Bank‘s Accounting and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours d. Bank‘s Accounting and Network Control Software for 24 hours
64. Core Banking Department is situated at a. GITC, Belapur b. Corporate Centre Mumbai c. TCS Mumbai d. LHO Chennai
65. First branch to implement Core Banking Solutions is a. Navi Mumbai b. Parliament Street Br. Delhi c. PBB Hiranandani Mumbai d. PBB Nungambakkam Chennai
66. Branch General Ledger accounts refer to ______a. All the internal and intermediate accounts in Core Banking b. Deposit accounts of the customers c. Advance accounts of the customers’ d. NPA accounts at the branch.
67. CBS consists of two accounting packages a. B@ncsOne and FinanceOne b. B@ncs24 and FinanceOne c. B@ncs24 and Finance24 d. B@ncs24One and FinanceOne24
68. Finance One consolidates the Accounts and Transactions in the a. Corporate General Ledger (CGL) b. Branch General Ledger (BGL) c. Branch Corporate Ledger (BCL) d. Corporate Branch Ledger (CBL)
69. The process of scanning of cheques and transmitting the electronic image, instead of the physical cheque, in the clearing cycle is known as a. Cheque Imaging b. Cheque Truncation c. Cheque Scanning d. Cheque clearing
70. The company which has been entrusted with customisation, integration and pilot implementation of Core Banking Solutions is a. Cognizant b. Infosys c. Wipro d. TCS Limited
Page | 77
71. The CBS for foreign offices is supplied by a. Satyam b. Infosys c. FNS d. Data Craft
72. SBIICM is located at a. New Delhi b. Mumbai c. Hyderabad d. Chennai 73. Identify the feature of our CBS ? a. 24x7 Processing b. On-line, Realtime, Anywhere Banking c. Support for Multiple Delivery Channels d. All of these
74. Whenever the user in CBS moves out temporarily from the system he should ______as a matter of security a. Log out of the CBS b. Use screen lock icon so that others cannot access CBS using the user login id c. Switch off the monitor of the computer he is working d. None of these
75. What is a prompt screen in CBS? a. It refers to a screen displaying deposit products to customers b. It refers to the advertisement screen put up in public places c. It is a screen in which a few details are collected from the user to bring back results from the server. d. It refers to set of menus in retail internet banking
76. Conversion of Plain Text to Cipher Text using certain logic a. Encryption b. Decryption c. Coding d. Debug
77. Expand CCDP a. Centralised Credit Data Processing b. Centralised Customer Data Portal c. Centralised Code Data Point d. Centralised Credit Dynamic Portal
78. Name of the State Bank Data Purification Project is a. Project Clean b. Project BASEL c. Project GANGA d. Project CIS
79. The Name of the website launched by the bank to track stressed assets at the branch in a systematic manner. a. CCDP b. Project Ganga c. AT@M d. SBIDWP
Page | 78
80.…...... users can login on the same day after completion of the INB registration process in CBS. a. RINB b. CINB-Saral c. Khata d. All of these 81.Name the category of 25 CBS reports pertaining to important areas of Branch functioning & Customer Service like VVR status, Probable NPAs, Failed SI/Sweeps etc, that are necessary for effective control & mitigating risks at the Branch. a. Exception Reports b. Transactions Reports c. MIS Reports d. Other Reports
82. In CBS, under TDS automation functionality, the amount of TDS deducted gets credited to a the following BGL account a. BGL Account - 98533 b. BGL Account - 98534 c. BGL Account - 3199362 d. BGL Account – 98516
83. In CBS environment, AT@M refers to a. Any Time Account Maintenance b. Alternate Transactions Maintenance c. All transactions At monitoring d. Asset Tracking @nd Monitoring
84. Which software acts as a platform for Asset Liability Management ? a. CS Exim Bill b. Oracle Financial Services Application Suite (OFSA) c. Finance One d. B@ncs 24
85. Usage of Dashboard functionality is available in which of the following module in CBS a. TDS module b. OVVR module c. Remittance module d. Cash module
86. After an account is stamped as NPA by the system a. Unrealised Interest is reversed b. Further Interest application is stopped c. Provision is calculated d. All of the above
87. Mobiliser is to be input under a. Core option tab b. Miscellaneous Tab c. Term Account Option d. None of the above
88. Term basis for TDR/STDR accounts is to be selected as a. Month b. Days c. Quarter d. Half year
Page | 79
89. Which of the following parameters impacts TDS in deposit account? a. PAN b. Date of Birth c. Gender Code d. All of the above
90. For opening Accounts in CBS, the following is must a. PAN b. Form 60 or 61 c. Either of a or b d. None of the above 91. GLCNTR report shows the outstanding in a. CGL Suspense Account b. Technical Suspense Account c. System Suspense Account d. All of the above
92. The start date should be ______in sweep creation for SB Plus. a. Later than the opening date of SB Plus b. Opening date of SB Plus c. Any date d. It should be left blank
93. Before transferring an account to Recalled Assets, the IRAC status should be a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 and above
94. The report „List of NPA Accounts‟ is a ______report a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Yearly
95. SCR:062031 - Quick Loan Account screen is used in CBS to create a. Gold Loan accounts b. Housing Loan accounts c. Car Loan accounts d. Tractor loan accounts
96. In CBS, While opening Housing Term Loan „Loan term‟ should be given a. Days b. Weeks c. Months d. Years
97. After opening the Deposit Accounts at the branch, the relative account opening forms should be sent to a. LCPC b. CCPC c. CPPC d. LHO
98. The website developed and maintained by CBS for downloading the reports and extracts and other User related functions is a. Service Desk b. SBI-DCOG c. State Bank Times d. CMS
Page | 80
ANSWER KEY
1 c 11 a 21 b 31 c 41 a 51 c 61 a 71 b 81 a 91 d 2 a 12 a 22 d 32 b 42 d 52 a 62 c 72 c 82 c 92 a 3 c 13 a 23 b 33 b 43 c 53 b 63 b 73 d 83 d 93 d 4 b 14 b 24 a 34 a 44 c 54 a 64 a 74 b 84 b 94 a 5 d 15 a 25 a 35 d 45 d 55 b 65 c 75 c 85 b 95 a 6 b 16 c 26 a 36 a 46 a 56 a 66 a 76 a 86 d 96 d 7 c 17 a 27 b 37 b 47 a 57 a 67 b 77 a 87 b 97 a 8 d 18 d 28 a 38 c 48 a 58 c 68 a 78 c 88 b 98 b 9 c 19 b 29 b 39 a 49 d 59 d 69 b 79 c 89 d 1 d 20 c 30 a 40 c 50 c 60 c 70 d 80 d 90 c 0
Page | 81
GOVT ACCOUNTS Compiled by Raj Kumar, Chief Manager (Learning)
1. PPF is considered under which deposit? a) CASA Deposit b) Bank Deposit c) Government Deposit d) Not considered under any deposit
2. What is the penalty charged for the delay in a financial year? a) Rs.50/- b) Rs.100/- c) Rs.10/- d) No penalty
3. How many withdrawals allowed in a year in PPF ? a) Twice in a year b) Only once in a year c) Thrice in a year d) withdrawal not permitted
4. What is the interest charged for the PPF loan amount? a) 3 % b) 4% c) 2 % d) NIL
5. What is the loan amount he is eligible? a) 25% of balance at the end of the 1st financial year &from the 3rd to 6th year b) 50% of balance at the end of the 1st financial year from the 3rd to sixty year c) 75% of balance at the end of the 1st financial year from the 3rd to 6th year d) 100% of balance at the end of the 1st financial year from the 3rd to 6th year
6 .Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of payments other than pension a) 9 paise per Rs.100 turnover b) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover c) Rs.50 per transaction d) None of these
7 .PPF account cannot be opened by a) Individuals b) HUF c) NRI d) b & c
8. Maximum amount that can be deposited in a PPF account during financial year a) Rs.50000 b) Rs.70000c) Rs.150000 d) None of the above
9 .How many installments in a financial year are allowed for depositing amounts in PPF account a) 5 b) 9 c) 12 d) None of these
10. Withdrawal is allowed from PPF account from ______onwards. a) 3rd financial year b) 5th financial year c)7th financial year d) All the above are true
Page | 82
11. What is the maximum period for which a PPF account can be opened a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 15 years d) None of the above
12 .Who are eligible to open accounts under Senior Citizen Saving Scheme 2004 a) An individual who has attained the age of 60 years and above on the date of opening of an account b) Who has attained the age of 55 years or more but less than 60 years and who has retired on superannuation or otherwise on the date of opening the account c) Both a & b d) None of the above
13. Min and Maximum amount that can be accepted under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004 a) Min Rs.1000 and Max Rs.15lacs b) Min Rs.10000 and Max Rs.15lacs c) Any amount can deposited d) None of the above
14. What is the maximum amount of deposit that can be accepted in cash under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004? a) 100000 b) 500000 c) 1500000 d) No cash is accepted
15 .Deposits under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004 is accepted for a maximum period of a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 5 years and extension by 3more years d) None of the above
16. What is the time limit within which Govt Transactions are to be settled with Govt of India? a) T+3 working days where Dealing Branch and FPLB are at the same centre b) T+5 working days where Dealing Branch and FPLB are different centres c) Both a & b are true d) None of these
17. CBDT transactions to be settled within a) T+3 working days irrespective of location b) T+5 working days c) T+1 working day d) None of the above
Page | 83
18. All Govt Transactions through e-mode to be settled within a) T+1 day b) T+3 days c) T+5 days d) None of the above
19. Penalty rate for delay in settlement of Govt Transactions beyond permitted period is a) At Bank Rate b) Bank Rate+1% c) Bank Rate + 2% d) None of the above
20. What is the expansion of EASIEST? a) Electronic Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax b) Electronic Accounting Standards in Excise and Service Tax c) Electronical Accounts Services in Excise and Sales Tax d) None of the above
21. Challan format to be used for CBEC credits is a) GAR 7 b) ITS 280 c) GAR 9 d) None of the above
22 .Settlement of State Govt transactions with regional office of RBI is the responsibility of a) GAD b) FLSO c) FSLO d) None of the above
23. Which of the following are true with regard to e-Focal Point Link branches a) e-FPB for CBDT –Bangalore Main Branch b) e-FPB for Central Excise – World University Service Centre Branch, Chennai c) e-FPB for Service Tax – Fort Market Branch, Mumbai d) All of these
24. Which of the following statements are true in case of CBDT Transactions a) CIN will be generated for each credit transaction b) CIN consist of BSR code, Date and serial number of challan c) Quoting PAN/TAN mandatory in challans d) All
25. Expand GBSS? a) Government Business Software Solutions b) Government Business Software System c) Government Business System Software d) Government Banking Software Solutions
Page | 84
26. Certified copy of Datewise Monthly Statement (DMS) is called a) Verified Date wiseMonthly Statement (VDMS) b) Valued Date wise Monthly Statement c) Certified Datewise Monthly Statement (CDMS) d) None of the above
27. While transferring PPF account from one branch to the other what to be done regarding the Accrued Interest on the PPF A/c? a) A separate Draft has to be sent to the other branch b) Advise the accrued interest to the other branch so as to incorporate the same in CBS. c) A/c can be transferred as if it is a normal Deposit account in CBS. d) None of these
28. The time frame for crediting the pension/ family after despatch of New PPO? a) Within 5 days b) Within a week c) Within a fortnight d) at the month end
29. Interest paid on PPF Account on? a) 31 January b) On 31St March c) 31 December d) None of the above
30. Interest will be accured on the balance available in PPF as on? a) Minimum balance between 5th to 30th of every month b) Minimum balance between 10th to 30th of every month c) On daily balance d) None of the above
31. Nomination facility available in PPF account ? a) Available in the name of single individual b) Available in favour of one or more persons c) Not available d) None of the above
32. TDS parking system suspense A/c No. a) 3199363bbbbbc b) 3199362bbbbbc c) 3198363bbbbbc d) None of the above
33. Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS retunrs to be normally filed by a) 15th day of next calendar Quarter b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter c) 6th day of the next calendar Quarter d) None of the above
Page | 85
34. Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS retunrs for the Quarter ending March 31 to be filed by a) 15th day of next calendar Quarter b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter (c) 15 th May d) None of the above
35. Penalty for furnishing of Quarterly returns a) Rs.300/- per day till the date offiling of returns b) Rs.200/- per day till the date of filing c) Flat 10,000/- d) None of the above
36. e-payment of central excise duty and service tax is mandatory for all tax payers paying the tax of ______w.e.f. 01.01.2014. a) Rs 1,00,000.00 (Rs One Lac) & over (b) Rs.10,00,000/- c) e-payment not required d) None of the above
37. The pensioner can submit annual Life certificate at ______of the Bank either in person or through his/ her authorized representative. a) Home Branch b) Non Home Branch c) CPPC d) Either at Home Branch or at NonhomeBranch
38. What is the periodicity at which interest is paid out in SCSS account? a) Monthly b) Half yearly c) Quarterly d) Annually
39. Public provident Fund Scheme framed under provision a) PPF ACT 1968 (23 OF 1968) b) PPF ACT 1967 (23 OF 1968) c) PPF ACT 1966 (23 OF 1968) d) PPF ACT 1965 (23 OF 1968)
40. SBI handles Govt. Business as agent of RBI as per a) Sec 45 of RBI Act b) Sec 32 of SBI Act c) Both a & b d) None of these
41 .TDS deducted during the month should be deposited to the credit of Govt Account a) Before 1st of subsequent month b) On the last working of the respective month c) Before 7th of subsequent month d) None of these
42. Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts - Physical mode a) Rs.45 per transaction b) Rs.50 per transaction c) 9 paise per Rs.100 d) None of these
Page | 86
43. Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts-e-mode a) Rs.50 per transaction b) Rs.12 per transaction c) 9 paise per Rs.100 d) None of these
44. Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of pension payments where Pension Files are held by the Bank a) Rs.60 per transaction b) Rs.65 per transaction c) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover d) None of these
ANSWER 1 C 11 C 21 a 31 b 41 c 2 A 12 C 22 c 32 d 42 b 3 B 13 A 23 d 33 a 43 b 4 C 14 C 24 d 34 c 44 b 5 A 15 C 25 a 35 b 6 B 16 C 26 a 36 a 7 D 17 A 27 c 37 d 8 C 18 A 28 b 38 c 9 C 19 C 29 b 39 a 10 C 20 A 30 a 40 c
Page | 87
IT PRODUCTS AND RELATED SECURITY ASPECTS Compiled by Raj Kumar, C. M. (Learning)
1. What is Metagrid ? a) It is a computer security grid maintained by the bank b) Metagrid is web based software for retail sale of gold coins c) It is a CBS server maintained New Delhi as a back-up d) it is related to service charges for forex services
2. Expand GLS ? a) Global Link Services b) Grid Loan Software c) Global Loan Score d) Gold Loan Software
3. What is the function of Global Link Services ? a) It enables user to manage gold loan portfolio b) GLS handles the online remittance product - SBI Express Remit c) it handles the ECB portfolio of corporates d) it handles FCCB requirements of corporates
4. Exim bills is the software used in a) LCPC b) RCPC c) RASMECC/ RACPC d) TFCPC
5. Translink software is used by the branches / offices a) handling Western Union remittances b) handling forex transactions c) handling treasury operations d) handling CMP transactions
6. What is the site address of our e-learning site a) https://learning.sbi.co.in b) https://mylearning.sbi.co.in c) https://mybanklearn.sbi.co.in d) https://mybanklearning.sbi.co.in
7. Our bank has established contact centre at a) Delhi and Hyderabad b) Bengaluru and Vadodara d) Chennai and Mumbai e) Calcutta and Ahmedabad
8. Callers to Contact Centre can reach round the clock by dialing a) 080-26589990 or 1800 425 3855 or 1800 11 22 22 b) 080-26599999 or 1800 425 3888 or 1800 11 22 11 c) 080-26599990 or 1800 425 3800 or 1800 11 22 11 d) 080-26599990 or 1800 425 3855 or 1800 11 22 55
Page | 88
9. What are the services not provided by our Contact Centre? a) Complaints Management b) Balances on customer accounts on mobile c) Payment tracking d) Online banking password generation
10. Which functionality is not handled through Complaint Management System presently : a) Attach scanned JP log/eJ against the complaint b) File a complaint(ATM only) c) Generate report of overdue complaints. d) hanlde SMS unhappy customers
11. One can use Bank's HR Dashboard site for the following data for : a) Expenses analysis b) Charges analysis c) Recruitment analysis d) Retirement analysis
12. Expand CIARC a) Centralised Information Access Regulatory Committee b) Centralised Internet Access Regulatory Committee c) Central Internet Access for RINB Cusotmers d) Central Information Authority for Registry Compliances
13. For bank's business requirements authorised users can access positive list of websites approved by a) Centralised Information Access Regulatory Committee b) Centralised Internet Access Regulatory Committee c) Central Internet Access for RINB Cusotmers d) Central Information Authority for Registry Compliances
14.Expand ADS a) Assest Delivery Services b) Asset and Deposits Statement c) Active Deposit schemes d) Active Directory Services
15. Which company has developed Active Directory Services ? a) Oracle b) Microsoft c) State Bank of India d) System Networks Ltd.
16. The first step in Security Awareness is being able to ______a security threat a) avoid b) recognize c) challenge d) log 17. What is the biggest vulnerability to computer information security? a) Instant Messaging, Peer-to-Peer (P2P) applications b) Malware - virus, worms, spyware c) Spam, Phishing attacks d) End Users
Page | 89
18. The National Financial Switch (NFS) promoted by IDBRT relates to a) Networked Foreign Exchange transactions among banks b) Internet Banking Connectivity c) ATM connectivity among banks d) Single National Financial Software for all banks
19.What are Positive Websites in our bank ? a) websites which dealiing in self developement areas b) websites used by the customers for queries c) website which are blocked for security reasons d) websites/ URLs available for Banks business purpose to authorised users
20. If a user finds data or files stored on his desktop altered or deleted without his knowledge, it could mean a) The operating system has been updated b) The anti virus has been updated c) The system has been compromised d) None of the above
21. What is the new initiative to help employees of the Bank to clarify any doubts they may have regarding various products/processes of the Bank a) Knowledge help line b) Knowledge and Training helpline c) Training online d) Ask us any doubt
22. Expand ASBA ? a) Assets suppported by Bank Account b) Application and Stock Broking Amount c) Applications Supported By Blocked Amount d) Assets sub-standard bank account
23. ASBA facility can be used for a) Applying G Sec b) Applying debt mutual fund NFO c) Initial and Follow-on Public Offers (IPO and FPO), Rights Issues, and Debt Issues d) Applying RBI Bonds
24. Which is the nodal branch for ASBA facitliy ? a) Capital Market Branch, Mumbai b) Diamond dollar branch, Mumbai c) GAD Operations branch, Nagpur d) New Delhi Main branch 25. What is the technology platform based on which SBI Enterprise Messaging System is functioning ? a) based on Oracle b) based on B@ncs 24 c) based on Base 24 d) based on IBM Lotus Domino/Notes
Page | 90
26. Which the feature not supported by our SBI EMS mail system a) Enables the user to access positive websites b) Access from multiple devices c) users can share calendar and organize group meetings d) Every user can create his/her own blog
27. Recently finance ministry has instructed all PSBs to “migrate totally” to ______payment channels for making payments to their customers. a) VSAT b) MICR based c) Paper based d) electronic
28. What is the technology channel of Bank which uses „Internet enabled PC Kiosk channel‟ operated through Business Correspondents (BC) a) Net banking channel b) Bio-metric channel c) Green channel counter d) Kiosk banking
29. Expand SSL ? a) Secure Socket Layer b) Secure Standard Layer c) Security in State bank layer d) System Secured by Latch
30. Expand ICCOMS a) Internet enabled Currency and Cash operations Management System b) Intensive Cash Component Operations and Management System c) Integrated Computerised Currency Operations and Management System d) Institutionalised Currency, Cash of Monetary System 264
31. Expand iFAMS ? a) Inter-branch Furniture Assets Management System b) Intranet based Fixed Assets Management System c) Internet and Intranet Fixed Assets Maintenance System d) Inter-core Furniture Assets Management System
32. What is SPAM ? a) Confidential papers thrown in the dustbin b) Electrical spikes that can harm a computer c) Having a Maker and Checker system for all transactions d) Unsolicited e-mail
33. CISO in SBI is a) Chief Information Security Officer b) Chief IT Systems Officer c) Central Information Security Office d) Chief Information Safety Officer
Page | 91
34. You are the System Official and are busy attending to some calls of users, when a hardware vendor comes for maintenance. You should : a) Allow him to carry out his work in the system room, while you finish the jobs at hand. b) Since the hardware vendor is a routine visitor, allow him to attend to your systems in the system room. c) Allow him to complete his maintenance work and ask him to record his visit in the Access Register. d) Accompany him to the system room, record his visit in the Access Register, and then provide him access to the system as authorized.
35. You receive an attachment in an e-mail from an unknown source. What should you do in such a situation as per bank's policy ? a) Click on the attachment to see if it contains any clues about the sender. b) Click on the attachment to view its contents. c) Delete the e-mail without opening it. d) Run a virus scan on the attachment before opening it.
36. Of the pairs of user IDs and passwords listed below, which pair is the strongest? a) Admin and Admin b) Super and sup123 c) User1 and usr1234 d) Sanjay and ms@tp078
37. An employee of XYZ Company has an account with your bank. You receive an e-mail from the company requesting for details of the balance in that employee‟s savings account and the names of the nominees. What will you do? a) Give the details because the company is the employer. b) Not give any details because the person requesting for the information has not come personally to the bank. c) Not give any information because it amounts to an unauthorised disclosure of customer information. d) Give the information because every customer has a right to information.
38. Whether Nodes in your Branch / Office which are connected to SB Connect can be connected to internet directly a) It is prohibited b) It can be connected if there is business need and with the approval of CC-IT Networking dept. c) Can be connected after taking all precautions, no approval required d) Can be connected with the approval from ITS department
Page | 92
39. Which department should authorise direct Internet access in a Branch/ Office/Department of the Bank? a) Information Security Dept (ISD) b) IT Network Department at Global IT Centre(GITC) Belapur c) Branch Manager / Head of the Dept or Office d) ITS dept at LHO
40.The most important feature of a good password is that it: a) Consists of the user‘s name, abbreviated name, or initials b) Consists of the names of the user‘s family, friends, colleagues, or institution c) Is a combination of letters of the alphabet and numerals d) Is a combination of alphabets, numbers and special characters
41. Secured Socket Layer is a) Used on Web-Page Communication to protect sensitive information b) Used in Computer Hard-disk as a method for Data Storage c) A Physical Component used to protect our PCs d) a Computer Programming Language
42 In computer security, this describes a non-technical kind of intrusion that relies heavily on human interaction. It often involves tricking people to break their own security procedures. a) cyber terrorism b) hijacking c) non repudiation d) social engineering
43. The first step in Security Awareness is being able to ______a security threat a) avoid b) recognize c) challenge d) Log
44. What is Extended Validation SSL ? a) it enhances the user comfort in handling transactions b) it enhances the speed of the browser c) Extended Validation SSL Certificates give high-security web browser information to clearly identify a website's organizational identity d) it is an anti-virus check available in the INB site
45. Name the Encryption Mechanism implemented for online banking www.onlinesbi a) 32 Bit SSL b) 64 Bit SSL c) 128 Bit SSL d) 256 Bit SSL
46. Process of attempting to acquire sensitive information is called a) Spoofing b) Phishing c) Morphing d) Spam
Page | 93
47. Which of the following statement/s is/are true as per the acceptable usage policy of the Bank a) Confidential and sesitive information should not be send over e-mail even if protected by encryption. b) Do not provide email accounts of any other user in the bank to any website, mailing list, newsgroup or discussion boards without appropriate authorization. c) Do not subscribe to mailing lists using your Bank‘s official email account as the volume of mail traffic can be large and overflow mailbox storage space. d) Both B & C
48. Which one of the following settings of the browser is NOT advisable to have. a) Set browser security setting to medium b) Configure browser to remember web application passwords c) Enabling ID displays in web applications d) Maintaining history of URLs
ANSWER
1 b 11 d 21 a 31 b 41 a 2 a 12 b 22 c 32 d 42 d 3 b 13 b 23 c 33 a 43 b 4 d 14 d 24 a 34 d 44 c 5 a 15 b 25 d 35 c 45 d 6 d 16 b 26 a 36 d 46 b 7 b 17 d 27 d 37 c 47 d 8 c 18 c 28 d 38 a 48 b 9 d 19 d 29 a 39 b 10 d 20 c 30 c 40 d
Page | 94
CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES Compiled by Raj Kumar Chief Manager (Learning)
1. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ? a) SBI b) RBI c) Govt. of India d) None of these
2. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ? a) Govt of India b) RBI c) IBA d) None of these
3. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ? a) Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b) Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50/- c) Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d) None of these
4. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ? a) Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b) Sec 35 A of B.R Act c) Sec 35 A of RBI Act d) None of these
5. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is a) Principal & Agent b) Bailor & Bailee c) Agent & Principal d) None of these
6. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity upto ? a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 50/- c) Rs 10/- d) Rs 500/-
7. IBCH overnight cash retention limit is ? a) Rs 2 lakh b) Rs 5 lakh c) Rs 1 lakh d) None of these
8. In Branch Cash Handling (IBCH) is applicable to ? a) Metro branches b) Non currency chest branches c) All branches d) Currency chest branches
9. For Rs 500/- & Rs 2000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for ? a) Quantity only b) Quality only c) Both quality & quantity d) None of these
10. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the joint Custodians once in ? a) Once in two months b) Half year c) Quarter d) Once in a year
Page | 95
11. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ? a) Sundry balance b) Petty cash balance c) Branch Cash balance d) None of these
12. Cash officer is responsible for ______while sanctioning gold loan? a) Purity b) Weight c) Value d) All the above
13. Vault Register will always be kept in ? a) Accountant’s Hand Safe b) Strong Room c) With Cash Officer d) None of these
14. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest? a) Rs 1 lac & multiples of Rs 1 lac only b) Rs 1 lac & in multiples of Rs50,000 there of c) Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs50,000 d) None of these
15. Currency Chest is the property of ? a) Government of India b) SBI c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above
16. Small Coin Depot consists of ? a) All coins b) Coins upto Rs. 1/- c) Coins below Re. 1/- d) Coins upto Rs. 5/-
17. Currency held by non-chest branches of SBI is the property of ? a) Govt of India b) SBI c) RBI d) None of these
18. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ? a) Once in two months b) A quarter c) Once in a year d) Six months
19. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ? a) Suspense account b) Charges account c) Sundry Deposit account d) Commission account
20. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be entered in? a) Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b) Cash officer’s jotting book c) Cash box receipt Delivery Register d) None of these
Page | 96
21. The difference between day’s total withdrawals and day’s total deposits in the chest is? a) Treasury Transfer b) Cash Transfer c) Currency Transfer d) None of these
22. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest branch? a) 31st March b) 31st May c) 30th June d) 31st Dec
23. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be issuable notes, then entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending bank’s cost? a) 10 b) 5 c) 20 d) None of these
24. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash Dept.? a) Cash Transfer Register b) Cash Receipts Delivery Register c) Cash Officer’s Jotting Book d) Cash Transaction Register
25. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances? a) Comprehensive insurance cover b) Fidelity Insurance cover c) Transit Insurance cover d) None of these
26. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake Currency notes, if the no. of notes is ? a) More than 5 b) More than 4 c) Less than 5 d) More than 6
27. Days net Withdrawal/ Deposit to reported to FSLO through? a) ICCOMS b) IFAMS c) Fax d) email
28. Verification of Currency Chest balances by officials other than Joint custodian is done at______intervals? a) Once in a month b) Once in 2 months c) No periodicity stipulated d) Once in a quarter
29. Cash retention limit of the branch will be reviewed by ______every year in the month of______? a) RM or CM (Admin), May b) CM (Admin), May c) Regional Manager, Nov d) RM or CM (Admin), Nov
Page | 97
30. The Controller of the branches will arrange for periodical cash verification of Hand Balance Branches ____? a) At half yearly interval by the Branch Managers of nearby branches b) By the Branch Manager of the Branch c) No need for verification d) None of the above
31. The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____? a) The cash retention limit of the branch. b) Upto 50,00,000/- c) Upto 49,00,000/- d) None of the above
32. While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in multiples of ______? a) Rs.100000/- b) Rs.50000/- c) Rs.500/- d) None of the above
33. The counterfeit bank notes cannot be impounded by------a) All PSBs b) All Treasuries and Sub-treasuries c) All NBFCs d) All Co-operative banks & RRBs
34. Cash shortage up to which is made good by the employee same day and if there is no suspicion of fraud, it need not be reported as fraud. a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.5,000/- c) Rs.10,000/- d) None of these
35. In order to keep FCN(Foreign Currency Notes) at optimum level, branches are advised to handover the FCNs to …...... a) Overseas Branch at monthly intervals b) M/s Thomas Cook India Limited (TCIL) at regular interval c) Reserve Bank of India d) Need not to hand over FCNs, to be retained at branch
36. Surprise verification of Critical Currency Chests is made by LHO at ? a) Monthly Interval b) Quarterly Interval c) Half Yearly Interval d) No periodicity stipulated
37. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest to another currency chest? a) Branch Cash Balance is credited and RBI’s Account is debited b) Branch Cash Balance is debited and RBI’s Account is credited c) No Entry is passed d) None of these
Page | 98
38. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances of treasure is? a) Borne by Bank b) Paid by RBI c) Paid initially by Bank, then reimbursed by RBI d) None of these
39. Repository is part of? a) Branch Cash Balance b) Currency Chest c) Small Coin Depot d) None of these
40. Printing & Circulation of forged Indian currency notes is an offence u/s ? a) Sec 292 of Criminal Procedure Code b) Sec 489A to 489E of Indian Penal Code c) Both d) None
41. Forged Note Vigilance Cell (FNVC) of the bank is required to submit data onCounterfeit notes detected during a month on all India basis by email to____before the end of succeeding month. a) RBI Issue Office b) FIU-IND, New Delhi c) National Crime Records Bureau, New Delhi d) Currency Management Dept. of RBI, Mumbai
42. Recounting of note packets is not required for denominations upto ? a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 100/- c) Rs 500/- d) All note packets to be recounted
43. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault ? a) Cash-in-Charge alone b) Joint Custodian of Vault c) Accountant alone d) Branch Head alone
44. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are responsible for Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ? a) Person preparing the bundle b) Cash-in-charge c) Accountant d) Joint Custodian 45. Ramesh, single window operator, reported shortage of cash of Rs 5000/- in hiscounter on 3rd Jan 2015. He is also not in position to deposit the same. Shortage will be made good by debit to ? a) Suspense A/c b) System Suspense A/c Originating Debit c) Recalled Asset A/c d) Charges A/c
Page | 99
46. Ceiling for petty cash expense is ? a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.25/- c) Rs.50/- d) Rs.49/-
47. Petty Cash should be checked by ______at ______interval a) BM, Monthly Irregular b) Accountant, Regular c) RM, Monthly d) BM, Fortnightly
48. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD register and the safe deposit receipt is held by ______? a) Accountant outside the strong room b) Accountant inside the strong room c) BM outside the strong room d) BM inside the strong room
49. One Rupee coin is issued under ______act a) Coinage Act, 1906 b) RBI c) SBI d) BR Act
50. Currency Notes are printed at ? a) Nasik, Dewas, Mysore & Salboni b) Nasik, Pune, Indore & Kanpur c) Nasik, Pune, Dehradun &Mysore d) Nasik, Hissar, Salboni & Pune
51. The number of transactions allowed in a Currency Chest per day is a) Any number of withdrawals and deposits b) One withdrawal in the morning and one deposit in the evening c) One withdrawal and unlimited deposits in a day d) Unlimited withdrawals and one deposit in a day
52. The BGL A/c No. 98903 in CBS is a) Branch Cash Balance A/c b) Teller Cash Balance A/c c) Currency Transfer A/c d) Bin Balance A/c
53. The BGL A/c No. 98912 in CBS is a) Branch Cash Balance A/c b) Teller Cash Balance A/c c) Currency Transfer A/c d) Bin Balance A/c
54. The CDC report of difference between BGL Cash and CGL cash is a) glcntr b) glcash c) glcomp d) gldiff
55. Which one of the following can NOT do cash receipts / payments in CBS a) Vault Custodian b) Branch Manager c) Cash Officer d) Field Officer
Page | 100
56. The CGL number for CASH is a) 1260505001 b) 1204505001 c) 5108505001 d) 5108505002
57. The CBS user type for Cash Officer / Cash-in-charge is a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d)60
ANSWER
1 c 11 c 21 c 31 a 41 d 51 a 2 a 12 d 22 b 32 b 42 b 52 a 3 a 13 b 23 b 33 c 43 b 53 b 4 b 14 b 24 b 34 a 44 a 54 c 5 a 15 c 25 c 35 b 45 c 55 a 6 a 16 c 26 b 36 b 46 c 56 b 7 c 17 b 27 a 37 c 47 a 57 d 8 c 18 c 28 b 38 c 48 c 9 b 19 c 29 a 39 b 49 a 10 a 20 c 30 a 40 b 50 a
Page | 101
KNOW YOUR CUSTOMER &ANTI MONEY LAUNDERING Compiled by Archana Kachroo Chief Manager(Learning)
1. The Anti Money Laundering Cell of the Bank has been established at______. a. Jaipur b. Nagpur c. Bhubaneswar d. New Delhi
2. The Anti Money Laundering Cell of the Bank has been established under the control of ______a. CGM (New Business) b. CGM (Inspection & Audit) c. CGM (CAG) d. CGM (Banking Operation)
3. The Principal Officer (KYC & AML) for SBI is:- a. CGM (Banking Operations) b. CGM (CAG) c. CGM (New Business) d. CGM (Financial Control)
4. The Software used for generation of Suspicious Transactions Report is known as: a. AMLCOK b. AMLOCK c. AMLSST d. AMLSTR
5. Which of the following is the key element of KYC/AML/CFT? a. Customer Identification & Acceptance b. Customer Identification & Transaction Monitoring c. Risk Management, Customer Identification, Transaction Monitoring & Customer Acceptance d. Customer Acceptance & Risk Management
6. Which of the following defines a Customer? a. B.R.Act.1949 b. N.I.Act.1881 c. KYC & AML Guidelines d. None of the above
7. Cash Transaction Report for the whole Bank is submitted by Banking Operation Department to: - a. FIU-India b. Money Laundering Reporting Officer c. RBI, Banking Operation Department d. Investigating Agencies of Government
8. Who amongst the following is designated as the Money Laundering Reporting Officer at the Circle Level? a. DGM &CDO b. DGM & CFO c. CGM d. GM (NW)
Page | 102
9. For Low risk customers, Customer Identification data should be updated once in _____years. a. 3 b. 4 c. 10 d. 6
10. For transaction in small deposit accounts the ceiling for total credits in a year is fixed at:- a. Rs.50000 b. Rs.100000 c. Rs.200000 d. Rs.500000
11. Which day is celebrated as SBI KYC Day? a. 1st August b. 1st August or subsequent day if the same day happens to be a holiday c. 1st July d. 1st April
12. As per the Simplified KYC guidelines, the current limits for balance in Small Deposit Accounts should not exceed: - a. Rs.20000 b. Rs.50000 c. Rs.100000 d. Rs.200000
13. Counterfeit Currency Reports should be submitted to: - a. Local Police Station b. Controlling Office c. FIU-IND d. None of the above
14 As per revised guidelines regarding Monitoring and Reporting of Cash Transaction (CTR) of Rs. 10 lacs & above a. Manual recording of such transactions in register is dispensed with b. Reporting of such transaction has been withdrawn c. Examine CTR generated by AML/CFT Deptt and report suspicious transactions d. All of the above
15. Partial Freezing means a. Credits allowed but debits not allowed b. Both credits and debits not allowed c. Debits allowed but credits not allowed d. None of these
16. e-KYC means a. Aadhar based KYC b. Electronic submission of KYC c. enabled- KYC d. None of these
Page | 103
17. Counterfeit Currency Reports (CCRs) are required to be submitted by branches online on real time basis w e f. a. 01.09.16 b. 01.11.16 c. 01.10.16 d. To be sent manually
18. Customers who do not co-operate for making their accounts KYC compliant despite repeated communications/contacts by the Bank, such accounts should be: i. Considered for freezing of transactions ii. Closed immediately if the balance is Rs 500 and below with no operations for 24 months. iii. Closed only after KYC compliance iv. Allowed to operate by referring the transaction to the concerned officer. a) only (i ) is correct b) only (i) & (ii) are correct c) Either (i) or (iii) is correct d) Either (i) or (iv) is correct
19. As per the AML Act. all documents pertaining to customers' KYC compliance and transactions need to be preserved, after cessation of relationship for ___years a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
20. Ceiling for remittance of funds by IOI against cash is: a. Less than Rs.50000 b. Less than Rs.10000 c. Less than Rs.20000 d. Less than Rs.100000
21. Which of the followings are not obligations of Bank under PML Act. i. Maintaining transaction records. ii. Identify records of customers iii. Reporting of transactions to specified authorities iv. None of the above a. (i) only b. (ii) only c. (i) & (iii) only d. (iv) only
22. Offence of Money Laundering" is defined under Section______of PML Act. a. Sec.3 b. Sec.12 c. Sec.15 d. Sec.4
23. The term CFT stands for: - a. Combating Financial Terrorism b. Criminal Fund Transfer c. Criminal Financial Transactions d. Codes For Transactions
24. Number of Officially valid documents (OVD) acceptable is a. 6 b.5 c. 7 d.8
Page | 104
25. For High & Medium Risk categories of customers, periodicity of updation of personal information/data is at least once in ____ and ______year(s) respectively. a. 1&2 b. 2 & 8 c. 3 & 8 d. 5 & 10
26. NRE SB accounts have to be opened with ______as KYC document. a. Resident Bank Account and Work Permit b. Attested copies of passport and Visa c. Immigrant Certificate from Indian Embassy d. Employer's Certificate.
27. In case of Minors, the acceptable KYC documents are, the documents of ______for opening bank account. a. Natural guardian b. Legal guardian c. The Minor himself/herself d. Guardian who operate the account
28. In case of Trust Account, KYC compliance will be ensured by obtaining verified copies of -----. a. Trust Deed & Identification of the person who will operate the account. b. Attested copy of Trust Deed c. Personal Ids of all the trustees d. All of the above.
29. Extra precautions to be taken in accounts of fiduciary nature include:- a. Obtaining of evidence of identity of intermediaries b. Verifying identity of the beneficiaries c) Enquiring into the details of the nature of the Fiduciary Relationship d. All the above.
30. While opening the accounts of Administrators of a State, Receivers, Assignees, it is necessary to examine which of the following papers a. Probate b. Codicil c. Letter of Administration d. Identification & Address proof of the persons concerned.
31. Politically Exposed Persons are individuals who i. People affiliated to political parties ii. Heads of States/Govt. iii. Are entrusted with a prominent public function in foreign country iv. Family members and closer relatives of (ii) & (iii) above a. (i) only b. (ii) only c. (i),(ii) & (iii) only d. (ii) (iii) & (iv) only
Page | 105
32. Accounts of Non face to face customers can be opened by a bank on the basis of ID & Residential proof certified by: a. Notary Public b. Official of Indian Embassy c. A person known to Bank d. All the above
33. Proposal for entering into correspondent relationship should be referred to the ______for ensuring compliance with KYC guideline. a. Money Laundering Report Office b. Principal Officer (KYC & AML) c. RBI, Banking Operation Department d. Financial Action Tax Force
34. Which of the following transactions are exempted from KYC guidelines? a. Customer to Customer domestic fund transfer b. Cross Boarder Customer to Customer electronic funds transfer c. Inter Bank funds transfer where both the senders and receivers are Banks. d. None of the above
35. The US equivalent of our PML Act. is:- a. US Patriot Act. b. US Federal Reserve Guidelines for KYC c. US Citizens Act. d. US Federal Reserve Act.
36. Customer profiles of individual account holders are compiled with a view to – a. Establish identify b. Exercise control on individual transactions c. To know his occupation and date of birth d. To know his educational qualification.
37. A proprietorship firm with annual debit summation of Rs.6 lacs will be categorized as: a. Low Risk b. Medium Risk c. High Risk d. None of the above
38. An account opened in the name of Gram Panchayat with NREGP Funds will be classified as a. Low Risk b. Medium Risk c. High Risk d. None of the above 39. A NRI Account with a balance of Rs.5 lacs will be classified as : a. High Risk b. Medium Risk c. Low Risk d. None of the above
40. Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Rules define a suspicious transaction as one which i. has no economic rationale
Page | 106 ii. appears to be made in unjustified and complex circumstances iii. gives rise to suspicion that it may be connected with criminal proceeds iv. all transactions exceeding Rs.10 lac whether cash or transfer a. (i) only b. ((iv) only c. (i) (ii)& (iii) only d. (ii) & (iii) only
41. An account opened in the name of a customer domiciled in Russia will be categorized as ------. a. High Risk Customer b. Medium Risk customer c. Low Risk customer d. None of the above
42. Aadhaar is not required for:- a. Residents of J&K, Assam and Meghalaya b. NRIs c. Both of a and b d. Mandatory for all
43. In case of Basic Savings Bank account, who is responsible for ensuring KYC compliance? a. Business Correspondent b. Designated Officer at the Link Branch c. Officers Marketing & Recovery d. None of the above
44. Electricity bill not more than ______months old taken as proof of address. a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3
45. Which of the followings is the supplier of the "Anti Money Laundering" software? a. M/S G.E.Capital b. TCS Limited c. 3i Infotech d. IDRBT
46. Non compliance of the provisions of PML Act will invite a minimum penalty of Rs------a. 5000/- b. 10000/- c. 15000/- d. 20000/-
47. In case of cross border wire transfer of funds, the remittance message should be accompanied by; a. Payee's ID details b. Sender's bank confirmation c. Detailed originator information d. None of these
48. The FICTITIOUS OFFER OF FUNDS (FOF) is a. Deceiving or misleading by making false promises to give some benefits against payment of money in specified accounts of the fraudsters and subsequently withdrawing the same.
Page | 107 b. Detected at the branch and escalated to AML-CFT cell by way of STR. c. Only a is true d. Both a and b are true
49. The threshold limit for salaried customers is fixed at: a. One month's salary b. 25% of annual income c. 25% of annual income, maximum Rs 10 lac d. Rs 100000/-
50. Counterfeit Currency Reporting (CCR) application can be accessed at the following URL: a) https://ccr.sbi.co.in b) https://ccr.statebanktimes.in/ c) https://ccrsbi.co.in d) None
ANSWER
1 a 11 b 21 c 31 d 41 a 2 d 12 b 22 a 32 d 42 c 3 a 13 c 23 a 33 b 43 a 4 b 14 d 24 b 34 c 44 a 5 c 15 c 25 b 35 a 45 c 6 c 16 b 26 b 36 b 46 a 7 a 17 c 27 d 37 a 47 b 8 b 18 b 28 d 38 a 48 d 9 c 19 b 29 d 39 a 49 c 10 b 20 a 30 c 40 c 50 b
Page | 108
SETTLEMENT OF DECEASED CONSTITUENTS
Compiled by Raj Kumar,Chief Manager (L)
1. Before grant of Succession Certificate, whether the Banker can make payment to the survivor? a) Legal heir b) No c) YES d) None
2. Within how many days the settlement has to be done after completing all the formalities? a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) no limitation period
3. What is the limit above which AFFIDAVIT has to be obtained? a) Above Rs.50,000/- b) above Rs.1 lac c) Above Rs.5.00 lac d) No limit
4. Under which Section Succession Certificate is issued as per Indian Succession Act? a) Sec 375 b) Sec 377 c) Sec 372 d) Sec 371
5. How many sureties are required to sign the indemnity Document ? a) Two b) One or Two Jointly Surety good for the Amount c) Three d) No surety required
6. Which document constitutes the foundation for settlement of a deceased constituent’s accounts? a) Legal heir certificate b) Proper person certificate c) Death certificate d) Letter of administration.
7. Amount above which Indemnity has to be obtained? a) Rs.25,000/- b) Rs.50,000/- c) Rs.5.00 lac d) irrespective of the amount
8. How many nominations has to be obtained in case of Govt. deposit accounts? a) One only b) More than one c) Three only d) Five only
Page | 109
9. Which form has to be obtained while getting fresh nomination? a) DA 1 b) DA 2 c) DA 3 d) DA 4
10. What is Probate? a) Registered copy of the will b) Certified copy of the will c) Succession certificate issued by court d) Legal declaration by Testator
11. While disposing off the deceased assets, the particulars of death certificate, probates, succession certificate, letters of administration and court orders appointing receivers, etc. are recorded in a) Power of Attorney Register. b) Sundry Documents Register. c) Branch Document Register. d) Safe Custody Register
12.Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to be kept in ? a) Joint custody b) Safe Deposit Articles c) In a separate locker d) None of these
13. Nomination obtained as in deposit accounts as per section? a) 45ZC of Banking Regulation Act 1949 b) 45ZA of Banking Regulation Act 1949 c) 45ZA of Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 d) 45ZA of Contract Act
14. How many nominations has to be obtained in case of Bank deposit accounts? a) One only b) Two only c) Three only d) Five only
15. An assignee is a person who a. is appointed by court for administration of a will b. has been appointed by the court to look after property of the insolvent person c. appointed by the will of the deceased person d. person appointed by legal heirs as their attorney 16. If a Term Deposit stands in two names with mode of operation „Either or Survivor‟ and if one of the depositor is deceased, then which of the following is correct?
Page | 110
a) It can be paid to the other person before maturity b) It can be paid to the person surviving and to the legal heirs of deceased jointly c) It cannot be paid before maturity d) None of the above
17.Income tax attachment order does not attach which of the following amount? a) Entire balance in joint accounts b) Balance in Deceased account c) Fixed Deposit maturing in future date d)Chq sent for collection
18.Succession certificate is required to settle PPF deceased account if the settled amount is more than------a)10000 b)50000 c)100000 d) 500000
19.In case of deposits under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, signature of nominee duly attested by the depositor is taken on.. a) The account opening form b) separate piece of paper c) The nomination form d) none of the above
20.If the mandate in a joint account is E or S and nomination has been done in the account ,the right of the nominee arises only after’ a) Death of all the account holders b) Any one of the account holder c) Death of the first holder d) None of these ANSWER
1 c 11 b 2 a 12 b 3 c 13 c 4 c 14 a 5 b 15 b 6 c 16 b 7 c 17 a 8 b 18 c 9 a 19 d 10 b 20 a
Page | 111
NPA MANAGEMENT (Compiled by Archana kachroo, CM Learning)
1. NPA is a loan where Interest and/ or instalment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than ___ days in respect of a term loan. a) 3 months from due date b) 90 days from due date c) 12 months from due date d) 9 months from due date
2. Accounts with outstanding balance of Rs. ______are eligible for enforcement as per SARFEASI Act, a) Up to Rs.1 lac b) Rs 1 lac and above c) BRs.10 lac and above d) Above Rs.10 lac
3. The time limit provided to the borrower/guarantor in demand notice to repay the loan under SARFAESI Act, 2002 a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 60 days d) 90 days
4. If the realisable value of the security, as assessed by the bank/ approved valuers/ RBI is less than ______per cent of the outstanding in the borrowal accounts, the asset should be classified as loss asset. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 50
5. In case of doubtful assets, the secured portion of advance under D2 category attracts ______% provision a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100
6. In case of doubtful assets, the secured portion of advance under D1 category attracts ______% provision a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100
7. In case of doubtful assets, the secured portion of advance under D3 category attracts ______% provision a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100
Page | 112
8. As per SARFAESI Act, banks after giving 60 days notice, in writing, can take the possession of the assets. If the borrower makes an objection, the Authorised Officer to give the reply within a) 7 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) One month
9. Which of the following is correct regarding a special mention account a) It is to be classified as NPA Account b) Provision on SMA is the same as applicable to NPA Account c) Interest in such account cannot be debited d) It is a part of standard asset and provisions will be made as applicable to standard assets
10. An agricultural advance pertaining to long duration crops is classified as an NPA when installments of principal or interest remain overdue for a) 90 days b) 180 days c) 1 crop season d) 2 crop seasons
11. In case of doubtful assets, the unsecured portion of advance under D2 category attracts ______% provision a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100
12. An agricultural advance pertaining to short duration crops is classified as an NPA when instalments of principal or interest remain overdue for a) 90 days b) 180 days c) 1 crop season d) 2 crop seasons
13. In case of doubtful assets, the unsecured portion of advance under D1 category attracts ______% provision a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100
14. What is the time period to be given under Sale Notice as per SARFAESI Act ? a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 60 days
Page | 113
15. Establishment of CERSAI is as per the provisions of ------Act a) Banking Regulation Act b) SARFAESI Act c) R.B.I Act d) Indian Contract Act
16. Delay in filing satisfaction of charges with CERSAI attracts a penalty of ------a) Rs. 100 per day b) Rs. 1000 per day c) Rs. 5000 per day d) Rs. 10000 per day
17. As per SARFAESI Act publication of Possession Notice is ------a) Mandatory b) To be published if returned by Mortgagor c) As per the discretion of Branch Manager d) As per the discretion of Authorised Officer
18. Provisioning requirement in case of Agricultural advances in Standard category a) 0.25% b) 0.40% c) 0.50% d) 0.75%
19. Teaser loans under ―Standard‖ category advances attracts a provision of ------a) 0.25% b) 0.40% c) 1.00% d) 2.00%
20. Restructured advances under ―Standard‖ category requires provisioning of ---- a) 1.00% b) 2.00% c) 4.00% d) 5.00%
21. How many types of NPA classification are available in CBS: a) 9 b) 8 c) 5 d) 6
22. Recoveries in AUCA Accounts are credited to _____account. a) Charges b) commission c) Recalled Assets d) Interest A/cs
Page | 114
23. Revised IRAC status in accounts where 2 EMIs are overdue for a period more than 30 days is: a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6
24. Banks can sell NPAs which are ---- year old to other Banks. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)4
25.… Stressed Assets consists of: a) SMA,NPA, AUCA b)NPA and AUCA c) SMA & Sub Std Assets d) None
26. Agri TL for allied activities viz. Dairy, poultry, goat rearing, piggery etc will be treated NPA if interest or an instalment of principal remains unpaid for a period more than ____ days a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 91 Days
27. What is % of provision is made for Loss Asset a) 15 % b) 25 % c) 40% d) 100%
28. On which IRAC status the account is actually treated as NPA: a) Old IRAC b) New IRAC status c) Both old and New d) none.
29. Indicative NPA consist of: a) Stamped NPA plus RG 4 b) all NPAs c) SMA and NPA d) None
30. According to revised guidelines revised IRAC status for Accounts irregular for more than 60 days or interest not serviced for more than 60 days is: a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5
Page | 115
31. As per revised guidelines revised IRAC Status for CC/OD accounts with stock statement older above 150 days is: a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
32. Under SEIZURE AND SALE OF VEHICLES BEFORE REPOSESSION first notice should be sent on the first non-receipt of instalment on the due date notice to the customer giving a) 3 days’ time reckoned from the date of service of notice to clear the due amount b) 7 days’ time reckoned from the date of service of notice to clear the due amount c) 15 days’ time reckoned from the date of service of notice to clear the due amount d) None
33. Referral limit upto Rs……..lacs has fixed by RBI for Lok Adalats: a) 10 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 30 lacs c) 50 Lacs
34. Recovery of Debts of Rs……lacs and above cases (inclusive of interest) have to be filed with DRT: a) 10 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 30 lacs d) 8 lacs
35. Banks can now take action against defaulting borrowers under SARFAESI and DRT simultaneously (securitization and reconstruction of financial assets and enforcement of security interest act 2002) a) True b) False
36. SARFAESI Act is not applicable to Accounts where amount due is less than: a) 1lac b) 2 lac c) 3 lacs d) 5 lacs
37. What is the provision to be made for SMAs? a) No provision b) 100% provision
Page | 116 c) Provision as applicable to STD Assets d) 15 %
38. Stressed Assets Review (SAR) will cover loan assets having potential for Quick Turnaround is: a) SMA and SUB STD Assets b) SUB STD & D A c) DA & AUCA d) None
39. Only Units outstanding of Rs. ______and above are covered under SAR (stressed assets review report) to be submitted within 10 days a) 10 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 50 lacs d) 100 lacs 40. How many arrear conditions are there in NPA tracking from 19/06/2011? a) 52 b) 42 c) 126 d) 26
41. AUCA Reviews are conducted at _____intervals: a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half yearly d) Bi Monthly
42. In NPA tracking of agriculture advances the concept of 90 days will not be there for which of the following activity a) Crop loan b) tractor loan c) Dairy loan d) None of these
43. Main criteria for classification of loan accounts is based on _____record. a) Repayment b) Security c) Past experience d) None
44. Borrower account is to be classified as SMA in terms of ____ purpose. a) Internal monitoring b) Restructuring c) Early recovery d) none
45. What are Gross and Net NPA? a) Actual NPAs, Gross NPA less Provisions b) Actual NPA, Gross NPA less Tier I capital c) Actual NPA, Gross NPA less Recovery d) Actual NPA
Page | 117
46. In CBS most of the NPA management will be done from which menu a) DL/TL Account Services b) Transaction posting c) Common Processing d) none of these
47. A written off account will be parked in AUCA only if : a) Outstanding in the a/c being more than Rs.50000/- b) Legal action has been initiated and /or some tangible security is available and the realizable value thereof is more than 20% of the outstanding c) Both a & b d) None
48. Technical NPAs are those indicative NPAs which have arisen due to: a) Wrong data entry either at the time of A/c opening or errors at migration of Branch to CBS b) Errors occurred due to hardware/software c) Errors on account of technical feasibility of advance d) None
49. Conversion loans treated as: a) Current dues and standard account b) Old dues and NPA c) Current dues and sub standard d) None
50. What is the time period under SARFAESI Act 2002, for justifying the possession, in case the borrower raises an objection for possession of the asset? a) 60 days b) 30 days c) 7 days d) 3 days
Page | 118
ANSWERS
1 b 11 d 21 a 31 a 41 b 2 b 12 d 22 a 32 b 42 a 3 c 13 d 23 a 33 b 43 a 4 a 14 b 24 b 34 a 44 a 5 b 15 b 25 c 35 a 45 a 6 a 16 c 26 c 36 a 46 c 7 d 17 a 27 d 37 c 47 c 8 b 18 a 28 a 38 a 48 a 9 d 19 d 29 a 39 a 49 a 10 c 20 d 30 b 40 d 50 c
Page | 119
CUSTOMER SERVICE AND COMPLAINT MANAGEMENT Compiled by Archana Kachroo, CM(Learning)
1. Under COPRA Act State commission deals with claims > up to______a) Above Rs.50 lacs up to Rs.100 lac b) Above Rs.30 lacs up to Rs.100 lac c) Above Rs.20 lacs up to Rs.100 lac d) Above Rs.10 lacs up to Rs.50 lac
2. Under RTI Act CIC (Central Information Commission) can impose penalty of Rs.____ per day till the information is provided subject to a maximum of Rs.______a) 500/- & 25,000/- b) 100/- & 10,000/- c) 250/- & 25,000/- d) 500/- & 50,000/-
3. Under RTI Act the CPIO has to provide information or reject the same within ___ days a) 45 b) 15 c) 30 d) 60
4. Under COPRA Act District forum deals with claims up to______a) Rs.20 lacs b) Rs.25 lacs c) Rs.5 lacs d) Rs.50 lacs
5. Who is CPIO in Right to Information Act 2005? a) Central public information officer b) Central Private Information Officer c) Company public information officer d) Company private information Officer
6. What is the claim in national commission under Consumer Protection Act- 1986? a) Claim above 130.00 lacs b) Claim above 100.00 lacs c) Claim above 120.00 lacs d) Claim above 150.00 lacs
7. Who is Banking Ombudsman? a) The Banking Ombudsman is person appointed by the Govt of India to redress customer complaints against certain deficiency in banking services b) The Banking Ombudsman is person appointed by the State Bank of India to redress customer complaints against certain deficiency in banking services
Page | 120 c) The Banking Ombudsman is person appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress customer complaints against certain deficiency in banking services d) The Banking Ombudsman is person appointed by the state government to redress customer complaints against certain deficiency in banking services
8. Which banks are covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006? a) All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks are covered under the Scheme. b) All Scheduled Commercial Banks, c) All Regional Rural Banks covered under the Scheme. d) All Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks
9. A Customer can bring up any internet banking problem to the notice of the Bank by raising a a) Ticket b) Request c) Complaint d) e mail
10. Consumer Protection Act is not applicable to a) Failure to open accounts b) Failure to issue draft c) Failure to accept small coins d) Non-sanction of loans and advances.
11. What cost involved in filing complaints with Banking Ombudsman? a) 1% on disputed amount b) The Banking Ombudsman does not charge any fee for resolving customers’ complaints c) 3% on disputed amount d) 5% on overall amount
12. Which is the unit set up by Bank which performs the various services like receiving voice calls, emails, letters, complaints from the customers, in addition to accepting the requests for cheque book, fund transfer, bill payment etc. a) Liability Centralised Processing b) Contact Centre c) Complaint Centre d) Outbound Sales Force
13. Which committee on customer service appointed by RBI recommended for restoration of cash failed to be dispensed through ATMs to the customer’s accounts within 5 days? a) Damodaran Committee b) Khale committee
Page | 121 c) Usha Thorat Committee d) Narendra Dev committee
14. Complaint can be filed within _____years from the cause of action under Consumer Protection Act. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
15. Complaint to be Rejected/Admitted within ____days, under Consumer Protection Act. a) 21 b) 30 c) 14 d) 7 16. Failure to comply the orders of Consumer Forum may be punishable with ______a) Imprisonment ranging from 1 month to 7 years b) Imprisonment ranging from 3 months to 3 years and with fine ranging between Rs 2,000/- and Rs 5,000/- or both. c) Imprisonment ranging from 1 months to 5 years and with fine ranging between Rs 2,000/- and Rs 10,000/- or both. d) Imprisonment ranging from 6 months to 3 years and with fine ranging between Rs 2,000/- and Rs 5,000/- or both.
17. Appeal against district forum to the state commission can be filed within ___days under Consumer Protection Act. a) 60 b) 45 c) 30 d) 120
18. What is time limit for filing appeal in Ombudsman scheme? a) Within 45 days of receipt of award b) Within 60 days of receipt of award c) Within 30 days of receipt of award d) Within 90 days of receipt of award
19. RBI Cheque Collection Policy does not cover a) Immediate Credit for Local / Outstation cheques b) Time frame for Collection of Local / Outstation Instruments c) Interest payment for delayed collection d) Identification of the customer
Page | 122
20. The time limit for resolution of customer complaints by the issuing banks has been reduced to ____ working days from the date of receipt of customer complaint. a) 7 days b) 5 days c) 12 days d) 3 days
21. Who will impose penalty under RTI Act? a) Central information commission b) Central intelligence commission c) Central vigilance commission d) Central planning commission
22. Exemptions from disclosure of information defined under Sec _____ of RTI Act a) 7 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6
23. Under which sec of RTI Act Bank has to facilitate the information? a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 7
24. Under RTI act time frame for Supply of information in normal course is __ days a) 20 b) 21 c) 30 d) 45
25. Who is the appellate authority under Banking Ombudsman? a) The Governor of Reserve Bank of India b) Finance \minister c) The Deputy Governor in the Reserve Bank of India d) Finance Commissioner
26. Acknowledge all the formal complaints including complaints received through electronic means within __ working days a) 3 days b) 7 days c) 10 days d) 15 days
27. As per RBI guidelines banks should extend business hours for non-cash related banking transactions other than cash up till a) one hour before close of the working hours b) 30 minutes close of the working hours c) Up to close of the working hours d) None of the above
Page | 123
28. Such non cash transaction are further classified as Non-voucher generating transactions and Voucher generating transactions. Select the most relevant option a) Issue of pass books/statement of accounts b) Issue of term deposit receipts c) Acceptance of individual cheques for transfer credit d) All of the above
29. The number of recommendations of Goiporia Committee is a) 120 b) 97 c) 176 d) 82
30. As per the recommendations of the Goiporia Committee, branches with ------or more staff strength should provide „May I Help You‟ counters. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30
31. Out of the following recommendations, which was not given by Goiporia Committee? a) Employees working hours should commence 20 minutes before business hours in metro and urban centres b) Nomination should be provided unless customer does not want it. c) Facility of instant credit of outstation instruments should be available d) Value dating of telegraphic transfers should be started.
32. Customer Service Committee and observing Customer Day are the outcomes of a) Talwar committee b) Goiporia Committee c) Nayak Committee d) Hussain Committee
33. As per SBI Compensation Policy (BANKING SERVICES)-2016, a duplicate IOI has to be issued within___ working days from the receipt of such request from the purchaser thereof. a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 10
34. Out of the items listed below, which is not the objective of Banks‟ Code for Customer Service? a) To promote good and fair banking practices
Page | 124 b) To increase transparency and foster confidence in the banking system c) To encourage market forces, through competition, to achieve higher operating standards d) To promote a cordial relationship between the customers
35. Which banking facility can be availed by visually impaired persons? a) ATM b) INB c) Both d) None
36. The bank will pay interest to its customers on the amount of collection instruments in case there is delay in giving credit beyond the time period specified in Bank’s Cheque collection policy. Select the right answer a) SB rate for the period of delay beyond 7/10/14 days, where the delay is beyond 14 days, interest will be paid at the rate applicable for term deposit for the corresponding period or Saving Bank rate, whichever is higher. b) In case of extraordinary delay, i.e. delays exceeding 90 days, interest will be paid at the rate of 2% above the corresponding Term Deposit rate. c) If proceeds are to be credited to an overdraft / loan account of the customer, interest will be paid at the rate applicable to the loan account. For extraordinary delays, i.e. delays exceeding 90 days, interest will be paid at the rate of 2% above the rate applicable to the loan account. d) All of the above
37. Customer contact centre is located at Bangalore, Vadodara and a) Agra, Jaipur b) Jabalpur, Jaipur c) Agra, Kolkata d) Kolkata. Jaipur
38. Which of the following is True in respect of Right To Information Act, 2005? a) Give Citizens of India access to Public Information b) Will promote transparency and accountability in Public Offices c) Information to be furnished within 30 days of receipt of query d) All of these
39. Right to Information Act came into effect from. a) 13 October 2005 b) 01 November 2005
Page | 125 c) 11 December 2005 d) 01 January 2006
40. Services of contact center are available in ___ different languages. a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
41. President of State Commission under the COPRA is a judge from the …..... a) High Court b) District Court c) Sessions Court d) None of these.
42. The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is..... a) Supreme Court b) High Court c) National Forum d) None of these.
43. Under the provisions of the COPRA, Appeal from one forum to another forum has to be filed within …. days from the date of the decision. a) 30 b) 35 c) 5 d) 10
44. Banks should settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to survivor(s) / nominee(s) within a period not exceeding ___ from the date of receipt of the claim subject to the production of proof of death of the depositor and suitable identification of the claim(s), to the bank's satisfaction a) 7 days b) 10 days c) 15 days d) 21 days
45. Non compliance/delayed compliance of ECS/ Direct debit instructions, the customer will be compensated. Amount of compensation will be interest calculated on the amount to be debited, for the delayed period, at SB rate with a) a minimum of Rs. 100/- and maximum of Rs.1,000/-. b) a minimum of Rs. 50/- and maximum of Rs.1,000/-. c) a minimum of Rs. 100/- and maximum of Rs.2,000/-. d) None of the above
46. Branch has logged in Debit Card request correctly. The request has to be routed to the concerned Card vendor through Debit Card Management System (DCMS). However, Card vendor has not received the request. What is the procedure to be adopted by the branch? a) These Complaints may be referred to TOCO department, GITC
Page | 126 b) Take up with complaint management System c) Matter to be taken up with the vendor d) None of the above
47. Card/PIN has been dispatched but not delivered to customer/Branch. Complaint to be referred to a) The customer as he/she needs to update address b) This relates to relationship with Postal /courier Agency, which is managed by ATM I&S Department, GITC under Alternate Channel Dept. c) Matter be taken up with ATM Switch Centre d) None of these
48. Ombudsman scheme is framed under which Act ? a) Section 35-A of BR Act b) Section 35-A of RBI Act c) Section 42 of RBI Act d) man scheme
49. Maximum award by Ombudsman for credit card is Rupees a) 50000 b) 10 lacs c) 5 lacs d) 20 lacs
50. Business queries pertaining to SBI Payment Gateway should be taken up with a) ATM Switch Centre b) Service Desk c) New Business Department d) Alternate Channel Deptt
51. If a complaint regarding services rendered by BC/BF does not get satisfactory response from the Bank within 60 days customer may approach------. a. R B I b) I B A c) Banking Ombudsman d) Consumer Forum
52. In case of queries regarding POS and e commerce transactions related to promotional campaigns matter should be referred to a) ATM Switch centre b) MAB Vertical under New Businesses Department c) TOCO Deptt GITC Belapur d) Alternate Channel Department
53. A customer lodged a complaint with XYZ Bank for deficiency in service but did not receive a reply. She should approach the Banking Ombudsman within ______from the date of complaint. a) One month b) One year
Page | 127 c) One month and one year d) Three years
54. Business and technical queries pertaining to SBI PoS terminals are taken up with a) ATM Switch centre b) Cards Vertical under New Businesses Department c) TOCO Deptt GITC Belapur d) None of the above
55. One can file a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman if the reply is not received from the bank within a period of ….... after the bank concerned has received one s representation, or the bank rejects the complaint, or if the complainant is not satisfied with the reply given by the bank. a) month b) 60 days c) 90 days d) A year
56. If the customer is not receiving SMS related to CBS transactions we must send e mail to______from branch e mail ID a)[email protected] b) [email protected] c) [email protected] d) [email protected]
57. Callers to Contact Centre can reach round the clock by dialing a) 080-26589990 or 1800 425 3855 or 1800 11 22 22 b) 080-26599999 or 1800 425 3888 or 1800 11 22 11 c) 080-26599990 or 1800 425 3800 or 1800 11 22 11 d) 080-26599990 or 1800 425 3855 or 1800 11 22 55
58. If SMS is not received for the INB transaction an e mail has to be sent to a)[email protected] b)[email protected] c)[email protected] d)[email protected]
59. Customer can complain to CMS a) By calling contact centre b) By visiting Home branch c) By visiting any branch d)All the above
60. Minimum ------meetings to be attended by the Controllers every year i.e. AGM /CM in a branch's Customer Service Committee meetings held monthly intervals.
Page | 128 a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
61. In Branch Customer Service Committee no of representatives from customers will be taken a) Two b) One c) Three d) No customer representative in Branch Customer Service Committee
62. The setting up of ATMs was recommended by a) Rangarajan committee b) Saraf Committee c) Narasimham committee d) Goiporia committee
63. In case the customer is agreeable print out of nominee name is available in CBS for which type of a/cs a) SB a/c Passbook b) TDR/S TDR Receipts c) Both a & b d) None of the above
64. What is a CSP? a) Customer Sales Point b) Consumer sales point c) Customer sales procedure d) Customer Service Point . 65. Expand CSO ? a) Customer Support officer b) Credit Support officer c) Customer Service officer d) Credit service officer
66. Regarding problems faced in CINB matter should be escalated to a) [email protected] b) [email protected] c) Any one of (a) or (b) d) None
67. In case of problems faced in Mobile wallet Buddy matter must be taken up by sending e mail to a) [email protected] b) [email protected] c) Any one of (a) or (b) d) none
Page | 129
ANSWERS 1 c 16 c 31 a 46 a 61 a 2 c 17 c 32 a 47 b 62 a 3 c 18 a 33 b 48 a 63 c 4 a 19 d 34 d 49 d 64 d 5 a 20 a 35 c 50 d 65 c 6 b 21 a 36 d 51 c 66 c 7 c 22 c 37 c 52 b 67 c 8 a 23 c 38 d 53 c 9 a 24 c 39 d 54 b 10 d 25 c 40 c 55 a 11 b 26 a 41 a 56 b 12 b 27 a 42 a 57 c 13 a 28 d 43 a 58 a 14 a 29 b 44 c 59 d 15 a 30 d 45 a 60 b
Page | 130
FATCA AND CRS (Compiled by Archana Kachroo, CM(Learning)
1. In case of individual accounts the following information is mandatory in CBS a) Country of Birth, Place of Birth b) Country of Tax Residence, Tax Identification Number (TIN), TIN issuing country c) Correspondence address d) All of the above
2. In case of entity accounts the following information is mandatory in CBS a) Identification type, Identification Number, Identification issuing country b) Country of Tax Residence, TIN issuing country, Foreign TIN number c) Address type d) All of the above
3. In paper record search branch has to review the documentary evidences taken in respect of KYC/AML, POA, signature authority or SI forms of high value accounts of most recent period ? For considering most recent period the time frame is for how many years? a) 2 years, b) 3 years, b) 4 years d) 5years
4. In case of non-compliance or wrong compliance with the provisions of FATCA, SBI may be treated as a Non Participating Financial Institution (NPFI) by US IRS which means a) Imposition of huge penalties b) Loss of reputation to the bank c) Deduction of 30% levy and customers will receive only 70% of the funds being remitted from US & supporting 110 other FATCA compliant countries. d) All of the above
5. If US Indicia is for FATCA then what Indicia is for CRS? a) CRS Indicia, b) Indicia, c) Other Indicia d)Any of the above.
6. How many types of US Indicia and CRS indicia are identified for reporting under FATCA and CRS? a) 12 each under FATCA and CRS b) 13 US Indicia for FATCA and 10 Other Indicia for CRS, c) 10 US Indicia for FATCA and 10 Other Indicia for CRS, d) None.
Page | 131
7. What is remediation under FATCA and CRS? a) Process of taking documents/certificate from FATCA/CRS account holder to effect that the account holder is not tax resident of US or CRS countries, b) Marking all accounts non-reportable in CBS, c) Checking the source of income from account holders d) None.
8. What are cured accounts in FATCA? a) The accounts where documents are received after due date of receipt of documents b) Cured accounts are account with US Indicia and documents proving non US Tax residency acceptable to RM/BM and are hence are US not reportable c) Accounts with US Indicia and documents proving US Tax residency d) All of the above
9. What type of documents is required to cure US Indicia? a) Self certification to the effect the account holder is neither a US Citizen nor resident for Tax purpose, b) A non-US passport or Government issued certification evidencing citizenship other than US & account holder certificate of reason of loss of US nationality c) A copy of the account holder’s certificate of loss of Nationality of the United States or a reasonable explanation accepted to RM d) All of the above.
10. What is meant by change of circumstances in FATCA? a) The account holder has become citizen of US, b) The account holder has become tax resident of US, c) The balance in the account exceeds $1Mio, d) All are true.
11. RM, FATCA & CRS would mean Branch Manager up to Scale __ branches a) II b) III c) IV d) V
12. RM, FATCA & CRS is required to arrange for a) Scanning & digitally storing all such self-certifications and documentation obtained as part of due diligence as a branch record.
Page | 132 b) To arrange for preserving and safe keeping of the self-certifications & other documents under his custody for audit c) Making it available wherever required. d) All of the above
13. For the rule of aggregation which is true? a) For aggregation rule only two or more individuals accounts can be classified, b) For aggregation rules percentage of interest in a particular company can be taken, c) All are true, d) None
14. What is full form of CRS? a) Compulsory Reporting System, b) Common Reporting Standard, c) Combined Reporting System. d) None of these
15. Which of the following is true for CRS? a) CRS is reporting for individuals/entity of other than US Tax residency, b) The cut off date for CRS is 31st December 2015 for preexisting accounts, c) Both are true. d) None of the above
16. The officials of the core committee at B&O/RBO level should cross-check the correctness of due diligence in respect of accounts in various buckets by making a sample checking of at least ___%of the accounts. a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
17. Officials of the core team at LHO level should cross-check the correctness of due diligence in respect of another ____ of accounts. a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
18. NFFE Means a) Non Financial Foreign Entity b)Non Fiscal Foreign Entity c) Non Foreign Financial Entity d) None
Page | 133
19. Reporting Financial Institution is a) One which is resident in India b) Does not include an office/branch outside India c) Includes an office of a foreign FI in India d) All of the above
20. Specified US Person can be a) Non US Citizen b) A US Citizen c) A domestic partnership d) (b) and (c)
21. GIIN number allotted to SBI Is a) 68D1E5.99999.SL.356 b) 68D1E6.99999.SL.356 c) 68D1E5.99999.SL.355 d) None of the above
ANSWERS 1 d 11 d 21 a 2 d 12 d 3 d 13 c 4 d 14 b 5 d 15 c 6 b 16 c 7 a 17 b 8 b 18 a 9 d 19 d 10 d 20 d
Page | 134
FOREX OPERATIONS 1 Compiled by Archana Kachroo, CM(Learning)
1. NRI status is derived from a) Residential status b) Citizenship/origin of a person c) Both the above d) None of the above
2. Sending foreign currency remittance through ―fx-out is available at a) NRI branches b) NRI intensive branches c) All SBI branches d) Authorised branches
3. Import and Export of goods and services are regulated by a) RBI b) GOI c) MOI d) DGFT
4. The main difference between NRI and NRO account is a) Repatriability of funds b) Nature of accounts c) Both the above d) None of the above.
5. Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) Account is a a) Current account b) Current account or Term Deposit c) SB or Term Deposit d) SB, CA or TDR / STDR
6. Which of the following is not true about NRO account? a) NRO account can be opened jointly with resident. b) NRO account can be opened jointly with Non-Resident. c) Nomination facility is available to NRO account holders. d) A resident can‘t operate a NRO account based on a POA.
7. Which of the following is not true about NRO account? a) Account holder can deposit any convertible foreign currency brought in by him through legal means. b) Legitimate income earned by NRI in India can be credited to NRO account. c) The NRO account holder can repatriate his current income.
Page | 135 d) International credit card payments can‘t be made by debit to NRO a/c
8. NRI deposit rates are linked with ______a) Card rate b) Spot rate c) LIBOR d) On-line rate
9. A resident POA holder can operate on the NRO account of NRI for a) All local payments in rupees including payments for eligible investments. b) For transfer of amount to other NRO accounts c) Make gift to a resident on behalf of the NRI d) All the above.
10. A person having a overdraft facility became NRI. Then, a) The OD should be closed immediately. b) The OD may be allowed to continue subject to repayment from domestic sources alone. c) The OD may be allowed to continue subject to repayment either from domestic sources or legitimate inward remittances. d) Before leaving for foreign country, the account should be closed.
11. NRE accounts are a) Rupee designated accounts b) Opened in 6 foreign currencies c) POA holder of NRI can open the account for NRI d) Both (a) & (c) are correct
12. Which of the following is true regarding NRE accounts? a) Balances in the accounts are fully repatriable. b) Balances with interest can be fully repatriated. c) They are exempted from income tax, but not form wealth tax. d) They are not exempted from any tax.
13. An NRI can open FCNR(B) joint account with a) An NRI with Malaysian passport. b) Any resident Indian. c) Another NRI. d) Resident close relative
14. Which of the following is false about NRE accounts?
Page | 136 a) NRE accounts can be opened as SB,CA and STDR with normal maturity periods as applicable to domestic deposits. b) Interest rates are totally de-regulated for NRE deposits c) Transfers from FCNR accounts is strictly restricted for NRE accounts. d) All the above
15. UCPDC in the context of International Banking stands for ______. a) Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary credits b) Universal Customs and Procedures for Documentary credits c) Universal Customs and Practice for Documentary credits d) Uniform Customs and Procedures for Documentary credits
16. Which of the following is correct about NRE accounts? a) NRE account balances can‘t be used for payment of charges of International credit cards. b) FCNs tendered by POA of NRI can be credited to NRE account of the NRI c) POA holder of NRE account can‘t make gifts on behalf of the NRI d) All the above.
17. Upon return to India, the NRE account of a NRI is a) Is re designated as resident rupee account b) Converted into RFC (HCD) deposit. c) Either of the two at the option of the depositor. d) Can be continued as NRE account.
18. Upon return of NRI, the fixed deposit in NRE account a) Will be converted into resident account and will earn applicable deposit rates to domestic deposits b) Can be continued as NRE account till the date of maturity and as per NRE deposit rates c) Will be converted into resident account but continue to earn NRE rates if the same is continued till the date of maturity d) None of the above
Page | 137
19. Which of the following is true regarding FCNR(B) deposit scheme? a) They are 6 foreign currency designated accounts in the form of STDR,SB,CA etc b) They are foreign currency designated term deposits with maximum maturity period of five years irrespective of the currency. c) The interest income from these accounts is not free of tax. d) Recurring deposits can be accepted under FCNR(B).
20. Which of the following is not a permitted mode to open FCNR(B) account? a) By a transfer of funds from existing NRE accounts. b) By transfer of funds from existing FCNR(B) account. c) By transfer of funds from NRO accounts. d) With funds received by debit to the account of non-resident bank maintained with authorized dealer in India.
21. A NRI after coming back to India got his NRE accounts converted into RFC accounts. What is status of the account when he becomes NRI again a) The RFC accounts will become NRE accounts b) They will continue as RFC accounts. c) Either of the above as per his choice d) None of the above
22. The balance along with interest in NRE account can be repatriated with the permission of a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance c) Commerce Ministry d) No permission required
23. TDR/STDR under NRE account can be opened for a period of : a) Minimum 1 Year Maximum 10 Years b) Minimum 1 Year Maximum 5 Years c) Minimum 6 Months Maximum 10 Years d) None of the above
24. SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be issued in which currency a) USD b) GBP c) Euro d) All of the above
Page | 138
25. What is the minimum amount in USD for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be initially loaded? a) USD 200 b) USD 500 c) USD 1000 d) USD 10000
26. In how many currencies Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card can be issued? a) 6 b) 7 c) 9 d) 8
27. Which rate will be applied while selling Vishwa Yatra Card? a) TT Selling b) Bill Selling c) TT Buying d) TC Buying
28. Which rates will be applied for purchasing the unspent balance in Vishwa Yatra Card? a) Bill Buying b) Bill Selling c) TT Buying d) TC Buying
29. Name the card that offers freedom to shop anywhere in the world a) SME Credit Card b) Kisan Gold Card c) SBI Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card d) Artisan Credit Card
30. Name an association of all ADs, which issues guidelines to its members for conduct of forex business and ancillary. a) FEDAI b) FEMA c) ECGC d) RBI
31. ETF stands for a) Exchange Traded Fund b) Electronic Traded Fund c) Exchange Traded Future d) Electronic Traded Future
32. Which rate is quoted for negotiation of export bills? a) TT Selling Rate b) TT Buying Rate c) Bill Selling Rate d) Bill Buying Rate
33. NRE accounts may be opened in a) USD b) Rupees
Page | 139 c) Four major currencies d) Any freely convertible currencies
34. International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) is Head quartered at a) Washington D C b) New York c) Paris d) London
35. A small legend is branded on the reverse of each cheque issued to the account holder of RFC (Domestic) a) Name b) Purpose c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
ANSWERS 1 c 6 d 11 a 16 c 21 a 26 d 31 a 2 c 7 d 12 b 17 c 22 d 27 b 32 d 3 d 8 c 13 d 18 c 23 a 28 a 33 b 4 a 9 a 14 d 19 b 24 d 29 c 34 c 5 a 10 c 15 a 20 c 25 a 30 a 35 b
Page | 140
FOREX OPERATIONS 2 Compiled by Archana Kachroo, CM(Learning)
1. All categories of foreign exchange earners are now allowed to retain ______% of their foreign exchange earnings in EEFC accounts. a) 50 b) 75 b) 100 d) 125
2. Expand OPGSP. a) Online Payment Gateway System Providers b) Online Payment Gateway Service Provision c) Online Payment Gateway Service Providers d) Online Payment General Service Providers
3. Interest is paid on EEFC accounts at the rate of a) TDR rate c) SB Rate b) No interest d) As per FEMA Rules
4. EBW statement in the context of exports is for ______. a) Export Bills Withheld b) Export Bills Without Payment c) Exports Bills Withdrawn d) Export Bills Written Off
5. FEMA rules have come into force with effect from ______. a) 1st June,2000 b) 1st June,2010 c) 1st May,2000 d) 1st April, 2000
6. Expand EDPMS a) Export Data Processing and Monitoring System b) External Data Processing and Monitoring System c) Export Data Processing and Monitoring Service d) Export Data Processing and Maintenance System
7. The rate of interest payable on the advance payment received by Indian exporter, should not exceed ______basis points a) LIBOR + 10 b) LIBOR + 50 c) LIBOR + 75 d) LIBOR + 100
8. What is Currency Declaration Form (CDF)?
Page | 141 a) Which is submitted to Customs when an individual carries foreign currency (import of currency) b) Which is submitted to Customs when an individual sales foreign currency, after arrival in India c) Which is submitted to Customs when an individual consumes foreign currency d) Which is submitted to Customs when an individual exports foreign currency (export of currency)
9. Currency declaration Form (CDF) to customs authorities need not be submitted if at any one time, the value does not exceed ______and/or the aggregate value of foreign currency notes (cash portion) alone brought in does not exceed USD 5,000 (US Dollars five thousand) or its equivalent a) USD 50,000 b) USD10,000 c) USD 1,00,000 d) USD 5,000
10. SOFTEX Form relates to ______a) Soft foreign remittances b) Import and export of Softwares c) Soft form of Foreign Exchange related returns d) Form to be submitted to RBI by Authorised dealers at monthly intervals.
11. Authorized Dealers need not obtain any document, including Form A-1, except a simple letter from the applicant, as long as it is a current account transaction, if the amount does not exceed ____. a) USD 100 b) USD 500 c) USD 750 d) USD 25000
12. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit, may bring into India at the time of his return (other than from Nepal and Bhutan), currency notes of India up to an amount not exceeding ______a) Rs.15,000/- per person b) Rs.25,000/- per person c) Rs.7,500/- per person d) No such cap, since he is bringing back Indian currency.
13. Documents evidencing import into India should be preserved by AD Category – I banks for a period of ______from the date of its verification a) 6 months b) 9 months c) one year d) 3 years.
Page | 142
14. Where imports are made in non-physical form, i.e., software or data through internet / datacom channels and drawings and designs through e-mail/fax, a certificate from ______that the software / data / drawing/ design has been received by the importer, is to be obtained by the authorised dealer. a) Concerned receiving Bank. b) Chartered Accountant c) Exporter d) RBI
15. What is BEF statement? a) Statement submitted by authorised dealer to RBI with regard to importers defaulting submission of import documents b) Statement submitted by authorised dealer to RBI with regard to exporters who have defaulted submission of documents. c) Statement submitted by authorised dealer to RBI with regard to defaulting importers & exporters. d) Statement submitted by RBI to GOI with regard to importers.
16. Bill of Entry is ______. a) Evidence of export b) Evidence of payment c) Evidence of import d) Evidence of remittance
17. EEFC stands for ______. a) Earners Exchange & Foreign Currency b) Exchange Earning Foreign Currency c) Exchange & Earning Foreign Currency d) Exchange Earners’ Foreign Currency
18. What is EDF in exports? a) Export Declaration Form b) Extended Delivery Form c) Export Demand Form d) Estate Declaration Form
19. Bill of Lading is ______. a) Evidence of shipment b) Evidence of import c) Evidence of payment d) Evidence of remittance.
20. At what intervals the BEF statement is submitted to RBI? a) Every June & December b) Every May & November c) Every March & September d) It has recently been dispensed with.
21 The normal time limit for settlement of import payment is within how many days from the date of shipment a) 30 days b) 6 months
Page | 143 c) 21 days d) None of the above
22 Consolidated statements of Trade Credits is submitted to RBI at what intervals a) Fortnightly b) Monthly c) Quarterly d) Half Yearly
23 Documents evidencing import are to be preserved for how many years from the date of verification, except in cases of investigation. a) 1 Year b) 2 Years c) 3 Years d) Not required
24. Non submission of evidence by the importers is to submitted to RBI in which return? a) XOS b) ENC c) BEF d) STAT
25 Evidence of import/Bill of Entry is to be submitted by the importer within a period of ______from the date of remittance. a) 21 days b) 3 months c) 30 days ` d) 6 months
26. Crystallisatiion means______a) Retirement of an import bill b) Conversion of FC Liability into Rupee Liability c) Conversion of Rupee liability into FC Liability d) All of these
27. “Blue Card” denotes a) A credit Card b) A Debit Card c) A Proposition by EU to attract highly qualified professionals from other countries d) None of these
28 What is TIBOR? a) Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate b) Taiwan Interbank Offered Rate c) Thailand Inter Bank Offered Rate d) None of these
29. Centralized cheque collection and export bill payment centre is a) GMU-K b) IBG, Corporate Centre c) GLS d) Overseas Branch, Mumbai
Page | 144
30 GNR is a system of cheque collection prevalent in USA. GNR stands for a) Guaranteed no return b) General non receipt c) General Non Return d) Guaranteed non receipt
ANSWERS 1 c 6 a 11 d 16 c 21 b 26 b 2 c 7 d 12 b 17 d 22 b 27 c 3 c 8 a 13 c 18 a 23 a 28 a 4 d 9 b 14 b 19 a 24 c 29 c 5 a 10 b 15 a 20 a 25 b 30 a
Page | 145
SAFE DEPOSIT LOCKERS AND SAFE CUSTODY (Compiled by Archana Kachroo CM Learning )
1. When a vacancy arises, the wait listed locker hirer will be advised by registered post to acquire the locker in (a) 15 days (b) 30 days (c) 60 days (d) No time limit
2. Keys of unrented lockers will be in the custody of (a) same officer cannot have the custodian and hirers (b) if the locker-in-charge has the custodian key, hirers’ keys should be with a supervising official of at least MMGS II grade or cash officer (c) both 1 & 2 (d) none of these
3. On receipt of notice of revocation of mandate from any one of the joint hirers (a) access should be allowed jointly (b) access should be denied until fresh mandate from all the joint hirers received (c) hirers advised to surrender the locker (d) none of these
4. Bank can ask hirer to deposit STDR for an amount equivalent to (a) interest enough to cover annual rent b) Rs 5 lacs (c) 3 years locker rent and cost of breaking open locker (d) None of these
5. Access to the hirer’s agent or attorney (a) should not be allowed (b) can be allowed against a general power of attorney (c) can be allowed against a written mandate from the hirer (d) should be allowed only against a specific power of attorney (mentioning locker number) duly executed before the notary public or Executive Magistrate
6. Regarding access to safe deposit lockers without survivor/nominee clause, the Bank is guided by the provisions of (a) Sections 45 ZC to 45 ZF of B.R.Act, 1949 (b) Banking Companies (Nomination) Rules, 1985 (c) Provisions of Indian Contract Act and Indian Succession Act
Page | 146
(d) All of these
7. When the locker is hired in joint names and the key is lost, the advising letter should be signed by (a) all the hirers (b) hirers as per mandate of operation (c) any one of the hirers (d) PA holder of hirer holding mandate to operate
8. Before handing over contents of locker to survivors or nominees, the Branch official is expected to (a) establish the identity of survivors/nominees and the fact of death of hirer (b) find out if any restraint order from competent court on access to the locker (c) make it clear to survivors/nominees that access is provided to them as trustees the legal heirs (d) all of these
9. Select the statement which is true (a) A locker can be allotted to a minor (b) A locker can be allotted to a minor jointly with others (c) A locker can be allotted jointly with natural guardian (d) A locker cannot be allotted to a minor singly jointly with others
10. When Medium Risk classified customers have not operated lockers for 3 years (a) the branch advises the hirer to operate the locker or surrender it (b) if the hirer fails to respond , the branch may consider breaking open of the locker (c) regular payment of locker rent is no exception for this procedure (d) all the above
11. No of free visits for locker operation per year is restricted to 12. Thereafter Rs ____ to be charged per visit (a) 50 (b) 50+ GST (c) 100+GST (d) 100
12. In case of Loss of Key of the locker, a service charge of Rs……. is recovered in addition to actual expenditure incurred for breaking open the locker and changing the lock by manufacturers of lockers. (a) Rs.509/- (b) Rs. 1000/- + GST (c) Rs.500/- + GST (d) Rs. 509 + GST
Page | 147
13. The Relationship between Bank and the Customer is of (a) Pledger –Pledgee (b) Leaser - Leasee (c) Licensor – Licencee (d) Bailer - Bailee
14. The Locker charges/Rent depends on the size, type and …………of the Branch (a) Ambience (b) Location (c) Lease Period (d) None of the above
15. Locker rent will be recovered year on ______. (a) 2nd April Every year (b) 1st April every year c) As and when due d) Coming anniversary date
16. Locks of surrendered lockers should be interchanged among the surrendered lockers before allotting to a new hirer. (a) True (b) False (c) No such instructions (d) Not necessary
17. Safe Deposit Lockers are not allotted to minors….…………. (a) True (b) False (c) No such instructions (d) Can be given Jointly with major
18. A locker is in the names of A & B to be operated as E or S. You receive information of death of B. In this event: a) A can operate the locker with legal heirs of B b) For operations of locker, permission of court is needed c) A can operate the locker d) None of these
19. When a locker is broken open, whose presence is not a must? a) Locker hirer or legal heirs b) Two independent witnesses c) Branch officials d) Representative of local police
20. A & B have hired a locker in joint names. A is residing abroad. B informs about loss of key of the locker and asks for breaking open the locker. In this event: a) Bank will not accept the request b) Bank can accept on the basis of indemnity c) Bank can accept the request on the basis of indemnity bond and POA in her favour from A d) None of these
Page | 148
21. A locker cannot be given on hire to the following: a) Minor b) Illiterate person c) Clubs, societies and associations d) All the above
22. What would be the course of action in case of loss of safe custody receipt by the customer? a) If satisfied, the bank can issue a duplicate on written request from the customer b) The contents would be seized c) The bank can issue a duplicate after obtaining indemnity bond d) Duplicate cannot be issued as it is not a negotiable instrument
23. When the bank accepts articles for keeping in safe custody, the relationship between the banker and the customer is that of a) Trustee and beneficiary b) Bailor and bailee c) Principal and agent d) Bailee and Bailor
24. A customer keeps NSCs in the name of his minor son in safe custody with the bank. Immediately after attaining majority, the son approaches the bank with a request that the certificates be delivered to him as he is major now. In this event: a) Bank will not deliver to him b) Bank will deliver to him after taking proper introduction from father and discharge c) Bank will neither deliver him nor let him have the details. d) Bank will deliver to the father who had handed over the certificates to the Bank
25. Articles left in safe custody cannot be delivered on the basis of a succession certificate because a) These are not included in debt and securities as defined under Indian Succession act 1925 b) It is not allowed under RBI Act c) It is not permitted under NI Act d) None of these
26. The officer-in-charge should check the locker room a) Immediately after the locker hirer has used it. b) At the end of the day c) Randomly in between d) As per new guidelines, checking is not required
Page | 149
27. Where the locker has remained inoperative for more than __ years for medium risk category, the branch should immediately contact the locker hirer. a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
28. Where the locker has remained inoperative for more than ___ years for high risk category, the branch should immediately contact the locker hirer. a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
29. In case of accepting articles in safe custody, the nomination facility is available under a) NI Act b) BR Act c) RBI Act d) Indian Contract Act
30. Executors are appointed by a) Testator through a will b) Court c) Legal heirs of the deceased d) HUF
31. When scrip is withdrawn for renewal, it will be entered in a) Joint custody register b) Securities register c) Securities Ex-custody register d) None of these
32. Nomination for safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under a) Sec 45ZA of BR Act b) Sec 45ZB of BR Act c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45ZD of BR act
33. Where locker rent is not paid after 6 months, notice should be sent on a) COS 401 b) COS 402 c) COS 405 d) COS 406
34. Locker should be broken in the presence of ___ number of independent witnesses a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10
35. Locker rent foe small size lockers in Metro/Urban and Semi urban/ Rural areas is a) 1500+GST and 1000+GST b) 1000+GST and 800+GST c) 1200+GST and 1000+GST d) 1100+GST and 900+GST
Page | 150
36. One Time Locker Registration Charge for Small and Medium Lockers are a) 800+GST b) 750+GST c) 600+GST d) 500+GST
37. One Time Locker Registration Charge for Large and Extra Large Lockers are a) 800+GST b) 750+GST c) 1000+GST d) 500+GST
38. Safe custody charges per scrip are a) ₹150/-+ GST Min.₹300/-+ GST p.a. or part thereof. b) ₹250/-+ GST Min.₹200/-+ GST p.a. or part thereof c) ₹350/-+ GST Min.₹100/-+ GST p.a. or part thereof d) None of the above
39. Locker rent for Large size lockers in Metro/Urban and Semi urban/ Rural areas is a) 5000+GST and 4000+GST b) 6000+GST and 5000+GST c) 4000+GST and 3000+GST d) 4000+GST and 3000+GST
40. Locker rent foe Extra Large size lockers in Metro/Urban and Semi urban/ Rural areas is a) 8000+GST and 7000+GST b) 9000+GST and 7000+GST c) 8000+GST and 6000+GST d) 7000+GST and 6000+GST
ANSWERS 1 a 11 c 21 a 31 c 2 c 12 b 22 c 32 c 3 a 13 c 23 d 33 c 4 c 14 b 24 b 34 c 5 d 15 a 25 a 35 a 6 d 16 a 26 a 36 d 7 a 17 a 27 c 37 c 8 d 18 c 28 a 38 a 9 d 19 d 29 b 39 b 10 a 20 c 30 a 40 b
Page | 151
GENERAL BANKING
(Compiled by Archana Kachroo CM Learning)
1. Jeevan Pramaan is ______based Digital Life Certificate initiative launched by Government of India for convenience of pensioners a) Voter ID b) Aadhaar c) Web d) Bank a/c
2. Pension grievances appropriate response to be given a) Within a period of three days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and same day in case it is an online application b) Within a period of seven days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and three days in case it is an online application c) Within a period of ten days receipt of the grievance in case of physical dak and seven days in case it is an online application d) None of the above
3. Pensioners help line number a) 1800112211 b) 1800110009 c) 1800221188 d) 1800112233
4. Whistle Blower portal for lodging complaints by staff a) https://whistle.sbi.co.in b) https://whistleblowertimes.co.in c) https://whistletimes.co.in d) https://whistleblower.sbi.co.in
5. (NME) Near Miss Event is a) a market risk event b) a credit risk event c) an operational risk event d) None of these
6. ORMD means a) Operational Risk Management Department b) Operations Related Management Department c) Operational Rural Management Department d) Operational Research Management Department
Page | 152
7. A citation or certificate of merit, a specially designed memento (to be standardized) containing a suitable legend along with cash rewards ranging from ______depending on the contribution of the staff member(s) in prevention / detection/ foiling of frauds, identification of NMEs) a) 5,000 to 50,000/- b) 5,000 to 2,00,000/- c) 5,000 to 20,000/- d) 5,000 to 1,00,000/-
8. Online Fire Safety Audit, once in ____ years a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. Online Electrical Safety Audit, once in ____ years a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
10. Online Safety Audit of ATMs, once in __ a) 1year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 4years
11. Online Self – Audit by BMs, once in ___ months a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12 15. 12. All cases of misbehavior to be entered in ______under Top Priority Category a) Compliant register b) CMS c) EMS d) None of the above
13. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) falls under a) Operational Risk Management b) Market Risk Management c) Credit Risk Management d) None of the above
14. APY means a) Aam Pension Yojana b) Atal Pension Yojana c) Aadhaar Pension Yojana d) None of the above
15. NACH means
Page | 153 a) National Additional Clearing House b) National Alternate Clearing House c) National Automatic Clearing House d) National Automated Clearing House
16. Interest for delayed collection, where the delay is beyond 14 days, interest will be paid at the rate applicable a)PPF intt rate b) Saving Bank rate c) for term deposit for the corresponding period or Saving Bank rate, whichever is higher. d) SCSS intt rate
17. Cheques deposited in the drop-box upto ___ A.M. will be sent for clearance on same day a) 10.30 b) 11.00 c) 11.30 d) 12.00
18. The facilities available at Non-home branches are a) Transfer of funds from one account to another internal accounts. b) Issuance of IOI c) Both a & b d) None of the above
19. Non Home branches allow cash deposit in SME segment Rs______per day a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-
20. Non Home branches allow cash payments to self for Rs ______per day a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-
21. The testing of fugitive ink must be carried out for payment of cheques for value Rs.______and above. a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-
22. Tele-calling and getting confirmation from the drawer for suspicious cheques and all non-home cheques of Rs.______above a) 25,000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-
Page | 154
23. sbiINTOUCH branches, AOK+DCPK(Account opening Kiosk + Debit Card Printing Kiosk) perform following functions a) Instant Account Opening with PAN Card with facilities to scan and save the documents with photo capture. b) Printing of personalised Debit Cards(Magstripe and Chip in MasterCard, Visa and Rupay variants) c) Both a & b d) None of the above
24. sbiINTOUCH branches , Remote Expert perform following functions a) Real time contact with experts for Savings, Loan, Investment and insurance needs. b) Apply for products c) Both a & b d) None of the above
25. sbiINTOUCH branches , Interactive Dream wall perform following functions a) Explore your Dream Car with content powered by Gaadi.com. b) Explore your Dream College with content powered by HT campus (restricted to 116 institutes). c) Loyalty rewards and discounts. d) All of the above
26. DEAF means a) Depositors Education and Awareness Fund b) Demand Education and Awareness Fund c) Depositors Education Award Fund d) Depositors Education Area Fund
27. Transfer of Unclaimed Deposits lying in Bank‘s Account for 10 years or more to transfer to the a) DEAF at RBI b) DEAF at SEBI c) DEAF at SBI d) DEAF at IRDA
Page | 155
28.DAC means a) Document Arrival Centre b) Document Archival Centre c) Document Archival Corporate d) Documents Award Centre
29. For recovering the over-payment made to pensioner from his future pension payment in installments ______of net (pension + relief) payable each month may be recovered unless the pensioner concerned gives consent in writing to pay a higher instalment amount. a) ½ b) 1/3 c) ¼ d) 1/5
30. If the over payment cannot be recovered from the pensioner due to his death or discontinuance of pension then action has to be taken as per the ______given by the pensioner under the scheme. a) letter of undertaking b) line of undertaking c) lien of undertaking d) None of the above
31. SBI- NCTD scheme a) Non-Callable Term Deposit b) Non- Corporate Term Deposit c) Non-Callable Tenure Deposit d) Non- Corporate Tenure Deposit
32. Branches should ensure 100% OVVR checking on ______basis a) T+1 b) T+2 c) T+3 d) T+4
33. While issuing IOIs/ Bankers‘Cheques applicant‘s which details should invariably be captured in the relevant fields in CBS. a) Applicant‘s name b) Applicant‘s Complete Address c) Both a & b d) None of the above
34. Retention limits of the following to be approved by branches with controllers a) Cash Retention Limit b) Gold Retention Limit c) Both a& b d) None of the above
Page | 156
35. NRLM means a) National Rural Livelihoods Mission b)National Rural Liberalisation Mission c) New Rural Livelihoods Mission d) National Real Livelihoods Mission
36. The following are sources through which we come to know about the cases of misbehavior with Customers by Bank Employee a) Compliant received at Branch / Controlling Office b) Complaint lodged in CMS c) Both a & b d) None of the above
37. ITRO means a) Income Tax Refund Order b) Internet Tax Refund Order c) Income Turnover Refund Order d) None of the above
38. Contact Centre, accessible in ____ different languages. a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
39. SBI Wealth Management Initiative a) SBI Buddy b) SBI PAY c) SBI Exclusiff d) SBI ANYWHERE
40. ―Banker‘s Cheque outstanding for more than three years from the date of issue which have originally been issued in favour of vendors by debit to Bank‘s Charges Account shall be transferred to Charges Account. a) Commission a/c b) Charges a/c c) Interest a/c d) Others
41. Voucher sorting to be done ______on daily basis. a) Product-wise b) Both a& c c) Teller-wise d) None of the above.
Page | 157
42. Vouchers to be moved to record room, on ____ basis, after entering them in Record register. a) T+1 b) T+2 c) T+3 d) T+4
43. BCSBI means a) Banking Codes and State Board of India b) Banking Codes and Staff Board of India c) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India d) Banking Correspondence and Standards Board of India
44. CSP, Platinum Debit card cash withdrawal limit a) 40,000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-
45. eZ trade is combination of a) Demat b) Share trading c) SB a/c d) All of the above
46. SME – SAHAJ current account minimum balance a) 1,000/- b) 5,000/- c) 10,000/- d) 25,000/-
47. SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 which segment cannot invest? a) Resident Individual b) Karta of HUF c) NRI d) All of the above
48. Minimum investment tenure of SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 36 months d) 60 months
49. Lock in period in SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 a) 1 yr b) 2 yr c) 5 yr d) 10 yr
50. For opening of SBI CAPGAINS PLUS Scheme which is mandatory a) SB a/c b) RD a/c c) Both a & b d) None of the above
Page | 158
51. Which of the following facilities can not be provided to Cap Gains SB a/c ? a) Cheque book b) ATM card c) Both a& b d) None of the above
52. The following type of a/cs can be opened under SBI Capgains Plus a) SB a/c b) Term Deposits ( TDR/STDR) c) Both a & b d) Either a or b
53. In case the customer is agreeable print out of nominee name is available in CBS for which type of a/cs a) SB a/c Passbook b) TDR/S TDR Receipts c) Both a & b d) None of the above
54. Due date of quarterly uploading of Form 15G/H declarations of quarter ending 30th June, 30th Sep and 31st Dec: a) 7th day of next month b) 15th day of next month c) 21st day of next month d) 30th day of next month
55. Failure of quarterly uploading of the 15G/H declarations will attract a penalty of Rs ____ for every day of default. a) 10/- b) 20/- c) 50/- d) 100/-
56. Our Bank is contemplating for centralisation of TDS compliance of Whole Bank level at Corporate Centre, Mumbai w.e.f a) 01.04.2017 b) 01.06.2017 c) 01.01.2017 d) None of the above
57. What is the min balance stipulation under Phela Kadam and Pehli Udaan? a) No minimum b) Rs 50/- c) Rs 100/- d) Rs 500/-
58. If the RD a/c holder fails to pay ___ no of installments , the account should be prematurely closed and balance paid to the customer. a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 9
Page | 159
59. Nomination is defined in Section ____ of the BR act a) 45ZA to 45ZF b) 20 c) 24 d) None of these
60. A power of attorney executed outside India must be stamped within__ months of its receipt in India. a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12
61. ITFN stands for a) Indian Toll free number b) International Toll free number c) Both a and b d) None of the above
62. Phone Banking Registration is available through (a) Home Branch (b) SBI group ATM (c) Contact Centre d) All of the above
ANSWERS
1 a 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 c 51 c 61 b 2 a 12 b 22 d 32 a 42 b 52 c 62 d 3 b 13 a 23 c 33 c 43 c 53 c 4 d 14 b 24 c 34 c 44 c 54 b 5 c 15 d 25 d 35 a 45 d 55 d 6 a 16 c 26 a 36 c 46 a 56 a 7 b 17 b 27 a 37 a 47 c 57 a 8 b 18 c 28 b 38 b 48 d 58 a 9 b 19 d 29 b 39 c 49 c 59 a 10 a 20 b 30 a 40 b 50 a 60 a
Page | 160
LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING
(Compiled by Archana Kachroo)
1. Payment in due course is defined under ______a) section 10 of NI Act b) section 11 of NI Act c) section 10 of Contract Act d) None
2. Hypothecation is defined in which of the following Act? a)Transfer of Property Act b) SARFAESI Act 2002 c) Indian Contract Act d)NI Act
3. The charge created with ROC for companies is for which of the following ? a) Lien b) Mortgage c) Mortgage & Hypothecation d) Pledge and Hypothecation
4. Who is the CAPIO under RTI Act in our Bank ? (Central Assistant Public information Officer) a) GM of the network b) CGM of the Circle c) RM of the Region d) Branch Managers
5. Income tax attachment order does not attach which of the following amount? a) Entire balance in joint accounts b) Balance in Deceased depositor account c) Fixed Deposit maturing in future date d) Chq sent for collection.
6. A loan is guaranteed by a surety. When the Prinicpal Debtor failed to repay the loan, bank asked the surety to pay which was complied. On making payment, the surety became entitled to all rights and remedies which the bank had against the principal debtor. This right of the surety is called... a) Right of Subrogation b) Right of redemption c) Right of Foreclosure d) Right of Lien
7. The bank initiated action against a borrower under SARFAESI Act and sent him 60 days notice for making payment. The borrower being aggrieved with the action of the bank makes a representation to the bank. The bank is required to send reply to the representation within how many days? a) within 15 days of receiving the representation b) within 30 days of receiving the representation c) within 60 days of receiving the representation d) within one week of receiving the representation
8. Dishonor of an electronic fund transfer instruction due to insufficiency of funds in the account etc., is an offence punishable with imprisonment or with
Page | 161 fine or both, similar to the dishonor of a cheque under the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881. Such a provision is under which Act? a) u/s 25 of PSS Act, 2007 b) Section 138 of NI Act c) Section 172 of contract Act d) None
9. The maximum number of partners in a Banking firm shall not exceed a) 20 b) 10 c) 2 d) None of these
10. Non-registration of a firm with the Registrar of Assurances attracts the following disability a) Creditors cannot sue the firm b) The firm cannot sue its debtors c) Partnership cannot be wound up d) None of the above
11. What can be denied disclosure under the RTI act ? a) Information adversely affecting the national interest b) Information barred from publication by Courts c) Information which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament d) All of the above
12. Minimum number of directors in a public limited company must be ...... a) 5 b) 10 c) 12 d) 3
13. Which among the following is not found in the Memorandum of Association of a Company? a) Objectives of the Company b) Authorised capital c) Borrowing powers of Directors d) Registered office
14. As per Section 108 of Indian Evidence Act 1872 person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of...... years or more, the persons who would have normally known of his existence have not heard of him / known of his existence. a) 12-years b) 7-years c) 5-years d) 3-years
15. Which of the following accounts does not have the facility of nomination? a) Safe Deposit Locker a/c b) Term deposit account c) CapGains Plus a/c d) None of the above
16. Section 45 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with? a) Return of unclaimed deposits b) Permission to open new branches c) Maintenance of currency chest d) Return of paid instruments to customers
Page | 162
17. What is "conversion" according to the Negotiable Instrument Act? a) Calculating the rupee equivalent of a negotiable instrument expressed in foreign currency b) Payment of cash against tender of negotiable instrument drawn on the Bank c) Payment to a holder in due course d) Wrongful transfer of the benefit of negotiable instrument to a person who is not the true owner
18. The relationship between the hirers of Bank locker and the Bank is that of: a) Debtor - Creditor b) Bailor - Bailee c) Licensor - Licensee d.Principal- Agent
19. What is a contract of Insurance? a) It is a contract of Indemnity b) It is a contract of Pledge c) It is a contract of Guarantee d) All of these
20. The provisions of Consumer Protection Act,1986 are applicable to the services rendered by the Banks ______. a) To the customers of the Bank only b) To the customers and the users of the services irrespective of whether the service is gratis or for consideration c) To the customers and any user of Bank's services against consideration d) All of these
21. What does "Assignment" refer to ? a) Immovable property b) Ownership rights c) Transfer of interest in actionable claims d) None of the above
22. The document that governs the relationship between the company and the outside is known as … a) Article of Association b) Regestration certificate c) Memorandum of Association d) None
23. Mortgage is defined in ______. a) Sale of Goods Act b) Contract Act c) Transfer of property Act d) Companies Act
24. A charge by way of mortgage can be created on ______. a) All assets b) Plant and machinery c)All immovable properties d) None of the above
Page | 163
25. Pari Passu charge refers to a charge ______. a) Ranking equally in priority, regardless of quantum of advances b) Merely notional in nature c) Ranking equally in priority in proportion to the lender's share of advance d) None of these
26. RBI can issue directive to banks in respect of their loan / advances, under sec 21 of: a) Banking Regulation Act b) Negotiable Instrument Act c) SBI Act d) RBI Act 1934
27. Which section of limitation act 1963 provides an extension of limitation period on acknowledgement of debt ? a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
28. Document that contains the purpose of the company as well as all the duties and responsibilities of its members is known as .. a) Article of Association b) Regestration certificate c) Memorandum of Association d) None
29. Guarantee is defined in a) NI Act b) Indian Contract Act 1872 c) RBI Act d) Civil Procedure Code
30 The right to set-off of a banker has been conferred on the bank under …... a) NI Act b) Indian Contract Act c) RBI Act d) Civil Procedure Code
31. Under which of the following situations, the Clayton's rule applies...... a) Payment of cheque b) Right of set-off c) Right of appropriation d) b and c
32. In the process of issuing a garnishee order court first issues..... a) Order Nisi b) Order primary c) Order attachment d) Order absolute
33. According to Hindu minority act and guardianship act 1956, the natural guardian of married minor Hindu girl is...... a) Husband, if he is a major b) Father in law, if husband is minor c) Mother of the girl d) a and b
Page | 164
34. Usually, a loan obtained by a minor cannot be recovered but when it is given for the necessity, the loan can be recovered from his property. This provision is as per...... a) Sec 11, Indian contract act1872 b) Sec 68, Indian contract act 1872 c) Sec 11, majority act1872 d) Sec 11,Indian minority act 1872
35. The Basel-III capital regulation has been implemented from …...... in India. a) 01.04.2014 b) 01.04.2013 c) 01.04.2012 d) None
36. A partnership firm can be registered with...... a) Registrar of firms b) Registrar of companies c) Registrar of deeds d) Registrar of estate
37. A company winds up its affairs and the Person appointed for this purpose by the court is ------. a) Executor b) Administrator c) Receiver d) Liquidator
38. Who issues Certificate of Incorporation ? a) Central Govt b) Ministry of corporate affairs c) Registrar of firms d) Registrar of Companies
39. Which of the following documents will have to be carefully examined by a bank branch, when It is approached by Administrator of a deceased estate? a) Succession certificate b) Letter of probate c) Letter of Administration d) Liquidation order
40. Insolvency rules are governed by ….... a) State insolvency act 1920 b)Insolvency act 1879 c) Presidency towns insolvency act d) a and c
41. Who among the following is empowered to issue the succession certificate ? a) Special executive magistrate b) Tehsildar c) Dist judge or high court d) Presiding officer of DRT
42. A mandate is...... a) A promise to pay a loan b) An authority of principal to his agent for operating the account c) An order of the bank to the customer d) None of the above
Page | 165
43. A mandate in a partnership account can be cancelled by...... a) All the partners b) Any of the partners c) Majority of partners d) None of the above
44. A minor can draw, endorse and accept the cheque/negotiable instrument to bind a) Self b) Others c)Drawer d) All other except self
45. A karta of HUF has an implied authority to...... a) Delegate his authority b) To raise loan and pledge securities c) To raise loan and create charge on family property for family business d) All of the above
46. Basel-III capital regulation will be fully implemented in India by...... a) 31.03.2015 b) 31.03.2017 c) 31.03.2019 d) 31.03.2018
47 After creation of mortgage, creation of charge needs to be registered on the Central Registry portal within ______days of the creation of charge a) 2 b) 7 c) 30 d) 45
48. On dishonor of cheque, what kind of remedy is available to the holder of the cheque under NI Act ? a) Holder can file the complaint with ombudsman b) Holder can file the case in a normal court c) Holder can file the complaint with 1st class magistrate d) Holder can file the complaint with RBI
49. Garnishee order attaches: a) Balance in term deposit b)Term deposit payable at maturity c) Unrealized proceeds of instruments sent for collection d) both a & b
50. The legal status of a nominee is ------. a) Trustee for legal heirs b) The depositor c) Agent of legal heirs d) Agent of the depositor
Page | 166
51. Banking Ombudsman is established as per …...... act. a) BR act b) RBI act c) NI act d) None
52. BCSBI is a registered entity under ….act. a) Societies Regn act b) RBI act c) NI act d) BR act
53. The Central Information Commission (CIC), at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal has the power to impose a penalty of Rs...... per day subject to a total of Rs...... against the CPIO as per the RTI act. a) 250, 25000 b) 250, 20000 c) 100, 10000 d) None
54. Who can seek information from the Bank. a) Individual b) Organisation c) Association d) All
55. In respect of application received through a CAPIO, the CPIO has a time limit of ….... days from the date of receipt of the application by the CAPIO. a) 35 b) 30 c) 25 d) 20
56. If the information sought under the RTI act by the applicant concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same has to be disposed within …...... days of the receipt of the request. a) 2 b) 30 c) 5 d) 10
57. An applicant who does not receive a reply under the RTI act within the specified period or an applicant who is aggrieved by a decision of the CPIO can prefer an appeal within …....days to the Appellate Authority in the Bank. a) 30 b) 35 c) 5 d) 10
58. An applicant has the right to file a second appeal to CIC within …... days from the date of decision of the Appellate Authority a) 90 b) 35 c) 30 d) 10
Page | 167
59. Under the provisions of the RTI act, the appellate authority for branches in the circle is...... a) GM of the Network b) CGM c) DGM of Module d) None of these
60. One can file a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman if the reply is not received from the bank within a period of ….... after the bank concerned has received one s representation, or the bank rejects the complaint, or if the complainant is not satisfied with the reply given by the bank. a) A month b) 60 days c) 90 days d) A year
61. what is the maximum limit on the amount of compensation as specified in an award by the Banking Ombudsman a) 10 lac b) 15 lac c) 20 lac d) 30 lac
62. The Banking Ombudsman may award compensation to the complainant only in the case of complaints relating to …... for mental agony and harassment. a) Credit card operation b) Debit card operation c) Deceased settelement d) None of these.
63. Appellate Authority is vested with...... under the provisions of the Banking Ombudsman Act. a) a Deputy Governor of the RBI b) a Regional Director of the RBI c) High Court d) Supreme Court
64. The District Forum Under the COPRA can hear claims upto a maximum of …... a) 20 lac b) 15 lac c) 10 lac d) 30 lac
65. President of State Commission Under the COPRA is a judge from the …..... a) High Court b) District Court c) Sessions Court d) None of these.
66. The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is..... a) Supreme Court b) High Court c) National Forum d) None of these.
Page | 168
67. Under the provisions of the COPRA, Appeal from one forum to another forum has to be filed within …. days from the date of the decision. a) 30 b) 35 c) 5 d) 10
68. In case of Bank Deposits the Law of Limitation operates from the Date of …...... a) Deposit b) Maturity c) Demand d) Not Applicable
69. A physical grievance from a pensioner has to be acknowledged within a period of …. days. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
70. The amount to the credit of any account in India with any bank which has not been operated upon for a period of ten years will be transferred to...... fund. a) Depositor Education and Awareness b) Rural Infra Development c) Financial Education d) Rural Poverty Alleviation
71. Tax is required to be deducted at source when rent payments made in a financial year [including advance, if any] exceed Rs...... lac. a) 1.8 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 1.5
72. When Fees for professional and technical services in a financial year exceed Rs…...... one time or Rs...... in whole year TDS is required to be made. a) 25000 and 50000 b) 30000 and 70000 c) 30000 and 75000 d) 25000 and 75000
73. Due date of payment of tax for the deductions made in March is..... a) 30th Apr b) 7th Apr c) 5th May d) None of the above
74. Form 24Q/26Q/27Q is associated with...... a) Yrly TDS statement b) Qrtly TDS statement c) Yrly Service Tax statement d) Qrtly Service Tax statement
75. PAN of our Bank is...... a) Different for each branch. b) AACS8557K c) AAACS8577K d) None of the above
Page | 169
76.The periodicity of submission of Form 60 to IT deptt is...... a) Half yrly b) Yrly c) Monthly d) Weekly
77. Form 60 has to be submitted to Income Tax Department a) Online b) Through Hard copy c) Both a and b d) None
78. Form 60 is to be retained for a period of ___ years from the end of the Financial Year in which the transaction was undertaken a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
79. As per Indian Companies act 2013 which of the following is not a type of Company a) One person company b) A small compamy c) A Medium Company d) A Dormant Company
80. Under RTI Act 2005 the supply of information if it concerns the life or liberty of a person should be furnished in a) Within 48 hours of receipt of the application b) Within 24 hours of receipt of the application c) Within 12 hours of receipt of the application d) None of the above
ANSWERS 1 a 11 d 21 c 31 c 41 c 51 a 61 a 71 a 2 b 12 d 22 c 32 a 42 b 52 a 62 a 72 c 3 c 13 c 23 c 33 d 43 b 53 a 63 a 73 a 4 d 14 b 24 c 34 b 44 d 54 d 64 a 74 b 5 a 15 d 25 c 35 b 45 d 55 a 65 a 75 c 6 a 16 d 26 a 36 a 46 c 56 a 66 a 76 a 7 d 17 d 27 c 37 d 47 c 57 a 67 a 77 a 8 a 18 c 28 a 38 d 48 c 59 a 68 c 78 d 9 b 19 a 29 b 39 c 49 d 59 a 69 c 79 c 10 b 20 c 30 b 40 d 50 a 60 a 70 a 80 a
Page | 170
SME ASSET -MCQ Compiled by Sh. Raj Kumar, Chief Manager (Learning)
1.What is full form of CGSSI a) Credit generating scheme for stand up India b) Credit guarantee score for stand up India c) Credit generating sort for stand up India d) Credit guarantee scheme for stand up India
2.The objective of the scheme is to create an eco system for (a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled Tribes c) Women entrepreneurs (d) All of the above
3.What is the quantum of loan under CGSSI (a) Rs. 50 lac (b) Rs. 10 lac c) Rs. 1 crore d)Rs. > 10 lac to 100 lac
4. What is full form of NCGTC a)National Credit Guarantee Trust Company b)National Cooperative Guarantee Trust Company c) National Corporation Guarantee Trust Company d)National Common Guarantee Trust Company
5.Which credit facility is available under CGSSI a) T/L b) Fund based NFB working capital c) Both
6..What is the rate of interest charged on loan provided under CGSSI (a) 1 Year MCLR + 1% (b) 1 Year MCLR 2% © 1 Year MCLR 3% (d) 1 Year MCLR 4%
7. What is the full form of PMEGP (a) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (b) Prime Minister’s Employment Guarantee Programme (c) Prime Minister’s Employment Genuine Programme (d) Prime Minister’s Employment Gaurav Programme
Page | 171
8.The objective of PMEGP is To generate employment opportunities in (a) Rural areas (b) urban areas (c) semi urban areas (d) Rural & Urban areas
9. Project cost in PMEGP should be (a) > 10 lac in Manufacturing (b) 5 lac in Business/ services sector (c) Any of the above
10.Which of the following is implementing agency in PMEGP (a) DRDA (b)KVIB (c) KVIC Mumbai (d) KVIB NEW Delhi
11. What is the quantum of bank finance under PMEGP (a) 90%in general category (b) 95% in special category (c) Both are correct (d) Only a is correct
12. Who is the chairman of the task force under PMEGP (a) DM of the district (b) DC of the district (c) Collector (d) Any of the above
13. Awareness camps are organised under PMEGP by (a) KVIC (b) KVIB (c) DICs (d) Any of the above.
14. Under Asset Backed Loan(ABL) what is LTV on immovable property (a) 25% of realisable value (b) 50% of realisable value (c) 75% of realisable value (d) 100 % of realisable value
15.What is the minimum & maximum loan permissible under ABL (a) Minimum 10 Lac & Maximum 20 crore (b) Minimum 20 Lac & Maximum 15 crore (c) Minimum 50 Lac & Maximum 15 crore (d) Minimum 100 Lac & Maximum 15 crore
16. What target group is covered under ABL (a)Business units for manufacturing/Services activities
Page | 172
(b)Self employed individuals (c) Professionals (d)All
17.What is the nature of facility under ABL (a) Fund Based (b)Non fund based (c)Both (d)Any of the above
18.The loan under ABL will be sanctioned under which type of facility (a) T/L (b)O/D (c)C/C (d)Drop Loan over draft facility
19.Is take over from other banks allowed under ABL Sceme (a) True (b)False
20.Who is the sanctioning authrity under ABL scheme (a) BM (b)MOD (c)AGM (d)As per delegation of powers
21.What rate of interest will be charged on ABL loans (a)MCLR 1 year floating + 230 bps (b) MCLR 1 year floating + 85bps (c) MCLR 1 year floating + 285bps (d) MCLR 1 year floating + 158bps
22. How assessment of credit limits is done under ABL (a) Discretion of BM (b) ) Discretion of DGM (c) Discretion of AGM (d) Need based
23.Is penalty applied on ABL loans (a) 2% of outstanding amount if overdue by >7 days (b) 1% of outstanding amount if overdue by >7 days (c) 2.5% of outstanding amount if overdue by >7 days (d) 5 % of outstanding amount if overdue by >7 days
24. what are the processing charges/Upfront fee in ABL (a) 2% of limit(upper cap 10 lac) (b) 1% of limit(upper cap 10 lac) (c) 1.5% of limit(upper cap 10 lac) (d) 2.5% of limit(upper cap 10 lac)
25.Under ABL what are the inspection charges for limit > 1 crore (a)Rs.500 per inspection (b) Rs.3000 per inspection
Page | 173
(c) Rs.2000 per inspection (d) Rs.5000 per inspection
26.What is the duration of submission of stock statements under ABL (a) Monthly (b)Quarterly (c)Half yearly (d) Yearly
27. At what intervals an ABL is to be reviewed (a)Monthly (b) Quarterly (c)Half Yearly (d)Yearly
28.In ABL A/c ECR is Mandatory (a) True (b) False
29.At what intervals inspection of property & unit to be done in ABL (a)Monthly (b)Quartely (c)Half Yearly (d) Yearly
30. What type of finance is undertaken under e-commerce and ecosystem finance (a) e- commercial loans (b) Taxi Aggregator (c) Franchise finance (d) All of the above
31. What type of finance is undertaken under e-commerce (a) Seller of e-tailor (b) Snap-deal & Flip cart (c)Paytm & Shopclues (d) All of the above
32. Which of the following can be financed under franchise finance (a) Lakme (b)Eurokids c)World of Titan (d)Anytime fitness (e) All of the above
33.e-dfs sceme of bank was introduced in the--- year (a)2008 (b)2009 (c)2010 (d)2015
34. Which of the following mehods is used in e-dfs sceme (a)Pull method (b) Push Method (c) Both
Page | 174
35.To whom the loan can be given under e-dfs scheme (a) Dealers of Industry Major (b) Distributors of Industry major (c)Dealers of Agriculture Major (d) A & B Above
36. What % of Invoice amount can be financed under e-dfs (a)50% (b)100% (c)150% (d)75%
37. Who are eligible for finance under e-dfs (a) existing dealers of Industry Major (b) New & existing dealers of Industry Major (c) Old & New existing dealers (d) Old existing dealers of Industry Major for more than 1 year
38. Under Taxi aggregator which of the following can be financed (a) Drivers of Ola (b) ) Drivers of Uber (c) ) Drivers of Fab car (d) ) Drivers of All of the above
39. In e-dfs scheme of bank ‘d’ stands for (a) Doctors (b) Drawers of Bills (c) Dealers (d)Drivers
40. Under bank’s E-VFS scheme the letter “V” stands for (a)Variable (b)Vendors (c)Viable (d)Variable
41. Who can be financed under E-VFS scheme (a) Vendors of Industry Major (b) Suppliers of Industry Major (c) Vendors & Suppliers of Industry Major (d) ) None of the above
42. . What % of Invoice amount can be financed under E-VFS (a)50% (b)100% (c)150% (d)75%
43.What % of margin is required under E-VFS (a) nil (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 25
Page | 175
44. Dedicated customer service support is provided under E-VFS (a) On the demand of the customer (b) Frequently (c) As decided by the bank (d) 24*7 basis
45.Industry Major in E-VFS should be (a) Existing one (b) New one
46.Industry major should be earning profit for (a) Last 1 year (b)Last 2 Years (c) Last 3 years (d) Last 5 years
47.In E-VFS sundry creditors should not be more than (a) 60 days (b) 90 days (c) 120 days (d) 180 days
48. What is the target group for financing under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme(SBIMEFS) (a) Nursing Homes (b) Diagnostic Centers (c)ENT centers (d) All of the above
49. What is the maximum quantum of finance under SBIMEFS (a) 5 crores (b) 10 crore (c) 15 crore (d) 20 crore
50. Which type of loan can be given under SBIMEFS (a)D/L (b)T/L (c)C/C (d) Overdraft
51.What is the margin under SBIMEFS (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20 % (d) 25 %
52. What is the repayment period under SBIMEFS (a) 6 Yr (b) 7 years (c) 9 years (d)10 years
Page | 176
53. What is the purrpose of SBI Asset Backed Loan for Commercial real estate (ABL-CRE) (a) Construction of real estate (b) Acquisition of real estate (c)Any one of the above
54.What target group is to be covered under ABL-CRE (a) Properitorship (b)Partenership (c) company (d) all of the above
55. What is the maximum loan provided for ABL-CRE (a) 10 crore (b) 20 crore (c) 25 crore (d) 50 crore
56. Under what type the loan is sanctioned under ABL-CRE (a) Dropline O/D (b)O/D (c)T/L (d) C/C
57. What rate of interest is applied on ABL-CRE (a) 1 Year MCLR+230 bps (b) 1 Year MCLR 180 (c) 1 Year MCLR +290bps (d) 1 Year MCLR+305bps
58. What is the period upto which the loan can be fully repaid under ABL-CRE (a) 5 years (b)6 years (c) 8 years (d) 10 years
59. What is the period upto which the loan can be fully repaid under Doctor Plus (a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 8 years (d) 10 years
60. CGTMSE stands for a) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises. b) Credit Guarantee Trust for Medium Scale Enterprises. c) Credit General Trust Fund for Medium and Small Enterprises. d) Collateral Free Guarantee Trust for Medium and Small Enterprises.
Page | 177
61. For advance to a retail trader to be classified under SBF, the limit should not exceed a) Rs.20.00 Lacs. b) Rs.10.00 Lacs. c) Rs.15.00 Lacs. d) Rs.25.00 Lacs.
62. RBI can conduct financial inspection of individual banks under a) Section 34 of RBI Act. b) Section 35 of RBI Act. c) Section 31 of RBI Act. d) Section 32 of RBI Act.
63. e-DFS facility is for a) Financing dealers of companies. b) Financing stock brokers. c) Financing real estate companies. d) Financing commodity traders.
64.SME car loan can be a) Extended to customer of other banks after obtaining NOC from their bank. b) Extended to customer of other banks without obtaining NOC from their bank and the same need not be informed to their bank. c) Extended to customer of other banks without obtaining NOC from their bank, but the sanction of loan to be advised. d) None of the above.
65.Primary security in the context of CGTMSE mean a) Assets created out of the bank finance. b) Land & buildings of factory/office/ godown etc. which belong to the unit and are associated with the project and are unencumbered. c) Personal guarantee of the proprietor/partner. d) All of the above.
66.Advances to manufacturing units which are classified as Medium Enterprises under MSMED Act, 2006 fall under the category of a) Priority Sector advances. b) Non-Priority Sector C&I advances c) Non-Priority Sector advances d) Indirect Priority Sector C&I advances.
67. What is a Mudra Loan a) A loan granted in Indian Rupees. b) A loan granted to SSI borrowers. c) A loan granted to Farm/non farm enterprises engaged in trading,services or manufacturing not exceeding Rs. 10 Lacs. d) A loan granted to dairy industry.
Page | 178
68. How many variants are there of MUDRA Loan a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
69. What is the name given to the smallest variant of MUDRA Loan. a) Kishore b) Tarun c) Shishu d) Balak.
70. Obtention of ECR from borrowers for sanction of limit above Rs 10 Crores under ABL and ABL CRE is a) Mandatory b) Optional c) Required in ABL CRE only d) None of the Above
71. It has been decided by the Bank to remove the primary security clause under ABL and ABL CRE. a) Yes, primary security clause has been removed. b) No, it has not been removed. c) ABL and ABL CRE can now be sanctioned against mortgage of collateral security only. d) Both a and c
72.The minimum score that an applicant should get in order to to be eligible avail a loan under SME Smart Score is? a) 60% (with a minimum score of 50% under each sub head) b) 75% (with a minimum score of 60% under each sub head) c) 50% (with a minimum score of 45% under each sub head) d) 70% (with a minimum score of 60% under each sub head)
73.What percentage of annual turnover can be financed as working capital under SME Smart Score for a manufacturing unit? a) 25% b) 15% c) 25% d) 30%
74.The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SME Smart Score to a Trade & Services Sector is? a) Rs.100 Lacs b) Rs.50 Lacs c) Rs.60 Lacs d) Rs.25 Lacs
Page | 179
75.What percentage of annual turnover can be financed as working capital under SME Smart Score for an unit dealing in Trade & Services? a) 25% b) 15% c) 20% d) 30%
76. The maximum repayment period permissible for a term loan under SME Smart Score is? a) 5 years excluding moratorium period of 6 months. b) 5 years including moratorium period of 6 months. c) 7 years including moratorium period of 6 months. d) 7 years excluding moratorium period of 6 months.
77.Which of the following is true in case of Smart Score ? a) Loans not approved under SME can be financed under normal credit schemes based on eligibility. b) SME Smart Score is renewed once in 2 years and reviewed every year. c) The margins stipulated under SME Smartscore are 25% for W.C. and 33% for T.L. d) All of the above.
78.The age criteria stipulated for the promoter/applicant to be eligible for availing a loan under SME Smart Score is______. a) Min. 21 Yrs.- Max. 65 Yrs. b) Min. 18 Yrs.- Max. 70 Yrs. c) Min. 18 Yrs.- Max. 65 Yrs. d) Min. 18 Yrs.- Max. 60 Yrs.
79.The maximum quantum of loan that can be extended under SME Credit Card is: a) Rs.10 Lacs. b) Rs. 20 Lacs. c) Rs.10 Lacs for Traders & Rs.20 Lacs for Manufacturing Units. d) Rs.25 Lacs.
80. The SME Credit Card is sanctioned for a period of ______. a) 2 years, subject to annual review. b) 3 years, subject to annual review. c) One year, to be renewed every year. d) 3 years, without any review/renewal.
Page | 180
81. The minimum score, an applicant should get to be eligible for availing finance under SME Credit Card is: a) 60% b) 65% c) 70% d) 50%
82.The maximum age criteria stipulated under SME Credit Card is______. a) 65 Years. b) 70 Years. c) 75 Years. d) No maximum age stipulated.
83.Which of the following is true with respect to SME Credit Card? a) No collateral is insisted upon for SSI units. b) For SBF units, collateral/third party guarantee is obtained if the loan is more than Rs.25,000/-. c) Maximum repayment for the Term Loan component is 5 years. d) All of the above.
84..Who amongst the following is not eligible for finance under SME Credit Card? a) Self employed with a credit requirement of Rs. 10 Lacs. b) Professionals with a credit requirement of Rs.8 Lacs. c) Village Industries with a credit requirement of Rs.7.50 Lacs. d) SSI units with a credit requirement of Rs.15 Lacs.
85.Which product is most suitable for a small manufacturer whose credit requirement is Rs.25 Lacs and who wishes that the facility should be sanctioned for a period of 2 years? a) SME Credit Card b) Traders Easy Loan c) SME Smart Score d) SME Credit Plus
86. The guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE would be in the range of _____. a) 0.75 to 1.50% b) 0.50 to 2.00% c) 0.75 to 2.00% d) 0.50 to 1.50%
Page | 181
87. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs is____. a) 0.75%. b) 1.00%. c) 1.50%. d) No fee is payable.
88.The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans above Rs.5 lacs and upto Rs.100 Lacs is____. a) 0.50% b) 1.00% c) 0.75% d) 1.50%
89.The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs in North East Region is ______. a) 1.00% b) 1.50% c) 0.75% d) 0.50%
90. SME-1 is a) Letter of Arrangement. b) Agreement of Loan-Cum-Hypothecation. c) Guarantee Agreement. d) Link Letter.
91. SME-2 is a) Agreement of Loan-Cum-Hyp. b) Letter of Arrangement. c) Link Letter. d) Guarantee Agreeement.
92.The CGTMSE trust shall pay 75% of the guaranteed amount on preferring of eligible claim by the lending institution within ___ days subject to the claim being found otherwise order and complete in all respects. a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 45
93. The annual fee for the credit facilities sanctioned as on March 31st should be paid to CGTMSE on or before ______. a) 30th April b) 30th September c) 31st May d) 30th June
Page | 182
94. SME-3 is a) Letter of Arrangement. b) Agreement of Loan-Cum-Hyp. c) Guarantee Agreement. d) Link Letter.
95. SME-12 is a) Letter of Arrangement. b) Link Letter. c) Guarantee Agreement. d) Revival Letter.
96. SME-11 is a) Link Letter. b) Agreement for Hypothecation. c) Revival Letter. d) Guarantee Agreement.
97. Under SME Credit Plus, ____% of aggregate working capital limit (FB and NFB) subject to a maximum of Rs.25 Lacs, can be sanctioned. a) 10% b) 20% c) 25% d) 15%
98. The maximum time period allowed for repayment under SME Credit Plus is_____ a) 3 months. b) 1 month. c) 6 months. d) 2 months.
99. SME Credit Plus can be sanctioned for which of the following purposes? a) Tax payments. b) Repairs to machinery. c) Any other contingency. d) all of the above.
100. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to SME Credit Plus? a) It is sanctioned to meet sudden and unforeseen expenditure/bulk orders. b) It is sanctioned as a additional working capital limit by way of clean cash credit. c) It can be sanctioned to new borrowers also as a marketing tool. d) All of the above.
Page | 183
101.The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under Stand by Line of Credit (WC) is: ______. a) Rs.20 Crores b) Rs.10 Crores c) Rs.5 Crores d) Rs.1Crore
102.Under Stand by Line of Credit (WC) what %age of working capital limit, subject to a maximum of Rs.20 Crores, can be sanctioned. a) 10 b) 20 c) 15 d) 25
103.The maximum time allowed for repayment of Stand by Line of Credit(WC) is____. a) 3 months b) 2 months c) 1 month d) 6 months
104.The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under General Purpose Term loan for SSI sector is___. a) Rs.1 Crore b) Rs.2 Crores c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.5 Crores
105. Which of the following is true with respect to General Purpose Term Loan for SSI sector? a) Normal repayment allowed is 3 years which can be extended upto 5 years in deserving cases. b) The unit should have earned profits in the preceding 3 years. c) Margin stipulated is 25%. d) All of the above.
106. The cost of Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) for guaranteed loans with limit up to Rs.50 lacs shall be borne by a) Bank. b) Borrower. c) Shared by both. d) None of the above.
107.The cost of Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) for CGTMSE guaranteed accounts within the limit range of more than Rs.50 lacs to Rs.100 lac shall be borne by a) Bank. b) Borrower. c) Shared by both. d) None of the above.
Page | 184
108.The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit under SME Smart Score? a) Rs.10 Lacs b) Rs.5 Lacs c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.25 Lacs
109.The minimum amount of Loan that can be sanctioned to a unit under SME Smart Score is_____ a) Rs.5 Lacs b) Rs.25 Lacs c) Rs.10 Lacs d) Rs.2 Lacs
110.The margin stipulated for a term loan under SME Smart Score is______. a) 25% b) 20% c) 33% d) 30%
ANSWER KEY 1 d 11 c 21 a 31 d 41 c 51 b 61 a 71 a 81 a 91 a 101 a 2 d 12 d 22 d 32 e 42 b 52 b 62 a 72 a 82 d 92 a 102 c 3 d 13 d 23 a 33 a 43 a 53 c 63 a 73 a 83 d 93 c 103 b 4 d 14 b 24 b 34 c 44 d 54 d 64 c 74 d 84 d 94 c 104 d 5 c 15 a 25 b 35 d 45 a 55 d 65 d 75 b 85 c 95 b 105 d 6 c 16 d 26 b 36 b 46 c 56 a 66 a 76 a 86 a 96 c 106 a 7 a 17 d 27 d 37 b 47 d 57 d 67 c 77 d 87 a 97 b 107 b 8 d 18 d 28 b 38 d 48 d 58 b 68 b 78 c 88 d 98 d 108 c 9 c 19 a 29 c 39 c 49 d 59 b 69 c 79 a 89 c 99 d 109 a 10 c 20 d 30 d 40 b 50 b 60 a 70 b 80 b 90 a 100 d 110 a
Page | 185
DEPOSIT PRODUCTS
Compiled by Sh. Upinder Singh, Chief Manager (Learning)
1. Which of the following are true in respect of Savings Plus Account? a) No overdraft will be allowed against SBI MOD Deposits b) Deposits cannot be accepted as margin for any NF business c) Both are true d) None of the above is true
2. Which of the following are true in case of Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme? a) Objective is to provide differential interest rate to Senior Citizens b) Min. 1year and Max. 10 years c) Min. Rs.10000 and in multiples of Rs. 1000/- d) All of these
3. Which of the following are true in respect of Capgain Plus Scheme? a) Parking of capital gains for a max period of 3 years b) Min Rs.1000 in SB a/c and Min Rs.5000 in TD Account c) Deposit can neither be accepted as margin nor as collateral security d) All are true
4. Amount withdrawn from deposits under Caps gain Plus to be utilized within a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) None of the above
5. Upper limit (ceiling) for issue of MCC for Per segment Savings Account holders (Others) a) Rs.2 lacs b) Rs.5 lacs c) Rs.10 lacs d) None of these
6. What are the variants available under Corporate Salary Package a) Silver b) Gold c) Diamond & Platinum d) All of the above
7. What is the eligibility criterion for opening salary accounts under Corporate Salary Package? a) Min. 25 employees b) Min. payout of Rs.1.25 lacs c) Both a & b d) None of the above
Page | 186
8. The deposit scheme available in the bank that offers both higher interest and tax benefits u/s 80 C a) Cap Gain Plus b) MODS c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 d) None of the above
9. Savings Bank Account or Current Account is categorized as inoperative if there is no transaction for 2 years. These transactions include. a) Only debit txns b) Only credit txns c) Both debit & credit txns d) Only ATM debit txns
10. Which of the following are not true in respect of Multi Option Deposit Scheme a) It can be linked either to Current Account or Savings b) Min. Rs.10000 and in multiples of Rs.1000 Account c) Subsequent deposits of Rs.5000 and in multiples of Rs.1000 d) None of these
11. What is the min. and max. Period for which MOD can be accepted ? a) 1 and 5 years b) 6 Months and 120 Months c) 7 days and 10 years d) None of the above
12. The type of deposit that can be opened in MODS a) TDR b) STDR c) Either a or b d) None of the above
13. Corporate Liquid Term Deposit can be accepted for amounts of a) Min Rs.100000 and in multiples Rs.10000 b) Min Rs.50000 and in multiples Rs.5000 c) Both a and b are true d) None of the above
14. Savings Plus is the combination of a) SB and MODS b) SB and CLTD c) Current account and MODS d) None of these
15. Which of the following are not true in respect of Savings Plus ? a) Min. balance Rs.5000 b) Deposits matured will be rolled over unless indicated c) TDS is applicable for MODS d) None of these
Page | 187
16. Withdrawals are permitted from Savings Plus Account through a) Cheque b) ATM c) INB d) All of the these
17. The following are the salient features of our SME Sahaj a) MAB is Rs.1000 b) No cash withdrawal is permitted at Cash Counter of branch c) Withdrawal limit through card is Rs.15000 per day d) All the above
18. Deposit product available for providing fee collection facility for institutions a) Power Jyothi b) SBI Shakti c) SME Power Pack d) None of the above
19. Features of the following are true in respect of Power Jyoti a) MAB Rs.50000 b) Penalty for non-maintenance Rs.1000 per quarter c) No cheque book facility d) All of these available
20. Which of the following combination of SME power accounts is true a) MAB for Power Pack is Rs.5 lacs b) MAB for Power Gain is Rs.2 lac c) MAB for Power Base is Rs. 20000. d) All are true
21. Which of the following are true with regard to penalty for non- maintenance of MAB in case of SME Power accounts a) Power Pack Rs.2500+ GST b) Power Gain Rs.1500+GST c) Power Base Rs.500 +GST d) All are true
22. Which of the following are true with regard to penalty for closing SME Power accounts within 12 months? a) Power Pack Rs.1000 b) Power Gain Rs.1000 c) Power Base Rs.1000 d) All are true
Page | 188
23. Which of the following are not features of SBI Annuity Deposit a) Min Deposit Amount Rs.25000 b) Min Monthly Annuity Rs.1000 c) Period of Deposit 36/60/84/120 months d) None of the above
24. SBI Shakti is? a) A saving bank product b) A current account product c) An STDR product d) None of the above
25. Period of non callable deposit scheme for NRE Deposits is a) 181 days to 3 years b) 7 days to 3 years c) 182 days to 3 years d) 1 to 3 years
26. A person to become eligible to open Basic Savings Bank account, he should be a) 18 years and above b) earning gross monthly income of Rs. 5000 or less c) Both a & b d) None of the above
27. Small Deposit account means a) Balance at any point of time not exceed Rs.50000 b) Aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed Rs.100000 c) Aggregate of all withdrawals in a month should not exceed Rs. 10000 d) All the above
28. A Basic Savings Bank account can be opened in? a) Rural branches b) Urban branches c) Metro branches d) No such criteria
29. Salient feature of Yuva SB account include a) Young individuals between 18 and 30 years are eligible b) Min. balance Rs.5000 c) Free INB d) Since discontinued
Page | 189
30. Penalty applicable on premature payment of TDRs a) 0.50% upto deposits of 1 crore b) Nil between 7 days to 180 days c) Nil between 7 days to 1 year for more than Rs.15 lacs d) 0.5 % upto 5.00 lac and 1.0 % for deposit s of > 5.0 lac to < 1.0 Crore
31. Which one is true in respect of loan/overdraft against TDRs are a) Interest applicable is 1.00% above contracted rate b) Loan amount is 90% of principal and accrued interest c) Both a & b d) None of the above
32. Recurring Deposit with flexibility in amount of instalment a) SBI Flexi b) MODS c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 d) None of the above
33. Features of SBI Flexi Deposit include a) Min. Rs.5000 per year and Rs.500 at any one instance b) Max. Rs.50000 in a financial year c) Min 5 years and Max 7 years d) All the above
34. Which of the following is true in respect of SBI Surabhi a) SB or CA will be linked to b) Min bal for CA is Rs.10000 c) Min bal for SB at urban city Rs.3000 d) All are true
35. In Surabhi, CLTD will be created for the periods a) Min 12 months and Max 36 months b) Min 7 days and max 10 years c) Min 6 months and Max 10 years d) None of the above
36. Which of the following are true in case of SBI Surabhi ? a) No loan or OD is permissible b) Partial withdrawal based on against the deposit LIFO c) Periodicity for Sweep is weekly d) All are true
Page | 190
37. Which of the following are true in case of SBI Tax Saving Scheme 2006 a) PAN is mandatory b) Min Period of deposit is 5 years c) Min deposit is Rs.1000 d) All are true
38. The product available with us to make banking facility accessible to low profile trading community and Non-individual customers a) SME Sahaj b) PowerJyothi c) SME Powerpack d) None of these
39. Which of following combinations are not true in respect of deposit of Cash at Home Branch in case of SME Power Variants? a) Power advantage- unlimited, free b) Power premium –Free up to Rs.30 lacs p.m c) Power privilege –Free upto Rs.25 lacs p,m d) All these products have been discontinued
40. Pehla Kadam is a Savings Bank scheme for children below the age of a) 5 yrs b) 15 yrs c) 10 yrs d) 12 yrs
41. Pehli Udaan is a Savings Bank scheme for children above the age of a) 12 yrs b) 5 yrs c) 10 yrs d) 8 yrs
42. What is the basis for determining the variant of Salary Account under Corporate Salary Package a) CSP – Gross Salary packages b) Rank of the employee c) Both a & b are true d) None of the above
43. What is the minimum amount that can be deposited in a Savings Bank account? a) Rs. 500/- b) Rs. 100/- c) Rs. 50/- d) Rs. 10/-
Page | 191
44. Personal accident insurance cover available for Gold and Diamond variants of Salary Package Accounts? a) Rs.5.00 lacs b) Rs.4.00 lacs c) Rs.3.00 lacs d) None of these
45. The following offers are available for Platinum Variant in all the salary packages a) SBI Vishesh Status b) Free Platinum International debit card c) 25% concession in locker charges d) All are true
46. Non callable deposit scheme is available to a) Domestic deposits b) NRE Deposits c) Both a & b d) None of these
47. For Silver category of CSP account the gross monthly salary is between ____ and ___ a) Rs.7000 and Rs.10000 b) Rs.5000 and Rs.20000 c) Rs.5000 and Rs.10000 d) Rs.5000 and Rs.15000
48. For Gold category of CSP amount the gross monthly salary is between Rs._ _ _ _ _ and _ _ _ _ _ a) Rs.20000 and Rs.50000 b) Rs.20000 and Rs.30000 c) Rs.20000 and Rs.100000 d) Rs.20000 and Rs.40000
49. On pre-mature payment of deposits the reduction in waiver of penalty can be permitted by ____ a) CGM of the circle b) GM of the Network c) DGM of the Module d) No discretion
50. What is the minimum monthly pay out in CSP facility ? a) Criteria since discontinued b) Rs.1.50 lacs c) Rs.2.00 lacs d) Rs.5.00 lacs
51. For Diamond category of CSP account the gross monthly salary is between ____ and ___ a) Rs.50000 and Rs.100000 b) Rs.70000 and Rs.100000 c) Rs.20000 and Rs.50000 d) Rs.100000 and Rs.200000
Page | 192
52. The maximum deposit permitted under SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 a) 150000 b) 200000 c) 100000 d) 50000
53. PMJDY scheme stands for a) Prime Minister Jan Dhan yojana b) Prime Minister Jeevan Dan yojana c) Prime Minister Jana Drishti yojana d) Prime Minister Jeevan Dharti yojana
54. Rupay card is associated with a) New Yuva Card b) Credit Card c) Prepaid NRE Card d) PMJDY
55. Accidental Death Insurance Cover of Rs______is available in PMJDY account a) 25000 b) 100000 c) 50000 d) 30000
56. Life Insurance Cover of Rs______is available in PMJDY account a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 30000 d) 10000
57. Overdraft of Rs_____ is available after 6 months in PMJDY account a) 50000 b) 5000 c) 10000 d) 25000
58. Max balance cap in any account under Pehla Kadam SB account a) Rs.5 lacs b) Rs 10 lacs c) Rs.1 lac d) Rs 2 lacs
59. Max balance cap under common CIF in Pehla Kadam SB Account a) Rs 10 lacs b) Rs 5 lacs c) Rs 1 lac d) Rs 3 lacs
60. Period of non callable deposit scheme for domestic deposit is a) 181 days to 3 years b) 7 days to 3 years c) 182 days to 3 years d) 3 years
61. If a customer feels that the services rendered by the branch are not satisfactory he can close his SB account with in _ _ _ _ _ and the SB account closure charges are waived
Page | 193
a) 14 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 18 days
62. What is the margin stipulation for loan against term deposits? a) 10% of the face value plus accrued interest b) 5% of the face value plus accrued interest c) 15% of the face value plus accrued interest d) None of these
63. What is per day transaction limits for Mobile Banking in accounts opened under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a) Rs. 2000 b) Rs. 3000 c) Rs. 4000 d) Rs. 5000
64. What is per day transaction limits for NEFT and issuance of demand draft through Internet Banking in accounts opened under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a) Rs. 2000 b) Rs. 3000 c) Rs. 4000 d) Rs. 5000
65. What is per day transaction limits for ATM cum debit card in accounts opened under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a) Rs. 2000 b) Rs. 3000 c) Rs. 4000 d) Rs. 5000
66. What is threshold limit for auto sweep facility for accounts opened under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a) Rs. 20000 b) Rs. 30000 c) Rs.10000 d) Rs. 5000
67. The interest will be paid on pre-mature payment of term deposits, if the deposit remained in the Bank for a minimum period of ______days a) 15 days b) 14 days c) 7 days d) 30 days
68. The cap of 120 months on the tenor of term deposits is as per the guidelines of _ _ _ _ a) RBI b) IBA c) Min. of Finance, GOI d) None of these
69. Dishonour of electronic funds transfer has to be treated as dishonour of negotiable instrument as per the provisions of ….. a) BR Act
Page | 194
b) NI Act c) Payment and Settlement Systems Act d) None of these
70. Interest on Savings Bank account is calculated on? a) Daily product basis b) Monthly product basis c) On the minimum balance amount maintained in between 10th and Last day of the said month d) On the minimum balance amount maintained in between 1st and last day of the said month.
ANSWER KEY
1 c 11 a 21 d 31 c 41 c 51 a 61 a 2 d 12 c 22 d 32 a 42 c 52 a 62 a 3 d 13 a 23 d 33 d 43 d 53 a 63 a 4 b 14 a 24 d 34 d 44 a 54 d 64 d 5 c 15 d 25 d 35 a 45 d 55 b 65 d 6 d 16 d 26 d 36 d 46 c 56 c 66 a 7 d 17 d 27 d 37 d 47 b 57 b 67 c 8 c 18 a 28 d 38 a 48 a 58 a 68 b 9 c 19 d 29 d 39 d 49 d 59 a 69 c 10 c 20 d 30 d 40 c 50 a 60 a 70 a
Page | 195
SBI HOUSING LOAN SCHEME
Prepared by Upinder Singh, Chief Manager (Learning)
1. Eligibility age criteria for NRI Housing a) 21 -70 yrs b) Individual(s) over 18 years of age with a steady sourse of income c) Individual(s) over 21 years of age with a steady sourse of income d) 21-65 yrs
2. What is the minimum amount of loan under SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan? a) 1 lac b) 3 lacs c) 5 lacs d) No minimum
3. Maximum loan for repairs and renovation under NRI Home Loan is ? a) Rs 10 lacs b) Rs 15 lacs c) Rs 20 lacs d) Rs 5 lacs
4. What is the target group of Sahayog Niwas? a) High net-worth customers b) Rural employees c) Joint families d) Scheme since discontinued
5. Purchase of house /flats which are more than ____ years old: Administrative Clearance should be obtained from the next higher authority? a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 10
6. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed for a building of 25 floors? a) 18 months b) 24 months c) 30 months d) 36 months
7. Maximum loan amount under SBI Realty is ? a) 15 Cr b) 60 lacs c) 1 cr d) 7.5 Cr
8. Maximum loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Reverse Mortgage loan? a) 25 lacs b) 50 lacs c) 100 lacs d) No limit
Page | 196
9. NRI Home Loan should be liquidated by the age of? a) 55 yrs b) 60 yrs c) 65 yrs d) 70 yrs
10. What is the minimum amount of sanction under NRI Housing loans? a) 3 lacs b) 5 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 25 lacs
11. Minimum amount of Loan under SBI Realty is ? a) 5.00 lac b) 15.0 lac c) 1.00 lac d) 3.0 lac
12. What is the permissible moratorium period in case of residential complexes for 14th floor of an apartment? a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 18 months d) 24 months
13. Maximum number of Home Loans in the name of an individual, including existing loans will be restricted to (excluding closed accounts) ? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
14. Under SBI Realty Maximum time period stipulated for construction of House ? a) 1 year b) 3 years c) 2 years d) 5 years
15. SBI realty can be given under which facilty ? a) Demand Loan b) Maxgain c) Term Loan or Maxgain d) Term Loan
16. Maximum repayment period allowed under SBI Realty? a) 60 months b) 180 months c) 120 months d) 240 months
17. Under reverse mortgage loan how much % of the value of the property is sanctioned? a) 60% b) 75% c) 90% d) 100%
Page | 197
18. In SBI Realty LTV Ratio for a loan amounting to Rs. 60 Lac? a) 85% b) 75% c) 70% d) 80%
19. Prepayment penalty under SBI Hamara Ghar if closed within 2 years? a) 2 % b) 2 % + GST c) 3 % + GST d) No Penalty
20. Which of the following Housing loan variants is not withdrawn? a) SBI Tribal plus b) SBI Flexi home loan c) SBI Freedom d) SBI Optima
21. In the case of tie up with builders, joint publicity expenditure towards the cost of advertisement material etc., shall be shared with the builder subject to a maximum of ____% of the expenditure incurred? a) 30% b) 40% c) 25% d) 50%
22. Maximum moratorium period allowed in housing loans? a) 18 months b) 24 months c) 30 months d) 36 months
23. Which of the following gets included in the project cost in Housing loans? a) Cost of site b) Cost of Stamping c) Cost of Registration d) All of these
24. In SBI Realty LTV Ratio for a loan amounting to Rs. 80 Lac? a) 60% b) 75% c) 70% d) 80%
25. What is the LTV Ratio in the case of house for ready possession where the home Loan is up to Rs. 30 lacs? a) 75% b) 80% c) 85% d) 90%
26. In Housing Loan if the proposal is strictly within the scheme, no administrative clearance is required for loan proposals up to Rs.? a) 1 cr b) 2 cr c) 7.5 cr d) 10 cr
Page | 198
27. Bank has launched new Housing Loan Scheme to meet shortfall in funds for purchase of New House? a) SBI Top up Home Loan b) SBI Hope Home Loan c) SBI Flexi Home Loan d) SBI Bridge Home Loan
28. Pre-closure penalty is levied if the housing loan account is pre-closed within how many years? a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) No penalty for pre-closure
29. Prior Administrative Clearance is required for SBI Realty loans above Rs.? a) 55 lacs b) No prior administrative clearance is required c) 70 lacs d) 75 lacs
30. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed for a building of 20 floors? a) 30 months b) 24 months c) 18 months d) 36 months
31. What is the Risk weight on Housing loan of Rs 50 lacs? a) 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) 150%
32. What is the minimum age to get a housing loan sanctioned in SBI? a) 18 b) 21 c) 25 d) 26
33. What is the maximum age limit to sanction a Housing loan? a) 70 years b) 75 years c) 60 years d) 80 years
34. Housing loans up to which amount is reckoned under priority sector advances in Metro and Urban Cities? a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 28 lacs
35. The project cost of the Housing may consist cost of furnishing consumer durables to an extent of? a) 10% subject to max of Rs 3 lacs b) 10 % subject to max of Rs 25 lacs c) 15% subject of Max 2 lacs d) 15% subject to max of 3 lacs
Page | 199
36. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for an annual income of more than Rs 10 lacs? a) 50% b) 55% c) 60% d) 70%
37. What is the minimum limit amount under SBI Home loan PAL (Pre approved loan)? a) 10 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 25 lacs d) 30 lacs
38. Which of the following Home loan variants is not withdrawn? a) SBI Maxgain b) SBI Flexi Home Loan c) SBI Easy Home Loan d) SBI Optima
39. Two title search reports, one before the loan is sanctioned and another before disbursement of the loan, should be obtained from two different empanelled advocated in case of loans above? a) 50 lac b) 5 crore c) 1 crore d) No limit
40. What is the maximum number of co-borrowers allowed in Housing loans? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
41. What is IT exemption for HL borrower for repayment towards principal? a) 1.5 lac p.a b) 2.00 lac p.a c) 2.5 lac p.a d) 1.00 lac p.a
42. In SBI Realty the loan eligibility will be arrived at on the basis of value mentioned in the Ágreement of sale or ‘Market value ‘based on current valuation report no more than ______Month old. a) 6 b) 2 c) 3 d) 12
43. What is the minimum age of the spouse when loan is sanctioned in jointly with the spouse in the case of SBI Reverse Mortgage loan? a) 55 years b) Above 58 years c) 60 years d) No age restriction
Page | 200
44. What is the maximum amount that can be sanctioned for construction of house under Sayahog Niwas? a) 25000/- b) scheme since discontinued c) 75,000/- d) 1,00,000/-
45. SBI Home Top up can be availed for how many times during the currency of the Housing loan? a) 5 times b) 4 times c) 3 times d) 2 times
46. In SBI Realty if the construction of house is not completed within the stipulated period of 5 years, the higher interest rate in the account will be reset and will apply ? a) After 5 years b) no higher rate c) From the date of first disbursement d) After 2 years
47. Under CRE home loans Provision on standard assets to be made at? a) 0.40% b) 1% c) 0.75% d) 0.65%
48. Margin of how much percent will be insisted upon for reimbursement of investment in housing, made during the preceding 12 months ? a) 15% b) 20% c) as per normal housing loan scheme d) 30%
49. At the request of the borrower recovery of interest during the moratorium period may be deferred only if moratorium period does not exceed_____ months? a) 18 b) 24 c) 30 d) 36
50. The LTV ratio for a loan of Rs.10 lacs in the case of construction is ? a) 75% b) 80% c) 90% d) None of these
51. No penal rate is chargeable for a Housing loan up to Rs.? a) 25000/- b) 50,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) None of these
52. What is the Risk weight on a housing loan of Rs 30 lacs? a) 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) 150%
Page | 201
53. Insta Home Top-Up Loan Scheme is available to customers with minimum Home Loan Limit of Rs.? a) 30 lac b) 20 lac c) 25 lac d) 20 lac with INB facility
54. What should be the minimum residual life of property in case of single borrower for sanction of loan under Reverse Mortgage ? a) 10 years b) 20 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
55. Maximum EMI/NMI Ratio for a loan of Rs 20 lacs under SBI Realty? a) 30% b) 40% c) 70% d) 60%
56. Under Home Loan Scoring Model, maximum score under Employer Type is assigned to? a) Central Govt employee b) Listed Pvt. Company employee c) MNC employee d) Self Employed person
57. Insta Home Top-Up Loan Scheme is available to customers with minimum residual tenure of Home Loan of? a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 10 years
58. The minimum periodicity stipulated for Inspection of NPA housing loan accounts? a) monthly b) quarterly c) Half yearly d) Every week
59. Maximum amount that can be sanctioned under Tribal plus? a) 5 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 10 lacs d) No limit stipulated
60. Which of the following is true in respect of SBI Realty loans where the market value based upon valuation report is more than 20% of the guidance value.? a) Independent valuation by only one empanelled valuer? b) Independently by two empanelled valuers and lower of the two valuations should be considered. c) Independently by three empanelled valuers and lower of the three valuations should be considered. d) No valuation is required only the agreement with the seller is sufficient.
Page | 202
61. The revised Home Loan Counselor remuneration structure is? a) 0.25% of the loan amount b) Rs.25000/- per proposal c) Rs.10000/- per proposal d) 0.15% of the loan amount , max Rs.10000/- per proposal
62. SBI Home loan PAL(Pre approved limit) facility is available? a) At all branches of SBI b) At metro branches only c) At RACPC only d) At select Brs. approved by Controllers
63. Minimum size of the housing loan under SBI Home loan PAL is? a) Rs.25 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs c) Rs.35 lacs d) Rs.20 lacs
64. Pre Approved loan arrangement letter under SBI Home Loan PAL facility is valid for how many months? a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 6
65. Reverse Mortgage Loan scheme is sanctioned as? a) Term Loan b) Overdraft without repayment schedule c) Non renewable Overdraft d) Overdraft with repayment schedule
66. Panel of valuers for valuation of Immovable Assets for fixation of Reserve Price for enforcement of the Bank’s rights under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, is approved by? a) Authorized Officer b) Regional Manager c) LHO d) ECCB
67. In Housing Loan, when Co-applicants are unrelated to each other, ______may permit the relaxation for exceptance of unrelated co- borrowers the loan amount is up to Rs 50.0 lac? a) AGM of the region b) DGM PBBU at LHO c) DGM (B & O) d) Un-related person cannot join as co-borrower
Page | 203
68. Under which Act updating Security Interest over the property created is done in Central Electronic Registry (CERSAI).? a) RBI Act b) SARFAESI Act c) PMLA Act d) SBI Act
69. Adding back of depreciation to compute Net Annual Income of the borrower under Home Loan scheme will be ascertained on the basis of last three years ‘Audited Balance Sheet’ of business/ activity and the latest audited balance sheet should not be older than? a) 3 months b) 9 months c) 6 months d) 12 months
70. Name the product that has been launched for existing Home Loan borrowers to meet their personal needs like expenditure on education, marriage, health care, renovation/furnishing etc. Is? a) SBI Home Top-up b) Reverse Mortgage Loan c) SBI Cash Plus d) Home Plus Scheme
71. Minimum and Maximum loan amount under SBI Home Top-up are? a) Rs 10000/- & Rs 50.00lacs b) Rs 20000/- & Rs 100.00 lacs c) Rs 40000/- & Rs 150.00 lacs d) Rs 200000/- & Rs 500.00 lacs
72. Application having net annual income of less than______will not be eligible for loan under SBI Home Top-up?. a) Rs 1.00 lac b) Rs 3.00 lac c) Rs 2.00 lac d) Rs 4.00 lac
73. At any point of time not more than two loans will be allowed to exist under the Home Top-up. Second loan under this scheme may be considered only after a gap of ______from the date of disbursement of first loan.? a) One year b) Two years c) Three years d) Four years
74. Extension of mortgage for loan under SBI Home Top-up will not be mandatory up to the loan of ? a) Rs 5.00 lacs b) Rs 3.00 lacs c) Rs 4.00 lacs d) Rs 2.00 lacs
75. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family at Rural & Semi-urban areas that comes under priority sector is? a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2 lacs c) Rs.5 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs
Page | 204
76. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family at Urban & Metropolitan areas that comes under priority sector is? a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2 lacs c) Rs.5 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs
77. If an individual owns two or more houses, singly or jointly, then the exposure for the third house onwards or purchase of flat/residential plot will be treated under? a) CRE Home Loans b) SME Home Loan c) C&I Home Loan d) Business Home Loan
78. The total number of houses/flats/residential plots under Personal Segment Home Loans Scheme should not be more than? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
79. The type of home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is? a) Overdraft b) Demand Loan c) Term Loan d) Short Term Loan
80. While processing high value Home Loan proposals i.e. Home Loans of ……, two Valuation Reports from different empanelled Valuers of the Bank should be obtained? a) Rs.100.00 Lacs & above b) Rs.50.00 Lacs & above c) Rs.150.00 Lacs & above d) Rs.200.00 Lacs & above
81. As per “Revised Home Loan Eligibility Norms”, Regular income from all sources including Variable pay, performance/Production Linked Incentives, Bonus, Overtime etc. can be considered, in whole or in part, on the basis of the average of the last …, to arrive at the eligible loan amount?. a) One year b) Two years c) Three years d) None of these
82. Insta Home Top Up Loan is available to existing Home Loan customers with a satisfactory track record of? a) 3 years b) 1 year c) 2 years d) 5 years
Page | 205
83. Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is launched specifically for the benefit of? a) Doctors b) Senior Citizens c) Agriculturist d) None
84. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the loan amount can be disbursed as lump sum amount to ___ % of the limit ? a) 25 b) 35 c) 40 d) 50
85. Permissible loan amount under SBI Home Top-up is how much percent of present market value of the house property less present outstanding in the Home Loan account?. a) 50% b) 90% c) 75% d) 80%
86. Processing fee is to be collected from the borrower a) after pre sanction b) time of documentation c) up front d) no fixed time
87. To be eligible for Insta Home Top Up Loan Scheme The CIBIL Score of the borrower should be ? a) 800 or higher b) 600 or higher c) 300 or higher d) 700 or higher
88. Under Insta Home Top Up Loan Scheme, the offer made to pre-selected customers will be valid for a period of ______days from the date of activation of the offer on Internet Banking site. a) 25 b) 35 c) 30 d) 20
89. The minimum income for home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is? a) None b) Rs50000/- c) Rs25000/- d) Rs 100000/-
90. Minimum loan amount under Insta Home Top Up Loan Scheme is? a) Rs. 500000 b) Rs. 100000 c) Rs. 200000 d) Rs. 300000
Page | 206
91. Loan under “Home Top-up Scheme” may be considered after the Takeover of Home Loan provided that the satisfactory repayment track record of the applicant for, at least, the previous? a) Six months b) One Year c) Two Years d) Three Years
92. Maximum loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is? a) Rs. 15 Lacs b) Rs.20 Lacs c) Rs. 10 Lacs d) Rs. 30 Lacs
93. Obtention of Revival Letters and Balance Confirmation Letters may be dispensed with in case of……………….which are being serviced regularly and are classified as Standard Assets?. a) Term Loan A/c in the P Segment b) Cash Credit c) All term Loans d) None of these
94. Maximum Home Loan for Purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family at Metro centers with population above 10 Lacs that comes under priority sector is? a) Rs.15.00 Lacs b) Rs.20.00 Lacs c) Rs.28.00 Lacs d) Rs.50.00 Lacs
95. Maximum Home Loan for Purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family at other centers that comes under priority sector is? a) Rs.20.00 Lacs b) Rs.15.00 Lacs c) Rs.25.00 Lacs d) Rs.50.00 Lacs
96. In the case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the outstanding will be liquidated by? a) Selling of the House b) Legal heirs can settle the loan c) (a) or (b) d) Declared as Banks property
97. Maximum Home Loan for repairs to damaged dwelling unit per family at urban metropolitan areas that comes under priority sector is? a) Rs.10.00 Lacs b) Rs.15.00 Lacs c) Rs.5.00 Lacs d) Rs.20.00 Lacs
98. Reverse Mortgage Loan is sanctioned as ? a) Non-renewable overdraft b) Renewable overdraft c) Term Loan d) Non-renewable overdraft without ledger folio charges
Page | 207
99. Reverse Mortgage Loan can be sanctioned by the following branches? a) Only Metro branches b) All branches c) PBBs d) PBBs and branches with P-division
100. Maintenance of the properties charged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan scheme lies with? a) Bank b) Borrower c) Sharing by Bank & Customer 50-50 d) Sharing by Bank & Customer 25-75
101. Ownership of the property mortgaged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is with? a) Borrower b) Bank c) Both a & b d) None of the above
102. What is the tenure of Insta Home Top Up loan if the residual maturity of Home loan is above 120 months? a) 60 Months b) 180 Months c) 120 Months d) 240 Months
103.Reverse Mortgage Loan is sanctioned only if the surviving spouses are? a) 2 b) 1 c) Not related d) none of these
104.Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the title holder has to make a will superseding earlier will if any in favour of? a) Bank b) Spouse c) No need of any will d) none of these
105.Under “Reverse Mortgage Loan”, reasonable amount of time ………………may be provided to the legal heirs for selling the house and settlement of the outstanding from the date the outstanding amount falls due for repayment before initiating recovery measures? a) up to the 3 months b) up to the 6 months c) up to the 9 months d) up to the 12 months
106. If the outstanding of “Reverse Mortgage Loan” is not liquidated, then it will be classified as a ‘Sub-standard’ Asset on which day after the due date?
Page | 208
a) 90th day b) 120 days c) 180th day d) 365 days
107.Revised average annual house hold income, permissible under Interest Subsidy Scheme for Housing to the Urban Poor for Economically Weaker Sections is? a) Upto Rs. 0.50 Lacs per annum b) Upto Rs. 1.00 Lacs per annum c) Upto Rs. 1.50 Lacs per annum d) Upto Rs. 2.00 Lacs per annum
108.The minimum age of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is? a) 60 Years b) Above 60 Years c) 58 Years d) 55 Years
109. The residual life of the property to be obtained as security under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme in the case of single borrower is? a) 60 Years b) 58 Years c) 20 Years d) 25 Years
110. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the residual life of the property to be obtained as security in case, spouse is below 60 Years of age.? a) 60 Years b) 58 Years c) 20 Years d) 25 Years
111.The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of the younger of the borrowers is between 58 and upto 68 years of age is _____ Years or till be death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier? a) 15 Years b) 10 Years c) 20 Years d) 25 Years
112. The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of the younger of the borrowers is above 68 years of age is _____ Years or till be death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier? a) 15 Years b) 10 Years c) 20 Years d) 25 Years
113. Quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme would be ____ % of the value of the property? a) 65 b) 75 c) 85 d) 90
Page | 209
114.Quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is inclusive of? a) Interest for one year b) Processing charges c) Interest till maturity of the loan d) None of these
115.Maximum quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme? a) Rs.10.00 lacs b) Rs.25.00 lacs c) Rs.100.00 lacs d) No ceiling
116. Pre-payment penalty of the loan during the tenure of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is ? a) 0.75 % b) 1.00 % c) 1.50 % of pre paid amount d) No prepayment penalty
117.The best grade under Credit Scoring Model for home loan is? a) Grade 1 b) Grade10 c) Grade A d) Grade A+
118.Processing fee under Insta Home Top Up Loan scheme is? a) 0.35% of loan amount b) Rs. 2000 c) 0.50% of loan amount d) Rs. 2000/- + service tax
119.In case of non-obtention of PAN, default value suggested for CERSAI is ? a) BBBBB9999A b) AAAAA9999A c) AAAAA9999B d) BBBBB9999B
120.The interest concession for Women borrowers under ‘Her Ghar’ scheme is? a) 5 bps b) 10 bps c) 50 bps d) 15 bps
121.Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing CRGFTLIH) is applicable in? a) Rural areas b) Semi-Urban areas c) Urban areas d) All of the above
122. In Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) Scheme housing loans up to which amount is covered? a) 5.00 lac b) 10.00 lac c) 2.00 lac d) 15.00 lac
Page | 210
123.Which of the following is not covered under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) Scheme? a) Housing loan for purchase of plot b) Housing loan for construction of house c) Housing loan for purchase of new dwelling unit d) Housing loan for purchase of old dwelling unit
124.In Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) Scheme, borrowers of which income group are covered? a) In EWS, annual income upto rs. 1.00 lac b) In LIG , annual income between Rs. 100001 to Rs 200000/- c) Both a & b are correct d) None of the above
125. Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) is applicable where the carpet area 0f the housing unit is? a) 430 Sqft(40 Sqm) b) 450 Sqft c) 470 Sqft d) All of the above
126.Maximum tenor of the Home loans eligible for cover under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH). a) 20 years b) 25 years c) 15 years d) 30 years
127. Extent of cover available under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) Scheme for Home loan limit up to Rs. 2.00 lac? a) 90% of the amount in default subject to ceiling of 90% of sanctioned limit b) 90% of the amount in default subject to ceiling of 80% of sanctioned limit c) 80% of the amount in default subject to ceiling of 90% of sanctioned limit d) 80% of the amount in default subject to ceiling of 80% of sanctioned limit
128.What is the percentage of Guarantee fee under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH)? a) 2.00% b) 1.50% c) 1.14% d) 1.15%
Page | 211
129. Borrower share under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) is? a) 50% b) 70% c) 60% d) 30%
130. Borrower share under Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust For Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH) is recovered by way of? a) Adding 10 bps premium on prevailing card interest rate. b) Debit to his Savings bank account c) Debit to his Loan account d) Adding 10 bps premium on prevailing card interest rate.
131.The maximum loan amount under Hamara Ghar Scheme is ? a) 30 lac. b) 25 lac c) 50 lac d) 100 lac
132.Hamara Ghar Scheme is available for a fixed tenure up to ? a) 3 year b) 4 years c) 3 years d) 2 years
133.Pre payment penalty in case of Hamara Ghar Loan Scheme is? a) 1.5%+ tax if the loan is prepaid during initial fixed tenure of 2 yrs b) 2% + tax if the loan is prepaid during initial fixed tenure of 2 yrs c) 3.0% if the loan is prepaid during initial fixed tenure of 2 yrs d) 2.0 if the loan is prepaid at any time.
134.Minimum loan amount under SBI Bridge Home loan Scheme is? a) 10 lac b) 50 lac c) 30 lac d) 20 lac
135.Maximum loan amount under SBI Bridge Home loan Scheme is? a) 1 crore b) 2 crore c) 3 crore d) 5 crore
136.Maximum tenure of loan under SBI Bridge Home loan Scheme is? a) 15 years b) 20 years c) 2 years d) 30 year
Page | 212
ANSWER KEY
1 b 13 b 25 d 37 a 49 a 61 a 73 a 85 c 97 c 109 c 121 c 133 b 2 b 14 d 26 c 38 a 50 c 62 c 74 a 86 c 98 d 110 d 122 a 134 d 3 a 15 d 27 d 39 c 51 a 63 b 75 b 87 d 99 b 111 a 123 a 135 b 4 d 16 c 28 d 40 b 52 a 64 a 76 c 88 c 100 b 112 b 124 c 136 c 5 a 17 c 29 b 41 a 53 d 65 c 77 a 89 a 101 a 113 d 125 a 6 d 18 c 30 a 42 c 54 b 66 d 78 c 90 b 102 c 114 c 126 b 7 a 19 b 31 a 43 b 55 c 67 c 79 b 91 b 103 b 115 c 127 a 8 c 20 a 32 a 44 b 56 c 68 b 80 a 92 c 104 b 116 d 128 b 9 b 21 a 33 a 45 d 57 c 69 b 81 b 93 c 105 b 117 a 129 a 10 a 22 d 34 d 46 c 58 c 70 a 82 a 94 c 106 a 118 d 130 a 11 a 23 d 35 b 47 b 59 c 71 d 83 b 95 a 107 b 119 c 131 a 12 d 24 a 36 d 48 c 60 b 72 b 84 d 96 c 108 b 120 a 132 d
Page | 213
CAR LOAN
Compiled by Sh. Upinder Singh, Chief Manager (Learning)
1. In case of car loan to an agriculturist the Net Annual Income will be arrived at on the basis of ? a) Nature of activity b) Yield c) Land holding & cropping pattern d) All the above
2. For salaried person the maximum car loan that can be granted is restricted to how much times of Net Monthly Income? a) 28 b) 24 c) 36 d) 48
3. The maximum car loan amount to Self Employed, Professionals and Businessmen etc, is restricted to how much times of Net Annual Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income? a) 2 b) 2.50 c) 3 d) 4
4. In case of car loan, applicant having a net annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed? a) 50% b) 60% c) 65% d) 70%
5. In case of car loan, applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up to Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed? a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 65%
6. In case of car loan, applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed? a) 65% b) 75% c) 60% d) 70%
7. Discretionary powers to permit concession in rate of interest are applicable to Auto loans of Rs. ______and above. a) 10 lac b) 2 lac c) 20 lac d) 15 lac
Page | 214
8. Penal interest for car loan upto Rs.25000 is charged at? a) Nil b) 1% c) 0.50% d) 2%
9. Maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan? a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 7 years d) 10 years
10. If a car loan is sanctioned as Overdraft account, the differential rate of interest would be? a) 0.50% above the applicable b) 0.50% below the applicable rate for TL c) 1% above the applicable rate d) Same as the rate applicable to TL
11. A car loan can be sanctioned under which of the facilities? a) Term Loan b) Demand Loan c) Overdraft d) Either TL or OD
12. Who of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan? a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self-employed persons, businessmen c) Agriculturists d) All the above
13. Which of the following category of car loan applicant need not submit Income Tax Return/Form 16? a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self- employed persons, businessmen c) Agriculturists d) All the above
14. The age of a car loan applicant should be between? a) 18-60 years b) 21-60 years c) 21-65 years d) 21-70 years
15. A car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of : a) 65 years b) 60 year c) 70 years d) 75 years
Page | 215
16. The minimum Net Annual Income of( salaried) customers for car loan should be? a) 400000 b) 600000 c) 300000 d) 250000
17. In respect of car loan applicants- Professionals, self-employed, Proprietary /partnership firms, businessmen, the minimum Net Profit/ Gross Taxable Income per annum as per I T Return after adding back depreciation and deducting repayments of existing loans should be? a) 600000 b) 250000 c) 300000 d) 400000
18. In case of car loan, minimum net annual Income of (Agriculturists) applicant and/or co-applicant if any, together should be? a) 100000 b) 120000 c) 200000 d) 400000
19. Income from which other sources can be added for arriving at minimum Net Annual Income of a car loan applicant? a) Bank interest, rents b) Dividends of listed Companies c) Agriculture income d) All the above
20. From the followings who can be appointed as Auto Loan Counsellors? a) Retired SBI Officers b) SBI Customers and others with certain qualifications c) Car Dealers d) A & b above
21. Auto Loan Counsellors will be paid an incentive of ______of the car loan amount for the proposal sourced and sanctioned. a) 0.1% b) 0.2% c) 1.0% d) 2.0%
22. What is the maximum loan amount for new car ? a) 10 lakhs b) 20 lakhs c) 60 lakhs d) No ceiling
23. What is the maximum loan amount for used car loans? a) 25 lakhs b) 10 lakhs c) 15 lakhs d) 20 lakhs
Page | 216
24. What is the minimum NAI for pensioners to apply for a car loan? a) 275000/- b) 250000/- c) 300000/- d) 175000/-
25. What is the repayment cycle in car loans? a) 10th for loans disbursed upto 15th of month b) 20th for loans disbursed after 16th of the month c) In succeeding month to coincide with the date on which borrowers major income flow happens. d) End of the month
26. Which mode of disbursement is correct in case of car loans? a) Direct credit into dealer’s account with us b) Through RTGS/NEFT in dealer’s account, if dealer maintains account with other their account banks. c) Through DD/BC d) (a) and (b) are correct
27. What types of facilities are available under SBI Combo Loan Scheme? a) Only OD b) Composite Term Loan c) Only TL d) Both TL & OD
28. What is the repayment period of used cars? a) 5 Years b) 7 Years c) 7 Years from the date of original purchase d) 5 years from the date of original purchase .
29. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to agriculturist is restricted to _____ times of Net Annual Income a) 2 times NAI b) 4 times of NAI c) 2.5 times NAI d) 3 times of NAI
30. In case of Car Loan what is the margin in case of Salary package/tie up with net annual income up to 10.00 lac a) 85% of on road prize b) 90% of on road prize c) 100% of ex-showroom price, taxes, insurance d) 85% of on road prize
Page | 217
31. What is the maximum loan amount in case the loan is sanctioned under Car Loan Lite? a) Rs. 5.00 lac b) Rs. 3.00 lac c) Rs. 6.00 lac d) Rs. 4.00 lac
32. In respect of a car loan, if the irregularity exceeds EMI, for a period of------, then the penal interest would be charged @2% p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the------for the period of default. a) One month/ overdue amount b) 3 months/ overdue amount c) 3 months/ outstanding amount d) One month/ outstanding amount
33. What is the minimum NAI for pensioners to apply for a car loan? a) 275000/- b) 250000/- c) 300000/- d) 175000/-
34. If a car application is rejected after pre-sanction survey ------% of the Processing Fee will be retained subject to Minimum of Rs. 510/- and maximum of Rs.2550/-. a) 25% b) 50% c) 60% d) 75%
35. For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, I T Return/ Form 16 for the last how many years should be obtained? a) One year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
36. Takeover of car loans will be considered selectively subject to which of the following conditions? a) The vehicle is not more than 2 years old b) The account of the borrower with other bank is a standard account c) It is a single ownership vehicle & no Asset insurance claim has been availed d) The loan should be repaid within 7 years from the date of original purchase of the vehicle. e) All the above
37. We may also reimburse finance for the cars purchased out of own funds, which are not more than ------old. a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) 24 months
Page | 218
38. LTV for a businessman with Net Annual Income of Rs.10 lacs is a) 85% of On Road Price b) 75% of On Road Price c) 85% of Ex Showroom Price d) 75% of Ex Showroom Price
39. What is the pre-payment penalty for a car loan? a) 1% of outstanding b) 2% of outstanding c) 5% of outstanding d) No penalty
40. For car dealer sales executives, the incentive would be paid at _____ rate for the loan applications sourced by them. a) 0.25% of the loan amount (maximum Rs.3000/-) b) 0.50% of the loan amount (maximum Rs.3000/-) c) 0.25% of the loan amount (maximum Rs.5000/-) d) 0.50% of the loan amount (maximum Rs.10000/-)
41. Pre Payment Penalty for Car Loan Scheme for Used Car a) No Penalty b) 1% c) 2% d) 0.50%
42. Advantage Car loan is sanctioned for amounts a) Above 5 lakhs b) 5 lakhs c) Below 5 lakhs d) Scheme since dispensed with
43. Periodical inspection frequency for ‘Standard’ car loans a) Quarterly b) Monthly c) Waived d) Yearly
44. What is the minimum EMI/NMI percent in case of car loan applicant(salaried) having NAI upto Rs.5 lacs? a) 40% b) 50% c) 55% d) 60%
45. What is the EMI/NMI percent for car loans in case of tie-ups with reputed PSU/Corporate institutions for applicants with Net Annual Income upto Rs.5 lacs? a) 40% b) 50% c) Since withdrawn d) 70%
Page | 219
46. Which of the repayment method is correct in case of car loan sanctioned to agriculturists. a) Half year installments b) EMI method c) Yearly installments d) Synchronizing with harvesting season
47. Under SBI Combo Loan scheme, the following loans can be sanctioned at a time. a) Car and Tractor b) 2 Cars c) Car and 3 wheeler d) Car and Two wheeler
48. Insurance of the car is done in the name of borrower? a) Comprehensive insurance for market value b) At least 10% above loan amount market value c) Higher of a or b d) None of these
49. The income of the following can be clubbed with that of the applicant for a car loan? a) Spouse b) Father, Mother c) Brother, sister d) Any of these
50. How many applicants can be there in a car loan? a) Only1 b) Up to 2 c) Up to 3 d) Up to 4
51. What is the maximum cost of accessories to be financed? a) 5% of the cost of vehicle b) Rs.50000/- c) Lower of a or b d) Only a
52. CIBIL Score in case loan is sanctioned under Car Loan Lite scheme? a) 500 and above b) 650 and above c) 700 and above d) 750 and above
53. The incentive payable to Auto Loan counsellors is ___ % of Car Loan proposal sourced and sanctioned a) 0.2 % b) 0.3 % c) 0.5 % d) 1 %
Page | 220
54. EMI of the Car Loan may be reduced consequent upon the rate reduction once during its tenure, if the account is Standard Asset and the loan outstanding is at least……..and the interest rate reduction is of 1% or more. a) Rs. 2.00 Lacs b) Rs. 3.00 Lacs c) Rs. 4.00 Lacs d) Rs. 5.00 Lacs
55. The eligibility criteria for Assured Car loan scheme is? a) Existing customers with unencumbered Fixed Deposits b) Existing Housing Loan customers c) Existing Personal Loan customers d) Existing Education Loan regular customers
56. Minimum Loan amount under Two wheeler loan scheme is? a) Rs. 25000/- b) Rs. 40000/- c) Rs. 35000/- d) Rs. 30000/-
57. Under Loyalty car loan scheme car loan may be sanctioned upto ...... of on road price of the vehicle. a) 75% b) 100% c) 90% d) 85%
58. Minimum Net Annual Income of a person availing Two Wheeler loan is ? a) Rs. 200000/- b) Rs. 75000/- c) Rs. 150000/- d) Rs. 100000/-
59. SBI Two-wheeler loan can be sanctioned at? a) RACPC only b) Home branch only c) Any branch d) No Branch
60. New car loan scheme for existing home loan borrowers a) Loyalty Car Loan b) Freedom Car Loan c) Her Car d) Home Car
61. Loan amount under Loyalty car Loan a) 100% of ex showroom price b) 100% of on road price c) 85% of ex showroom price d) 85% of on road price
62. Extension of EM not required for loans upto Rs._____ under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme a) 10 lacs b) 3 lacs c) 5 lacs d) 7 lacs
Page | 221
63. Processing fee under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme(except festive offer)? a) 0.50%+ST b) 0.20% +ST c) 0.55%+ST d) 0.25% +ST
64. What is the maximum processing charges for normal car loan(except festive offer)? a) 5000/- b) 9100/-+ ST c) 15000/- d) 9100/- + ST
65. Minimum Net Monthly Income of a person availing Two wheelr Loan is ? a) Rs. 7500/- b) Rs. 10000/- c) Rs. 12500/- d) Rs. 6000/-
66. In the case of short-term promotional drives, the G. M. Of Network can reduce the processing fee of car loans up to? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%
67. What is the maximum loan amount in SBI Two wheeler loan scheme? a) 68. As per recent instructions, the loan tenor of a car loan can be extended upto ______years if interest rates on the existing loans go up and the EMIs are left unchanged. a) 8 years b) 9 years c) 10 years d) 12 years 69. Who will be borrower in case of NRI Car loan scheme? a) NRI b) Resident Indian c) Resident Indian & NRI d) Only NRI 70. Who will be guarantor in case of NRI Car loan scheme? a) NRI b) Resident Indian c) Resident Indian & NRI d) NRI & employer 71. What is the percent of margin under NRI CAR loan scheme for loans? a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20% Page | 222 72. The sanctioning authority of NRI car loan will have discretion to reduce margin by _____% where check off from a reputed employer is available a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 30% 73. What is the minimum NMI/NAI of the guarantor under NRI car loan scheme? a) $ 500 NMI or $ 10000 NAI b) No Stipulation c) $ 1200 NMI or $15000 NAI d) $1500 NMI or 18000 NAI 74. What is the basis of loan amount of NRI car loan? a) 6 times NMI or 0.5 times NAI b) 12 times NMI OR 1 time NAI c) 18 times NMI or 1.5 times NAI d) 24 times NMI or 2 times NAI 75 Loyalty car loan is applicable to home loan borrowers who have regularly repaid the loan for ___ year after moratorium a) 1 b) 5 c) 2 d) 3 76. What is the EMI NMI Ratio under Two Wheeler scheme ? a) 60%- b) 55% c) 50% d) 65% 77. At what age loan amount should be fully repaid in certified pre-owned car loan scheme? a) 65 years b) 70 years c) 75 years d) 60 years 78. What is the minimum loan amount in pre certified car loan scheme? a) 5 lacs b) 1 lac c) 2 lacs d) 10 lacs 79. What is the maximum loan amount in pre certified car loan scheme? a) 5 lacs b) 1 lac c) 2 lacs d) 10 lacs 80. Which is the Car loan scheme in SBI for the customers who do not have income proof documents? a) Approved Car Loan b) Pre-approved Car Loan c) Assured Car Loan d) No such Scheme Page | 223 ANSWER KEY 1 d 11 d 21 b 31 d 41 a 51 c 61 b 71 c 2 d 12 d 22 d 32 a 42 d 52 b 62 a 72 a 3 d 13 c 23 c 33 b 43 c 53 a 63 d 73 b 4 a 14 c 24 b 34 a 44 b 54 d 64 b 74 c 5 b 15 c 25 c 35 b 45 c 55 a 65 c 75 a 6 c 16 d 26 d 36 d 46 b 56 d 66 b 76 c 7 c 17 d 27 c 37 a 47 d 57 b 67 a 77 b 8 a 18 d 28 c 38 a 48 c 58 c 68 a 78 b 9 c 19 d 29 d 39 d 49 d 59 b 69 a 79 a 10 d 20 d 30 b 40 a 50 b 60 a 70 b 80 c Page | 224 P SEGMENT LOANS (OTHER THAN HOUSING AND CAR LOANS) Prepared by Sh. Upinder Singh, Chief Manager (Learning) EDUCATIONAL LOANS: 1. Under SBI Student Loan Scheme, the maximum loan for education in India can be given up to Rs……. a) 5 lacs b) 10 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 7.5 lacs 2. Under SBI Student Loan Scheme, the maximum loan for study abroad can be given up to? a) 5 lacs b) 30 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 7.5 lacs 3. Student plus advantage card is designed for education loan borrowers and is issued a) on the basis of fixed deposit (minimum Rs. 10000/-) with our bank. b) on the basis of fixed deposit (minimum Rs. 15000/-) with our bank. c) on the basis of fixed deposit (minimum Rs. 25000/-) with our bank. d) on the basis of fixed deposit (minimum Rs. 5000/-) with our bank. 4. In Student plus advantage card minimum credit limit of Rs. ______is provided against a credit of Rs. 5000/-. a) 5000 b) 4000 c) 4500 d) 3500 5. Under Govt. of India Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education Loans(CGFSEL) education loans up to Rs...... is covered? a) 3.00 lac b) 3.00 lac c) 3.00 lac d) 7.50 lac 6. Under SBI Student Loan Scheme, the margin up to 4.0 lac is? a) 5.0% b) nil c) 10.0% d) 15.0% Page | 225 7. Under SBI Student Loan Scheme, the security up to 7.5 lac is? a) 110% b) nil c) 120% d) 100% 8. Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, moratorium period is ? a) Course period +2 year b) Course period +6 months c) Course period +1 year d) Course period +18 months 9. Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, enhanced maximum loan limit with tangible collateral of full value for List A category institutes is ___? a) Rs 15lacs b) Rs 20lacs c) Rs 25lacs d) Rs 30lacs 10. Under SBI Student Loan Scheme, the repayment period is ? a) 15 yrs b) 10 yrs c) 5 yrs d) 7.5 yrs 11. Our Educational loan scheme does not cover a) Within India b) Foreign Study c) Distance Education d) None of the above 12. Expenses for like study tours, project work, thesis, etc. can be considered for loan subject to the condition that these should be capped at ____ of the total tuition fees payable for completion of the course. a) 40% b) 35% c) 20% d) None of the above 13.Cost of a two-wheeler upto Rs. ______can be included in the expenses considered eligible for finance where the loan amount is secured by a suitable third party guarantee and/or tangible collateral security. a) 1,00,000/- b) 45,000/- c) 50,000/- d) None of the above 14. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, the repayment period is ? a) 15 yrs b) 10 yrs c) 5 yrs d) 7.5 yrs Page | 226 15. Borrower Margin for Education loans of above Rs.4 lacs ? a) NIL b) Studies in India: 5%, Studies abroad: 15% c) Studies in India: 10%, Studies abroad: 15% d) None of the above 16. Security for Education loan upto Rs.4 lac ? a) NIL b) Coobligation of parent(s) & No security c) Third party guarantee d) None of the above 17. Which branch is identified as Nodal branch in respect of education loan for economically weaker sections for submission of claims under the scheme a) New Delhi Main branch b) Kolkata Main branch c) Mumbai main branch d) Chennai Main branch 18. What is the repayment period under SBI student loan? a) 5 years b) 7-8 years c) 7 years d) none of these 19. Processing charges under Education loan scheme?. a) 1.0 % of the loan amount b) 0.25 % of thye loan amount c) 0.5 % of the loan amount d) Nil 20. What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lakhs under SBI student loan? a) Co-obligation of parents b) Tangible collateral security along with assignment of future income of the student for payment of instalment c) TPG d) Both a) & b 21. What is the rate of interest concession if full interest is repaid during moratorium period? a) 1% b) 1.5% c) 1.75% d) 2.00% 22. What is the processing fee for loans up to Rs.4 lakhs? a) 0.5% b) 0.75% c) 1.00% d) Nil Page | 227 23. What is the maximum loan under SBI Scholar scheme ? a) 5 lakhs b) 10 lakhs c) 15 lakhs d) 35 lakhs 24. Internet Banking facility can be given to the education loan borrower? a) Cannot be given b) Can be given on loan account of the borrower c) permission required d) Savings Bank account required 25. The loan for pilot training course is covered under? a) SBI Student loan scheme b) SBI Scholar loan scheme c) SBI Career loan scheme d) Under no scheme 26. What is the margin above Rs. 4.0 lac and upto 7.5 lac under SBI Scholar loan scheme. a) Nil b) 5.5 % c) 10 % d) 5.0 % 27. What is the margin under SBI Scholar loan scheme upto 4 lac. a) Nil b) 5 % c) 10 % d) 7.5 % 28. Loan applications under SBI student loan have to be disposed off within a period of ---- days? a) 7 days b) 7 week c) 9 days d) 15 days 29. The processing of education loan applications should be monitored by the controllers and RACPCs on ------basis? a) Daily b) Weekly c) Fortnightly d) Monthly 30. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the students availing the loan? a) 21 years b) 25 years c) 30 years d) No age limit Page | 228 31. Application for educational loan should not be rejected without the concurrence of a) BM b) AGM c) GM d) Next higher authority. 32. “No Dues” Certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for considering education loan. a) True b) False c) Can’t Say d) None of these 33. Loan applications received and disposed off register should be properly maintained a) True b) False c) Can’t Say d) None of these 34. Our branches can issue the capability certificate for the students going abroad for higher studies a) True b) False c) Can’t Say d) None of these 35. Government of India has formulated a scheme of providing Interest Subsidy for Education Loans of students of Economically Weaker Sections whose parental/family gross Annual Income is up to Rs.? a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2.50 lacs c) Rs.3.00 lacs d) Rs.4.50 lacs 36. Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI student loan and SBI Scholar loan w.e.f. 02.03.09 is a) 1 % b) 0.75 % c) No concession d) 0.50 % 37. Maximum Loan Amount for Studies Abroad is ? a) Rs 20 lacs b) Rs 25 lacs c) Rs 1.5 cr. d) Rs 50 lacs 38. For the purpose of reporting Priority Sector Lending, loans upto Rs. ____ Lacs for studies abroad will only be taken into consideration. a) 20 lacs b) 25 lacs c) 30 lacs d) 50 lacs Page | 229 39. What is the moratorium period under SBI Global Ed-vantage education loan scheme?. a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) 6 months after completion of the course 40. What is the limit of Education loan that can be classified as priority sector advance for studies in India? a) 5 lakhs b) 10 lakhs c) 15 lakhs d) 20 lakhs 41. In case of SBI Global Ed-vantage scheme, for calculation of interest, a tenure premium of _____% is charged where a repayment period opted is for more than 10 years. a) 0.5 % b) 0.75 % c) 1.0 % d) 0.25 % 42. What is the limit up to which education loans are eligible for interest subsidy during moratorium for students from economically weaker sections with annual gross parental/family income up to Rs.4.5 lakhs a) 2 lakhs b) 5 lakhs c) 7 lakhs d) 10 lakhs 43. What is the margin under SBI Global Ed-vantage education loan scheme?. a) 15 % b) 10 % c) 5 % d) 20 % 44. What is the repayment period of education loans sanctioned to wards of staff? a) 60 months b) 84 months c) 108 months d) 120 months after moratorium 45. Minimum loan amount under SBI Global Ed-vantage education loan scheme?. a) Rs. 10.0 lac b) Rs. 15.0 lac. c) Rs. 30.0 lac. d) Rs. 20.0 lac 46. Processing fee under SBI Global Ed-vantage education loan scheme?. a) 2.0 % of the loan amount. b) 1.5 % of the loan amount. c) 0.5 % of the loan amount d) Rs. 10000/- per application Page | 230 47. What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under the scheme? a) 1 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) No ceiling 48. 2% penal interest to be charged for loans of Rs. ---- for the overdue amount and overdue period? a) 2 lacs b) Above 2 lakhs c) 4 lakhs d) Above 4 lakhs 49. Which of the following expenses can be considered for arriving at loan amount? a) Fee payable to college/hostel b) Expenses like study tours, project including examination fee. work, theses etc. c) Purchase of computers d) All of these 50. Maximum repayment period under SBI Scholar Loan? a) Upto 10 years b) Upto 15 years c) Upto 5 years d) None of the above LOANS AGAINST BANK DEPOSITS/ SHARES/ GOLD LOANS/ NSCS 51. The surrender value of an LIC policy is Rs 10,000/-. How much loan can be sanctioned? a) 9,000/- b) 9,500/- c) 10,000/- d) 5,000/- 52. How much % of face value and accrued interests of an NSC can be sanctioned as loan a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 85% 53. Maximum repayment period of loan sanctioned against shares a) 24 months b) 30 months c) 36 months d) 60 months Page | 231 54. ____% of Face value and accrued interest can be sanctioned to staff members while sanctioning loan against NSCs a) 65% b) 85% c) 75% d) 100% 55. Maximum repayment period in advance against demat units of open ended schemes of SBI Mutual Fund a) 30 EMIs b) 48 EMIs c) 60 EMIs d) 84 EMIs 56. What is the percentage of margin against demat units of open ended schemes of SBI Mutual Fund a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 25% 57. Margin under Personal Gold Loan Scheme ? a) 30% b) 65% c) 25% d) None of these 58. The loan against debentures to be liquidated within? a) 36 months b) 30 months c) 24 months d) None of these 59. What is the charge against demat units of open ended schemes of SBI Mutual Fund a) Lien b) Pledge c) Hypothecation d) Assignment 60. Charge created on Shares/ debentures? a) Hypothecation b) Pledge c) Assignment d) None of these 61. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned against security of shares is a) 5 lacs b) 20 lacs in demat form and 10 lacs for physical shares c) 50 lacs d) No limit 62. What is the margin prescribed for advances against shares granted for the purpose of acquiring new shares? a) 50% b) 40% c) 33 1/3% d) 75% Page | 232 63. The maximum Gold Loan amount that can be sanctioned under Per segment a) 1 lac b) 5 lacs c) 20 lacs d) No limit 64. Minimum age limit for sanction of Personal Gold Loan ? a) 18 years & above b) 21 years & above c) 25 years & above d) None of these 65. Maximum repayment period under Personal Gold Loan ? a) 30 months b) 12 months c) 36 months d) None of these PENSION LOANS: 66. For availing Pension loan maximum age should not exceed ? a) 70 years of age b) 76 years of age c) 72 years of age d) None of these 67. Maximum age limit at the time of full repayment for Pensioners & Family pensioners ? a) 78 years b) 80 years c) 84 years d) None of the above 68. ____ % margin should be met by pensioner while availing a pension loan? a) 15% b) 10% c) 5% d) No margin 69. Minimum loan amount under Pension loan for Pensioners & Family pensioners? a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/- c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) 10% 70. Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for pensioners ? a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.14 lacs c) Both of the above d) None of the above 71. Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for Family pensioners a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.5 lacs c) Both of the above d) None of the above Page | 233 72. Minimum net monthly income for availing loan against property? a) Rs.5,000/- b) Rs.25000/- c) Rs.50,000/- d) Rs. 10000/- 73. Under loan against property scheme the LTV ratio for loan up to Rs. 1.00 Cr. a) 70% b) 65% c) 60% d) 75% 74. Under loan against property scheme the LTV ratio for loan above Rs. 1.00 Cr. to Rs. 7.5 Cr. a) 70% b) 65% c) 75% d) 60% XPRESS CREDIT: 75. Under Xpress Credit Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount for School Teachers(employees of state govt.) shall be a maximum of…….… a) 6 months Gross Salary b) 24 months NMI c) 18 months Gross Salary d) 24 months Gross Salary 76. Apart from “PAN Verification, the Xpress Credit proposals should be processed through ‘LOS’ without any exception to ensure ……… a) CIBIL Defaulters b) Validation under Risk Scoring c) De-dupe Check d) All of these 77. Respective RM, RBO to the DGM(B&O) will certify ______that all Control Returns in respect of Xpress Credit Loans sanctioned by the Branches under their control up to the end of previous month have been scrutinized and found in order. a) Monthly b) Bi-monthly c) Quarterly d) Half yearly 78. Minimum NMI for sanction of Xpress Credit Loan? a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.5000/- c) Rs.25,000/- d) Half yearly 79. Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit Term Loan? a) Rs.25,000/- & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.50,000/- & Rs.15 lacs c) Rs.24,000/- & Rs.10 lacs d) None of these Page | 234 80. Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit over draft? a) Rs.5 lacs & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs & Rs.15 lacs c) Rs.1 lac & Rs.15 lacs d) None of these 81. Maximum loan amount for School teachers and staff of Govt. Aided/Semi- Govt. Schools under Xpress Credit Scheme ? a) Maximum 6 months Gross Salary b) Maximum 12 months Net Salary c) Maximum 12 Months Gross Salary under both TL & OD d) None of these 82. Minimum & Maximum repayment period under Xpress Credit Scheme ? a) 6 months & 60 months b) Lower of 60 EMIs or remaining service c) 24 months & 60 months d) None of the above 83. Conditions for 2nd loan under Xpress Credit ? a) 1 year after disbursement b) 1st loan is being satisfactorily conducted c) More than 2 loans cannot be outstanding at a time d) All of these 84. Prepayment penalty for Xpress Credit ? a) Rs.10,000/- b) 2% out of the outstandings c) Nil d) Half yearly 85. Minimum loan amount under Loan against property for individuals. a) Rs.20.0 lac b) Rs.5.0 lac c) Rs. 10.00 lac d) Rs. 15.00 lac LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES: 86. SBIs Loan Policy is applicable to ? a) All lending b) All domestic lending c) All foreign lending d) None of these 87. What is CRA ? a) Credit Risk Assessment b) Credit Realisation Assessment c) Customer Risk Assessment d) None of these Page | 235 88. Repayment of PER Segment loans is generally on the basis of ? a) Post Dated Cheques b) Standing Instructions c) Equated Monthly Installment d) None of these 89. Certain documents like Will, Mortgages (other EMs) are to be witnessed by a) 3 persons b) 2 persons c) 1 person d) None of these 90. Credit Information Report is used for assessment of borrower’s ? a) Past payment behaviour b) Current capability to service the loan c) Both of the above d) None of these 91. Credit Information Companies in India other than CIBIL ? a) Equifax Credit Information Services Pvt. Ltd. b) Experian Credit Information c) Highmark Credit Information Services Pvt. Ltd d) All of these 92. Take over in respect of PER Segment loans is restricted to ? a) Housing Loans b) Car Loans c) Both of the above d) None of these 93. During Pre-Sanction a visit has to be made to ? a) Residence of the Borrower/ guarantor b) Work place of the Borrower/ guaranter c) Actual site/ Builder in case of HL d) All of these 94. Penal Interest should not be charged for loans upto a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/- c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) None of these Page | 236 ANSWER KEY 1 B 11 c 21 a 31 d 41 c 51 b 61 b 71 c 81 c 91 d 2 c 12 c 22 d 32 a 42 d 52 b 62 a 72 b 82 b 92 c 3 D 13 c 23 d 33 a 43 b 53 b 63 c 73 b 83 d 93 d 4 D 14 a 24 b 34 a 44 d 54 b 64 b 74 d 84 c 94 b 5 D 15 b 25 a 35 d 45 d 55 a 65 c 75 b 85 c 6 B 16 b 26 d 36 d 46 d 56 b 66 b 76 d 86 b 7 b 17 c 27 a 37 c 47 d 57 c 67 a 77 a 87 a 8 c 18 d 28 d 38 a 48 d 58 b 68 d 78 b 88 c 9 d 19 d 29 b 39 d 49 d 59 a 69 b 79 a 89 b 10 a 20 d 30 d 40 b 50 b 60 b 70 c 80 a 90 c Page | 237 AGRICULTURE Compiled By Sh. Upinder Singh, Chief Manager (Learning) 1. Maximum limit under KCC is ----- Lakhs a) 15 b) 20 c) 75 d) No Limit 2. According to Ministry of Water Resources, What is the bench mark percentage for exploitation of ground water in respect of white area for irrigation purpose a) Less than 90% b) Less than 70% c) Less than 80% d) Less than 65% 3. D.C.B register is to be prepared for which segment ? a) P-segment b) SME-segment c) Agri-segment d) International Banking 4. D.C.B register is to be prepared as on what date every year? a) 31st May b) 30th April c) 30th June d) 31st July 5. Which of the following is one of SBI’S initiatives under “Bonding with Farmers” a) Apka Gaon b) Hamara Gaon c) SBI Ka Apna Gaon d) Apna Gaon 6. SHG financing is based on which committee ? a) Kalia Committee b) Narasimham Committee c) Ghosh Committee d) Rangarajan Committee 7. What is the Land Holding criteria for Small Farmer ? a) 2.5 acres of Wet land and 4 of acres of dry land b) 2.5 acres of wet land and 5 acres dry land c) 4 acres of wet land and 2.5 acres of dry land d) None of the above 8. The Document AB 3 refers to what in agriculture advances ? a) Hypothecation Agreement b) Gurantee Agreement c) Simple Hypothecation agreement d) Mortgage Deed Page | 238 9. Which Document is to be obtained from the Agriculture Borrower at the time of conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan a) AB 1 b) AB 7 c) AB 5 d) AB 6 10. What is the validity of KCC Card as per the revised KCC Scheme guidelines a) 4 Years b) 6 years c) 2 Years d) 5 Years 11. As per the revised KCC scheme the limit will be stepped up by ----% for every successive year(2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th year) a) 10% b) 20% c) 15% d) 25% 12. Under the KCC Scheme, consumption expenses can be included in the over all limit to a maximum extent of ----% of the original limit a) 10% b) 20% c) 15% d) 25% 13. Processing Charges are waived upto what limit in KCC scheme ? a) 2 lac b) 1lac c) 3 lac d) 5 lac 14. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme to KCC Borrowers can be covered upto Maximum Age ? a) 70 Year b) 72 Years c) 75 Years d) 65 Years 15. Under PAIS to KCC Borrowers what is the ratio of fee borne by Bank and Borrower a) 1:2 b) 3:1 c) 1:3 d) 2:1 16. What is the maximum coverage to a KCC Borrower under PAIS, who died due to accident ? a) 50000/- b) 25000/- c) 75000/- d) 100000/- 17. What is the maximum premium to be paid by a KCC Borrower under PAIS a) Rs.5/- b) Rs.15/- c) Rs.10/- d) None of these Page | 239 18. Interest on overdue crop loan/term loan should be charged at ______intervals a) monthly b) quarterly c) half yearly d) yearly 19. In case of Gold Loan service charges of the local jeweller verifying purity of gold is to be born by? a) Branch b) Borrower c) Both in the ratio of 50 :50 d) For loan more than 50000/- charges are to be born by the beneficiary 20 Crop loan is secured by ______of standing crop? a) Pledge b) Lien c) Hypothecation d) Mortgage 21 In case of finance to weaker section in Agriculture segment, cost of photograph is to be born by ? a) Borrower b) Bank c) both in the ratio of 50: 50 d) Photo not required 22 Obtaining revival letters in agri segment is dispensed with, in case of _____which are repaid regularly and are standard assets? a) KCC b) ATL c) Both a and b d) Agri Gold Loan 23. What is the maximum amount of advance that can be sanctioned under Produce Marketing Loan Scheme ? a) Rs.10 lacs b) Rs. 50 lacs c) Rs.30 lacs d) Rs.15 lacs 24. What is the margin applicable for loans under PML Scheme ? a) 40% b) 5% c) 10% d) 15% 25. What is the maximum repayment period in respect of Term Loans for Power Tillers ? a) 7 years b) 9 years with one year gestation period c) 5 years d) 8 years Page | 240 26. APEDA means ? a) Allied agri products export development agency b) Agri and processed food products export development authority c) Agri and processed food products export dev. Agency d) None of the above 27. As per the Supreme Court ruling, no advance should be granted to ------type of agricultural activity a) Sericulture b) Advances for cold storages c) Pisci culture d) Brackish Water Aquaculture 28. MPEDA stands for a) Marine Products Export Development Authority b) Multy purpose employment dev. agency c) Marine pissiculture export dev. Agency d) None of the above 29. In KCC, what is the repayment due date for Rabi Crop (Mono cropping) ? a) 31st July b) 30th June c) 31st May d) 30th April 30. In KCC, what is the repayment due date for Kharif Crop (mono cropping)? a) 31st January b) 31st December c) 30th November d) 31st March 31. What is the minimum land holding should a borrower possess to become eligible for finance under New Tractor Loan Scheme ? a) 4 Acre b) 2 Acre c) 1.5 Acre d) 1 Acre 32. What is the maximum repayment period under New Tractor Loan Scheme. a) 5 years b) 9 years c) 7 years d) 6 years 33. What is the maximum limit/limits for waiver of collateral security as per the revised KCC Scheme ? a) 3 lacs b) 1 lac c) 2 lacs d) 1 lacs and 3 lacs with tie-up arrangement 34. What is the minimum land criteria for financing a self propelled Combine Harvestor ? a) 8 Acres Irrigated land b) 6 Acres Irrigated land c) 4 Acres Irrigated land d) 2 Acres Irrigated land Page | 241 35. What is the minimum land criteria for financing a Combine Harvestor as an attachment/equipment ? a) 8 Acres Irrigated land b) 6 Acres Irrigated land c) 4 Acres Irrigated land d) 2 Acres Irrigated land 36. Which type of Alternate Channel product is being provided to KCC Borrower? a) State Bank Gift Card b) Green Remit Card c) State Bank Kisan Card d) State Bank Credit Card 37. In KCC, in case of non-repayment on due dates , interest will be applied at ______, compounded at half yearly interest. a) 2 % higher b) 3 % higher c) 1 % higher d) card rate 38. RBI has directed the banks that the shortfall in Agricultural credit of 18% and shortfall in priority sector lending target of 40% should be invested in a) RBI b) RIDF c) PM's Relief Fund d) Agriculture Development Fund 39. What is the Bank's reward and recognition scheme to reward the officers who have excelled in Agri Business a) The Achiever Award b) Green Channel Program for excellence c) The Gold Crown d) The Silver Crown 40. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed to a Dairy unit under Dairy Plus Scheme ? a) 5 lacs b) 2 lacs c) 3 lacs d) 10 lacs 41. What is the maximum repayment period for a term loan in Dairy Plus ? a) 7 years b) 5 years with gestation period of 6 months c) 3 years d) 4 years 42. What should be maximum age for a borrower to get a finance under Dairy Plus ? a) Below 65 years b) Below 70 years c) Below 60 years d) No age limit Page | 242 43. For a big dairy unit of 10 animals and above applicant should own ----- acres of land a) 1.5 acre b) 2 acre c) 1 acre for every 5 animals d) None of the above 44. As per RBI guidelines, additional interest subvention @____will be paid to the farmer only if he/she repays the loan before due date? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1 45. What is the minimum DSCR to sanction a loan under dairy plus scheme ? a) 2:1 b) 1.75:1 c) 2.5:1 d) None of the above 46. What is the maximum loan amount under SHG finance? a) 10 times the corpus or savings b) 8 times the corpus or savings c) 6 times the corpus/savings d) 4 times the corpus or savings 47. Risk weightage on loans upto 1.00 lac against gold and silver ornaments? a) 150% b) 50% c) 100% d) 60% 48. With a view to mitigate the inconvenience to the borrowers RBI has dispensed with obtaining No dues Certificate from applicant requiring loan limit up to – a) Rs.50000/- b) Rs.10000/- c) Rs.25000/- d) Rs.100000/- 49. Crop insurance is required to be done compulsorily for ----- a) Compulsory for all crops b) Not compulsory c) Compulsory for all notified crops d) Only Small and Marginal Farmer crops 50. SHG is a voluntary association of ------persons with common interest to improve their economic and social status. ? a) 10-20 b) 10-25 c) 20-30 d) No limit Page | 243 51. Maximum Credit Limit permissible to an SHG under SHG Credit Card Scheme? a) 4 times the corpus of SHG, which includes its saving, interest earned on internal lending and revolving fund if any b) 5 times the corpus of SHG, which includes its saving, interest earned on internal lending and revolving fund if any c) 6 times the corpus of SHG, which includes its saving, interest earned on internal lending and revolving fund if any d) Rs. 500000/- 52. AB1 (simple) is applicable to farmers sanctioned with a loan of Rs.______? a) 25000 b) 50000 c) 100000 d) 10000 53. What is the crop season period for short duration crops? a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 24 months d) 18 months 54. What is the crop season period for long duration crops? a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 24 months d) depends upon state to state 55. What is the minimum land holding criteria for financing tractor up to 35 horse power is a) 2 acres of perennially irrigated land b) 6 acres of perennially irrigated land c) 4 acres of perennially irrigated land d) 8 acres of perennially irrigated land 56. What is the minimum hours of work per annum required to get finance under Tractor Loan Scheme ? a) 600 hours b) 800 hours c) 1000 hours d) 500 hours 57. Instead of obtaining No dues Certificate a self declaration is to be obtained from small and marginal farmers for a loan up to _____.? a) Rs. 150000/- b) Rs.50000/- c) Rs. 25000/ d) Rs.10000/- 58. Swaran dhara compaign relates to ? a) Sprinkler irrigation b) Agri Gold Loan c) Dairy units d) None of the above Page | 244 59. What is the periodicity for inspection of a Irregular Tractor Loan account a) Quarterly b) Half Yearly c) Monthly d) Annually 60. In case of loan above Rs. ______branches other than Chennai circle should get the gold ornaments assayed by a local jeweller for their genuineness. a) 25000 b) 100000 c) 50000 d) 200000 61. ______is responsible for fineness, purity and weight of gold ornaments ? a) Field officer b) Accountant c) Cash Officer d) Branch Manager 62. Against ornaments made of which metal loan can be sanctioned? a) Gold b) silver c) Brass d) both a and b e) a, b and c 63. ______has to be considered for the purpose of fixing collateral security requirement. a) MDL b) MPL c) eiher a or b d) None of the above 64. Brown revolution relates to______. a) Cocoa production b) Rubber production c) Wheat producton d) Paddy production 65. In the revised scoring model maximum no. of marks are given to which parameter ? a) Hiring Potential b) Social Status c) Cropping Pattern d) Perennial Source of Irrgiation 66. Financing of both Working Capital and Term Loan simultaneously is called as? a) Loan Syndication b) Composite Loan c) Combined Loan d) Loan Syndication 67. While financing for crop production in Agriculture the amount of finance per acre is called as ? a) Working Capital Finance b) Crop Finance c) Scale of Finance d) None of the above Page | 245 68. Scale of Finance i.e., amount we sanction per acre under KCC is decided by a) NABARAD b) RBI c) AGM of the Region d) DLTC 69. The limit in KCC depends on the following a) Farmer, Area, Crop b) Farmer, Security, c) Operational Land Holding, Croping pattern d) None of the above 70. In KCC consumption credit is calculated on the following a) Crop Production Limits b) Total Limit Sanctioned c) On allied production needs d) On total production needs 71. In KCC upto ------limit no collateral security is obtained ? a) 0.50 lac b) 1.00 lac c) 2.00 lac d) 3.00 lac 72. The Primary Security in case of KCC is a) Hypothecation of Standing crops b) D P Note c) Charge on Land d) Mortgage of Land 73. Under New Tractor loan product TATKAL minimum land holding is? a) 2 acre b) 3 acre c) 4 acre d) 5 acre 74. What is the minimum credit score for sanction under New Tractor loan product TATKAL. a) 55 and above b) 60 and above c) 50 and above d) 61 and above 75. KCC is sanctioned for the following purposes a) Crop production needs b) Maintenance expenses of farm assets c) Crop/Asset Insurance d) All the above 76. In contract Farming with the Tie Up Arrangement obtention of collateral security in KCC is waived upto Rs.------a) 2 lacs b) 1 lac c) 3 lacs d) 5 lacs Page | 246 77. In Agricultural Term Loans, collateral is waived upto a limit of Rs. a) 5 lac b) 3 lac c) 2 lac d) 1lac 78. In Agriculture Term Loans where movable assets are not created out of bank finance what is the limit above which collateral security is obtained ? a) 1 lac b) 0.20 lac c) 0.50 lac d) 2.00 lac 79. Letter to the borrower demanding repayment of crop loan is sent in a) AB1 b) AB4 c) AB6 d) AB7 80. What is the penal interest to be charged from the borrower if the vehicle is not registered within one month from the date of delivery under SSTL.? a) 1% for the period of default b) 2% for the period of default c) 1.5% for the period of default d) 0.5% for the period of default 81. The corpus fund in SHG does not include the following ? a) Cash in Hand b) Bank Loan c) Cash in their Savings Account d) Internal Loan outstanding with the borrowers 82. Government of India is providing Interest Subvention to Short term agriculture advances to a) Only commercial banks b) Commercial banks, RRBs c) Commercial Banks, RRBs, and Cooperative Banks d) None of the above. 83. In Agriculture Cash Credit interest @7% is charged upto a limit of Rs a) 1 lakh b) 3 lakh c) 5 lakh d) 2 lakh 84. RIDF stands for a) Rural India Development Fund b) Rural Integrated Deposit Fund c) Rural Industrial Development Fund d) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund Page | 247 85. NABARD prepares ------plan taking into consideration the potentials available in the district before preparing the annual credit plan ? a) Potential Credit Plan b) Annual Credit Plan c) Service Area Credit Plan d) Potential Linked Credit Plan 86 Crop insurance is applicable to which crops ? a) All crops b) Cereals only c) Pulses d) All notified crops decided by GOI for each district and for each season 87 What is the maximum repayment period under SSTL without collateral security? a) 48 EMI with 1 month moratorium b) 60 EMI with 1 month moratorium c) 36 EMI with 2 month moratorium d) 36 EMI with 1 month moratorium 88 Minimum loan amount under SBI Agri Asset Backed Loan? a) 3 lac b) 4 lac c) 5 lac d) 6 lac 89 Inspection charges for advances to weaker sections ? a) No charges b) 25% of actual charges c) 75% actual charges d) 50% of actual charges 90. Under Stree Shakti Tractor Loan Scheme, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed ? a) 50% b) 60% c) 40 % d) 55% 91 “Trail Netting” techniques is employed in______. a) Pisciculture b) Tissue culture c) Moriculture d) Dairy finance 92. Apiculture is______cultivation. a) Bee keeping b) Mushroom c) Mulbery d) None of these. 93. Demand Collection Balance Register is maintained for a) CC & ACC accounts b) KCC Accounts c) ATL Accounts d) ACC/KCC/ATL accounts Page | 248 94. What is meant by mixed farming ? a) Growing more than 1 crop b) Growing crops on community basis c) Growing crops and allied d) None of the above activities 95. In Agriculture, Document AB 6 refers to a) Revival Letter - borrower b) Revival Letter Gurantor c) Guarantee Deed d) Notice sent to Borrower by Bank if the loan not repaid on due date 96. Broiler farming means______a) Rearing of layers b) Rearing of ducks c) Poultry farming for meat d) Meat. 97 Annewari indicates a) Cropping pattern b) Rainfall c ) Land Cess d) The extent to which crops damaged 98 What does AB 4 refer to ? a) Notice to Borrower b) Notice to Guarnator c) Revival Letter - Borrower d) Revival Letter – Guarantor 99. For eligible under Stree Shakti Tractor Loan Scheme, the net annual income of the borrower should be ? a) 2.00 lac b) 1.00 lac c) 1.5 lac d) 3.00 lac 100. What is the full form of PMEGP ? a) Prime Ministers Education generation programme b) Prime Ministers Environment Guarantee Proramme c) Prime Ministers Employment generation programme d) None of these Page | 249 ANSWER KEY 1 d 13 b 25 b 37 d 49 c 61 c 73 a 85 d 97 d 2 b 14 a 26 b 38 b 50 a 62 d 74 d 86 d 98 c 3 c 15 d 27 d 39 b 51 a 63 b 75 d 87 d 99 c 4 c 16 a 28 a 40 a 52 c 64 a 76 c 88 a 100 c 5 c 17 a 29 a 41 b 53 a 65 b 77 d 89 a 6 a 18 c 30 a 42 a 54 b 66 b 78 a 90 b 7 b 19 b 31 b 43 c 55 c 67 c 79 c 91 a 8 d 20 c 32 a 44 b 56 a 68 d 80 b 92 a 9 b 21 b 33 d 45 b 57 b 69 c 81 b 93 d 10 d 22 b 34 a 46 d 58 b 70 a 82 c 94 c 11 a 23 b 35 b 47 b 59 c 71 b 83 b 95 d 12 b 24 a 36 c 48 a 60 c 72 a 84 d 96 c Page | 250 ESSAY WRITING Compiled by Archana Kachroo,Chief Manager (L) TIPS FOR WRITING ESSAYS The focus of examination would be on comprehension skills and communication skills of the candidate. Comprehension means basically how well you have understood the topic and Communication means how well you could present your understanding of the topic in the form of essay. Suggestions to improve the Comprehension skills By reading English news papers/books/magazines from the angle of preparing an essay on the topic which we read. (Suggested to read Economic Times, The Hindu, , Business line , India Today , and other papers and Magazines like Business India etc ) Structure of Essay An Essay should have • Introduction • Content/ Subject with subheading • Conclusion Essay writing Tips • Select the topic • Make a brain storming of the topic. • Please jot them points in a rough area (Max 5-10 minutes) . • Then structure the points in a systematic way ensuring proper flow and linkages between the points. • Start with brief introduction of the topic • Then put the points, which you have jotted and organized in a systematic way, one by one. • Ensure that all the points you have thought out have come. While writing the essay you may get one or two points more, which also may be incorporated at appropriate place? • Make a meaningful conclusion of the topic. • Ensure that the number of words mark is not crossed and able to complete within the limit. Page | 251 • Ensure hand writing be neat, legible and without any cuttings • The language should be simple, lucid no complex sentences and no jargons. • Please ensure to avoid spelling and grammatical mistakes. • An Essay in simple English with good content and in neat handwriting will fetch a very decent mark and beat the competition • Practice writing essay at daily intervals and improve over it daily. • Please avoid personal (negative) opinions in Essays 1. POLICY ON KYC AND AML MEASURES The primary objective of the Policy is to prevent Banks from being used, intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for money laundering or terrorist financing activities. The purposes proposed to be served by the Policy are: • To prevent criminal elements from using the Bank for money laundering activities. • To enable the Bank to know/understand the customers and their financial dealings better this, in turn, would help the Bank to manage risks prudently. • To put in place appropriate controls for detection and reporting of suspicious activities in accordance with applicable laws/laid down procedures. • To comply with applicable laws and regulatory guidelines. • To ensure that the concerned staff are adequately trained in KYC/AML/CFT procedures RBI has been issuing guidelines in regard to Know Your Customer (KYC) standards to be followed by banks and measures to be taken in regard to Anti Money Laundering (AML) and Combating Financial Terrorism (CFT). This Policy is applicable to all domestic branches/offices of the Bank. Non compliance with KYC standards, use of the portals of the Bank for Money Laundering/financing terrorism activities expose the Bank to various risks, such as Operational Risk, Reputation Risk, Compliance Risk and Legal Risk etc. Key Elements of the KYC Policy 1. Customer Acceptance Policy _Accepting the right Customers 2. Customer Identification Procedures _ Identifying the Customers Page | 252 3. Monitoring of Transactions _ System to monitor the Transactions 4. Risk Management -- Mitigation efforts against the risks Conclusion Our Bank recognizes the need to spread awareness on KYC, Anti Money Laundering measures through Customer education. Special attention is paid to the money laundering threats arising from new or developing technologies and take necessary steps to prevent its misuse for money laundering activities. 2. OPERATIONAL RISKS IN BANKS Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events. It is broadly divided into operational strategic risk and operational failure risk. Operational Strategic risk includes political, taxation, regulation, government and competition. It pertains to the prevailing environmental conditions. Operational failure risk arises out of the failure related to people, process and technology. Operational risk can arise before, during and after a transaction is processed. Operational Risk in Banks • Control Risk: Any unexpected loss which arises due to lack of an appropriate control system. • Process Risk: The risk that occurs due to the business process being inefficient causing unexpected losses. • Reputation Risk: The risk of an unexpected loss in share price or revenue due to the impact on the reputation of the Banks. • Human Resources Risk: The hiring procedure and the termination procedure should be foolproof to ensure that the Banks does not face any unexpected loss. • Legal Risk: The risk of suffering legal claims due to product liability or employee action. • Takeover Risk: It is highly strategic but can be controlled by making it uneconomical for a predator to take over the Banks. Page | 253 • Marketing Risk: The product may fail due to wrong marketing strategy. • Technology Risk: New developments that may take place in the technology front making the older technology redundant. • Tax Changes: If tax changes are made, particularly with retrospective effect. • Regulatory Changes: Example, Charge in terms of risk weighted assets • Business Capacity: Existing capacity not supporting a growing business, • Project Risk: Project failure including delay in execution • Security: The Banks’ assets need to be secured from both external and internal theft. • Supplier Management Risk: If the business is exposed to the performance of third parties, • Natural Catastrophe Risk: Risk of the Banks is likely to be affected by flood, earthquake or any other natural disaster. • Man-made and Catastrophe Risks: If the Banks is situated near defence installation, prison, airport or nuclear plant, then this type of risk is expected. It also includes possible terrorist threat to such types of establishments. • Technology Issues in Banks: Due to increasing dependency on technology, the chances of IT related operational risks have increased. Conclusion The future and profitability of Banks will be determined by the extent to which banks allocate capital to market, credit and business strategic risks. Now there is increasing focus on operational risk aspect is being given as this may cause liquidation of some banks if timely action is not taken. Awareness of operational risk among Staff has to be created so as to mitigate the risk factors. 3. WOMEN EMPOWERMENT Women are one of the beautiful creations of God on the earth. Without them men cannot move forward. For every successful man a woman will be there. Page | 254 Women all over the world feel that they have been shamed and blamed since child hood. They have been programmed by their parents and by the society to think and behave in a certain way-to be women, with all the rules, regulations, and frustrations that come with being a woman. For so long, women have been totally subjected to the whims and belief systems of men. From their child hood women have been taught how to behave with men and to show complete obedience to men, so she accepted abuse as normal. They have been accepting and repeating the behaviours and beliefs of their parents. Some of the incidents, how women have been programmed in the past are; The women should have the dinner ready, prepare herself, i.e., makeup for looking good, for men, clear away the clutter in the house, prepare children how to behave with the husband when he comes fully tired, minimize all noise on his arrival, some don’ts like narrating problems immediately, listen to him, make the evening his etc. Women should change their inner belief system. By conscious efforts women have to create self-worth and self-esteem. These two are the most important things a woman can possess. If they do not have these qualities, then they need to develop them. When self-worth is strong, they will not accept positions of inferiority and abuse. They are dominated only because they accept and believe that they are “no good” or worthless. Women are treated as second class citizens by the society and even the television advertisement agencies en-cash the negative beliefs created by women for themselves and some created by the society to target the self esteem of women. When women learn to take care of themselves in a positive way, to have self – respect and self-worth, life for all human beings, including men, will a quantum jump in the right direction. There will be respect and love between sexes, and both men and women will honor each other. Women should be encouraged in politics so that they can shape the laws and governments, supportive to them without downgrading men. Every woman has to generate positive thoughts and beliefs by knowing their subconscious negative beliefs. For that they have to take a piece of white paper and jot down what are their beliefs about- Men, women, myself, relationships, commitment, marriage, family, Page | 255 children, work, money, prosperity, investments, health, aging and death. They have to again take white paper for each of them and check whether they are negative beliefs and are affecting them. They have to work on them and practice to turn them into positive beliefs and thoughts to overcome fear and improve self esteem. Some guidelines useful for women are as follows: Stop criticism, Don’t scare themselves, Being committed to the relationship they have with themselves, treating themselves as thought they are loved, Feel healthy and take care of their body, educate themselves, build a financial future for themselves, fulfill their creative side, make joy and happiness the centre of their world, have integrity; keeping their word and finally develop a strong spiritual connection with life. A part from all the above they should do parenting of children. Women should not accept harassment submissively; they have to speak out against sexual harassment. A part of the things to be taken care by youth, on to help the older women to have honor in the world. They have to experience self-love, self-worth, self-esteem, and have a powerful place in the society as they grow older. There should be equality between both the youth and old implementing the above ideas and increase the quality of life. Apart from all the above it is important for women to build a financially secure future so as to live on her own legs, even in cases of divorce or becoming a widow. She says that women should not be worried about the partner of life. Even though she doesn’t get a good partner she can financially live on her own. There are many more to achieve in life with self-worth and self-esteem. It is concluded by saying that all the problems fall under only four categories of life: Love, health, prosperity and self expression. Though the problem looks overwhelming, one needs to clean up only four areas. Love is one of the important part of all the four. When one loves themselves, it is easy to love others and for others to love them. This, in turn, improves one’s relationships and their work conditions. Loving themselves is the key ingredient for good health. Love for self and love for life connects one with the prosperity of the Universe. Self love creates self-expression and allows one to be creative in deeply fulfilling ways. Page | 256 4. INTERNET OF THINGS (IoT) What future truly holds is always within our sight and we just have to look more closely. Cisco forecast says that by 2020 there will be over 50 billion internet connected devices. In future, the relationships will be between people-people, people-things, and things-things. Imagine the world where millions and millions of objects can sense, communicate and share information; all being interconnected by public and private networks. These interconnected devices gather data regularly, analyze them and take actions while providing a wealth of intelligence for planning, management and decision-making. The IoT concept was coined by a member of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) development community in 1999. IoT is the network of physical objects—devices, vehicles, buildings and other items which are embedded with electronics, software, sensors and network connectivity, which enables these objects to collect and exchange data. Few popular connected devices already available in the market are Activity Trackers, Smart Outlets, Parking Sensors and Smart Thermostats, mobile devices, embedded communications, cloud computing and data analytics. IoT is expected to spread rapidly over coming years and this advancement will unleash a new dimension of services for the betterment of society that improves quality of life of consumers, increases the productivity of enterprises by unlocking new opportunities. These connected devices are Always, Anywhere and Anytime (3A’s of IoT) connected with each other and send information and data that can be processed over a cloud to generate meaningful analytical results. These small devices are called the “Thing” of IoT and this environment comprises of 3 ingredients called Device, Network and Application also known as DNA of Internet of Thing. To become a “THING” of Internet of Thing, anything should basically qualify following criteria: Page | 257 • It should send some sensory data like temperature, humidity, and pressure etc. • It should have unique identification (like MAC address), so that it will get identified while communicating. • It should communicate with devices similar to itself and Internet gateway as well like Wi-Fi. The future holds new possibilities where “Anything that can be connected will be connected” For example, you are on your way for a meeting and you face a sudden traffic jam. If the traffic is too heavy your car might send a signal to the other party notifying them that you will be late. What if your office equipment is running low on supplies and automatically reorders supplies! What if your alarm after waking you at 6 a. m. notifies your coffee maker and toaster to start brewing coffee and make toast for you! All credit goes to smart devices connected with the help of Internet. However, the application of the IoT is not only restricted to these areas. Based on the application domain, IoT products can be classified broadly into five different categories: smart wearable, smart home, smart city, smart environment, and smart enterprise. Now people make better decisions such as taking the best routes to work. New services can emerge to address society challenges such as remote health monitoring for elderly patients, internet access in rural areas, on demand packaging etc. The vast amount of data which is generated also helps government agencies and organization to improve their efficiency. Data maintenance also helps in better planning, promotes better coordination and faster responses to the problem and its solution. For organizations it may help in tracking the assets, developing new business models and finding new cost saving areas while optimizing the whole processes. 5. SECURITY TIPS FOR ATM USAGE The Bank has been receiving complaints of fraudsters using debit card information, which they source from our customers through phone calls, ATM skimming, photographing the debit card etc., to withdraw Page | 258 cash or purchase items on e-commerce sites. While the facility of restricting debit card usage is available on the Internet Banking platform of the Bank, we have to find a way to provide our customers with a simple but effective solution to curb this menace. While restricting debit card usage would reduce the chances of misuse, customers are advised not to share their card details and PIN number with anyone, not even with Bank officials. Change the PIN to one that can be easily remembered but is difficult for others to guess. When using at restaurants, supermarkets etc, never let the card go out of sight. When using the card at an ATM, make sure to cover the view of the PIN pad with one hand while entering the PIN with the other. Always keep the mobile number, email ID and other contact details updated with the Bank for alerts on transactions that happen on the account. The Bank has also started sending messages to a few customers who have not used their ATM cards for online transactions for more than a year as a precautionary measure as below- Your debit card ending with xx6316 has been deactivated only for internet transactions. To activate this send sms "SWON ECOM 6316" to 09223966666 No change for ATM/POS usage." The customer has to send SMS from his registered mobile number that is linked to his account for switching on the service for his ATM card.This facility is also available in SBI Quick – Missed Call Banking which involves Banking by giving Missed Call or sending an SMS with pre-defined keywords to pre-defined mobile numbers. SBI Quick App can be downloaded from respective App store for Android, Windows, iOS or Blackberry phones. Internet connection is not necessary for using this App. Blocking of ATM Card You can block the ATM Card linked to the registered account in case of loss / theft. Send a SMS ‘BLOCK (space) XXXX’ to 567676 (XXXX represents last 4 digit of the card number). Page | 259 On acceptance of the request for blocking, you will get a confirmatory SMS alert that contains the ticket number, date and time of blocking. Note that ATM Card can also be blocked through the following means: · By calling State Bank Contact Centre. · By visiting any nearest State Bank Branch · By logging on to OnlineSBI (only for personal segment customers). “SBI Quick: SMS and Missed Call banking” service can also be used to activate/deactivate usage of the debit card on the following locations/platforms:ATM, Point of Sale (POS), E-commerce websites, International Usage, Domestic Usage. ATM Card Usage Configuration You can now control your ATM Card channel of usage by sending an SMS from your registered mobile number. You can choose to activate/deactivate usage at ATM, POS, E-Commerce, International and Domestic Usage with SBI Quick SMS service Send an SMS ‘SWON/ SWOFF ATM/ POS/ ECOM/ INTL/ DOM XXXX’ to 09223966666 (XXXX represents last 4 digit of the card number). e.g. SWON POS 1234 to activate POS usage SWOFF INTL 1234 to deactivate International usage On acceptance of the request for activation/deactivation, you will get a confirmatory SMS alert that contains the reference number, date and time of request. ATM Card usage can also be controlled through the following means: · Through the State Bank Anywhere Personal mobile app. · By logging on to OnlineSBI (only for personal segment customers). 6. BANKING CODES AND STANDARDS BOARD OF INDIA (BCSBI) The BCSBI is an independent banking industry watchdog to ensure that the consumers of banking services get what they are promised by the banks. As on date, 69 commercial banks are its members, which Page | 260 include all the major private/ foreign/ public sector banks. The membership is voluntary, but once a bank becomes a member, the codes released by BCSBI are obligatory on it. The BCSBI evolved the Code of Bank’s Commitment to Customers first in July 2006, which was revised in August 2009. The revised code is applicable to: 1. All deposit accounts. 2. Payment services such as pension, payment orders, demand drafts, electronic transactions, etc. 3. Government transactions. 4. Indian currency notes exchange facility. 5. Collection of cheques, safe custody services, safe deposit locker facility 6. Loans, overdrafts and guarantees. 7. Foreign exchange services including money changing. 8. Card products, e.g., credit cards, debits cards, ATM cards, smart cards and services, etc. The commitments of member banks under the code are well defined. All the staff members should know them and guide the customers. Some key commitments: To help customer to understand how financial products and services work by: 1. Giving information about them in any one or more of the following languages – Hindi, English, appropriate local language. 2. Ensuring that advertising and promotional literature is clear and not misleading. 3. Ensuring that clear information is given to customers about bank’s products and services, the terms and conditions and the interest rates/service charges, which apply to them. 4. Giving information on the benefits available to the customer, how customers can avail of the benefits, what are their financial implications and whom they can contact for addressing their queries. Page | 261 To help customer use his/her account or service by: 1. Providing him/her regular appropriate updates. 2. Keeping customer informed about changes in the interest rates, charges or terms and conditions. 3. Displaying in the branches (i) Services provided, (ii) Minimum balance for SB accounts and No-frills accounts and charges for non-maintenance thereof, (iii) Name and address of the official at the branch/Zonal/Regional Office/Banking Ombudsman to redress grievance. 4. Displaying on the bank website its policies on Cheque Collection, Grievance Redressal, Compensation, Collection of Dues and Security Repossession. To deal quickly and sympathetically with things that goes wrong by: 1. Correcting mistakes promptly and cancelling any bank charges that were applied by mistake. 2. Handling customer complaints promptly. 3. Telling customer how to take his complaint forward if he is not satisfied. 4. Providing alternatives to alleviate problems arising out of technological failures. 5. To treat personal information of customers as private and confidential except in the case of legal requirement, public interest, etc. 6. To adopt and practice a non-discrimination policy on the basis of age, race, gender, marital status, religion or disability. This Code has been adopted by SBI in the name of ‘Citizen’s charter’ Page | 262 7. HOW TO IMPROVE CUSTOMER SERVICE There is always scope to improve the customer service as the customers are the raw material for banking industry. The following points will help us to serve better. 1. Feel Responsible with Ownership: A positive attitude for looking at things, taking ownership for any situation in the Bank can change the state of customer service dramatically. Make sure you introduce yourself, find out the customer’s name, and let your customer know your position and why you are there. This lets the customer know you are taking responsibility for finding a solution. You can give a personal assurance to the customer as a solution provider. Customer’s name is very dear to him always spell it correctly. If possible, use the customer’s name throughout the conversation. 2. Sincerely Smile A smile should convey that, “I want to help you.” Nothing can turn a hostile situation into positive moment faster than a sincere smile. It communicates that you are positive about the interaction with the customer. A sincere smile makes the communication process comfortable so that you can find the solution faster. . 3. Acknowledge customer’s presence immediately and Listen Patiently An eye contact, a simple nod or a body gesture can also communicate to the customer that his presence is acknowledged if at all I am busy doing other work or attending other customer. Customers want tell their side of the story and they feel that they are not only being heard but that you listened to them as well . Mentally take a step back and dedicate yourself to actively listening to the customer’s story with an open mind so that you can find a solution. 4. Be Sorry for the Right Reasons Do not take things casually and make repeated mistakes. A mistake for any reason has to be accepted sincerely and promptly. Please Page | 263 remember that saying sorry in a right manner makes you a stronger person. This sincerity in your concern will relieve the customer form his hostility. Generally most of the complaints in branches get resolved in the Branch Manager’s chamber itself. He does not have a magic wand but he is using this step most of the times. 5. What is Customer’s basic Expectation from us? When we ask ourselves this question the following four items immediately come to our mind: Politeness and Courtesy Promptness in delivery Accuracy Some information These are simple basic things we need to provide. One of the fears that we have when trying to satisfy the customer is that we think they want something out of our reach. Try it. You will be surprised that in most cases the customer will ask for less than you were expecting. Constant updating regarding job knowledge is very important. Usage of KHL (Knowledge Help Line), KMS (Knowledge Management System) and service desk needs to be popularised. 6. Explain and make customer aware about your action plan Make sure the customer knows what you are going to do to correct the situation for them. Ninety-five percent of making things right for the customer involves making them aware that you are taking action to make a difference for them. Explain to them the actions and timelines you need to take to make things right for them. If you need to leave or make a telephone call to obtain additional information tell him/her. Make sure you get back to the customer before the time you specified. If you promised five minutes, get back to the customer before five minutes. Rule of thumb, double the time it would normally take to get the information. If you know it will take ten minutes to get the answer for the customer then tell the customer you will get back to them within twenty minutes. Page | 264 7. Ask for the Business If you did everything right this is the perfect time to ask the customer to buy more products and do business with your organization. You showed that you were professional, caring, sincere, positive, and proactive. It’s important that you let the customer know that you appreciate their business and want them to come back. Remember, if you did everything right, not only will they come back but they will tell other people to do business with you. Use these challenging customer service situations to win back your customers and build your business. One Branch Manager converted a complaining customer to the top customer of his branch by adopting this step. After pleasing him he asked that he had a wish to make him his top customer of his Branch. 8..SUKANYA SAMRIDDHI ACCOUNT -2014 Sukanya Samriddhi account was introduced by the Govt. of India, vide notification no. G.S.R. 863(e) dated 02/12/2014, for the benefit of the girl child. In SBI have started the opening of Sukanya Samriddhi accounts w.e.f. 16/05/2015. The account can be opened at any post office and commercial banks. SALIENT FEATURES Eligibility: SSA may be opened by the natural/legal guardian in the name of a girl child from date of birth till she attains the age of ten years. Any girl child born after 01/12/2003 is eligible, i.e. one year prior to commencement of SSA rules 2014. Natural/Legal guardian may open two accounts in the names of two girl children and third account in case of twin girl at second birth or if first birth results in three girl children. Page | 265 Document: Birth Certificate of the girl child and KYC documents of the Natural/Legal guardian. Deposits: Initial deposit is Rs.1000/- and there after any amount in multiples of Rs100/-subject to minimum deposit of Rs.1000/-and maximum deposit of Rs. 150000/-in a year. Duration: Minimum deposit is mandatory till 14 years from date of opening. Interest: Rate of interest is decided by GOI, presently (2016-17) fixed at 8.6%. Cumulative, compounded yearly till maturity. Withdrawal: Withdrawal is allowed only after the girl child attains 18 years of age. Amount of withdrawal is up to 50% of the balance at the credit at end of preceding financial year. Transfer of A/c: Account is transferable anywhere in India if the girl child in whose name the account stands shifts to a place other than city or locality where the account is maintained. Premature Closure: (i) Untimely death of account holder on production of Death Certificate, (ii) Under extreme compassionate grounds like life threatening diseases or medical exigencies. (iii) Parent or guardian unable to continue the account due to hardships. Maturity: The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from date of opening of account. In case the account continues after maturity/not Page | 266 claimed on maturity, interest at prevailing rate will be payable till final closure. INCOME TAX BENEFITS One of the greatest advantages of SSA is that it is EEE tax exempted. •The investments made in the scheme will be eligible for deduction under section 80C of the Act.(Present Limit Rs 1.50 lacs) •The interest accruing on deposits in such account will be exempt from Income Tax. •The maturity amount received from the said scheme will be also be exempt from tax. SIP should invariably be obtained in all the existing as well as new accounts to ensure a steady source of Government Commission @ Rs50/-per transaction for 14 long years. Page | 267