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MERSENNE PRIMES If N ≥ 2 and an − 1 Is Prime, We Call an − 1 A

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MERSENNE PRIMES If N ≥ 2 and an − 1 Is Prime, We Call an − 1 A MERSENNE PRIMES SARAH MEIKLEJOHN AND STEVEN J. MILLER ABSTRACT. A Mersenne prime is a prime that can be written as 2p ¡1 for some prime p. The first few Mersenne primes are 3, 7 and 31 (corresponding respectively to p = 2, 3 and 5). We give some standard conditions on p which ensure that 2p ¡ 1 is prime, and discussp an application to even perfect numbers. The proof requires us to study the field Z=qZ[ 3], where q 6= 3 is a prime. 1. INTRODUCTION If n ¸ 2 and an ¡ 1 is prime, we call an ¡ 1 a Mersenne prime. For which integers a can an ¡ 1 be prime? We take n ¸ 2 as if n = 1 then a is just one more than a prime. We know, using the geometric series, that an ¡ 1 = (a ¡ 1)(an¡1 + an¡2 + ¢ ¢ ¢ + a + 1): (1) So, a¡1 j an¡1 and therefore an¡1 will be composite unless a¡1 = 1, or equivalently unless a = 2. Thus it suffices to investigate numbers of the form 2n ¡ 1. Further, we need only examine the case of n prime. For assume n is composite, say n = mk. Then 2n = 2mk = (2m)k, and 2n ¡ 1 = (2m)k ¡ 1 = (2m ¡ 1)((2m)k¡1 + (2m)k¡2 + ¢ ¢ ¢ + (2m)2 + 2m + 1): (2) So if n = mk, 2n ¡ 1 always has a factor 2m ¡ 1, and therefore is prime only when 2m ¡ 1 = 1. This immediately reduces to 2m = 2, or simply m = 1. Thus, if n is composite, 2n ¡ 1 is composite. Now we know we are only interested in numbers of the form 2p ¡ 1; if this number is prime then we call it a Mersenne prime. As it turns out, not every number of the form 2p ¡ 1 is prime. For example, 211 ¡ 1 = 2047, which is 23 ¢ 89. 2. STATEMENT OF THE LUCAS-LEHMER TEST p How do we determine which p yield Mp = 2 ¡ 1 prime? An answer is the Lucas- Lehmer test, which states that Mp is prime if and only if Mp j sp¡2, where we recur- sively define ( 4 if i = 0; si = 2 (3) si¡1 ¡ 2 if i 6= 0: We prove one direction of thisp statement, namelyp that if Mp j sp¡2, then Mp is prime. We start by defining u = 2 ¡ 3 and v = 2 + 3. Some immediate properties are ² u + v = 4 = s0; ² uv = 1, implying that (uv)x = uxvx = 1 (so uv to any power equals one). Date: December 4, 2005. 1 2 SARAH MEIKLEJOHN AND STEVEN J. MILLER t(n) t(n) s We will show that sn = u + v , where we have defined t(s) = 2 . We shall see later that this is a useful way to write sn. Two properties of t(s) that we need are ² t(0) = 1; ² t(s + 1) = 2s+1 = 2t(s). t(n) t(n) We prove by induction that sn = u + v . 1 1 Base Case: Clearly the base case is true, as we have already seen that s0 = u +v = 4. t(n) t(n) t(n+1) t(n+1) Inductive Case: Assuming sn = u +v , we must show sn+1 = u +v = 2 sn ¡ 2. To do this, we look at 2 sn+1 = sn ¡ 2 = (ut(n) + vt(n))2 ¡ 2 = u2t(n) + v2t(n) + 2ut(n)vt(n) ¡ 2: (4) But we already know that ut(n)vt(n) = (uv)t(n) = 1 and 2t(n) = t(n + 1), so we have t(n+1) t(n+1) sn+1 = u + v + 2 ¡ 2 = ut(n+1) + vt(n+1); (5) t(n+1) t(n+1) which shows that sn+1 = u + v . 3. PROOF OF THE LUCAS-LEHMER TEST We prove one direction of the Lucas-Lehmer test. Specifically, we prove by contra- diction that if Mpjsp¡2 then Mp is prime. 3.1. Preliminaries. We assume that sp¡2 is divisible by Mp, but that Mp is not prime. By direct calculation we may assume that p > 5. There is therefore an integer R > 1 such that t(p¡2) t(p¡2) sp¡2 = u + v = RMp: (6) If we multiply both sides by ut(p¡2), we obtain t(p¡2) t(p¡2) t(p¡2) t(p¡1) t(p¡2) u ¢ (u + v ) = u + 1 = RMp ¢ u : (7) Subtracting one from each side gives t(p¡1) t(p¡2) u = RMp ¢ u ¡ 1: (8) We square both sides. As (ut(p¡1))2 = ut(p), we obtain that t(p) t(p¡2) 2 u = (RMp ¢ u ¡ 1) : (9) t(p) Note u is not necessarily an integer. p Let us choose some prime factor q > 1 of Mp such that q · Mp, or equivalently so 2 that q · Mpp. Does such a q exist? There is no problem withp assuming q > 1, but what q · M M = bc b c M about p? If p then either or is at most p, for if bothp were larger M q < M thenp the product would exceed p. Note we are not claiming that p, just that q · Mp. We use below the fact that q 6= 3; we need q 6= 3 so that 3 will have a multiplicative inverse in Z=qZ. We are assuming p > 5 (as the other cases can be handled by direct MERSENNE PRIMES 3 computation). Thus we may write p as 4n + a, where n is an integer and a 2 f1; 3g. Thus p Mp = 2 ¡ 1 = 24n+a ¡ 1 = 24n ¢ 2a ¡ 1 = (24)n ¢ 2a ¡ 1 ´ 2a ¡ 1 mod 3; (10) since 24 = 16 ´ 1 mod 3. If a = 1 then 24n+a ¡ 1 ´ 1 mod 3, while if a = 3 then 4n+a 2 ¡ 1 ´ 1 mod 3. Thus 3 does not divide Mp, and we may assume that q 6= 3 below. p The proof is completed by analyzing the order of ut(p) in the field Z=qZ[ 3], where q is a prime dividing Mp. There are two different cases, depending on whether or not 3 is a square modulo q. Note that if 3 is a square modulo q, then this field is actually just Z=qZ. 3.2. 3 is not a square modulo q. We finish the proof in the case that 3 is not a square modulo q. This means that t2 ¡ 3 does not have a root in Z=qZ, or equivalently that t2 ¡ 3 is irreducible in Z=qZ. p © p ª Proof. Consider the ring Z=qZ[ 3] = a + b 3 : a; b 2 Z=qZ ; note there are q2 2 elements,p and q ¡ 1 non-zerop elements. As q 6=p 3 is prime, Z=qZ is ap field. Further, Z=qZ[ 3] is a field as 3 is invertible in Z=qZ[ 3]; the inverse is b 3, where b 2 2 Z=qZ is such that 3b ´ 1 mod q.p More generally, let p(t) = t ¡p3 2 Z=qZ[pt] be the irreducible monic polynomial for 3 over Z=qZ. Given any a+b 3 2 Z=qZ[ 3] with a and b not both zero, consider the linear polynomial g(t) = a + bt. Then p(t) and g(t) are relatively prime (since p(t) is monic and irreducible).p Thusp therep are polynomials such that h1(t)g(t) + h2(t)pp(t) = 1; lettingp t = 3 yieldsph1( 3)g( 3) = 1, so we have found an inverse to g( 3) = a + b 3, proving Z=qZ[ 3] is a field. ¡ p ¢¤ We may study the subset of elements with multiplicative inverses, Z=qZ[ 3] . The 2 order of thisp multiplicative group is q ¡ 1; thus by Lagrange’s theorem every element q2¡1 x 2 Z=qZ[ 3] satisfies x = 1; notep that here by equals 1 we mean with respect to pthe multiplicationp operation of Z=qZ[ 3] (which includes multiplication modulo q and 3 ¢ 3 = 3). From (7), we see that t(p¡1) t(p¡2) u ´ RMp ¢ u ¡ 1 mod q: (11) As qjMp, Mp ´ 0 mod q. Therefore ut(p¡1) ´ ¡1 mod q: (12) Similarly, looking at (9), we see that t(p) t(p¡2) 2 u ´ (RMp ¢ u ¡ 1) mod q; (13) which implies that ut(p) ´ (0 ¡ 1)2 ´ 1 mod q: (14) 4 SARAH MEIKLEJOHN AND STEVEN J. MILLER ¡ p ¢¤ The order of an element g in our multiplicative group Z=qZ[ 3] is the smallest positive k such that gk = 1; we often denote this by ord(g). By Lagrange’s theorem, kjq2 ¡ 1. Further, by (14) we know that ord(u) j t(p). We now show that ord(u) is exactly t(p). From (14) we see that ord(u)jt(p). As t(s) = 2s, if ord(u) 6= t(p) then ord(u)jt(p ¡ 1). But if ord(u) divided t(p ¡ 1) then ut(p¡1) ´ 1 mod q; (15) which contradicts (12). Thus ord(u) = t(p) = 2p. However, since the order of any element is at most the order of the group, we have p 2 p ord(u) = 2 · q ¡ 1 < Mp = 2 ¡ 1; (16) 2 where the second inequality follows from q · Mp. We thus obtain the contradiction 2p < 2p ¡ 1; (17) which proves that Mp is prime. ¤ 3.3. 3 is a square modulo q. We finish the proof in the case that 3 is a square modulo q. This means that t2 ¡ 3 has a root in Z=qZ, or equivalently that t2 ¡ 3 factors into two linear terms in Z=qZ.
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