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Free Modules

Free Modules

Free Modules

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That is we can define free as follows: Definition Let F be an R-module. If F has a nonempty X, then F is a free R-module on the X.

However, some authers consider the zero module a free module as illustrated in the follwing first example.

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Thus Z is free as Z-module and Zn is free as Zn- module. Also Q is a free Q-module.

3. n Z= (n) is free as Z-module. Since X = {n} spans n Z as a Z-module. Also nm = 0 for m Z implies m = 0 as . Hence { n } is a basis for n Z. Thus if A is an infinite cyclic group then A is free as a Z-module.

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6. Consider Q as a Z-module. Let p/q, r/t Q be two distinct elements. Then (q r) (p/q ) + (−p t) (r/t) = 0. Hence { p/q , r/t } is not linearly independent. Hence the only linearly independent subsets of Q are singletons. Thus if Q admits a basis, then Q = < p/q >, which is a contradiction as Q is not cyclic as an Abelian group under addition. Hence Q as a Z-module is not free.

7. Zm for m N is not free as Z-module. Because if a Zm, then ma = 0 , but m ≠ 0 in Z. Thus Zm has no basis elements and hence cannot be free. Thus if A is a finite cyclic group then A cannot be free as a Z-module.

Remark A submodule of a free R-module needs not be a free R-module. For example, Z6 is a free Z6-module, but 2Z6 ={ 0, 2, 4 } is not free as Z6- module since 2(3)=0, but 3 ≠ 0 in Z6 .

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Remark: Note that the basis is not unique since the sets {(1,0), (0,1)} and {(1,1),(1,0)} are two different bases for R2 . One can ask about the cardinality of the different bases for a free module. In the case of free abelian groups (Z-modules) we know that any two bases of a free Z-module have the same cardinality. Unfortunately, this is not true for free modules over arbitrary rings with identity as we will see in the example below. First note that

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However, the following result is satisfied Theorem. Let R be a with identity and F a free R-module with an infinite basis X . Then every basis of F is infinite and has the same cardinality as X. Proof. If Y is another basis of F, then we claim that Y is infinite. Suppose on the contrary that Y were finite. Since Y generates F and every element of Y is a linear combination of a finite number of elements of X, it follows that there is a finite subset{ x1, … , xm }of X, which generates F. Since X is infinite, there exists x X - { x1, … , xm }. Then for some ri R, x = r1 x1, … , rm xm, which contradicts the of X. Therefore, Y is infinite. ( complete the proof, see Hungerford Theorem 2.6. page 184 ).

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