QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - 1998 BOARDS/Revised 2001

DAPE 761 - Dr. Dwight McLeod October 26, 2001 1998 - Boards

1. When would you prescribe an antibiotic in conjunction with periodontal ?

a. Severe b. Localized juvenile periodontitis c. Advanced adult periodontitis d.

2. Polly Pontic is a 50 - year - old female patient who presented with a Class III furcation lesion, on tooth # 3 that communicates with the facial and distopalatal furcations. The distal root showed bone loss approaching the apex of the root. The tooth exhibits no significant mobility and the other remaining roots showed minimal bone loss. The patient showed strong interest in saving the tooth. Which would be the best definitive treatment option?

a. Vital root amputation of the distal root b. Osseous surgery c. Guided tissue regeneration d. Periodontal scaling and root planing

3. Which one (s) of the following antimicrobial agents has (have) been shown to have a substantivity of 12 hours?

a. The essential oils in listerine b. The digluconate in Peridex c. The in Colgate Total toothpaste d. B and C e. All of the above

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4. In performing a incision in a person with drug induced gingival hyperplasia, the tip of the scalpel is held in what direction relative to the base of the pocket?

a. At right angle to the base of the pocket b. Coronal to the base of the pocket c. Apical to the base of the pocket d. None of the above

5. What is the type of incision that is used in the gingivectomy procedure?

a. Bevel incision b. Inverse bevel incision c. Intrasulcular incision d. External bevel incision e. A and D

6. Of the instruments listed below, which one is the most reliable for detecting furcation involvement?

a. EXD 11/12 explorer b. 17/18 curette c. d. Nabor’s furcation probe

7. Which instrument is provided to detect furcation on the basic examination tray that is provided in the treatment planning rotation?

a. Nabor’s furcation probe b. CH 3 explorer c. Periodontal probe d. None of the above

8. Which of the following tissue(s) listed below is (are) included in a partial thickness flap?

a. Periosteum, connective tissue, and epithelium b. Bone, connective tissue, periosteum, and epithelium c. Connective tissue and epithelium d. , periosteum, connective tissue and epithelium

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9. You have been instructed by Dr. Roller to perform limited periodontal surgery on tooth # 19. Upon examining the patient you noticed that on the lingual the tooth probed 7 - 2 - 8 mm and on the facial the tooth probed 6 – 3 – 7 mm. What type of periodontal surgery would you perform?

a. Modified Widman or Gingival Flap b. Osseous surgery including with apically positioned flap c. Connective tissue graft d. Gingival curettage

10. Which inflammatory cell infiltrate predominates the exudate in the acute ?

a. Plasma cells b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Polymorpholeukocytes

11. Studies have shown that this bacteria type predominates the lesions in Localized Juvenile Periodontitis.

a. Actinomyces viscosus b. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans c. Actinobacillus migrans d. Actinomyces juvenilli

12. Tunneling procedure is a surgical procedure that is best reserved for:

a. Maxillary molars. b. Mandibular molars. c. Maxillary first premolars. d. None of the above

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13. Allergic gingivitis is most commonly associated with the use of which of the following agents?

a. Cinnamon flavored chewing gum b. Listerine mouth rinse c. Total - tooth paste d. Hydrogen peroxide

14. Which one of the following teeth listed below would be least likely to be treated with a connective tissue graft?

a. Mandibular premolar b. Maxillary Canine c. Maxillary second molar d. Mandibular central

15. When would you prescribe an antibiotic for a person who has acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

a. When the patient is febrile and has lymphadenopathy* b. When there are severe amount of and inflammation c. When there is cratering of the interdental papilla d. When there are bleeding and foul breath

16. When would you perform a ?

a. When there is 3 mm of keratinized tissue and a probing depth of 7 mm. b. When there is 6 mm of keratinized tissue with 3 mm attached. c. When there is 4 mm of attached tissue and a probing depth of 1 mm. d. When there is 1 mm of keratinized tissue and a probing depth of 3 mm.

17. The best indicator to determine the predictability for success of a periodontal root coverage surgical procedure is:

a. the amount of root exposed. b. the height of the interdental bone. c. the depth of the vestibule. d. the thickness of the adjacent gingiva.

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18. Which procedure will result in the best color match after healing?

a. Free gingival graft b. Connective tissue graft c. Lateral pedicle graft d. A and C

19. What is the term used to describe the condition where there is only one wall of bone remaining in a periodontal defect?

a. Osseous crater b. Hemiseptal defect c. Trough d. Moat defect

20. When would you perform guided tissue regeneration?

a. # 19 that has a Class II furcation with a vertical component and no recession.* b. # 19 that has 5 mm recession, Class II furcation and a vertical component. c. # 19 that has a Class II defect with a horizontal component and no recession. d. # 19 that has 5 mm recession, Class II furcation and a horizontal component.

21. What is the likely cause(s) of a periodontal abscess developing post periodontal scaling and root planing?

a. Gingival shrinkage causing occlusion of the orifice of the sulcus. b. Calculus removed during s/rp becomes embedded in soft tissue. c. The presence of a deep tortuous pocket d. A and B e. A,B,C*

22. Mary Molar presented to your office for an initial examination. Upon examining the patient you got a PSR reading of 4 in all quadrants. What type(s) of radiographs would you recommend that your dental assistant take?

a. Panorex radiographs b. Panorex and bitewing radiographs c. Cephalometric and bitewing radiographs d. Full mouth series radiographs

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23. The type of healing that takes place after a gingivectomy procedure on a person with a diagnosis of drug induced gingival hyperplasia can be best described as:

a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary intention d. None of the above

24. Which one of the periodontopathogens listed below is most commonly associated with adult periodontitis? a. b. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans c. d. Streptococcus intermedius

25. Which statement describes the initiation of ?

a. Coronal proliferation of the b. Coronal proliferation of the gingival epithelium c. Lost of alveolar crestal density d. Apical migration of the junctional epithelium

26. Which of the following procedure(s) listed below has (have) a double blood supply.

a. The Modified ENAP b. The free gingival graft c. The subepithelial connective tissue graft d. A and C e. All of the above

27. Mrs. Dentition presented to your office complaining that “my bite does not feel right because I have discomfort whenever I chew”. Your examination revealed a PSR reading of 4 in all quadrants. You confirmed that the tooth she is complaining of is in traumatic occlusion. Based upon your assessment you would classify the as:

a. primary occlusal traumatism. b. secondary occlusal traumatism. c. tertiary brusxism. d. excessive mobility.

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28. The anterior flaring of teeth that occurs in the presence of advanced periodontitis and especially when there is lost of posterior support is best described as:

a. pathological migration of teeth. b. a normal aging process. c. a psychological phenomenon. d. none of the above

29. is best defined as:

a. the sum of probing depth and bone loss. b. the sum of probing depth and gingival coronal height. c. the sum of probing depth, bone loss and . d. probing depth and gingival recession.

30. When would you most likely consider antibiotic therapy as an adjunctive treatment for a person with a diagnosis of periodontal disease?

a. A person with a diagnosis of adult periodontitis b. A person with a diagnosis of rapidly progressive periodontitis c. A person with a diagnosis of severe gingival hyperplasia d. A person with a diagnosis of progressive gingival recession e. A person with a diagnosis of severe gingival recession

31. Which brushing technique is most effective for removing plaque below the gingival margins?

a. Sulcular method b. Horizontal method c. Roll method d. none of the above

32. is the most prevalent type of gingivitis in childhood. a. Linear gingival erythema b. Eruption gingivitis c. Acute herpetic gingival stomatitis d. Chronic marginal gingivitis

33. The drug Periostat, which is used for treating periodontitis is a form of:

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a. Penicillin. b. Doxycycline. c. Cephalosporin. d. Erythromycin.

34. The efficacy of Periostat is attributed to its ability to:

a. act as a broad spectrum antimicrobial. b. act as a narrow spectrum antimicrobial. c. prevent the release of destructive host enzymes. d. All of the above e. None of the above

35. Which elements are removed during periodontal scaling and root planing?

a. Plaque and calculus b. Diseased cementum and dentin c. Inflamed d. All of the above

36. What is the most common reason for tooth loss among adult patients? a. Trauma b. Advanced periodontitis c. Caries d. Iatrogenic factors

37. When would you perform a mesial wedge? a. When there is mesial drifting of a molar due to loss of a mesial tooth. b. When there is an enlarged interdental papilla. c. When there is subgingival calculus is present. d. When there is a periodontal pocket greater than 5 mm.

38. Which inflammatory cell predominates in established (stage III) gingivitis? a. Eosinophils b. Plasma Cells c. Macrophage d. Merkel cells e. None of the above

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39. What is the main cause of periodontal disease in furcation areas? a. Enamel pearls b. Bacterial plaque c. Enamel projections d. Trauma from occlusion

40. What is the predominant microflora in the periodontal abscess?

a. Primarily Gram negative anaerobic bacteria b. Primarily Gram positive aerobic bacteria c. Yeast and protozoans d. Mixed flora

41. In the sequencing of periodontal and orthodontic therapy, when would you most likely perform pocket reduction surgery?

a. Before the orthodontic therapy is completed. b. After the orthodontic therapy has been completed. c. During the orthodontic therapy. d. None of the above

42. When would you recommend a free gingival graft to be done on a 12-year-old patient who is scheduled for orthodontic therapy?

a. If there is a localized area that has no recession but 4 mm of keratinized tissue. b. If there is an over-all thin . c. If there is thick gingiva and very prominent root eminences. d. If there is a labially positioned tooth with a gingival cleft. e. None of the above

43. At what rate and distance does epithelial migration occur during wound healing?

a. 0.5 mm/day b. 5 mm/day c. 2.5 mm/day d. 7.5 mm/day

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44. A commerical bone graft that has been obtained from another species for use in a periodontal defects is referred to as:

a. allograft. b. xeno graft. c. iso graft. d. autograft.

45. Which one of the following procedures has, as its primary objective, the reduction of existing inflammation?

a. Periodontal scaling and root planing b. Splinting of mobile teeth c. Mucogingival surgery d. All of the above

46. Which tissues comprise the biological width? a. Crestal bone and connective tissue b. Connective tissue and gingiva c. Connective tissue and junctional epithelium d. Crestal bone and junctional epithelium

47. Which immunoglobulin predominates in the gingival crevicular fluid? a. Ig G b. Ig A c. Ig D d. Ig M

48. What is the most likely cause of gingival recession?

a. Malalignment b. Tooth brush abrasion c. Orthodontic treatment d. Traumatic occlusion e. Caries

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49. Splinting is recommended for teeth with progressive mobility. In this circumstance, splinting will improve the prognosis.

a. The first sentence is true and the second statement is false. b. The first sentence is false and the second statement is true. c. Both statements are false. d. Both statements are true.

50. You have performed on tooth # 30. How long should you wait before taking an impression of the supragingival margins that do not require gingival retraction?

a. 4 – 6 weeks depending on the rate of healing. b. 2 – 4 weeks if no osseous recontouring was performed. c. 8 – 10 weeks if osseous recontouring was performed. d. All of the above

51. Which one of the following agents listed below is made from chlorhexidine and is recommended by the manufacturer for local treatment of a periodontal pocket?

a. Periostat b. DMX c. Perio Chip d. Atridox e. None of the above

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